Olds Maternal-Newborn Nursing ch 16, 17, 18, 19

The nurse evaluates the diet of a pregnant client and finds that it is low in zinc. The nurse knows that zinc intake should increase during pregnancy to promote protein metabolism. Which food should the nurse suggest in order to increase intake of zinc? 1. Shellfish 2. Bananas 3. Yogurt 4. Cabbage

1. shellfish Explanation: 1. Zinc is found in greatest concentration in meats, shellfish, and poultry. Other good sources include whole grains and legumes.

A pregnant client who was of normal prepregnancy weight is now 30 weeks pregnant. She asks the nurse what appropriate weight gain for her should be. What is the nurse's best response? 1. "25-35 pounds" 2. "30-40 pounds" 3. "17-18 pounds" 4. "Less than 15 pounds"

1. "25-35 pounds"

The nurse is preparing a prenatal class about infant feeding methods. The maternal nutritional requirements for breastfeeding and formula-feeding will be discussed. What statement should the nurse include? 1. "Breastfeeding requires a continued high intake of protein and calcium." 2. "Formula-feeding mothers should protect their health with a lot of calcium." 3. "Producing breast milk requires calories, but any source of food is fine." 4. "Formula-feeding mothers need a high protein intake to avoid fatigue."

1. "Breastfeeding requires a continued high intake of protein and calcium."

The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman who admits to using cocaine and ecstasy on a regular basis. The client states, "Everybody knows that alcohol is bad during pregnancy, but what's the big deal about ecstasy?" What is the nurse's best response? 1. "Ecstasy can cause a high fever in you and therefore cause the baby harm." 2. "Ecstasy leads to deficiencies of thiamine and folic acid, which help the baby develop." 3. "Ecstasy produces babies with small heads and short bodies with brain function alterations." 4. "Ecstasy produces intrauterine growth restriction and meconium aspiration."

1. "Ecstasy can cause a high fever in you and therefore cause the baby harm." Explanation: 1. Hyperthermia (elevated temperature) is a side effect of MDMA (ecstasy).

The pregnant client states she does not want "to take all these supplements." What recommendations could the nurse make for the client? Select all that apply. 1. "Folic acid has been found to be essential for minimizing the risk of neural tube defects." 2. "You do not have to take these supplements if you think you are healthy enough." 3. "Most women do not have adequate intake of iron pre-pregnancy, and iron needs increase with pregnancy." 4. "These medications do the same thing. I will call your physician to cancel one of your medications." 5. "You should take the folic acid, but the vitamins are not that important."

1. "Folic acid has been found to be essential for minimizing the risk of neural tube defects." 3. "Most women do not have adequate intake of iron pre-pregnancy, and iron needs increase with pregnancy."

The pregnant teen who was prescribed prenatal vitamins at her initial prenatal visit states that she does not like to take them. How should the nurse respond? Select all that apply. 1. "Folic acid has been found to be essential for minimizing the risk of neural tube defects." 2. "You do not have to take these supplements if you think you are healthy enough." 3. "These medications do the same thing. I will call your doctor to cancel one of your medications." 4. "You can trust your doctor to know what you need." 5. "You need the supplements because your dietary intake may not be adequate for fetal development."

1. "Folic acid has been found to be essential for minimizing the risk of neural tube defects." 5. "You need the supplements because your dietary intake may not be adequate for fetal development."

The prenatal clinic nurse is caring for a 15-year-old client who is at 8 weeks' gestation. The client asks the nurse why she is supposed to gain so much weight. What is the best response by the nurse? 1. "Gaining 25-35 pounds is recommended for healthy fetal growth." 2. "It's what your certified nurse-midwife recommended for you." 3. "Inadequate weight gain delays lactation after delivery." 4. "Weight gain is important to ensure that you get enough vitamins."

1. "Gaining 25-35 pounds is recommended for healthy fetal growth."

Which statement is best to include when teaching a pregnant adolescent about nutritional needs of pregnancy? 1. "It is important to eat iron-rich foods like meat every day." 2. "Calcium and milk aren't needed until the third trimester." 3. "Folic acid intake is the key to having a healthy baby." 4. "You just need to pay attention to what you eat now."

1. "It is important to eat iron-rich foods like meat every day."

The nurse is counseling a group of first-trimester clients on diet increases that are necessary during pregnancy. Which information would be necessary to tell the pregnant women? Select all that apply. 1. An increase of protein is necessary to provide amino acids necessary for fetal development. 2. Protein contributes to the body's overall energy metabolism. 3. The recommended protein during pregnancy is 70 grams each day. 4. The increased amount of protein that a pregnant woman needs is 15 grams a day. 5. The quality of protein is as important as the amount.

1. An increase of protein is necessary to provide amino acids necessary for fetal development. 2. Protein contributes to the body's overall energy metabolism. 3. The recommended protein during pregnancy is 70 grams each day. 5. The quality of protein is as important as the amount.

A woman's history and appearance suggest drug abuse. What is the nurse's best approach? 1. Ask the woman directly, "Do you use any street drugs?" 2. Ask the woman whether she would like to talk to a counselor. 3. Ask some questions about over-the-counter medications and avoid mention of illicit drugs. 4. Explain how harmful drugs can be for her baby.

1. Ask the woman directly, "Do you use any street drugs?" Explanation: 1. If drug abuse is suspected, the nurse should ask direct questions and be matter-of-fact and nonjudgmental to elicit honest responses.

The nurse has written the nursing diagnosis Injury, Risk for for a diabetic pregnant client. Interventions for this diagnosis include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Assessment of fetal heart tones 2. Perform oxytocin challenge test, if ordered 3. Refer the client to a diabetes support group 4. Assist with the biophysical profile assessment 5. Develop an appropriate teaching plan

1. Assessment of fetal heart tones 2. Perform oxytocin challenge test, if ordered 4. Assist with the biophysical profile assessment Explanation: 1. Reassuring fetal heart rate variability and accelerations are interpreted as adequate placental oxygenation. 2. The nurse would perform oxytocin challenge test (OCT)/contraction stress test (CST) and non-stress tests as determined by physician. 4. The nurse assists the physician in performing a biophysical profile assessment.

The nurse is instructing a pregnant client on her nutritional needs. The nurse tells the client that nutrition is needed for fetal development because fetal growth occurs in overlapping stages from increases of which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Cell numbers 2. Cell membranes 3. Cell size and number 4. Cell size alone 5. Vitamin and mineral intake

1. Cell numbers 3. cell size and number 5. vitamin and mineral intake

Postpartum nutritional status is determined primarily by assessing which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Dietary history 2. Menstrual history 3. Mother's weight 4. Hemoglobin levels 5. Mother's height

1. Dietary history 3. Mother's weight 4. Hemoglobin levels

The nurse is planning an educational session for pregnant vegans. What information should the nurse include? 1. Eating beans and rice provides complete protein needs. 2. Soy is not a good source of protein for vegans. 3. Rice contains a high level of vitamin B12. 4. Vegan diets are excessively high in iron.

1. Eating beans and rice provides complete protein needs.

The client with insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes and an HbA1c of 5.0% is planning to become pregnant soon. What anticipatory guidance should the nurse provide this client? 1. Insulin needs decrease in the first trimester and usually begin to rise late in the first trimester as glucose use and glycogen storage by the woman and fetus increase. 2. The risk of ketoacidosis decreases during the length of the pregnancy. 3. Vascular disease that accompanies diabetes slows progression. 4. The baby is likely to have a congenital abnormality because of the diabetes.

1. Insulin needs decrease in the first trimester and usually begin to rise late in the first trimester as glucose use and glycogen storage by the woman and fetus increase.

Which of the following symptoms, if progressive, are indicative of CHF, the heart's signal of its decreased ability to meet the demands of pregnancy? Select all that apply. 1. Palpitations 2. Heart murmurs 3. Dyspnea 4. Frequent urination 5. Rales

1. Palpitations 2. Heart murmurs 3. Dyspnea 5. Rales

Women with eating disorders who become pregnant are at risk for a variety of complications including which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Premature birth 2. Too many nutrients available for the fetus 3. Miscarriage 4. High birth weight 5. Perinatal mortality

1. Premature birth 3. Miscarriage 5. Perinatal mortality

The nurse is planning an early-pregnancy class session on nutrition. Which information should the nurse include? Select all that apply. 1. Protein is important for fetal development. 2. Iron helps both mother and baby maintain the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. 3. Calcium prevents constipation at the end of pregnancy. 4. Zinc facilitates synthesis of RNA and DNA. 5. Vitamin A promotes development of the baby's eyes.

1. Protein is important for fetal development. 2. Iron helps both mother and baby maintain the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. 4. Zinc facilitates synthesis of RNA and DNA. 5. Vitamin A promotes development of the baby's eyes.

The nurse is evaluating the plan of care for a pregnant client with a heart disorder. The nurse concludes that the plan was successful when data indicate which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. The client gave birth to a healthy baby. 2. The client did not develop congestive heart failure. 3. The client developed thromboembolism. 4. The client identified manifestations of potential complications. 5. The client can identify her condition and its impact on her pregnancy, labor and birth, and postpartum period.

1. The client gave birth to a healthy baby. 2. The client did not develop congestive heart failure. 4. The client identified manifestations of potential complications. 5. The client can identify her condition and its impact on her pregnancy, labor and birth, and postpartum period.

A client with diabetes is receiving preconception counseling. The nurse will emphasize that during the first trimester, the woman should be prepared for which of the following? 1. The need for less insulin than she normally uses 2. Blood testing for anemia 3. Assessment for respiratory complications 4. Assessment for contagious conditions

1. The need for less insulin than she normally uses

A pregnant client is lactose intolerant. Which alternative food could this client eat to get sufficient calcium? 1. Turnip greens 2. Green beans 3. Cantaloupe 4. Nectarines

1. Turnip greens

The nurse is working with a woman who abuses stimulants. The nurse is aware that the fetus is at risk for which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Withdrawal symptoms 2. Cardiac anomalies 3. Sudden infant death syndrome 4. Being small for gestational age 5. Fetal alcohol syndrome

1. Withdrawal symptoms 2. Cardiac anomalies 3. Sudden infant death syndrome 4. Being small for gestational age

The nurse is preparing for a postpartum home visit. The client has been home for a week, is breastfeeding, and experienced a third-degree perineal tear after vaginal delivery. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following? 1. Dietary intake of fiber and fluids 2. Dietary intake of folic acid and prenatal vitamins 3. Return of hemoglobin and hematocrit levels to baseline 4. Return of protein and albumin to predelivery levels

1. dietary intake of fiber and fluids Explanation: 1. This mother needs to avoid the risk of constipation. She might be hesitant to have a bowel movement due to anticipated pain from the perineal tear, and constipation will decrease the healing of the laceration.

The nurse is presenting a preconception counseling class. The nurse instructs the participants that niacin intake should increase during pregnancy to promote metabolic coenzyme activity. The nurse will know that teaching has been effective if a client suggests which food as a source of niacin? 1. Fish 2. Apples 3. Broccoli 4. Milk

1. fish Explanation: 1. Dietary sources of niacin include meats, fish, and whole grains.

The nurse is assessing a client who has severe preeclampsia. What assessment finding should be reported to the physician? 1. Excretion of less than 300 mg of protein in a 24-hour period 2. Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3 3. Urine output of 50 mL per hour 4. 12 respirations

2 Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3 Explanation: 2. HELLP syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count) complicates 10% to 20% of severe preeclampsia cases and develops prior to 37 weeks' gestation 50% of the time. Vascular damage is associated with vasospasm, and platelets aggregate at sites of damage, resulting in low platelet count (less than 100,000/mm3).

A pregnant client who is a lacto-vegetarian asks the nurse for assistance with her diet. What instruction should the nurse give? Select all that apply. 1. "Protein is important; therefore, the addition of one serving of meat a day is necessary." 2. "A daily supplement of vitamin B12 is important." 3. "The high fiber in a vegetarian diet is dangerous for pregnant women." 4. "Eggs are important to add to your diet. Eat six eggs per week." 5. "Milk products contain protein, but they are very low in iron."

2. "A daily supplement of vitamin B12 is important." 5. "Milk products contain protein, but they are very low in iron."

A 26-year-old client is 28 weeks pregnant. She has developed gestational diabetes. She is following a program of regular exercise, which includes walking, bicycling, and swimming. What instructions should be included in a teaching plan for this client? 1. "Exercise either just before meals or wait until 2 hours after a meal." 2. "Carry hard candy (or other simple sugar) when exercising." 3. "If your blood sugar is 120 mg/dL, eat 20 g of carbohydrate." 4. "If your blood sugar is more than 120 mg/dL, drink a glass of whole milk."

2. "Carry hard candy (or other simple sugar) when exercising." Explanation: 2. The nurse should advise her to carry a simple sugar such as hard candy because of the possibility of exercise-induced hypoglycemia.

A client is at 12 weeks' gestation with her first baby. She has cardiac disease, class III. She states that she had been taking sodium warfarin (Coumadin), but her physician changed her to heparin. She asks the nurse why this was done. What should the nurse's response be? 1. "Heparin is used when coagulation problems are resolved." 2. "Heparin is safer because it does not cross the placenta." 3. "They are the same drug, but heparin is less expensive." 4. "Coumadin interferes with iron absorption in the intestines."

2. "Heparin is safer because it does not cross the placenta." Explanation: 2. Heparin is safest for the client to take because it does not cross the placental barrier.

The breastfeeding mother is concerned that her milk production has decreased. The nurse knows that further client teaching is needed based on which statement? 1. "I am drinking a minimum of 8 to 10 glasses of liquid a day." 2. "I have started cutting back on my protein intake." 3. "At least three times a day, I drink a glass of milk." 4. "My calorie intake is higher than during the pregnancy."

2. "I have started cutting back on my protein intake." Explanation: 2. An adequate protein intake is essential while breastfeeding because protein is an important component of breast milk.

The nurse is doing preconception counseling with a 28-year-old woman with no prior pregnancies. Which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that the client has understood the teaching? 1. "I can continue to drink alcohol until I am diagnosed as pregnant." 2. "I need to stop drinking alcohol completely when I start trying to get pregnant." 3. "A beer once a week will not damage the fetus." 4. "I can drink alcohol while breastfeeding because it doesn't pass into breast milk."

2. "I need to stop drinking alcohol completely when I start trying to get pregnant." Explanation: 2. Women should discontinue drinking alcohol when they start to attempt to become pregnant due to possible effects of alcohol on the fetus.

A client presents to the antepartum clinic with a history of a 20-pound weight loss. Her pregnancy test is positive. She is concerned about gaining the weight back, and asks the nurse if she can remain on her diet. What is the nurse's best response? 1. "As long as you supplement your diet with the prenatal vitamin, the amount of weight you gain in pregnancy is not significant." 2. "I understand that gaining weight after such an accomplishment might not look attractive, but weight gain during pregnancy is important for proper fetal growth." 3. "Dieting during pregnancy is considered child neglect." 4. "Excessive weight gain in pregnancy is due to water retention, so weight loss following birth will not be an issue."

2. "I understand that gaining weight after such an accomplishment might not look attractive, but weight gain during pregnancy is important for proper fetal growth."

The client at 9 weeks' gestation has been told that her HIV test was positive. The client is very upset, and tells the nurse, "I didn't know I had HIV! What will this do to my baby?" The nurse knows teaching has been effective when the client makes which statement? 1. "I cannot take the medications that control HIV during my pregnancy, because they will harm the baby." 2. "My baby can get HIV during the pregnancy and through my breast milk." 3. "The pregnancy will increase the progression of my disease and will reduce my CD4 counts." 4. "The HIV won't affect my baby, and I will have a low-risk pregnancy without additional testing."

2. "My baby can get HIV during the pregnancy and through my breast milk." Explanation: 2. HIV transmission can occur during pregnancy and through breast milk; however, it is believed that the majority of all infections occur during labor and birth.

A newly diagnosed insulin-dependent type 1 diabetic with good blood sugar control is at 20 weeks' gestation. She asks the nurse how her diabetes will affect her baby. What would the best explanation include? 1. "Your baby could be smaller than average at birth." 2. "Your baby will probably be larger than average at birth." 3. "As long as you control your blood sugar, your baby will not be affected at all." 4. "Your baby might have high blood sugar for several days."

2. "Your baby will probably be larger than average at birth." Explanation: 2. Characteristically, infants of mothers with diabetes are large for gestational age (LGA) as a result of high levels of fetal insulin production stimulated by the high levels of glucose crossing the placenta from the mother. Sustained fetal hyperinsulinism and hyperglycemia ultimately lead to excessive growth, called macrosomia, and deposition of fat.

The clinic nurse is teaching a pregnant client about her iron supplement. Which information is included in the teaching? Select all that apply. 1. Iron does not affect the gastrointestinal tract. 2. A stool softener might be needed. 3. Start a low dose, and increase it gradually. 4. Expect the stools to be black and bloody. 5. Iron absorption is poor if taken with meals.

2. A stool softener might be needed. 3. Start a low dose, and increase it gradually. 5. Iron absorption is poor if taken with meals. Explanation: 2. Constipation can be a problem when taking iron, so a stool softener might be needed. 3. To prevent anemia, experts recommend that all pregnant women start on 30 mg/day of iron supplements daily. If anemia is diagnosed, the dosage should be increased to 60 to 120 mg per day of iron. 5. Iron absorption is reduced by 40% to 50% if taken with meals.

What would the nurse do to accurately assess a pregnant client's food intake? 1. Assess her most recent laboratory values. 2. Ask her to complete a nutritional questionnaire. 3. Observe for signs of hunger. 4. Ask about her cooking facilities.

2. Ask her to complete a nutritional questionnaire.

Which of the following is important for the development of the central nervous system of the fetus? 1. Calcium and phosphorus 2. Essential fatty acids 3. Iron 4. Vitamin D

2. Essential fatty acids Explanation: 2. Essential fatty acids are important for the development of the central nervous system of the fetus. Of particular interest are the omega-3 fatty acids and their derivatives.

A nurse is discussing the serving sizes in the grains food group with a new prenatal patient in the clinic. Which food equals one serving size from the grains food group? Select all that apply. 1. One hamburger roll 2. One slice of bread 3. One cup of pasta 4. One tortilla 5. One ounce of dry cereal

2. One slice of bread 4. One tortilla 5. One ounce of dry cereal

The school nurse is planning a class about nutrition for pregnant teens, several of whom have been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. In order to increase iron absorption, the nurse would encourage the teens to consume more of what beverage? 1. Gatorade 2. Orange juice 3. Milk 4. Green tea

2. Orange juice

Carbohydrates provide the body's primary source of energy as well as fiber necessary for proper bowel functioning. If the carbohydrate intake is not adequate, the body will use which of the following for energy? 1. Iron 2. Protein 3. Vitamin C 4. Vitamin D

2. Protein

A client tells the nurse that she does not like citrus fruits, and would like suggestions for alternate vitamin C sources. What should the nurse suggest as good sources of vitamin C? Select all that apply. 1. Barley and brown rice 2. Strawberries and potatoes 3. Buckwheat and lentils 4. Wheat flour and figs 5. Blueberries and broccoli

2. Strawberries and potatoes 5. Blueberries and broccoli

A pregnant teenage client is diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. Which nutrient should the nurse encourage her to take to increase iron absorption? 1. Vitamin A 2. Vitamin C 3. Vitamin D 4. Vitamin E

2. Vitamin C Explanation: 2. Vitamin C is known to enhance the absorption of iron from meat and nonmeat sources.

The nurse is assessing a woman at 10 weeks' gestation who is addicted to alcohol. The woman asks the nurse, "What is the point of stopping drinking now if my baby probably has been hurt by it already?" What is the best response by the nurse? 1. "It won't help your baby, but you will feel better during your pregnancy if you stop now." 2. "If you stop now, you and your baby have less chance of serious complications." 3. "If you limit your drinking to once a week, your baby will be okay." 4. "You might as well stop it now, because once your baby is born, you'll have to give up alcohol if you plan on breastfeeding."

2: "If you stop now, you and your baby have less chance of serious complications." Explanation: 2. Chronic abuse of alcohol can undermine maternal health by causing malnutrition, bone marrow suppression, increased incidence of infections, and liver disease. The effects of alcohol on the fetus may result in fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD).

A pregnant client confides to the nurse that she is eating laundry starch daily. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following? 1. Alopecia 2. Weight loss 3. Iron deficiency anemia 4. Fecal impaction

3. Iron deficiency anemia Explanation: 3. Iron deficiency anemia is the most common concern with pica. The ingestion of laundry starch or certain types of clay may contribute to iron deficiency by replacing iron-containing foods from the diet or by interfering with iron absorption.

A woman is hospitalized with severe preeclampsia. The nurse is meal-planning with the client and encourages a diet that is high in what? 1. Sodium 2. Carbohydrates 3. Protein 4. Fruits

3. Protein Explanation: 3. The client who experiences preeclampsia is losing protein.

In early-pregnancy class, the nurse emphasizes the importance of 8-10 glasses of fluid per day. How many of these should be water? 1. 1 to 2 2. 2 to 4 3. 4 to 6 4. 3 to 5

3. 4 to 6

A diabetic client goes into labor at 36 weeks' gestation. Provided that tests for fetal lung maturity are successful, the nurse will anticipate which of the following interventions? Select all that apply. 1. Administration of tocolytic therapy 2. Beta-sympathomimetic administration 3. Allowance of labor to progress 4. Hourly blood glucose monitoring 5. Cesarean birth may be indicated if evidence of reassuring fetal status exists

3. Allowance of labor to progress 4. Hourly blood glucose monitoring Explanation: 3. There will be no attempt to stop the labor, as this can compromise the mother and fetus. 4. To reduce incidence of congenital anomalies and other problems in the newborn, the woman should be euglycemic (have normal blood glucose) throughout the pregnancy.

A woman asks her nurse what she can do before she begins trying to get pregnant to help her baby, as she is prone to anemia. What would the nurse correctly advise her to do? 1. Get pregnant, then start iron supplementation. 2. Add more carbohydrates to her diet. 3. Begin taking folic acid supplements daily. 4. Have a hemoglobin baseline done now so her progress can be followed.

3. Begin taking folic acid supplements daily. Explanation: 3. The common anemias of pregnancy are due either to insufficient hemoglobin production related to nutritional deficiency in iron or folic acid during pregnancy. Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is prevented by a daily supplement of 0.4 mg (400 micrograms) of folate.

The pregnant client cannot tolerate milk or meat. What would the nurse recommend to the client to assist in meeting protein needs? 1. Wheat bread and pasta 2. Ice cream and peanut butter 3. Eggs and tofu 4. Beans and potatoes

3. Eggs and tofu

The nurse is working with a pregnant 14-year-old. Which statement indicates that additional education is required? 1. "Because I am still growing, I need more calories than a pregnant adult." 2. "I need to eat fruit and vegetables every day to get enough vitamins." 3. "My favorite food is pizza, and I eat it once a week." 4. "Because I don't eat breakfast, I'll have to eat more at supper."

4. "Because I don't eat breakfast, I'll have to eat more at supper." Explanation: 4. Pregnant young adolescents should eat breakfast to ensure the adequate calorie and protein intake needed. In assessing the diet of the pregnant adolescent, the nurse should consider the eating pattern over time, not simply a single day's intake.

A 21-year-old woman is at 12 weeks' gestation with her first baby. She has cardiac disease, class III, as a result of having had childhood rheumatic fever. Which planned activity would indicate to the nurse that the client needs further teaching? 1. "I will be sure to take a rest period every afternoon." 2. "I would like to take childbirth education classes in my last trimester." 3. "I will have to cancel our trip to Disney World." 4. "I am going to start my classes in water aerobics next week."

4. "I am going to start my classes in water aerobics next week." Explanation: 4. With the slightest exertion, the client's heart rate will rise, and she will become symptomatic. Therefore, she should not establish a new exercise program.

The client has just been diagnosed as diabetic. The nurse knows teaching was effective when the client makes which statement? 1. "Ketones in my urine mean that my body is using the glucose appropriately." 2. "I should be urinating frequently and in large amounts to get rid of the extra sugar." 3. "My pancreas is making enough insulin, but my body isn't using it correctly." 4. "I might be hungry frequently because the sugar isn't getting into the tissues the way it should."

4. "I might be hungry frequently because the sugar isn't getting into the tissues the way it should."

The client at 20 weeks' gestation has had an ultrasound that revealed a neural tube defect in her fetus. The client's hemoglobin level is 8.5. The nurse should include which statement when discussing these findings with the client? 1. "Your low iron intake has caused anemia, which leads to the neural tube defect." 2. "You should increase your vitamin C intake to improve your anemia." 3. "You are too picky about food. Your poor diet caused your baby's defect." 4. "You haven't had enough folic acid in your diet. You should take a supplement."

4. "You haven't had enough folic acid in your diet. You should take a supplement."

The client with thalassemia intermedia has a hemoglobin level of 9.0. The nurse is preparing an education session for the client. Which statement should the nurse include? 1. "You need to increase your intake of meat and other iron-rich foods." 2. "Your low hemoglobin could put you into preterm labor." 3. "Increasing your vitamin C intake will help your hemoglobin level." 4. "You should not take iron supplements."

4. "You should not take iron supplements." Explanation: 4. Folic acid supplements are indicated for women with thalassemia, but iron supplements are not given.

When preparing nutritional instruction, which pregnant client would the nurse consider the highest priority? 1. 40-year-old gravida 2 2. 22-year-old primigravida 3. 35-year-old gravida 4 4. 15-year-old nulligravida

4. 15-year-old nulligravida

A 26-year-old client is 26 weeks pregnant. Her previous births include 2 large-for-gestational-age babies and 1 unexplained stillbirth. Which tests would the nurse anticipate as being most definitive in diagnosing gestational diabetes? 1. A 50g, 1-hour glucose screening test 2. A single fasting glucose level 3. A 100g, 1-hour glucose tolerance test 4. A 100g, 3-hour glucose tolerance test

4. A 100g, 3-hour glucose tolerance test Explanation: 4. Gestational diabetes is diagnosed if two or more of the following values are met or exceeded after taking the 100 g, 3-hour OGTT: Fasting: 95 mg/dL; 1 hour: 180 mg/dL; 2 hours: 155 mg/dL; 3 hours: 140 mg/dL.

A 20-year-old woman is at 28 weeks' gestation. Her prenatal history reveals past drug abuse, and urine screening indicates that she has recently used heroin. The nurse should recognize that the woman is at increased risk for which condition? 1. Erythroblastosis fetalis 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Abruptio placentae 4. Pregnancy-induced hypertension

4. Pregnancy-induced hypertension

A 21-year-old at 12 weeks' gestation with her first baby has known cardiac disease, class III, as a result of childhood rheumatic fever. During a prenatal visit, the nurse reviews the signs of cardiac decompensation with her. The nurse will know that the client understands these signs and symptoms if she states that she would notify her doctor if she had which symptom? 1. "A pulse rate increase of 10 beats per minute" 2. "Breast tenderness" 3. "Mild ankle edema" 4. "A frequent cough"

4. a frequent cough Explanation: 4. The heart's signal of its decreased ability to meet the demands of pregnancy includes frequent cough (with or without hemoptysis).

A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third trimester and includes an evaluation of which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Confirm fetal heart activity. 2. Evaluate the cervix. 3. Determine fetal presentation. 4. Amniotic fluid volume. 5. Fetal number.

: 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 3. A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third trimester and includes an evaluation to determine fetal presentation. 4. A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third trimester and includes an evaluation of amniotic fluid volume. 5. A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third trimester and includes an evaluation of fetal number.

Which of the following tests provides information about the fetal number? 1. Amniocentesis 2. Standard second-trimester sonogram 3. Beta hCG 4. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. A standard (comprehensive) second trimester sonogram provides the information about the fetus, placenta, and uterine conditions including fetal number.

The prenatal clinic nurse is explaining test results to a client who has had an assessment for fetal well-being. Which statement indicates that the client understands the test result? 1. "The normal Doppler velocimetry wave result indicates my placenta is getting enough blood to the baby." 2. "The reactive non-stress test means that my baby is not growing because of a lack of oxygen." 3. "Because my contraction stress test was positive, we know that my baby will tolerate labor well." 4. "My biophysical profile score of 6 points to everything being normal and healthy for my baby."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. A decrease in fetal cardiac output or an increase in resistance of placental vessels will reduce umbilical artery blood flow. Doppler velocimetry is best used when intrauterine growth restriction is diagnosed; therefore, the baby is getting an adequate blood supply.

A 27-year-old married woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has an abnormally low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test. Which statement indicates that the couple understands the implications of this test result? 1. "We have decided to have an abortion if this baby has Down syndrome." 2. "If we hadn't had this test, we wouldn't have to worry about this baby." 3. "I'll eat plenty of dark green leafy vegetables until I have the ultrasound." 4. "The ultrasound should be normal because I'm under the age of 35."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. A low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test can indicate trisomy 18 or trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). Many couples abort a fetus that has a genetic abnormality that significantly affects quality of life or has multiple medical problems. Down syndrome is more likely to occur in the fetuses of women over the age of 35 at delivery, but is not limited to this age group.

The nurse is preparing a client for amniocentesis. Which statement would indicate that the client clearly understands the risks of an amniocentesis? 1. "I might go into labor early." 2. "It could produce a congenital defect in my baby." 3. "Actually, there are no real risks to this procedure." 4. "The test could stunt my baby's growth."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Amniocentesis has the potential for causing a spontaneous abortion.

The pregnant client and her partner are both 40 years old. The nurse is explaining the options of chorionic villus sampling (CVS) and amniocentesis for genetic testing. The nurse should correct the client if she makes which statement? 1. "Amniocentesis results are available sooner than CVS results are." 2. "CVS carries a higher risk of limb abnormalities." 3. "Amniocentesis cannot detect a neural tube defect." 4. "CVS is performed through my belly or my cervix."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Amniocentesis results take longer to process than do CVS results.

A 28-year-old woman has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for 10 years. At 36 weeks' gestation, she has an amniocentesis. A lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio test is performed on the sample of her amniotic fluid. Because she is a diabetic, what would an obtained 2:1 ratio indicate for the fetus? 1. The fetus may or may not have immature lungs. 2. The amniotic fluid is contaminated. 3. The fetus has a neural tube defect. 4. There is blood in the amniotic fluid.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Infants of diabetic mothers (IDMs) have a high incidence of false-positive results (i.e., the L/S ratio is thought to indicate lung maturity, but after birth the baby develops RDS).

The nurse is responding to phone calls. Whose call should the nurse return first? 1. A client at 37 weeks' gestation reports no fetal movement for 24 hours. 2. A client at 29 weeks' gestation reports increased fetal movement. 3. A client at 32 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement X 2 days. 4. A client at 35 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement X 4 hours.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Lack of fetal movement can be an indication of nonreassuring fetal status or even fetal death. This client is the highest priority.

At 32 weeks' gestation, a woman is scheduled for a second non-stress test (following one she had at 28 weeks' gestation). Which statement by the client would indicate an adequate understanding of this procedure? 1. "I can't get up and walk around during the test." 2. "I'll have an IV started before the test." 3. "I can still smoke before the test." 4. "I need to have a full bladder for this test."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. The purpose of the non-stress test is to determine the results of movement on fetal heart rate. The NST is typically performed with the woman in the semi-Fowler's position with a small pillow or blanket under the right hip to displace the uterus to the left.

The client at 14 weeks' gestation has undergone a transvaginal ultrasound to assess cervical length. The ultrasound revealed cervical funneling. How should the nurse explain these findings to the client? 1. "Your cervix has become cone-shaped and more open at the end near the baby." 2. "Your cervix is lengthened, and you will deliver your baby prematurely." 3. "Your cervix is short, and has become wider at the end that extends into the vagina." 4. "Your cervix was beginning to open but now is starting to close up again."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Transvaginal ultrasound can most accurately identify shortened cervical length and cervical funneling, which is a cone-shaped indentation in the cervical os indicating cervical insufficiency or risk of preterm labor.

The client and her partner are carriers of sickle-cell disease. They are considering prenatal diagnosis with either amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS). Which statements indicate that further teaching is needed on these two diagnostic procedures? Select all that apply. 1. "Chorionic villus sampling carries a lower risk of miscarriage." 2. "Amniocentesis can be done earlier in my pregnancy than CVS." 3. "Neither test will conclusively diagnose sickle-cell disease in our baby." 4. "The diagnosis comes sooner if we have CVS, not amniocentesis." 5. "Amniocentesis is more accurate in diagnosis than the CVS."

Answer: 1, 2, 5 Explanation: 1. CVS has a risk of spontaneous abortion of 0.3% in cases. This rate is higher than second trimester amniocentesis. 2. CVS is performed in some medical centers for first trimester diagnosis after 9 completed weeks. Amniocentesis is performed between 15 and 20 weeks' gestation. 5. Much like amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a procedure that is used to detect genetic, metabolic, and DNA abnormalities. CVS permits earlier diagnosis than can be obtained by amniocentesis.

A woman is 16 weeks pregnant. She has had cramping, backache, and mild bleeding for the past 3 days. Her physician determines that her cervix is dilated to 2 centimeters, with 10% effacement, but membranes are still intact. She is crying, and says to the nurse, "Is my baby going to be okay?" In addition to acknowledging the client's fear, what should the nurse also say? 1. "Your baby will be fine. We'll start IV, and get this stopped in no time at all." 2. "Your cervix is beginning to dilate. That is a serious sign. We will continue to monitor you and the baby for now." 3. "You are going to miscarry. But you should be relieved because most miscarriages are the result of abnormalities in the fetus." 4. "I really can't say. However, when your physician comes, I'll ask her to talk to you about it."

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. If bleeding persists and abortion is imminent or incomplete, the woman may be hospitalized, IV therapy or blood transfusions may be started to replace fluid, and dilation and curettage (D&C) or suction evacuation is performed to remove the remainder of the products of conception.

The nurse is reviewing amniocentesis results. Which of the following would indicate that client care was appropriate? 1. The client who is Rh-positive received Rh immune globulin after the amniocentesis. 2. The client was monitored for 30 minutes after completion of the test. 3. The client began vaginal spotting before leaving for home after the test. 4. The client identified that she takes insulin before each meal and at bedtime.

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. 20 to 30 minutes of fetal monitoring is performed after the amniocentesis.

A client at 37 weeks' gestation has a mildly elevated blood pressure. Her antenatal testing demonstrates three contractions in 10 minutes, no decelerations, and accelerations four times in 1 hour. What would this test be considered? 1. Positive non-stress test 2. Negative contraction stress test 3. Positive contraction stress test 4. Negative non-stress test

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. A negative CST shows three contractions of good quality lasting 40 or more seconds in 10 minutes without evidence of late decelerations. This is the desired result.

The nurse anticipates that the physician will most likely order a cervicovaginal fetal fibronectin test for which client? 1. The client at 34 weeks' gestation with gestational diabetes 2. The client at 32 weeks' gestation with regular uterine contractions 3. The client at 37 weeks' multi-fetal gestation 4. The client at 20 weeks' gestation with ruptured amniotic membranes

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. The absence of cervicovaginal fFN between 20 and 34 weeks' gestation has been shown to be a strong predictor of a woman not experiencing preterm birth due to spontaneous preterm labor or premature rupture of membranes. Positive findings indicate a 99% probability of birth within the next 2 weeks.

Of all the clients who have been scheduled to have a biophysical profile, the nurse should check with the physician and clarify the order for which client? 1. A gravida with intrauterine growth restriction 2. A gravida with mild hypotension of pregnancy 3. A gravida who is postterm 4. A gravida who complains of decreased fetal movement for 2 days

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. The biophysical profile is used when there is a risk of placental and/or fetal compromise. The gravida with mild hypotension will need to be monitored more closely throughout the pregnancy, but is not a candidate at present for a biophysical profile.

When assisting with a transabdominal sampling, which of the following would the nurse do? 1. Obtain preliminary urinary samples. 2. Have the woman empty her bladder before the test begins. 3. Assist the woman into a supine position on the examining table. 4. Instruct the woman to eat a fat-free meal 2 hours before the scheduled test time.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Clients are placed in a supine position on the table.

During a non-stress test, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate decelerates about 15 beats during a period of fetal movement. The decelerations occur twice during the test, and last 20 seconds each. The nurse realizes these results will be interpreted as which of the following? 1. A negative test 2. A reactive test 3. A nonreactive test 4. An equivocal test

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The FHR acceleration must be at least 15 beats per minute above baseline for at least 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. A nonreactive NST is one that lacks sufficient FHR accelerations over a 40-minute period.

The nurse knows that a lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio finding of 2:1 on amniotic fluid means which of the following? 1. Fetal lungs are still immature. 2. The fetus has a congenital anomaly. 3. Fetal lungs are mature. 4. The fetus is small for gestational age.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The concentration of lecithin begins to exceed that of sphingomyelin, and at 35 weeks the L/S ratio is 2:1. When at least two times as much lecithin as sphingomyelin is found in the amniotic fluid, RDS is very unlikely.

Which of the following tests has become a widely accepted method of evaluating fetal status? 1. Contraction stress test (CST) 2. MSAFP test 3. Non-stress test (NST) 4. Nuchal translucency test

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The non-stress test (NST) has become a widely accepted method of evaluating fetal status. This test involves using an external electronic fetal monitor to obtain a tracing of the fetal heart rate (FHR) and observation of acceleration of the FHR with fetal movement.

The nurse is preparing a client in her second trimester for a three-dimensional ultrasound examination. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "If the ultrasound is normal, it means my baby has no abnormalities." 2. "The nuchal translucency measurement will diagnose Down syndrome." 3. "I might be able to see who the baby looks like with the ultrasound." 4. "Measuring the length of my cervix will determine whether I will deliver early."

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Three-dimensional ultrasound uses algorithms to vary opacity, transparency, and depth to project an image. This allows curved structures such as the fetal face to be viewed.

The client with an abnormal quadruple screen is scheduled for an ultrasound. Which statement indicates that the client understands the need for this additional antepartal fetal surveillance? 1. "After the ultrasound, my partner and I will decide how to decorate the nursery." 2. "During the ultrasound we will see which of us the baby looks like most." 3. "The ultrasound will show whether there are abnormalities with the baby's spine." 4. "The blood test wasn't run correctly, and now we need to have the sonogram."

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Ultrasound is used to detect neural tube defects. An abnormal serum quadruple screen is not the result of a lab error, and can indicate either an open neural tube defect or trisomy 18 or 21.

The nurse is returning phone calls from clients. Which client does the nurse anticipate would not require a serum beta hCG? 1. A client with a risk of ectopic pregnancy 2. A client with spotting during pregnancy 3. A client with previous pelvic inflammatory disease 4. A client with a previous history of twins

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. A previous history of twins is not a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. Beta hCG testing is not indicated for this client.

Each of the following pregnant women is scheduled for a 14-week antepartal visit. In planning care, the nurse would give priority teaching on amniotic fluid alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening to which client? 1. 28-year-old with history of rheumatic heart disease 2. 18-year-old with exposure to HIV 3. 20-year-old with a history of preterm labor 4. 35-year-old with a child with spina bifida

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a fetal protein that is excreted from the fetal yolk sac during the first 6 weeks of pregnancy. AFP levels can be high or low, with each having different implications for the fetus. If the fetus has a neural tube defect (NTD), the AFP levels will be elevated. NTDs can range from anencephaly to spina bifida. With a past history of a child with spina bifida, this client would be strongly encouraged to have the AFP screening.

A pregnant woman is having a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test. Which result indicates hyperstimulation? 1. The fetal heart rate decelerates when three contractions occur within a 10-minute period. 2. The fetal heart rate accelerates when contractions last up to 60 seconds. 3. There are more than five fetal movements in a 10-minute period. 4. There are more than three uterine contractions in a 6-minute period.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Hyperstimulation is characterized by contractions that occur more frequently than every 2 minutes or last longer than 90 seconds.

A woman at 28 weeks' gestation is asked to keep a fetal activity record and to bring the results with her to her next clinic visit. One week later, she calls the clinic and anxiously tells the nurse that she has not felt the baby move for more than 30 minutes. Which of the following would be the nurse's most appropriate initial comment? 1. "You need to come to the clinic right away for further evaluation." 2. "Have you been smoking?" 3. "When did you eat last?" 4. "Your baby might be asleep."

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Lack of fetal activity for 30 minutes typically is insignificant. Movement varies considerably, but most women feel fetal movement at least 10 times in 3 hours.

The nurse is working in an outpatient clinic. Which client's indications most warrant fetal monitoring in the third trimester? 1. Gravida 4, para 3, 39 weeks, with a history of one spontaneous abortion at 8 weeks 2. Gravida 1, para 0, 40 weeks, with a history of endometriosis and a prior appendectomy 3. Gravida 3, para 2, with a history of gestational diabetes controlled by diet 4. Gravida 2, para 1, 36 weeks, with a history of history of preterm labor or cervical insufficiency

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. The preterm client with a history of preterm labor or cervical insufficiency needs close monitoring for preterm labor onset.

The client at 24 weeks' gestation is experiencing painless vaginal bleeding after intercourse. The physician has ordered a transvaginal ultrasound examination. Which statements by the client indicate an understanding of why this exam has been requested? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "This ultrasound will show the baby's gender." 2. "This ultrasound might cause the miscarriage of my baby." 3. "This ultrasound carries a risk of creating a uterine infection." 4. "This ultrasound can determine the location of my placenta." 5. "This ultrasound might detect whether the placenta is detaching prematurely."

Answer: 4, 5 Explanation: 4. Painless bleeding in the second and third trimesters can be a symptom of placenta previa. Transvaginal ultrasound will determine the placental location. 5. Painless bleeding in the second and third trimesters can be a symptom of placenta previa. Transvaginal ultrasound will determine the placental location.