OHST Self Assessment Exam Two
The National Electric Code is published by a. OSHA b. NIOSH c. NFPA d. MSHA
The correct answer is B The National Electric Code is published by the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
According to 40 CFR, generators of hazardous waste must develop all of the following except: a. A written inspections plan b. A written contingency plan c. A written waste analysis plan d. Fire and emergency services onsite
The correct answer is D According to 40 CFR 264 Subpart B, answers A, B and C are required.
Which of the following best describes the greatest single error in colorimetric sampling devices? a. Gel coagulation b. Temperature extremes c. Pump airflow inaccuracy d. Interferences by other contaminants
The correct answer is D Although all the other answers are factors when using colorimetric sampling devices, interferences by other contaminants is by far the largest single error factor when using these samplers.
General or dilution ventilation is appropriate in all of the following except? a. When small quantities of contaminants are released b. The toxicity of contaminants is low c. Air is not drawn through the workers breathing zone d. Corrosion may occur to equipment in the workroom
The correct answer is D Dilution ventilation is generally restricted to the following conditions. Small quantities of contaminant are released into the workplace air and at fairly uniform rates. The work place contaminants to a low level. Dilution air can be discharged to the atmosphere without causing community environmental concerns.
What organization has established the PELs used in industry today? a. MSHA b. ACGIH c. EPA d. OSHA
The correct answer is D OSHA has established the Permissible Exposure Limits in use in today's industrial workplace. TLVs are established by the ACGIH
A temperature of 70 degrees C equals ____________ degrees Kelvin? a. 273 b 373 c. 203 d. 343
The correct answer is D The formula to convert is: tK = tc + 273.16. This answer is given in the Formulae, Equations, Constants and Conversions handout distributed for your use at the OHST exam. The same information is included in the complete guide to th OHST available from the BCSP
The ANSI standard that covers construction hard hats is? a. ANSI Z87.1 b. ANSI B16.4 c. ANSI A12.1 d. ANSI Z89.1
Z87.1 deals will Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection. Z16.1 concerns Uniform Recordkeeping for Occupational Injuries and Illnesses. A12.1 is the standard for Floor and Wall Openings, Railings, and Toeboards. Z89.1 is the authority on Protective headgear for Industrial Workers.
The Celsius scale is the same as the Centigrade temperature scale a. True b. False
The correct answer is A (True) The International System of Units (SI) adopted in April 1964, uses the name Celsius to indicate the temperature designation formerly known and Centigrade.
All of the following are disadvantages of fabric collectors except? a. can be a fire or explosive hazard b. some fabric materials may be hard to clean c. does not work well with moist gas d. has very poor efficiency
Fabric collectors are noted for the efficient removal of particles up to 99% with 0.5 um particles. All of other selection are true - fabric collectors can certainly be a fire or explosive hazard due to the concentrations present, they can be hard to clean and in many applications the major disadvantage is that they do not work well with moist gas.
When using a solid sorbent tube for personal sampling which of the following would be considered the most important? a. Place the tube in the breathing zone b. Spike blanks to check the laboratory QC c. Ship bulk samples in a separate package d. Use plastic caps instead of tape to seal tube at tend of sampling.
The correct answer is A Although all of the other selections are very important in ensuring an accurate and dependable sampling, placement of the tube in the breathing zone is a primary consideration.
All of the following are active environmental, health or safety laws except? a. Clean Air Act b. National Environmental Policy Act c. Safe Drinking Water Act d. Hazardous Transportation Act
The correct answer is D There are a number of Health & Safety Laws on the books today; however the following are of particular interest: Clean Air Act, Clean Water Act, Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act. (Superfund). Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) hazardous Material Transportation Act (HMTA), National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA), Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) Safe Drinking Water Act, Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act 1986 (SARA), Toxic Substances control Act (TSCA) you should become familiar with the basic provisions of these important laws.
Authorized Powered Industrial Truck drivers must be re-evaluated once every: a. Year b. 6 Months c. 2 years d. 3 years.
The correct answer is D Training for powered industrial truck operators, good practice would indicate that refresher training is required periodically. However it is required that operators are evaluated at least every three years.
Which of following is an unacceptable method of protecting an employee from a radiant heat source? a. Reducing the temperature of the infrared source b. Provide infrared shadows c. Reflecting protective equipment d. Increase ventilation
The correct answer is D Ventilation does not control radiant heat
Which of the following chemical equations is balanced? Pbs + 2HCI------> a. PbCI2 + H2S b. Pb2 + H4O4 c. H2S4 d. 4PbS (HCI)
The correct answer is A Lead sulfide plus hydrochloric acids yields chloride and hydrogen sulfide
Once a chemical has been classified, the hazard (s) must be communicated to target audiences. The exhibit pictograms representing which hazard class? a. Carcinogen b. Irritant c. Acute Toxicity d. Environmental Toxicity
The GHS symbols have been incorporated into pictograms for use on the GHS label. Pictograms include the harmonized hazard symbols plus other graphic elements, such as borders, background patterns or colors which are intended to convey specific information. for transport, pictograms will have the background, symbol and colors currently used in the UN Recommendations on the Transport of Dangerous Goods, Model Regulations,. For other sectors, pictograms will have a black symbol on a while background with a red diamond frame. A black frame may be used for shipments within one country. Where a transport pictogram appears, the GHS pictorram for the same hazard should not appear. GHS Pictograms and Hazard Classes: Oxidizers, Flammables, Self Reactives, Pyrophorics, Self-Heating, Emits Flammable Gas, Organic Peroxides, Explosives, Self Reactives, Organic Peroxides, Acute toxicity (Severe), Corrosives, Gases under pressure, Carcinogen, Respiratory Sensitizer, Reproductive toxicity, Target Organ Toxicity, Mutagenicity, Aspiration Toxicity, Environmental Toxicity, Irritant, Dermal Sensitizer, Acute toxicity (Harmful), Narcotic Effect, Respirator Tract, Irritation.
Which of the following professionals is dedicated to the art and science of anticipation, recognition, evaluation and control of those environmental factors in the workplace that may cause sickness, impaired health and wellbeing? a. Industrial Hygienist b. Industrial Toxicologist c. Health Physicist d. Medical Pathologist
The correct answer is A According to the Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene, and Industrial Toxicologist is one who studies the harmful, or toxic properties of substances and determines dose thresholds. An Industrial Hygienist is one devoted to the art and science of anticipation, recognition, evaluation and control of those environmental factors in the workplace that may cause sickness, impaired health and well being. A Health Physicist studies the field of science concerned with radiation physics and radiation biology with the goal of providing technical information and proper techniques regarding the safe use of ionizing radiation. Pathologists are physicians who diagnose and characterize disease in living patients by examining biopsies or bodily fluid. Pathologists may also conduct autopsies to investigate causes of death.
What metal fume hazard may be present when stainless steel is welded? a. Hexavalent chromium b. Lead chromate c. Zinc oxide d. Magnesium oxide
The correct answer is A According to the NSC Accident Prevention Manual for Business and Industry, Since chromium is used in all stainless steel alloys, welding stainless steel can cause fumes of trivalent or hexavalent form of chromium to be released into the welder's breathing zone.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a repetitive motion disease that affect many production workers. Recently efforts to prevent injuries in the red meat industry have met with great success. The symptoms of Carpal tunnel syndrome include all of the following except a. numbness in little finger b. pain in the wrist upon exertion c. pain in the second and third fingers d. inflammation and swelling of the wrist
The correct answer is A Carpal tunnel syndrome involves an injury to the median nerve where the nerve is compressed due to inflammation in the carpal tunnel. The little finger is not served by the median nerve and therefore is not affected.
A motorcycle is traveling at 45 mph. If the driver's reaction time is .75 seconds, how may meters will the vehicle travel between the time the driver sees a problem and actually applies the brakes? a. 15 meters b. 25 meters c. 18 meters d. 50 meters
The correct answer is A Distance = Speed x time MPH X 1.47 = feet per second D=(45x5280/60x60) x .075 = 49.5 or D = 45 x 1.47 x .075 = 49.6 ft Convert to meters 50 ft x 0.3048 = 15.24 meters.
Which of the following is the best description of a Mist? a. Suspension of liquid particles in air b. Suspension of liquid or solid particles in air. c. Solid particle in air formed by condensation d. Particulate material in air.
The correct answer is A Historically there have been questions on the examination concerning the definition of the following. Mist - Suspension of liquid particles in air formed by condensation from vapor or by some mechanical process (40 - 400um) Aersol - Suspension of liquid or solid particles in air Dust - Particulate material generated by a mechanical process (0.5 - 50um) Fume Solid particle aerosol formed by condensation from the vapor state (0.001 - 0.2um) Smoke - aerosol formed from combustion of organic material (0.01 -0.5um)
The tool rest on a grinding wheel should be ______ away from the wheel. a. 1/4 inch b. 1/2 inch c. 1/3 inch d. 1 inch
The correct answer is A Of the choices offered, always keep the tool rest 1/4 inch from the working edge of the wheel is the best answer. However, you will find 1/8 inch as the required distance in most safety literature. As a test strategy, I would answer 1/8 of an inch if that is an option, however, if 1/4 is the lowest number, then select it.
Which of the following electrical devices would most likely contain polychlorinated biphenyl (PCBs)? a. transformers, capacitors, fluorescent light ballasts b. fuses, wiring and meters c. circuit breakers, panel board and unistrut d. Meters, relays and switches
The correct answer is A Polychlorinated biphenyl (PCBs) are found in certain electrical devices such as transformers, capacitors, fluorescent light ballasts, etc. as well as in heat transfer enclosures and investment casting waxes in foundries. In 1978, the EPA under TSCA banned the use of PCBs in light ballasts, transformers and capacitors however it is still possible to find equipment containing PCBs
Which widely circulated loss control and insurance best describes the types of losses that various industries face? a. Best's Loss Control Engineering Manual b. The Grey House Safety and Security Directory c. OSHA 29 CFR 1910 d. Robert's Industry Loss Manual
The correct answer is A The Loss Control Engineering Manual published by A. M. Best Company contains definitions of most industrial types as well as the types of common losses that each class experiences.
Which of the following is the correct title for the accident prevention manual published by the Factory Mutual system? a. Handbook of Industrial Loss Prevention b. Manual of Occupational Safety c. Occupational Safety Handbook d. Industrial Safety Engineering Manual
The correct answer is A The correct title for the FM accident prevention manual is the Handbook of Industrial Loss Prevention.
One of the most important steps in the establishment of a training program is to set sound, obtainable objectives. In which part of the training program development should objectives be established? a. as early as possible b. toward the end of development c. before equipment money is allocated d. when instructors are hired.
The correct answer is A The development and establishment of training objects must by necessity be one of the first steps taken in the development of any training program.
When conducting a fire investigation, the number one area to be determine is? a. Fire ignition sequence b. Response time c. Number of deaths d. Were all building and fire codes followed in construction
The correct answer is A To determine the root cause, you need to determine the fire ignition source and the area of origin.
Which of the following precautions would be the least effective against occupational dermatoses? a. Frequent washing of the face and hands with an organic solvent followed by soap and water b. Use of good housekeeping and frequent washing with soap and water c. Good hygiene practices and use of gloves d. Frequent washing with soap and water and the use of barrier cream
The correct answer is A Washing with solvent is not a recommended practice and has a high probability of creating dermatoses.
You are responding to a confined space where one person has entered and is now presumed dead. Which of the following instruments do you take with you? a. CGI with Oxygen sensor b. IR Spectrometer c. GCMS d. Pitot Tube
The correct answer is A We believe the best instrument would be the Combustible Gas Indicator with Oxygen sensor. This would allow the OHST to rapidly determine the presence or lack of oxygen. Obviously one would not make an entry into an unknown area such as this without appropriate provisions for rescue and a self contained breathing apparatus.
Advanced emergency management planning is the best way to minimize potential loss from natural or human caused disasters and accidents. The primary responsibilities of emergency planning must include all of the following except: a. Establish procedures to prevent the impact of natural disasters b. Provide for the safety of the employees and public c. Protect property and the environment d. Establish methods to restore operations to normal as soon as possible.
The correct answer is A Advanced emergency management planning should include the following and they should be ranked as they are sequenced. Provide for the safety of the employees and the public. Protect property and the environment and establish methods to restore operations to normal as soon as possible
A gas mask is to be used for protection against Carbon Monoxide. What color should the canister be? a. Blue b. Black c. Yellow d. Green
The correct answer is A CONTAMINANT COLOR Ammonia Gas - Green Organic Vapors - Black Carbon Monoxide Gas - Blue Acid Gas and Organic Vapors Yellow.
When discussing the cleaning of plant air in a ventilation system the process that uses carbon to remove contaminants or undesirable odor is known. a. Adsorption b. Absorption c. Combustion d. Condensation
The correct answer is A. All of the processes listed are used in air cleaning of gases and vapors. However the method cited is that of Adsorption. Adsorption involve an action that takes place at the surface of the adsorbent material where gas and solid make contact. The most widely used adsorbent for cleaning air is activated carbon, which most often is placed in canisters, perforated cans or trays. Activated carbon has the ability to adsorb gases and vapors up to 60% of it's own weight. If the carbon is then heated the captured material can then be reclaimed, making it an attractive and cost effective process. Condensation is the process of lowering the temperature of the incoming air to change the vapor to a liquid state. The process uses various chillers, condensers or refrigeration units to lower th temperature of the vapor. Combustion is a process used for removal of gas or vapor if it can be oxidized to a harmless or odor free state. Many times this takes the form of a direct flame afterburner. Catalysts are also used to great effect in pain disposal, animal fats, plastics, etc. Absorption is the process of using a liquid, which dissolves or chemically reacts with the gas or vapor that is to be removed.
Which of the following conversions is not correct? a. 1 ft3 = 1.78 gallons b. 1 m3 = 100 Liters c. 1 gal = 128 oz d. 1 gal = 3.79 Liters
The correct answer is B 1 m3 = 1000 liters
Which of the following ANSI Standards deal with elevators? a. ANSI Z16.1 b. ANSI A17.1 c. ANSI Z87.1 d. ANSI Z89.1
The correct answer is B A17.1 concerns "Elevators, Escalators and Moving Walks" Z89.1 "Protective Headwear for Industrial Workers Z87.1 "Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection Z.16.1 "Method of Recording and Measuring Work Injury Experience
Based on a qualitative fit test, what is the protection factor afforded by a half-mask face piece respirator? a. 1 b. 10 c. 100 d. 1000
The correct answer is B ANSI Z88.2 "Respirator Protection Factors" is to be used for guidance in the selection when complying with OSHA 1910.134 "Respiratory Protection" ANSI Z88.2 establishes some Protection Factors based on Qualitative or Quantitative fit testing. The chart below shows some information on various types of respirators. TYPE OF RESPIRATOR Respirator Protection Factors. Qualitative Quantitative IDLH Particulate-filter, Vapor or gas, quarter or half mask. Includes combination filters. 10 per individual max of 100 NO Particulate-filter Vapor or gas, full face piece. Includes combination filters. 100 Per-individual max of 100 No Powered particulate-filter, vapor or gas. full face piece any respiratory inlet covering. No test required due to positive pressure. Max protection is 3000 with high efficiency filter. No Air-line, demand, quarter or half mask face piece with or without escape provisions. 10 per-individual must be less than IDLH NO Air-line continuous flow or pressure demand type any face piece. Includes helmet, hood, or suit without escape provisions. No test required due to positive pressure. Cannot exceed IDLH concentration
Which is an accepted probabilistic risk assessment methodology used to global workplace environmental regulatory processes for understanding and ranking environmental issues? a. Environmental analysis b. Fault tree analysis c. job safety analysis d. safety and health analysis
The correct answer is B According to author Dev Raheja in Assurance Technologies, Fault tree analysis is a commonly used method for assessing system availability. A system is analyzed in the context of its work environment an actual operation to find all credible ways in which the system can fail
What is the primary reason for safety training? a. improve skills b. behavior change c. keep the training department busy d. comply with federal law
The correct answer is B According to the National Safety Council, the primary reason for safety training is to focus on behavior change.
The pneumoconiosis that is caused by inhalation of iron oxide is called? a. Anthracosis b. Siderosis c. Silicosis d. Silicosiderosis
The correct answer is B Anthracosis is a pneumoconiosis caused by the exposure to coal dust (black lung) Silicosis is a pneumoconiosis caused by the dust of stone, sand or flint containing silica. Siderosis is a lung disease caused by inhalation of iron oxide or other metallic particles. Silicosiderosis is a pneumoconiosis in which the inhaled dust is that of silica and iron
Which of the following does not require an equipment grounding conductor? a. A double revers delta electrical system b. A double insulated hand tool c. A circuit that is protected with circuit breakers d. A system with an wye connected transformer
The correct answer is B Double insulated equipment does not require a grounding conductor because of the extra protection provided by the additional insulation. Double insulation does not provide absolute protection (e.g., a double insulated tool could still cause severe electrical shock if dropped in water).
The ability to accurately read a color-change detector tube or badge depends to a large extent on the ability of the observer and the lighting conditions Which of the following conditions provides the best opportunity for obtaining a precise reading of colorimetric tubes? a. Fluorescent lighting of at least 150 foot candles b. Daylight or incandescent lighting c. Mercury vapor lighting d A 10,000 watt sun gun.
The correct answer is B Exposed detectors should be examined in bright sunlight or with incandescent lighting. Mercury vapor lighting sometimes makes it difficult to observe color change. Fluorescent lighting should also be avoided because they do not provide a good match for some colors
Which of the following best describes the recommended use of building and construction codes in the safety and health field? a. codes are legal sufficiency b. codes should be considered minimum requirements c. codes will prevent all accidents d. codes are legal requirements, which must be met regardless of expense or situation
The correct answer is B In the practice of Safety and Health, codes and standards should be considered minimum requirements. No one set of standards can cover all situations. In the interest of resource protection we should all strive for excellence, which in many cases will involve measures beyond the intent or specification of the codes.
What type of electrical equipment is required in a spray booth? a. NEC Class I, Div. 2 b. NEC Class 1 Div. 1 c. NEC Class 11 Div. 2 d. NEC Class 11 Div 1.
The correct answer is B Spray paint booths are normally explosive and hazardous when in operation and require Class 1 Division 1 electrical equipment in accordance with ART 500 of the National Electrical Code. The following table illustrates the classes and divisions of the NEC Class 1 Division 1 Division 2 Gases Vapors and Liquids (Art 5). Normally explosive and hazardous Not normally present in an explosive concentration (but may accidentally exist) 11 Dusts (Art 5) Ignitable quantities of dust normally is or may be in suspension or conductive dust may be present dust not normally suspended in an ignitable concentration but may accidentally exist. Dust layers are present III Fibers and flying textiles woodworking easily ignitable but not likely to be explosive stored or handled in storage exclusive of manufacturing
Which of the following agencies is the best standards dealing with the adequacy and placement of fire extinguishers? a. ANSI b. NFPA c. MSHA d. EPA
The correct answer is B The National Fire Protection Association publishes several standards on fire extinguishers, however many local jurisdictions have adopted the Uniform Fire code in lieu of the NFPA standards. OSHA also has requirements for selection and placement of fire protection equipment.
In industrial environments the concept of local exhaust ventilation is used extensively. The purpose of local exhaust ventilation is to: a. Prevent any entrance of air contaminants b. Remove contaminants at their source c. Provide dilution ventilation d. Provide spot ventilation for comfort.
The correct answer is B The purpose of local exhaust ventilation to remove air contaminants at the source not dilute them
Which of the following terms is used to indicate the volume of air inhaled and exhaled in a normal human breath? a. residual volume b. tidal volume c. supplemental air d. vital capacity
The correct answer is B The term used to indicate the volume of air inhaled and exhaled in a normal breath (500 cm3) is tidal volume. The total amount of air that can be inhaled and exhaled during forced respiration is the vital volume. Supplemental air is the difference between tidal and and the maximum that can be exhaled. Residual volume is that amount of air that remains in our lungs no matter how hard we exhale (about 1500 cm3)
When is the use of a Gas Mask permissible in an atmosphere that is Immediately Dangerous to Life or health due to the presence of a toxic contaminant? a. Never b. When it is used for escape only c. As a back up measure d. When SCBA is being inspected
The correct answer is B The use of a gas mask is permissible in an IDLH atmosphere due to the presence of a toxic contaminant for escape only
Which of the following would most likely result in the immediate functioning of a electrical magnetic circuit breaker to interrupt the current? a. Undersize wiring b. A line to line short c. A 20% overload for any period of time d. Ground fault
The correct answer is B This question seeks a situation that would most likely cause immediate functioning of a magnetic circuit breaker. The situation that qualifies is s line to line short. Undersized wiring would most likely result in an overload sufficient to operate the circuit breaker but not only after a period of time (unless the wiring was grossly undersized). A 20% overload might operate the circuit breaker depending on other conditions. A ground fault would not operate the circuit breaker unless the ground fault resulted in an overload.
Which of the following techniques would be the preferred control method for preventing exposure to a hazardous noise exposure? a. Control employee work hours to reduce exposure time b. Engineer a less hazardous environment c. Provide protective equipment d. Automate the process to reduce worker interaction
The correct answer is B Of the various methods available to the Occupational Health and Safety Technologist, Engineering controls are by far the preferred method. This would include initial design or by using the techniques of substitution, ventilation or isolation. Administrative controls that provide control of the worker's exposure are next in prevention value. Person Protective Equipment is the last resort to provide workers protection
The physiological property of matter that defines the capacity of a chemical to harm or injure a living organism by other than mechanical means is the definition for? a. illness b. toxicity c. injury d. pollution
The correct answer is B The question accurately states the definition of toxicity.
In statistical development which of the following terms would indicate the amount of dispersion in a frequency distribution? a. Mode & Median. b. Range and Standard Deviation. c. Standard Deviation and Mean. d. Mean, Range, and Standard Deviation.
The correct answer is B. The Range is a measure of variability or difference between the highest and lowest values in a frequency distribution. The Standard Deviation is an average of all measurements of deviation from the mean an in a sample or random variable. The Range and Standard Deviation are both measures of dispersion of a frequency distribution.
Which of the elements listed below belong to the halogen group? a. Na, Ca, K b. C, O, H c. F, Cl, Br, I d. Au, Ag, Pt
The correct answer is C (Fluorine, Chlorine, Bromine and Iodine)
How many carbon atoms does a benzene ring have? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8
The correct answer is C A benzene ring has 6 carbon atoms
A truck carrying chemicals has been involved in an accident. The only information about the materials on board is that the pH is 1.5. What does this tell you about the toxicity of the cargo? a. Cargo has a flashpoint below 100F b. Cargo has a flashpoint above 100F c. Cargo is an acid d. Cargo is a base
The correct answer is C A pH of less than 7.0 indicates that the contents are acidic. A pH of more than 7.0 would indicate an alkaline cargo. A pH of 7 is considered neutral.
The fire tetrahedron states that combustion requires oxidizer, fuel, heat and which of the following? a. confinement b. surface area c. chain reaction d. deflagration
The correct answer is C According to the NFPA fire protection handbook, for combustion to occur, four components are necessary; Oxygen (oxidizing agent); fuel (substrate); heat (ignition) and a self-sustained chemical reaction also referred to as the chain reaction. These components can be graphically described as the fire tetrahedron. Each component of the tetrahedron must be in place for combustion to occur. Remove any one of the four components and combustion will not occur. If ignition has already occurred, the fire is extinguished when one of the components is removed from the reaction
According to 29 CFR 1910.23, a standard railing shall consist of top rail, intermediate rail, and posts, and shall have a vertical height of ______ inches nominal from upper surface of top rail to floor, platform, runway or ramp level a. 36 b. 40 c. 42 d. 48
The correct answer is C According to the standard: The top rail shall be smooth-surfaced throughout the length of the railing. The intermediate rail shall be approximately halfway between the top rail and the floor, platform, runway or ramp. The ends of the rails shall not overhang the terminal posts except where such overhand does not constitute a projection hazard. A standard toeboard shall be 4 inches nominal in vertical height from its top edge to the level of the floor platform, runway or ramp. It shall be securely fastened in place and with not more than 1/4 inch clearance above floor level. It may be made of any substantial material either solid or with openings not over 1 inch in greatest dimension.
Carbon tetrachloride is most likely to cause damage to the ______________. a. Heart b. Lungs c. Liver d. Bones
The correct answer is C Carbon tetrachloride (Carbon Tet) is an outlawed solvent that causes damage to the liver.
Which of the following concerning dilution ventilation is correct? Dilution ventilation is used to: a. Control a contaminant at its source b. Control fumes from lead fusing c. Control low toxicity vapors d. Control asbestos fibers
The correct answer is C Dilution ventilation lowers the concentration of a contaminant by adding air to general work area. Since the air is added to general work area it will not effectively control exposure to a toxic or highly toxic substance used in specific location.
Exposure to coal tar products has been shown to increase the adverse effects from which of the following? a. Chromates. b. Acetone. c. UV Radiation. d. IR Radiation.
The correct answer is C Exposure to the Ultraviolet Radiation from the sun in combination with exposure to coal tar products has resulted in a significant number of workers experiencing a photosensitization of the skin.
Which of the following measurements does not the inverse square law not apply to? a. Heat b. Illumination c. Noise d. Radiation
The correct answer is C You can use the inverse square law for measurements concerning noise, illumination and radiation, but not heat.
Grab samples are used for? a. 8 hour average b. Never used c. To identify peak or ceiling concentration d. To calculate a TWA for the work shift
The correct answer is C Grab samples are taken to measure the airborne concentration of a substance over a short time period (usually less than 5 min). Personal or area grab samples are used to identify peak or ceiling concentrations. Grab samples alone are rarely used to estimate an employee's eight hour time-weighted average exposure. This is because they do not account for the time between samples. However, they can be used a screening methods to determine whether more extensive sampling is needed.
Which of the following is first item to be analyzed when implementing a job safety analysis program? a. the order of jobs according to product flow moving through each department. b. the jobs generating the most complaints from supervisors c. the jobs contributing to the highest incident rates d. the jobs exposing the most workers
The correct answer is C In the NSC Accident Prevention Manual for Business and Industry: Administration and Programs, 12th edition, the jobs selected for job safety analysis should not be selected at random. The order of analysis should be guided by the following factors: Frequency of incidents, rate of disabling injuries, severity potential, new jobs
As a new safety manager you have been asked to develop an incident date collection system. What is the most important first step in this process? a. Identify existing data sources and codify the data b. Establish incident reporting procedures c. Define the subsequent use of the data d. Define investigation team parameters
The correct answer is C In the book Safety Culture and Effective Safety Management, author Swartz explains that before collecting data and developing a system to collect and manipulate the data, it is essential to define how the data will be used.
IF a vessel contains 80% air and 20% hydrocarbons, what is he oxygen content of the vessel? a. 14% b. 21% c. 16.8% d. 15.5%
The correct answer is C Normal air contains 21% oxygen by volume. The question states the vessel only contains 80% normal air, therefore 0.21 x 0.80 = 0.168 = 16.8%
Which one of the following system safety tools would not be appropriate for analysis of a complex system? a. Fault Tree Analysis b. Multilinear Events Sequencing c. Job Safety Analysis d. Failure Modes and Effect Analysis
The correct answer is C Of the techniques listed for answers in this question, Job Safety Analysis would be the least effective. JSA tends to be too task oriented to be used successfully in a very complex operation. Fault Tree Analysis is excellent for scaling down huge complex systems, although the tree itself becomes fairly complex. Multilinear Events Sequencing (MES) is an accident investigation tool developed by Ludwig Benner Jr. of the National Transportation Safety Board and used extensively in aircraft mishap investigation. MES is a flow-charging methodology that, as the name implies, puts pertinent events in sequence. That attribute that really makes MES a star performer is the addition of a time line thus allowing duration interval and and sequence dimensions to be visualized, a concept very useful in accident investigation. Failure Modes and Effects Analysis was originally a reliability tool developed to allow predictions for the reliability of complex system.s It sues a tabular format to identify failure and effect on the overall system. It is an excellent tool for spotting single point failures, but does not include any human interface.
Although the use of the term torr has been discouraged the term is still used quite often. Torr is a unit of high vacuum equal to: a. Once inch of water column b. 29.92 inches of mercury c. one mm of mercury d. one inch of lead
The correct answer is C One torr is equal to the pressure of 1 mm of mercury. It is named after the inventor of the mercury barometer.
When supply breathing air to five for more abrasive blasting respirators, what is the minimum amount of air to be supplied to each unit? a. 3 CFM b. 6 CFM c. 9 CFM d. 12 CFM
The correct answer is C Respirable air under suitable pressure should be delivered to each respirator at a volume of at lease 6 CFM
In addition to the metal fumes, metal oxides, and the products of combustion form vaporized paints and coatings from the welded items, what hazardous gas is produced during electric arc welding? a. Hydrogen Peroxide b. Diacetyl c. Ozone d. Diethylamine
The correct answer is C The Accident Prevention Manual for Business and Industry: Engineering and Technology 12th edition, explains that electric arc welding produces ozone O3, a hazardous gas.
Which of the following Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) deals with Protection of Environment? a. 10 CFR b. 20 CFR c. 40 CFR d. 42 CFR
The correct answer is C The CFRs are organized under 50 titles each dealing with broad subject areas of federal regulation. Relevance to th OHST examinations are CFR Subject 10 Energy 14 Aeronautics and space 16 Consumer Protection 23 Highways, 29 Labor 40 Protection of the environment, 42 Public Health, 49 Transportation
Why is rectal temperature used in heat stress evaluation? a. Indicates true temperature b. Much more accurate then oral temperature c. Indicates "core" body temperature d. An old standard that has never been changed.
The correct answer is C The rectal temperature is normally used in evaluations of heat stress because it indicates "core" temperature and is not subject to fluctuations associated with oral temperature. Oral temperature may rise or fall depending on respiration rate, relative humidity , type of breathing and many other factors. Normally a temperature rise up to 1 degree C is allowed.
According to 29 CFR 1910.120, newly assigned personnel that are assigned as First Responders, but have not been training may: a. Not respond b. Respond only in a real emergency c. Respond only under the supervision of a trained responder d. May be a responder if trained withing the first 90 days of being assigned to the position
The correct answer is C Training for emergency response employees shall be completed before they are called upon to perform in real emergencies. Such training shall include the elements of the emergency response plan, standard operating procedures the employer has established for the job., the personnel protective equipment to be worn and procedures for handling emergency incidents. Exception #1 an employer need not train all employees to the degree specified if th employer divides the workforce in a manner such that a sufficient number of employees who have responsibility to control emergencies have the training specified, and all other employees, who may be first respond to an emergency incident, have sufficient awareness training to recognize that an emergency response situation exists and that they are instructed in the case to summon the fully trained employees and not attempt control activities for which they are not trained.
Damage to the eyes of an unprotected observer from the flash of an electric welder's arc could be caused by the exposure to a. infrared light b. invisible radiation c. ultraviolet radiation d. sensible light
The correct answer is C damage to the eyes form ultra violet radiation is much more violent than those of the visible or infrared, a sever burn can be produced with little or no warning and significant damage to the lens of the eye can occur
What is the maximum storage temperature for a gas cylinder? a. 100 degrees F b. 100 degrees C c. 130 degrees F d. 130 degrees C
The correct answer is C Cylinders are not designed for temperatures in excess of 130 degrees F or 54 degrees C
During qualitative fit testing which of the following are test subjects required to read? a. newspaper article about respirators use b. the gettysburg address c. the rainbow passage d. the safety motto
The correct answer is C During respirator fit testing test subjects are asked to read the Rainbow Passage. This particular passage is selected, because it will result in a wide range of facial movements and thus provide a good check of respirator fit.
Which of the following best describes the function of barrier cream? a. Replaces lanolin in the skin b. Keeps hands clean c. Inhibits contact of solvent with skin surface d. a cure for chapped dry hands and feed
The correct answer is C Protective creams sometimes called "barrier" creams serve to inhibit contact with solvents in the work place. The use of protective creams is very controversial, however most of the current Safety and Health literature indicates that used properly these creams are useful. The cream must be used correctly to be effective which means it must be applied on clean skin at the beginning of the work shift, removed at lunch, reapplied after lunch, again in the afternoon and removed at the close of the work shift.
Which of the following is not a requirement for a flammable liquid "safety" can? a. spring loaded cover that opens at 5 psi b. flame arrestor c. fusible link d. metal construction
The correct answer is C Safety cans are required to be constructed of fire resistive materials, contain a flame arrestor and a self-closing cover, adn be sized to prevent tipping. A fusible link that melts at a pre-determined temperature is not required
Because many bench grinder wheels have broken when work has become jammed between the work rest and the wheel, the tool rest should be adjusted to within ____ of the wheel a. 1/2 inch b. 1/4 inch c. 1/8 inch d. 1/16 inch
The correct answer is C Tool rests should be adjusted to not more than 1/8 inch from the grinding wheel.
Damage to the eyes of an unprotected observer from the flash of an electric welder's arc could be caused by the exposure to: a. Infrared light b. Invisible radiation c. Ultraviolet radiation d. Sensible light
The correct answer is C. Damage to the eyes from ultraviolet radiation is much more violent than those of the visible or infrared, a sever burn can be produced with little or not warning an significant damage to the lens of the eye can occur.
An elevator daily spot check should include which of the following? a. V-Groove b. Governor c. Cable gripper jaws d. Brakes
The correct answer is D According to the NSC Accident Prevention Manual (Administration and Programs) daily spot checks of elevators should be conducted at the beginning of each day and include: level floor stops, testing of the alarm bell, brakes and other mechanical operations. Selection A "V-Groove refers to older friction equipment in which the hoisting rope is not attached ot the machine. The elevator ismoved by the traction of the ropes in v-grooves on the drive pulley. The V-groove would require monthly inspection. Selection B "Governor" refers to a speed control device that is normally checked monthly. Selection C "cable gripper jaws" refers to cable grabbing devices that hold governors, counter weights or the car itself, which are inspected annually.
The Science of Ergonomics deal with all the following except? a. Anthropometry b. Automation c. Autokinesis d. Autotrophic
The correct answer is D Anthropomerty is defined as the collection of information concerning both static and dynamic body measurements. Automation is a common synonym for any technological change involving the work place. Autokinesis refers to a form of disorientation where a fixed light appears to move against a dark background. Autotrophic is related to the study of biology and deals with utilizing only inorganic materials a s food source. This of course has little to do with ergonomics.
A worker at your plant was overcome in an confined space. Another work who was sent to rescue him was also overcome. which one of the following types of respiratory protective equipment is the best choice for the next rescuer a. Air Line Respirator with chemical cartridge escape b. Gas mask c. Air Supplied Hood with escape bottle d. Self Contained Breathing apparatus.
The correct answer is D Assuming that the atmosphere in the confine space is oxygen deficient (worst case) the only appropriate choice is the self contained breathing source.
Which of the following laws states: Pressure times Volume = a constant number? a. Charles Law b. Watts' Law c. Newton's law d. Boyle's Law
The correct answer is D Boyle's law expresses a very interesting relations ship between the pressure and volume of a gas. it is stated as follows: The volume of a gas varies inversely as the pressure, provided the temperature remains constant This means that if a quantity of gas has its pressure doubled, the volume becomes half of what it originally was.
Which of the following is most correct concerning the safety afforded by building codes? a. Building codes ensure safety of all concerned b. Building codes should be considered paramount c. Code protect construction workers d. Codes represent the minimum requirements for materials and construction.
The correct answer is D Building codes are designed to protect the future occupants of the building and offer little protection for the actual construction workers. Because codes attempt to predict the future use of the building they are considered the absolute minimum protection requirements
Which of the following would not be required in a hearing conservation program? a. Worker's must be provided with hearing protection b. Workers must be trained and retrained annually c. Given an audio-gram within six months d. Workers must be given time off to protect hearing
The correct answer is D The OSHA requirements include provisions for insuring that the employees are provided hearing protection, and given a baseline hearing test (audiogram). In most cases the audiogram is required within 6 months. However requirements for removal from the industrial environment to protect hearing is required only after a hearing threshold shift is detected
In which of the following conditions would the use of dilution ventilation be the most appropriate? a. the source is very toxic b. the source of contamination is a heavy particulate c. employees are in close contact with the source d. the source of contamination is constant
The correct answer is D Dilution ventilation is the preferred solution when relative non-toxic emissions are produced, when the source is mainly gases or vapors (not primarily heavy particulates) and when employees do not work in the immediate vicinity or direct path of the emission source. The old adage "no pollution through more dilution" is often very appropriate. However when toxic heavy direct path time inconsistent or large sources of emissions are encountered the solution is point source removal through local exhaust ventilation
In which case could a double-insulated, two-wire portable drill, produce a shock hazard? a. all cases, it requires a third ground wire b. short between white and black wire c. short between case and black wire d. if the energized drill was dropped in water.
The correct answer is D Double insulation cannot prevent conductive paths in extremely wet conditions.
During the starting sequence of a gas fired drying oven any accumulation of flammable gases should be reduced to ______% of the Lower Flammable Limit? a. 0% b. 5% c. 15% d. 25%
The correct answer is D Several precautions are generally employed in ovens that may contain dangerous concentration of flammable gases. These precautions are necessary to prevent ignition purge that will ensure that 25% of the Lower Flammable Limit will not be exceeded. This pre-ignition purge is required after each shutdown of the recirculating or exhaust fans. Normally at least 4 cubic feet of fresh air per cubic foot of oven volume will be introduced during the purge cycle.
Which of the following is not a valid RCRA characteristic of hazardous waste? a. Ignitability b. Corrosivity c. Reactivity d. Radioactivity
The correct answer is D The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) requires that all waste be classified prior to handling. The waste is considered hazardous if it meets certain conditions or exhibits certain characteristics including tests for Ignitability, Corrosivity, Reactivity and Toxicity
A radioisotope has a half life of one year. How many years will it take to reduce the initial activity to less than 10%? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years
The correct answer is D The activity after three years will be 12.5% of the initial activity. After 4 years the activity will be 6.25% of the initial activity.
What is the desired air velocity (fpm) at relief or spot cooling stations for activity that produces extremely high heat loads for workers? a. 50 fpm b. 100 fpm c. 125 fpm d. 4000 fpm
The correct answer is D The amount of air motion acceptable to a worker performing extremely heavy work at relieve stations would be in the vicinity of 3000 to 4000 fpm. Moderate loads would require about 2000 to 3000 fpm and light loads about 100 to 2000. REf. ACGIH Industrial Ventilation Manual.
Given equal thicknesses, which substance would be the most effective shield for gamma rays? a. cement b. water c. sheet steel d. lead
The correct answer is D The following comparison is offered for the same protection Lead thickness required = 0.3 inch Sheet steel thickness required = 1.3 inches Concrete thickness required = 2.7 inches Water thickness required = 8,3 inches
Which of the following fire fighting agents could be effectively used on a Class A fire? a. Purple K b. Halon 1301 c. Dry Chemical (Potassium Chloride) d. Dry Chemical (Ammonium Phosphate)
The correct answer is D The only agent listed that is rated for Class A firefighting is D Ammonium Phosphate which is rated as an A B C extinguisher. Purple K is Potassium Bicarbonate and is well known as an effective agent for flammable liquid fires. it is often used in combination of AFFF. Halon 1201, a hydrogenated agent, and the dry chemical potassium chloride is rated only B C. Of the multi-purpose dry chemicals, mono ammonium-phosphate-case is by far the most common and although considered non-toxic will cause irritation if breathed for extended periods. Another problem with ammonium phosphate is corrosion. The agent is acidic and when mixed with even minuscule amounts of water will corrode most medals, so immediate cleanup is very important.
You are transiting the production are and spot a safety hazard that presents imminent danger to the workers in the area. Your first action should be to: a. shut down the production line b. fix the hazard c. post a lock out tag out sign until the hazard is corrected d. stop the operation and notify the area supervisor
The correct answer is D The person to correct the hazard should be the individual with the most knowledge of the area, and that is the area supervisor
In developing a safety training program, the most essential consideration is a. Training staff b. Training methods c. Content of training program d. Training objectives
The correct answer is D The training objective must be firmly established before a training program is undertaken.
A welding operator using argon for shielding gas would most likely be welding which of the following materials? a. Tungsten b. Galvanized Steel c. Copper d. Aluminum
The correct answer is D The two most common shielded gas welding processes are MIC (Metallic Inert Gas Welding) & TIG (Tungsten Inert Gas). The process is used on Aluminum with a shielding gas of argon or helium. Carbon dioxide would be used as a shield if the process was to be used on steel.
A truck carrying chemicals for your plant has just been involved in an accident. The only information the first responders can provide you is that the materials on board have a pH of 9.0. What does this tell you about the toxicity of the cargo? a. Cargo has a flash point below 100 degrees F b. Cargo has a flash point above 100 degrees F c. Cargo is an acid d. Cargo is a base.
The correct answer is D a pH of more than 7.0 indicates that the contents are a base of alkaline. a pH of less than 7 would indicate an acidic cargo. a pH of 7 is considered a neutral.
Which of the following acts was enacted first? a. Federal Coal Mine Health and Safety Act b. The Occupational Health and Safety Act c. The Toxic Substance Control Act d. The Metal and Non-metallic Mine Safety Act
The correct answer is D a. Federal Coal Mine Health and Safety Act 1969 b. The Occupational Health and Safety Act 1970 c. The Toxic Substance Control Act 1976 d. The Metal and Non-metallic Mine Safety Act 1966
The chance of a dust cloud igniting is governed by what? a. oxygen content and dust accumulation b. size of dust particles and impurities present c. strength of the source of ignition d. all of the above?
The correct answer is D. All of these factors govern the possibility of a dust explosion. Dust explosions usually occur as a series, the initial deflagration being rather small in volume but intense enough to jar dust from beams, ledges, etc. This causes larger concentrations to form and a second more destructive cycle will begin
In the design of a ventilation system which of the following operations would require the greatest capture velocity? a. Evaporation from open surface tanks b. Spray booths c. Welding d. Grinding
The correct answer is D. Grinding operations create large amounts of contaminants at very high initial velocities, thus demanding higher capture velocities to secure the contaminates. All of the other operations listed generate contaminates with low velocities.
All of the following actions are required of a company that receives an OSHA citation except: a. Pay the fine b. Pay the fine and post the notice of violation c. Correct the violation d. Retrain all employees.
The correct answer is D. Training of employees may not be required by every citation issued by OSHA
Which of the following elements is a stronger oxidizer than oxygen? a. Fluorine b. Chlorine c. Bromine d. Sulfuric acid
The correct answer is Fluorine All of the listed materials are oxidizers, however the only element stronger than oxygen in fluorine!
