Parasitology, Surgical Nursing, Anesthesia

What is a supraglottic airway device?

-an alternative to e tube for maintaing open airwa -cats and rabbits -can be aut0oclaved and reused up to 40 times

What happens if the reservoir bag is too big?

-hard to monitor respiration -hard to judge amount of gas being delviered when providing manual ventilation

What are the three categories of safety consideration with veterinary anesthesia?

-hazards of waste anesthetic gas -handling of compressed gas cylingers -hazards associated with potential injectable agents

What are the different egg types of nematodes

-ascaroid -trichostrongyle -spiruroid -trichinelloid

What is the recommended fasting time for small ruminants

12-18 hours

Neonate HR

120-160

What is the normal RR under anesthesia?

8-20 breaths per minute

sarcocystis cysts

12 to 15um x 8 to 12um

What is the duration of pain past the discontinuation of a CRI?

30 minutes

Sarcodina

Amoeba -move via pseudopodia -have two forms trophozoite and resistant cyst

When are non-breathing systems used?

For very small patients

What are possible complications of OVH?

intra abdominal hemorrhage, renal dysfunction secondary to ureteral ligation

trichobezoars

Hairballs

What instruments are used for CCL surgeries?

Hohmann retractor, steinmann pins nad Jacob's chuck, distractor, crimp tubes

How is doxapram administer?

IV in adults -under the tongue in neonates

What are medical condition that are considered painful

arthritis cancer cystitis pancreatitis peritonitis pleuritis

How do you tell if a patient is in light stage III anesthesia?

as characterized by one or two forceful exhalations immediately after tube placement, strong jaw tone, present palpebral reflex, and in some cases spontaneous movement, swallowing, or chewing), use high oxygen flow, and keep the inhalant anesthetic agent on induction level (3% to 5% isoflurane or 4% to 6% sevoflurane), until the patient begins to enter a deeper 290plane.

What volume should the reservoir bag be?

at least 50mL/kg of patients weight = five times the patients lung volume

What route are sedative medications given to swine? Why?

Im because they don't have easily accessible peripheral veins

closed reduction

the attempted realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or joint dislocation

surgical conscience

the commitment of the surgical personnel to adhere strictly to aseptic technique because anything less could increase the potential risk of infection, resulting in harm to the patient

pharmacokinetics

the effect the body has on a drug

pharmacodynamics

the effects a drug has on the body

Define ventilation

the movement of gases in and out of the alveoli

What schedule is morphine

Schedule II

Behavior, respiration and cardivascular characteristics of stage I

-disorientation, struggling, fear -RR increased, dogs pant -HR increased

How long does it take for patients to recover after propofol?

-dogs 20 minutes -cats recover after 30 minutes of a single injection but may experience longer recovery after multiple injections

Describe body characteristics of platyhelminthes

-dorsoventrally flattened, ribbonlike and segmented into identical segments called proglottids

Piroplasms

intracellular organisms

Gamonts

blood form of protozoan parasites found in leukocytes

Which species are more prone to dysphoria with morphine?

cats and horses

hexacanth

contain 6 hooks found in gravid proglottids as larvae infective stage of some cestodes

How are anesthesia machines classified?

precision vs non precision

How are IV induction drugs given to a horse?

rapidly not to effect

proglottids

tapeworms

What are the advantages of intraveonous induction and maintenance with inhalant agent?

-rapid induction -good control of anesthetic depth -rapid recovery

plerocercoid

the second parasitic larval stage of Pseudophyllidean cestodes; also known as spargana

How many liters per kg for dogs/large animals? Cats?

80-90mL/kg for dogs and large animal 40-60mL/kg for cats

Toxoplasma gondii oocyst

10 x 12 um

What controls the rate of diffusion in the body?

-concentration gradient between alveolus and the bloodstream -lipid solubility of the drug

What characteristics are recorded in the gross examination of feces?

-consitency -color -blood -mucus -age of the feces -gross parasites

What is the onset of action of buprenorphine?

15 minutes IV and 40 minutes IM but is longer lasting than other opioids 6-12 hours for IM and 18-24 for epidural

How often should body temp be checked?

15-30 minutes

strobila

Chain of proglottids

What happens to ppupil size in anesthesia planes?

-dilate during stag II -normal or constricted during light stage III and dilate as depth increases

Describe the use of straight needles

Limited application but one may be a purse string suture on the anus

What is the schedule of hydromorphone?

Schedule II

What are normal cat vital signs under anesthesia?

HR=120-180 Heart rhythym=NSR RR=8-20 Body temp=97° F-100° F(36.1° C-37.8° C)

What are a dogs normal vital signs under anesthesia?

HR=60-150 Heart truths-NSR or SA RR=8-20 Body temp=97-100F

Theileria equi

basophilic, pear shaped trophozoites in RBCs in stained blood smears Four organisms may be joined 2 to 3 um long

prescribed rate

The fluid administration rate ordered by the doctor (mL/kg/hr)

What are the benefits of NSAIDs?

-all are effective analgesics for somatic pain but agents like ketoprofen and carprofen are good with both somatic and visceral. 30-60 minutes to achieve full analgesic effect -ptent antiinflammatory properties -antipyretic

How to restrain mouse for injectable anesthetsia

-allow to rest on rough surface then grasp by the skin overlying the shoulders and lift. The tail can be grabbed between the operators fingers

What are the disadvantages of red rubber tubes?

-more prone to kinking or collapse and may absorb disinfectant solutions

What are the objectvies of monitoring oxygenation and the methods?

-to ensure adequate oxygenation of the patients arterial blood 1. Pulse oximetry (noninvasive estimation of hemoglobin saturation) 2. Arterial blood gas analysis for oxygen partial pressure (PaO2)

What are the objectives of monitoring and methods to determine temperature?

-to ensure that patients do not encounter serious deviations from normal body temperatures 1. Rectal thermometer for intermittent measurement 2. Rectal or esophageal temperature probe for continuous measurement

How is RMV calculated?

Vt x RR -usually about 100 to 200mL/kg/min

What are the complications assocaited with R and A?

leakage of the surgical site, stemosis of the intestinal lumen, perforation and death

Where are opioids metabolized?

liver

Trypanosoma cruzi

16 to 20um in length whiplike tail transmitted through blood feeding arthropods called reduviid bugs

What is a periodic parasite?

a parasite that can leave and come back to the host. Ex. mosquito

What is the vapor pressure of sevoflurane? blood gas coefficient? MAC?

160mmHG -0.68 blood-gas -MAC=2.34-2.58%

What are the most common sizes of wire used in procedures?

18, 20, 22g

In what decade did anesthetics become widely used in veterinary practice?

1930s

trophozoites

active feeding stage

Lembert suture pattern

an inverting pattern generally used to close a hollow organ. Continuous pattern

euryxenous

broad host range

windup

enhanced response to pain stimulus produced by prolonged pain production

What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?

block sodium channels which prevents transduction and transmission of noxious stimuli into nerve impulses

How is coccidia diagnosed?

fecal flotation of the oocyst in fresh feces

Olsen-Hegar Needle Holder

has scissors built in to jaws

Why are lateral ear canal resections done?

indicated for animals with chronic otitis externa or neoplasia

What factors contribute to the decrease in body temperature under anesthesia?

-anesthetic drugs relax muscles which prevents the shivering response and reduces the overall metabolic rate -surgical site is shaved and rinsed with cool fluids, evaporation from the skin surface has a cooling effect on the body -room temperature fluids are administed -cold gases are inspired -body cavity may be opened

How is propofol eliminated from the body?

metabolized in the liver and eliminated by the kidneys. Good for animals with liver or kidney disease because of fast metabolism

What are direct blood smears used to detect?

microfilariae of canine heartworm trypanosome protozoans(tropical regions)

What effects do dissociative agents have on the respiratory system?

-apneustic respiration at high doses but not respiratory depression like other agents -increase salivation and respiratory tract secretions

plication

pleating or folding of the intestines

What are the ways to control the patients ventilation?

-bagging -patients lungs are ventilated by a machine

What are the different configurations of non-rebreathing circuits?

-bain coaxial circuit -Ayre's T-piece -Magill circuit -Lack circuit -Jackson-Rees circuit -Norman mask elbow

Which patients are IM inductions useful

puppies, kittens and ferrets -aggressive patients

dioctophyma renale egg

-barrel-shaped, bipolar and yellow brown -shell has a pitted appearance

How are fractures classified?

-bone location -open or closed fracture -location of the fracture -type of fracture -reducible or non-reducible fracture

What are the effects of etimodate on cardiovascular system?

-brief period hypotension but little effect on HR, rhythm, blood pressure and cardiac output

What are the effects of etimodate on the respiratory system

-brief period of apnea after induction but otherwise not significaant

How is a line block performed?

-by inserting the nedle along the proposed line of infiltration then gradually withdrawing the needle while simultaneously injection a small amount of local anesthetics

How is acepromazine metabolized?

-by the liver and corssing the placental barrier slowly

mediators

substances released from damaged cells that also attract inflammatory cells, combine to form sensitizing soup lowering threshold pain

What effect does propofol have on the cardiovascular system?

-cardiac depressant producing bradycardia, decreased cardiac output and decreased vascular resistance which induces transient hypotension

What is the solubility of diazepam and what must be taken in to account when storing?

non-water soluble and should not be mixed in the same syringe as water souble drugs -should not be stored in plastic

What is special about acepromazine use in horses?

-care must be taken to insure that it is injected into a vein. If it is injected into the carotid artery it can cause severe CNS excitement or depression, seizures and death

What are the effects of benzodiazepines on the cardio and respiratory systems?

none at therapeutic doses

What are the effects of dissociative agents on the CNS?

-cataleptoid state(does not responsd to external stimuli and has muscle rigidity) -intact reflexes(palpebral, corneal and pedal reflexes, PLR, laryngeal and swallowing remain intact -eyes remain open -increased muscle tone -analgesia -amneasia -sensitive to light, sound and other stikmuli -some may attempt to paw at face or demonstrate other bizarre behavior -nystagmus

Why is epinephrine added to lidocaine?

-causes constriction of blood vessels in the area which decreases the rate of drug absorption and increasing the effect -because of vasoconstriction it decreases the amount of drug that is in circulation at any given time

What are the complications with fracture fixation?

• Non-union • Malunion • Delayed union • Aseptic loosening • Infection

Describe the life cycle of a flea

(1) adult stage, (2) egg stage, (3) larval stage, and (4) pupal stage. The female flea can lay up to several thousand eggs in her lifetime. The eggs may be laid on the infested animal or in the environment. Eggs laid on the animal will drop to the ground or bedding. The eggs are very tiny and resemble tiny pearls. Typical flea eggs are smooth, white, and oval. They are not sticky, so they will fall off the host and be found in the host's environment. The eggs hatch into larvae within 2 weeks. The larva begins to form a cocoon as it passes into the pupal stage. The pupal stage is carried out entirely within the cocoon and can last for months. The flea emerges from the pupal stage only if environmental signs (air pressure, vibrations, warmth) indicate a host is present. The adult flea can survive only up to 1 week without a blood meal. Once emerged, the adult flea will find a host, take a blood meal, and begin the life cycle again.

What are the tasks that are devided during CPR

(1) application of chest compressions, (2) endotracheal intubation and manual ventilation, (3) initiation of ECG and end-tidal CO2 monitoring, (4) placement of an IV catheter, and (5) administration of reversal agents if opioids or sedatives have been given.

What are the two types of myiasis?

(1) facultative myiasis, in which the fly larvae are usually free-living, and (2) obligatory myiasis

What is an occult heart worm infection?

(1) heartworms that are too young to produce microfilariae, (2) a "unisex" or "single-sex" infection, (3) an infection in which circulating microfilariae are produced by the adult female heartworms but for some reason are removed by the host, or (4) an infection in which the circulating microfilariae have been killed by a drug but the adults have not been affected

What are common agents to induce general anesthesia in horses?

(1) ketamine as a bolus injection, (2) a mixture of ketamine and diazepam or ketamine and midazolam as a bolus injection, (3) guaifenesin infused under pressure to effect followed by ketamine as a bolus injection.

Why is monitoring important?

-keep patient safe -regulate anesthetic depth

sarcoptiform mite features

. These mites can produce severe dermatologic problems in a variety of domestic animals. This dermatitis is usually accompanied by a severe pruritus, or itching. 2. Typically, sarcoptiform mites are tiny mites barely visible to the naked eye, approximately the size of a grain of salt. 3. In silhouette the bodies of sarcoptiform mites have a round-to-oval shape. 232 4. Sarcoptiform mites have legs that have pedicels, or stalks, at the tips. The pedicels may be long or short. If the pedicel is long, it may be straight (unjointed) or jointed. At the tip of each pedicel there may be a tiny sucker. Veterinary diagnosticians should use the description of the pedicel (long or short, jointed or unjointed) to identify sarcoptiform mites.

Normal P wave duration in ferret?

0.04

What is the age cut off for fasting?

8 weeks and younger should not be fa1sted

What is the recommended fasting time for cats and dogs?

8-12 hours

What is the recommended fasting time for horses

8-12 hours

What is the maintenance rate of desflurane?

8-12%

What is the rate of assisted ventilation?

8-20 breaths/min until control is established and then 6-12 breaths/min

What is the maxiumum allowed concentration of anesthetic gases?

2ppm

What are the recommended exposure limits for anesthetic gases?

2ppm when used alone or not exceed 0.5ppm if used with NO2 -NO2 is 25ppm

What is the onset of action of injectable lidocaine?

3-5 minutes, test by pricking skin with 22g needle

What is the typical processing time and temperature of ultrasonic machines?

3-6 minutes at 110-130F

What value of SpO2 indicates hypoxemia?

95% and value of 80mmHg

Cryptosporidium oocysts

4 to 6 um oval to spherical

What is the induction rate of sevoflurane for common domestic species?

4-6%

What is the onset of action and duration of lidocaine?

onset-immediate onset duration 1-2 hours

What is the common treatment for GDV?

1. Decompression of the stomach. 2. Correction of fluid and electrolyte imbalances, correction of arrhythmias, and treatment for shock in most cases. 3. Correction of the malpositioned stomach and partial gas- trectomy of devitalized tissue if warranted. 4. Gastropexy procedure, which involves surgically attaching the stomach to the body wall to prevent future gastric dila- tation and volvulus (does not prevent future bloat).

What are the rates of inhalant gas for inducing a foal?

1. Isoflurane: Administer isoflurane at 4% to 5% by nasotracheal tube.∗ 2. Sevoflurane: Administer sevoflurane at 5% to 8% by nasotracheal tube.∗

What is the duration of action of butorphanol?

1 hour

What is the onset and duration of action of Simbadol?

1 hour onset and 24-48 hour duration

What is the recommended floor rate for patients <150kg using mask induction

1-3L/min in patietns <10kg 3-5L/min for patients > 10kg

Which of the propofol molecules produce anesthesia?

1-5% of the total molecules are able to enter the brain to induce anesthesia because the bound molecules are unable to cross cell membranes

What are the phyla of protozoa that can be parasitic?

1) flagellated protozoans, (2) ameboid protozoans, (3) apicomplexans, and (4) ciliated protozoans.

What sizes do breathing tubes come in?

1) large animal 50mm 2) small animal 22mm-7kg 3) small animal pediatric 15mm-2.5-7kg

What is the reversal dosage for tolazoline?

1:10

What conditions can be identified with duodenoscopy?

: intestinal parasites, inflammation lymphangiectasia, ulcerations, and neoplasia

Describe the different levels of hydration and their characteristics

<5%Not detectable ∼5% (Mild)Minimal loss of skin turgorSemidry mucous membranesEyes: normal ∼8% (Moderate)Moderate loss of skin turgorDry mucous membranesWeak rapid pulsesEnophthalmos (depressed globes within orbits) >10%Considerable loss of skin turgorExtremely dry mucous membranesTachycardia and weak/thready pulsesHypotensionSevere enophthalmosAltered level of consciousness

What is a closed faced interface system?

A closed interface is one in which the communication with room air is via positive and negative pressure relief valves. This type works best with low-flow active or passive evacuation systems.

Describe wedge resection of the eye procedure

A chalazion forceps or a Jaeger lid plate may be used for stabilization. A full-thickness "house-shaped" incision is made with sharp dissection. The incision is closed in two layers. Subcutaneous sutures are placed in a simple interrupted pattern using 5-0 Vicryl. Skin sutures are placed using a figure-of-8 pattern for apposition of the eyelid margin, and a few simple interrupted sutures are placed for the remainder of the incision using 6-0 Vicryl.

What is a closed rebreathing system?

A closed rebreathing system (also called a total rebreathing system) is one in which the pop-off valve can be kept nearly or completely closed and the flow of oxygen is relatively low, providing only the volume necessary to meet the patient's metabolic needs. When the system is operating optimally, it is not necessary to vent gases from the circuit because the same volume of gas is added to the circuit as is consumed by the patient. In reality, however, this delicate balance of input and consumption is difficult to achieve and requires constant monitoring and adjustment. For this reason, closed systems are seldom used in practice, with the exception of large animal anesthesia.

Describe a cutting edge needle and what it is used for

A cutting-edge needle also has three cutting edges on the point and body, but the third cutting edge is on the inside of the curve. This style of needle may be most traumatic because the cutting edge on the inside of the curve cuts toward the edges of the wound, compromising the strength of the tissue.

Define adjunct

A drug that is not a true anesthetic but that is used during anesthesia to produce other desired effects such as sedation, muscle relaxation, analgesia, reversal, neuromuscular blockade, or parasympathetic blockade.

What is a monopolar electrosugery unit?

A ground plate must be placed under the patient and when the hand piece is activated the elctric current passes through the patient to the ground plate and then is diverted away from the patient. Water or saline saturated sponge should be placed on the ground plate between the patient and the plate. NEVER use alcohol.

What instruments are used for gastric foreign body surgeries?

A general soft tissue surgical pack should be sufficient for this procedure if only a gastrotomy is required. A Balfour abdominal retractor and sterile laparotomy sponges should be available. Heated lavage fluid and suction may also be indicated.

Instruments for laparoscopy

A general use soft tissue instru- ment pack should be available for laparoscopic proce- dures. The surgeon will require scalpel handles, blades, mosquito forceps, thumb forceps, needle holders, suture scissors, suture, and a bowl for saline. Laparoscopic instruments that should be available include biopsy instruments, cutting instruments, and palpation probe

What instruments are used for a c-section?

A general use soft tissue surgery pack should provide the surgeon with the necessary instruments needed for cesar- ean section. Extra hemostats should be available. Extra hands will also be needed to help warm and resuscitate the puppies or kittens.

eutectic mixture

A mixture of two or more solid components that becomes a liquid on mixing (without change in temperature)

What is a PS1?

A normal healthy patient undergoing an elective surgery

Patient positioning for laparoscopy

A patient undergoing a laparoscopy should be fasted for 12 hours to prevent regurgitation during anesthesia and to keep the stomach from being distended. The bladder should be expressed before the patient enters the surgery room. An increased risk of traumatic puncture is present when these organs are distended. Distended organs can also make visualization of the target organs difficult. Most laparoscopic procedures are done with the patient under general anesthesia. The patient's abdomen should be clipped from the xiphoid process to the pubis as for any abdominal procedure. The clip should extend wide later- ally for the placement of accessory ports. The animal may be placed in dorsal or left or right lateral recumbency. The positioning of the patient depends on the procedure. For purposes of this discussion, it is assumed that the patient has been placed in dorsal recumbency. The abdomen should be prepared routinely.

aliquot

A portion of a well-mixed sample removed for testing

Wet to dry bandage

A primary layer of sterile, saline-soaked gauze sponges is applied directly to the wound. A secondary layer of dry gauze sponges and rolled-cotton batting is layered onto the primary layer and then secured to the animal with rolled gauze and tape. The dressing is changed two or three times daily. When the primary layer is removed, the foreign matter and necrotic debris that have dried to the gauze are pulled offthe wound.

What are the parts of a rebreathing circuit

A rebreathing circuit consists of the following parts: • Fresh gas inlet • Unidirectional (or one-way) valves • Pop-off (or adjustable pressure-limiting [APL]) valve • Carbon dioxide absorber canister • Pressure manometer • Air intake valve • Breathing tubes • Y-piece

What is hypostatic congestion

A recovering patient should also be turned every 10 to 15 minutes to prevent pooling of blood in the dependent lung and tissues—a condition called hypostatic congestion

Describe a reverse cutting needle and what it is used for

A reverse cutting needle has three cutting edges on the point—the cross section is triangular, with one of the cutting edges being the outside of the curve—and it maintains that shape in the body and is stronger than the conventional cutting needle.

draping for castration

A single fenestrated drape is appro- priate for orchiectomy. The surgeon may elect to use a four-corner draping method. A single fenestrated drape is placed over the surgical region (the testicles and scrotum are draped out of the surgical field).

Postoperative care of CCL surgeries

A soft bandage should be placed on the limb for 48 hours after CCL repair to protect the surgical site and reduce swelling. The patient should return in 14 days for a recheck and suture removal. The most important postoperative consideration is exercise restriction. Dogs should be restricted to short leash walks for at least 6 weeks after surgery. Activity can then be gradually increased over a 12-week period.

copulatory bursa

A specialized copulatory structure located at the posterior end of male acanthocephalans which is used to hold the female during copulation

Describe a taper point needle and what it is used for

A taper-point needle has a sharp point that pierces and penetrates tissues without leaving small cuts because the cross section is rounded

Dipylidium egg

A tapeworm egg packet containing multiple hexacanths

What are the different ways CO2 is transported through the blood?

About 20% to 30% is bound to hemoglobin in the RBCs. About 5% to 10% is dissolved in plasma and is measurable as PCO2 (the CO2 partial pressure in the vessels). The remainder (about 60% to 70%) reacts with water to form carbonic acid,

What are the lengths that absorbable sutures are cut? Nonabsorbable?

Absorbable sutures are generally cut quite short, leaving only 18 to 14 inch of suture beyond the knot. Minimal amounts of absorbable suture are left in the patient to reduce the possibility of complications. Nonabsorbable suture is generally cut so that the suture ends extend about 12 inch beyond the knot. Suitable length is necessary to facilitate suture removal in 10 to 14 days.

Why is acepromazine contraindicated in stallions?

Acepromazine is considered to be contraindicated in stallions by many clinicians because it may cause penile prolapse, which can lead to permanent injury and loss of breeding soundness.

What are the two kingdoms of concern for veterinary medicine

Animalia(platyhelminths, custodies, nematodes, acanthocephalans, annelids and arthropods) Protista

What is the mode of action of propofol

Although the mode of action is not completely understood, propofol appears to augment action of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in a similar manner to other hypnotics. Propofol has a rapid onset and short duration of action because it is highly fat-soluble.

What is the mode of action of naloxone?

Although, as with many other anesthetics and adjuncts, the exact mechanism of action of naloxone is not known, it is believed to bind competitively to the mu, kappa, and sigma receptors. Naloxone acts within 2 minutes of IV administration and 5 minutes of IM administration; it has a duration of action of 30 to 60 minutes, and in some cases may last longer.

What type of closure is required for an enterotomy procedure?

An absorbable monofilament taper point suture in a simple interrupted suture pattern may be used to close the incision. Multifila- ment suture should never be used in the GI tract; the braid of the suture can act as a wick for bacteria. A local lavage of the enterotomy site is warranted as is a warm abdominal lavage of the entire abdomen. All scrubbed personnel should change gloves, and the instruments used to perform the enterotomy should be placed aside. Clean instruments (those not used in the intestines) should be used to close the layers of the abdominal cavity. The abdominal cavity can be closed routinely.

Why is an elevated PCV of anesthetic concern?

An elevated PCV or RBC count is most often caused by dehydration and is of concern to the anesthetist because of the associated decrease in blood volume, which may adversely affect cardiac output, blood pressure, and tissue perfusion.

How is BP directly monitored?

An indwelling catheter is placed in the femoral or dorsal pedal artery then attached to a pressure transducer and monitor

What is the most common type of gastropexy?

An internal incision is made into the right ventrolateral body wall, exposing the abdominal muscles. A second incision is made into the seromuscular layer of the stomach antrum. The edges of the gastric incision are sutured to the internal abdominal wall inci- sion. This connection will form a permanent adhesion. This particular type of incisional gastropexy is considered simple and effective and has less potential for complica- tions than other methods of gastropexy

How does an oscillometric BP pressure work?

An oscillometric BP monitor (oscillometer) consists of a cuff with an internal pressure-sensing bladder, connected to a computerized monitor (see Figure 6-29). The machine inflates and deflates the cuff, and the computer measures the oscillations in intracuff pressure caused by the subtle volume changes of the extremity resulting from pulsations of the artery beneath the cuff. It then calculates the systolic, mean, and diastolic pressures, and the HR from the pressure changes.

Oxygen flow rates for Mapleson A, modified Mapleson A and modified Mapleson D

Approximately 0.25 to 1.5 L/min (This guideline represents approximately 100 to 200 mL/kg/min— approximately 0.75 to 1.0 × the respiratory minute volume)

Oxygen flow rates for Mapleson D systems with no rebreathing, Mapleson E systems and Mapleson F systems

Approximately 1 to 3 L/min (This guideline represents approximately 300 to 400 mL/kg/min—approximately 2 to 3 × the respiratory minute volume)

Oxygen flow rates fro semiclosed system during maintenance for >150kg

Approximately 3 to 5 L/min. (This guideline represents approximately 10 mL/kg/min with a maximum of 5 L/min.)

When are isotonic crystalloids used?

As mentioned in the previous section, isotonic, polyionic replacement crystalloids including LR, PLA, PL148, and NR are the first choice fluid for healthy patients undergoing routine surgery, as well as many sick patients as long as the PCV is over 20% and the plasma protein is over 3.5 g/dL. Consequently these fluids are used in the vast majority of anesthetized patients.

Describe assisted gloving

Assisted Gloving Assisted gloving is used when a sterile team member helps another scrubbed-in team member glove. If a glove is contaminated during surgery, it needs to be changed. The contaminated person should step away, or at least keep the contaminated hand away from the sterile field. The circulating nurse grasps the outside of the glove cuff, but below the top of the glove, to ensure the sterile gown is not touched. The glove is pulled off inside out. The cuff of the gown should not be pulled over the hand because the cuff is contaminated with skin cells and scurf. The hands are extended all the way through the cuffs and sleeves. Assisted gloving is the best method to use to reglove. If this is not possible, open gloving away from the sterile field is necessary. The following technique is used for the assisted gloving technique. The already gloved, sterile team member picks up the sterile glove, then places fingers from both hands under the cuff on the sterile sides of the glove. The palm of the glove is held toward the person being gloved (Figure 3-36). The cuff of the glove should be stretched widely open so that the hand can be placed in the glove withou ouching the surgical nurse. The surgical nurse can avoid touching the hand to be gloved by holding the thumbs out (Figure 3-37). As the person slips into the glove, pull up on the glove to assist with the entrance of the hand into the glove (Figure 3-38). Make sure to bring the cuff of the glove over the cuff of the sleeve. Repeat for the other hand. The person being gloved can assist by using the one gloved hand to hold open the cuff of the other sterile glove being donned, while the surgical nurse's thumbs are kept under the glove's cuff until the glove is donned.

Define atrial fibrillation

Atrial fibrillation appears as fine undulations of the baseline (often referred to as f waves), an absence of P waves, a high HR, and normal QRS complexes with irregular intervals between them (Figure 6-23). This rhythm, which is usually caused by heart disease, decreases cardiac output and requires treatment.

How would you treat systole or pulseless electrical activity?

Aystole and PEA may be treated with low dose epinephrine and/or vasopressin. Atropine may also be considered if high parasympathetic tone is suspected. In the event that either of these rhythms persists for longer than 10 minutes, high dose epinephrine and bicarbonate therapy may be considered.

What are the body responses that are blocked by anticholinergics during surgeries?

blocks bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, excess tear and saliva production, excess production of respiratory system secretions, GI motility and miosis

What are the three subspecies of Babesia canis?

Babesia canis can be broken down into three subspecies that denote in which country the species is found. Babesia canis canis is found in Europe, Babesia canis vogeli is found in Northern Africa and North America, and Babesia canis rossi is found in Southern Africa (Bowman, 2009).

How to dry the hands

Be careful not to drip water on the gown pack. Step back from the sterile table, always being aware of the sterile items in the environment to prevent contamination. Open the towel full length, using one end of the towel to gently rub the fingers, hand, and arms (in that order) of the first hand and arm (Figure 3-17). Do not rub back and forth; instead, rub circumfer- entially beginning at the wrist and moving to the elbow. Bend at the waist slightly so that the towel does not brush against the scrub suit. When ready to dry the second hand and arm, bring the first, dry hand to the opposite end of the towel and repeat (Figure 3-18). When drying is completed, drop the towel onto the floor with the hand that is currently holding it, without allowing either hand to fall below waist level.

How should reservoir bag, breathing tubes and y pieces be maintained?

Before each case, the reservoir bag, breathing tubes, and the Y-piece or non-rebreathing system should be removed and cleaned to prevent interpatient transfer of infectious agents that collect inside. Wash each part with a warm, mild soapy disinfectant such as chlorhexidine gluconate, then rinse thoroughly. They can also be soaked in disinfectant solution such as chlorhexidine, but must be rinsed before reassembling the machine. A surgical scrub brush or bottle brush is useful for cleaning equipment surfaces

Describe the preparation of an endoscope

Before the procedure, the patient data should be ready in the com- puter. The machine is turned on when the endoscope is attached, and the light source is checked. The endoscope should be tested while the machine is warming up. First, the technician should confirm that an adequate amount of distilled water is available for flushing; the water valve can then be depressed to confirm that water comes out of the distal end. Water flushing is done to rinse off a soiled lens on the distal tip of the endoscope. Second, the air/ water valve should be gently covered, and the distal end of the insertion tube submerged in a bowl of water to check for bubbles; this is a test for insufflation. Third, the tip is left submerged in a bowl of water and tested forsuctioning. Any necessary accessory instruments or items, such as biopsy forceps, oral speculum, pathology request forms, water-soluble lubricant gel, gauze pads, and for- malin cups or slides, should all be available and ready for use.

What is prostacyclin?

Beneficial prostaglandin that is present in stomach mucosa and helps reduce gastric acid secretion and promote mucous production. Gastric acid secretion increases and mucous production decreasess which can cause stomach ulcers

What is the consensual reflex>

Both eyes' neurological functions are working together and can be seen when both pupils react and become smaller when light stimulates either eye (one eye at a time).

Which breed of dog are more sensitive to acepromazine? Resistant?

Boxers and giant breeds of dog are more sensitive to acepromazine than other breeds, whereas terriers are resistant.

What is the reaction formula for what occurs in the carbon dioxide absorber?

CO2 + Ca(OH)2 = CaCO3 + H2O + Heat

How is fentanyl usually given?

CRI or transdermally but can be given IM, SC ro epidural

How should camelids be recovered?

Camelids should be placed in sternal recumbency with the head and neck held upright and supported in a normal, neutral position to promote venous drainage from the head. If upper airway obstruction develops after extubation, nasal tubes can be placed. If nasopharyngeal intubation does not relieve the obstruction, the attending veterinarian should be informed immediately.

Normal PCV for dog and cat

Canine: 37-54 Feline: 27-48

Normal range of canine and feline BUN?

Canine: 5-35 mg/dL Feline: 5-35 mg/dL

Normal range of canine and feline total solids?

Canine: 5.5 -7.5 g/dL Feline: 6.5 to 8.2 g/dL

What are some reasons for an abnormal capnogram not ventilation or equipment related?

Cardiac arrest will cause a rapid loss of the waveform because CO2 is no longer circulated to the lungs, and the waveform will rapidly reappear with the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) if cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is successful. • Hypotension or a sudden decrease in cardiac output will cause a rapid decrease in the ETCO2 (a shorter rectangle). • Hypothermia will cause a gradual decrease in the ETCO2 because of a decrease in the metabolic rate and therefore CO2 production (a shorter rectangle). Hyperthermia will cause a gradual increase (a taller rectangle).

What is the compressed gas supply?

Carrier gas usually O2 or NO2

Which species do not have sinus arrhythmias normally?

Cats and most other exotic mammals such as rabbits, ferrets, and rodents

What does CVP monitor?

Central venous pressure-how well blood is returning to the heart as well as how effectively blood is pumped from the heart

Describe the preservation method for cestodes

Cestodes (tapeworms), including the scolices (heads), should be placed in water at about 37° C (98.6° F) for about 1 hour and then stored in a mixture of 5% glycerine or 70% alcohol or 5% to 10% formalin

What are possible complications of lateral ear resection procedure?

Complications are uncommon, insufficient drainage and sustained ear infections can be seen.

Describe a closed castration procedure

Closed castration is performed much like open castration except for the incision of the parietal vaginal tunics. Once the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and spermatic fascia are incised, the spermatic cord is exteriorized. Ligatures are placed around the entire spermatic cord and tunics, and the cord is then transected

Closure of a cystotomy

Closure of the bladder can consist of a two-layer or three-layer continuous closure or a simple interrupted suture pattern (Figure 7-59). The stay sutures can be removed, and the abdomen should be lavaged with warm saline. The abdomen should be closed routinely. Bladder stones retrieved from the bladder should be submitted for analysis.

Symptoms of Theileria equi and Babesia caballi infection

Common symptoms include fever, depression, icterus, anorexia, hemoglobinuria, pale mucous membranes, weakness, and splenomegaly.

semi-occlusive dressing

Cotton and polyester gauze pads, petro- leum jelly-coated gauze pads, antibiotic ointment-coated polyethylene glycol sponges, and polyurethane foam sponges are examples of nonadherent, semi-occlusive dressings. Semi-occlusive dressings allow excess fluid to be absorbed by the secondary layer.

Which species is more sensitive to xylazine?

Cows, they need 1/10th the dose of horses

What are McIntosh blades?

Curved blades for laryngoscope

Stevens Tenotomy Scissors

Cutting/Dissecting

What are the different type of defibrillators and how do they work?

Defibrillators are classified as monophasic or biphasic. In a monophasic defibrillator, current flows only in one direction, whereas in a biphasic defibrillator it flows in both directions in rapid succession. RECOVER guidelines recommend use of a biphasic defibrillator ideally, to minimize the setting needed and consequently the potential injury to the heart muscle.

Dowling spay retractor

Designed to assist the solo veterinary surgeon in performing an OVH on a canine or feline patient Isolate the uterine horn with the retractor surgeon has better visualization and stabilization for ligation and excision

Hand Chuck (Jacob's Chuck)

Designed to hold and drive IM pins

What is a DISS?

Diameter index safety system Located on the back of the machine, it is supposed to prevent gas lines from being hooked up incorrectly

emergence delirium

Disorientation that occurs during anesthetic recovery as consciousness returns. May be characterized by vocalization, aggression, thrashing, and locomotor activity

What is unique about taking a cats BP with a doppler?

Doppler monitors underestimate the PSYS in cats by about 15 mmHg but are fairly accurate in dogs and large animals. Therefore when taking a cat's BP, add 15 mmHg to the pressure indicated on the manometer.

Define narcosis

Drug-Induced sleep that they are not easily aroused from

What are the various instruments used to monitor anesthesia?

ECG, BP monitor, capnograph, doppler, pulse oximeter

How do you test a flow meters accuracy

Empty the reservoir bag completely • Close the pop-off or overflow valve • Occlude the Y-piece or ET tube connector • Choose a flow setting that corresponds to the size of the reservoir bag in liters (e.g., 2 L/min for a 2 L bag or 3 L/min for a 3 L bag) The flowmeter is accurate if the bag fills completely in 1 minute.

What are the adverse effects of an epidural?

Epidural hematomas and abscesses may result from improper needle placement or unsterile technique. Urinary retention may occur in the first 24 hours after surgery, and the bladder should be monitored closely in all patients that have received epidural analgesics. Urinary catheterization may be necessary in some patients. Pruritus, delayed respiratory depression, sedation, vomiting, and nausea have been reported in human patients but are uncommon in dogs.

What are the effects of epinephrine in CPA?

Epinephrine is a powerful sympathetic nervous system stimulant (adrenergic agonist) that increases peripheral vascular tone (by binding to alpha1 receptors), and increases the strength of heart contractions as well as the heart rate (by binding to beta1 receptors).

EPM

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis Clinical signs are caused mainly by destruction of neurons. Clinical signs are ataxia, weakness, stumbling, muscle wasting, and disorientation

What types of infections can be caused by endoscopes that have not been thoroughly disinfected?

Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, Serratia, and Salmonella. Other organisms of concern in gastroenterology settings include Campylobacter, Clostridium difficile, and Helicobacter pylori, as well as many viral pathogens.

What is the relationship between partial pressure in plasma and oygen saturation?

the partial pressure in the plasma is dependent almost excusliveyl on the amount of oxygen in the alveoli and the health of the lungs

external fixation

Exter- nal fixation is a form of fixation applied through the exte- rior surface (skin and muscle) of the limb to the interior area (bone and medullary cavity) to help with stability.

What happens to eye position during anesthesia

Eye position changes from central to ventromedial (the patient appears to be looking toward its chin) and back to central with increasing anesthetic depth, although there is considerable variation among individuals in exactly when these changes occur (Figure 6-42). Small animals eye is central during stage III, ventromedial during surgical anesthesia and central during deep stage III anesthesia

What type of solution is used for fecal flotation?

Fecal flotation solutions with a specific gravity of 1.2 to 1.25 are used to "float" parasite ova, cysts, and larvae while the fecal material sinks to the bottom of the container.

How to diagnosis cryptosporidium species

Fecal flotation, fecal smear or ELISA

Describe fibrillation

Fibrillation is the chaotic, uncoordinated contraction of small muscle bundles within the atria or ventricles that appears as an undulating baseline with or without QRS complexes.

bursal rays

Fingerlike projections of a copulatory bursa

Draw the life cycle of a nematode

First three larval stages can develop in external environment -third stage is infective stage

Sarcomastigophorans

Flagellates and amoeba

What is the relationship between MAC and the setting?

For any inhalation anesthetic, a vaporizer setting of approximately 1 × MAC will maintain light Stage III anesthesia, 1.5 × MAC will maintain surgical anesthesia, and 2 × MAC will maintain deep Stage III anesthesia in most patients.

Which fluid is sometimes used for blood volume expansion during shock and at what rate?

For blood volume expansion in large and small animals, administer 7% hypertonic saline IV at a rate of 4 to 5 mL/kg for dogs and large animals, and 2 to 4 mL/kg for cats, given slowly over a 5-minute period, followed by administration of isotonic crystalloids.

What is the standard infusion rate for crystalloid fluids during surgery? What are the newer rates?

For both small and large animals, a rate of 10 mL/kg/hr during the first hour followed by 5 mL/kg/hr for the remainder of the procedure is commonly used as a standard IV administration rate for crystalloids during routine anesthesia and surgery -The authors of this paper recommend an initial rate of 5 mL/kg/hr in dogs and 3 mL/kg/hr in cats followed by a reduced rate if the patient is anesthetized for more than 1 hour

Neuroleptanalgesic combinations injection time

Give an IV bolus of diazepam, followed by a bolus of hydromorphone. Some patients may require an additional bolus of each drug to allow intubation and occasionally may require a third bolus.

Propofol injection time

Give propofol slowly at a rate of one quarter to one half the calculated dose every 30 seconds to effect. A more rapid injection rate may be helpful for uncooperative patients but is more likely to induce apnea. If the injection is too slow, excitement may be seen.

When should the carbon absorber ganules be changed?

Granules should be discarded when no more than one third to one half have changed color; regardless of whether or not any of the previously mentioned indicators are evident, the granules should always be changed after 6 to 8 hours of use or after 30 days even if the time maximum of 6 to 8 hours has not been reached.

Lane Bone-holding forceps

Grasping and holding. Toothed and serrated tips; Non-locking and locking handles.

Tritrichomonas foetus Host Location Distribution Derivation of genus Transmission route Common Name Zoonotic

Host: Bovine Location: Prepuce of bulls and vagina, cervix, and uterus of cows Distribution: Worldwide but becoming rare where artificial insemination is used Derivation of Genus: Three hair unit Transmission Route: Sexual transmission Common Name: Trichomonas Zoonotic: No

Liohippelates species (formerly Hippelates) Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Bovines and canines Location of Adult: On or about mucocutaneous junctions of the eyes, lips, and teats of cattle and the penis of the dog Distribution: North and South America Derivation of Genus: Unknown Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: Dog penis gnats -nonbiting

Eimeria falciformis, E. ferrisi, E. hansonorum

Host: Mice Location: E. falciformis and E. hansonorum (small intestines); E. ferrisi (cecum) Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Named after German biologist Gustav Eimer Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Coccidia of mice Zoonotic: No 14 to 26 µm × 11 to 24 µm round to oval, smooth, and colorless. There is no micropyle or residuum. Sporocysts are oval and have a residuum and a small body. Detected by fecal flotation

Which species tends to have a rough recovery from inhalant anesthesia?

Horses and they must be watch closely so they do not break limbs during recovery

What are the factors that affect wound healing?

Host factors-Geriatric, malnourishment, hepatic diease wound characteristics-foreign material, type of incision, infection external factors-drugs

Musca domestica Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: A variety of animals 217 Location of Adult: Within the house Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Fly Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: Housefly -lapup liquids including secretions from animals -covered in setae -fecaultative myiasis larvae that can be found in tissues or organs of domestic or wild animals and sometimes humans

Which route of induction is not common in ruminant anesthesia?

IM

How are dissociative given?

IM or IV -not given IM in dogs

How is Alfaxalone administered?

IV but can also be given IM route to cats to produce deep sedation or light anesthesia

How is hydromorphine given?

IV, IM and SC not associated with histamine reaction

How is butorphanol given?

IV, IM, SC and CRI

How is buprenorphine given?

IV, IM, SC or epidural or oral

How is oxymorphone administered?

IV, IM, SC, epidural slow iv in cats

What is the duration of morphine IV? IM?

IV-.5-3 hours IM-slightly longer

What is stage IV anesthetic depth

If anesthetic depth continues to increase, the animal enters stage IV anesthesia. At this stage there is cessation of respiration, and the cardiovascular system is markedly depressed with a dramatic drop in HR and BP, accompanied by pale mucous membranes and a prolonged CRT. If not recognized and managed, circulatory collapse and death will quickly follow. Immediate resuscitation is necessary to save the patient's life.

Which drugs block the perception pathway?

opioids, sedatives/tranquilizers/general anesthetics

What are non-rebreathing systems?

In a non-rebreathing system, little or no exhaled gas is returned to the patient; it is instead evacuated by a scavenger connected to a pop-off or overflow valve, or to an exit port. If no gases are returned to the patient, the system is described as open; if some gases return, the system is described as semiopen.

stump pyometra

It is possible for a condition known as stump pyometra to develop in a previously spayed female if ovarian tissue was left behind during the original proce- dure. The remnants of the uterus left near the cervix can become infected. Clinical signs are seen within 4 to 8 weeks after the last heat cycle and can include decreased appetite, lethargy, increased thirst and urination, and in some, but not all cases, foul-smelling vaginal discharge

Why should oxygen lines be purged after a procedure?

It may give a false sense that the oxygen is on if it is not done

What are the anesthetic problems encountered with pediatric patients?

Increased risk of hypothermia, dehydration, overhydration, hypoxemia, hypotension, hypoventilation, and hypoglycemia • Inefficient metabolism and excretion of drugs • Difficult intubation and intravenous catheterization

What is laryngospasm and which species does it happen wtih?

Laryngospasm is a reflex closure of the glottis in response to contact with any object or substance. This reflex will cause the glottis to close forcibly during intubation. This complication is most commonly encountered in cats, swine, and small ruminants, especially when under a light plane of anesthesia.

trypomastigote

Infective stage of Trypanosomes that swim in the blood

Describe intrascapular CCL surgery procedure

Intracapsular techniques involve replacement or recon- struction of the CCL using various materials, including biologic tissues (patellar tendon and fascia lata) and syn- thetic suture material. The joint is approached laterally (Figure 7-114), and a graft of tissue is isolated. A tunnel is then drilled through the cranial surface of the tibia. The graft is fed through the tunnel and over the top of the lateral condyle, thereby reconstructing the CCL.

Define sinus arrhythmia

Irregular rhythm related to respiration (increase with inspiration, decrease rate with expiration)

What effect does acepromazine have on vomiting?

It has an antiemetic effect even at low doses

How many times should the air be changed in a room with an anesthetic procedure?

It is advised that all rooms in which anesthetic gases are released have at least 15 air changes per hour, 3 of which should be fresh air. A rate of 21 air changes per hour is preferred.

Describe the perineal pattern of scrubbing

It is important that a purse-string suture be placed in the anus before the preparation is begun. This suture prevents the evacuation of fecal material onto the surgical site during the procedure. The purse-string suture needs to be placed carefully to avoid puncturing the anal glands. It is the technician's responsibility to ensure that the suture is removed after the procedure; a reminder note on the anesthetic monitoring sheet helps the technician remember this task. The perineal pattern is basically three separate target patterns performed in a particular sequence. The first step is to do a target pattern on the clipped area to the right of the anus. The second step is to perform another to the left of the anus, and the third pattern is done on the anus itself. The "dirty" area should always be prepared last to minimize contamination. As with other patterns, the scrub is followed by a rinsing agen

Giardia Kingdom, phylum hosts, location, transmission

Kingdom: Protozoa Phylum: Flagellete Host: Dogs, cats, horses, ruminants and exotics Location: Intestinal Mucosa Transmission: Ingestion of oocysts

simple continous pattern

Knot at either end of the suture line and continuous suture in between. can be used in sq, subcuticular and muscle layers

Which type of replacement fluid should not be used with blood products?

Lactated ringers as it has calcium and can cause the blood to clot

Which lead is most commonly used by itself to evaluate heart rhythm?

Lead II

When are synthetic colloids used?

Like natural colloids, these solutes tend to remain in the intravascular space, expanding the blood volume. Depending on the agent, 30% to 60% of a synthetic colloid remains in the plasma after 24 hours, and a smaller percentage remains in the plasma for as long as days to weeks after administration.

sympathetic blockade

Loss of function of sympathetic nerves supplying the heart and blood vessels resulting from diffusion of local anesthetic into the thoracic spinal cord. Signs include bradycardia, decreased cardiac output, and hypotension. Blockade of the caudal sympathetic nerves results in less severe hypotension and tachycardia

Define regional anesthesia

Loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic or other agent in proximity to sensory nerves

Which of the blood pressure measurements are considered the most valuable?

MAP

What are the problematic design flaws of non-rebreathing systems?

Many non-rebreathing circuits have design characteristics that can be problematic when providing manual assisted or controlled ventilation. Most do not have a pressure manometer. In addition, many of these systems either do not have a pop-off valve, or have an overflow valve that is not easy to adjust. These characteristics make it challenging to control the size of the reservoir bag and to make sure appropriate pressure is applied when bagging a patient. -Overcome with universal control arm

What are the five kingdoms?

Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia

What is a PS5?

Moribund patient that is not expected to survive without the operatio -Severe head trauma -Pulmonary embolus -Gastric dilatation-volvulus -End-stage major organ failure

What is "MLK"

Morphine Lidocaine Ketamine used for very severe pain

cervical alae

Morphologic feature on the ANTERIOR end of an adult nematode -flattened expansions of the cuticle

What are the two types of ET tube?

Murphy-have a beveled need and a side hole. May or may not have a cuff Cole tubes-no cuff or side hole but have an abrupt decrease in diameter. Used for exotics

What is amandtadine?

NDMA receptor agonist that may be useful as an analgesic adjunct in neuropathic pain, central hypersensitivity as well as chronic pain

Describe normal sinus rhythm on ECG.

NSR is a regular rhythm in which the HR is normal and the distance between successive heartbeats (each QRS complex) is approximately equal 174(Figures 6-12 and 6-13). When an NSR is present, the answer to each of the five questions of ECG interpretation is "Yes." NSR is normal in anesthetized dogs, cats, horses, and cattle.

allis tissue forceps

Neither hemostat nor thumb tissue forcep. This ring-handled forcep has multiple inward curving and interlocking fine teeth at the tip. Used to remove tissue

Describe preservation of nematode sample

Nematodes (roundworms) should be briefly washed in water to remove any attached debris and then placed in hot 70% ethyl alcohol (ethanol). Isopropyl alcohol may be used but is not preferred. The alcohol is allowed to cool, after which the worms are examined.

What are the objectives and methods for monitoring neuromuscular blockade?

Objective To assess the intensity of and recovery from neuromuscular blockade Methods 1. Hand-held peripheral nerve stimulator 2. Spirometer

What are the objectives and methods of monitoring during the recovery period?

Objective To ensure a safe and comfortable recovery from anesthesia Methods 1. Observation of respiratory pattern 2. Observation of MM color and CRT 3. Palpation of pulse rate and quality 4. Measurement of body temperature, with appropriate warming or cooling methods applied if indicated 5. Observation of any behavior that indicates pain, with appropriate pharmaceutical intervention as necessary 6. Other measurements as indicated by patient's medical status—for example, blood glucose, pulse oximetry, packed cell volume (PCV), total protein (TP), blood gases, and so on

Which drugs block the modulation pathway?

Opiods, NSAIDs, local anesthetics, alpha 2 agonists, ketamine, tricyclic antidepressants, anticonvulsants

What are the significant adverse effects of etomidate?

Pain at injection, nausea and vomiting

perioperative analgesia

Pain control before and/or after surgery

allodynia

Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain

Postoperative care of onychetomy

Pain medication should be given for at least 4-5 days postoperatively. Bandages are removed within 24 hours, before the cat leaves the hospi- tal. The owner should be advised to provide shredded paper or pelleted litter to prevent contamination of the paws with clay litter. Regular litter can be re-introduced after 10 days. The cat's activity should be restricted and excessive grooming should be discouraged until the paws have heale

parasitosis

Parasite present on host and exhibits obvious outward signs and harm

What is PS2?

Patient with mild systemic disease -Neonatal, geriatric, or obese patients -Mild dehydration -Skin tumor removal

What is PS3?

Patient with severe systemic disease -Anemia -Moderate dehydration -Compensated major organ disease

What is PS4?

Patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life -Ruptured bladder -Internal hemorrhage -Pneumothorax -Pyometra

What is the fluid rate for excessively bleeding patients under anesthesia?

Patients with excessive bleeding or excessive hypotension will need significantly higher rates of administration. Healthy young dogs tolerate an IV infusion rate of 40 mL/kg/hr for a maximum of 1 hour, with half of this given over the first 15 minutes. As mentioned previously, cats are more susceptible to overhydration than dogs, and for this reason the infusion rate should not exceed 20 mL/kg/hr. Large animal infusion rates are similar to those used in dogs.

How do high vacuum sterilizers work?

Proper operation of a high- vacuum gravity displacement sterilizer includes setting the sterilizer between 250° and 272° F for 4 minutes at 32 psi (Figure 9-13). The sterilizer should run through (1) a conditioning phase for about 17 minutes, (2) a steriliza- tion phase for 4 minutes, (3) a high-vacuum exhaust for about 4 minutes, and (4) a drying cycle for about 20 minutes. The total sterilization process should take about 45 minutes.

What class of drug is acepromazine?

Phenothiazine

Acarina

Phylum: Arthropoda Subphylum: Chelicerata Order: Acarina (mites and ticks) not insects -have two body componenets the caputulum and the idiosoma(abdomen) -do not undergo metamorphosis

apicomplexa

Plasmodium. Has coccidia, malarial organisms, piroplasms

Fire hazards with laser surgery

Possible fire hazards include the surgical drapes, anesthetic agents, oxygen, animal's fur, alcohol products used in surgical preparation, and methane from flatulence

Dry to dry bandage

Primary layer of an adherent bandage that is used on open wounds to remove necrotic tissue.

Delayed union fracture

Prolonged renewal of continuity in a broken bone or between the edges of a wound.

Balantidium coli Host location distribution ingestion of cysts common name zoonotic

Protozoa Host: canines and swin Location: cecum and colon of canines and large intestine of swine Distribution: worldwide Transmission: ingestion of cysts common name: balantidium zoonotic: yes derivation of genus: small bag sometimes causes diarrhea in dogs mostly associated with pigs

How do you test the integrity of unidirectional valves?

Put on a surgical mask • Detach the expiratory breathing tube from the Y-piece • Place the end of the tube up to your mouth with the surgical mask in between, so that the air will pass through the mask • Attempt to inhale through the tube • Now detach the inspiratory breathing tube from the Y-piece and place the end up to your mouth as before • Attempt to exhale through the tube Any air movement through either tube indicates an incompetent valve, which must be serviced before the machine is used again.

Eimeria irresidua

Rabbit coccidia 38 × 26 µm and ovoid. The wall of the oocyst is smooth and light yellow highly pathogenic rabbit

How do you tell if a patient is ready for intubation?

Readiness for intubation is characterized by unconsciousness, a lack of voluntary movement, an absent pedal reflex, sufficient muscle relaxation to allow the mouth to be held open, and no swallowing when the tongue is grasped

What are rebreathing systems and what types of patients are they used on?

Rebreathing systems are also called circle systems because exhaled gases minus carbon dioxide are recirculated and rebreathed by the patient, along with variable amounts of fresh oxygen and anesthetic. These systems are appropriate for almost all patients except those that are very small (under 2.5 to 3 kg in body weight).

How does a pulse oximeter work>

Red- and infrared-wavelength light emitted by the probe is passed through or reflected off the tissue bed, and the frequency of the emergent light is read by a sensor and analyzed. The machine determines the oxygen saturation (SpO2) by calculating the difference between levels of oxygenated and deoxygenated hemoglobin based on subtle differences in absorption of light. The HR is determined by detecting pulsations in the small arterioles. Both the HR and the oxygen saturation are digitally displayed.

How can you check if a needle is in a horses vein?

Release digital pressure on the vein. If the needle is in the jugular vein, blood flow from the hub will cease. If it is in an artery, blood flow will continue from the hub despite the release in digital pressure.

What are some causes of respiratory arrest?

Respiratory arrest may be caused by: • Prolonged apnea • Anesthetic overdose • Cessation of oxygen flow • Pre-existing respiratory disease such as pneumothorax or diaphragmatic hernia • Central nervous system diseases such as brain tumors or meningitis

How to calculate resting energy requirement

Resting energy requirement (RER) = 70 (Body weight in kg)^0.75

gadding

Restlessness and excitement in cattle or horses due to the presence of biting flies

Quaternary amine-based disinfectant

Roccal-D plus bind to and are inactivated by organic material, so the area must be cleaned before disinfection

How to intubate an adult cattle

Ruminants are generally intubated while in sternal recumbency. 1. Place a mouth speculum or gag. 2. Grasp the tongue and pull it forward. 3. Extend the head and neck. 4. Hold the tube at the patient end and cover the cuff with the nondominant hand. 5. Holding the tube in this manner, extend the nondominant arm into the mouth and advance to the larynx. Use the dominant hand to assist with advancement of the machine end of the tube. 6. Palpate the epiglottis and laryngeal opening with one or two fingers of the nondominant hand. 7. Pass the tube into the larynx, using the nondominant hand to push the end of the tube into the airway, and the dominant hand to advance the tube. 8. Check to ensure the tube is in the trachea by feeling air pass during exhalation or when an assistant presses down on the patient's chest. 9. A small volume of air may be placed in the cuff (20 to 60 mL) before hoisting or positioning the cow. 10. Secure the tube to the halter or to the muzzle. 11. After the cow has been positioned on the surgery table, connect the endotracheal tube to the anesthetic breathing system and allow the patient to breathe 100% oxygen. 12. Check the tube for leaks. 13. Turn on the anesthetic vaporizer, and adjust the appropriate level. 14. Commence regular monitoring.

What does a sinus arrhythmia look like on ECG reading?

SA is a cyclic change in the HR coordinated with respiration, in which the HR decreases (recognized by an increased distance between QRS complexes) during expiration, and increases (recognized by a decreased distance between QRS complexes) during inspiration (Figure 6-14). In other words, the R-R intervals vary in a cyclic manner. SA is normal in dogs, especially if young and healthy, and normal in horses and cattle, but is not normal in cats.

How is meperidine given?

SC because IM is painful and rapid IV injection can cause hypotension excitement and seizure like activity

What are the generally rules of onset and duration of the different methods of administering preanesthetics

SC is the slowest onset but longest duration, IM is faster onset and somewhat shorter duration than SC. IV act fast and have shortest duration.

What is the schedule of oxymorphone?

Schedule II

What schedule are benzodiazepines?

Schedule IV

Castroviejo Scissors

Scissors for microsurgery.

What is a second degree av heart block and how is it detected?

Second-degree AV heart block is caused by a periodic block of electrical conduction through the AV node and is recognized by missing QRS complexes on the ECG tracing. On auscultation, periodic pauses representing skipped beats are audible. Note that it is not normal for more than one beat to be skipped in a row.

Define sedation

Sedation refers to drug-induced CNS depression and drowsiness that vary in intensity from light to deep. A sedated patient generally is minimally aware or unaware of its surroundings but can be aroused by noxious stimulation. Sedation is often used to prepare patients for diagnostic imaging, grooming, wound treatment, and other minor procedures.

Oxygen flow rate for semiclosed system after induction, during change in anesthetic depth or during recovery

Semiclosed system after induction, during a change in anesthetic depth, or during recovery: • 50 to 100 mL/kg/min with a maximum of 5 L/min. Flows at the higher end of this range will result in faster changes in anesthetic depth. (This guideline represents approximately one quarter to one half of the respiratory minute volume.)

Oxygen flow rate for semiclosed system during maintenance using minimal rebreathing

Semiclosed system during maintenance with minimal rebreathing: • 200 to 300 mL/kg/min (Note: At this flow rate, the machine functions in a manner similar to that of a non-rebreathing system.)

Patient preperation for entropion

Shaving or clipping of the surgical area and the surrounding skin is done first. Baby shampoo diluted (1 : 3) with water is both effective and safe in cleansing the shaved area. Gauze squares soaked in the diluted baby shampoo are used to gently wipe away stray hairs and debris. Then, a very dilute (1 : 50) povidone- iodine (Betadine) solution is used in the same manner. To achieve asepsis, the dilute povidone-iodine solution should be in contact with the skin for approximately 1 minute. The area is gently wiped with gauze squares soaked in sterile saline to remove the solution. If neces- sary, the eye is flushed with saline to remove any dirt, particles, or mucus that may be trapped under the lids or within the surrounding conjunctiva.

How would you inflate a cuff?

Slowly inflate the cuff until the leaking just ceases at a breathing circuit pressure of 20 cm H2O but resumes at higher pressures. Inflation should be checked again after 15 or 30 minutes of anesthesia, because tracheal diameter may increase as a result of muscle relaxation, or a slow, undetected leak in the cuff or pilot line may cause the cuff to deflate.

How is giardia diagnosed?

Standard fecal floration with zinc sulfate or Sheather sugar solution cysts are hard to find in diarrheic samples making immunodiagnostics the more definitive diagnosis

What are Miller blades?

Straight blades for laryngoscope

Describe the different needle bodies

Straight, circular or curved

Mastigophora

Subphylum Flagellates -possess at least one flagellum in their trophozoite

What are the three patterns for scrubbing?

Target, orthopedic or perineal

What is the composition of replacement fluids?

Tend to have high levels of Na and Cl so it is similar to ECF

eucoleus aerophilus egg

The egg has a rough outer surface with a netted appearance

How do you decide to use a rebreathing vs non-rebreathign system?

The decision of whether to use a rebreathing system or a non-rebreathing system is generally made on the basis of the patient's size. This is because the patient's respiratory drive—the force generated by the respiratory muscles during breathing—is directly related to body weight. The 128respiratory drive of very small patients is insufficient to move gas through areas of resistance to air movement (primarily the unidirectional valves, carbon dioxide canister, and breathing tubes). In contrast, non-rebreathing systems offer little resistance to air movement, a significant advantage for these patients -Usually 7kg or over unless fitted with pediatric hoses use rebreathing system

How should surgical drapes be placed?

The first drape is placed on the side of the patient that is closest (nearest) to the person draping. The drape for the opposite side of the patient should be placed second. A sterile person must never reach across a non- sterile field; therefore, the second drape can be placed after the sterile person walks to the other side of the table. After the two lateral drapes are placed, the cranial drape is placed. Placement of the drapes in relationship to the proposed incision site depends on the veterinarian's pref- erence and the procedure being performed. A general rule of thumb is to place the edge of the drape 12 to 34 inch from the incision line. The fourth and final ground drape, the caudal drape, can be placed once the other three towels are secured. After the ground drapes have been secured, the top drape(s) should be placed. There are two options at this point for continuing the draping process. If a single fenes- trated paper drape is to be used, the fenestration must be created before the drape is laid on the patient. Once the drape touches the patient, the underside is considered nonsterile and should not be manipulated. . Once the drape (paper or linen) is on the patient, nonpenetrating towel clamps are used to secure the paper/top drape to the towels underneath. Nonpenetrating towel clamps should clamp around the neck of the penetrating towel clamp located under the paper drape The second option for top drapes is to use four paper or linen large drapes and place them on the patient in exactly the same order the ground towels were placed.

What does the interface do in a scavenging system?

The interface (component #3) provides storage for WAGs in a reservoir until they are removed by the evacuation system. This storage is often in the form of a flexible bag that looks a lot like a rebreathing bag (see Figure 5-2, A). The interface also protects the patient's lungs from excessive pressure or excessive vacuum from developing within the breathing circuit.

What factors determine anesthetic recovery time?

The length of the anesthetic period. As a general rule, the longer the patient is under anesthesia, the longer the expected recovery. • The condition of the patient. Lengthy recoveries are seen in animals that have almost any debilitating disease (particularly liver and kidney disease). • The type of anesthetic given and the route of administration. Lengthy recoveries are more common if an injectable agent is given intramuscularly rather than intravenously. • The patient's temperature. Hypothermic patients are slow to metabolize and excrete anesthetic drugs. • The breed of the patient. Certain dog breeds (e.g., greyhounds, salukis, Afghan hounds, whippets, and Russian wolfhounds) are slow to recover from certain anesthetic agents, especially barbiturates.

Where are flow meter measurements read?

The meter is read at the center of a ball indicator or the top of a bobbin indicator (Figure 4-28).

What is the minimum patient database?

The minimum patient database consists of the following: 1. Patient history, including the patient signalment 2. Complete physical examination findings 3. Results of a preanesthetic diagnostic workup

delivery rate

The number of drops of fluid that must fall inside the drip chamber of an administration set to deliver 1 mL of fluid expressed in drops per milliliter (gtt/mL). (Determined by looking on the packaging of the administration set [see Figure 2-7].)

patient positioning for entropion surgery

The patient is placed in sternal or lateral recumbency for entropion surgery; several sandbags can be used to help position the head

How should a patient be placed for a gastric foreign body surgery?

The patient should be positioned in dorsal recumbency for a ventral midline incision. The patient should be clipped and prepared for an abdominal procedure.

What position should a patient be placed for GDV surgery?

The patient should be positioned in dorsal recumbency to allow a ventral midline incision to be made. The abdomen should be clipped from mid-thorax to the pubis. Adequate cranial clipping is important so that the surgeon can extend the incision as needed. Rotation of the stomach back to its normal position can be difficult if the proper exposure is not achieved. The entire abdomen should be clipped to allow a full abdominal exploratory surgery. The lateral aspects of the abdomen should be clipped as well, in the event that placement of a gastric feeding tube is warranted.

Patient positioning for cystotomy

The patient should be positioned in dorsal recumbency to perform a ventral midline incision

What position should the patient be in for an enterotomy?

The patient should be positioned in dorsal recumbency to perform a ventral midline incision. The patient should be clipped and prepared for an abdominal procedure.

What are the possible contributing factors of GDV?

The precise etiology of GDV is unknown, but many cases occur after ingestion of a large meal followed by strenuous exercise. Diet, amount of food ingested, frequency of feeding, feeding behavior, and exercise after a meal may all be contributing factors to the development of GDV. Other contributing factors include anatomic predisposition, ileus, trauma, primary gastric motility disorders, vomiting, and stress.

What number range does a pressure reducer change PSI to?

The pressure-reducing valve reduces the pressure of the gas to a constant safe operating pressure of 40 to 50 psi (about 275 to 345 kPa) regardless of the pressure changes within the tank. Pressure-reducing valves all look slightly different but are usually round and have a color-coded insignia on the outside to identify the gas flowing through them.

infusion rate

The rate at which fluids should be administered expressed in milliliters per unit time. Most often mL/hr. (Determined by multiplying the following: Patient body weight × Prescribed rate. May also require a conversion factor to change pounds to kilograms.)

Describe body characteristics of cestodes

Their bodies are usually long, segmented, and flattened, almost ribbonlike in appearance. Within the class Cestoda are two subclasses, Eucestoda (true 85tapeworms) and Cotyloda (pseudotapeworms).

When is an oxygen flush valve used?

This feature is used to rapidly fill a depleted reservoir bag. It is also used to deliver oxygen to a critically ill patient or, at the end of the anesthetic period, to dilute out the anesthetic gas remaining in the circuit

How do variable-bypass, flow-over anesthesia machines work?

This is because they regulate the anesthetic output by routing a portion of the carrier gas through the vaporization 111chamber where the liquid anesthetic is located, while the remainder of the carrier gas bypasses the vaporization chamber. The portion of the carrier gas that enters the chamber flows over the surface of the liquid anesthetic and picks up vaporized anesthetic. Therefore the more carrier gas that is routed through the chamber, the higher the concentration of the anesthetic delivered to the patient.

What are the equivalent measurements of the boxes on an ECG reading?

This means that, at a paper speed of 50 mm/sec, a horizontal distance of 50 1-mm boxes (10 large boxes) is equal to 1 second, and one 1-mm box is equal to 0.02 seconds (because 1 second/50 = 0.02 seconds). At a speed of 25 mm/sec, a horizontal distance of 25 1-mm boxes (five large boxes) is equal to 1 second; and one 1-mm box is equal to 0.04 seconds (because 1 second/25 = 0.04 seconds).

What are some causes of tachypnea

True tachypnea has many possible causes including hypercapnia, pulmonary disease, or a response to a mild surgical stimulus

What stages of anesthesia is the corneal reflex present?

This reflex should be present in light Stage III and surgical planes of anesthesia and is lost when the anesthetic depth is excessive, but is unreliable in small animals. It is therefore used primarily to tell the anesthetist when a large animal patient is too deeply anesthetized

Why must plasma sodium and potassium be kept in a very narrow range?

To maintain heart and skeletal function

How do opiods provide analgesia?

Through their action on opioid receptors in the spinal cord and brain as well as in some peripheral tissues,

Why do pulse oximeters sometimes not work?

Tissue pigmentation, motion, excessive pressure, orientation in relation to ambient light, and patient conditions such as anemia, icterus,vasoconstriction, or edema will all decrease accuracy or result in signal loss.

What is the purpose of the Murphy eye?

To minimize the risk of patient asphyxiation in the event that the end hole is blocked with mucous

What is the thoracic pump theory?

blood flow to the tissues results from compression of the aorta resulting from increased intrathoracic pressure, which in turn is caused by compression of the chest wall by the hands of the compressor; blood flow back into the thorax and to the lungs is thought to result from negative intrathoracic pressure that occurs during recoil of the chest wall between compressions

Ciliophora

ciliates

Define tranquilization

Tranquilization is a drug-induced state of calm in which the patient is reluctant to move and is aware of but unconcerned about its surroundings. Although the terms tranquilization and sedation are not exactly the same in meaning, they are often used interchangeably.

Describe the process for preserving trematodes

Trematodes (flukes) may be preserved in the same manner as tapeworms. If tapeworms and flukes are to be stained later, they should be "relaxed" in alternate changes of ice water and tap water for about 3 hours and then lightly pressed between sheets of glass immersed in 10% formalin.

What are the subphyla of arthopods?

Trilobitomorpha (the extinct trilobites), Onychophora (onychophorans, or "living fossils"), Tardigrada (water bears), Pycnogonida (sea spiders), Chelicerata (mites, ticks, spiders, scorpions, and others), and Mandibulata (crustaceans, centipedes and millipedes, and insects)

Ciliphora

ciliates -covered in tiny short hairs over most of their body -have two forms trophozoite and cyst

callus

Unorganized network of woven bone formed about ends of a broken bone, which is reabsorbed as healing is completed.

What type of protozoans infect the GI tract of ruminants?

ciliates and apicomplexans

What do vasopressor drugs do and what are their names

Vasopressors are drugs that increase tone of the peripheral vessels. This redirects blood to vital organs such as the brain and heart. The two drugs that fall in this category are epinephrine and vasopressin.

Describe ventricular fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation appears as an irregular undulating baseline, with complete absence of recognizable QRS complexes (Figure 6-24). Ventricular fibrillation is associated with cardiac arrest and requires emergency treatment.

What do pale mucous membranes indicate?

intraoperative blood loss, anemia from any cause, or poor capillary perfusion (as may occur with vasoconstriction, excessive anesthetic depth, or prolonged anesthesia). Cyanosis (purple or blue discoloration of the mucous membranes or skin) indicates very low blood oxygen concentration (a partial pressure [PaO2] of approximately 35 to 45 mmHg) in patients with a normal packed cell volume (PCV).

cysticerci

larval stages of certain species of tapeworms

What is the dazzle reflex?

a blink in response to shining a bright light on the retinas. Same significance as PLR but is lost very early

kink tail larvae

larviparous

What is a universal control arm?

a device that, when attached to a Bain coaxial circuit, provides a conventional pop-off valve and manometer, increasing the ease and accuracy with which manual ventilation can be provided. It is usually attached to the stand of a conventional anesthetic machine

Occlusive wound dressing

a dressing used on the skin that retains moisture and heat while increasing the concentration and absorption of medication being applied; impermeable to air and fluid

What is the modified Knott technique?

a fairly rapid method that detects microfilariae and allows for differentiating between the microfilariae of D. immitis and those of A. reconditum (Box 17-17). This technique concentrates the microfilariae from 1 mL of blood and hemolyzes the red blood cells so that the microfilariae may be observed more clearly.

What are alpha2adrenoceptor agonist anesthetics?

a group of noncontrolled, reversible agents used alone and in combination with other anesthetics and adjuncts in both large and small animal patients for sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation.

What is an erratic parasite?

aka aberrant, has wandered into an organ or location in which it does not ordinarily live

cysticercus and examples

a larval tapeworm that is at a stage in which the scolex is inverted in a sac, and that is typically found encysted in the muscle tissue of the host. Taenia pisiformis Coenurus

vapor pressure

a measure of the tendency of a liquid anesthetic to evaporate and is significant because it determines whether a precision or non precision vaporizer can be used -a measure of a liquids tendency to evaporate

What is porcine stress syndrome?

aka malignant hyperthermia -due to a mutation in one of the genes that controls calcium metabolism in the muscle -muscle rigidity, rapid rise in temp, hypercapnia, hyperkalaemia and death treatment is discontinue anesthetics and administering oxygen as well as treatment with dantrolene

What is guaifenesin?

a noncontrolled muscle relaxant that is sometimes given to large animals to increase muscle relaxation, facilitate intubation, and ease induction and recovery. It is not an anesthetic or analgesic by itself and so is usually given in combination with other agents. At the time of writing, this drug can only be purchased from compounding pharmacies, and is therefore less commonly used now than it once was.

tissue redistribution

a phenomenon that occurs because of the wya in which propofol is distributed to various tissues used on blood flow

What are interposed abdominal compressions?

a rescuer should apply pressure to the abdominal cavity with the flat of the hand during the recoil phase of each chest compression

What are the rates for colloids during shock?

ynthetic colloids should be administered to dogs and large animals as a slow bolus of 5 mL/kg over 15 to 60 minutes and to cats as a slow bolus of 2.5 to 3 mL/kg over 30 to 60 minutes, with reassessment before giving additional boluses, up to a maximum of 10 to 20 mL/kg/day for dogs and large animals, and 5 to 10 mL/kg/day for cats.

sterile

absence of all living microorganisms including spores

asepsis

absence of pathogenic microorganisms, makes environment clean but not sterile

What is the mode of action of alpha 2 agonists?

act on alpha2-adrenergic receptors (also called alpha2-adrenoceptors) of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) both within the CNS and peripherally, causing a decrease in the release of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine. When these drugs are combined with other tranquilizers or analgesic agents, the result tends to be additive or synergistic (supra-additive) in nature.

What can be used when a scanvenging system can't?

activated charcoal canister

What are common gastric neoplasias in dogs and cats?

adenocarcinoma, lymphosarcoma, leiomyosarcome, leiomyoma

What are some of the advantages of oxymorphone over morphine? Disadvantages?

advantages: fewer adverse effects, longer duration of analgesia, greater potency and sedative effect, less vommiting, no histamine release disadvantage: cost

How often should charcoal cartridges be replaced?

after 12 hours of use or after 50g weight gain

Doyen intestinal clamps

allow handling of delicate tissue without trauma or compromise of blood flow

What are the advanatages of silicone tubes?

although more expensive they are more pliable and resistant to collapse

What is the concentration of oxygen in alveolus? arterial blood? capillary blood? tissu

alveolus 13%, arterial blood 12%, capillary blood 5%. tissue 2%

What are the two main antiarrhythmitics that are used in CPA?

amiodarone and lidocaine

What special things must be done when testing for occult blood?

animal should be maintained on a meat free diet for 24 to 48 hours before testing

cytauxzoon felis

appear in a ring form on stained blood smears

agonist

bind to and stimulate tissue receptors

antagonists

bind to but do not stimulate the receptor, usually used as a drug to reverse sedation

agonist-antagonists

bind to more than one receptor type and simultaneously stimulate at least one and block at least one

scalpel number 11

blade is tapered to a pointed shape and is used to create stab incision

Which areas does an epidural block?

block sensation and motor control of the abdomen, pelvis, tail, pelvic limbs, and perineum.

Needle punch biopsy

~Used primarily for external skin and oral masses ~ does not penetrate deeply into mass

what is the color of desflurane?

blue

Anatomy of Nematodes

body cavity is a pseduocoelomic membrane

aseptic loosening

breakdown of bone and loosening of prosthesis in the absence of microorganisms

What structures are present in rebreathing ciruits that are not in non-rebreathing circuits?

carbon dioxide absorber canister, pressure manometer and unidirectional valaves

What are possible complications of GDV?

cardiac arrhythmias which can continue for 2-3 days postoperatively, gastritis, vomiting

What are the drugs that are COX-2 selective?

carprofen, meloxicam, deracoxib and rebenacoxib

What should you always do before starting a procedure

check the oxygen!

What is the Morgan pocket technique?

cherry eye procedure that involves creating a conjunctival pocket where the third eyelid gland is secured. The third eyelid is grasped and suspended with forceps on the nasal and temporal sides. Two 1-cm parallel incisions are made on the poste- rior surface of the third eyelid. The incisions are arched toward each other, with one incision made above the third eyelid gland and the second made below it. Apposition of the two outermost incisions, with gentle downward pres- sure applied to the gland, results in burial of the gland being in the conjunctival pocket. Care must be taken that the suture ends do not contact the cornea and therefore cause irritation.

How are isobutane, sevoflurane and desflurane metabolized?

chiefly through the lungs

phenol based disinfectant

common household such as lysol, pinesol. Safe but skin irritation occurs. Not used often

What are the advantages of local anesthetics?

complete anesthesia of affected area, low toxicity and rapid onset of action

gastric dilatation volvulus

condition usually seen in deep-chested canines in which the stomach fills with air, expands, and twists on itself

What are crystalloid fluids?

contain water and small molecular weight solutes such as electrolytes that pass freely through vascular endothelium

What does the QRS complex represent?

contraction of the ventricles (1) the Q wave, which is the first negative defection after the P-R interval; (2) the R wave, which is the first positive deflection after the P-R interval; and (3) the S wave, which is the first negative deflection after the R wave.

tegument

covering of the tapeworm that absorbs nutrients from host

Which type of protozoa infect the circulatory system and blood?

flagellates and apicomplexans

What are some of the common problems assocaited with endoctrachael intubation?

cuff not inflated or underinflated diameter too smal cuf overinflatted tube too long tube too short overzealous intubation tube kinked or obstructe tube not revemoed before conciousness tube not cleaned and disinfected

Bone rongeurs

cupped tips with sharp edges and work with a squeezing action of the handles. used to break up bits and pieces of bone for grafting purposes

What are the two types of BP monitors?

direct and indirect

What effect does acepromazine have on PCV?

decreases PCV in horses and dogs within 30 minutes

How to identify trypanosoma cruzi

direct blood smear or histopathologic sectioning

What are the protozoans that infect horses?

flagellates, ciliates and apicomplexans

laparotomy

flank incision into the abdominal cavity

What are the clinical situations in which nerve blcoks can be used?

dental blocks -intercostal nerve blocks for chest surgery -infiltration of nerves udring amputation of a limb -declawing cats -paravertebral blcoks for abdomial surgery or cesarean sections in cattle -cornual blocks for dehorning cattle -diagnostic nerve blocks in awake horeses -allow 15 to 20 minutes before procedure is sstarted

Bone plates and screws

designed to aid in the reduction of fractures and the repair of bone fragments. Can have different shapes such as straight, T plate, L plate, and different widths/lengths

Groove director

designed to aid the surgeon in making incisions in the linea alba. Provides a channel that the scalpel can follow to avoid accidental incising of abdominal viscera

How long does it take for dogs to become symptomatic with giardia

diarrhea can began as early as 5 days after exposure with cysts appearing at 1 week

How is mean arterial pressure calculated?

diastolic pressure + 1/3(systolic-diastolic)

What are the most commonly used benzodiazepines?

diazepam, zolazepam and midazolam

What is the main disadvantage of telazol?

difficult recoveries particularly in dogs

What are the adverse effects of acepromazine on the respiratory system?

does not cause significant respiratory depression, just worsens other depressive effects

What position should the patient be positioned for an abdominal exploratory surgery

dorsal recumbency for a ventral midline approach. Clip just above the xiphoid process to the pubis. Express bladder.

Senn retractor

double ended handheld retractor. One end is a narrow, blunt blade and the other end is toothed and traumatic

Hand-held retractors US Army

double ended retrator with different lengths of blades on either end. No teeth on the blades and therefore causes little tissue trauma other than pressure damage

What type of instruments are needed for entropion surgery?

half-curved tissue forceps, Chalazion forceps, Jaeger lid plate, tenotomy scissors, needle holders

Why are painful patients more prone to cardiac arrhythmia?

due to vasoconstriction, increased myocardial work and increased myocardial oxygen consumption

What stages of anesthesia is the laryngeal reflex present?

during intubation and light anesthesia

Describe the fecal sedimentation procedure

edimentation Procedure 1. Using a tongue depressor, mix about 2 g of feces with tap water in a cup or beaker. Strain the mixture through cheesecloth or a tea strainer into a centrifuge tube, as described for centrifugal flotation. 2. Balance the centrifuge tubes and centrifuge the sample at about 400× g (about 1500 rpm). If a centrifuge is unavailable, allow the mixture to sit undisturbed for 20 to 30 minutes. 3. Pour off the liquid in the top of the tube without disturbing the sediment at the bottom. 4. Using the pipette and bulb, transfer a small amount of the top layer of sediment to a microscope slide. If the drop is too thick, dilute it with a drop of water. Lugol iodine solution (diluted 1 : 5 in water) may be used for dilution instead of water to aid in identification of protozoan cysts. Apply a coverslip to the drop. Repeat the procedure using a drop from the bottom layer of the sediment. 5. Examine both slides microscopically (see text).

Describe simple metamorphosis

egg, nymph, adult

What are alpha 2 agonists given?

either IM or IV

Which types of anesthetic vaporaizers need maintenance every 6 to 12 moths to help remove buildup?

halothane or methoxyflurane

What are the two sources for contamination in the operating room?

endogenous-from the patient itself exogenous-from the surgical team and environment

Where is ALT found?

enzyme found in high concentration in the liver cells of dog, cats and primates

What is the reversal dosage for atipamezole?

equal quantities for dogs because the strength has been made that way -cats are more sensitive so a little over half of equivalent dose

What are the injectable drugs of most concern?

etorphine (Immobilon, M99) and carfentanil (Wildnil)

How often can propofol boluses be repeated?

every 3-5 minutes or as required to maintain anesthesia in dogs and 20 minutes in cats

How often can alfaxalone doses be repeated?

every 3-8 minutes

volume overload

excess fluid administration, may cause pulmonary edema

What are the symptoms of D. immitis?

exercise intolerance, right-sided heart enlargement and abdominal ascites

What are the specific gravity measurements that should be reported before a procedure?

f there is protein in the urine or if the urine specific gravity is less than 1.030 in a canine sample, 1.035 in a feline sample, or 1.025 in a large animal sample, the veterinarian should be notified because further tests may be needed to assess kidney function accurately.

How long should an e tube be?

extend from the tip of the nose to the thoracic inlet

Qhat are the surgical options for entropion?

eyelid tacking -holtz-celsus procedure includes excision of a crescent shaped section of the skin and muscle from the affected portion of the eyelid

What is the mode of action of guaifenesin(GG)?

felt to block nerve impulses in the cns

Crile-Wood Needle Holder

fine, delicate suturing

What drug is used as a reversal for benzodiazepines?

flumazenil

What happens after an IV catheter is placed n a horse?

flush mouth to remove feed material which prevents aspiration of the material during intubation or during recovery following extubation -feet should also be cleaned and shoes removed

Inotropy

force of contraction

What instruments are used for an R and A?

general soft tissue pack, balfour retractor, doyen clamps, heated lavage and suction

What effect does acepromazine have on histamine system?

has antihistamine effect

Roeder towel clamp

has balls on the tips. Balls prevent towel clamp from being too deep in tissue

Rochester-Carmalt hemostatic forceps

has both horinzantol and vertical serrations on the jaw near the tip.

pyriform apparatus egg

has three coverings -pear shapped center is a pyriform apparatus

scolex

head of an adult tapeworm; can contain suckers or hooks has four suckers called acetabula which holds on to the lining of the small intestine -not intake for food but serve for attachment

Hepatozoon canis

have a delicate capsule and stain pale blue with a dark reddish purple nucleus

Which species are more sensitive to opiods

horses and cats

What are pain related cardiovascular changes?

hypertension, tachycardia, tachyarrhythmia, peripheral vasoconstrictuon(pale mucosa)

What conditions are more common in horses anesthetized with inhalant agents

hypoventilation hypotension-dobutamine often used hypoxemia

What is the onset of action of ketamine

in cats 90 seconds after IV and 2-4 minutes of IM

What are common causes of tachycardia under anesthesia?

inadequate anesthetic depth, pain during surgical anesthesia, hypotension, blood loss, shock, hypoxemia, an

celiotomy

incision into the abdominal cavity

What is the function of the pressure manometer?

indicates the pressure of the gases within the breathing circuit and by extension the pressure in the animals airway lungs

myiasis

infestation by fly larvae

What is serotonin syndrome?

interaction between opioid and monoamine oxidase inhibitors such as selegiline or tricyclic antidepressants

What is step 2 of CPR?

intubate and ventilate. If intubation is not possible then mouth to snout breaths may be given after 30 chest compressions to deliver two quick breaths

What is is the simplest method to stain fecal cysts?

iodine solution can also allow to dry and then stain with Giemsa, Wright or Diff Quik stain

internal fixation

is a form of rigid fixation placed under the skin and muscle directly on or in the bone surface or medullary cavity to regain stability.

Which receptor do agonist-antagonists stimulate?

kappa

Which NSAIDs are centrally acting?

keotoprofen and meloxicam

What are the characteristics of stage IV anesthesia?

loss of all reflexes, widely dilated, unresponsive pupils, flaccid muscle tone, and cardiopulmonary collapse mark this stage, which, if not aggressively managed, is closely followed by cardiopulmonary arrest and death of the patient.

Why is it not recommended to use anticholinergics to reduce bradycardia?

may in fact increase the workload of the heart, worsen bradycardia, or cause tachyarrhythmias. If excessive bradycardia develops, the best treatment is administration of an appropriate reversal agent.

Define hypnosis

mean a sleeplike state from which the patient can be aroused with sufficient stimulation

What is a high vapor pressure liquid

means that these anesthetics readily evaporate and may reach concentrations of 30% or greater within the anesthetic circuit if the amount of vapor being delivered to the breathing circuit is not controlled

qHow long must EtO sterilized equipment be left out to off gas?

minimum 24 hours

What is myopathy in a horse

muscle hardness, pain and weakness

What are pain related ophthalmic changes?

mydriasis

Name the different anesthetic advancements and the decade they were used

n Inhalants halothane and methoxyflurane in the 1950s n Injectable tranquilizers acepromazine and alpha2-agonists in the 1960sn Dissociative agent ketamine in the 1970s n Isoflurane and propofol in the 1980sn Sevoflurane in the 1990s

Why is an decreased PCV of anesthetic concern?

n contrast, a decreased PCV or RBC count indicates anemia caused by decreased production, loss, or destruction of RBCs. Anemia results in a decreased capacity to supply oxygen to the tissues. Because the effects of anesthesia often increase the risk of tissue hypoxia, anemia must not be ignored. When a significant anemia is present, the veterinarian may recommend that anesthesia be postponed until it is corrected. A PCV less than 25% in a dog or less than 20% in a cat, horse, or cow should be reported immediately.

What is NIOSH?

national institute for occupational safety and health

Ferguson Angiotribe Forceps

not a true hemostat but very strong. Used on vessels of any size and any tissue that will not need to be viable in the boddy

When can halothane be detected by smell?

not until it is 125x the recommended exposure limit

What type of protozoans infect hamsters?

numerous intestinal flagellates but do not tend to show clinical signs

gravid

oldest proglottids of a tapeworm

OCD

osteochondritis dissecans inflammation of bone and cartilage that results in the splitting of cartilage pieces into the affected joint.

Ancylostoma spp. egg

oval or ellipsoidal and thin walled -8-16 cell morula when passed in feces

Stenoxenous parasite

parasite with a narrow host range

What is PIVA?

partial intravenous anesthesia where gas and injectable agents are used

How is the pop off valve turned in a semiclosed system?

partially open when the patient is spontaneously breathing. Closed when providing manual ventiliation

Trichuris life cycle

pass every third day

Which patients should ketamine use be avoided?

patients with HCM or compromised renal function

How do non-rebreathing circuits differ?

position of the fresh gas inlet, reservoir bag and voerflow valve or exit port

What type of anesthetic machine must be used for highly volatile gas agents?

precision otherwise concentration can be too high in the patient -usually max concentration is 5%

How does gabapentin work?

preventing influx of calcium into the cells

esophagoscopy

procedure for looking inside the esophagus

Cotyloda

pseudotapeworms in phylum platyhelminthes -also absorb through tegument, not mouth -eggs are operculated

What is the color of isoflurane?

purple

What is the color of halothane?

red

What are the effects of anticholenergics on the eyes?

reduction of lacrimal secretions

Draw the cyst stage of Giardia

refractile wall four nuceli immature cysts have two nuceli

What is the worst fecal flotation solution?

saturated sodium chloride solution, it corrodes lab equipment

cysticercoid and examples

scolex without fluid filled bladder Thysanosoma actinoides Dipylidium caninum

spastic entropion

secondary to ocular pain which may result from corneal foreign body, uveitis, corneal ulceration or chronic conjunctivitis.

Balfour retractor

self retaining retractor used in soft tissue surgery

dioecious

seperate sexes nematodes

Which inhalant is best suited to make induction?

sevoflurane -used a lot in equine anesthesia

Define signalment

species, breed, age, sex, and reproductive status

How is morphine given?

slow IV, IM, SC, intraarticular and epidoral, oral

Alfaxalone injection time

slowly at a rate of one quarter the calculated dose every 15 seconds to effect

Why is nitrous oxide used in veterinary medicine?

speeds induction and recovery and provides additional analgesia -reduces the MAC of other anesthetics

E. zuernii oocysts

spherical no opening 15 to 22um x 13 to 18um

Needle rack

spring mounted on a metal base designed to store eyed free needles during autoclaving process

Feline eyelid neoplasms

squamous cell carcinoma is the most common feline eyelid tumor. Also basal cell carcinoma, fibrosarcoma and mast cell tumor

How to identifiy sarcocystic oocysts

standard fecal flotation

What are the functions of the mouthparts of mites and ticks?

sucking blood or tissue fluids and attaching or holding on to the host.

gastropexy

surgical fixation of the stomach

Cystoisospora suis

swine coccidia subspherical lack micropyle 18 to 21 um 4-8 days

What are hemoglobin based oxygen carriers?

synthetic blood products, no cross matching needed

What is the pop-off valve?

the point of exit of anesthetic gases from the breathing circuit and enter the scavenging system

What is the vaporizer inlet port?

the point where oyxgen and other carrier gases enter the vaporizer from the flowmeters

What is cold sterilization?

the practice of immersing items in a disinfectant solution to reduce the level of contamination

Define anesthetic induction

the process by which an animal loses consciousness and enters surgical anesthesia. The goal of anesthetic induction is to take the patient from consciousness to stage III anesthesia smoothly and rapidly, so that an endotracheal tube can be placed.

How are blood CO2 levels determined?

the rate of producition by the cells, the rate of transport to the lungs, the rate of elimination fro the lungs

Why should topical anesthetics be avoided in inflamed or infected areas?

the tissue pH is acidic which inactivates the drug

Which receptors do anticholinergics block?

they block binding at the muscarinic receptors

What is the purpose of periosteal elevators?

to prepare the fractured bone for permanent fixation

What types probes there for a pulse oximeter?

transmission and reflective

What diseases do Ixodes scapularis transfer?

tularemia, Babesia microti, Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease), and granulocytic ehrlichiosis (in humans) -can cause tick paralysis

chelicerae

two cutting or lacerating organs found on ticks

Barraquer wire Lid speculum

used for holding eye open

What does VIC mean for anesthesia?

vaporizer in circuit -non prescision

Russian thumb tissue forceps

very traumatic bulky tip. Used for skin or tissue that is being removed.

What are the negative side effects of morphine?

vomiting, salivation, respiratory depression, hpothermia, urinary retention, bradycardia and defection horses-colic

What is the normal PR interval in a dog? Cat? Horse?

within a range of 0.06 to 0.13 seconds in a dog, 0.05 to 0.09 seconds in a cat, and 0.22 to 0.56 seconds in a horse

Normal P wave duration in cow?

0.1

Which drugs may be useful in compromised respiratory patients?

ketamine and propofol because they cause bronchodilator

What is the onset of action and duration of dissociative?

ketamine peak occurs 1-2 minutes after IV and 10 minutes after IM duration is about 20-30 minutes

Name the Linnaen classification system

kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

What is the best indicator for adequate depth of anesthesia?

lack of unconcious movement and second a lack of increase in the HR, RR or Bp in response to a painful stimulus

What are clinical signs of entropion?

lacrimation, blempharospasm, photophobia, enophthalmos(pulling back of the eye and a secondary raised third eyelid), conjunctivitis, keratitis and self trauma

Equipment for laparoscopy

laparoscope or telescope, trocar-cannula units, fiberoptic light cable, light source, Veress insuffla- tion needle, gas insufflator, and camera/video system

Balantidium coli

large 15o x 120um Sausage to kidney shaped macronucleus covered in rows of cilia

eimeria leukarti oocyst

large 80 to 87 um x 55 to 60um micropyle at narrow end recovered on fecal flotation using saturated sodium nitrate and saturated sugar solution

Rochester-Pean hemostatic forceps

large hemostat with horizontal serrations the entire length of the jaw. Longer than Crile forecpes. Also used to clamp large muscle/tissue masses or large vessels.

When are SADs not recommended?

large volume of fluid within the mouth, vomiting likely, upper airway anatomy is abnormal or PS of 3 or higher

Kelly hemostatic forceps

larger than Halstead forceps. Horizontal serrations are wider and only extend half the length of the jaw. Medium sized vessles or small tissue masses

bots

larvae of gasterophilus species found in horse feces

What are nonpharmacological therapies used for pain reduction?

laser therapy, cold or warm compress, physiotherapy, magnetic therapy, herbal remediies, massages

scalpel number 12

resembles a hook with the cutting edge on the inside curve, used to declaw a cat

What are the adverse effects of hydromorphone?

respiratory depression, bradycardia, vomiting, panting, excessive sedation and excitement

What are the adverse effects of alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists?

respiratory depression, vomiting, bradycardia, heart block and hypotension

neuropathic pain

results from injury to the nervous system ex nerve damage

Finochietto Retractor

retract thoracic wall

Snook spay hook

retrieve uterine horns

What os ROSC?

return of spontaneous circulation

What are the characteristics of ideal cleaning agents?

broad spectrum, nonirritating, nontoxic, noncorrosive, inexpensive

What are the characteristic larval stages of nematodes

-microfilaria or prelarval stage -lungworm or kinked tail larvae -dracunculoid or long tailed larvae

What are the symptoms of a Parascaris quorum infection

-mild is asymptomatic but heavy can cause depression, potbellied appearance, anorexia, colic and cough with nasal discharge

What are the common equipment related issues that cause anesthetic emergencies

-misassembly of the machine -CO2 absorbent exhaustion -Failure of the oxygen supply -endotrachael tube problems -e tube problems vaporizer problems -pop off valve problems

Describe the Lack circuit

-modified mapleson A system -similar to Magill except that it has an expiratory tube that runs from the ET tube connector to an overflow valve near the bag. -Used the csame as Magill

When is a central venous pressure useful?

-right sided heart failure and over hydration

How are opioids given intraarticularly?

0.1 to 0.3 mg/kg of morphine is diluated into a volume of saline equivalent to 1mL/kg body weight and instilled into the joint with a sterile catheter

What does complete emptying of the reservoir bag suggest?

-thre fresh gas flow is inadequate -bag is too small -popoff valve is too far open -scavenging system is maladjusted

What are the two main types of IV catheters?

-through the needle and over the needle

Normal P wave duration in horse?

0.2

What are the miscallaneous effects of dissociative agents?

-tissue irratitaion -increased intracranial and incurocular pressure

What should the pressure manometer read when patient is breathing spontaneously?

0-2 H2O

Class 1 wound

0-6 hours old with minimal contamination(surgical wound)

Normal p wave duration in cat?

0.04

QRS duration in a ferret?

0.04

QRS duration in cat?

0.04

Normal P-Wave duration in dog?

0.04 to 0.05

QRS duration in dog?

0.05-0.06

QRS duration in cow?

0.08-0.14

QRS duration in horse?

0.08-0.17

vertical mattress pattern

"far-far, near-near". Stronger suture pattern in areas of tension but time consuming. Advantage is that there are fewer incidences of unintentional everting of wound edges.

What are the desired characteristics of surgical scrub product?

(1) FDA compliant, (2) broad spectrum of activity, (3) fast acting and effective, (4) non- irritating, and (5) with persistent effects and cumulative activity

Which features should all endoscopes have?

(1) a four-way distal tip deflection with at least 180 degrees of upward deflec- tion (for retroflexion), (2) water flushing, (3) air insuffla- tion, (4) suctioning, (5) locking deflection controls, (6) an accessory channel with a diameter of 1.8 to 2.4 mm, and (7) forward-viewing optics.

What are the common drugs used to induce IV general anesthesia?

(1) a mixture of ketamine and either diazepam or midazolam (a 1:1 or 1:2 ratio by volume), (2) propofol, (3) neuroleptanalgesics, (4) etomidate, (5) alfaxalone, and (6) various other combinations

What are the basic principles of current pain management?

(1) preemptive (preventive) analgesia, (2) multimodal analgesia (using different classes of drugs simultaneously to interrupt the pain pathway at various points), and (3) appropriate follow-up analgesia. Using this strategy, vet- erinarians design an analgesic plan for each patient that maximizes pain control, keeps patients on an analgesic plane, and reduces unwanted side effects.

Why are arthropods important to veterinary medicine?

(1) they may serve as causal agents themselves, (2) they may produce venoms or toxic substances, (3) they may serve as intermediate hosts for protozoan and helminth parasites, and (4) they may serve as vectors for bacteria, viruses, spirochetes, rickettsiae, chlamydial agents, and other pathogens.

fiberoptic endoscope

, a light cable carries light by fiberoptic bundles from an external light source through the control section and to the insertion tube. The control section is protected by hard plastic and contains the viewing lens, angulation control knobs, biopsy ports, white balance, and camera controls. The control section also has an eyepiece. The insertion tube houses the fiberoptic light strands and channels for air insufflation and water flushing, biopsy and retrieval instruments, and suction. When the air/ water valve is compressed, water flushes and rinses the lens on the distal tip of the endoscope. When the air/water valve port is covered, insufflation occurs and can be regu- lated (Figure 7-144). The biopsy channel port is located at the base of the control section at the junction with the insertion tube. The insertion tube itself is protected by a waterproof sleeve. Although the endoscope has three distinct sections (light guide plug, umbilical or universal cord, and control section), it is a one-piece unit that is sealed and watertight.

What is the general value of systolic pressure if a pulse cannot be felt?

, the absence of a palpable pulse at the metatarsal artery indicates a systolic pressure under 60 mmHg, and the absence of a palpable pulse at the femoral artery indicates a systolic pressure under 40 mmHg.

Castroviejo needle holder

- commonly used in eye surgery and microsurgery

bone cutters

- used to cut bone not exact picture. big ass cutters

What is the most common dose of acepromazine?

-0.05 to 0.1mg/kg small animals with a max of 3mg in dogs ad 1 mg in cats -0.03 to 0.05mg/kg

What are the benefits of having an IV catheter?

-1. Fluid administration helps to maintain blood volume and support blood pressure. 2. IV access allows rapid administration of emergency drugs such as epinephrine. 3. An IV catheter can be used for constant rate infusion (CRI) of anesthetics, analgesics, electrolytes, or other drugs such as insulin. CRI is slow, continuous administration of a drug at a rate sufficient to achieve the desired effect 4. Vesicants (anesthetic agents that damage tissues if injected perivascularly, such as thiopental) can be administered safely. Some vesicants are so irritating to tissues that injection of even an extremely small amount can cause tissue irritation and sloughing. 5. Incompatible drugs can be administered more easily via an IV catheter. For example, diazepam and hydromorphone will precipitate when mixed because hydromorphone is water soluble and diazepam is not

macrodrip

-10-15 drops per milliliter and are used to deliver fluids at infusion rates equal to or greater than 100 mL/hr. -macrodrip sets are appropriate for patients that weigh 20 kg or more when using a prescribed rate based on AAHA/AAFP guidelines

What is the calculation for a patients tidal volume?

-10mL/kg

What is the onset and duration of fentanyl?

-2 minute onset and 20-30 minute after IV injection

What is the recovery time of katemine anesthesia?

-2-6 hours in healthy patients

What is the delay of fentanyl patches?

-4-12 hours in cats -12-24 hours indogs apply 6 hours before the start of anesthesia in cats and 12 hours in dogs

What are the three reasons why bagging is beneficial?

-Bagging helps prevent atelectasis. Many experts recommend bagging every 5-10 minutes -most anesthetics reduce volume by 50%, bagging forces fresh gas into alveoli -bagging allows anesthetist to normalize respiratory rate

What are the effects of opioids on the cNS?

-CNS depression or excitement, depends dose agent etc. -cats, horses and ruminants may exhibit CNS stimulation more pronounced with pure agnostic -analgesia -increase intraocular and intracranial pressure

How is blood oxygen measured?

-Calculated oxygen content measures the total volume of oxygen in the blood, including both dissolved and bound forms, expressed in milliliters per deciliter (mL/dL). -Partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) measures the unbound O2 molecules dissolved in the plasma and is expressed in millimeters of mercury (mmHg). Partial pressure differs depending on whether arterial, capillary, or venous blood is measured. -Percent oxygen saturation (SO2) measures the percentage of the total number of hemoglobin binding sites occupied by oxygen molecules. Like partial pressure, oxygen saturation varies depending on whether it is sampled in the arterial blood, capillary blood, or venous blood.

What are the safety concerns with closed rebreathing systems?

-Carbon dioxide accumulation. If the carbon dioxide absorber in a closed system is not operating efficiently, exhaled carbon dioxide will build up within the circuit. This is less likely to happen in a semiclosed rebreathing system, in which some CO2 is vented to the scavenger. -Increased pressure in the anesthetic circuit. In a closed rebreathing system, the volume of gas in the system may increase as fresh gas enters the circuit, particularly if the fresh gas flow exceeds the patient's uptake of oxygen and anesthetic and the pop-off valve is closed. As a result, excessive pressure may build up in the circuit, making it difficult for the animal to exhale. This risk is lessened with a semiclosed rebreathing system because the pop-off valve is partially or fully open and excessive gas is vented.

Normal vital signs for non anesthetized patients

-Dog:100°-102.5° F (37.8°-39.2° C)60-180∗NSR or SA10-30 (panting is normal) -Cat:100°-102.5° F (37.8°-39.2° C)120-240NSR only15-30 -Horse:99°-100.5° F (37.2°-38° C)30-45NSR, SA, or first- or second-degree AV block8-20 -Cow:100°-102.5° F (37.8°-39.2° C)60-80NSR or SA8-20 -Sheep/goat102°-104° F (38.9°-40° C)60-90NSR or SA16-24 -All species:Normal effort and VT

What are the ways the anesthetist know granules are exhausted?

-Fresh granules can be crumbled with finger pressure wheres used granules are hard and brittle -Fresh granules are white, exhausted are off white or purple -capnograph should read 0mmHg at peak inspiration

What effects do alpha 2 agonists have on the cardiovascular system?

-early dose-dependent vasoconstriction resulting in brief period of hypertension and reflex bradycardia causing the mucous membranes to look pale. More pronounced IV -dramatic decrease in HR, BP and cardiac output when given at high doses

List the different levels of assessment of consciousness

-Fully conscious, alert, engaged and interested in the environment.Bright, alert, responsive (B/A/R)A (Alert) -Fully conscious and alert but not engaged, due to fear, pain, illness, or any other cause. Subdued or quiet.Quiet, alert, responsive (Q/A/R)A (Alert) -Mildly depressed. Is aware of surroundings. Can be aroused with minimal difficulty (verbal or tactile stimulus).LethargicA (Alert) -Very depressed. Uninterested in surroundings. Responds to but cannot be fully aroused by a verbal or tactile stimulus.ObtundedV (Responds to a verbal stimulus) -A sleeplike state. Nonresponsive to a verbal stimulus. Can be aroused only by a painful stimulus.StuporousP (Responds only to a painful stimulus) -Sleeplike state. Cannot be aroused by any means.ComatoseU (Unresponsive)

What are the five basic types of crystalloid fluids? Give examples

-Isotonic, Polyionic Replacement Solutions-LR, Normosol R,Plasma-Lyte A (PLA), 38Plasma-Lyte 148 (PL148). Isotonic, polyionic replacement crystalloids are the first choice for fluid therapy of healthy patients undergoing routine surgery as well as many sick patients, as long as the PCV is over 20% and the plasma protein is over 3.5 g/dL. -Isotonic, Polyionic Maintenance Solutions-Normosol-M in 5% dextrose (NM5) and Plasma-Lyte 56 in 5% dextrose (PL5). Maintenance therapy over a long time. -Normal saline-Sometimes used as IV but mostly used for tissue washing, Cath flush -Hypertonic saline-used for shock must be followed with colloids to maintain -Dextrose-Dextrose solutions with or without electrolytes are used to support blood glucose in neonatal, hypoglycemic, or debilitated patients and in patients with diabetes mellitus that are receiving insulin. They are also used as a part of the therapy for hyperkalemia.

Why must anticholinergics be avoided in ruminants?

-It can make their saliva thick and ropey leading to aspiration and airway blockages

Describe Ayre's T-Piece circuit

-Mapleson system E -The Ayre's T-piece (see Figure 4-44, E) is a T-shaped tube with a fresh gas inlet entering the patient end of the breathing tube at a 90-degree angle (like the base of the letter T). Unlike other circuits, the Ayre's T-piece does not have a reservoir bag at the opposite end of the breathing tube. The fresh gas flow with this system should be two to three times the RMV

Describe the Jackson-Rees Circuit and the Norman Mask Elbow

-Mapleson system F -The Jackson-Rees circuit and the Norman mask elbow (see Figure 4-44, F and G) have a fresh gas inlet at the patient end of the breathing tube and a reservoir bag at the opposite end. The fresh gas inlet of a Jackson-Rees circuit enters the breathing tube at a 45- to 90-degree angle. The Norman mask elbow is almost identical to a Jackson-Rees circuit, except that the ET tube connector is at right angles to the breathing tube. This circuit may slightly reduce mechanical dead space when compared with an Ayre's T-piece or Jackson-Rees, but otherwise is used in a similar manner to these circuits. The fresh gas flow with both the Norman mask elbow and the Jackson-Rees should be two to three times the RMV.

Describe the Magill Circuit configuration

-Maplseson system A -overflow valve at the patient end of the breathing tube -Both the fresh gas inlet and the reservoir bag are located away from the patient at the opposite end of the breathing tube. -The chief advantage of this system is the relatively low fresh gas flow required during spontaneous ventilation (0.7 to 1.0 × the RMV). It is therefore feasible to use this system for medium or large patients. When a patient is manually ventilated, some rebreathing of expired gases may occur with this system, and for that reason it is not recommended for providing controlled ventilation.

Describe the Bain Coaxial Circuit

-Modified Mapleson D system -The Mapleson D system (see Figure 4-44, C) has a fresh gas inlet at the patient end of the breathing tube. Both the overflow valve and the reservoir bag are located away from the patient at the opposite end of the breathing tube. The overflow valve may be built into the bag or near the bag. The Bain coaxial circuit (see Figure 4-44, D) is a modification of the Mapleson D system in which the tube supplying fresh gas is surrounded by the larger, corrugated tubing (which conducts gas away from the patient). This "tube within a tube" arrangement allows the incoming gases to be warmed slightly by the exhaled gases that surround them, before reaching the patient. This beneficial effect is minimal, however, when high fresh gas flow rates are used.

What are mu opioid receptor agonists?

-Morphine, fentanyl, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, methadone and meperidine -moderate to severe pain -most potent but most likely to have unwanted effects

simple interrupted suture pattern

-Most frequently used pattern. Easy, quick and versatile. . It is frequently used to close the skin, linea alba, muscle layers, subcutaneous space, and so on. It is also the pattern used to secure implants such as Penrose drains. The simple interrupted pattern results in appositional tissue edges unless excessive tension is used, in which case it results in an inverting pattern. Wound healing is poor with an inverting pattern, so care must be taken to ensure that the edges remain in apposition. The disadvantage to using the simple interrupted pattern is that it is time consuming to place as well as results in having more foreign material (suture) in the wound.

What are the specific uses for opioids in veterinary medicine?

-Premeds usually in combo with a tranquilizer, they deminish windup -sedation -postoperative pain control

What are the two families of mites?

-Sarcoptidae-mites that burrow or tunnel within the epidermis -Psoroptidae-mites that reside on the surface of the skin or within the external ear canal

What are the functions of the reservoir bag?

-Serves as a flexible storage reservoir -it allows the anesthetist t o observe the animals respiration -may be useful to confirm proper ET tube placement. Parallel movement indicates correct placement -allows delivery of anesthetic gases to the patient

What is a SAD and what are its advantages?

-Supraglottic airway device used to maintain an open airway by connecting with the glottis -decreased likelihood of laryngospasm, decreased resistance to breathing due to maintenance of a large airway channel, decreased risk of airway trauma during intubation, and no postoperative coughing and other effects related to tracheal irritation

What are indications for eyelid mass removal

-mass becomes too large -concern about malignancy -corneal or conjunctival irritation is present -patient is traumatizing the mass

How are NSAIDs eleimated from the body?

-metabolism and conjugated within the liver followed by renal or biliary elimination

What is AVTAA? What other organization is similar?

-The Academy of Veterinary Technicians in Anesthesia and Analgesia (AVTAA), recognized in 1999 by the National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America-Committee on Veterinary Technician Specialties (NAVTA-CVTS), offers specialization to credentialed veterinary technicians with an interest in veterinary anesthesia and analgesia, through completion of an arduous set of requirements that demonstrates competency in the advanced practice of anesthesia and analgesia -American College of Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia (ACVAA)

What are the two potential difficulties that can occur when scavenging sytstem is present?

-When an active scavenging system is used, the anesthetist should prevent the negative pressure (vacuum) from the scavenger from being excessively applied to the breathing circuit. This is generally done by adjusting the vacuum regulator provided with the unit (Figure 5-6, A) and by adjusting the valve on the interface according to the manufacturer's recommendations (Figure 5-6, B and C). If excessive vacuum is present due to a maladjusted valve, the reservoir 147bag will collapse. To prevent asphyxiation in the event that a vacuum develops, many anesthetic machines are equipped with an air intake valve, adjacent to the pop-off valve or inhalation unidirectional valve (see Figure 4-42), which opens automatically if negative pressure is detected in the circuit. The open valve admits room air into the circuit, thereby ensuring that a vacuum does not develop. When a machine is used that is not equipped with an air intake valve, it is especially important for the anesthetist to ensure that the reservoir bag is at least partially inflated at all times. Otherwise, the patient could be compromised or die of asphyxiation. -If either a passive or an active scavenging system is in use, the anesthetist must be aware that an obstruction may occur and block waste gas entry into the system. If this happens, gas will accumulate within the anesthetic circuit. This situation has the same effect as operating a machine with a closed pop-off valve and may result in excessive pressure developing within the circuit and the patient's lungs. To avoid this, the previously discussed positive pressure relief valve on the interface opens automatically if excessive pressure builds up within the circuit.

Why is identification of D. immitis difficult in the cat?

-adults do not produce many microfilariae in the cat so those tests produce negative rests

What is the difference in adverse effects of alfaxalone and propofol?

-aflaxalone does not cause cardiovascular system depression, inductions are smooth with no excitement, muscle twitching or pain on IV injction

What are the characteristics of stage II anesthesia?

-aka excitement stage -patient loses voluntary control and breathing becomes irregular -involuntary paddling, vocalizing -reflexes present, may be exaggerated -ends when patient shows sign of relaxing

What are the effects of benzodiazepines on the CNS?

-antianxiety and calming -anticonvulsant -some dogs can become disoriented and excited, cats can become dysphoric and aggressive, horses may have fasciculations -no analgesia

When should preanesthetic be used in rabbits and rodents

-anticholinergic should be used to reduce salivation(glycopyrollate) -opioids can be given which will reduce anesthetic needs -sedatives should be given to rabbits before induction with volatile agents

What are the most common preanesthetic medications?

-anticholinergics -tranquilizers and sedatives such as phenotiazines, benzodiazepines, alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists -opioids

How are suture patterns categorized?

-by the way the appose tissue edges(appositional, everting, inverting) -by the tissue layer where they are placed(subcutaneous, subcuticular, skin) -method of placement(interrupted or continuous)

What are the effects of acepromazine on the CNS?

-calming, sedation, reluctance to move and decreased interest in surroundings. Less pronouced in cats than dogs anad horses -not an analgesic -reduction in seizure threshold -can induce excitement and aggression rather than sedation

What is the mechanism of action of dissociative?

-cause disruption of nerve transmission in some parts of the brain and selective stimulation in others -inhibit NMDA receptors that are responsible for windup -animal appears awake but is immobile and unaware of its surroundings

What are the miscellaneous effects of opioids?

-changesi n body temp -GI effects such as salivation and vomiting -increased responsiveness to noise -changes in pupil size -sweating in horses -decreased urine production and urine retention

What are NSAIDs mechanisms of action?

-chiefly inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis -inactivate COX enzyme which catalyzes one of the steps in the production of prostaglandins -COX-1 is present in most tissues whereas COX-2 is present in CNS, kidney, reproductive organs and eyes and is produced usualyl during tissue damage and inflammation -Inhibition of both but mainly COX-2 has been linked to analgesia

What are some of the strategies to reduce gastric toxicity of NSAIDs?

-coating on pills -give with meals -sucralfate -misoprostol -famotidine and ranitidine

What are the appropriate responses to hypotension in an otherwise healthy patient under anesthesia?

-decrease of anesthetic depth -1-2 boluses -if not response after boluses consider switching to colloids

What are the possible complications from a laporatomy?

-dehiscence(seperation of all layers of an incision or wound) -evisceration(exposure of abdominal organs) -sepsis

What conditions are associated with elevated plasma protein values?

-dehydration -malignancies -infections

What are the effects of alpha 2 agnostic on the respiratory system?

-depress the respiratory system especially in ruminants -caution in brachycephalic and horses with upper respiratory obstruction

What is the duration of action and onset of alfaxalone?

-dirataopm os 5-10 minutes in dogs and 15 to 30 minutes in cats after single injection

What are the effects of propofol on the CNS?

-dose dependent CNS depression ranginging from sedation to general anesthesia -muscle tremors sometimes during induction

What is the onset and duration of action for opioids?

-duration 0.5 to 3 hours with the exception of buprenorphine which is 6-8 hours and morphine that is 6-8 hours in horses

What are the objectives of monitoring circulation and what are the methods used?

-ensure adequate circulatory function 1. Palpation of peripheral pulse to determine rate, rhythm, and quality and evaluation of mucous membrane (MM) color and capillary refill time (CRT) 2. Auscultation of heartbeat (stethoscope, esophageal stethoscope or other audible heart monitor). Continuous (audible heart or pulse monitor) or intermittent monitoring of the heart rate and rhythm 3. Pulse oximetry to determine the percentage hemoglobin saturation 4. Electrocardiogram (ECG) continuous display for detection of arrhythmias 5. Blood pressure: a. Noninvasive (indirect): oscillometric method or Doppler ultrasonic flow detector b. Invasive (direct): arterial catheter connected to an aneroid manometer or to a transducer and oscilloscope

What are anesthesia related causes for prolonged recovery time?

-excessive depth of anesthesia -breed disposition(sight hounds sensitive to barbiturate)

Behavior, respiration and cardivascular characteristics of stage II

-excitement, reflex struggling, vocalization, paddling, chewing -irregular, may hold breath or hyper ventilate -HR increased

What are the cautions about mask indcution?

-exposure to gas -struggle may cause cardiac arrhythmias -takes a long time so patietns with respiratory issues should not use -airway must be kept open and not compress chest -cant prevent aspiration

How is toxoplasma diagnosed?

-fecal flotation -immunodiagnostic testse using whole blood or serum

What are the three basic types of nematodes?

-free living residing in marine, freshwater, and soil -nematodes that parasitize plants -nematodes that parasitize domesticated and wild animals and humans

What conditions should NSAIDs be avoided

-geriatric patients -dehydrated animals -coagulopathicm liver or kidney dysfunction -GI disorders and corticosteroids

What are the main differences between atropine and glycopyrrolate?

-glyco is slightly less likely to induce cardiac arrrythmias, surpresses salivation more effectivaly and minimally crosses placental barrier -atropine is better in emergency cardiac situations

How are most anesthetic emergencies caused?

-human error -equipment related issues -adverse effects of anesthetic agents -increased patient risk

What are the effects of etimodate on the CNS?

-hyponosis but little analgesia -drug decreases brain oxygen consumption maintains brain perfusion better than most other injectables

What are patient related causes of prolonged recovery?

-hypotension, poor perfusion or shock -liver or kidney disease -incracranial disease -hypoglycemia -hypothermia

What is the onset and duration of action for procaine? What is the potency?

-immediate onset -duration 1 hour -potency is 1

What is the onset and duration of action for lidocaine? What is the potency?

-immediate onset -duration 1-2 hours with epinephrine, 1 hour without -IV should be done slowly over 15-20 min -potency is 2

What are the issues with using an oscillometer

-inaccurate for animals under 7 kg -underestimate high pressure and overestimate low pressure -inaccurate in animals with significant hypotension, arrhythmias or fast HR -Systolic pressure is 15mmHg lower than doppler

What conditions are associated with decreased plasma protein values?

-inadequate protein production -inadequate intake -increased loss(renal disease, blood loss) -inadequate absorption from the GI tract

When should lidocaine with epinephrine be avoided?

-incisions sites -ears, tail or digits because circulation can be compromised -ventricular arrhythmias

What are the two ways to change the anesthetic concentration of the patient more rapidly?

-increase the fresh gas flow rate to shorten the time constant -make large change in vaporizer dial setting

What are the phases of wound healing?

-inflammatory -debridement -repair -maturation

What are the advantages of delaying anesthetic procedures for trauma patients?

-it allows time for thorough workup to assess injuries -provides some time to stabilize animal's condition

Why was diethyl ether used for such a long time?

-it had desirable effects such as stable cardiac output, heart rhythm, respiration and BP

What are the characteristics that define arthropods?

-jointed appendages -chitinous exoskeleton -hemocel(body cavitiy filled with hemolymph)

What are the most commonly used local anesthetics for skin and mucous membranes?

-lidocaine -bupivicaine -mepivicaine -procaine

What are the effects of anticholinergics on the CNS?

-limited effects may cause mild sedation at therapuetic doses

What are the three layers of closure of an abdominal exploratory sugery?

-linea alba for strength -subcutaneous layer to reduce dead space -skin

What are the differences of local anesthetics from general anesthetics?

-locals affect the PNS and spinal cord not the CNS -few effects on cardio or respiratory system -localized not systemic -not transferred across the placenta

What are the types of capnograph sensors

-mainstream-sensor chamber is placed directly between ET tube and circuit -sidestream-sensor chamber is located in the cmputirzed monitor and air is pulled into it through a tube attached to a fitting

What are the advantages of placing an E tube?

-maintains an open aiway -more efficient delivary of gas -reduces aspiration risk -reduces dead space -ventilation either by mechanical or manual means -allows for ventilation in respiratory or cardiac arrett

Chlorhexidine disinfectants

-maintains effectiveness in presence of organic material but is not as effective agaist some bacteria and viruses

What are the effects of alpha 2 agonists on the CNS

-major sedation -analgesia(shorter than sedative effect) -temporary behavior changes -horses can have muscle tremors and may kick -cattle lie down

What are the adverse effects of local anesthetics?

-motor neurons may be affected and the patient may lose voluntary motor control -if iinjected ina nerve temporary or permanent loss of function may result -tissue irritation -paresthesia(tingling pain or irritation) -allergic reactions -systemic toxicity particularly if it is given IV without use of torniquet -epidural can tramautize the spinal cord -if infiltrated into the cranial portion of the spinal cord serious toxicity and even death can occur -diffucsion of anesthetic into the cervical and thoracic spinal cord can affect sympathetic nerves supplying heart

What are the three major opioid receptors that have been identified?

-mu -kappa -delta

What are the miscellaneous effects of alpha 2 agonists?

-muscle relaxation -increased effects of other anesthetics -GI effects(vomiting), bloat in cattle -hyperglycemia(reduction in secretion of insulin) -hypothermia -increased urination -premature parturtion -horses can sweet

What is the mode of action of etomidate?

-not completely understood -appears to affect GABA receptors in a similar manner to propofol and barbiturates -short acting because it is redistributed like propofol

What is the mechanism of action for acepromazine?

-not fully understood -the major effects include depression of the reticular activating centers of the brain and blockage of the alpha-adrenergic, dopamine and histamine receptors

What is the onset and duration of action for bupivacaine? What is the potency?.

-onset 20 min -duration 4-6 hours -poency 8

What is the onset of action and duration of glycopyrrolate?

-onset 5 minutes with peak in 30-45 minutes duration is 2-3 hours although salivary secretions can be suppressed for up to 7 hours

What is the onset and duration of action for tetracaine? What is the potency?

-onset 5-10 minutes -duration 2 hour -potency 12

What is the onset of cction of topical lidocaine through mucous membranes? duration?

-onset 60-90 seconds -analgesia 10-15minutes

What is the onset of action and duration of atropine?

-onset is 5 minutes with peak effect 10-20 minutes -duration is 60-90 minutes

What are the onset and duration of action for alpha 2 agonists?

-onset is 5-15 minutes IV or 15-30 IM and lasts about 1-2 hours. Complete recovery takes 2-4 hours if not reversed

What is the onset of action of benzodiazepines and the duration of action?

-onset of action is less then or equal to 15 minutes afterr IM injection -short duration 1-4 hours

Ascaris suum eggs

-oval and golden brown with thick albuminous shell bearing prominent projections that give a lumpy bumpy appearance

How do female nematodes give birth?

-oviparous eggs are a single stage -ovoviviparous eggs produced contain first stage larva within the egg shell -larviparous they retain their eggs within the uterus and incubate them to give live birth

What are the clinical signs for internal bleeding?

-pale mucous membranes -slow crt -rapid respiratory rate -abdominal bloating -swelling at or around the surgical site -hypotension

What are the characteristics of anesthesia stage I?

-patient begins to lose consciousness. Usually fearful, excited, disoriented and struggling. -HR and RR elevated

What is the primary reason artifacts occur? What would one look like on ECG?``````

-patient body movement -electrode movement and electrical interference

What are the characteristics of stage III anesthesia?

-patient is unconscious and progresses gradually from light to deep anesthesia -progressive muscle relaxation, decreasing HR and RR, loss of reflexes -pupils gradually dilate, tear production decreases and PLR is lost -divided into light, moderate and deep -gagging, swelling, laryngeal reflexes are depressed

What are the factors that drive anesthetic depth change?

-patients respiratoyry drive -the agent used -the carrier gas flow rate -the type of breathing circuit -the volume of the breathing circuit

What are therapeutic measures that can be taken to help with prolonged recovery time

-physical stimulation -ventilation -fluid therapy -reversal agents -warming measure -dextrose(hypoglycemia)

What are the disadvantages of Recuvyra?

-potential for human adverse reactions -should not be applied if dorsal scapular skin is infected or distrupted - contraindicated with dogs that have ileus -site contact should be avoided for 72 hours

What are the opioid effects on the respiratory system?

-potential to decrease RR and tidal volume but doesn't really occur at minimal dose rates -panting in dogs

What are the effects of antocholinergics on the cardiovascular system?

-prevent bradycardia -temporary first or second degree AV block followed by sinus tachycardia -avoid in aniamls with preexitisting rapid heart rates or heart disease

Why should cuffed tubes be used in mammals?

-prevents leakage of air and gases around the tube and therefore reduced waste gas pollution in the operating room. -minimizes the risk of aspiration -Minimizes animal breathing room air and difficulty maintaining anesthesia

What are the consequences of not treating pain?

-produces catabolic state which can lead to wasting -supresses immune resposne -delays wound healing -Greater anesthetic risk -Suffering

What I a simple descriptive scale?

-rate the pain bast on absent, mild, moderate etc. -very subjective

What are the effects of anticholnergics on the respiratory system?

-reduction and thickening of respiratory and salivary secretions -can increase viscosity in cats -not recommended in ruminants because of the increase in viscoscity that can increase risk of respiratory obstruction -Bronchodilation which can increase dead space and put the patient at risk of hypoventilation and hypoxemia

What effect does propofol have on the respiratory system?

-respiratory depressant -high doses or rapid injection can cause apnea

What is a paravetebral anesthesia and which species is it performed on?

-ruminants -1. The sites for paravertebral anesthesia of spinal nerves T13 to L2 for flank laparotomy. 2. The space cranial to the transverse spinous process of L1 is palpated. 3. A 1.5-inch, large-gauge needle is inserted in the skin over the space, approximately 2.5 to 5 cm from the midline .4. Then, 2 to 3 mL of lidocaine is injected into the subcutaneous tissues. 5. A 2.5- to 3.5-inch spinal needle is passed through the anesthetized tissue, in this case inside the short needle. 6. The remainder of the local anesthetic is deposited above and below the intertransverse fascia to anesthetize the dorsal and ventral branches of the spinal nerve. 7. A correctly performed block will produce scoliosis toward the side of the block. 8. Skin sensitivity to a needle prick can be assessed before commencement of surgery.

What factors effect the waste gas level?

-seal achieved by the ET tube cuff -the presence or absence of machine leaks -exposure to inhaled air from the patient -chamber use -scavenging syste -length of anesthesia -flow rate of gas carrier -room ventilation

What are the morphological characteristics of insecta?

-segmented body with three pairs of segmented legs -bilateral symmetry -dorsal heart -ventral nerve cord -digestive system from mouth to anus -excretory system

What are the ideal characteristics of wrapping material?

-selective permeability(steam or gas must be able to penetrate) -resistance(resist damage when handle and damage should be readily visible) -flexibility(should be able to conform to shape of the pack) -memory(after pack is open material should return to original flat position)

What is the categorical pain sale?

-series of numeric rating scales with descriptions next to each category such as appearance, interaction, posture and response to palpation

What are the limiting factors of alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists for analgesia in small animals?

-short duration of analgesic effect -profound sedative effects -potential for serious adverse effects

What are the two categories of health hazards of anesthetic waste gases?

-short term -long term days, weeks or years after exposure

What are the other miscellaneous effects of benzodiazepines?

-skeletal muscle relaxation -potentiation of general anesthetics -can cross the placenta and affect fetus -specifically diazepam is painful and poorly absorbed IM. Give slow IV.

Danger of lepidoptera

-some catepilars are covered with tiny, urticating stinging hairs that can sting humans and animals

What are other indicators of light anesthesia?

-spontaneous movement -muscle tone(attempting to open the jaw) -eye position -pupil size -salivary and lacrimal secretions -HR and RR -response to surgical stimulation

What are the other indicators of anesthetic depth?

-spontanous movement, eye position, pupil size, muscle tone, nystagmus, salivary and lacrimal secretions and surgical response to stimulation

Describe some of the strategies to minimize complications during anesthetic procedures

-stabilize the patient before going under -base the protocol on the patient not just a standard protocol -use a balanced protocol to minimize effects of agents -double check allllll concentrations before administration -label!!!! -administer no more than minimum duse -give to effect

What is the mode of action of alfaxalone?

-steroid molecule with anesthetic properties that appears to work similar to other hypnotics such as propofol and etomidate by binding to GABA receptors. Rapidly metabolized

What are the benefits of NSAIDs over opioids?

-storage, handling and record keeping regulations that govern narcotics -potential abuse -effective given orally -negligible effect effect on cardiovascular and respiratory systems

Tissue thumb forceps

-straight shaft and can range in length from 5-12 inches. Can have 1x2 or 3x4 teeth

Why is mask induction challenging?

-struggling patient -fear and excitement between stages that can predispose patient to cardiac arrhytmias and hypotension -mm and crt not easily observable

Treatment of struvite crystals

-surgical removal -dissolution -hills s/d -increase acidity in urine

treatment of urate crystals

-surgical removal or dissolution -u/d diet -allopurinol

What are the effects of acepromazine on the cardiovascular system?

-tachycardia -antiarrhythmic -peripheral vasodilation which can cause hypotension increased RR and heat loss -severe hypotension

What other factors affect anesthetic delivery

-temperature, barometric pressure, respiratory rate, carrier gas flow rate, back pressure

How is a monopolar electrosurgery device used?

-the hand piece can be activated and the tip of the hand piece can directly touch the tissue or vessel -a hemostat can be placed on the tissue or vessel and then the cautery piece is touched to the hemostat

Where do protozoans live in the host animal?

-the liquid of the host's blood, lymph, or csf

How is proper inflation of the reservoir bag determined?

-the rate at qwhich gas is entering the breathing circuit through the fresh gas inlet which is regulated by flowmeter -the rate at which gas is exiting the breathing circuit through the pop off valve -should be 3/4 full at expiration

Why are acepromazine, diazepam and other tranquilizers used for analgesia?

-they may potentiate the ffects of opioids in some patents because some patients may experience increased pain due to anxiousness

What are the risks of ruminant anesthesia?

-they produce large amounts of saliva even under antehsia -regurgiaiton -cant eructate when they are unconcious

What are the uses for barbiturates?

-thiopental sodium and methohexital are ultra short acting and were used to induce anesthesia in dogs, cats and horses but have become difficult to obtain -short acting pentobarbital is used to induce and maintain general anesthesia in laboratory animals and treat epilepsy in small animals -long acting phenobarbital is used as sedative and anticonvulsant

What are the objectives and methods of monitoring ventilation?

-to ensure that the patient's ventilation is adequately maintaned 1. Observation of thoracic wall movement or observation of breathing bag movement when thoracic wall movement cannot be assessed 2. Auscultation of breath sounds with an external stethoscope, an esophageal stethoscope, or an audible respiratory monitor 3. Capnography (end-expired CO2 measurement) 4. Arterial blood gas analysis for carbon dioxide partial pressure (PaCO2) 5. Respirometry (tidal volume measurement)

What is recuvyra?

-topical fentanyl at a concentration of 50mg/mL which is 1000 times more than injectable -apply 2-4 hours prior to surgery -only distrubuted to specially trained personnel

What are the four phases of the pain pathway?

-transduction -transmission -modulation -perception

What are the four main steps of the pain pathway

-transduction:generation of stimuli into action potentials -transmission:sensory impulses are conducted to the spinal cord via peripheral nerve fibers -modulation-impulses are altered, amplified or supressed -perception: impulses are transmitted to brain

What are the miscellaneous effects of propofol?

-twitching -muscle relaxant -antiemetic effect -decreased intracranial and intraocular pressure -pain on iv injection but no tissue damage -cats can develop Heinz Bodies if given repeat doses or prolonged CRI -sighthounds may have prolonged recovery if maintained with propofol for longer than 30 minutes

What do flow rates depend on?

-type of breathing system -period of anesthesia(induction, maintenance, recovery).

What changes the effectiveness of a disinfectant?

-type of microorganism -degree of contamination -amount of protein in the area -organic matter -additional sanitizing compound -ceoncetration and quantity -contact time and temperature

Behavior, respiration and cardivascular characteristics of stage III/deep stage III

-unconcious, immoble -shallow; rate below normal, may see abdominal breathing -HR low normal to well below normal, pale mm, CRT high normal or prolonged, very weak pulse

Behavior, respiration and cardivascular characteristics of stage III/light stage III

-unconcious, possible movement in response to surgical stimulation -regular, rate high, normal or low -HR often normal with a strong pulse

Behavior, respiration and cardivascular characteristics of stage IV

-unconcious; immobile -apnea -cardivascular collapse

Behavior, respiration and cardivascular characteristics of stage III/surgical anesthesia

-unconcious; immobile -regular and shallow, normal to midly decreased -HR normal or mildly decreased, CRT normal, pulse strength dereased

What effects do dissociative agents have on the cardiovascular system?

-usually increase output and heartrate -decrease inotropy -slightly increase risk of cardiac arrhythmia

What are opioid effects on the cardiovascular system?

-vagus induced bradycardia

What are the most important properties that effect anesthetic effects?

-vapor pressure partition coefficient -minimum alveolar concentration -rubber solubility

What are the three parameters of monitoring?

-vital signs -reflexes -other indicators of depth

What are the three categories of parameters during monitoring?

-vital signs(heart rate (HR), heart rhythm, respiratory rate (RR) and depth, mucous membrane color, capillary refill time (CRT), pulse strength, blood pressure (BP), and temperature) -reflexes -other(spontaneous movement, eye position, pupil size, muscle tone, nystagmus, salivary and lacrimal secretions, and response to surgical stimulation)

What are the advantages of midazolam over diazepam?

-water soluble -less irritating to tissues and more reliably absorbed IM or SC -provides good sedation in swine and some exotics ike ferrets, rabbits and birds

How does an ultrasonic cleaner work?

. An ultrasonic cleaner uses sound waves higher than those heard by the human ear, which create tiny bubbles. These bubbles form and collapse thousands of times each second, producing a scrubbing effect, known as cavitation, on the surface of itemsimmersed in the liquid. Particles that have been agitated from instruments are suspended in solution and are sub- jected to negative pressure or suction. As a result, proteins are coagulated, the cell walls are disrupted, and microor- ganisms are destro

Putting on a gown

. Grasp the whole gown, and lift the folded gown out of the package. Step away from the table, making sure there is adequate space to gown without contaminating anything (Figure 3-19). After locating the neckline and armholes, hold the gown by the neckline (Figure 3-20) and allow it to unfold (do not shake it). Keep the inside toward the body and the hands in the armholes. Slide both arms into the sleeves of the gown by reaching and extending both arms at the same time (Figure 3-21). The circulating nurse (non- sterile assistant) will continue to pull the gown onto the scrubbed-in person, carefully bringing the gown over the shoulders, fastening the neck of the gown, and tying the waistline, all while standing behind the person gowning and touching only the hem of the collar and back of the gown. If the gown is not fitting comfortably, the circulating nurse may grasp the gown by the hem at the bottom of the gown and pull downward. This may help the gown fit more comfortably. The scrubbed. Grasp the whole gown, and lift the folded gown out of the package. Step away from the table, making sure there is adequate space to gown without contaminating anything (Figure 3-19). After locating the neckline and armholes, hold the gown by the neckline (Figure 3-20) and allow it to unfold (do not shake it). Keep the inside toward the body and the hands in the armholes. Slide both arms into the sleeves of the gown by reaching and extending both arms at the same time (Figure 3-21). The circulating nurse (non- sterile assistant) will continue to pull the gown onto the scrubbed-in person, carefully bringing the gown over the shoulders, fastening the neck of the gown, and tying the waistline, all while standing behind the person gowning and touching only the hem of the collar and back of the gown. If the gown is not fitting comfortably, the circulating nurse may grasp the gown by the hem at the bottom of the gown and pull downward. This may help the gown fit more comfortably. The scrubbed person's hands remain inside the cuffs and must not be exposed outside the gown to perform the closed-gloving technique.

What are the problems if an e tube is too long?

. If inserted too far, the beveled end may advance into only one mainstem bronchus, thus supplying only one lung with oxygen and anesthetic. If inserted only to the thoracic inlet, the portion of the tube extending from the mouth will increase mechanical dead space

What is the onset and duration of a morphine epidural?

. Onset of analgesia is approximately 20 to 60 minutes after injection, and analgesia lasts 6 to 24 hours. If more prolonged analgesia is required, an epidural catheter can be used to instill morphine into the epidural space over a longer period (hours to days).

What are the four distinct aspects of a capnogram

. The baseline value 2. The ETCO2 value 3. The waveform shape 4. The rate at which changes occur (suddenly, rapidly, or gradually)

Eimeria media

. media oocysts are ovoid and 31 × 18 µm, with a smooth wall and a light-pink color. There is a micropyle and a residuum. Sporocysts within the mature oocyst are ovoid, with a body and a residuum. Rabbit Moderately pathogenic

What are the strengths of atropine available?

0.54mg/mL and 15mg/mL

What are the strengths of dexmedetomidine available?

0.5mg/mL and 0.1mg/mL

Which species are alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists used for sedation?

horses it provides sedation, muscle relaxation and anaglesia

Developmental entropion

inherited most common form seen in small animals

What is the largest class within Arthropoda?

insects

Client postoperative instructions following perianal surgery

1. A special diet high in fiber may be prescribed to keep the stools soft. The diet may or may not be a permanent change. 2. Stool softeners such as lactulose may be prescribed for short-term therapy. 3. If diarrhea occurs, the veterinary hospital should be noti- fied. Discontinue the stool softener, and clean the surgical site by flushing thoroughly with warm tap water. Do not scrub the site. 4. Observe the pet while it passes a bowel movement. If the pet is straining or crying in pain, the veterinary hospital should be notified. Fecal incontinence , inability to stop or leakage of feces, also warrants hospital contact.

Why must the desiccated absorber be observed using sevoflurane?

it can react with potassium hydroxide or sodium hydroxide

What is a limitation of gas plasma sterilization?

it cannot penetrate the walls of an instrument with a lumen

What is the procedure for adding MLK to IV fluids?

1. Add the following amounts of drugs to a 500-mL bag of crystalloid fluids: • 1.6 mL of morphine 15 mg/mL (24 mg morphine) • 15 mL of lidocaine 20 mg/mL (300 mg lidocaine) • 0.6 mL of ketamine 100 mg/mL (60 mg ketamine) 2. Remember to mark the bag of fluids using an appropriate additive label. 3. Administer the fluids at 5 mL/kg/hr during surgery.∗ The infusion rates will be: • Morphine 0.24 mg/kg/hr • Lidocaine 3 mg/kg/hr • Ketamine 0.6 mg/kg/hr 4. Important points to remember when administering the combination: • A fluid bag containing this combination should not be used to administer fluid boluses. • Lidocaine takes several hours to reach an effective concentration; therefore 2 mg/kg IV should be administered at the start of the anesthetic period or given before IV induction. • The effects of the combination will usually last for 1 hour after termination of the infusion, sometimes delaying recovery. Turning the infusion off before postoperative radiographs or bandage application will decrease time spent in recovery. • Particular care should be taken when administering this combination to small dogs to prevent overdose. Use of a smaller bag of fluids, a Buretrol, or an infusion pump is recommended.

How would you maintain a horse with inhalant agent?

1. Administer premedications IM approximately 20 to 30 minutes before, or IV approximately 5 to 10 minutes before, anesthetic induction. 2. If the horse is adequately sedated, administer the induction agent; otherwise give additional sedation before induction. 3. Check the patient's readiness for intubation. 4. Place and secure the endotracheal tube. 5. Inflate the endotracheal tube cuff. 6. Check the patient's vital signs. 7. Hoist, position, and secure the patient for the procedure with attention to padding of the face and lower limbs if the horse is in lateral recumbency, maintenance of an open airway, unrestricted blood flow, and unrestricted chest excursions. If the patient is placed in lateral recumbency, the dependent forelimb should be extended forward as far as possible, and padding should be placed between the hind limbs. The forelimbs are usually secured using a rope. 8. Remove the halter. 9. Turn on the oxygen and attach the endotracheal tube to the breathing circuit. 10. Turn on the inhalant anesthetic to the appropriate level. 11. Determine the patient's anesthetic depth and commence regular monitoring. 12. Attach monitoring devices, including placement of an arterial catheter. 13. Continue to monitor and adjust the anesthetic and oxygen levels as needed until completion of the procedure.

Describe the events for inducing with IV anesthetic and gas maintenance

1. Administer premedications intramuscularly approximately 15 to 20 minutes, or intravenously approximately 5 to 10 minutes, before anesthetic induction. 2. Place an intravenous catheter, attach a fluid administration set, and begin fluid administration. 3. Administer the induction agent. 4. Check the patient's readiness for intubation. 5. Place and secure the endotracheal tube. 6. Check the patient's vital signs. 7. Turn on the oxygen, and connect the endotracheal tube to the breathing circuit. 8. Inflate the endotracheal tube cuff. 9. Turn the vaporizer on to the appropriate setting. 10. Determine the patient's anesthetic depth, and commence regular monitoring. 11. Position and secure the patient for the procedure, giving attention to padding, maintenance of an open airway, unrestricted blood flow, and unrestricted chest excursions. 12. Attach monitoring devices. 13. Continue to monitor and adjust the anesthetic and oxygen levels as needed until completion of the procedure.

How would you respond to excessive anesthetic depth?

1. After concluding that the anesthetic depth is excessive, the anesthetist should immediately decrease the vaporizer setting (to zero, if necessary) and inform the veterinarian. 2. If the veterinarian decides that the animal's condition has deteriorated so that resuscitation efforts are warranted, the anesthetist should begin to ventilate the animal with pure oxygen. (This assumes that the patient is intubated and is being maintained with an inhalant agent. If an injectable agent is being used to maintain the patient, intubation and oxygen delivery by means of an anesthetic machine should be initiated immediately.) 3. To ventilate the patient, the pop-off valve is closed, the reservoir bag is filled with oxygen, and the bag is gently squeezed until the animal's chest rises slightly. This procedure should be repeated every 5 seconds until the animal shows signs of recovery (such as increased heart rate, stronger pulse, and improved mucous membrane color and refill). 4. The use of intravenous fluids, external heat, and drugs such as doxapram and specific reversing agents (such as yohimbine, atipamezole, or naloxone) may also expedite recovery. 5. Occasionally the anesthetist may be unsure of whether a patient's anesthetic depth is excessive. If the veterinarian is not immediately available to assess the patient's condition, it is safest to assume that anesthesia is too deep and decrease the vaporizer setting while observing the animal carefully for signs of arousal.

How would you treat hypotension?

1. Anesthetic depth should be reduced, if possible. 2. The use of anesthetic drugs that cause vasodilation (acepromazine, propofol, and inhalant agents) should be minimized. 3. Pain control should be optimized with injectable analgesics such as the opioid agonists. This may allow the dose of inhalant anesthetic to be decreased. 4. Crystalloid fluids should be administered at rates of 10 to 20 mL/kg/hr. In the short term, it may be necessary to give small fluid boluses of 10 to 20 mL/kg over 15 minutes for cats (approximately 1 mL/kg/min) and 20 to 40 mL/kg over 15 minutes for dogs (approximately 2 mL/kg/min) to help improve blood pressure quickly. 5. If blood pressure cannot be maintained, colloids may be given in concert with crystalloids. Doses for colloids vary depending on the type that is used, but in general, for dogs one uses 10 to 20 mL/kg, and for cats 5 to 10 mL/kg administered over 20 to 30 minutes. 6. If drugs are required to stabilize blood pressure, the veterinarian may choose one or more of various medications such as dopamine (1 to 10 mcg/kg/min) if the heart rate is low or dobutamine (1 to 5 mcg/kg/min) for the patient with normal heart rate but decreased blood pressure. 7. The patient must be kept warm through the use of supplemental heat in the form of warm towels, circulating warm water heating pads, hot water bottles, or similar devices.

Describe the Baermann technique

1. Spread out a piece of cheesecloth or a gauze square on the support screen in the Baermann apparatus. Place 5 to 15 g of the fecal, soil, or tissue sample on the cheesecloth. Fold any excess cheesecloth over the top of the sample. Be sure the sample is covered by the warm water or physiologic saline; add more if necessary. 2. Allow the apparatus to remain undisturbed overnight. 3. Hold a glass microscope slide under the cut-off pipette, and open the pinch clamp long enough to allow a large drop of fluid to fall on the slide. Apply a coverslip to the slide, and examine it microscopically for the presence of larvae. Repeat by examining several slides before deciding that the sample is negative. Used to recover larvae of roundworms

How would you treat apnea

1. Apnea is a common effect following induction of anesthesia with the intravenous agents propofol and alfaxalone, and may also occur after induction with other IV drugs, but can occur at other times during the anesthetic procedure. 2. The anesthetist should briefly check to make sure that the patient is intubated and that the endotracheal tube is patent and correctly placed in the trachea. 3. The anesthetist should then make sure the patient's other vital signs (heart rate, blood pressure, mucus membrane color and refill time, and oxygen saturation) are acceptable. If one (or more) of the parameters is not in the expected range for the anesthetized patient, follow the steps in Procedure 13-11 (Treatment of Respiratory Arrest). 4. Breathe for the patient by manually bagging once every 30 to 60 seconds. If the patient seems to be inadequately anesthetized, maintain or increase the vaporizer setting. If the patient seems adequately anesthetized, maintain or slightly decrease the vaporizer setting. Bagging should be continued until the patient starts to breathe spontaneously. 5. Monitor the patient's end-tidal CO2 if a monitor is available. If the end-tidal CO2 is in or below the normal range, reduce the rate and/or depth of manual breaths. If the end-tidal CO2 is higher than 45 to 55 mmHg then ventilate more frequently or deliver larger tidal volumes. 6. If the patient's depth of anesthesia and other signs are stable, but regular breathing does not resume after 15 minutes of bagging, consult the attending veterinarian to determine whether the patient should be placed on a mechanical ventilator.

Describe the equipement and machine checklist before a procedure

1. Assemble all needed supplies. 2. If using an active scavenging system, turn on the scavenging system exhaust fan. 3. Identify and weigh the patient. 4. Choose appropriately sized endotracheal tubes based on patient signalment and body weight. 5. Check the endotracheal tubes for integrity, and inflate the endotracheal tube cuffs to check for leaks. 6. If a laryngoscope is used, choose an appropriately sized blade and check the light. 7. Choose an appropriate machine (large animal [LA] versus small animal [SA]) based on patient body weight. 8. Choose an appropriate breathing circuit based on patient body weight. 9. If using a rebreathing system, choose appropriate corrugated breathing tubes (LA, SA, or pediatric) and a reservoir bag based on patient body weight (see Box 4-3). 10. Assemble the machine(s): a. Connect the vaporizer inlet port hose. b. Connect the fresh gas inlet hose of the breathing circuit to the vaporizer outlet port or common gas outlet if present. c. If using a rebreathing system, attach an appropriately sized reservoir bag and breathing tubes. d. Connect the scavenging system hoses. 11. Check that all compressed gas cylinders are correctly mounted in the yokes (E tanks) or connected to the pressure regulator (H tanks). 12. Turn on oxygen supply, check the primary and secondary oxygen supply pressure, and replace empty tanks as necessary. 13. Check the flowmeter controls to ensure proper function. 14. Check the amount of anesthetic in the vaporizer, and replenish as necessary. Ensure that the vaporizer and flowmeter are off before filling the vaporizer. 15. Rotate the vaporizer dial to ensure smooth function. Turn to "off." 16. Check the carbon dioxide absorbent, and change if necessary. 17. Check the low-pressure system for leaks (see Procedure 4-1). 18. Set the pop-off or overflow valve (see Procedure 4-2).

Describe the procedure for the preparation of a dog or cat for general anesthesia

1. Assess, prepare, and weigh the patient. (See Chapter 2 for a discussion of patient assessment, preparation, and stabilization.) 2. Determine the protocol (anesthetic agents, doses, and routes and sequence of administration). 3. Calculate the volume of each agent to give (preanesthetic, induction, maintenance, and analgesic agents) and fluid administration rates. 4. Calculate the oxygen flow rates (see Chapter 4, p. 130). (See Table 9-2, p. 289 for a quick reference oxygen flow rate chart for semiclosed rebreathing systems and Table 9-3, p. 289 for a quick reference oxygen flow rate chart for non-rebreathing systems.) 5. Prepare equipment required to administer drugs (scales, syringes, needles, anesthetic agents and adjuncts, reversal agents, emergency cart, controlled substance log, and tape to label syringes). 6. Prepare fluid administration equipment (clippers, antiseptic scrub and rinsing agent, catheters, tape, normal saline, catheter cap, administration and extension set, fluids). 7. Prepare equipment for endotracheal intubation (see Figure 9-9, p. 288). 8. Prepare monitoring equipment, including anesthesia record, stethoscope, monitors, and probes (see Chapter 6). 9. Assemble and test the anesthetic machine.

What is the protocol for preparing a horse for anesthesia?

1. Assess, prepare, and weigh the patient. If a large animal scale is not available the weight must be estimated, preferably with a weight tape. (See Chapter 2 for a discussion of patient assessment, preparation, and stabilization.) 2. Prepare equipment for and place an IV catheter, which may require intramuscular (IM) sedation in some horses (clippers, local anesthetic, antiseptic scrub, catheters, tape, normal saline, suture material, catheter cap, and/or extension line with three-way stopcock). 3. Rinse the horse's mouth, clean the hooves, and remove or wrap shoes when appropriate. 4. Determine the protocol (anesthetic agents, including dosages, routes, and sequence of administration). 5. Calculate the volume of each agent to give, including fluid administration rates (preanesthetic, induction, maintenance, and analgesic agents). 6. Review oxygen flow rates (see Table 10-1). 7. Prepare equipment required to administer drugs (syringes, needles, agents, reversal agents, emergency cart, controlled substance log). 8. Prepare fluid administration equipment (fluids, administration/extension set, syringe pump, tape, normal saline). 9. Prepare equipment for endotracheal intubation (see Chapter 9, p. XXX). 10. Prepare monitoring equipment including arterial catheterization materials, anesthesia record, monitors, and probes (see Chapter 6). 11. Assemble and test the anesthetic machine and ventilator.

How to prepare d antoni idoine solution

1. Before preparing this solution the technician should remove all jewelry because this iodine solution can permanently stain precious metals. Distilled water, 100 mL Potassium iodide, 1 g Powdered iodine crystals, 1.5 g 2. The potassium iodide solution should be saturated with iodine, with some excess remaining in the bottle. It should be stored in brown, glass-stoppered bottles and kept in the dark. The solution is ready for use immediately and should be decanted into a brown glass dropping bottle. When the solution lightens, it should be discarded and replaced with fresh stock. The stock solution is good as long as an excess of iodine remains in the bottom of the bottle. 3. When using this solution in the laboratory around the compound microscope, the technician should take great care not to spill the solution onto the metal parts of the microscope because it is extremely corrosive.

What are the four potential risks from compressed gas cylinders?

1. Both oxygen and nitrous oxide support combustion. Therefore contact with flames, sparks, and other sources of ignition must be avoided. 2. A forceful release of gas from an unprotected outlet port may tear the skin or injure an eye. To avoid this type of injury, turn the tank on only when it is attached to a yoke or pressure regulator. The only exception to this rule is when opening the valve to clean dust and dirt from the outlet port before attaching it to a machine or pressure regulator. In this case, turn the valve on slowly and only enough to expel the dirt from the port. 3. If a cylinder is dropped and the valve breaks off, the cylinder may cause serious personal injury! High-pressure gas exiting a cylinder through a broken valve will cause the cylinder to fly at high velocity in the opposite direction to the released gas, becoming in effect a "torpedo," the force of which is sufficient to penetrate concrete and injure or kill anyone in its path. Therefore these tanks must be stored only attached to a yoke, secured in a cart designed for this purpose, or chained to the wall. Never drop compressed gas cylinders or leave them standing alone with no support or lying on their side. 4. If a cylinder is inadvertently attached to a valve, yoke, or hose intended for a different type of gas, the wrong gas will be delivered to a patient. For example, if a nitrous oxide cylinder were attached to an oxygen yoke, the patent would receive nitrous oxide instead of oxygen, resulting in asphyxiation. To safeguard against this, all compressed gas supplies have safety systems and features designed to prevent the wrong type of gas cylinder from being attached to the machine connections. First, all cylinders, flowmeters, pressure-reducing valves, gas lines, and quick-release connectors are color-coded to prevent inadvertent use of an incorrect gas. Oxygen cylinders are green (United States) or white (Canada, Europe), nitrous oxide cylinders are blue, and medical air cylinders are yellow (United States) or white and black (Canada, Europe) (see Table 4-1). Carbon dioxide is designated by the color gray. Although not used for anesthesia, carbon dioxide is used as a euthanasia agent for specific applications such as meat packing plants and research facilities.

Postoperative instructions following GI or anastomosis surgery

1. Check the abdominal incision daily for redness, swelling, discharge, and tenderness. 2. Monitor the pet's temperature twice daily, if possible. If a fever is detected, the hospital should be notified. 3. Alert the hospital if vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, or inappetence occurs. 4. Alert the hospital if the patient appears unusually lethargic or in excessive pain. 5. Alert the hospital if the patient appears bloated.

Describe the procedure for debrillation

1. Chest compressions should be carried out for at least 2 minutes before defibrillation and should be continued at all times unless the patient is being actively defibrillated. 2. The defibrillator should be turned on. Many modern defibrillators require use of the defibrillator's ECG component in order to function correctly. 3. An assistant sets the appropriate amount of joules as directed by the veterinarian. Typically the first shock uses the lowest setting for the size of patient. RECOVER Guidelines for defibrillation: • External defibrillation: Monophasic: 4 to 6 J/kg; Biphasic: 2 to 4 J/kg • Internal defibrillation: 0.5 to 1.0 J/kg • If the abnormal rhythm is prolonged, consider increasing the dose by 50%. 4. If external defibrillation is being used, the paddles are coated with conducting gel. If the thorax is open, sterilized internal paddles should be opened using sterile technique, taken by the person performing internal cardiac massage, then soaked with sterile saline. The assistant will have to connect the internal paddles to the defibrillator. 5. The operator then places the external paddles firmly against the skin over the heart according to the directions on the paddles (RECOVER guidelines recommend placing them on opposite sides of the thorax over the costochondral junction); internal paddles are placed on either side of the heart. 6. The defibrillator either makes a "ready" sound or shows that it is ready on a light-emitting diode (LED) display. 7. The operator clearly announces the word "Clear!" which warns other personnel that an electrical shock is about to be delivered and that they should stand away from the patient and the table or surface on which the patient is lying. 8. The operator then discharges the paddles by simultaneously depressing the buttons on both handles. 9. Unless there is immediate ROSC, chest compressions should continue for 2 minutes while the defibrillator recharges.

What is the preparation that must be done before abdominal surgery on a male dog?

1. Combine 1 mL of povidone-iodine solution with 9 mL of tap water. 2. Insert the syringe tip into the prepuce and inject 5 mL of solution (Figure 2-48). Pinch the prepuce around the syringe tip before removing the syringe. 3. While still pinching the prepuce closed, gently massage the solution in the prepuce. 4. Place a towel over the end of the prepuce to absorb the solution. 5. Release the pinch hold on the prepuce. 6. Repeat the process with the remaining 5 mL of solu- tion. This step is required only for intra-abdominal procedures when the prepuce will be in the draped surgical field.

How would you treat a cardiac arrhythmia?

1. Continuous electrocardiographic monitoring should commence to track the status of the arrhythmia. 2. The anesthetist should rule out inadequate oxygen flow or carbon dioxide accumulation within the circuit by using a pulse oximeter and capnograph if available. 3. Ventilation should be increased by periodic intermittent manual ventilation or use of a ventilator. 4. In some cases, antiarrhythmic drugs such as atropine or lidocaine (without epinephrine) may be administered on the veterinarian's orders.

What are the fundamentals of wound management?

1. Temporarily cover the wound to prevent further trauma and contamination. 2. Assess the traumatized animal and stabilize its condition. 3. Clip and aseptically prepare the area around the wound. 4. Culture the wound. 5. Debride dead tissue and remove foreign debris from the wound. 6. Lavage the wound thoroughly. 7. Provide wound drainage. 8. Promote healing by stabilizing and protecting the cleaned wound. 9. Perform appropriate wound closure.

Why should IM propofol be avoided?

it may cause mild sedation and ataxia but does not induce anesthesia because the drug is metabolized too rapidly

Describe the process of applying a fentanyl patch

1. Decide the area. Lateral thorax, dorsal neck, upper part of the limb. Any place that is hard for the animal to reach. 2.Clip skin and dont nick it. 3. Remove patch from its protective backing and handle edges only, wear gloves 4. Hold in place for 1-2 minutes. Skin staples can be used to place. Can bandage material to prevent removal by patient. 5. Effectiveness is 5 days for cats and 3 for dogs with variation 6. Peel patch off and dispose of as medical waste. Patient should return to clinic for removal.

Postoperative instructions following cystotomy

1. Expect bloody urine (hematuria) for 12 to 36 hours. The amount of blood in the urine should diminish as time passes. The owner can monitor the color of the urine by lining the litter box with a white paper towel or placing a white paper towel under the pet when it urinates. Blood in the urine is more easily observed when soaked into a white paper towel. 2. A special diet may be prescribed. Instructions may recom- mend a gradual change to the new diet by mixing the previous and new diets together for several days. 3. Antibiotic therapy may be prescribed. The choice of anti- biotic may change when the results of the urine culture and sensitivity test are known. 4. The dog should be walked outside frequently, and the amount and color of the urine should be monitored. Having the dog urinate on a white paper towel is helpful. 5. If the pet is straining to urinate or exhibiting pain when urinating, the hospital should be notified. 6. If the pet is not passing urine, it should be immediately examined. This is an emergency. Stones remaining in the bladder or blood clots in the bladder can cause obstructions

Postoperative instructions following onychecotomy

1. Shredded paper, dried beans, or a pelleted paper product replaces clay or clumping litter. The paper litter is less likely to leave foreign material in the surgical sites. If the paper sticks to the surgical wounds, it is easily seen and removed. 2. The cat should be restricted from jumping and running. This may mean "crating" the cat during the recuperative period. 3. If swelling of a toe is noted or the cat is non-weight bearing on one paw, the hospital should be notified. 4. Bleeding from the toes is not expected postoperatively. The hospital should be notified if bleeding from the toes occurs. 5. The cat should be kept inside for the remainder of its life because it will not be able to protect itself

Describe the modified Wisconsin sugar flotation method

1. Fill a 20-mm × 150-mm test tube with Sheather solution 1 inch below the top of the tube. 2. Using scales, weigh exactly 3 g of the fecal sample and place into a paper cup. 3. Pour the Sheather solution from the test tube into the paper cup containing the feces and mix well. 4. Place a tea strainer in a second paper cup, and pour the Sheather solution and feces mixture through the strainer. Using a tongue depressor, press all the liquid out of the fecal pat and through the tea strainer. 5. Return the Sheather solution and strained feces mixture to the test tube originally containing the Sheather solution and place it in a test tube rack. 6. Add Sheather solution to the test tube until a small meniscus forms. Carefully place a glass coverslip on top of the meniscus. 7. Allow the test tube with its coverslip to stand undisturbed for 4 hours. 8. Remove the coverslip, place it on a glass microscope slide, and examine the entire coverslip on low power (10×), counting parasite eggs, cysts, or oocysts. This count represents the number of eggs, cysts, or oocysts per 3 g of feces.

Describe the Buffy coat method

1. Fill a hematocrit tube with the whole-blood sample and seal one end with hematocrit clay. 2. In the hematocrit centrifuge, centrifuge the hematocrit tube for 5 minutes. 3. If desired, read the packed-cell volume to determine whether the animal is anemic. Observe the location of the buffy coat layer between the red cell layer and the plasma (Figure 17-17). 4. Place the hematocrit tube on the stage of the compound microscope. Using the 4× objective, examine the zone between the buffy coat layer and the plasma for the presence of microfilarial activity. Use the iris diaphragm to decrease the light because low light intensity and high contrast increase visualization of the motile microfilariae.

What are the five steps involved in production of surgical instruments?

1. Forging: forming or shaping of an instrument by heating and hammering. 2. Milling: cutting a forged piece to produce a final product. 3. Tempering: hardening the instrument by slowly heating in a salt bath and then immersing in oil, or "quenching." 4. Passivation: using a chemical bath to remove the par- ticles created from grinding and other foreign materi- als, strengthen the steel, and aid in rust protection. 5. Polishing: refining the surface to produce a shiny or matte finish.

Describe the procedure for performing an epidural injection in a dog

1. Gather the necessary equipment. This includes a short-beveled spinal needle with a stylet (18 to 22 gauge, 1.5 inches for small or thin dogs, and 2 to 3 inches for large or overweight dogs) and several sterile 3- or 5-mL syringes. If a catheter is to be placed, a thin-walled, 18-gauge, 3-inch needle is required. 2. Sedate (or anesthetize) the patient to achieve adequate restraint and place them in sternal or lateral recumbency. The head is positioned higher than the spinal cord for at least the first 10 minutes of analgesia. This prevents forward migration of the drug into the region of the thoracic spinal cord, which could potentially affect the phrenic nerve (causing respiratory arrest) or cause a sympathetic blockade. 3. Identify the right and left cranial dorsal wings of the ilium, the spinous process of L7, and the sacral crest (Figures 1 and 2). Shave and prepare the area (approximately 10 cm × 10 cm) surrounding the injection site between L7 and the sacral crest. Wear surgical gloves for the procedure. 4. Palpate the lumbosacral space (between L7 and the sacrum), which is midway between the dorsal iliac wings (Figure 3). The lumbosacral space is the depression just caudal to the L7 process and immediately cranial to the sacral crest, which feels like a series of small bumps under the skin. Place the spinal needle in the area of the greatest depression, perpendicular to the skin surface and exactly on the midline (Figure 4). The bevel should be directed cranially, and the stylet should be left in the needle to prevent introduction of skin into the epidural space. The needle is gently advanced perpendicular to the skin in the dog, passing through the skin, subcutaneous fat, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, and ligamentum flavum (Figure 5). Resistance may be encountered, and a distinct "pop" often can be felt as the needle is advanced through the ligamentum flavum. Immediately after the ligamentum flavum is penetrated, the needle enters the epidural space. This usually occurs at a needle depth of 1 to 3 cm, depending on the size of the animal (Figure 6). Occasionally there is some difficulty in finding the intervertebral space, in which case the needle should be withdrawn, angled slightly caudally or cranially, and reinserted. 5. Remove the stylet and examine the needle hub for blood or cerebrospinal fluid (for 2 minutes). If cerebrospinal fluid is encountered, the needle is in the subarachnoid space. If this is the case, the procedure may be abandoned or the anesthetist may choose to administer 30% to 50% of the original dose (provided the agent used has minimal spinal toxicity), which will induce spinal anesthesia. If blood is encountered, the needle has entered the venous sinus, and the procedure should be abandoned. If blood and cerebrospinal fluid are not observed, the needle should be aspirated to ensure that neither is present. To check further for proper needle placement, inject 1 to 2 mL of air; no resistance to air passage should be felt. For large dogs, it may be easier to remove the stylet as it enters the skin. The hub can be filled with saline, and as the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, the liquid will be drawn into the epidural space. 6. Inject the calculated dose of lidocaine or bupivacaine over 1 minute (Figure 7). More rapid injection may cause pressure damage to the spinal cord and nerves or result in local anesthetic infiltrating too far forward along the spinal canal. Injection will be resistance-free if the needle is positioned correctly. If continuous epidural anesthesia is required, a polyethylene catheter may be advanced through the needle and the needle subsequently withdrawn, leaving the catheter in place. Advance the catheter only 1 cm into the epidural space. Onset of analgesia is approximately 5 minutes after lidocaine injection or 20 minutes after bupivacaine injection. The block normally affects the most distal body parts (toes and tail) first. If a bilateral effect is desired, position the patient in dorsal recumbency for 20 minutes after the injection. If unilateral analgesia is required, place the patient in lateral recumbency with the desired side positioned ventrally, allowing for gravitation of the local anesthetic within the epidural space to the targeted side of the spinal canal.

Describe the modified Knott technique.

1. In a centrifuge tube with a conical end, mix 1 mL of the whole-blood sample and 9 mL of 2% formalin (2 mL of 40% formaldehyde per 98 mL of distilled water). Stopper the tube, and rock it back and forth for 1 to 2 minutes until the mixture becomes a clear, red-wine color. 2. Centrifuge the tube at 1500 rpm for 5 minutes. 3. Pour off the liquid supernatant. It is permissible to let the tube stand with the open end down for 45 minutes to 1 hour if time permits. The purpose of this step is to remove as much fluid as possible, leaving sediment only. 4. Add 1 drop of methylene blue stain to the sediment at the bottom of the tube. Transfer a drop of the mixture to a glass slide and apply a coverslip. 5. Examine the slide for the presence of microfilariae using the 10× objective. When microfilariae are found, use a higher-power objective (40×) to observe the fine differences between them (see Table 17-1). 6. The diagnostician may stop this procedure at one of two stopping points: (a) The diagnostician has identified microfilariae as those of Dilofilaria immitis or Acanthocheilonema reconditum, or (b) the diagnostician runs out of the sediment/stain mixture.

How would you induce a foal through nasotrachael intubation?

1. In a tractable or sedated foal, place a nasotracheal tube by extending the head and neck and passing a lubricated endotracheal tube through a nostril into the ventral meatus of the nasal cavity. Gently advance the tube into the nasopharynx. As the foal inhales, advance the tube into the larynx. 2. Connect the Y-piece of a rebreathing system to the endotracheal tube. 3. Give 100% oxygen for 2 to 3 minutes at 1 to 3 L/min. 4. Set the anesthetic vaporizer to deliver 0.5% isoflurane or 1% sevoflurane. Sevoflurane is less pungent than isoflurane and better accepted. 5. Gradually increase the concentration of anesthetic by small increments (0.5% every 30 seconds for isoflurane and 1% every 30 seconds for sevoflurane) until an anesthetic concentration of 4% to 5% is reached for isoflurane and 5% to 8% for sevoflurane. Use lower maximum concentrations for compromised or very young foals. If the foal struggles, the vaporizer concentration can be increased more rapidly. 6. Monitor the foal carefully for increasing depth of anesthesia and turn the vaporizer to maintenance levels as soon as the patient is in a surgical plane of anesthesia (1.5% to 2% for isoflurane and 2.5% to 3.5% for sevoflurane).

How would you treat respiratory arrest?

1. Inform the veterinarian. 2. If the patient is not intubated, an endotracheal tube should be immediately inserted and the patient connected to an anesthetic machine delivering 100% oxygen. 3. Check the heart rate to ensure that cardiac arrest has not occurred. 4. Turn off the anesthetic vaporizer. 5. Ensure oxygen flow is adequate by checking the tank pressure gauge and flowmeter. 6. Ensure the airway is not obstructed by bagging the patient and observing that the chest rises when squeezing the bag ("inspiration"). 7. Bag the patient with oxygen at a rate of once every 3 to 5 seconds. Continue bagging until vital signs improve (particularly mucous membrane color, heart rate, and pulse oximeter readings). 8. If an intravenous catheter is present, administer IV fluids at a rate suitable for treatment of shock. 9. The veterinarian may advise that doxapram, reversal agents, or other drugs be given. 10. Ensure that the patient is kept warm.

Maintenance protocols for healthy horses

1. Isoflurane: Administer isoflurane at 1.5% to 2.5%. 2. Sevoflurane: Administer sevoflurane at 2.5% to 4%. 3. Desflurane: Administer desflurane at 8% to 12%. 4. "Triple drip" CRI: Administer at 1.5 mL/kg/hr (see Procedure 10-8 for details). 5. Xylazine + ketamine IV: Administer xylazine 0.25 mg/kg IV + ketamine 0.5 mg/kg IV. This is repeated each time the horse becomes light.

What are the inhalant maintenance protocols for P1 and P2 cats?

1. Isoflurane: Administer isoflurane at 1.5% to 2.5%. 2. Sevoflurane: Administer sevoflurane at 2.5% to 4%. 3. IV propofol: Propofol by repeat boluses to effect every 3 to 5 minutes, or 0.2 to 0.4 mg/kg/min by constant rate infusion. 4. IV alfaxalone: Alfaxalone by repeat boluses to effect every 3 to 8 minutes in cats, or every 6 to 8 minutes in dogs. 5. Desflurane: Administer desflurane at 8% to 12%.

Describe how to do a final surgical prep

1. Open the sterilized surgical bowl containing gauze sponges. 2. Pour off a small amount of surgical scrub solution into a trash can to cleanse the lip of the container, then pour the soap on the gauze sponges. 3. Open the container of sterile water and pour off a small amount into trash can to cleanse the lip of the container, then dilute the scrub soap in the bowl with sterile water. 4. Open a second sterile bowl containing sterile gauze. 5. After pouring a small amount of "rinse" (70% rubbing alcohol or sterile water) into the trash can, carefully pour the rinse on the sterile sponges until they appear soaked. 6. Aseptically perform the open-gloving technique (see Chapter 2). 7. Once you have put on surgical gloves, grasp a gauze sponge filled with scrub using your designated "clean hand," then squeeze out the excess liquid. 8. Transfer this sponge to your other hand, designated your "dirty hand," and start scrubbing. Use the same (clean) hand to retrieve each new sponge then transfer it to the other (dirty) hand to do the scrubbing; thus the term "clean hand, dirty hand" technique. Only the clean hand goes into the sterile bowl, and only the dirty hand touches the patient. (Rather than clean and dirty, both hands are actually sterile because they are covered with sterile gloves.) 9. The surgical site is scrubbed for the appropriate length of time recommended by the manufacturer of the scrub product, usually about 5 minutes. Scrubbing is done in a target pattern starting from the intended incision site and working outward to the edge of the shaved area. The time can be adjusted according to the duration of the initial surgical scrub performed in the surgery prep area. 10. Begin at the center of the clipped area over the proposed surgical incision. 11. Without touching the hairline, scrub the length of the incision with long, straight strokes. Scrub outward toward the periphery while slightly overlapping the previously scrubbed line in a circular fashion. 12. Never go back to the center of the area with the same gauze sponge. 13. After scrubbing the skin at the margin of the clipped area, discard the used gauze sponges and start again. 14. The skin should be cleansed thoroughly but gently. Exces- sive friction can result in hyperemia and bleeding of the skin and subcutaneous tissues. 15. The surgical scrub must have an overall contact time as recommended by the manufacturer. After the appropriate duration has elapsed, wipe the scrub away by using the "rinse"-soaked gauze.

Describe the preparation of a thin blood smear

1. Place a glass microscope slide (the "surface slide") flat on the bench surface; then place a small drop of the whole-blood sample near the short end of the slide. 2. Place the short end of a second slide (the "spreader slide") near the middle of the bench surface slide, and hold it at a 35- to 45-degree angle. Holding the spreader slide at that angle, slide the short side of that slide backward across the surface slide until it just contacts the drop of blood (see Figure 17-16). When the drop is contacted, it rapidly spreads along the juncture between the two slides. 3. The spreader slide is then smoothly and rapidly slid forward the length of the surface slide, producing a smear with a feathered edge. 4. Allow the surface slide to air-dry and then stain it. Examine the slide with the 10× objective for microfilariae or trypanosomes; the 100× (or oil-immersion) objective may be used for the intracellular parasites.

Describe the simple flotation procedure

1. Place about 2 g (tsp) of the fecal sample in a 90- to 150-mL waxed paper cup. Add approximately 30 mL of flotation medium. Using a tongue depressor, make an emulsion by thoroughly mixing the solution with the feces until a fecal slurry has been made. 2. Bend the side of the waxed paper cup into a spout, and cover the spout with a piece of cheesecloth. Pour the emulsion through the cheesecloth into a straight-sided shell vial. A tea strainer may be used instead of cheesecloth: Pour the contents of the cup through the strainer into a second waxed paper cup and the contents of that cup into the shell vial. Wash the tea strainer thoroughly in hot, soapy water before using it again. 3. Fill the shell vial to the top, then slightly overfill it so that a meniscus forms above the lip of the vial (see Figure 17-11). If there is not enough fluid in the cup to fill the shell vial, a small amount of fresh flotation medium may be added. Place a glass coverslip gently on top of the fluid, and allow it to settle on the meniscus. 4. Allow the coverslip to remain undisturbed on top of the vial for 10 to 20 minutes (sugar solution requires longer than sodium nitrate). If the coverslip is removed before this time, all the eggs may not have had time to float to the top. If left for more than 1 hour, some eggs may become waterlogged and begin to sink or become distorted. 5. Remove the coverslip carefully, picking it straight up, and immediately place it on the microscope slide. When placing the coverslip on the slide, be sure to hold the coverslip with one edge tilted slightly up, and allow it to gradually settle levelly on the slide. This reduces the number of air bubbles beneath the coverslip. 6. Examine the area of the slide under the coverslip with the compound microscope (see text), and record any protozoan cysts, eggs, larvae, or gross parasites seen

Describe the direct fecal smear procedure

1. Place several drops of saline or fecal flotation solution on a slide with an equal amount of feces. 2. Mix the solution and feces together with a wooden applicator until the solution is homogeneous. 3. Smear the solution over the slide into a thin film. The film should be thin enough to read print through. 4. Remove any large pieces of feces. 5. Place a coverslip over the smear. 6. Examine the area of the slide under the coverslip with the compound microscope (see text), and record any protozoan cysts, eggs, larvae, or gross parasites seen.

Describe the chamber induction procedure for a dog or cat

1. Place the conscious animal inside an anesthetic chamber. The chamber should be large enough for the patient to lie down with its neck extended. If the patient can be handled, an ophthalmic lubricant should be applied before the patient is placed in the induction chamber. 2. Remove the Y-piece of a rebreathing circuit, and attach one corrugated hose to each port of the chamber. 3. Deliver a mixture of oxygen at 5 L/min and isoflurane at 3% to 5%, or sevoflurane at 4% to 6%. 4. During passage through stages I and II, patients typically exhibit fear and agitation. The patient may attempt to escape or vocalize. Gradually, with the onset of anesthesia, the patient will become increasingly depressed and immobile. 5. As soon as the patient can no longer stand, rock the chamber gently to assess the patient's status. Initially the patient will respond by righting itself until anesthesia is of sufficient depth to prevent purposeful movement. When the patient is immobile enough to allow it to be safely handled, remove it from the chamber, place a mask, and proceed as with mask induction.

Describe the procedure for intubating a dog or cat

1. Place the patient in sternal recumbency.∗ 2. Have an assistant grasp the patient's maxilla behind the canine teeth, extend the neck, and raise the head so that the head and neck are in a straight line. Be sure the lips and whiskers are pulled dorsally and out of the line of sight. The neck should be propped upright and not allowed to sag. The assistant should not push on the ventral aspect of the neck, head, or throat, because this may obscure the view, making intubation difficult. 3. Grasp the tongue with a gauze sponge, and open the mouth fully by firmly pulling the tongue out and down. A mouth gag can be used to hold the mouth open. 4. Adjust the light so that the larynx is well illuminated. 5. If necessary, use the tube or laryngoscope gently to displace the epiglottis ventrally, or the soft palate dorsally, until the glottis can be visualized† (Figure 1). 6. Gently insert the tube past the vocal folds using a rotating motion, but never force the tube! If the tube is too large to pass easily, exchange the tube for one of smaller diameter (Figure 2). 7. After the tube has been placed, gently transfer the patient into lateral recumbency. 8. Check the tube to ensure that it is in the trachea. Then check that it is inserted to an appropriate distance and is oriented to match the natural curve of the trachea. 9. Secure the tube in place with a length of rolled gauze or used IV tubing. 10. Position the tongue so that it hangs loosely from the mouth and is not compressed by the tie. 11. Turn on the oxygen flowmeter(s). 12. Connect the endotracheal (ET) tube connector to the breathing circuit. 13. Inflate the cuff, and check for leaks. 14. Turn on the anesthetic vaporizer, and select the appropriate setting. 15. Commence regular monitoring. 16. Ensure a patent airway by checking the position of the patient and tube. The neck and tube should assume a gentle natural curve.

Describe the cellophane tape detection.

1. Place transparent cellophane tape in a loop, adhesive (sticky) side out, on one end of a tongue depressor. 2. Stand to the side of the horse's hindquarters and raise the tail with one hand while using the other hand to press the tape on the tongue depressor firmly against the skin immediately around the anus. 3. Place a small drop of water on the slide, allowing the water to spread out under the tape. 4. Using a compound microscope, examine the tape for the presence of asymmetric pinworm eggs. Used to detect the eggs of pinworms never for dogs and cats

Steps for GDV treatment

1. Place two large bore catheters in the patient. Do not use caudal half of the patient. Oxygen supplementation as needed. 2. Decompress the stomach and allow gas to escape. Gas is due to swallowing of air, bacterial fermentation or metabolic reactions. Measure orogastric tube in correlation witht eh animals size. Should measure from the point of the nose to the xiphoid process. Once air is removed lavage stomach. Pinch tube before removal!!! 3. if attempts to pass tube are unsuccessful a trocar decompression can be attempted. 4. Surgical correction of stomach

Postoperative instructions for animals with a bandage, cast or split

1. Position of bandage. Check to be sure that the bandage, cast, or splint has not slipped or shifted. 2. Irritation of adjacent skin. Check the skin adjacent to the edge of the bandage, cast, or splint by parting the fur and looking for redness or feeling for moisture. 3. Discoloration of bandage. The bandage, cast, or splint can become discolored because of staining from wetness on the outside or discharge soaking through from the inside. 4. Moisture. A wet bandage, cast, or splint should be replaced immediately. 5. Odor. A foul odor associated with the bandage, cast, or splint may be caused by infectious discharge. 6. Signs of chewing on bandage. Torn areas of tape or spots of discoloration or moisture are telltale signs of chewing. The patient chewing at the bandage, splint, or cast may have discomfort or pain. Replacement of the bandage (splint, cast) may be necessary, and an Elizabethan collar may be needed for the animal.

Describe the decontamination process of instruments

1. Prepare a basin with warm water and a detergent approved for use on surgical instruments. 2. Open all box locks and unlock ratchets as each instru- ment is gently placed in the basin. 3. Wash all surfaces of each instrument with a soft bristle brush. Pay special attention to box locks, joints, and serrations because biologic debris builds up in these areas. Use a brushing motion, directed away from you, to scrub the instruments; this method prevents bio- logic debris from splashing back toward you. • Never use a wire brush on instruments because it will damage instruments' surfaces and cause crev- ices that can harbor pathogens (microorganisms). • Instruments have a protective coating of chromium oxide to extend their usefulness as properly func- tioning devices. If the coating is removed, the instrument will be compromised, and then its surface can harbor pathogens that adversely affect the patient's health. 4. Rinse each instrument thoroughly with distilled water. This will prevent the buildup of "scale" on the instru- ments. If tap water is used, scale will eventually build up on instruments, and they will not work properly. 5. With locks and ratchets opened, place the instruments flat on an absorbent surface to drain and dry. 6. Cover the draining instruments with another layer of lint-free absorbent material. 7. When the instruments are clean and dry, check each for its general condition and its ability to function properly. Box locks should open and close smoothly;

What are the ACVAA recommendations for record keeping during anesthesia?

1. Record all drugs administered to each patient in the perianesthetic period and in early recovery, noting the dose, time, and route of administration, as well as any adverse reaction to a drug or drug combination. 2. Record monitored variables on a regular basis (minimum every 5 to 10 minutes) during anesthesia. The minimum variables that should be recorded are heart rate and respiratory rate, as well as oxygenation status and blood pressure if these were monitored. 3. Record heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature in the early recovery phase. 4. Any untoward events or unusual circumstances should be recorded for legal reasons, and for reference should the patient require anesthesia in the future.

Which patients are epidurals most commonly used?

1. Ruminants, in which procedures such as replacement of a vaginal prolapse can be undertaken with epidural anesthesia alone or in combination with a sedative. Epidural procedures are also useful to prevent straining during obstetric procedures, including cesarean sections. 2. Debilitated small animal patients in which general anesthesia is problematic but that may tolerate sedation and a lidocaine or bupivacaine epidural block. One example is patients requiring cesarean section. 3. Patients requiring profound pain control after surgical procedures involving the hind limbs, pelvis, or caudal abdomen. For example, morphine or lidocaine epidural blocks are useful for animals undergoing surgical repair of a fractured femur.

How would you treat dyspnea or cyanosis?

1. The anesthetist must first ensure that oxygen is being delivered to the patient. If the oxygen tank has run out, the patient must be disconnected from the machine until another oxygen source can be secured. If the endotracheal tube is blocked, it must be removed and replaced. 2.Once oxygen flow has been established, the vaporizer should be turned off and the animal should be bagged with 100% oxygen. If the anesthetic machine is unavailable, an Ambu bag (see Figure 13-2) can be used to deliver room air to the patient 3. On rare occasions, dyspnea and cyanosis may be secondary to complete airway obstruction. If intubation is not possible under these circumstances, the veterinarian may elect to perform an emergency tracheostomy, a surgical opening of the trachea to allow the insertion of a breathing tube. 4. Administration of intravenous fluids or emergency drugs such as doxapram may be helpful in reviving patients experiencing respiratory depression or arrest. 5. It is important that the anesthetist observe the patient closely during resuscitative efforts to ensure that cardiac arrest does not occur. If no pulse or heartbeat can be detected, chest compressions should be initiated in conjunction with continued bagging (see p. 388). 6. If necessary, supplemental oxygen should be continued into the recovery period, using a mask, oxygen cage, or intranasal insufflation.

How would you treat tachypnea?

1. The anesthetist should assess the anesthetic depth and check the CO2 absorber crystals or the capnogram, if available, to ensure that hypercapnia is not present. 2. If anesthetic depth is inadequate, increase anesthetic administration to bring the patient into an appropriate plane. If anesthetic depth, body temperature, and vital signs appear to be within acceptable limits, the anesthetist should refrain from changing the vaporizer setting because the condition will usually correct itself within 1 to 2 minutes. 3. If tachypnea arises as a result of surgical stimulation and the perception of pain, intravenous injection of an analgesic such as oxymorphone, hydromorphone, or butorphanol may be helpful. 4. Obese patients are prone to tachypnea, which may result in inefficient ventilation. It may be necessary to assist or control ventilation in these patients.

Describe an esophagoscopy procedure

1. The anesthetized and intubated patient should be placed in left lateral recumbency with a secured oral speculum. 2. The insertion tube should be prelubricated with a water- soluble gel to aid easy passage. The endoscope is then directed centrally through the oropharynx and guided dorsal to the endotracheal tube and larynx so that the cranial esophageal sphincter (CES) comes into view. 3. The CES is the entrance to the esophagus and is normally closed; it appears as a star-shaped area of folded mucosa dorsal to the larynx. The endoscope should meet minimal or no resistance as it is being advanced within the esophagus. 4. With insufflation, the scope should advance in a slow, continuous motion, only minor adjustments in tip deflection and torque being used to maintain a full view of the lumen and mucosal surfaces. 5. At the lumen of the thoracic esophagus, pulsations of the aorta can be seen at the level of the base of the heart. 6. When the endoscope is advanced through the gastro- esophageal sphincter (GES), little or no resistance should be encountered. 7. To move the endoscope into the stomach, the tip of the insertion tube should be deflected approximately 30 degrees to the left (see note) while slight upward deflection is applied as the tip is advanced through the slitlike opening of the GES. 8. To examine the GES, the endoscope should be retroflexed. This is also known as the "J maneuver." The extent of ret- roflexion can be 180 or 210 degree

Postoperative instructions following aural hematoma

1. The area where the drain exits the pinna needs to be cleaned of discharge. Warm water and a clean face towel or gauze work well. The drains usually stay in for 2 to 3 weeks (Figure 10-5). 2. Some animals may also need to have an infected ear canal treated with topical drops and ear cleansers. The pinna may be sore to the touch, so take extra care when instilling medication into the ear canal. 3. Some patients may have their head wrapped in a bandage. The same observations outlined earlier for extremity bandages apply to head bandages. Watch for soiling, slipping, moisture, foul odor, and skin irritation along the edges of the bandage.

What are the four points that are important to emphasize when taking patient history>

1. The duration (how long has it been going on?) 2. The volume or severity (how much or how severe?) 3. The frequency (how often?) 4. The character or appearance (what does it look like?)

Postoperative instructions following orthopedic surgery

1. The pet will need to be confined. Dogs are walked only by leash. Cats must stay indoors during the recuperative period. Excessive activity and exercise can slow the healing process by allowing weight bearing too early or causing excessive movement of the affected joint or frac- ture site. 2. Dogs especially may need help standing and walking. A bath towel can be placed under the abdomen or chest to act as a sling (Figure 10-6). 3. If a bandage or cast has been applied, the owner receives specific instructions regarding its care (see Box 10-1). 4. If the patient has an external fixation device, the stainless steel pins and connecting pieces need particular attention, as follows: • The site where the pin exits the skin will not heal while the pin is in place. Dried discharge is cleaned from the area once or twice daily as needed. An antimicrobial ointment can be applied to the skin around the exit site. • The connecting pieces are covered with tape to prevent sharp edges from catching on furniture or the opposite lim

What are the four basic components of scavenging systems?

1. The waste gas port 2. Transfer tubing 3. The interface 4. Gas evacuation system

Describe the procedure for extubating a patient

1. Turn off the anesthetic vaporizer and leave the patient on oxygen for 5 minutes, if possible. 2. Find an empty syringe with the plunger depressed com- pletely. Attach a syringe to the cuff if using a silicone tube with a spring valve in the pilot tube (non-red rubber tube), and deflate the cuff. Leaving the cuff inflated without having it securely fastened can lead to tracheal trauma, necrosis, and/or tearing. It is imperative to monitor the patient for any signs of vomiting or regurgitation once the cuff is deflated to prevent aspiration.* 3. Untie the endotracheal (ET) tube attachment from the patient's head or muzzle.* 4. Check the patient's reflexes. Not every patient will stay under for the full 5 minutes. The anesthetist must know whether or not the patient is close to jumping off the table. 5. Untie the patient from the table, detach all monitoring devices, and decrease fluid administration to a mainte- nance rate. Remove the V-trough or sandbags and place the patient in lateral recumbency. When rotating the patient into lateral recumbency, guard the tube and do not let it rotate in the patient's trachea. It is important to prevent twisting injury to the trachea. Small patients are especially prone to this injury. 6. Take the immediate postoperative temperature at this point. Continue anesthetic monitoring of the vital signs every 5 minutes until the patient is sufficiently recovered to be returned to the cage. 7. Once the 5 minutes of oxygen administration are com- pleted, disconnect the patient from the anesthesia machine while the oxygen is flowing. This will ensure that the patient always has a source of oxygen in case of an emergency. Place a hand over the end of the Y-piece and squeeze the reservoir bag. This will empty the circuit of most of the gas through the exhaust system. 8. Now shut of the oxygen at the flowmeter. 9. Recheck the reflexes and determine the patient's stage of anesthesia. If the patient is still "asleep," stimulate the patient by rubbing its thorax, stroking the neck, and gentlypulling the tongue or ears. It may also help to gently rotate the animal form side to side. 10. Once the patient has swallowed two or three times, gently pull the ET tube down and out of the mouth. (See exception for brachycephalic breeds noted on page 230.)* 11. Check the end of the ET tube for blood, regurgitated stomach contents, and food. If the animal has regurgitated material in the mouth, hang the head down off the surgical table to allow the material to drip out of the mouth. Quickly determine whether the patient needs to be re-intubated or the pharynx needs to be suctioned. Carefully rinsing the mouth gently with water may suffice, provided that it does not cause the patient to gag and choke from the rinsing process. 12. Take the patient to the recovery cage. 13. Continue to monitor the patient every 5 to 10 minutes to ensure that recovery is a safe and smooth event until com- plete. At this point, give postoperative pain medications as instructed. Generally, if the patient's temperature is below 98°F postoperatively, opioid drugs will not be given. Hypothermia concerns are discussed later.

Describe the process of recording a standard ECG tracing

1. Turn the machine on. 2. Set the paper speed at 50 mm/sec for small animals (dog, cat, and ferret) or 25 mm/sec for large animals (horse and cow). 3. Adjust the sensitivity setting to 1 cm/mV. If the complexes are very small (e.g., in cats), use 2 cm/mV. If the complexes exceed the width of the paper, use 0.5 cm/mV. 4. Record five or six complexes for each lead (I, II, III, aVR, aVL, aVF). 5. Record 1 to 2 minutes of lead II at 25 mm/sec to assess rhythm.

What are the main reasons for giving pre-anesthetic medications?

1. to calm or sedate animals 2.to minimize adverse effects of concurrently adminstered drugs 3. to reduce the required dose of concurrently adminstered agents 4. to produce smoother inductions and recoveries 5. to decrease pain and discomfort before, during and after surgery 6. to produce muscle relaxation.

Describe the process of testing low pressure system leaks.

1. Turn the oxygen tank on. 2. Close the pop-off valve and place one hand (or preferably a stopper) over the Y-piece. (This closes off all avenues of gas escape from the machine.) 3. Turn the flowmeter on to 3 to 5 L/min and/or use the oxygen flush valve to fill the reservoir bag. When the bag is full and tight and the pressure manometer registers 30 cm H2O, turn the flowmeter off. If the reservoir bag does not fill, this is a sign that the machine is not assembled correctly, or there is a large leak in the system (Figure 4). 4. As soon as the flowmeter is turned off, the pressure manometer reading will start to drop in most cases. Turn the flowmeter on until a constant pressure of 30 cm H2O is maintained for at least 30 seconds. No more than 300 mL/min of flow should be necessary to maintain the pressure in the system If more flow is needed to maintain pressure, there is a leak in the system

Describe the process of equipment leak testing for high and intermediate pressure systems.

1. Turn the oxygen tank on. 2. Place a 1:1 solution of water and dishwashing liquid on all tank connections and joints 3.Observe each location for bubble formation, which indicates a leak or 1. Turn the oxygen tank on. 2. Check that the flowmeters are off. 3. Note the reading on the tank pressure gauge. 4. Turn the tank off, but don't purge the lines. 5. Check the tank pressure gauge again in 1 hour. The pressure should have decreased by no more than 50 lb/in2 psi. If the pressure is at or near zero, there is a leak somewhere between the cylinder and the flowmeter, and oxygen is escaping into the room air. The most likely location of the leak is at the connection of the cylinder to the machine yoke. It is also possible to check for high-pressure leaks of nitrous oxide by following the same procedure as that outlined previously for oxygen. Although the escape of small amounts of oxygen poses little or no risk of health problems to the anesthetic machine operator, it may lead to premature emptying of the oxygen tank. In contrast, escape of nitrous oxide will result in exposure to this waste anesthetic gas.

What the ways ro reduce electrical interference for ECGs?

1. Use a non-conductive surface and make sure the patient is not in contact with a metal table. 2. Make sure that the electrodes are clean and firmly attached to the skin. 3. Use a wetting agent on the electrodes, but don't overwet them. 4. Make sure the electrodes do not touch each other. 5. Make sure the holder is not touching any electrodes. 6. Make sure no electrical cords are touching the table. 7. Turn off other electrical equipment that may be on the same circuit. 8. If the problem persists, have the equipment serviced.

Describe induction with mask

1. Use either a malleable black rubber mask or a clear plastic mask with a rubber diaphragm for mask induction. The mask should fit tightly on the animal's face to reduce leakage of gas and should not be any larger than necessary in order to minimize dead space. 2. Connect the mask to the Y-piece of a rebreathing circuit or the endotracheal tube connector of a non-rebreathing circuit, and hold it in place over the animal's muzzle (Figure 1). 3. Give 100% oxygen for 2 to 3 minutes to allow the patient to adjust to the mask and to increase the amount of oxygen in the blood. The oxygen flow rate should be set at 30 times the patient's tidal volume 4. Set the anesthetic vaporizer to deliver 0.5% isoflurane or 1% sevoflurane. Sevoflurane is less pungent than isoflurane and better accepted. 5a. Gradually increase the concentration of anesthetic by small increments (0.5% every 30 seconds for isoflurane and 1% every 30 seconds for sevoflurane) until an anesthetic concentration of 3% to 5% for isoflurane or 4% to 6% for sevoflurane is reached. This is higher than the maintenance level but allows a rapid uptake of the anesthetic and faster induction.Other anesthetists suggest increasing the vaporizer setting to the induction level immediately, especially if the patient is difficult to handle, to minimize the time spent in stage II. If the patient struggles, the anesthetist must observe the patient closely for cyanosis, hypotension, or other problems, and must be ready to act quickly if the patient becomes compromised. 6. As soon as the patient is in lateral recumbency, assess readiness for intubation and adjust the anesthetic level as appropriate, then place an endotracheal tube. From this point on the patient is managed much the same as for intravenous induct

Describe the fecal flotation procedure

1. Using a paper cup and tongue depressor, mix approximately 1 tsp of feces with enough water to make a semisolid suspension. 2. Place a wire tea strainer (or piece of cheesecloth) over a second paper cup and empty the fecal suspension into it. Use the tongue depressor to press out most of the liquid; return the solid waste to the first cup and discard. Wash the strainer in hot running water; soak it in water containing dishwashing solution. 3. Pinch the rim of the second paper cup to form a pouring spout, and transfer the contents into a 15-mL centrifuge tube (a test tube). Place the tube into the centrifuge, remembering to counterbalance the tube with an identical tube filled to the same level with water. Be sure that all tubes are marked so they can be identified after centrifugation. 4. Centrifuge for 3 minutes at 400× to 650× g. For many centrifuges, this is about 1500 rpm. Decant the supernatant, which contains fats and dissolved pigments that interfere with the identification of parasite eggs, larvae, or cysts. 5. Add concentrated flotation solution to within 1/2 to 3/4 inch of the top of the tube, and resuspend the sediment using a stirring action with a wooden applicator stick. Insert a rubber stopper, and mix by four or more inversions so that the solution is thoroughly mixed with the sediment.

Describe the decanting method for sample collection at necropsy

1. Using wrapping twine, tie off each portion of the digestive tract (the stomach, duodenum, small intestine, large intestine, and so on). Open each organ, and pour its contents into a bucket marked with the animal's identification and the organ being examined. Scrape the interior lining of the organ with a spatula or the blunt edge of a pair of scissors, and add the scrapings to the bucket. 2. Add an equal volume of water to the contents in each labeled bucket and mix thoroughly with a stirring spoon or paddle. 3. Allow the heavier part of the contents to settle to the bottom of the bucket. This usually takes about 45 minutes. Carefully pour off the liquid on top, leaving the sediment. 4. Add an equal volume of water to the sediment and stir again. Allow this to resettle. Repeat this process until the water over the sediment becomes clear. 5. Pour off the clear water over the sediment; then transfer the sediment to the dissection pan. 6. Using the dissecting microscope, examine a small amount of the sediment at a time. Any parasite found should be gently removed from the sediment with thumb forceps and should be preserved (see text). Each parasite should be identified using a compound microscope.

Describe the sieving method for sample collection at necropsy

1. Using wrapping twine, tie off each portion of the digestive tract (the stomach, duodenum, small intestine, large intestine, and so on). Open each organ, and pour its contents into a bucket marked with the animal's identification and the organ being examined. Scrape the interior lining of the organ with a spatula or the blunt edge of a pair of scissors, and add the scrapings to the bucket. 2. Add an equal volume of water to the contents in each labeled bucket and mix thoroughly with a stirring spoon or paddle. 3. Pour the mixture through a 1-mm mesh (No. 18) sieve and then through a 0.354-mm mesh (No. 45) sieve. Reverse wash the contents of the sieve with water. Sieves are available from Fisher Scientific, Pittsburgh, PA. 4. Using the dissecting microscope, examine a small amount of the sieve's contents at a time. Any parasite found should be gently removed from the contents with thumb forceps and should be preserved (see text). Each parasite should be identified using a compound microscope.

Postoperative care of feeding tube

1. When cleaning the area where the tube exits the skin, warm water soaks may be needed to soften any dried discharge. The discharge may be clear or slightly red tinged. Thick, cloudy, or foul-smelling discharge may indicate an infection at the site. Adding an antiseptic cleanser, such as chlorhexi- dine at a 1 : 40 dilution, helps kill microbial invaders. (However, this may not be necessary for a normally healing site.) An antiseptic ointment or plain petroleum jelly can be applied to help with the removal of dried discharge, and the site is covered with a light bandage or stockinette if the veterinarian chooses. The end of the feeding tube should be incorporated in the bandage. The skin site should be inspected and cleaned one or two times daily, or with each feeding. 2. During inspection of the tube, a measurement should be taken to ensure that the tube is the same length; using a permanent marker a line can be drawn on the tube at skin level to help ensure that the tube does not migrate. If the tube length has changed, the tube has migrated. An Elizabethan collar helps prevent the patient from pulling out the tube with its teeth. 3. 4. 5. Before and after each feeding, the tube is flushed with 10 -15 mL of warm water. The end of the tube is securely plugged with a Luer-Slip catheter plug between feedings. If the tube becomes clogged, instilling carbonated water (soft drinks, soda) repeatedly into the tube will eventually dislodge most obstructions. If the owner is unable to open the tube in this way, the veterinarian must be notified. In regard to feeding, the technician or veterinarian will have calculated the exact dietary amount that will be administered at each feeding based on the patient's weight, body condi- tion, and disease state. 6. Liquid medications may be administered through the feeding tube. Flushing with warm water is necessary before and after 7. medication administration as well as after feeding. The patient should also have food available to eat during the day. Using measured feedings will allow the owner to monitor the amount being consumed. As soon as the patient is eating on his/her own and able to maintain his/her caloric needs, the feeding tube can be pulled. Ideally the animal will be completely self-feeding for 2 weeks prior to tube removal without any weight loss occurring

Describe the process of a coccidia oocyst fecal culture

1. When coccidial oocysts are found in a fresh fecal sample, place 10 to 20 g of the sample in a beaker or a paper cup and cover with about 60 mL of 2.5% potassium dichromate solution. Mix this solution thoroughly with a tongue depressor. 2. Pour the solution into a Petri dish and let incubate at room temperature for 3 to 5 days. Open the plate daily and swirl the contents gently to allow air to reach the developing oocysts. 3. After incubation, centrifuge the plate's contents as described under the sedimentation procedure (see p. 316). 4. Process the fecal sediment by the centrifugal flotation procedure to recover the oocysts; then examine them microscopically.

What are the AORN recommendations for cleaning a surgery room?

1. cleaning is perfomed on a regular basis to reduce dust, organic material and microbial presence 2.surgery room should be cleaned before and after each surgical procedure 3.all horizontal surfaces should be dusted before the first surgery of the day 4. surgical room equipment and furniture that are visibly soiled should be cleaned at the end of each procedure 5. surgery room should be terminally cleaned at the end of the day 6. surgery room should be cleaned daily whether it is used or not 7.mechanical friction should be used to clean all surfaces 8. dont use refillable soap dispensers 9. surgery rooms should be wet vacuumed at the end of each day 10. cleaning equipment should be disassembled, cleaned and dried before storage

What is the reversal dosage for yohimbine?

1:2

Describe the fecal culture of roundworm eggs.

1. place 20g to 30g of fresh fecal sample in a jar. Break up the feces with a tongue depressor and moisten slightly with tap water. 2. Place jar on shelf away from light and allow to incubate for 7 days. Moisture should form on the outside of the jar. 3. Check moisture droplets for nematode larvae or recover with Baermann technique 4. apply a coverslip to the slide and pass it over the open flame of a Bunsen burner once or twice to kill the larvae while they are in an extended position. Identify under microscope.

Why is antagonism of NMDA receptors important?

it prevents windup

How is etomidate administered?

iv

Thelazia

live in the conjunctival sac and on the surface of the eye in cattle, sheep, gqoats, horses, dogs and cats. eye worm

How much blood does a 4x4 inch sponge hold?

10mL

Which drugs block the transmission pathway

local anesthetics and alpha2 agonists

What test can be run to identify if a sample is truly a tapeworm?

the sample can be macerated and then viewed under the scope for calcareous bodies

What does a pulse oximeter estimate?

the saturation of hemoglobin expressed as a percentage of the total binding sites

What is the maintenance rate of isoflurane for common domestic species?

1.5 to 2.5%

What are the five questions to ask when evaluating ECG?

1.: Is there a P wave preceding every QRS complex? 2.Is there a QRS complex following every P wave? 3. Are all of the Ps and all of the QRSs the same and do they appear normal? 4. Are the R-R intervals the same? 5. Are the P-R intervals normal in duration and are they the same?

What is the induction rate of desflurane?

10-15%

What is a normal tidal volume in an awake animal?

10-15mL/kg

What is normal tidal volume?

10-15ml/kg

What is the subcutaneous fluid maintenance rate in small animals?

100mL/kg every 24 hours

What are the other analgesic agents besides NSAIDs and opioids?

local anesthetics, alpha2adrenergic agonists, ketamine, tramadol, gabapentin, amantadine

hydatid cyst

the larval stage of the tapeworm Echinococcus that may be found in the lungs or liver of livestock and humans

When was the earliest recorded anesthetic medicine used?

15th century, belladonna alkaloids (from the deadly nightshade plant) and opiates (from the opium poppy) to control pain and produce sleep as early as the fifteenth century BC, and these natural compounds remained the only available agents for nearly 3000 years.

What is the common inductin ratio of ket val? What is the onset of action of this combination and the duration?

1:1 or 1:2 -animal loses consciousness within 30-90 second and duration is 5-10 minutes

What is the onset of action of doxapram?

2 minutes of IV injection

What is the shelf life for woven or non-woven pack materials?

2 weeks

What are the disadvantages of the direct smear technique?

the small amount of fecal material required is not a good representative sample.

lipid solubility

the tendency of a drug to dissolve in fats, oils or lipids

What is the maintenance rate for sevoflurane?

2.5 to 4%

How much of body water is intracellular fluid?

2/3

How much of body water is extracellular fluid?

20%

What is the max a pressure manometer reading should be when ventilating?

20cm in small patient and 40cm in large

What are the strengths of xylazine available?

20mg/mL and 100mg/mL

What percentage of room air is oxygen

21%

What sizes of et tubes do adult horses generally need?

22mm, 26mm or 30mm foals 10mm and up

What ET tube sizes do ruminants usually use?

22mm, 26mm, 30mm

What is the recommended fasting time for cattle?

24-48 hours

What is the typical temperature, time and pressure of a gravity air-displacement sterilizer?

250-270F and PSI of 15-27 Cycle runs 15 minutes to acheive tmeprature and sterilizes in 3-15 minutes

At what absorption weight are ganules considered exhausted?

26L of CO2 per 100g of absorbent

What are the settings of flash sterilization?

272F 32PSI 4 minutes

What are the steps of ALS?

3) ECG and end-tidal CO2 monitoring, (4) obtaining vascular access, and (5) administration of reversal agents.

What is the induction rate of isoflurane for common domestic species?

3-5%

Where are reflective probes placed?

the light source and sensor are located next to each other on one side of the probe. Placed inside hollow organ such as esophagus or rectum

What pressure is needed for controlled ventilation in a dog with gastric dilatation-volvulus?

30-35 cm H2O

What is the osmolarity of fluids in the body?

300mOsm/L

Eimeria magna,

35 × 24 µm and ovoid, with a distinctive dark, yellow-brown wall (Figure 11-34). A wide micropyle appears built up around the rim, with no micropyle cap. Oocysts and sporocysts contain a residuum highly pathogenic rabbit

What are normal values of expired CO2?

35-45mmHg

What are normal CO2 levels in a nonanesthetized patient?

35-45mmhG

How much does the average size adult horse weight?

350-500kg

The cardiac pump theory

389blood flow to the tissues and back to the lungs is caused by direct compression of the ventricles between the ribs (for patients in lateral recumbency) or the sternum and spine (for patients in dorsal recumbency).

How long is telazol stable?

4 days after reconstitution, 14 days if refrigerated

Where are alpha 2 agonists metabolized?

the liver and the metabolites are excreted in the urine making hepatic and renal function importnat

Oxygen flow rate for closed system during maintenance:

5 to 10 mL/kg/min (Note: Oxygen flow rates below 0.25 L/min may decrease the accuracy of vaporizer output, making the use of a closed system more challenging in patients weighing less than 25 kg.)

Draw the cyst stage of Entamoeba histolytica

5 to 20 um thin refractile wall may have as many as four nuceli each with its own endosome immature cysts have one nucelus

What are the maximum useful concentrations for isoflurane and sevoflurane?

5% and 8%

What is the prepatent period of toxoplasma?

5-24 days, depends on infection route

What is the UNESP-Botucatu Multidimensional composite pain scale?

40. descriptors in 10 categories that evaluate feline pain.

What percentage of bladder stones in dogs are struvite?

45-50%

What pressure is needed for controlled ventilation in a horse with bloat?

50 to 55cm H20

What are the lower limits of heart rate for a large dog? Small dog? Cat?

50, 70 and 100

What are normal CO2 levels in an anesthetized patient?

55mg

What is the recommended floor rate for patients <150kg using chamber induction

5L/min

Class 2 wound

6-12 hours old with significant contamination

How much of body weight is water?

60%

How much blood does a 3x3 inch sponge hold?

6mL

What is the shelf life for items in peel away pouches?

7 weeks

What is the prepatent period of coccidia?

7-14 days

What are the different sizes of fentanyl patches?

A 12.5-mcg/hr patch is useful in animals weighing less than 4 kg. The 25-mcg/hr patch is used in cats and in dogs weighing 4 to 6 kg. A 50-mcg/hr patch is used in dogs weighing 7 to 20 kg; a 75-mcg/hr patch is used in dogs weighing 21 to 30 kg; and dogs that weigh more than 30 kg receive a 100-mcg/hr patch

Why is anesthesia a risk for patients with liver disease?

the liver metabolizes most drugs and synthesizes clotting factors

What does an AV heart block do and look like on ECG graph?

AV heart block involves a delay or interruption in conduction of the electrical impulse through the AV node. There are three types (first-degree, second-degree, and third-degree), which vary in appearance, but all involve a change in the relationship between the P wave and QRS complex. • First-degree AV block is recognized by a prolonged P-R interval (Figure 6-16). It is often abnormal but is seen in normal resting or anesthetized horses. • Second-degree AV block appears as occasional missing QRS complexes. In other words, not all P waves are followed by a QRS complex (Figure 6-17). The P-R intervals may also be prolonged and may vary. Like first-degree AV block, it is often abnormal but is also seen in normal resting or anesthetized horses as long as no more than one QRS is skipped in a row, and it resolves with exercise or stimulation. It decreases cardiac output but may or may not require treatment, depending on how severe it is. Both first- and second-degree AV heart block are commonly seen after the administration of alpha2-agonists such as dexmedetomidine. Other causes include high vagal tone, hyperkalemia, and cardiac disease. • Third-degree AV block is an abnormal rhythm in which the atrial and ventricular waveforms occur independently. It is recognized by a complete loss of the normal relationship between the P waves and QRS complexes and is characterized by randomly irregular P-R intervals (Figure 6-18). This rhythm indicates cardiac disease and is infrequently seen in anesthetized patients but, when present, decreases cardiac output and requires treatment.

What is a P-R interval?

The P-R interval represents the time required for the impulse to move from the sinoatrial node to the Purkinje fibers. It is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex.

What are the signs of E. nieshultzi infection and how is it detected?

Antemortem, E. nieschultzi may be detected by finding the oocysts in fecal flotations or direct fecal smears. However, diagnosis is usually based on identification of the organism histopathologically in sections of the intestinal epithelium. Clinical signs of E. nieschultzi infections are usually seen in young rats less than several months of age. Signs include diarrhea, weakness, emaciation, and possibly death due to inflammation of the intestines.

Oxygen flow rates for semiclosed system after induction, change in depth or recovery for >150kg

Approximately 8 to 10 L/min. (This guideline represents approximately 20 mL/kg/min with a maximum of 10 L/min.)

What is the difference in dosages between an obese and normal weight patient?

the obese patient should have a decreased dose to a weight halfway between the normal breed weight and the actual weight

What is blood pressure?

BP is the force exerted by flowing blood on arterial walls.

What are the rates that define bradycardia in different species?

Bradycardia can be defined as a heart rate less than 60 to 70 bpm in a dog, less than 100 bpm in a cat, less than 25 bpm in a horse, or less than 40 bpm in a cow.

What is the primary ingredient in CO2 absorbent granules?

CA[OH]2, 14-18% water and small amounts of sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide and calcium chloride or calcium sulfate

What effect can chloremphinicol have on anesthesia?

The antibiotic chloramphenicol may prolong the action of propofol and ketamine, and may decrease biotransformation of barbiturate anesthetics, leading to significantly prolonged recovery.

Normal range of canine and feline BG?

Canine: 80-130 mg/dL Feline: 70-180 mg/dL

Normal range of ALT for canines and felines?

Canine:8.2-109 U/L Feline: 5-35 U/L

What are common causes of tachypnea?

Causes of tachypnea include: • Inadequate anesthetic depth • Surgical stimulation or perception of pain • Hypoxemia • Hypercapnia • Hyperthermia

Which subphyla are important to veterinary medicine?

Chelicerata(mites, tikes, spiders, scorpions) -Mandibulata(crustaceans, centipedes and millipedes and insects)

What are the types of scrub solutions?

Chlorohexadine gluconate 4%-rub. Chlorhexidine gluconate (4%) is a broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent. It is more effective against gram- positive bacteria than gram-negative organisms. Chlor- hexidine gluconate is a fair inhibitor of fungi. It is active against enveloped viruses and has minimal action against tubercle bacillus. Organic matter minimally affects it. Most importantly, chlorhexidine gluconate 4% is persis- tent (has the ability to stop microbial regrowth with repeated use). The residual effect is maintained for more than 6 days. iodophors-Iodophors have a wide range of activity against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, tubercle bacilli, fungi, viruses, and some spores. Iodo- phors are neutralized rapidly in the presence of organic materials. These agents have minimal residual effect and can cause skin irritation and damage. alcohol-is an agent with rapid antimicro- bial properties against organisms, but it does not have residual activity. It has excellent bactericidal activity against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria and good activity against tubercle bacillus as well as many fungi and viruses. It is not sporicidal. It aids in removing oils from the skin. The disadvantages of alcohol are its drying effect on the skin and its flammability, so it needs to be stored carefully. parachlorometaxylenol-has good activity against gram-positive bacteria and less activity against gram-negative bacteria. It has fair activity against some fungi, viruses, and tubercle bacilli. PCMX has a persistent effect of a few hours and is minimally affected by organic matter. Its antimicrobial effect can be altered by the com- position of the antiseptic product. Efficacy data should be reviewed before these products are used for surgical scrubs. brushless rub-These agents reduce bacterial counts on hands more rapidly than antimicro- bial soaps or detergents. Combining alcohol (for rapid reduction of microbial growth) and chlorhexidine (for persistent and cumulative effect) prevents microbial regrowth. The advantages of the brushless rub are that the scrub time is shorter than with other agents and tech- niques and damage to the skin from brushes is avoided

Describe feline castration procedure

Closed castration is performed much like open castration except for the incision of the parietal vaginal tunics. Once the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and spermatic fascia are incised, the spermatic cord is exteriorized. Ligatures are placed around the entire spermatic cord and tunics, and the cord is then transected Closed castration is performed much like open castration except for the incision of the parietal vaginal tunics. Once the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and spermatic fascia are incised, the spermatic cord is exteriorized. Ligatures are placed around the entire spermatic cord and tunics, and the cord is then transected Closed castration is performed much like open castration except for the incision of the parietal vaginal tunics. Once the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and spermatic fascia are incised, the spermatic cord is exteriorized. Ligatures are placed around the entire spermatic cord and tunics, and the cord is then transected

What are colloid fluids?

Colloid solutions (also referred to as colloids) contain large molecular weight solutes that do not freely diffuse across vascular endothelium and therefore stay in the intravascular space. Colloids are used to support expansion of blood volume and blood pressure. During the perioperative period, colloids are used for patients with plasma protein less than 3.5 g/dL. There are two basic types of colloid.

Entamoeba histolytica Host Location Distribution Transmission Common name Zoonotic

Common name>: Entamoeba Host: Canines , felines, primates and humans Location: large intestines Distribution: worldwide but rare in US Transmission: Ingestion of cysts Zoonotic: Yes Produces amebic dysentery in humans

What are symptoms of cytauxzoon felis?

Common symptoms include fever, icterus, anemia, dehydration, and death. As with B. canis, C. felis causes damage by inflammation within the RBCs.

What are the symptoms of babesia infection

Common symptoms include pale mucous membranes, icterus, hemoglobinuria, depression, hemoglobinemia, weakness, splenomegaly, fever, and anorexia.

Respiratory minute volume

the total amount of gas a patient inhales or exhales in one minute. the closer the oxygen flow rate is to the patients RMV the closer the conentration is to the circuit dial setting

When are crystalloid fluids used?

Crystalloids are routinely used in most anesthetized patients, except those that have low blood protein, low RBC mass, or low platelet count. These solutions are generally appropriate, provided the PCV is 20% or greater and the plasma protein is 3.5 g/dL or greater.

What are the species of demodex that infect cats?

Demodex cati and an unnamed species of Demodex. D. cati -rare

What are indications of limb pain>

Development of exercise intolerance or a decrease in performance may also indicate the presence of limb pain. Arthritic dogs may not walk normally, whereas cats with arthritis show a reluctance to jump as high or as often as before. Horses will shift weight more frequently and point, rotate, or hang their limbs. Cows may arch their backs. A reluctance to lie down or a constant shifting of position is an indicator of thoracic or abdominal pain. Patients may stand, sit, or adopt a prayer position (head, chest, and thoracic limbs held lower than abdomen and hindquarters) rather than lie down, eventually becoming exhauste

How to diagnose tritrichomonas foetus

Diagnosis is by finding these protozoans in fluid freshly collected from the stomach of an aborted fetus, from uterine discharge, or from washing of the vagina and prepuce. Fluid material should be centrifuged at 2000 rpm for 5 minutes. The supernatant is then removed and a drop of sediment transferred to a glass slide for microscopic examination for the moving organisms. Several 170slides should be examined. For more accurate diagnosis, fluid material from the sources just mentioned can be cultured in special media. A specialized parasitology laboratory should be consulted for information on these techniques.

What are the nine orders of insecta

Dictyoptera (cockroaches and grasshoppers), Coleoptera (beetles), Lepidoptera (moths and butterflies), Hemiptera (true bugs), Hymenoptera (ants, bees, wasps, yellow jackets, and other stinging insects), Anoplura (sucking lice), Mallophaga (chewing lice), Diptera (two-winged flies), and Siphonaptera (fleas

What are the two most important species of pseudotapeworms

Diphyllobathrium latum-broad fish tapeworm Spirometra mansonoides-spirometra mansonoides

How are the different species of tapeworm identified?

Dipylidium caninum-have two pores per segment Taenia pisiformis-have one pore per segment

What stages of anesthesia is the pedal reflex present?

During light stage III anesthesia, lost during surgical anesthesia

What are the different ways absorbable suture are broken down?

During phagocytosis, leuko- cytes, usually neutrophils, are released and travel to the site of concern (incision) to ingest and destroy the microbes or, in the case of suture material, the foreign suture material. Suture is also absorbed through hydroly- sis. The chemical compound in the suture is decomposed as it is exposed to water. Absorption of suture may begin as soon as 7 days after placement. Complete absorption may take 60 days to 2 years.

When are blood products used?

During the perioperative period, blood products are used for a variety of indications including anemia, hypoproteinemia, coagulation disorders, and thrombocytopenia. Whole blood or packed RBCs are used to support oxygen-carrying capacity of blood for patients that have profound blood loss. Plasma is primarily used to support expansion of blood volume or treat hypoproteinemia.

What are characteristics of dyspnea

Dyspneic patients may exhibit mouth breathing, flared nostrils, excessive panting, exaggerated chest or abdominal movements on inspiration, wheezing, and reluctance to lie down

Taenia pisiformis egg

Eggs of Taenia species contain a single oncosphere (literally a "growth ball") with three pairs (6) of hooks. The oncosphere is often called a hexacanth embryo.

What are the two most common eimeria species? How are they identified

Eimeria bocis and Eimeria zuernii standard fecal flotation

What is the difference between oocysts of the two coccidia species?

Eimeria contains four sporocysts Cystoisospora contains two sporocysts

What are some of the causes of lower airway disease?

pleural effusion (i.e., free fluid present in the chest cavity), diaphragmatic hernia, pneumothorax, pulmonary contusions resulting from trauma, pneumonia, and pulmonary edema.

define general anesthesia

General anesthesia may be defined as a reversible state of unconsciousness, immobility, muscle relaxation, and loss of sensation throughout the entire body produced by administration of one or more anesthetic agents. While under general anesthesia, a patient cannot be aroused even with painful stimulation.

How to clean an endoscope

Endoscopes should be inspected for damage before being submerged in solutions that may damage parts not designed for exposure. A leak test should be performed to ensure that the internal and external parts of the endo- scope did not incur damage during a procedure. The most important step in prevention of infection during endoscopy is manual cleaning. Organic soil (blood, feces) may contribute to the failure of disinfection by harboring embedded microbes and preventing the pen- etration of germicides. Also, some disinfectants are inac- tivated by organic material. After the endoscope has been disassembled and passed the leak test, the following chan- nels should be cleaned with a cleaning brush: suction, air/water and biopsy, including the detachable suction and air/water valves; the biopsy channel cover; and the whole exterior of the endoscope. This cleaning process should take place in an enzymatic cleaner designed to clean organic material by breaking down proteins and enhanc- ing the efficacy of brushing and flushing. Endozime (Ruhof Corporation, Mineola, NY), a bacteriostatic enzy- matic cleaner, is a unique formulation of protease and amylase enzymes, digesters, and buffers that can clean in 2 to 3 minutes. Allowing the endoscope to be submerged in Endozime for at least 10 minutes after precleaning is sufficient. Endozime needs to be diluted, and as with any enzymatic solution, dilution protocols specified by the manufacturer should be followed

Eimeria leuckarti Host Location Distribution Derivation of Genus Transmission route Common name Zoonotic

Equine coccidia Host: Equine Location: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Named after the German zoologist Gustav Eimer Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Coccidia Zoonotic: No

Describe extracapsular CCL repair procedure

Extracapsular techniques are usually faster and easier to perform than intracapsular repairs. Extracapsular repairs involve placement of sutures outside the stifle joint. The joint is approached laterally, and the appropri- ate suture (e.g., monofilament nylon, nylon fishing line) is loaded onto a properly sized cruciate needle. The needle is passed around the fabella, then through the patellar ligament. A hole is drilled through the tibial crest with a Steinmann pin, and the suture is passed through the hole (Figure 7-115). The stifle is then flexed into a normal standing position, and the cranial drawer test is per- formed. Once the suture is under the appropriate tension, it is tied or crimped into place. The retinaculum should be closed with a vertical mattress pattern to provide appropriate imbrication of the joint capsule.

local anesthesia

the use of a chemical agent on sensory neurons to produce disruption of nerve impulse transmission, leading to a loss of a temporary loss of sensation

What is a first degree av heart block and how is it detected?

First-degree AV heart block is caused by a conduction delay through the AV node and is recognized by a prolonged PR interval on an electrocardiographic tracing. This rhythm causes no noticeable change in the heart sounds and therefore can be detected only by electrocardiography.

Which issues make IV catheters especially helpful during anesthesia?

Fluid administration helps to maintain blood volume and support blood pressure. Although not mandatory for routine operations in healthy patients, fluid administration is highly recommended under the following circumstances: • Patients undergoing any procedure that may result in significant blood loss (such as a cesarean section or removal of a splenic tumor). • Debilitated or dehydrated patients. • Patients with organ dysfunction or failure. • Patients with electrolyte abnormalities (for example, hyperkalemia). • Prolonged anesthesia (more than 1 hour). • Patients at risk for hypotension or shock. Even mild hypotension is a potential problem in anesthetized animals because it leads to decreased blood flow to the kidneys and other vital organs.

Gas insufflator

Gas insufflators are also referred to as laparoflators. Tubing is connected from the gas insuf- flator to the Veress needle. The gas insufflator pushes gas through the tube to the needle to inflate the abdomen. This inflation lifts the abdominal wall away from the abdominal viscera, allowing the surgeon to view the abdominal organs as well as to perform biopsies or sur- gical procedures. Gas insufflators include CO2, nitrous oxide, and room air. CO2 is recommended because of its rapid rate of absorption.

position for castration

For canine castration, the veterinary surgeon may prefer dorsal recumbency or a modified version of this position. For modified dorsal recumbency, the hind legs are secured to the table. The forelegs are not tied, and the cranial half of the dog rolls toward the side on which the surgeon stands (Figure 2-67). For feline castration, the cat is placed in dorsal recum- bency with the hind legs pulled toward the head. The legs may be taped into position, held by the assistant, or tied to the surgery table (Figure 2-68

Positioning for cesarean

For cesarean section the patient should be positioned in dorsal recumbency. For all three procedures, the ventral abdomen should be clipped, preliminary abdominal preparation performed, and urinary bladder emptied before the patient is taken to the surgery room. The animal should be rapidly anesthetized in the surgery room, and a final surgical prep should be performed while the surgeon and scrub assistant are preparing for surgery.

What is gastric dilatation and volvulus?

GDV, refers to the swelling and rotation of the stomach on its mesenteris axis. Dilatation is the stretching of an organ beyond its normal dimensions. Volvulus refers tot he rotation of an organ.

Etomidate injection time

Give rapidly to effect after premedication with a tranquilizer, or concurrently with IV diazepam or midazolam (use a separate syringe if diazepam is chosen). Some anesthetists recommend administering it via the port of a fluid administration set with the fluids running, to reduce adverse effects.

Ketamine-diazipam injection time

Give slowly to effect over 60 to 120 seconds. Slow injection minimizes the adverse effects of these combinations, which may take as long as 2 minutes to reach peak effect. Therefore an overly rapid injection rate may result in overdose. If a bolus injection technique is preferred, one third to one half the calculated dose can be given over 15 to 30 seconds, with further increments every 30 to 60 seconds until the desired depth is reached.

What is high level disinfection?

HLD is a cleaning process that kills all microorganisms except large numbers of bacterial spores. Because they are not rendered sterile, endoscopes cleaned using HLD are considered semicritical items.

What are normal vital signs for cattle under anesthesia?

HR: 50-80 Rhythym:NSR or SA RR:6-12, although rapid shallow breathing is very common Temp:97° F-100° F(36.1° C-37.8° C)

What are normal vital signs for horses under anesthesia?

HR= 28-40 Rhythym= NSR, SA, or first- or second-degree AV heart block RR=6-12 Temp=97° F-100° F(36.1° C-37.8° C)

Lynxacarus radovskyi Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cats Location of Adult: Hair shafts on the back, neck, thorax, and hind limbs Distribution: Tropical or warm regions of the United States and Puerto Rico, Australia, and Fiji Derivation of Genus: Lynx mite Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Feline fur mite Zoonotic: No -laterally compressed

Taenia taeniaeformis/Cysticercus fasciolaris (Metacestode [larval] stage) Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cats Location of Adult: Small intestines Intermediate Host: Rats and mice Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Flat band, bandage, or tape Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective rats or mice Common Name: Feline taeniid or feline tapeworm Zoonotic: No -armed -single oncosphere with three pairs of hooks in egg -larval stage is strobilocercus

Describe the intubation procedure for a horse

Horses are generally intubated in lateral recumbency.∗ 1. Place a mouth speculum or mouth gag between the incisors. 2. Grasp the tongue and pull it out of the mouth between the lips and the speculum. 3. Extend the head and neck. 4. Taking care to keep the tube in the center of the oral cavity to avoid laceration of the cuff by the molars, the tube is gently advanced toward, then through, the larynx. 5. If the anesthetist encounters resistance at the level of the larynx, the tube is withdrawn 1 to 2 inches and rotated 90 degrees before trying to advance it again. 6. Check to ensure the tube is in the trachea by feeling air pass during exhalation or when an assistant presses down on the horse's chest. 7. A small volume of air may be placed in the cuff (20 to 60 mL) before hoisting the horse. 8. After the horse has been positioned on the surgery table, connect the endotracheal tube to the anesthetic breathing system and allow the horse to breathe 100% oxygen. 9. Check the cuff for leaks. 10. Turn on the anesthetic vaporizer, and adjust to the appropriate level. 11. Commence regular monitoring.

Ancylostoma caninum, Ancylostoma tubaeforme, Ancylostoma braziliense, and Uncinaria stenocephala Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: A. caninum, canine; A. tubaeforme, feline; A. braziliense, canine and feline; and U. stenocephala,canine Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Ancylostoma species (worldwide), U. stenocephala (northern regions of North America) Derivation of Genus: Ancylostoma—curved mouth and straight trumpet shape; Uncinaria—hooked nose and narrow head Transmission Route: Ingestion of eggs, through the skin, across the placenta, and through mammary milk Common Name: Canine and feline hookworm Zoonotic: Yes -feeds on blood -black tarry stool -can cross placenta and can pass through colostrum -fecal flotation with fresh specimen

Spiroptera incesta, Dispharynx nasuta, and Tetrameres species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Australian finches—S. incesta, finches—D. nasuta, and pigeons—Tetrameres species Location of Adult: Ventriculus, ventriculus, and proventriculus, respectively Intermediate Host: Insect, insect, and sow bug, respectively Distribution: Tropical and subtropical regions (D. nasuta) Derivation of Genus: Spiroptera: coiled wing; Dyspharynx: abnormal throat; Tetrameres: made up of four parts 81 Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective insect, ingestion of infective insect, and ingestion of infective sow bug, respectively Common Name: Spirurids of birds Zoonotic: No

Giardia psittaci

Host: Avians Location of Adults: Intestinal mucosa Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Named after the famous protozoologist Alfred Giard Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Giardia Zoonotic: No (only assemblage A is zoonotic)

Plasmodium spp.

Host: Avians Location: Within RBCs Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Any thing formed Transmission Route: Bite of infected mosquito Common Name: Avian malaria Zoonotic: No affects canaries in some parts of US Attacks organs such as liver and spleen signet ring form displaces the nucleus of RBC -diagnosed by organ impression smears

Cnemidocoptes pilae and Cnemidocoptes mutans Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Budgerigars and parakeets (C. pilae) and poultry (C. mutans) Location of Adult: C. pilae spends most of its life cycle tunneling under the superficial epidermis of the feet, cere, and beak, whereas C. mutans tunnels under the superficial epidermis of the feet. They both spend a short period on the surface of the skin. Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Koptein means "to cut" in Greek Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Scaly leg mite of parakeets and scaly leg mite of chickens, respectively Zoonotic: No -produces a yellow to gray white mass resembling a honeycomb -tasselfoot -scaly leg -can produce severe disfigurement

Dioctophyma renale Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canine Location of Adult: Right kidney Distribution: North America (primarily Canada) and Europe (but not Britain) Derivation of Genus: Distended growth Transmission Route: Ingestion of infected larvae within an annelid Common Name: Canine giant kidney worm Zoonotic: Yes but rare in humans (per The Merck Veterinary Manual) -ingests the parenchyma of the kidney and leaves only the capsule -eggs from urine are ingested -seen on urine sediment -prepatent period 18 weeks

Dracunculus insignis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canine Location of Adult: Subcutaneous tissues Distribution: North America Derivation of Genus: Small dragon Transmission Route: Ingestion of intermediate host, small aquatic crustaceans Common Name: Guinea worm Zoonotic: No -female is very long -male is short but rarely seen -female produces a draining ulcerous lesion in the skin usually on a limb -releases eggs if uterus comes into contact with water -must be surgically removed

Acanthocheilonema reconditum Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canine Location of Adult: Subcutaneous tissues Distribution: Tropical and subtropical regions Derivation of Genus: Thorny-lipped worm Transmission Route: Bite from infected flea Common Name: Canine subcutaneous filarial worm Zoonotic: No nonpathogenic nematode that lives in the subcutaneous tissues of the dg -usually microfilariae are recovered in the peripheral blood samples -adults have buttonhook tails and blunt anterior ends

Rhabditis strongyloides Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canine Location of Adult: Superficial layers of the skin Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Rod-shaped Transmission Route: First-stage larvae enter directly through the skin (percutaneous) Common Name: Free-living soil nematodes Zoonotic: No -facultative parasite -found in soil with mixed moist organic debris -can be identified after superficial skin scrapings of affected areas

Trichomonas gallinae

Host: Pigeons, doves, poultry, and raptors that feed on pigeons Location of Adult: Crop Distribution: North America and countries with doves and pigeons Derivation of Genus: Hair unit Transmission Route: Direct contact with contaminated water or an infected bird Common Name: Trichomonas Zoonotic: No diagnosed by a direct saline smear of crop contents has four anterior flagella can be stained oval shap staining blue

Oslerus osleri, Oslerus hirthi, and Oslerus milksi Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canine Location of Adult: Trachea, lung parenchyma, and bronchioles, respectively Distribution: North America, Europe, and Japan Derivation of Genus: Threadlike shape Transmission Route: Ingestion of infected L1 larvae Common Name: Canine lungworm Zoonotic: No -he larva is 232 to 266 µm in length and has a tail with a short S-shaped appendage. Oslerus (formerly Filaroides) species are unique among nematodes in that their first-stage larvae are immediately infective for the canine definitive host. No period of development is required outside the host -fecal flotation -prepatent period is 10 weeks

Thelazia californiensis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canine and feline Location of Adults: Conjunctival sac and lacrimal duct of the eye Distribution: North America Derivation of Genus: Nipple saliva Transmission Route: Infection by infective larvae from intermediate host, Musca autumnalis Common Name: Eyeworm of canines and felines Zoonotic: Yes, but rare in humans (per The Merck Veterinary Manual) Examining lacrimal secretions can reveal eggs. -Face fly is how the animal is infected

Dirofilaria immitis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canine, feline, and ferret; has been observed in humans as an incidental parasite Intermediate Host: Female mosquito Location of Adult: Right ventricle and pulmonary arteries of the heart Distribution: Warm-temperate climates around the world Derivation of Name: Dread thread and inexorable Transmission Route: Bite of infective mosquito Common Name: Heartworm Zoonotic: Yes (incidental host) -prepatent period 6 months

Pneumonyssus (Pneumonyssoides) caninum Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canines Location of Adult: Nasal turbinates and nasal sinuses Distribution: Worldwide Derivation: Lung piercer Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Nasal mites Zoonotic: No -reddening of the nasal mucosa, sneezing, shaking of the head, and rubbing of the nose often accompany infestation. Fainting, labored breathing, asthmalike attacks, and orbital disease have been associated with this mite -nasal mites are oval and pale yellow abdomen lacks setae -larvae have six legs and adults have 8 with the legs attached .

Sarcoptes scabiei variety cani Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canines Location of Adult: Tunneling in the superficial layers of the epidermis for the majority of their life cycle; for a short period of their life cycle, can be found on the skin surface Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Flesh cutters Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Scabies mite of the dog Zoonotic: Yes -ears, lateral elbows and ventral abdomen are sites that are likely to harbor mites -oval shape -long, unjointed pedicels -anus is terminal not dorsal -most of life cycle is tunneling through superficial layers of epidermis

Hepatozoon canis and americanum Host Location Distribution Derivation of Genus Transmission route common name zoonotic

Host: Canines Location: Gamonts are found within WBCs, whereas schizonts are found in the endothelial cells of the spleen, bone marrow, and liver. Distribution: United States, Africa, Asia, and southern Europe Derivation of Genus: Liver animal Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective intermediate host, Rhipicephalus sanguineus tick for H. canis and Amblyomma maculatum tick for H. americanum Common Name: Hepatozoon Zoonotic: No

Physaloptera species Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canines and felines Location of Adult: Lumen of the stomach or small intestine, more commonly attached to the stomach mucosa Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Bladder wing Transmission Route: Ingestion of eggs Common Name: Canine and feline stomach worms Zoonotic: Yes, however rarely seen in humans per the American Association of Veterinary Parasitologists (AAVP) -attach to mucosal surface of stomach to suck blood -can be recovered in vomit -adults are creamy white -eggs can be identified on fecal flotation -prepatent period is 56 to 83 days

Toxocara canis, Toxocara cati, and Toxascaris leonina Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canines and felines Location of Adults: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Toxocara—arrowhead; Toxascaris—arrow ascaris Transmission Route: Ingestion of egg with infective larva Common Name: Canine and feline roundworms Zoonotic: T. canis and T. cati: Yes; T. leonina: No In young puppies can produce vomiting, diarrhea, constipation and other clinical signs. Swim in the stomach and intestines -prepatent period is 21 to 35 days for T. canis. T leonine is 74 days. -Can cross placental barrier -fecal flotation

Pearsonema plica and Pearsonema feliscati Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canines and felines, respectively Location of Adult: Urinary bladder Distribution: Southeastern United States Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective intermediate host, earthworm; ingestion of earthworm containing infected L3 larvae Common Name: Bladder worm of canines and felines, respectively Zoonotic: No -eggs are clear to yellow -eggs are ingested by an earth worm and then earth worm is ingested where the larvae will migrate to the bladder -feacl or urine sediment

Cryptosporidium species Host Location Distribution Transmission oute Common name zoonotic

Host: Canines, felines, bovines, ovines, swine, avians, guinea pigs, snakes, and mice Location: Small intestine 161 Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Hidden small seeds Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Cryptosporidia, "Crypto" Zoonotic: Yes

Eucoleus aerophilus and Eucoleus böehmi Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Canines/felines and canines, respectively Location of Adult: Bronchi and trachea, nasal cavity and frontal sinuses, respectively Distribution: North America, South America, and Europe Derivation of Genus: Good sheath Transmission Route: Ingestion of ova from feces or mucoid discharge Common Name: Respiratory capillarid Zoonotic: E. aerophilus: Yes (per AAVP); E. böehmi: No -prepatent period 40 days -passed through feces or sputum -standard fecal flotation

Boophilus annulatus Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle Location of Adult: Attached to the skin of host while feeding Distribution: Mexico or enzootic areas of the United States Derivation of Genus: Cattle lover Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host; all stages are found on the host Common Name: Texas cattle fever tick or North American tick -one host -first known host Babesia bigemina -has been completely eradicated from US, has to be reported -inornate

Setaria cervi Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle Location of Adult: Free within the peritoneal cavity Intermediate Host: Female mosquito Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Bristles Transmission Route: Bite by an infective mosquito Common Name: Abdominal worm of cattle Zoonotic: No -large white adults are observed postmortem and are found free within the peritoneal cavity -blood smear antemortem

Strongyloides papillosus Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Roundlike shape Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective larvae or penetration of skin by infective larvae Common Name: Bovine intestinal threadworm Zoonotic: No -parthenogenetic female is parasitic -larvae have rhabditiform esophagus -larvae migrate through lungs through the circulatory system and are coughed up and swallowed -prepatent period 5-7 days

Moniezia benedini and Moniezia expansa Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle (M. benedini); cattle, sheep, and goats (M. expansa) Location of Adult: Small intestine Intermediate Host: Grain mites Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Moniezia—to be single Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective grain mite Common Name: Ruminant tapeworms Zoonotic: No -unarmed -very short and wide proglottids -eggs are square or rectangular -pyriform eggs -fecal flotation -prepatent period 40 days -larval stage is cysticeroid

Haematobia irritans Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle and buffalo Location of Adult: Clustered around the horns but can be around the shoulders, back, sides, and ventral abdomen Distribution: North America, Europe, and Australia Derivation of Genus: Bloody life Transmission Route: Fly from host Common Name: Horn fly -bayonet like proboscis that protrudes forward from the head -when air temp is below 70F they cluster around the horn -females leave the host to deposit their eggs in fresh cow manure. Within the "cow pie," the eggs hatch into larvae. Each larva develops into a pupa in a short period of time. At the end of the larval development, the larvae will crawl from the cow feces and pupate in loose soil. After pupation, the adult flies emerge from the pupal case and are on the wing. -Horn flies probably cause greater losses of cattle in the United States than any other blood-feeding fly

Hypoderma species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle and in rare instances horses, sheep, and humans Location of Larva: In large boil-like cysts in the back of the cow Distribution: Northern and southern United States and Canada Derivation of Genus: Under the skin Transmission Route: Adult female flies from host to host Common Name: Gadflies (adults) and cattle grubs (larvae) -aka ox warbles or catt grubs -The adult flies are heavy and resemble honeybees; they are often called heel flies. These adult flies have very primitive mouthparts, so they are not capable of biting the cow; however, they do produce much annoyance for the cow. -At the end of the adult female's abdomen there is an ovipositor, which she uses to deposit her eggs on the hairs of the cow's leg. The eggs are about 1 mm long and white and are attached to hairs on the legs of cattle. H. lineatum deposits a row of six or more eggs on an individual hair shaft; H. bovis lays its eggs singly on the hair shaft. The larvae hatch in about 4 days and crawl down the hair shaft to the skin, which they penetrate. The larvae wander through the subcutaneous connective tissues in the leg, migrating through the esophagus (H. lineatum) or the region of the spinal canal and epidural fat (H. bovis) until they reach the subcutaneous tissues of the back. Here the larvae create breathing holes in the skin of the dorsum; it is through these pores that they later exit and fall to the ground to pupate. The adult flies emerge from the pupae.

Musca autumnalis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle predominately Location of Adult: Feeding around the medial canthus of the eye Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Fly Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: Face fly Gather around eyes and muzzle of livestock -feed on saliva tears and mucus -can transmit moraxella bovis

Nematodirus species and Marshallagia species Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle, goats, and sheep Location of Adult: Abomasum, small and large intestines Distribution: Worldwide (Nematodirus) and tropical/subtropical regions (Marshallagia) Derivation of Genus: Terrible nematode—Nematodirus, parasite studied by Dr. Marshall Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective larvae Common Name: Trichostrongyles with very large eggs Zoonotic: No -eggs are much larger than those of other trichostrongyle -prepatent period is 15-26 days -standard fecal flotation -16-32 cell morula

Stephanofilaria stilesi Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle, goats, buffalo, and wild ruminants Location of Adult: Ventral midline skin Distribution: United States Derivation of Genus: Crown thread Transmission Route: Bite by the infective horn fly, Haematobia irritans Common Name: Skin worm of ruminants Zoonotic: No -skin lesions are caused by both adult and microfilarial stages -diagnosed by skin scrapings

Ollulanus tricuspis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Felines Location of Adult: Stomach Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Small feline hair Transmission Route: Ingestion of larvae from vomitus Common Name: Feline trichostrongyle Zoonotic: No Identified by examining vomit with fecal flotation method -adults have three major tail cusps or toothlike processes on the tip of the tail -larviparous

Bunostomum species, Trichostrongylus species, Chabertia species, Cooperia species, Haemonchus species, Oesophagostomum species, and Ostertagia species Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle, sheep, and goats Location of Adult: Abomasum, small and large intestines Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Mound mouth—Bunostomum, blood spear—Haemonchus, esophagus mouth—Oesophagostomum, and hair round—Trichostrongylus Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective larvae Common Name: Trichostrongyles of cattle and sheep Zoonotic: Bunostomum species and Trichostrongylus species: Yes (per The Merck Veterinary Manual); Chabertia species, Cooperia species, Haemonchus species, Oesophagostomum species, and Ostertagiaspecies: No -all ova species are too similar in appearance to accurately identify to specific genus and species -classified by the egg type they produce -oval thin shelled eggs -adults live in abomasum and intestines where they feed on blood from the host -female passes eggs in feces

Dictyocaulus species Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle, sheep, and goats Location of Adult: Bronchi Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Netlike stalk Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective larvae Common Name: Lungworms of ruminants Zoonotic: No fecal flotation

Trichuris ovis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle, sheep, and goats Location of Adult: Cecum and colon Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Hair tail Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova Common Name: Whipworms Zoonotic: No -egg is thick yellow brown and symmetric with polar plugs at both ends

Thelazia rhodesii and Thelazia gulosa Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Cattle, sheep, and goats Location of Adult: Conjunctival sac and lacrimal duct Intermediate Host: Musca autumnalis Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Nipple saliva Transmission Route: Infective larvae in face fly (M. autumnalis) feces around the eyes Common Name: Eyeworms of cattle, sheep, and goats Zoonotic: No -adults can be recovered from the conjunctival sac and lacrimal duct -face fly is intermediate host

Argas persicus Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Chickens, turkeys, and wild birds Location of Adult: Attached to the skin of the bird when feeding and in the bird's environment when not actively feeding Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Named for the 100-eyed monster that Hermes slayed in Greek mythology Transmission Route: Direct contact with infested environment Common Name: Fowl tick -soft tick -periodic parasite -take on a slate blue color after engorgement

Toxoplasma gondii Host Location Distribution Trasnmission route Common name Zoonotic Derivation of genus

Host: Definitive host is the feline; can also occur in other animals and humans as an incidental parasite. Location: Intestines Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Bow body Transmission Route: Ingestion of sporulated oocysts Common Name: Toxoplasma Zoonotic: Yes effects cats

Rhipicephalus sanguineus Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs Location of Adult: Attached below the hair coat on the body but especially the external ear canal and between the toes Distribution: North America Derivation of Genus: Fan head Transmission Route: Direct contact with infested environment Common Name: Brown dog tick -hard tick -invades both kennel and household environments -inornate, uniformly reddish-brown scutum and feeds almost exclusively on dogs -ts basis capitulum (or head) has prominent lateral extensions that give the structure a decidedly hexagonal appearance (Figure 13-77). The engorged female is often slate gray.

Taenia hydatigena (adult tapeworm)/Cysticercus tenuicollis (metacestode [larval] stage) Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs Location of Adult: Small intestine Intermediate Host: Cattle, sheep, goats Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Flat band, bandage, or tape/bladder tail Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective abdominal omentum of ruminants Common Name: Canine taeniid/bovine bladder worm Zoonotic: No -nonpathogenic to intermediate host -armed -Typical-taeniid type eggs can be found on standard fecal flotation.

Taenia pisiformis, Taenia hydatigena, and Taenia ovis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs Location of Adult: Small intestine Intermediate Host: Rabbits and hares (T. pisiformis); ruminants (T. hydatigena); sheep (T. ovis) Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Flat band, bandage, or tape Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective intermediate host Common Name: Canine taeniid (T. pisiformis and T. hydatigena); mutton tapeworm of dogs (T. ovis) Zoonotic: No -armed, two rows of rostellar hooks -terminal gravid proglottids in feces -single lateral pore along edge -cysticercus larval stage

Multiceps multiceps and Multiceps serialis/Coenurus cerebralis, Coenurus serialis (Metacestode [larval] tapeworm) Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs Location of Adult: Small intestines Intermediate Host: Sheep (M. multiceps) and rabbits (M. serialis) Distribution: Worldwide (M. multiceps) Derivation of Genus: Many heads Transmission Route: Ingestion of infected intermediate host Common Name: Coenurus-producing tapeworm Zoonotic: No -scolex with double row of restellar hooks -coenurus larval stage(single large bladder with several invaginated scolices attached to its inner wall) in subcutaneous or intermusclar conective tissue of intermediate host

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Feline Location of Adult: Respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Cat strongyle Transmission Route: Ingestion of larvae Common Name: Feline lungworm Zoonotic: No -egg nests in bronchioles that obstruct -larvae have a tail with a unique S-shaped bend with a dorsal spine -cat coughs up, swallows and passes out feces -fecal flotation -prepatent period is 3- days

Echinococcus granulosus and Echinococcus multilocularis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs (E. granulosus); cats (E. multilocularis) Location of Adult: Small intestine Intermediate Host: Sheep, cattle, and other herbivores (E. granulosus); rats, mice, and voles (E. multilocularis); humans (both) Distribution: Worldwide (E. granulosus); countries in the Northern Hemisphere (E. multilocularis) Derivation of Genus: Spiny berry Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective intermediate host Common Name: Unilocular hydatid tapeworm (E. granulosus); multilocular hydatid tapeworm (E. multilocularis) Zoonotic: Yes hydatid disease tapeworms assocaited with unilocular or multiocular disease that develop into cysts in the liver, lungs or brain -extremely zoonotic -report to state or federal authoritis -single oncosphere with three pairs of hooks in egg

Dipylidium caninum Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs and cats Location of Adult: Small intestine Intermediate Host: Adult fleas Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Having two entrances Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective adult flea Common Name: Double-pored tapeworm or cucumber seed tapeworm Zoonotic: Yes -most common -infective cysticercoid stage -armed -prominent proboscis covered with rearward-facing, rose thorn-like hooks -diagnosed by egg packets in fecal flotation or gravid proglottids in feces

Spirometra species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs and cats Location of Adult: Small intestine Intermediate Hosts: First intermediate host, aquatic crustacean; second intermediate host, fish or frogs Distribution: North and South America, Far East, and Australia Derivation of Genus: Coiled or spiral uterus Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective fish or frog Common Name: Zipper tapeworm or sparganosis tapeworm Zoonotic: Yes -four suckers on anterior end -bothria -produces an operculated egg -The eggs are oval and yellowish-brown. They average 60 × 36 µm, have an asymmetric appearance, and tend to be rather pointed at one end sparganum is the larval stage which is found in the musculature of its intermediate hosts fish frogs and amphibians

Reduvvid bugs Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs and humans Location: On host's lips and skin of the mouth when feeding Distribution: Species can be found worldwide Derivation of Genus: None found Transmission Route: Periodic parasite Common Name: Kissing bugs -Hemiptera -intermediate host for Trypanosoma cruzi that can cause Chagas disease

Strongyloides stercoralis and Strongyloides tumefaciens Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs, cats, and humans Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Roundlike shape Transmission Route: Through the skin and in mammary milk Common Name: Intestinal threadworms Zoonotic: S. stercoralis: Yes; S. tumefaciens: No -parasitic males do not exist -parthenogenic -prepatent period is 8-14 days -first stage larvae may be in feces -moderate to severe diarrhea

Diphyllobothrium latum Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs, cats, and humans Location of Adult: Small intestine Intermediate Hosts: First intermediate host, aquatic crustacean; second intermediate host, fish Distribution: Scandinavian countries, Ukraine, and North America Derivation of Genus: Double leaf Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective fish Common Name: Broad fish tapeworm Zoonotic: Yes -bothria -absorbs B12 causing anemia -The egg is oval and possesses a distinct operculum at one end of the pole of the shell. The eggs are light brown, averaging 67 to 71 µm × 40 to 51 µm, and tend to be rounded on one end -plerocercoid larval stage

Mesocestoides species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs, cats, and other carnivores Location of Adult: Small intestine Intermediate Host: First intermediate host, oribatid mite; second intermediate host, rats and mice Distribution: North America, Asia, Europe, and Africa Derivation of Genus: The form of a middle girdle Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective intermediate host Common Name: Tetrathyridium tapeworm Zoonotic: No -scolex is oblong with four suckers, unarmed -centrally located uterine pore -The eggs of Mesocestoides species contain a single oncosphere (hexacanth embryo) with three pairs of hooks. (See Figure 6-44 for features of this egg.) The striated embryophore (shell) is lacking.

Rhodnius species, Panstrongylus species, and Triatoma species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Dogs, humans, opossums, cats, guinea pigs, armadillos, rats, raccoons, and monkeys Location of Adult: Lips and skin of the mouth when feeding (periodic parasites) Distribution: South America, Central America, and parts of southwestern and western United States (i.e., Texas, Arizona, California, New Mexico) Derivation of Genus: Rhodnius, rose; Panstrongylus, all round; Triatoma, cut into three Transmission Route: Fly or move from host to host Common Name: Kissing bugs -feed on mucocutaneous junctions lilke those between the lips and skin of mouth -winged

Cochliomyia hominivorax Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Domestic animals Location of Larva: Fresh, uncontaminated wounds of warm-blooded animals Distribution: North America Derivation of Genus: Screw fly Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: Screwworm, primary screwworm, or New World screwworm -most important fly that attacks livestock in SW and S US -Adult female flies are attracted to fresh skin wounds (such as recent surgical sites or recent lacerations) on warm-blooded animals, where they lay batches of 15 to 500 eggs in a shinglelike pattern at the edge of the wounds. The female fly lays several thousand eggs during her lifetime. The cream-colored, elongated eggs hatch within 24 hours. Larvae enter the wound, where they feed for 4 to 7 days before they become third-stage (fully grown) larvae. The veterinarian must be able to identify the third-stage larvae of this obligatory myiasis-producing fly

Cytauxzoon felis host location distribution derivation of genus transmission route common name zoonotic

Host: Feline Location: Within RBCs Distribution: Africa and the United States Derivation of Genus: Hollow vessel-increasing animal Transmission Route: Bite from an infective intermediate host, tick Common Name: Cytauxzoon Zoonotic: No

Culicoides species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Domestic animals and humans Location of Adult: On the skin surface when feeding; otherwise in their aquatic or semiaquatic breeding grounds Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Mosquito-like Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: No-see-ums, punkies, or sand flies (not to be confused with the phlebotomine sand flies: Lutzomyia and Phlebotomus species) -adults have a short proboscis and mottled or spotted wings with hairs on the wing margins. They are active at dusk and at dawn, especially during summer months. The adults tend to be found around their aquatic or semiaquatic breeding grounds when not feeding -Horses often become allergic to the bites of Culicoides species, scratching and rubbing these areas, causing alopecia, excoriations, and thickening of the skin. This condition has several names, including Queensland itch, sweat itch and sweet itch. Because this condition is often seen during the warmer months of the year, it is also referred to as summer dermatitis -These flies also serve as the intermediate host for Onchocerca cervicalis, a nematode whose microfilariae are found in the skin of horses. These flies also transmit the bluetongue virus of sheep.

Demodex species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Domestic animals and humans (host specific) Location of Adult: Hair follicles and sebaceous glands of the skin Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Fat worm or tallow receiver Transmission Route: Direct contact, especially intimate contact between dam and neonates Common Name: Red mange mite, follicular mite, canine follicular mite, or demodectic mange mite Zoonotic: No -demidicosis -normal skin flora but dogs with immunodeficincies can proliferate into pathology

Anopluran species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Domestic animals except cats and birds Location of Parasite: Clinging to the host's hair Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Unarmed tail Transmission Route: Animal-to-animal contact Common Name: Sucking lice Zoonotic: No -larger than cheweing lice -red to gray depends on amount of blood sucked -insect -adult are wingless -Sucking lice of sheep, swine, monkeys, and dogs are species specific and include, respectively, Solenopotes capillatus (Figure 13-7), Haematopinus suis (Figure 13-8), Pedicinus obtusus (Figure 13-9), and Linognathus setosus (Figure 13-10).

Sarcophaga species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Domestic animals, wild animals, and humans Location of Adult: Free-flying in the environment Distribution: North America and Hawaii Derivation: Flesh eater Transmission Route: Fly from feces to food Common Name: Flesh fly -striped thorax and a checkerboard abdomen These flies do not lay eggs but instead deposit first-stage larvae in either feces, carrion, or contaminated wounds. -facultative myiasis

Calliphora species, Lucilia species, Phormia species, and Phaenicia species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Domestic animals, wild animals, and humans Location of Adult: Free-living with humans Distribution: Australia, England, and North America (Calliphora); Worldwide (Lucilia, Phormia, and Phaenicia species) Derivation of Genus: Calliphora, beauty-bearing; Lucilia, light Transmission Route: Fly from feces to food Common Name: Bottle flies or blowflies -These flies are medium sized, shiny, and iridescent (blue, black, and green resembling the color of glass bottles, hence the name bottle flies) with sponging mouthpar -facultative myiasis

Trombicula species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Domestic animals, wild animals, and humans Location of Larva: The larval stage is the only stage that parasitizes animals and humans. It is found attached to the skin of the host. Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Unknown Transmission Route: Direct contact of host and larval mites within forest environments with underbrush Common Name: Chiggers or red bugs Zoonotic: No yellow to red and has six legs ranging in size from 200 to 400 um in diameter -food is the serous components of tissues -higgers attach firmly to the host and inject a digestive fluid that produces liquefaction of host cells. The host's skin becomes hardened, and a tube called a stylostome forms at the chigger's attachment site. Chiggers suck up liquefied host tissues. When the mite has finished feeding, it loosens its grip and falls to the ground. -Trombicula alfreddugesi the North American chigger is most common -diagnosis of chiggers is based on the presence of an orange crusting dermatosis, a history of exposure (roaming outdoors), and identification of the typical six-legged larval stage on skin scraping or on collection from the host.

Simulium species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Domesticated animals, poultry, and humans Location of Adults: Surface of the skin when feeding; otherwise, in the vicinity of swiftly flowing streams Distribution: Worldwide, but not in Hawaii or New Zealand Derivation of Genus: At the same time Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: Black flies or buffalo gnats -only females feed on blood -adults have broad unspotted wings and prominent veins along anterior margens -serrated scissorlike mouthparts -can serve as host for Leucocytozoon species -range from yellow to gray to black -found in field not in clinic

Klossiella equi Host Location of adults distribution derivation of genus transmission route Common name zoonotic

Host: Equine Location of Adult: Kidneys Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Little organism; named after a parasitologist, Kloss Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts in urine Common Name: Klossiella Zoonotic: No nonpatbhogenic coccidian infecting the kidney of horses

Sarcocystis neurona

Host: Equine Location: Schizogonous, or asexual, stage found in the nervous system Distribution: North, Central, and South America Derivation of Genus: Flesh cyst Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts from opposum feces Common name: (Sarcocystis) Zoonotic: No Infected by ingesting water or food contiminated with opossum feces

Theileria equi and Babesia caballi Host Location Distribution Derivation of Genus Transmission route Common name Zoonotic

Host: Equine Location: Within RBCs Distribution: Europe, Africa, Asia, North and South America Derivation of Genus: Named after the famous bacteriologist Victor Babès Transmission Route: Bite by infective tick Common Name: Equine piroplasm Zoonotic: Nol

Aonchotheca putorii Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Felines and minks Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Tropic and temperate countries, worldwide Derivation of Genus: Sheath diminished in bulk Transmission Route: Ingestion of eggs Common Name: Gastric capillarid of cats Zoonotic: No found in small intestine where they suck blood -eggs are 53 to 70 um x 20-30um and have a netlike surface -eggs are dense and less delicate then others and have flattened sides containing a one or two cell embryo that fills the egg -detected on fecal flotation

Notoedres cati Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Felines and occasionally rabbits Location of Adult: Most of its life cycle, the adult is found tunneling in the superficial layers of the epidermis, but for a short period of its life cycle, it can be found on the surface of the skin around the ear pinna, face, neck, and feet of the cat Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Back (referring to the dorsal anus) Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Notoedric mange mite of cats or feline scabies mite Zoonotic: Yes (per American Association of Veterinary Parasitologists) -the mite most often associated with feline scabies -foudn chiefly on ears, back of neck, face and feet -difference is position of anus it is dorsal -long, unjointed pedicals -life cycle simlar to Sarcoptes -yellow crust is characteristic

Ichthyophthirius multifiliis

Host: Freshwater and ornamental fish Location: Skin, gills, fins, and eyes Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Fish louse with many children Transmission Route: Contact with infective stage of life cycle Common Name: Ciliate of fish Zoonotic: No Ich is characterized by the formation of tiny white spots (the thin-walled trophozoite stage just beneath the epidermis) over many of the exposed surfaces of the fish. These parasites may be from 100 to 1000 µm in diameter, so they are grossly visible to the observer.

Dentostomella translucida Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Gerbil Location of Adult: Stomach and proximal one third of the small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Little tooth in mouth Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova Common Name: Pinworm of gerbils Zoonotic: No

Dentostomella translucida Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Gerbil Location of Adult: Stomach and proximal one third of the small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Little tooth in mouth Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova Common Name: Pinworm of gerbils Zoonotic: No -not frequently reported -fecal flotation -postmortem found in somtach or small intestine

Hoplopleura meridionidis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Gerbil Location of Adult: Within the hair coat Distribution: Not found Derivation of Genus: Unknown Transmission Route: Direct animal-to-animal contact Common Name: Gerbil louse Zoonotic: No

Paraspidodera uncinata Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Guinea pig Location of Adult: Cecum and colon 78 Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Bears a peculiar neck Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova Common Name: Ascarid of guinea pigs Zoonotic: No nonpathogenic nematode in cecal contents or mucosa

Gliricola porcelli and Gyropus ovalis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Guinea pig Location of Adult: Within the hair coat Distribution: Predominantly South and North America Derivation of Genus: Unknown Transmission Route: Direct animal-to-animal contact Common Name: Guinea pig lice Zoonotic: No -Mallophaga -wide triangular head

Chirodiscoides caviae Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Guinea pig Location of Adult: Within the pelt Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Disklike hand Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Guinea pig fur mite Zoonotic: No -elongated mite with triangular cranial portion

Tritrichomonas caviae

Host: Guinea pig Location: Cecum Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Three hair unit Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Flagellate of guinea pigs Zoonotic: No is of little or no pathologic significance in the guinea pig has three anterior flagella and a trailing posterior flagellum. T. caviae measures 10 to 22 µm × 6 to 11 µm and is larger than Giardia caviae.

Trixacarus caviae Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Guinea pigs Location of Adult: Most of its life cycle, the adult can be found tunneling into the superficial epidermis, whereas a short period is spent on the surface of the skin Distribution: Europe and North America Derivation of Genus: Unknown Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Burrowing mite of guinea pigs Zoonotic: No

Cryptosporidium wrairi

Host: Guinea pigs Location of Adult: Tips of the intestinal villi of the ileum Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Hidden small seeds Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Cryptosporidium or Crypto Zoonotic: Yes The only clinical sign of C. wrairi infection is weight loss. Younger guinea pigs at 250 to 300 g are most likely to carry the parasite. Older animals seem to be resistant or to have developed immunity to C. wrairi. C. wrairi is not found in other species of animals and is not considered a public health problem.

Eimeria caviae

Host: Guinea pigs Location: Large intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Named after zoologist Gustav Eimer Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Coccidia of guinea pigs Zoonotic: No with an oval to slightly subspherical oocyst that is 13 to 26 µm × 12 to 23 µm. Oocyst walls are brown and have no micropyle or polar granule. However, oocysts contain a residuum, as do sporocysts. generally nonpathogenic

What is the Mapleson classification system?

How non-breathing circuits are grouped -class A-F

Thelazia lacrymalis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horse Location of Adult: Conjunctival sac and lacrimal duct Distribution: Worldwide Indermediate Host: Musca autumnalis Derivation of Genus: Nipple saliva Transmission Route: Infective larvae deposited near the eyes when intermediate host, M. autumnalis, defecated after feeding on tears Common Name: Eyeworm of the horse Zoonotic: No -can be recovered from conjunctival sac and lacrimal duct

Oxyuris equi Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses Location of Adult: Cecum, colon, and rectum Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Sharp tail Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova Common Name: Pinworm of horses Zoonotic: No -often protrude from anus -fecal flotation -operculate and are slightly flattened on one side -prepatent period is 4-5 months

Setaria equina Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses Location of Adult: Free within the peritoneal cavity Distribution: Europe and North America Intermediate Host: Mosquito Derivation of Genus: Bristle Transmission Route: Bite by infective mosquito Common Name: Abdominal worm of horses Zoonotic: No -adults are large white worms found free within the peritoneal cavity]-antemortem demonstration is through peripheral blood smears -primary pathology is migration of larvae from insertion point to the abdominal caivty

Strongylus vulgaris, Strongylus edentatus, and Strongylus equinus Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses Location of Adult: Large intestines Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Round and common Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective larvae Common Name: Strongyles of horses Zoonotic: No -large strongyles are more pathogenic -eggs are identical -fecal flotation and fecal culture -8-16 cell morula

Onchocerca cervicalis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses Location of Adult: Ligamentum nuchae; microfilariae are found in the dermis Intermediate Host: Biting midges of the Culicoides species Distribution: Worldwide Deriviation of Genus: Tumor tail Transmission Route: Bite by infective Culicoides species, no-see-ums Common Name: Equine filarial worm Zoonotic: No -cutaneous onchocerciasis which is patch alopecia and scaling on the head, neck, shoulders and ventral midline -many horses asymptomatic -diagnosis is done by clipping and surgically scrubbing and using a 6mm biopsy punch. Half the tissue is minced in a small amount of saline and allowed to stand for 5-10 minutes then examine under low power

Parascaris equorum Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Bearing worms Transmission Route: Ingestion of ova Common Name: Equine roundworm or equine ascarid Zoonotic: No -usually infects young horses -prepatent period is 75-80 days -fecal flotation -can also be passed in feces -largest nematode to infect horses

Strongyloides westeri Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Roundlike shape Transmission Route: Transmammary through colostrum and larval penetration through the skin Common Name: Intestinal threadworm of horses Zoonotic: No -parthenogenic females -prepatent period 5-7 days -clinical symptoms are diarrhea, weight loss, anemia and poor appetite

Anoplocephala perfoliata, Anoplocephala magna, and Paranoplocephala mamillana Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses Location of Adult: Small intestine, large intestine, and cecum (A. perfoliata); small intestine and occasionally stomach (A. magna and P. mamillana) Intermediate Host: Grain mites Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Unarmed head/Bearing an unarmed head Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective grain mites Common Name: Lappeted equine tapeworm (A. perfoliata) and equine tapeworm with large scolex (A. magna); dwarf tapeworm (P. mamillana); collectively, equine tapeworms Zoonotic: No Anoplocephala perfoliata adults are easily identified by their morphologic features (lappets just posterior to the scolex) and characteristic ovum with its pyriform apparatus. -The adults of all three species can cause granulation tissue at the site of attachment in the intestinal wall. -prepatent period 28 to 42 days -cysticercoid

Habronema microstoma, Habronema muscae, and Draschia megastoma Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses Location of Adult: Stomach mucosa Intermediate Host: Muscidae fly Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Delicate thread—Habronema; worm named for Dr. Drasch Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective Muscidae fly Common Name: Stomach worms of horses Zoonotic: No -H. microstoma and H. muscae reside on the mucosa of the stomach, just beneath a thick layer of mucus. D. megastoma is often associated with the formation of large, thickened fibrous nodules within the stomach mucosa -can cause skin lesions called summer sores -fecal flotation -eggs are elongate and thin walled -infection by ingestion of the fly -prepatent period 60 days

Eimeria siedae

Host: Lagomorph (rabbit) Location: Bile ducts Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of genus: Organism named after German zoologist Gustav Eimer Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Coccidia of rabbits Zoonotic: No variable mortality heavy infections can block bile ducts prepatent period 15-18 days

Amblyomma maculatum Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Larval and nymphal stages: ground birds; adult stage: cattle, horses, sheep, dogs, and humans Location of Adult: Attached to the skin of the host when feeding Distribution: Regions of high humidity such as the Atlantic Coast and Gulf Coast of the United States Derivation of Genus: Dull eye Transmission Route: Direct contact with infested vegetation Common Name: Gulf Coast tick -three hosttick -ccurs in high humidity areas -severe bites and painful swellings as wel as tick paralysis -silvery markings on scutum

Gasterophilus species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses and donkeys Location of Larva: Attached to horse's gastric mucosa Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Stomach loving Transmission Route: The adult female lays eggs on the horse's leg, the horse grooms itself, the larvae hatch and penetrate the mucosa Common Name: Bot flies (adults), horse bots (larvae) -During late summer and early fall, adult females fly around the fetlocks of the forelegs and the chin and shoulders of the horse to oviposit eggs on the hairs in these regions (Figure 13-33). This fly's activity and the accompanying oviposition cause extreme annoyance to the host. Some horses will panic because of the egg-laying activity of these flies. The bot fly eggs are small and white. The female fly "glues" each egg individually to single hairs on the leg of the horse (or appropriate location). Within each egg is a tiny fly larva (first-stage larva), which is ringed by several rows of backward-facing spines. -The abrasive tongue and accompanying saliva are a stimulus for the larvae to hatch from the eggs (Figure 13-34). The larvae penetrate the mucosa of the lips, tongue, and buccal cavity and migrate through the oral mucosa. They eventually emerge and migrate to the cardiac portion of the stomach, where they remain attached for 10 to 12 months. The larvae measure up to 20 mm in length, are red to brown, and possess dense spines on the anterior border of each body segment. -identified in fall

Chorioptes equi, Chorioptes bovis, Chorioptes caprae, and Chorioptes ovis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses, cattle, goats, and sheep, respectively Location of Adult: Surface of skin, particularly lower hind legs, flanks and shoulders, and on dairy cattle in the region of the escutcheon Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Membrane visible Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Foot and tail mites or itchy leg mite Zoonotic: No -These mites do not spread rapidly or extensively. They puncture the skin, causing serum to exude. Thin crusts of 240coagulated serum form on the skin surface. The skin eventually wrinkles and thickens, although pruritus is not severe. -the mites have characteristic short, unjointed pedicels with suckers on the ends of some of the legs

Trichostrongylus axei Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses, cattle, sheep, and pigs Location of Adult: Stomach Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Hair round Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective larvae Common Name: Stomach worms of horses and pigs Zoonotic: Yes but not common (per CDC) -egg is strongyle

Otobius megnini Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses, cattle, sheep, goats, and dogs Location of Adult: Environment of the animal; only larval and nymphal stages feed on the external ear canal of the animal Distribution: Associated with arid and semiarid regions of the southwestern United States but can be found throughout North America 256 Derivation of Genus: Ear way of life Transmission Route: Direct contact with infested environment Common Name: Spinose ear tick -soft tick -only larval and nymphal stages are parasitic -The nymphal stage of O. megnini is widest in the middle and is almost violin-shaped. It is covered with tiny backward-projecting spines, thus the name spinose. The larval and nymphal forms are usually found within the ears of the definitive host, thus the name ear tick. The body of the larval stage is covered with stout, tiny spines, whereas the nymphal stage resembles the adult tick on a smaller scale.

Dictyocaulus arnfieldi Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses, mules, and donkeys Location of Adult: Bronchi and bronchioles Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Netlike stalk Transmission Route: Ingestion of larvae Common Name: Equine lungworm Zoonotic: No -eggs are ellipsoidal and embryonate -fecal flotation -prepatent period is 42 to 56 days

trichostrongylus axei Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Horses, sheep, cattle, and pigs Location of Adult: Stomach Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Hair round Transmission Route: Ingestion of ova Common Name: Stomach worm of horses, cattle, sheep, and pigs Zoonotic: Yes but not common (per CDC) -can cross species lines and also parasitize cattle, sheep and horses -trichostrongyle egg -fecal culture and larval identification

Enterobius vermicularis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Humans Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Intestinal life Transmission Route: Ingestion of eggs Common Name: Human pinworm Zoonotic: No do not parasitize carnivores

Taenia saginata (adult tapeworm)/Cysticercus bovis (metacestode [larval] stage) Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Humans Location of Adult: Small intestine Intermediate Host: Cattle Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Flat band, bandage, or tape/bladder tail Transmission Route: Ingestion of raw or undercooked infective beef Common Name: Beef tapeworm of humans, beef measles, measly beef of cattle Zoonotic: Yes -unarmed -14 to 32 lateral branches of uterus -cysticercus -found in musculature of cottle

Trypanosoma cruzi Host Location Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route common name zoonotic

Host: Humans and occasionally canines Location: Peripheral blood Distribution: Primarily in Central and South America but occasionally in the southern United States Derivation of Genus: Borer body Transmission Route: Ingestion of intermediate host, reduviid bug, or feces of reduviid bug left on mucous membranes of the final host Common Name: Trypanosome Zoonotic: Yes

Cimex lectularius Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Humans, rabbits, poultry, and pigeons Location: On the host when feeding Distribution: North America, Europe, and Central Asia Derivation of Genus: Latin for bug Transmission Route: Periodic parasite Common Name: Bedbug -hemiptera -wingless with three segmented proboscis tucked under the thorax and ventral stink glands producing a characterstic bed bug odor

Ixodes scapularis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Larval and nymphal stages: mice and voles; adult stage: horses, dogs, deer, and humans Location of Adult: Attached to host for feeding, environment when not feeding, and can be found on tips of vegetation waiting for a host Distribution: United States east of the Ohio River Valley Derivation of Genus: Sticky, like bird-lime Transmission Route: Direct contact with life stage on tip of vegetation Common Name: Deer tick -hard bodied, three host tick -lack festoons(indentations or folds along margin of an external body part such as the scutum) -The palps (mouthparts) are long, and the anal groove surrounds the anus anteriorly. The adult females have a small scutum, whereas the males have a large scutum. Adult females engorge or swell up when they take a blood meal. The eggs laid by the female are tiny and round -requires blood meal before developing to next life stage or laying eggs

Haemaphysalis leporispalustris Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Larval and nymphal stages: rabbits, birds, and occasionally dogs, cats, and humans; adult stage: rabbits Location of Adult: Attached to the skin of the host when feeding Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Blood bladder or blood bubble Transmission Route: Direct contact with infested vegetation Common Name: Continental rabbit tick three host tick -feeds on birds which accounts for wide geographic range -laterally pointed angles formed at the base of the mouthparts -can spread RMSF, Q feer and tularemia

Dermacentor occidentalis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Larval and nymphal stages: small mammals; adult stage: large mammals such as dogs, deer, cattle, horses, sheep, rabbits, and humans Location of Adult: Attached to the skin of the host when feeding Distribution: Sierra Nevada Mountains to the Pacific Ocean Derivation of Genus: Skin stabber or skin puncturer Transmission Route: Direct contact with infested vegetation Common Name: Pacific Coast dog tick -eght festooned legs -adult has short palps and a hypostome -all stages are blood feeders and can act as vectors or intermediate hosts for pathogens

Amblyomma americanum Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Larval and nymphal stages: small mammals; adult stage: wide range of mammal hosts including humans Location of Adult: Attached to the skin of the host, particularly the ear Distribution: Southern United States, Midwest, and Atlantic Coast of the United States Derivation of Genus: Dull eye Transmission Route: Direct contact with infested vegetation Common Name: Lone star tick -white spot on apex of scutum -three host tick found most ofeen in spring and summer -vector for RMSF and tularemia

Dermacentor andersoni Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Larval and nymphal stages: small rodents; adult stage: dogs, horses, cattle, goats, sheep, and humans Location of Adult: Attached to the skin surface Distribution: Rocky Mountain regions but can travel on host to other parts of the United States and North America Derivation of Genus: Skin sticker or skin puncturer Transmission Route: Direct contact with infested vegetation Common Name: Rocky Mountain wood tick -an ornate tick, and the adult has eight festooned legs. The hypostome and palps are short, with the female having a small scutum and the male having a large scutum. The eggs tend to be tiny and round. The female tick can lay as many as 4000 eggs in her lifetime. The larval stage has six legs, whereas the nymph has eight legs. -primary vector for spread of RMSF

Ascaridia species Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Lovebirds, cockatiels, macaws, parakeets, poultry, and waterfowl Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Intestinal worm Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova Common Name: Ascarids of birds Zoonotic: No

Mallophagan species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Mammals and birds Location of Parasite: In and among the hairs and feathers of the respective hosts Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Wool eaters Transmission Route: Animal-to-animal contact Common Name: Chewing lice Zoonotic: No -dorsoventrally flattened, wingless -insect -yellow and have large rounded head -Damalinia bovis(cattle and fowl), Goniocotes gallinae, Menacanthus stramineus

Lutzomyia species and Phlebotomus species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Mammals of many species, reptiles, avians, and humans (Lutzomyia species); mammals, reptiles, avians, and humans (Phlebotomus species) Location of Adult: On the skin surface when feeding; otherwise in dark, moist, and organic environments 209 Distribution: Worldwide (Lutzomyia species); tropics, subtropics, and Mediterranean regions (Phlebotomus species) Derivation of Genus: Phlebotomus, vein cutting; Lutzomyia, Frank Eugene Lutz was a renowned entomologist, and myia means "fly" Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: New World sand flies (Lutzomyia species); sand flies (Phlebotomus species) -They are tiny mothlike flies, rarely more than 5 mm in length. A key feature for identification is that the body (head, thorax, and abdomen) is hirsute (covered with fine hairs). Lutzomyia and Phlebotomus species tend to be active only at night and are weak fliers. -can transmist Leishmania species -collected in field

Glossina species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Mammals, reptiles, avians, and humans Location of Adult: Skin surface when feeding Distribution: Continent of Africa Derivation of Genus: Little tongue Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: Tsetse fly (tsetse means "fly destructive to cattle" in Setswana, the language of Botswana and South Africa) -dipteran biting fly -bayonet like proboscis -both male and female are blood feeders -adutls have venated wings -female produces only four to six eggs during her lifetime -host for Trypanosoma species

Capillaria species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Pheasants, peafowl, and other poultry Location of Adult: Crop and upper alimentary tract Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Hairlike Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova or paratenic host, earthworm Common Name: Poultry capillarid Zoonotic: No

Anopheles quadrimaculatus, Aedes aegypti, and Culex species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Mammals, reptiles, avians, and humans Location of Adult: Skin surface when feeding Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Anopheles, hurtful; Aedes, unpleasant; Culex, gnat Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: Malaria mosquito (A. quadrimaculatus), yellow fever mosquito (A. aegypti), and mosquito (Culex species) -Anopheles quadrimaculatus females lay their eggs on the surface of still water. Each egg possesses two lateral corrugated areas called floats. These floats allow the eggs of A. quadrimaculatus to float on the water's still surface. At the tip of the Anopheles larval abdomen is a breathing pore that lacks a siphon. The larva floats parallel to the surface of the water and wriggles in the water if disturbed. The pupa floats right at the surface of the water and if disturbed will tumble down to a lower level within the water and slowly float back to the surface. -edes aegypti females lay their eggs on dry surfaces where water will accumulate. These eggs lack the floats of A. quadrimaculatus. The larval A. aegypti has three portions: head, thorax, and abdomen -Culex species females lay their eggs perpendicular to the surface of water to form a floating "egg raft." Although they are known for spreading malaria (Plasmodium spp.), yellow fever, and elephantiasis in humans, mosquitoes are probably best known in 211veterinary medicine as intermediate hosts for the canine heartworm, Dirofilaria immitis.

Myobia musculi, Myocoptes musculinus, and Radfordia affinis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Mice Location of Adult: Hair shafts Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Unknown Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Mouse fur mites Zoonotic: No -M. musculi and R. affinis have empodia(claw like features) -pathogenicity varies greatly with host and degree of infestation

Hymenolepis nana and Hymenolepis diminuta Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Mice, rats, gerbils, hamsters, dogs, and humans Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Membrane covering Intermediate Host: None necessary (H. nana); fleas, flour beetles, and other arthropods (H. diminuta) Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective fleas, grain beetle, or cockroach (H. diminuta); ingestion of infective egg or autoinfection (H. nana) Common Name: Rodent tapeworm Zoonotic: H. nana: Yes; H. diminuta: No -true tapeworm -usually detected on postmortem in small intestine -unarmed -H nana has direct life cycle, H. diminuta requires intermediate host The eggs of H. nana are passed in the feces and are swallowed by a host. The hexacanth enters the villus of the small intestine and matures into a nontailed cysticercoid. The cysticercoid returns to the lumen of the small intestine, attaches to the lining, and matures to adulthood. H. diminuta also passes its eggs in the feces, which are ingested by an intermediate arthropod host. The hexacanth six-toothed embryo (embryo containing three pairs of hooks) matures into a tailed cysticercoid. The arthropod is ingested by a definitive host, and the cysticercoid attaches to the lining of the small intestine and matures into an adult.

Syphacia obvelata, Aspiculuris tetraptera, and Syphacia muris Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Mice—A. tetraptera; mice, rats, hamsters, and gerbils—Syphacia species Location of Adult: Cecum and rectum Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Syphacia—love together; Aspiculuris—toward a small tail Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova and retrograde infection Common Name: Pinworms Zoonotic: No -aka oxyurids -mice carry light to medium loads without demonstrating clinical signs

Polyplax serrata Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Mouse Location of Parasite: Within hair coat Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Many plates Transmission Route: Direct contact between mice Common Name: Mouse louse Zoonotic: No -anopluran -slender brown to white loase with narrow head -clinical signs are restlessness, pruirtus, anemia, unthrify appearance and death -transmitted through direct contact

Tetratrichomonas microti and muris

Host: Mouse Location: Small intestine, cecum, and colon Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Four hair unit, three hair unit Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Flagellates of mice Zoonotic: No Generallly nonpathogenic Three or four anterior flagella Both have trailing caudal flagellum

Millipedes Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: None Location: Free in the environment Derivation of common Name: Thousand legged Distribution: Truly poisonous millipedes in jungles and dense vegetation worldwide with exception of North America Transmission Route: Not transmitted Common Name: Millipede -vegetarian -two pairs of legs for every body segment -below each leg are glands that contain caustic substances

Blister beetle Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: None Location: Free in the environment Distribution: Continental United States and Canada Derivation of Genus: Based on individual type of beetle Transmission Route: Usually ingested Common Name: Blister beetles -produce cantharidin(toxic substance) -hide in hay and can be fed to horses which can result in fatal colic

Centipedes Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: None Location: Free in the environment Distribution: Truly poisonous centipedes in jungles and dense vegetation worldwide with the exception of North America Derivation of Name: Hundred legged Common Name: Centipede Transmission Route: Not transmitted -poison claws on anterior end that connect to large poision glands -one pair of legs for every body segment

Aegyptianella sp.

Host: Pet birds Location of Adult: Within RBCs Distribution: Primarily in the Mediterranean areas Derivation of Genus: Little organism from Egypt Transmission Route: Bite of an argasid tick Common Name: Aegyptianella Zoonotic: No

Metastrongylus elongatus Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Pigs Location of Adult: Bronchi and bronchioles Intermediate Host: Earthworm Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: After round Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective earthworm Common Name: Swine lungworm Zoonotic: No -fecal flotation with medium >1.25 -prepatent period is 24 days -clinical symptoms are coughing, reduced growth rate and unthriftiness

Trichuris suis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Pigs Location of Adult: Cecum and colon Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Hair tail Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova Common Name: Whipworm of pigs Zoonotic: No -thick brown barrel shaped shell with polar plugs at both ends -prepatent period is 42 to 49 days

Stephanurus dentatus Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Pigs Location of Adult: Cystic spaces connected to the kidneys, ureters, and perirenal tissue Intermediate Host: Earthworm Distribution: Tropical and subtropical regions Derivation of Genus: Encircling the urinary system Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective intermediate host, earthworm, or percutaneous Common Name: Swine kidney worm Zoonotic: No -4-16 cells -eggs recovered from urine sediment -prepatent period 9 to 24 months -clinical signs are anorexia, decreased growth rate and weight loss -damage comes from larval migration

Oesophagostomum dentatum Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Pigs Location of Adult: Large intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Esophagus mouth; carry food mouth Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective larvae Common Name: Nodular worm of pigs Zoonotic: No -larval stages induce formation of large nodules within the wall of the large inestine -prepatent period is 50 days -trichostrongyl, oval thin shelled eggs -4-16 cells -fecal flotation

Strongyloides ransomi Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Pigs Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Roundlike Transmission Route: Transmammary (through the colostrum), percutaneous Common Name: Intestinal threadworm of pigs Zoonotic: No -parthenogenetic females -prepatent period 3-7 days -fecal flotation -transmission through colostrum

Ascaris suum Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Pigs Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Worm Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova Common Name: Swine ascarid or large intestinal roundworm of pigs Zoonotic: No -largest nematode found in small intestine -can cause intestinal obstruction -the larvae hatch and migrate to the liver where they grow to meet larval stage and then migrate to the circulatory system and eventually to instestines -standard fecal flotation -clinical signs reduced growth rate, weight loss, respiratory symptoms.

Hyostrongylus rubidus Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Pigs Location of Adult: Stomach Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: U-shaped and round Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova Common Name: Red stomach worm of pigs Zoonotic: No -red stomach worm -trichostrongyle eg -morula with four or more cells -fecal culture and larval identification -prepatent period 20 days -clinical signs are dehydration, weight loss, diarrhea and anemia

Ascarops strongylina and Physocephalus sexalatus Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Pigs Location of Adult: Stomach Distribution: Worldwide Intermediate Host: Beetle Derivation of Genus: Ascarops—Late worm; Physocephalus—Air head Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective beetle Common Name: Stomach worms of pigs Zoonotic: No -thick worms of the porcine stomach -thick walled, lariated eggs that can be recovered on fecal flotation. Thick shell with thin membrane -prepatent period is 42 days -clinical signs include anemia, diarrhea and weight loss

Trichinella spiralis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Pigs can serve as both definitive and intermediate hosts. Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide but does not occur in Australia or Denmark Derivation of Name: Small hair Transmission Route: Ingestion of contaminated raw and undercooked meat, usually pork Common Name: Trichina worm Zoonotic: Yes -very fine slender adult worm -intermediate and definitive host may be same animal -undercooked pork -encyst in muscle tissue

Ornithonyssus sylviarum and Dermanyssus gallinae Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Poultry Location of Adult: On the skin of poultry (O. sylviarum); in the environment of poultry (D. gallinae) Distribution: Worldwide in temperate zones (O. sylviarum); worldwide (D. gallinae) Derivation of Genus: Bird piercer (Ornithonyssus); skin piercer (Dermanyssus) Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host (O. sylviarum); direct contact with infested environment (D. gallinae) Common Name: Northern fowl mite (O. sylviarum); red fowl mite (D. gallinae) Zoonotic: No -O. sylviarum is a 1-mm, elongate-to-oval mite with eight legs usually found on birds; it also may be found on nests or within poultry houses. The adults are sparsely covered with setae. orthern mite of poultry, feeds intermittently on birds, producing irritation, weight loss, decreased egg production, anemia, and even death. -D. gallinae except the anus is on the anterior surface of the anal plate and is approximately 1 mm in length; elongate to oval; whitish, grayish, or black; and feeds on birds. This mite has a distinct red color when it has recently fed on its host's blood, thus its common name the red fowl mite.

Hemodipsus ventricosus Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Rabbit 207 Location of Adult: Within the hair coat Distribution: Not found Derivation of Genus: Unknown Transmission Route: Direct animal-to-animal contact Common Name: Rabbit louse Zoonotic: No Clinical signs of H. ventricosus include alopecia and ruffled fur. Rabbit lice are avid bloodsuckers, so anemia may occur in severe infestations.

Passalurus ambiguus Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Rabbits Location of Adult: Cecum and colon Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Tailed worm named for a researcher named Passal Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective ova Common Name: Pinworm of rabbits Zoonotic: No -nonpathogenic in domestic and cottontail rabbits

Listrophorus gibbus Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Rabbits Location of Adult: Hair shafts Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Not found Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Rabbit fur mite Zoonotic: No -dorsal hoodlike projection covering the mouthparts

Obeliscoides cuniculi and Trichostrongylus calcaratus Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Rabbits Location of Adult: Stomach (O. cuniculi) and small intestine (T. calcaratus) Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Round hair (T. calcaratus); Obeliscoides, shaped like a pointed pillar Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective larvae Common Name: Trichostrongyles of rabbits Zoonotic: No

Cuterebra species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Rabbits, squirrels, mice, rats, chipmunks, occasionally dogs and cats Location of Larva: Areas around the head and neck Distribution: North America Derivation of Genus: Skin borer Transmission Route: Direct contact with first-stage larvae Common Name: Warbles or wolves -The adult flies look almost exactly like bumblebees -Second-stage larvae are grublike, 5 to 10 mm long, and cream to grayish white; this stage is often sparsely covered with tiny, black, toothlike spines. Third-stage larvae are large, robust, and coal black with a heavily spined appearance; they are up to 3 cm in length. Larval stages are usually found in swollen, cystlike subcutaneous sites, with a fistula (pore or hole) communicating to the outside environment (Figure 13-30). It is through this pore that the larval Cuterebra breathes. -erratic migrationms -Great care must be taken not to crush the larva during the extraction process because anaphylaxis may result.

Leucocytozoon species

Host: Raptors Location: Within WBCs Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: White cell organism Transmission Route: Bite of infected black flies, Simulium species Common Name: Leucocytozoon Zoonotic: No Greatly distorts shape and appearance of the WBC. Most infections subclinical but deaths have been reported

Polyplax spinulosa Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Rat Location of Adult: Within the hair coat Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Many plates Transmission Route: Direct animal-to-animal contact Common Name: Rat louse Zoonotic: No -anopluran louse -Clinical signs include restlessness, pruritus, anemia, debilitation, and potentially death.

Radfordia ensifera Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Rats Location of Adult: Hair shafts Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Unknown Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Rat fur mite Zoonotic: No -empodial claws of the second pair of legs

Trichosomoides crassicauda Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Rats Location of Adult: Urinary bladder Distribution: Worldwide 76 Derivation of Genus: Body shaped like a hair Transmission Route: Ingestion of ova from urine (urinary-oral route) Common Name: Bladder worm of the rat Zoonotic: No -visible on wall of urinary bladder -males are neotenic meaning they reside in the vagina of the immature female -resemble whipworm eggs -diagnosed by observation of eggs in urine, gross observation at postmortem of worms in wall of bladder or microscopic observation of adult worms in histopath

Eimeria nieschultzi

Host: Rats Location: Intestines Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Named after zoologist Gustav Eimer Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Coccidia of rats Zoonotic: No 16 to 26 µm × 13 to 21 µm, with no residuum. It has a smooth or colorless wall with no micropyle. The sporulated oocyst contains four oval sporocysts, each with a small Stieda body and a residuum.

Ornithonyssus bacoti Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Rats and mice; can infect hamsters and guinea pigs 247 Location of Adult: In host environment most of life cycle; on skin surface when feeding Distribution: Tropical and subtropical climates Derivation of Genus: Bird piercer Transmission Route: Direct contact with contaminated environment Common Name: Tropical rat mite Zoonotic: No -This mite is unusual in that it spends most of its life cycle off the host animal, in the host's environment. Both male and female mites are bloodsuckers. The females are larger than the males. These mites may be filled with blood, which produces a reddish-brown color, or if they have not fed, they may be white. -can carry rickettsial organisms tha can be transmitted to humans

Eimeria species Host Location Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route common name zoonotic

Host: Ruminants Location: Cecum and colon Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Named after the famous zoologist Gustav Eimer Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Coccidia Zoonotic: No

Elaeophora schneideri Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Sheep Location of Adult: Common carotid artery Distribution: Western and southwestern United States Derivation of Genus: Bearing oil Transmission Route: Bite of an infective horse fly, Tabanus species Common Name: Arterial worms of sheep Zoonotic: No -Diagnosis of E. schneideri is by observation of characteristic lesions and identification of microfilariae in the skin. The most satisfactory means of diagnosis is to macerate a piece of skin in warm saline and examine the fluid for microfilariae after about 2 hours. In sheep, microfilariae are rare and may not be found in the skin of affected animals. Postmortem examination may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis of adult parasites within the common carotid arteries. The prepatent period for E. schneideri is months or longer.

Muellerius capillaris Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Sheep and goats 56 Location of Adult: Bronchioles Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: A parasite named for Dr. Mueller Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective larvae Common Name: Hair lungworm of sheep and goats Zoonotic: No can obstruct bronchioles -eggs develop in definite host and first stage larvae are coughed up, swallowed and passed out with feces -tail has undulating tip and dorsal spine

Melophagus ovinus Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Sheep and goats Location of Adult: Deep within the sheep's wool or the goat's fleece Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Sheep eater Transmission Route: Direct contact with infested animals Common Name: Sheep ked -wingless dipterans -retain one larva in abdomen until ready to deposit it in sheep or goat's fleece -entire life cycle takes place on host -most numerous in cooler temperatures

Protostrongylus species Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Sheep and goats Location of Adult: Small bronchioles Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: First round Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective larvae Zoonotic: No -can cause obstruction of broncioles -eggs develop in lungs of definitive host -larval tail has an undulating tip but lacks a dorsal spine -coughed up swallowed and passed into feces -Baermann technique

Oestrus ovi Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Sheep and goats Location of Larva: Nasal passages Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Gadfly Transmission Route: Adult female flies from host to host and lays larvae in the nares Common Name: Nasal bot fly (adult); grub (larvae) -produce respiratory myiasis -This tiny white-to-yellow larva crawls upward into the nostrils and sinuses of the sheep or goat, often producing a purulent rhinitis or sinusitis -The veterinary diagnostician should be able to identify the large dark-brown bots as they pass out of the nostrils

Psoroptes ovis, Psoroptes bovis, and Psoroptes equi Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Sheep, cattle, and horses, respectively Location of Adult: Skin surface on the body (P. ovis); withers, neck, and rump (P. bovis); and mane and tail (P. equi) Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Scabby 239 Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Scabies mites of sheep, cattle, and horses, respectively Zoonotic: No -The adults are eight-legged with an oval shape. Each mite possesses a sucker on the ends of some of its legs. If present, the sucker is connected to the legs by a pedicel -wool falls out over lesions and animals will rub causing wool damage -reportable parasite

Thysanosoma actinoides Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Sheep, goats, and cattle Location of Adult: Lumen of the bile duct, pancreatic ducts, and small intestine Intermediate Host: Unknown, proposed hosts are psocids Distribution: North and South America Derivation of Genus: Fringed body Transmission Route: Ingestion of unknown intermediate host Common Name: Fringed tapeworm of sheep and goats Zoonotic: No -unarmed -very prominent fringe -eggs occur in packets of 6 to 12 eggs -fecal flotation

Gongylonema pulchrum Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Sheep, goats, cattle, and occasionally pigs and horses Location of Adult: Submucosa and mucosa of the esophagus Distribution: Worldwide Intermediate Host: Dung beetle or cockroach Derivation of Genus: Worms with bumps Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective intermediate host, dung beetle, or cockroach Common Name: Esophageal worm of ruminants Zoonotic: No -zigzag fashion within the tissues -ova can be identified by fecal flotation

Dermacentor variabilis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Small mammals, dogs, and humans Location of Adult: Attached to skin when feeding Distribution: Primarily the eastern two thirds of the United States but can be found throughout the United States Derivation of Genus: Skin stabber or skin puncturer Transmission Route: Direct contact with life stage at tip of infested vegetation Common Name: American dog tick or wood tick -D. variabilis tick inhabits only grassy, scrub-brush areas, especially roadsides and pathways -three-host tick -vector for RMSF, tularemia and other microbes -tick paralysis -This tick has an ornate scutum that is dark brown with white striping

Balantidium coli Host location Distribution Derivation Transmission Common name zoonotic

Host: Swine and occasionally canines Location: Large intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Name: Small bag Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Balantidium Zoonotic: Yes (per The Merck Veterinary Manual)

Trichuris vulpis, Trichuris campanula, and Trichuris serrata Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: T. vulpis, canine; T. campanula and T. serrata, feline Location of Adult: Cecum and colon Distribution: Worldwide, but T. campanula and T. serrata are rare in North America Derivation of Genus: Hair tail Transmission Route: Ingestion of eggs Common Name: Whipworm Zoonotic: No -canine common, feline rare -adults have thin filamentous anterior end and a thick posterior end -prepatent period is 70 to 90 days -fecal flotation minimum of 15 minutes before viewing

Lynchia species and Pseudolynchia specie Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Host: Wild birds Location of Adult: Deep within the feathers Distribution: Tropical and subtropical regions Derivation of Genus: Unknown Transmission Route: Direct contact with infested bird Common Name: Bird keds -winged -on end of leg is a claw designed to grip the feathers -retain a single larvae until ready to deposit it

Cystoisospora spp. Host Location distribution trasmission route common name zoonotic

Host: canine, feline and swine Location: small intestine Distribution: worldwide transmission route: ingestion of oocysts common name: coccidia zoonotic: no derivation of genus: equal seeds, sac same spore

HOD

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy; developmental disease that causes disruption of metaphyseal trabeculae in long bones of young, rapidly growing dogs.

Why is low protein of concern for anesthesia?

Hypoproteinemia usually results from decreased protein production by the liver or increased loss from the gastrointestinal tract or kidneys or from blood loss. Many anesthetics circulate in the blood partially bound to plasma proteins and partially free. Only the portion of the drug that is free and unbound can exert an effect. In patients with hypoproteinemia, the unbound portion proportionately increases, increasing drug potency. Hypoproteinemic patients also have difficulty maintaining adequate blood volume and may develop tissue edema because of the decreased oncotic pressure in the vascular system. For these reasons, a PP less than 4.0 g/dL in a patient of any species should be reported immediately.

What can cause hypotension in anesthetic patients?

Hypovolemia-excessive blood loss or dehydration reducing the volme of the vascular space Cardiac insufficiency-Weak or leaking heart Excessive vasodilation=drugs causing vasodilation, blood pools, venous return to the heart is decreased and BP drops Anesthetic depth-deeper anesthesia causes lower blood pressure

Describe mesocestoides life cycle

If it is ingested by an oribatid mite, it develops into a cysticercoid within that mite (much like the cysticercoids of Dipylidium, Moniezia, Thysanosoma, and Anoplocephala species). If this cysticercoid-containing mite is ingested by a mouse or reptile, the cysticercoid develops into a tetrathyridium, a solid-bodied metacestode stage with a deeply invaginated, acetabular scolex (Figure 6-45). This tetrathyridium is approximately 1 cm in diameter and is capable of multiplying exponentially; that is, one tetrathyridium becomes two, two become four, four become eight, and so on (Figures 6-46 and 6-47). This type of asexual reproduction produces large numbers of tetrathyridia that are infective to the canine or feline definitive host. The tetrathyridia multiply in the body of the second intermediate host and are often confined to the serous cavities, particularly the peritoneal cavity (Figure 6-48), and other internal organs such as the liver (Figures 6-49 and 6-50). Tetrathyridia often multiply so much within the abdominal cavity that they greatly 117expand the girth of the intermediate host. When ingested by the definitive host, each tetrathyridium becomes an adult tapeworm within the intestine of that definitive host.

How is the ET tube cuff treated differently for ruminants?

In contrast to the norm for other species, the endotracheal tube cuff should either be kept inflated or only partially deflated in ruminants in order to prevent aspiration of any material that may have become lodged in the pharynx during anesthesia. The anesthetist should wait for strong swallowing movements or coughing before extubation. Both before and after tube removal, keep the neck in a natural, but slightly extended, position to protect the airway. Remove the endotracheal tube gently using a slow, steady motion. If there is difficulty removing the tube, remove some more air from the cuff and try again.

What is a semiclosed rebreathing system?

In contrast, a semiclosed rebreathing system (also called a partial rebreathing system) is one in which the pop-off valve is positioned partially open, and more oxygen is added than the patient requires. In this system, a portion of the gases is recirculated, but the amount beyond the volume that is used by the patient exits through the pop-off valve into the scavenging system. This type of system is relatively easy to use and meets the needs of the majority of patients. For this reason it is the most common machine configuration used in clinical practice.

What happens in deep Stage III anesthesia?

In deep Stage III anesthesia, significant depression of circulation and respiration is often present, and for this reason this plane is considered to be excessively deep. In the dog or cat, the HR and RR are low and the tidal volume (VT) is significantly decreased. HR, RR, VT, and BP are non-responsive to surgical stimulation

Describe the procedure for an OVH.

In dogs the start of the incision can be made 3 to 6 cm caudal to the umbilicus. In cats the incision should be started 3 to 4 cm caudally. An incision should be made through the skin (Figure 7-30) and the subcutaneous tissue and linea alba (Figure 7-31). The length of the inci- sion is the surgeon's preference. The left abdominal wall is raised and the spay hook is slid down against the abdominal wall to grasp the horn of the uterus. The hook should be turned to trap the uterine horn, which can then be elevated from the abdomen. In dogs the suspensory ligament should be torn without tearing the ovarian vessels; this maneuver allows exteriorization of the ovary. Tearing the suspensory liga- ment is generally not necessary to exteriorize a cat's ovary. Plucking of the ligament is the most painful portion of the procedure. The animal's heart rate and respiratory rate generally increases at this time. Once the pedicle has been ligated the heart rate and respiratory rate should return to normal anesthetized levels. The method of liga- tion and transection of the pedicle is the surgeon's prefer- ence. Surgeons may decide to use clips, the two-clamp method, or the three-clamp method (Figure 7-32). Carmalt, Kelly, or Crile forceps (see Chapter 1) may be used for clamping the pedicles. The forceps used depends on the size of the pedicle. Two clamps should be placed across the ovarian pedicle, proximal (deep) to the ovary, and one clamp across the ovarian ligament. The surgeon then places a ligature proximal to the ovarian pedicle clamp and securely ties the ligature. One clamp may be removed or "flashed" (unclamped and then reclamped) while the surgeon tightens the ligature. Flash- ing is done to compress the pedicle and secure the ligature so that it is less likely to slide off once the pedicle is tran- sected. If the ligature is not secure and slides off the pedicle, the pedicle will bleed, and the patient could lose a significant amount of blood and die. If the ligature slides off, the pedicle must be isolated (this may require extend- ing the incision more cranially) and the ligature replaced. A second ligature is placed proximal to the first (therefore flashing is not necessary to secure the second ligature) to provide additional security in preventing hemorrhage. The pedicle can then be transected at the level of the third clamp, between the clamp and the ovary. The same pro- cedure can be done for the other uterine horn. The body of the uterus should then be exteriorized, and a two-clamp or three-clamp method can be used. The clamps are placed onto the uterine body, cranial to the cervix. A ligature is placed closer to the cervix (Figure 7-33). A clamp should be placed distal to the ligatures. The surgeon then transects the uterine body between the clamp and the ligatures. The uterine stump should be checked for hemorrhage.

life cycle of true tapeworm

In most cases the gravid proglottids of the true tapeworm pass to the outside environment, sometimes singly and sometimes in chains, one behind the other. These proglottids rupture in the external environment and release thousands of hexacanth embryos, or eggs, to the outside environment (Figure 5-9). To continue the life cycle, the egg must be ingested by a suitable intermediate host, either an invertebrate or a vertebrate. Within this host, the egg develops into a metacestode stage, or larval tapeworm. The metacestode may take one of several forms: cysticercoid, cysticercus, coenurus, hydatid cyst, or tetrathyridium. These larval stages differ in their choice of host, their structure, their predilection site, and their pathogenicity to the intermediate host. Sometimes the metacestode, or larval stage of the tapeworm, is more pathogenic to the intermediate host than the adult or mature 89tapeworm is to the definitive host. The definitive host becomes infected by ingesting the intermediate host containing the metacestode stage. The "juvenile," or developing, tapeworm emerges from the metacestode stage, attaches to the lining of the small intestine, and begins to produce the strobila, which is composed of proglottids.

How is an esophageal stethoscope used?

In positioning the esophageal stethoscope, special sensory plastic tubing is placed in the esophagus next to the heart. The tubing is passed through the mouth into the esophagus. The endotracheal (ET) tube prevents the esophageal stethoscope tubing from entering the trachea. The heart sounds can be heard through ear pieces, or an amplifier can be attached to broadcast the sound (Figures 56 and 57). If the end of the tubing is adjacent to the lung fields, breath sounds will be heard.

Where are pulses most easily detected in dogs and cats?

In the conscious dog and cat the pulse is most easily palpated at the femoral artery, on the medial side of the rear leg.

What happens if the pop off valve is not left open?

In the event that it is not left at least partially open, the pressure in the breathing circuit will exceed safe limits and make it difficult or impossible for the animal to exhale. When this happens, the reservoir bag will assume the appearance of an inflated beach ball. If not corrected, the pressure 120will eventually exceed the maximal safe level (see the discussion of pressure manometers on p. 121) and may lead to ruptured alveoli and pneumothorax, a life-threatening complication.

What is the function of the air intake vavle?

In the event that the machine malfunctions, it provides room oxygen so the patient isnt without oxygen

When should an oxygen flush valve never be used?

In these cases the oxygen flush valve must not be used with a non-rebreathing system attached because a high flow rate of oxygen into this type of circuit can seriously damage the animal's lungs.

How does the oxygen flow in a rebreathing system?

Just as in a rebreathing system, oxygen (and nitrous oxide gas, if used) flows from the tank, through a flowmeter, and into the vaporizer. After exiting the vaporizer, however, the gases follow a different path. Instead of routing the fresh gas into the circle as occurs with a rebreathing system, the fresh gas is routed directly to the patient. Exhaled gases pass through another hose, then in most systems enter a reservoir bag, and ultimately are released into the scavenging system through an overflow valve or other exit port. In this system a 123carbon dioxide absorbent is not needed, because exhaled gases are vented from the system immediately after exhalation.

What are the pieces of equipment that are selected based on the patients weight?

The appropriate choice of a machine (large animal versus small animal), reservoir bag, breathing tubes, oxygen flow rates, and breathing circuit type is based on the patient's body weight.

ischemia

Lack of blood supply

coenurus

Large sac containing many "inside out" scolices

What is EMLA cream

Lidocaine 2.5% and Prilocaine 2.5% used to desenstive intact skin for superficial minor procedures

What are the symptoms of a strongyloides papillosus infection?

Light infections may be asymptomatic, but heavy infections produce diarrhea, anorexia, blood and mucus in the feces, and weight loss.

What are the symptoms of E. stiedae infections?

Light infections with E. stiedae usually produce no clinical signs. Heavier infections may cause blockage of the bile ducts and impaired liver function, resulting in icterus and a distended abdomen caused by liver enlargement. Diarrhea or constipation and anorexia may be noted. At necropsy, white, 180dilated nodules are likely to be seen in the liver

What are the species of dipteran larvae capable of producing facultative myiasis in the skin?

M. domestica, the housefly; Calliphora, Phaenicia, Lucilia, and Phormia species, the blowflies, or bottle flies; and Sarcophaga species, the flesh flies.

How would you calculate HR from ECG reading?

Method #1 to determine the HR a) Locate a 3- or 6-second segment of the tracing. b) Count the number of QRS complexes in that time. Multiply the number by 20 or 10 respectively to calculate the HR in bpm. Method #2 to determine the HR (to be used only if the R-R intervals are uniform) a) Determine the number of 1-mm boxes between two R waves. b) Divide this number into 3000 if recorded with a paper speed of 50 mm/sec or into 1500 if recorded with a paper speed of 25 mm/sec.

microdrip

Microdrip sets deliver fluids at a rate of 60 drops per milliliter and are used for infusion rates less than 100 mL/hr

What type of pain is buprenorphine used for?

Mild to moderate

What stages of anesthesia is the palpebral reflex present>

Most animals retain the palpebral reflex in light Stage III anesthesia and lose it during surgical anesthesia

What position should a patient by placed in for an OVH?

Most patients are positioned in dorsal recumbency for OHE. This positioning is best suited for a ventral midline incision. Some surgeons may prefer a lateral (flank) approach to the abdomen for an OHE, which requires positioning the patient in lateral recumbency. The ventral abdomen should be clipped and aseptically prepared from the xiphoid process to the pubis.

What are the differences between multifilament and monofilament sutures?

Multifilament-"braided", has two or more strands braided together to form single strand. Tend to be treated to slow absorption of suture. Has less knot slippage monofilament-tends to have less tissue drag

What is the recommended fasting time for neonates and pediatric patients less than 8 weeks old?

None

Why is plasma protein of concern for anesthesia?

The PP is a measurement of blood protein including albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen. As with an elevated PCV, hyperproteinemia may be associated with dehydration and the same potential adverse consequences mentioned previously.

What are the objectives methods of monitoring sedation without general anesthesia?

Objective To ensure adequate oxygenation and hemodynamic stability in the obtunded patient Methods 1. Palpation of pulse rate, rhythm, and quality 2. Observation of MM color and CRT 3. Observation of respiratory rate and pattern 4. Auscultation 5. Pulse oximetry 6. Oxygen supplementation

What are the objectives and methods for record keeping?

Objectives 1. To maintain a legal record of significant events related to the anesthetic period 2. To enhance recognition of significant trends or unusual values for physiologic parameters and allow assessment of the response to intervention Recommendations 1. Record all drugs administered to each patient in the perianesthetic period and in early recovery, noting the dose, time, and route of administration, as well as any adverse reaction to a drug or drug combination 2. Record monitored variables on a regular basis (minimum every 5 to 10 minutes) during anesthesia. The minimum variables that should be recorded are heart rate and respiratory rate, as well as oxygenation status and blood pressure if these were monitored 3. Record heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature in the early recovery phase 4. Any untoward events or unusual circumstances should be recorded for legal reasons, and for reference should the patient require anesthesia in the future

When was the first recorded controlled use of anesthesia?

October 16, 1846 is an especially significant date in the history of anesthesia because it was on this day that Boston dentist William T. G. Morton gave the first successful demonstration of the pain-relieving properties of diethyl ether at Massachusetts General Hospital. To the amazement of the physicians and medical students in attendance, on receiving the ether, the patient, who was undergoing removal of a tumor, entered a state of insensibility during which the tumor was successfully removed and the surgical pain was alleviated.

Describe the declaw procedure

Once the foot has been scrubbed, a tourniquet should be positioned distal to the elbow and tightened. Placing the tourniquet proximal to the elbow can lead to radial nerve damage (Figure 7-62). At this time a nerve block may be performed (Figure 7-63). For the Rescoe technique, extend the claw cranially and position the blade on the dorsal surface of the digit between the second and third phalanges. Care must be exercised to avoid cutting the footpad. As the cutting blade of the nail trimmer is advanced, the pad should be moved caudally and the nail should be rotated dorsally and caudally. This process is repeated for each digit. With the blade technique, a No. 12 scalpel blade is used to excise the third phalanx. First the collateral ligaments are cut, and then the nail itself is cut away from the pad and underlying tissue. For both the Rescoe and blade techniques, sutures or surgical glue can be placed to appose the skin edges after nail removal. If glue is used it should not be placed on exposed bone or dropped into the wound. The wound should be closed first, and then a drop of glue added. Paws are bandaged snugly with gauze and tape. Care must be taken not to make the bandage too tight, as vascular compromise and skin sloughing could occur. Once the bandage has been placed, the tourniquet can be removed The last technique uses a laser to disarticulate the third phalanx. A tourniquet is not necessary with this proce- dure because the site does not typically bleed when cut with the laser. Saline-soaked sponges are needed to cover the remainder of the cat's foot, all instruments, and the surgeon's fingers. The sponges prevent burning by absorb- ing the extra energy given off by the laser.

Treatment of the umbilical cord

Once the newborn has been stabilized with an ade- quate respiratory rate and an adequate heart rate, the umbilical cord can be ligated and transected approxi- mately 1 to 2 cm from the body (Figure 7-40). The new- borns should be kept in a warm environment (about 90° F) until the mother's surgery is complete, and oxygen supplementation may be a necessary part of a successful resuscitation

Describe open gloving

Open gloving is another method that enables the scrubbed personnel to glove themselves. The open-gloving method should not be used routinely for surgical gowning and gloving. The closed or assisted technique is preferred, but the open method is used if one glove becomes contami- nated in surgery and an assistant is not available to perform assisted gloving. Open gloving is also used when only the hands need to be sterile and no gown is needed, such as for minor surgical procedures, bone marrow biopsies, or catheterizations. For open gloving in surgery, instead of leaving the hands in the sleeves of the surgical gown, the hands are extended all the way through the cuff and the sleeves. The hands are entirely exposed. The fol- lowing technique is used for the open gloving technique. With the left hand, pick up the right glove by grasping the cuff on the "future" inside surface ("nonsterile" surface) of the fold only (Figure 3-29). Gently guide the fingers into the glove, leaving the cuff well turned over the hand. Keep the thumb in the palm of the hand until it is well inside the glove. Do not adjust the cuff (Figures 3-30 Place the gloved fingers of the right hand under the everted left glove cuff, on the sterile side of the left glove (Figure 3-32). Slide the fingers of the left hand into the glove, keeping the thumb inside the palm of the hand, until inside the glove. Pull the glove on all the way (Figures 3-33 and 3-34). With the left hand, slide the fingers under the outside edge of the right cuff and unfold it by stretching it up the wrist. Avoid touching any bare, exposed skin (Figure 3-35).

What materials are ET tubes made from?

PVC, silicone or red rubber

What are the adverse effects of oxymorphone?

Panting-dogs hyperresponsive to sound bradycardia`

parasitiasis

Parasite present on host and is potentially pathogenic, but animal exhibits no outward signs

Homoxenous parasite

Parasite that will infect only one type of host; also called monoxenous parasite.

Babesia bigemina Host Location Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route common name zoonotic

Parasite: Babesia bigemina Host: Bovines Location: Within RBCs Distribution: Europe, Africa, Asia, North and South America Derivation of Genus: Named after the famous bacteriologist Victor Babès 169 Transmission Route: Bite of an infective Boophilus annulatus tick Common Name: Babesia Zoonotic: No

Babesia canis Host Location Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route common name zoonotic

Parasite: Babesia canis Host: Canine Location: Within RBCs Distribution: Europe, Africa, Asia, North and South America Derivation of Genus: Named after the famous bacteriologist Victor Babès Transmission Route: Bite of an infective intermediate host, tick Common Name: Babesia or canine piroplasm Zoonotic: No

Baylisascaris procyonis Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Parasite: Baylisascaris procyonis Host: Raccoon, but also seen in many species Location of Adult: Small intestine Distribution: North America (Mississippi-Ohio River basin) Derivation of Genus: Named after a renowned parasitologist, Dr. H.A. Baylis Transmission Route: Ingestion of eggs Common Name: Raccoon roundworm Zoonotic: Yes -Fecal flotation -larvae migrate into central nervous system

Cystoisospora serini

Parasite: Cystoisospora serini Host: Canaries and finches Location: Lung, liver, and spleen Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Same bladder organism Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocyst during sexual stage Common Name: Coccidia or atoxoplasmosis Zoonotic: No ' An asexual cycle occurs in the liver, lungs, and spleen causing inflammation to these organs. This parasite is best visualized on organ impression smears of the lung, liver, and spleen.

Eimeria irresidua, Eimeria magna, Eimeria media, and Eimeria perforans

Parasite: Eimeria irresidua, Eimeria magna, Eimeria media, and Eimeria perforans Host: Lagomorph (rabbit) Location: Small intestine; E. media also affects the large intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Organism named after German zoologist Gustav Eimer Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Coccidia of rabbits Zoonotic: No The oocysts of E. irresidua are 38 × 26 µm and ovoid. The wall of the oocyst is smooth and light yellow. There is a wide micropyle, with no polar 179granules or residuum. Sporocysts within the oocyst are also ovoid, with both a body and a residuum. Antemortem diagnosis depends on recognition of the mature oocyst along with clinical signs, which may include severe hemorrhagic diarrhea, excessive thirst, and dehydration caused by inflammation of the intestines. Postmortem indications include inflammation of the intestines and sloughing of the lining of the intestine.

Entamoeba caviae

Parasite: Entamoeba caviae Host: Guinea pigs 184 Location: Cecum Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Internal amoeba Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts Common Name: Amoeba of guinea pigs Zoonotic: No Common nonpathogenic cecal organism Mature cysts are 11 to 27 µm and have eight nuclei. The trophozoites are most often found in a direct fecal smear and measure 10.5 to 20 µm in diameter.

Haemoproteus spp.

Parasite: Haemoproteus species Host: Cockatoos, green-winged macaws, and some species of conures Location: Within RBCs Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Many forms in the blood Transmission Route: Bite by an infected Culicoides species or Chrysops species of fly Common Name: Haemoproteus Zoonotic: No rarely clinical but can destry RBCs if anemia becomes clinical some species of waterfowl, lizards and turtles affected

Histomonas meleagridis

Parasite: Histomonas meleagridis Host: Turkeys, peafowl, chickens, and pheasants Location: Liver Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Tissue unit Transmission Route: Ingestion of intermediate host ova, Heterakis gallinarum, or direct ingestion of ova Common Name: "Blackhead" Zoonotic: No

Klossiella muris

Parasite: Klossiella muris Host: Mice Location: Kidneys Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Little organism found by a researcher named Kloss Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocysts passed in urine Common Name: Klossiella Zoonotic: No Cant be detected antemortem

Leishmania species Host Location Distributuion derivation of genus transmission route common name zoonotic

Parasite: Leishmania species Host: Canines Location: Reticuloendothelial cells of the capillaries and spleen, as well as other internal organs and white blood cells (WBCs) Distribution: Worldwide but rarely seen in North America Derivation of Genus: Named after the famous physician William Leishman Transmission Route: Bite by an infective intermediate host, phlebotomine sand flies Common Name: Leishmania Zoonotic: Yes lacks flagellum and is in the amastigote stage

Notoedres muris Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Parasite: Notoedres muris Host: Rats Location of Adult: Most of the life cycle is spent tunneling in the superficial epidermis, with only a short period being spent on the skin surface Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Back (referring to the dorsal anus) Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Scabies mite of rats Zoonotic: No Female N. muris can be distinguished from female S. scabiei by the dorsal subterminal anal opening of N. muris. -lesions appear as crusted areas with reddened vesciles

Psoroptes cuniculi Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Parasite: Psoroptes cuniculi Host: Rabbits (most common), horses, goats, and sheep Location of Adult: External ear canal Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Scabby Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Rabbit ear mite or rabbit ear canker mite Zoonotic: No -reside on surface of the skin and puncture epidermis to obtain tissue fluids -dried crusts of coagulated serum on ears -The brownish-white female mite is large, 409 to 749 µm × 351 to 499 µm; males are 431 to 547 µm × 322 to 462 µm (see Figure 13-51). The mites exhibit characteristic long, jointed pedicels with suckers on the ends of some of the legs (Figure 13-53). The anus is in a terminal slit.

Sarcoptes scabiei variety felis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Parasite: S. scabiei variety suis, bovis, equi, and ovis Host: Feline (felis), pigs (suis), cattle (bovis), horses (equi), and sheep and goats (ovis) Location of Adult: For most of its life cycle, it is found tunneling in the superficial layers of the epidermis. For a short period of its life cycle, it is found on the surface of the skin. Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Flesh cutters Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Scabies mite of cats, scabies mite of pigs, scabies mite of cattle, scabies mite of horses, and scabies mite of sheep and goats, respectively Zoonotic: Yes for S. scabiei variety felis -long unjointed pedicel with a sucker on the end of some of the legs

Sarcocystis Host Location Distribution Derivation of Genus Transmission Route Common name Zoonotic

Parasite: Sarcocystis species Host: Canines and felines Location: Small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Flesh cyst Transmission Route: Ingestion of the muscle of horses, pigs, and ruminants Common Name: Sarcocystis Zoonotic: No

Spirocerca lupi Host Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Parasite: Spirocerca lupi Host: Canines and felines Location of Adult: Esophageal wall Distribution: Tropical and subtropical regions Derivation of Genus: Coiled tail Transmission Route: Ingestion of eggs Common Name: Esophageal worm Zoonotic: No nodules form in the esophageal wall of dogs and cats -eggs have unique paper clip shape -eggs can be seen on fecal flotation but may also be in vomit -prepatent period is 6 months -expel eggs through opening in nodules

Stomoxys calcitrans Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Parasite: Stomoxys calcitrans Host: A variety of animals and humans Location of Adult: Around large animals, especially areas with large amounts of decaying vegetation Distribution: Worldwide 213 Derivation of Genus: Mouth sharp Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: Stable fly, biting housefly, or legsticker It is approximately the size and coloration of the housefly Musca domestica, but instead of having a sponging type of mouthpart, the stable fly has a bayonet-like proboscis that protrudes forward from its head -These flies tend to feed on the tips of the ears of dogs with pointed or raised ears (commonly called fly strike), such as German shepherds. This problem can be resolved by applying topical repellents to the ear tips. -Stable flies are mechanical vectors of anthrax in cattle and equine infectious anemia -intermediate host for Habronema muscae and Stephanofilaria stilesi

Taenia solium (adult tapeworm)/Cysticercus cellulosae (metacestode [larval] stage) Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

Parasite: Taenia solium (adult tapeworm)/Cysticercus cellulosae (metacestode [larval] stage) Host: Human Location of Adult: Small intestine Intermediate Host: Pigs Distribution: Underdeveloped countries including Latin America, India, Africa, and the Far East Derivation of Genus: Flat band, bandage, or tape/bladder tail Transmission Route: Ingestion of infective undercooked or raw pork Common Name: Pork tapeworm of humans, measly pork, pork measles of swine Zoonotic: Yes -armed, double row of hooks -7-16 lateral branches of the uterus -fecal flotation -cysticercus -measly pork

Crustacae

Phylum: Arthropoda Subphylum: Mandibulata Class: Crustacea (aquatic arthropods) Members of the class Crustacea are always aquatic. Crustaceans are important because they serve as intermediate hosts for many helminth parasites, including flukes (e.g., Paragonimus kellicotti), 190tapeworms (e.g., Spirometra mansonoides), and roundworms (e.g., Dracunculus insignis).

Insecta

Phylum: Arthropoda Subphylum: Mandibulata Class: Insecta (insects) As mentioned earlier, the class Insecta has the largest number of members (more than 900,000 species) in the phylum Arthropoda. This is also the most diverse group

Myriapoda

Phylum: Arthropoda Subphylum: Mandibulata Class: Myriapoda (centipedes and millipedes) Members of the class Myriapoda are represented by centipedes and millipedes. Myriapodans are important because they produce venoms and toxic substances. Centipedes and millipedes are usually slow-moving arthropods. For defense mechanisms, they are capable of producing venoms and toxic substances that can sting, blind, paralyze, burn, or even kill.

Apicomplexa

Plasmodium -locomotary organelle are internal

What are the prescription writing requirementss for schedule III and IV sontrolled substances

Prescriptions for these drugs may be written or oral. These prescriptions may be refilled up to five times within 6 months from the date of the prescription.

What are the prescription writing requirements of schedule II controlled substances?

Prescriptions must be written on a prescription blank and signed by the practitioner. Prescriptions may only be telephoned into the pharmacy in the event of an emergency. Prescriptions for these drugs may not be refilled.

What are the disadvantages of using opioids to treat post operative pain? How are they generally overcome?

Short duration -potential for adverse effects -by giving routes other than IM or SC

Why are Sympathomimetics contraindicated with anesthesia

Sympathomimetics such as epinephrine increase the incidence of cardiac arrhythmias when given with dissociatives, xylazine, and barbiturates.

Oxygen flow rate for semiclosed system during maintenance

Semiclosed system during maintenance: • 20 to 40 mL/kg/min (Note: The use of a maintenance rate of 0.2 L/10 kg/min is sometimes referred to as "low flow.")

Describe the method for setting the pop-off valve

Set the pop-off valve immediately after checking the low-pressure system for leaks. 1. Keep the pop-off valve closed and continue to occlude the Y-piece with your thumb or hand. The pressure manometer should read at least 25 cm H2O. 2. Turn the oxygen flow on to the anticipated maximum for that procedure (about 1 to 3 L/min for patients <30 kg, about 3 to 5 L/min for small animal patients ≥30 kg, and 10 L/min for large animal patients). 3. Open the pop-off valve gradually until the pressure manometer indicates a pressure of 1 to 2 cm H2O (Figure 1). 4. During the anesthetic procedure, periodically check that the bag is not collapsed or too full and readjust the pop-off valve accordingly. (The goal is for the bag to remain about three quarters full at peak expiration.)

How should propofol macro emulsion be handled? Shelf life?

Should be shaken thoroughly before use. -unopened shelf life is 3 years but after opened 6 hours unless using sterile technique then 24 hours -propofol 28 is good for 28 days(dogs only)

Which breed of dog is more sensitive to barbiturates?

Sighthounds such as greyhounds and salukis are sensitive to barbiturates (e.g., thiopental sodium) because of slow metabolism of these agents and their relative lack of body fat compared with other breeds. Consequently these drugs must be used cautiously or not at all in these patients.

What are the signs of sympathetic blockade?

Signs include flushing and increased skin temperature of the affected area and, if severe, hypotension. Treatment consists of intravenous crystalloid fluid administration at a rate of 20 mL/kg over a 15- to 20-minute period.

Physaloptera eggs

Small, smooth thick shelled and embryonated -contain larvae when laid

What effect can antihistamines have on anesthesia?

Some antihistamines can increase CNS and respiratory depression when given with opioids and other anesthetic agents that depress these body systems.

Suturing options for entropion surgery

Subcutaneous sutures are usually not necessary with the Holtz-Celsus procedure. Skin sutures are placed approximately 1 to 2 mm apart in a simple interrupted pattern. Common sutures used are silk, gut, and polygla- ctin 910 (Vicryl). Small sutures are preferred, usually 5-0 or 6-0, because they have a better cosmetic result

Describe the different preparations of flotation solutions

Sugar Flotation Solution (Sheather Solution) Determine the amount of sugar solution required, and use about half that amount of water. Use an appropriately sized pot (e.g., cooking pot). Heat the water, but be careful not to let it boil. Add granulated pure cane sugar (table sugar) to the water while stirring. About 454 g (1 lb) is required for every 355 mL (12 oz) of water. Add 6 mL of 40% formaldehyde solution or 1 g of crystalline phenol for every 100 mL of solution; these chemicals serve as preservatives and prevent mold from growing in the sugar solution. The solution's specific gravity should always be checked with a hydrometer (see Figure 17-10), an instrument available from scientific supply houses. Sodium Nitrate Flotation Solution While stirring, add about 315 g of sodium nitrate for every liter of water. Heating is not necessary but hastens the dissolution process. Adjust the solution to a specific gravity of 1.2 to 1.25, as discussed for the sugar solution. Zinc Sulfate Flotation Solution While stirring, add 386 g of zinc sulfate for every liter of water. Heating the water is not necessary but hastens the dissolution process. Using a hydrometer, adjust the solution to a specific gravity of 1.2 to 1.25, as discussed for the sugar solution. Magnesium Sulfate Flotation Solution While stirring, add about 350 g of magnesium sulfate (Epsom salt) for every liter of water. Heating the water hastens the dissolution process. Using a hydrometer, adjust the solution to a specific gravity of 1.3, as discussed for the sugar solution. Saturated Sodium Chloride Flotation Solution Add sodium chloride (table salt) to boiling water until the salt no longer dissolves and settles to the bottom of the pot. There is no need to adjust the specific gravity because it cannot go above 1.2 with this solution.

What are the upper limits of heart rate under anesthesia for large dog, small dog and cat?

Suggested guidelines for acceptable upper limits are 180 beats/min for a large dog, 200 beats/min for a small dog, and 220 beats/min for a cat

define surgical anesthesia

Surgical anesthesia is a specific stage of general anesthesia in which there is a sufficient degree of analgesia (a loss of sensitivity to pain) and muscle relaxation to allow surgery to be performed without patient pain or movement.

Veress Insufflation Needle

The Veress insufflation needle is used for the original insufflation of the perito- neal cavity (Figure 7-131). This needle is composed of a sharp outer trocar and a blunt inner stylet. The stylet consists of a small opening to allow gas to insufflate into the abdomen. The outer trocar functions to puncture through the abdominal wall into the abdominal cavity. The trocar is then retracted, and the inner stylet with the small opening is exposed. Gas is then insufflated through the opening

What are the general preanesthetic bloodwork workups recommended by age

TestsDogs∗/cats†PS1 and PS2<5 yearsPCV and PP, and possibly urine specific gravityPS1 and PS2>5 yearsCBC/chemistry profile, and possibly complete UAPS3-PS5Any ageAs ordered by the attending veterinarianRuminantsPS1 and PS2Any agePCV and PPPS3-PS5Any ageAs ordered by the attending veterinarianHorsesPS1 and PS2Any ageCBC and PPPS3-PS5Any ageAs ordered by the attending veterinarian

How does a Doppler work?

The Doppler probe contains a crystal that emits ultrasound frequency waves and 184another crystal that receives the returning echoes. Outgoing waves bounce off red blood cells (RBCs) traveling inside a pulsating artery and return to the probe, where they are sent to an electronic monitor for processing. The monitor converts the returning echoes into a "whooshing" sound audible to the attendant via a speaker or earphones.

What is the minimum alveolar concentration?

The MAC of an anesthetic agent is the lowest concentration at which 50% of patients show no response to a painful stimulus. It is significant because it is a measure of the potency of the agent and is used to determine the average vaporizer setting that must be used to produce surgical anesthesia. -an agent with a low is more potent

What is a P wave?

The P wave, the first waveform, precedes contraction of the atria. It is normally small, rounded, and positive in lead II and is often "double-humped" (also known as bifid) in adult large animals. It is separated from the QRS complex by the P-R interval. The P wave is measured from the point that it leaves the baseline to the point that it returns to the baseline. It is considered abnormal if it is abnormal in shape, if its duration or amplitude exceeds a maximum value, or if its relationship with the QRS complex is altere

What is the best way to test for D. immitis in cats?

The best way to test for feline heartworm disease is to use both an antigen test and an antibody test made for feline heartworm disease because those made for canines alone are not sensitive enough for feline heartworm disease.

What is the partition coefficient

The blood-gas partition coefficient is a measure of the solubility of an inhalant anesthetic in blood as compared with alveolar gas. It is significant because it indicates the speed of induction and recovery one should expect for a given inhalant anesthetic. The lower the blood-gas partition coefficient, the faster the expected induction and recovery.

positioning for castration

The canine patient should be placed in dorsal recumbency for castration. The scrotum should be examined and palpated for the presence of both testicles before anesthesia is induced. If both testicles are present, a routine castration can be performed. If only one testicle is present, the dog is considered "cryptorchid" and may require an inguinal or abdominal surgery to remove the other testicle. For a routine castration the surgical site should be clipped from the tip of the prepuce to just above the scrotum. The clipped region should extend laterally into the inguinal section on both sides. The scrotum should not be clipped. The skin of the scrotum is delicate and sensitive and may be susceptible to clipper burns or tears. Irritation of the scrotum can cause the animal to lick or bite at the affected region postoperatively. The surgical site should be aseptically prepared.

positioning for onychectomy

The cat is typically placed in lateral recumbency. The feet are not clipped unless the cat is a long-haired breed, and are surgically scrubbed. If the laser method is used, alcohol should not be used as it will likely ignite when the laser beam hits the prepared area. The toe nails should not be clipped because their length will aid in nail manipulation during the procedure (Figure 7-61). A tourniquet is placed on the limb, but not tightened, prior to aseptic preparation

Leaf crown

The collection of papillae of nematodes.

life cycle of strongylus species

The eggs are passed in the feces and hatch in the environment. The infective-stage larvae migrate up and down blades of grass until the equine host ingests the larvae. The larvae are swallowed and migrate through the intestines to the mesenteric arteries and the liver where they grow and molt to the next larval stage. The larvae migrate back toward the large intestine and grow and molt on their way. Once in the large intestine, the larvae enter the mucosa of the large intestine and mature to adult

life cycle of parascaris equorum

The eggs are passed in the feces, which tend to be sticky, and the larvae grow and molt within the eggs. The egg containing an L2 larva is ingested by the young foal and hatches in the intestines. The larvae migrate to the liver through the hepatic portal vein, where they grow and molt to the next stage of larvae. The larvae are carried to the lungs through the circulatory system, where they are coughed up and swallowed. Once back in the intestines, the larvae mature into adults (Figure 4-60) that ingest blood.

taenia saginata egg

The eggs are typical taeniid-type ova with a striated embryophore (shell) surrounding an oncosphere with six hooklets inside

What are the most accurate features for differentiating between heart worm species?

The most accurate features are the total length of the microfilaria, the midbody width, and the shape of the cranial end. D. immitis-longer and wider, end gradually tapers A. recondite has a curved tail

Describe the cystotomy procedure

The entire abdomen should be clipped from xiphoid process to the pubis. The patient should be prepped from the xiphoid process to the pubis in the event anunexpected finding requires an extended incision. This additional clipping and prepping allows the surgeon to extend the incision cranially if desired. A ventral midline incision beginning at the umbilicus and extending cau- dally to the pubis should be sufficient for cystotomy. The subcutaneous tissues and linea alba should be incised on the midline. Moistened lap sponges should be placed on either side of the incision, and a Balfour retractor posi- tioned for better exposure of the abdomen. The bladder should be isolated, and lap sponges positioned beneath the bladder to segregate it from the rest of the abdomen. Stay sutures should be placed at the apex of the bladder to assist in manipulation as well as to prevent spillage of urine into the abdomen (Figure 7-57). The scrub nurse should grasp the stay sutures and gently lift upward to avoid spillage of urine. The surgeon makes a stab incision on the ventral aspect of the bladder in a hypovascular region. The technician should have suction ready to place into the stab incision to remove the urine from the bladder before leakage occurs. The stab incision can then be extended with Met- zenbaum scissors. A bladder spoon can be used to aid in the removal of cystic calculi, especially at the neck region of the bladder (Figure 7-58). A red rubber catheter can be passed through the urethra, and sterile saline should be flushed through the catheter to confirm the urethral passage is clear of cystic calculi and is patent. Cystic calculi should be flushed back into the bladder if possible to avoid having to perform an urethrotomy (incision into the urethra).

Describe the lateral ear resection procedure

The entire ear, including both sides of the pinna and the adjacent skin, should be clipped and aseptically prepared. The ear canal should be lavaged and cleaned before the patient enters the surgery room. Once the animal is prepped and draped, the surgeon makes two parallel skin incisions from the tragus ventrally past the horizontal ear canal. The incision should extend past the region where the canal becomes horizontal. The skin flap is then excised at the proximal region. A vertical incision is made in the subcutaneous tissue over the vertical canal. The subcuta- neous tissue is then reflected dorsally, exposing the auric- ular cartilage of the vertical canal. The cartilage of the vertical canal is then cut distally along the same incision line. The cartilage flap is reflected distally, and the opening of the horizontal canal observed. The proximal two thirds of the cartilage flap are excised, and the remaining third is reflected ventrally to form a "drainboard," which is then sutured to the ventral skin incision. The drainboard tech- nique was established by Zepp to maintain horizontal canal patency

What is the life cycle of a Psoroptidae species?

The entire five-stage life cycle (egg, larva, protonymph, deutonymph or pubescent female, and adult ovigerous female) is spent on the host. Adult male and female mites breed on the skin surface. The female produces 14 to 24 elliptic, opaque, shiny white eggs that hatch within 1 to 3 days. The six-legged mites are small, oval, soft, and grayish brown. Eight-legged nymphs are slightly larger than larvae. Larval and nymphal stages may last 7 to 10 days. The life cycle is completed in about 23810 to 18 days. Under favorable conditions, mites can live off the host for 2 to 3 weeks or longer. Under optimum conditions, mite eggs may remain viable for 2 to 4 weeks.

How are the flowmeter setting, the size of the reservoir bag and the position of the popoff valve related?

The flowmeter setting determines the rate at which gas enters the breathing circuit, and the pop-off valve setting determines the rate at which gas leaves the breathing circuit. The size of the bag reflects the net volume of gas in the breathing circuit at any given time. Therefore by adjusting the carrier gas flow rate and pop-off valve setting, the anesthetist can keep the reservoir bag optimally inflated but not pressurized.

How do gravity air-displacement sterilizers work?

The gravity air-displacement sterilizer found in most small animal hospitals is typically a tabletop-sized auto- clave (Figure 9-12). Distilled water is placed in the bottom of the sterilizer and then heated electrically. As the water turns to steam, the steam forces air out of the sterilizer through a port. Once the air is out of the sterilizer, the steam pressure builds up until the operating temperature is reached. Once the cycle has been completed, the steam is removed and condenses back to water

What is the ideal suture material?

The ideal suture material would have no knot slippage, would have high tensile strength, would be absorbable, would cause no tissue reactivity, would be easy to handle, and would be inexpensive. Unfortunately, no one "perfect" suture material exists, so the surgeon must consider all the characteristics of the material when deciding whether to use it for a particular procedure.

What happens if a dog is given a dissociative agent alone?

They can experience seizures unless given with another agent

What do the absorbent granules do with expired CO2?

They combine with the ingredients in the granules to produce CaCO3

Describe the target pattern of scrubbing

The most common pattern is the target pattern, which resembles a target or bull's-eye. This pattern is primarily used to prepare surgical sites for abdominal, thoracic, and neurologic procedures. The prep begins after the hair has been removed by the clipper and vacuumed from the area. The first step is to take one of the rinsing sponges and wipe around the periphery of the clipped margin. This action moistens the hair and flattens it down, helping to keep the hair from flying onto the clipped area once the prep begins. To begin preparation of the surgical site, pick up one scrub sponge and fold it in half and then in half again, or bring all four corners to the center and hold the sponge by the corners. Either method produces a smaller contact surface that will be easier to control. Always start at the proposed incision site (Figure 2-49), and then move the sponge progressively outward in a circle until the hair is reached (Figure 2-50).

What conditions can be identified with colonoscopy?

The most frequently diagnosed disorders include a variety of mucosal inflammatory disorders, with lympho- cytic plasmacytic colitis the most common (Figures 7-173 and 7-174), and rectal polyps

lifecycle of pseudotapeworm

The operculated eggs are passed singly to the external environment. If these eggs make contact with water, they hatch, releasing a ciliated hexacanth embryo out of the operculum. This ciliated hexacanth embryo is called a coracidium. The coracidium must be ingested by a suitable first intermediate host, an aquatic crustacean called a copepod. Within the copepod, the coracidium develops to a stage called a procercoid. If the copepod containing the procercoid is ingested by the second intermediate host, usually a fish of some type, the procercoid develops into the second stage, which is infective for the definitive host. This stage is called the plerocercoid stage. The definitive host becomes infected by ingesting the second intermediate host containing the plerocercoid stage. This plerocercoid stage is the juvenile, or developing, tapeworm; it possesses slitlike bothria. When the plerocercoid stage is ingested by the definitive host, it emerges from the metacestode stage, attaches to the lining of the small intestine, and begins to produce the strobila (

reservoir host

The organism that becomes infected by a pathogen and serves as a source of transfer of the pathogen to others

oncotic pressure

The osmotic pressure in the blood vessels due only to plasma proteins (primarily albumin) --> causes water to rush back into capillaries at end.

Position for back surgery

The patient having back surgery is placed in ventral recumbency. Positioning in a V-trough or placing sand- bags on both sides helps brace the patient and prevents listing to one side. The forelegs are extended cranially. The hind legs are bent in a natural sitting or squatting posi- tion. A strip of adhesive tape may provide additional sta- bilization across the shoulders

Position for orthopedic and extremity surgery

The patient is placed in lateral recumbency for procedures involving the extremities. If the left limb is the focus, the patient is positioned in right lateral recumbency. If the right limb is the surgical site, the patient is placed in left lateral recumbency. The paw is wrapped in gauze and tape. The limb is suspended from above by tying the tape around the paw and tying the tape to an IV pole. The leg is clipped and scrubbed in this position. All sides of the leg are prepared (Figure 2-69).

Position for tail and perianal surgery

The patient is placed in ventral recumbency for proce- dures involving the tail or perianal area. The forelegs are secured to the table, with the hind legs hanging over the edge at the end of the table. A rolled towel is placed under the caudal abdomen for extra padding. A piece of adhe- sive tape is placed in a spiral on the tail, with a long exten- sion of the tape attached above to an IV pole or other object

Patient positioning for CCL surgery

The patient may be placed in dorsal or lateral recumbency with the affected leg up for CCL repair. The leg should be clipped from the hip to the tarsus. An examination glove should be placed on the foot to cover the unshaven area. The leg should be suspended while it is scrubbed to ensure complete and circumferential sterility. It is important to prepare the limb in this suspended position to allow the greatest amount of manipulation during surgery

What position should the patient by placed for an R and A?

The patient should be positioned in dorsal recumbency to perform a ventral midline incision. The patient should be clipped and prepared for an abdominal procedure.

Positioning for lateral ear resection

The patient should be positioned in lateral recumbency with the affected ear upward and the head slightly ele- vated. A sandbag can be placed under the head for elevation.

Position for thoracic surgery

The patient undergoing thoracic surgery is placed in lateral or dorsal recumbency, depending on the surgeon's intended approach. The forelegs are extended cranially as much as possible and secured to the table.

What is the mode of action of benzodiazepines?

They depress the CNS although the exact mechanism of action is not known. Main effects are increasing activity of endogenous GABA

What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?

The primary targets of local anesthetic drugs are the neurons that convey sensations (i.e., pain, heat, cold, and pressure) from the skin, muscles, and other peripheral tissues to the brain. These neurons (called sensory neurons) are affected by even small amounts of local anesthetic, provided the drug is deposited in proximity to the neuron. Local anesthetics result in antagonism, also referred to as blockade, of sodium channels. When the sodium channels of a neuron are blocked, the neuron cannot generate electrical impulses. A local anesthetic drug therefore acts as a membrane stabilizer, stopping the process of nerve depolarization. The result is a loss of nerve conduction. Reversal of this effect occurs as the drug is absorbed into the local circulation. Local anesthetics are then redistributed to the liver, where they are metabolized.

Instruments for onychectomy

The procedure can be done in one of three methods, use of the Rescoe Nail Trimmer technique (Rescoe, Walled Lake, MI) scalpel blade, or the CO2 laser. Each requires its own instrumentation. A tourniquet will be required to control hemorrhage.

What are the two intermediate hosts of pseudotapeworms?

The pseudophyllidean-type operculated egg makes contact with water and releases a ciliated hexacanth embryo. This stage is called a coracidium. The coracidium is a motile hexacanth embryo that is covered with tiny hairs (cilia). It emerges through the operculum of a pseudotapeworm egg. Following emergence, it swims in the water. The coracidium is ingested by a microscopic aquatic crustacean and, within that crustacean, develops into a stage called a procercoid. The crustacean with the procercoid is later ingested by a fish or an amphibian and, within the musculature of that host, develops into a solid-bodied metacestode stage called a plerocercoid, or sparganum. The definitive host becomes infected by ingesting the second intermediate host with this plerocercoid (sparganum) stage. The scolex attaches in the small intestine and begins to "grow" a new tapeworm.

Describe a round needle and what it is used for

The round needle body associated with the taper point is best used in tissue when a sealed suture line is needed, such as for suturing intestine or other hollow organs. Any tissue that should not be traumatized or is not difficult to pass a needle through will tolerate a taper needle.

Surgical hand rub using antimicrobial rubbing agent

The rub should always start with the fingers, proceed to the hands, and continue up the arms to the elbow. It is important to follow the guidelines from the manufac- turer, and the rub should include, but may not be limited to, the following activities. Wash hands and forearms with soap and running water immediately before beginning the surgical hand antisepsis procedure. Clean the subungual areas of both hands under running water using a nail-cleaning pick. Rinse the hands and forearms under running water. Dry the hands and forearms thoroughly with a paper towel. Dispense the manufacturer-recommended amount of surgical hand rub product. Apply the product to the hands and forearms, following the manufacturer's written directions. Some manufacturers may require the use of water as part of the process. Rub thoroughly until dry. Repeat the product application process as indicated in the manufacturer's written directions.

Describe the orthopedic scrubbing pattern

The second prep pattern is used with orthopedic proce- dures. After the hair has been removed from the surgical site (Figure 2-52), any hair remaining on the foot must be covered. An inverted examination glove is placed over the foot (Figure 2-53) and secured with tape (Figure 2-54). To avoid a tourniquet effect, be sure the tape is not applied too tightly. Cover with tape (or Vetrap), again not too tightly. Also, make a stirrup to allow suspension of the limb for preparing and draping; take tape (≈2-3 feet), leaving 2 to 3 inches at either end, then fold the remainder of the tape on itself to make it 12 inch wide. Place the ends of the stirrup on either the medial and lateral or the anterior and posterior sides of the gloved foot. Secure the stirrup to the foot with tape (Figure 2-55). The limb should be suspended for the preparation to allow access to all surfaces of the limb. Place the stirrup over the hook of an IV pole and then fully extend the pole to elevate the limb (Figure 2-56). In the event of a fracture, it is imperative that the limb and bones be supported as the pole is extended. With frac- tures, the extension of the limb may actually provide some distraction and traction to fatigue the muscles, which will aid in reduction of the fracture. Once the limb is sus- pended, clipping can be completed (Figure 2-57), and the scrub prep can begin.With a scrub sponge in hand, begin the prep at the tape edge of the suspended limb. Scrub the limb from distal to proximal, moving circumferentially around the limb. As the sponge dries out, discard it and continue with a new sponge. As with the target pattern, the wrist must be kept moving to provide the scrubbing action. Repeat the scrub a minimum of three times before rinsing to achieve the best antimicrobial efficacy. The rinsing agent is applied in the same pattern, starting at the taped foot and moving FIGURE 2-58 Completed orthopedic preparation. FIGURE 2-59 Patient ready to be transported to surgery room. proximally to the dorsal midline (Figure 2-58). Generally a final solution is not applied because another prep will be done once the patient is positioned on the surgery table

Which way should unscrubbed personnel face?

They should always face the surgical field

Describe the enterotomy procedure

The skin, subcutaneous tissue, and linea alba can be incised from the xiphoid process to just cranial to the pubis. Once the abdominal cavity is opened, moistened lap sponges can be placed on either side of the body wall, and a Balfour may be inserted for maximum exposure. A full exploratory procedure should be performed before an enterotomy is begun. The GI tract should be examined completely. Once the intestinal foreign body is located (Figure 7-13), the affected intestine can be isolated from the abdomen by being packed off with lap sponges.The surgeon needs to decide, from an analysis of the intestine, whether an enterotomy or a resection and anastomosis should be performed. If necrosis or perfora- tions of the intestinal segment are absent, an enterotomy may be sufficient (Figure 7-14). The intestinal contents should be milked away from the foreign body site. Doyen clamps or the fingers of an assistant can be placed a few centimeters away on either side of the proposed enterot- omy. The enterotomy incision should be made just distal to the foreign body on the antimesenteric border (the side of the intestine without the attached mesentery) of the intestine (Figure 7-15). This region is selected because the viability of the intestines proximal to the foreign body may be in question, and it is preferable to suture healthy intestine. The incision may need to be extended with Met- zenbaum scissors to allow the removal of the foreign body (Figure 7-16). Forceps or gloved fingers may be useful in grasping and slowly removing the object.

Smoke plume hazards with laser surgery

The smoke plume emitted from laser contact with tissue contains toxic and carcino- genic chemicals as well as bacteria and viral particles. An evacuator is usually purchased with the laser machines.

What are the risks if the ET tube is too long?

The stem will enter only one lung and only one lung will be supplied with oxygen -if it extends beyond rostral aspect of mouth it will increase mechanical dead space

How many layers must be closed in a gastric foreign body surgery>

The stomach can be closed in two layers. The first layer is a simple continuous pattern of a 2-0 or 3-0 absorbable suture. This suture pattern provides apposition. The second layer is a continuous inverting pattern of 3-0 absorbable suture. New sterile instruments are then used to close the abdomen.

Describe the procedure for GDV.

The surgeon makes a ventral midline incision from the xiphoid process to just caudal to the umbilicus. Moistened laparotomy sponges should be placed on either side of the incision site, and a Balfour retractor may be positioned for better abdominal expo- sure. Upon entry into the abdominal cavity, the first struc- ture noted is the greater omentum, which usually covers the dilated stomach during a GDV. Blood may be evident in the abdomen, usually from rupture of the short gastric vessels. An orogastric tube should again be passed through the mouth, down the esophagus, and into the stomach to allow decompression of gas and the release of gastric con- tents. A warm gastric lavage should be performed until the contents from the stomach are emptied and the lavage water collected is clear. The surgeon then attempts to rotate the stomach back to its original position. Most stomachs twist or rotate in a clockwise direction and can rotate 90 to 360 degrees (Figure 7-27). Correction of the malpositioned stomach usually involves rotation in a counterclockwise direction. The surgeon grasps the stomach at the pylorus region with the right hand and the greater curvature of the stomach with the left hand. The greater curvature is pushed downward toward the floor while the pylorus is lifted up on. This procedure should return the stomach to its original placement. The stomach should then be explored for necrosis. If necrosis is evident, a partial gas- trectomy may need to be performed. A full exploratory laparotomy should be conducted to be sure no damage has occurred to other abdominal organs. Often the spleen follows the path of the stomach, and a splenic torsion may be apparent. The spleen should be observed for damage, and a splenectomy performed, if warranted. A gastropexy procedure must be done to prevent future GDV.

Describe the R and A procedure.

The surgeon needs to assess the viability of the intes- tinal segment in question. The presence of peristalsis, vascular pulses, and intestinal color may aid in determin- ing intestinal viability. If the intestinal segment is ques- tionable, it may be the surgeon's preference to resect that region. Neoplasia and necrosis of the intestines are condi- tions that would require resection. The blood vessels from the mesentery to the intestinal segment need to be ligated and transected. The intestinal contents (chyme) should be milked away from the area to be resected. The diseased region can be clamped with a crushing forceps (e.g., Carmalt). The area of the intestines to remain can be clamped with Doyen clamps, which are considered non- traumatic and should be gentle on the intestinal tissues. If Doyen clamps are unavailable, the moistened fingers of an assistant will provide the same function. The surgeon then transects the intestines with a scalpel blade along the outside of the Carmalt forceps, and the intestinal segment along with the forceps is removed. A few millimeters of healthy tissue should be removed with the diseased segment to ensure that the anastomosis site is closed with healthy intestine

Describe an open castration procedure

The surgeon selects the first testicle and applies pressure cranially to advance the testicle into the prescrotal region. The skin and subcutaneous tissues and spermatic fascia are incised (Figure 7-44). The surgeon then incises the parietal vaginal tunic (Figure 7-45), and the testicle is gently extruded (Figure 7-46). A hemostat should be placed across the tunic at the attach- ment of the epididymis. The ligament of the tail of the epididymis is separated from the tunic. Three clamps can be placed across the spermatic cord (Figure 7-47). The vascular cord and the ductus deferens are recognized and can be individually ligated using an absorbable suture. The surgeon may decide to ligate the vascular cord and ductus deferens together. A circumferential ligature is then placed around both the ductus deferens and the vascular cord. A hemostat is placed on the cord close to the testicle. The cord is then transected between the hemostat and ligatures (Figure 7-48). The cord is exam- ined for bleeding and returned within the tunic. The second testicle can be removed in the same manner

How does a pulse oximeter work>?

This measurement is achieved using two different wavelengths of light transmitted through tissue with a pulsatile blood flow. The sensors (or probes) emit wavelengths of both red light and infrared light. The infrared light determines oxygen saturation, and the red light determines the pulse rate. The light is transmitted through the tissue, and the photodetector (located oppo site the transmitter) senses the light. The software within the unit compares the absorption ratio of the two differ ent wavelengths. Oxygenrich blood (arterial) absorbs less light, so more of the light wavelength is sensed by the detector; therefore a higher arterial oxygen saturation (Sao2) reading is displayed.

Describe the laparoscopic procedure

The surgeon should put on an extra pair of gloves for removing the scope and light cable from the glutaraldehyde solution in which it is stored after clean- ing. A nonsterile technician pours sterile saline over the scope and light cable for rinsing purposes. The items should be rinsed thoroughly to remove all the glutaralde- hyde from the cable and scope. The items should then be dried by a member of the sterile scrub team with a sterile towel, and the extra gloves removed. Next, a sterile sleeve is used to cover the camera, and the scope is placed on the head of the camera. The camera shows the images of the abdominal contents on a monitor to allow visualization of the abdomen by everyone in the surgery room. One end of the insufflation tubing is passed to a nonsterile technician and attached to the insufflator. The other end remains sterile and will be placed on the Veress needle.The surgeon makes a 2 mm to 3 mm skin incision into the abdominal skin at midline for entry of the Veress needle. Once the Veress needle is placed, a drop of saline can be introduced at the hub of the needle. This will help the surgeon know when the abdominal cavity has been penetrated, because negative pressure in the abdominal cavity will draw the saline into the needle. Proper place- ment of the Veress needle is important. Subcutaneous emphysema can occur if the needle is placed between the muscle and subcutaneous tissue. Once proper placement is achieved, the outer trocar of the needle is retracted, and the blunt stylet with opening is uncovered. The insuffla- tion tubing can then be connected to the needle, and insufflation can begin. Remember: Insufflation of the abdomen should never exceed 15 mm Hg. The insufflator or laparoflator can be regulated to stop at 15 mm Hg. If pressure in the abdomen should decrease, the insufflator will increase the volume of gas being released. Once insufflation of the abdomen has been achieved, a trocar-cannula can be placed. A skin incision is made through the skin in the region of the Veress needle. The trocar aspect of the unit will puncture through the abdominal wall for introduction of the cannula (Figure 7-136). When the cannula has been sufficiently placed, the trocar is removed and the telescope (with camera) can be introduced through the cannula (Figure 7-137). The scrub team should now be able to view the abdominal contents on the monitor. In many cases the picture appears foggy at first because of the heat from the abdomen. The scope can be removed and wiped with a warm, moistened, sterile gauze sponge. The scope can then reenter the abdomin

What should be included in a surgery report?

The surgery report should consist of the hospital's name; the owner's name, address, and phone number; and the patient's name, date of birth (DOB), species, breed, and hospital identification number, if applicable, a complete record of the procedure.

What stages of anesthesia is the swallowing reflex present?

The swallowing reflex is present in light Stage III anesthesia, is lost in surgical anesthesia, and returns during recovery just before the patient regains consciousness

How is the intestine closed during an R and A procedure?

The technician holds the two segments of intestine close to each other so that they are aligned correctly. A single- layer, simple interrupted suture pattern is frequently used for an end-to-end anastomosis because it produces minimal stenosis or leakage and heals rapidly. A 3-0 or 4-0 monofilament absorbable suture should be used for the anastomosis site. After the anastomosis has been completed, sterile saline can be injected into the surgical site to check for any leakage from the suture site The mesenteric defect should then be closed in a simple continuous or interrupted suture pattern (Figure 7-22). If peritonitis was present, a closed suction drain may need to be placed to allow drainage of the abdominal cavity. A local lavage of the anastomosis site as well as a full abdominal lavage with warm saline should be performed in the event that leakage of the intestinal contents has occurred The anasto- mosis site should be wrapped with omentum before closure. The scrub team needs to change gloves and the instrument pack to close the abdomen. The abdomen should be closed routinely.

What supplies should be at the ready for neonates following a cesarean?

The technician should have a warm, dry area prepared for the neonates before surgery. The area should include some or all of the following: plenty of clean, warm towels; a radiant lamp; a hair dryer; and circulating warm-water heating pads. Drugs that should be available include nal- oxone (opioid antagonist), doxapram (respiratory stimu- lant), and epinephrine (cardiovascular stimulant). Suture and scissors should also be available to ligate the umbilical cords. The neonates should be dried off immediately with warm towels (Figure 7-37). A heating unit should be used to aid in the warming process. The neonates should be briskly rubbed to initiate spontaneous respiration.

How to administer intraperitonial injections in small rodets

The technique is similar for most small rodents: an assistant extends the right hind limb and injects the anesthetic into the middle of the right posterior quadrant of the abdomen. This technique avoids the bladder, which lies in the midline just in front of the pelvis. Use of the right side of the abdomen also avoids the cecum, which is large and thin-walled in rodents.

When are epidurals used?

The technique is useful for tail amputation, anal sac removal, perianal surgery, urethrostomies, obstetric manipulations, cesarean sections, and some hind limb operations.

What is a TPLO

The tibial plateau-leveling osteotomy (TPLO) functions to change the angle of the tibia, thereby directly altering joint mechanics and creating a new plateau that eliminates cranial tibial thrust. Currently, surgeons must be certified to perform the TPLO technique.

Mixter Right Angle Clamp

Thoracic forceps

What is the treatment for D. immitis?

The treatment for heartworm disease involves pretreatment testing, treatment, and posttreatment rest. The first step in treatment involves determining the canine's ability to withstand the treatment by performing blood work; this determines the status of the internal organs. Radiographs are taken to determine the status of the heart and the stage of the disease. After testing, the canine is treated for the adult heartworms. Adulticides (drugs that kill the adult stages of the parasite) such as Immiticide™ are used to kill adult heartworms. As the adults die, they move with the flow of blood toward the lungs. This could cause problems for the canine if it is allowed to exercise after the adulticide 42treatment. The canine must be kept quiet for several weeks after treatment while the body resorbs the dead adults. Once the adults have been treated and resorbed by the body, the canine is treated with a microfilaricide (usually ivermectin) to clear the blood of any microfilariae. The final part of the treatment is heartworm testing. This usually involves a microfilariae test and an ELISA test to confirm that the microfilariae and adults have been cleared from the canine's body.

Describe cesarean without OVH

The uterine horns should be gently exteriorized from the abdomen (Figure 7-34). It is extremely important that this process be done carefully to avoid tearing the uterine vessels. The uterus should be isolated with moistened laparotomy sponges to help prevent contamination of the abdomen. The scrub nurse should have the sponges moistened in The surgeon then incises the uterine body. The uterine body should be tented on incision to avoid damage to the fetuses. The incision is made on the ventral aspect of the uterus and can be extended using Metzenbaum scissors (not a blade). Each horn should be emptied by squeezing each fetus cranially toward the incision (Figure 7-35). The fetus can then be gently lifted out of the uterus (Figure 7-36), and its amniotic sac manually ruptured. The scrub nurse should have hemostats available for clamping off the umbilical cord of each neonate. Once the cord is clamped, the surgeon severs it. Avoid contaimination of site with amniotic fluid

What is the vaporizer outlet port?

The vaporizer outlet port is connected to the common gas outlet or directly to the breathing circuit by a hose with a male keyed connector. This keyed connector prevents the operator from inadvertently attaching the inlet hose to the outlet port. It is important to check that 116this fitting is securely attached to the vaporizer before the commencement of any procedure.

Diagnosis and treatment of Demodex

The veterinary diagnostician should count the mites on the glass slide and determine the live : dead ratio. The presence of larval or nymphal stages or eggs should be noted. Treatment for demodicosis involves dipping the affected animal in an amitraz (not used on horses) or trichlorfon dip. During therapy for Demodex species a decrease in the number of eggs and the number of live or moving mites is a good prognostic indicator.

How is the volume of oxygen in a tank calculated>?

The volume in liters (L) of oxygen present in a compressed gas cylinder can be calculated by multiplying the pressure (in psi) in an E tank by 0.3 or by multiplying the pressure in an H tank by 3.

Describe the path of electrical activity through the heart

The wave of electrical activity starts in the sinoatrial node and travels through the internodal tracts, causing atrial contraction. Next it is conducted to the atrioventricular (AV) node, where it briefly slows down to allow the ventricles to fill with blood. It then travels to the ventricles via the bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers, causing ventricular contraction

Describe an en bloc resection

Thefirststepinanenblocresection is to isolate the ovarian pedicles. Separation of the broad ligament from the uterus is done at the point of the cervix. Any fetuses within the vagina have to be directed back into the uterine body. The uterine body should be clamped at the cranial aspect of the cervix. Once the ovarian ped- icles and the uterine body are clamped, the surgeon tran- sects between the clamps, and the ovaries and uterus are removed. The uterus is handed off to nonsterile person- nel. Again, breaks in sterility can easily occur at this time and should be monitored. The nonsterile personnel need to remove the fetuses from the uterus (see following dis- cussion). Once the uterus is removed en bloc ("as a whole"), the surgeon ligates the ovarian and uterine ped- icles with two ligatures. The pedicles should be examined for bleeding before closure. A warm lavage of the abdomen helps with any contamination of the abdomen from uterine spillage and also helps warm the dam

Which species are referred to as surgical maggots?

There are some species of bottle flies or blowflies that produce larvae that only ingest unhealthy tissues (tissues contaminated with pathogenic species of bacteria). These species are referred to as surgical maggots

Why do patients tend to be hypotensive under anesthesia?

These factors in turn decrease the flow of blood from the heart (cardiac output). Almost all agents also relax the muscle tone of blood vessels, which in turn causes an increase in the intravascular volume (vasodilation). Together the decreased cardiac output and vasodilation cause hypotension and decrease the perfusion of tissues with blood.

What are signs of fluid overload?

These include ocular and nasal discharge, chemosis (edema and swelling of the conjunctiva), subcutaneous edema, increased lung sounds, increased respiratory rate, and dyspnea. When the patient is awake, coughing and restlessness may be seen

How are laparoscopic instruments cleaned?

These items can be cleaned with gauze and alcohol after each procedure and stored in their cases. The scopes and light cable can then be gas sterilized (eth- ylene oxide) or cold sterilized (also known as high-level disinfection) before the procedure. Acceptable cold ster- ilization consists of the use of 2% glutaraldehyde. Do not autoclave

What is the dosage of doxapram for neonates?

To stimulate respiration, 1 to 5 drops can be dripped under a neonatal puppy's tongue, and 1 to 2 drops under a kitten's tongue, depending on the patient's size and degree of depression.

What are some of the ways to troubleshoot a pulse ox?

Transmission Probes • Make sure the patient is stable by assessing vital signs. • Remove and replace the probe. • When using a lingual probe, if the tongue is dry, rewet it. • Be sure there is not excessive or inadequate pressure on the tissue. • When possible, the jaw with the sensor should be oriented toward the ceiling to avoid interference from ambient light. • Choose a different area that is not pigmented, covered with excessive hair, icteric, or edematous. • If the area is heavily haired, clip and gently cleanse the area. Reflective Probes • Make sure the patient is stable by assessing vital signs. • Be sure the side with the light source and sensor is oriented toward the tissue. • Check for adequate tissue contact. • When the probe is placed in the rectum, be sure that feces are not between the probe and the tissue.

Define balanced anesthesia

Use of several drugs in smaller amounts to reduce potential complications of any single drug. Balanced anesthesia maximizes benefits, minimizes adverse effects, and gives the anesthetist the ability to produce anesthesia with the degree of CNS depression, muscle relaxation, analgesia, and immobilization appropriate for the patient and the procedur

Describe the process of providing intermittent mandatory ventilation

Used for animals with preexisting heart or lung disease, diaphragmatic hernias, low VT and/or respiratory rate (RR) less than 6 breaths/min. 1. Start immediately after intubation. 2. Give a few larger than normal breaths manually, then connect the patient to a ventilator or initiate manual ventilation. Once connected to a ventilator or manually ventilated, the patient usually stops spontaneous breathing efforts within 1 minute. 3. Provide assisted ventilation at a rate of 8 to 20 breaths per minute, depending on the patient's size. 4. If after 5 to 10 minutes the patient still makes spontaneous breathing efforts, it may be necessary to use a neuromuscular blocking agent. 5. Once control has been established, a ventilation rate of 6 to 12 breaths/min is usually adequate. 6. A pressure of 15 to 20 cm H2O is recommended for small animals (25 to 40 cm H2O for large animals), unless the chest is open, in which case higher pressures may be required. 7. The inspiratory time should be 1 to 1.5 seconds. Expiratory time should be at least 2 to 3 seconds. 8. When the surgical procedure is nearing completion, turn off the anesthetic while continuing to ventilate the patient with oxygen. If a neuromuscular blocking agent has been used, it should be reversed, if necessary. 9. Gradually reduce the rate of inspirations to approximately two to four per minute while observing the animal for evidence of spontaneous breathing. When this is seen, the patient's ventilation can then be assisted by squeezing a small amount of air from the reservoir bag with each inspiration. Eventually, the animal will regain the ability to maintain a normal respiratory rate and VT, and ventilation assistance can be discontinued.

iris scissors

Used for intraocular tissue. Sharp points

Babcock intestinal forceps

Used to atraumatically hold viscera (bowel and bladder); Designed to hold a short length of intestine without compressing it; Used for grabbing soft tissue or bowel.

lacrimal cannulas

Used to flush lacrimal ducts

Suture removal scissors

Used to remove sutures

Bone curettes

Used to shape bone.

Metzenbaum dissecting scissors

Uses- cutting delicate tissue shaft is long and thin and the blades can be curved or straight

What effect can monoamine oxidase inhibitors have on anesthesia? Give example of monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

When given within 14 days of one another, some monoamine oxidase inhibitors such as amitraz and selegiline may increase the effects of morphine and other opioids.

Explain the importance of effective communication and the role of the veterinary technician in communication.

Veterinarians depend on accurate information at all stages of the procedure to make effective patient care decisions. Clients need clear instructions and answers to questions before the procedure, as well as progress reports and home care instructions after the procedure. In addition, the technician often acts as a liaison between the doctor and client, conveying necessary information between these two parties.

Video endoscope

Video endoscopes are similar in construction to fiberoptic endoscopes, except they do not have a direct viewing lens aided by an eyepiece. Images are seen on a video screen. The image bundle in a fiber- optic endoscope is replaced in a video endoscope with a camera unit consisting of a lens assembly and an elec- tronic chip known as a "charged coupled device" (CCD). The CCD chip is housed in the distal end of the insertion tube. The CCD chip is connected to an external video processor by approximately 16 small wires. The external video processor assembles the image and transmits it to a video monitor (Figure 7-145). The automatic brightness system can control the light level in all video endoscopes as in some fiberoptic endo- scopes. Video endoscope systems have the capability to freeze and capture images from recording-device buttons in the control section. Other media, such as videotapes, computer files, and prints, can aid in capturing informa- tion. The light guide plug in a video endoscope is heavier than that in a fiberoptic endoscope and needs to be handled with care. The terminals in the light guide plug are not waterproof and must be covered by soaking caps (supplied with the endoscope) before being immersed in solutions for cleaning.

What is the rate of fluid for blood loss replacement?

When blood loss occurs, at least 3 mL of crystalloid fluids must be given for every 1 mL of blood lost. This is because the interstitial fluid compartment is about three times the volume of the intravascular compartment, and, like all crystalloids, these fluids equilibrate throughout the entire ECF compartment. In contrast, if a colloid or a whole blood transfusion is given, the amount of colloid or blood given should approximately equal the amount of blood lost.

How to wash hands with antimicrobial scrub agent before surgery

Wash hands and forearms within 2 inches of elbows with antimicrobial scrub and running water immediately before beginning the surgical scrub (Figure 3-5). Make sure to thoroughly cover all areas with the scrub, as contact time is important for most agents to work prop- erly. Clean the subungual areas of both hands under running water using a disposable nail-cleaning pick (Figure 3-6). Rinse hands and forearms under running water. Keep the hands above the elbows, and allow water to run off at the elbows. Remember to always hold the hands higher than the elbows and away from surgical attire. Dispense the approved antimicrobial scrub agent according to the manufacturer's written directions. Do not touch anything with your hands. Apply the antimi- crobial agent to wet hands and forearms. Some manufac- turers may recommend using a soft, nonabrasive sponge (Figure 3-7). Visualize the surfaces of the fingers, hand, and arm as having four sides with the additional tip of the fingers. Begin by brushing the fingertips of the first hand 10 times, making sure the brush also goes under the fingernails (Figure 3-8). Move to the lateral side of the index finger and scrub from the tip to the base of the finger 10 times (Figure 3-9). Repeat the 10 time scrubbing process on the other three sides of the index finger. Make sure that the brush and antimicrobial scrub also contact the webbing between fingers. Move to the other four fingers and repeat the process on all sides of each finger. When scrubbing the lateral side of the last finger, make sure to scrub the lateral side of the hand in the same motion (Figure 3-10). Move the brush to the palm of the hand and scrub 10 times (Figure 3-11). Move to the thumb side of the hand and scrub the outside of the thumb and the side of the hand in one motion (Figure 3-12). Complete the three FIGURE 3-8 Begin by brushing the fingertips of the first hand ten times, making sure the brush also goes under the fingernails. FIGURE 3-9 Move to the lateral side of the index finger and scrub from the tip to the base of the finger 10 times. remaining sides of the thumb. Move to the back of the hand and scrub from the base of the fingers to the wrist using 10 strokes (Figure 3-13). Scrub the arm from the wrist to the elbow in the same manner, using 10 strokes on each of the four sides of the arm (Figure 3-14). Leaving the antimicrobial scrub on the first arm, proceed to the second arm and follow the same process. When the scrub on both arms is complete, rinse, beginning at the fingertips. Make sure to keep the hands above the elbows and allow water to run off the elbow. Do not allow the any part of the hands or arms to touch anything (sink, scrub top, etc.) (Figure 3-15). Repeat this process on each hand/arm to make sure that manufac- turer contact time requirements are met. It is important to avoid splashin

What is the relationship between anemia and oxygen saturation?

When a patient is anemic, neither PaO2 nor SpO2 gives an accurate measure of oxygen availability. This is because even if the PaO2 and/or SpO2 is normal, the carrying capacity of the blood is severely decreased because of the decrease in the number of hemoglobin binding sites

Why are spays avoided during heat cycles?

When an intact female animal is in heat, the uterus is enlarged and has a more extensive blood supply. These patients also may bleed excessively because of the effects of estrogen on the clotting cascade. For an ovariohysterectomy, these factors increase the length, difficulty, risk, and often the cost of the surgery.

Why are new absorbers not using KOH or NaOH being produced?

When desiccated, absorbent containing KOH or NaOH can react with some anesthetics (including isoflurane, sevoflurane, and desflurane) to produce excessive heat and carbon monoxide, formaldehyde, and various other toxins that are harmful to the patient

How should anesthesia doses be calculated for an obese animal?

When patients are significantly overweight, anesthetics should be dosed according to lean body weight (excluding body fat) instead of the total body weight. This is because body fat increases the total body weight, but not the volume or weight of the nervous tissue on which anesthetics exert their effect. Administration of a dose calculated using total body weight results in an anesthetic overdose.

How to choose a cough size

When the BP is measured, the width of the cuff should be 30% to 50% of the circumference of the extremity, and the cuff should be placed firmly but not too tightly over a peripheral artery. The cuff should be wrapped slightly more tightly in large animals than in small animals and should ideally be at the same horizontal plane as the heart.

What is the general pressure of a line pressure gauge?

When the oxygen is turned on, this gauge should read 40 to 50 psi. A pressure higher or lower than this indicates a malfunction of or a need to adjust the pressure-reducing valve. After the oxygen tank has been turned off, the line pressure gauge will continue to register line pressure until it is evacuated or purged. This is accomplished by depressing the oxygen flush valve until the gauge reads 0 psi. Flowmeter

How do the unidirectional valves work?

When the patient inhales, the inspiratory valve opens, allowing the oxygen and anesthetic gas to enter the inspiratory breathing tube and travel toward the patient. The gases then pass through the Y-piece and into the ET tube or mask. On reaching the patient's lungs, oxygen and anesthetic molecules are absorbed and enter the bloodstream. At the same time, carbon dioxide and anesthetic molecules are released from the bloodstream, enter the alveoli, and are exhaled on the next breath. Exhaled gases travel through the ET tube or mask and the Y-piece, enter the expiratory breathing tube, pass through the expiratory valve, and pass directly into the carbon dioxide absorber canister (Figure 4-37). This ensures that carbon dioxide is removed from the expired gas before the expired gas returns to the patient. The unidirectional valves thus cause the gases to travel a one-way modified circular path through the breathing circuit.

What is positive pressure ventilation?

Whether achieved by bagging the patient (applying pressure to the reservoir bag with the pop-off valve fully or partially closed) or by using a mechanical ventilator, PPV is intended to ensure that the animal receives adequate oxygen and is able to exhale adequate amounts of carbon dioxide. This is a concern in veterinary anesthesia because the patient's own respiratory effort may be inadequate to achieve these objectives.

Why is xylazine contraindicated in sheep and cattle?

Xylazine has been shown to cause uterine contractions in the third trimester of pregnancy in sheep and cattle.

What are the alpha 2 antagonists used to reverse alpha 2 agonists?

Yohimbine, tolazoline and atipamezole -yohimbine and tolazoline reverse xylazine and atipamezole reverses dex

Define pain

a complex phenomenon that has been defined as an aversive sensory and emotional experience that elicits protective motor actions (such as a dog trying to bite when given an injection), results in learned avoidance (the same dog exhibits fear the next time it is taken to the clinic for vaccine boosters), and may modify species-specific behavior traits, including social behavior

What is the short form of the Glasgow composite measure pain scale?

a scale to evaluate pain in dogs that has 30 descriptors in four categories. A score over 6 warrants pain meds

anastomosis

a surgical connection between two hollow or tubular structures

What is a poole suction tip?

a two piece instrument best used to remove large volumes of liquid or fluid. The basket is designed with many holes to remove fluid and not trap tissue

ford interlocking pattern

a type of continuous pattern. Not used as frequently in small animals as it is in large animal surgery. Creates very long suture line.

What are the tranquilizers commonly used for neuroleptanalgesia?

acepromazine, diazepam, midazolam, xylazine and dexmedetomidine

articular fracture

aka physeal fracture, always involve the joint. These fractures are seen in young growing animals.

How is BP indirectly monitored?

an external sensor and a cuff -doppler and oscillometric both use a cuff, differ in the way the pressure is measured

What is back pressure for an anesthesia machine?

an increase in pressure at the vaporizer outlet port caused by manual ventilation (bagging) or activation of the oxygen flush valve. A vaporizer that is not back pressure compensated will deliver more anesthetic under these circumstances. Most precision vaporizers are pressure compensated so that bagging or flush valve activation does not affect the amount of anesthetic released.

What is a Bier block?

an infiltration administration technique used to anesthetize an entire limb -- unique form of infiltration b/c it anesthetizes large area A 22-gauge, 1.5-inch catheter is placed in a vein in the distal part of the limb (because the valves of the veins prevent the backward flow of local anesthetic if the drug is injected too far proximally). Once the catheter is in place, an elastic bandage is wrapped around the extremity, starting at the distal end and wrapping proximally to drive blood out of the veins (Figure 1). A tourniquet is applied just proximal to the area requiring anesthesia (e.g., immediately above the elbow if the foreleg is to be anesthetized). The tourniquet must be tight, or symptoms of local anesthetic toxicity may be evident after injection. The bandage is then removed and the drug injected into the vein via the catheter (Figure 2). The typical dose used is 2 to 3 mL of 2% lidocaine without epinephrine, not to exceed 2 mg/kg. Within 3 to 5 minutes, there is total desensitization of the limb distal to the tourniquet, allowing 25 to 30 minutes of analgesia. An additional advantage of this technique is the relatively blood-free surgical site resulting from tourniquet application. As with other local anesthetic procedures, however, patient restraint may be a problem unless concurrent sedation or neuroleptanalgesia is provided. This technique can also be used in anesthetized patients.

What are the main uses of opiods?

analgesics

What are the different types of parasiticides?

anthelmintics(roundworms, tapeworms, flukes and thorny-headed worms), acaricides,(mites and ticks) insecticides(insects)antiprotozoals

Which class of drugs is not used as a preanesthetic in horses and why?

anticholinergic drugs because they reduce GI motility which may result in colic

Which parasites are identified in urine only?

apillaria species, which inhabit the walls of portions of the urinary system of both dogs and cats, Dioctophyma renale, the giant kidney worm of dogs, and Stephanurus dentatus, the swine kidney worm.

Define a supra ventricular premature complex.

appear as one or more normal QRS complexes that closely follow the previous QRS, interrupting an otherwise regular rhythm (Figure 6-19). P waves may or may not be present, but if present are almost always different from normal P waves. Atrial premature complexes(APCs) are a specific type of SPC.

Describe ventricular premature complexes

appear as one or more wide and bizarre QRS complexes that closely follow the previous QRS, interrupting an otherwise regular rhythm (Figure 6-21). Like SPCs they are early, but unlike SPCs they appear different from normal QRS complexes. Isolated VPCs are commonly seen in anesthetized animals. They have a variety of causes including heart disease, drugs, hypoxia, and acid-base or electrolyte disorders

What does giardia look like in a fecal smear?

appendages swim in a jerky motion in a fecal smear

Bone holding clamps

are typically ratcheted and are designed to hold a bone in place for eventual pinning or plating

What are the two families of ticks that are important in veterinary medicine?

argasid(soft ticks) and ixodid(hard ticks)

How is oxygen carried in the blood?

as free, unbound O2 molecules dissolved in plasma; and as oxygen that is chemically bound to the hemoglobin contained in RBCs.

Which reflexes are monitored under anesthesia?

auricular, pedal, palpebral, corneal, laryngeal

What are the signs of high plasma fentanyl concentrations?

ataxia and sedation in dogs and dysphoria and disorientation in cats

Debakey thoracic thumb tissue forceps

atraumatic forceps that should only be used on delicate tissue. Tips have no teeth but have a ridge or groove design. often used in thoracic, vascular or neurologic procedures

What are the anticholinergics used for anesthetic procedures?

atropine and glycopyrrolate

Which drugs are given during anesthesia to increase heartrate?

atropine and glycopyrrolate

What is the formula for determining weight in horses?

body weight kg = (heart girth cm^2 x length in cm)/ 11880 where heart girth equals the circumference of the chest behind the point of the elbow, and length equals the distance from the point of the shoulder to the point of the pelvis.

How can recovery with inhalant anesthetic be quickened?

bagging the animal periodically with 100%

subcutaneous suture pattern

brings the skin edges into apposition but generally does not appropriately close the skin. Used to decrease dead space in a wound, skin sutures sdtill needed

What are partial mu agonists?

bup

What drugs are counter indicated with a fentanyl patch?

butorphanol and burprenorphine because they can reduce the analgesic effect

How is giardia classified?

by assemblages based on the animal they are affecting A and B are associated with humans C and D are organisms found in dogs E are associated with cows, sheep, goats, horses, pigs etc F is cats G is rodents

How are vital signs grouped?

by circulation-HR, rhythm, doppler blood flow and pulse ox oxygenation-MM, hemoglobin saturation, inspired O2 and PaO2 ventilation- RR and depth, breath sounds, expired CO2, arterial CO2 and blood pH

How is a CVP instrument placed?

by inserting a long catheter percutaneously into the jugular vein or by cutting down into the jugular vein. The catheter is advanced into the anterior vena cava and toward the heart so that the tip of the catheter lies close to the right atrium. The catheter is connected to a water manometer to obtain a measurement. The manometer should be positioned so that "0" on the manometer is at the same horizontal plane as the right atrium (halfway between the shoulder and sternum in sternally recumbent patients, level with the sternum in laterally recumbent patients, and level with the shoulder in dorsally recumbent patients; Figure 6-31). If the catheter is correctly positioned, the meniscus of the fluid in the manometer should rise and fall with each breath

How to differentiate between SA and cardiac arrhythmia

by listening for the cyclic decrease in rate during expiration and increase in rate during inspiration characteristic of SA

How are dissocaitives metabolized?

by the liver but may also be excreted unchanged in the urine

How are surgical needles categorized?

by the needle point, needle body and needle eye

How is the dosage determined for dexmedetomidine?

by the surface area

What are the different cesarean procedures?

c-section w spay, c-section w/out spay, en bloc resection(removal of the uterus)

Why does hypocarbia occur?

can be attributed to overzealous artificial ventilation, increased respiratory rate, too light a plane of anesthesia, pain, or hypoxia.

Describe the use of curved needles

can be full, half or double curve. Double curve are generally used in large animal surgery. Half curved are rarely used and full curve are used often

Why does hypercarbia occur?

can be the result of a decreased respiratory rate, decreased respiratory minute volume, exhausted soda lime, malfunction of one of the unidirectional valves on the anesthesia machine, or a kinked endotracheal tube.

What effect does acepromazine have on genitals?

can cause penile prolapse in horses and other large animals

Where are peripheral catheters placed in canines and felines?

canine:cephalic and lateral saphenous Feline: cephalic, medial saphenous and femoral veins

Which class of drugs can NSAIDs antagonize?

cardiac disease and hypertensive including ACE inhibitors and diuretics

What happens when the CCL is ruptured

causes instability of the stifle, which leads to degenerative changes in the joint, including synovitis, degeneration of articularcartilage, osteophyte formation, and capsular fibrosis.

Which conditions can be diagnosed via gastroscopy?

chronic inflammation (with or without overgrowth of Helico- bacter organisms), superficial erosions, foreign bodies, motility disorders, ulcerations, and neoplasia. Gastros- copy can also be a therapeutic intervention when used to remove foreign bodies (Figures 7-159 to 7-161) and place feeding tubes

coracidium

ciliated hexacanth embryo

Protozoans that infect swine

ciliates and apicomplexans

What are the three phases of instrument cleaning?

cleaning, decontaminating and sterilizing

What are the three methods of gloving?

closed, open and assisted

dictyopterans

cockroaches and grasshoppers -can spread salmonella

What is the blood-gas partition coefficient of desflurane? vapor pressure? MAC?

coefficient= 0.42 vapor pressure=700mmHg MAC=7.2% to 9.8%

What are the clinical signs of strongyle infection?

colic, weight loss, lethargy fever and poor appetite -most of the damage with strongyle infections is caused by the migration of larvae through mesenteric arteries and liver

atelectasis

collapse or close of lung resulting in reduced or absent gas exchange

autotransfusion

collecting and storing one's own blood to use to replace blood lost during surgery

cauda equina

collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord

seroma

collection of tissue fluid in a pocket under the skin that forms in areas of excessive movemnt

Which drugs cause cardiac arrhythmias?

commonly caused by anticholinergics, alpha2-agonists, cyclohexamines, and barbiturates,

How would you treat ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia?

electrical defibrillation

What is the neonatal period? Pediatric?

first 6 weeks for neonatal pediatric 12 weeks

Why are abdominal exploratory surgeries done?

for diagnostic or curative purposes. Obtaining surgical biopsy specimens. Curative may be due to sudden onset of clinical signs with the abdomen such as masses and traumatic injury to the abdomen.

What can cause devitalized bowel?

foreign bodies, neoplasia, intussusception, necro- sis, and ischemia.

Trypanosoma cruzi cyst

found encysted in cardiac muscle and other tissues such as esophagus

What is an incidental parasite?

found in a host where it normally doesn't live

Hepatozoon americanum

found in skeletal muscle of dogs deadly

schizonts

found in the endothelial cells of spleen, bone marrow and liver

Draw the trophozoite form of Giardia

four pairs of flagella two nuclei adhesive disk on anterior portion of the trophozoite

antimesenteric border

free border; less vascular

What are the five freedoms

freedom from hunger freedom from discomfort freedom from disease freedom from injury freedom from pain

Describe the way propofol distributes throughout the boy

fter IV administration, absorption is most rapid in tissues with very high blood flow, known as the vessel-rich group (the CNS, heart, liver, kidney, and endocrine tissues), which make up only about 10% of total body weight but receive about 75% of the total blood flow. Absorption is less rapid in muscle, which makes up about 50% of the body weight but receives only 20% of the blood flow, and slowest in fat, which makes up about 20% of body weight but receives a meager 5% of the blood flow (Figure 3-4). Within seconds of IV injection, propofol is dispersed throughout the body via the bloodstream. Large amounts of the drug rapidly reach the brain because of the excellent blood supply this organ receives. Propofol is highly lipid-soluble, and its entry into brain tissue is enhanced by the high lipid content of the brain. The rapid absorption of propofol into the brain causes the animal to lose consciousness within 30 to 60 seconds of injection.Once the propofol concentration in the blood falls below that in the brain tissue, the drug begins to leave the brain and 74reenter the circulation, where it is redistributed to muscle, fat, and other body tissues.

Ctenocephalides felis, Ctenocephalides canis, Cediopsylla simplex, Odontopsylla multispinosus, and Echidnophaga gallinacea Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

gallinacea) Location of Adult: On the skin Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Cockle or comblike head (Ctenocephalides); monster eater (Echidnophaga) Transmission Route: Host-to-host contact and contact with infested environment Common Name: Cat flea, dog flea, common eastern rabbit flea, giant eastern rabbit flea, and poultry flea, respectively Zoonotic: Yes, adults will bite humans for a blood meal but will not infest humans as they do animals -cat flea is most common -Cediopsylla simplex, the common eastern rabbit flea, is often found around the face and neck of domestic rabbits. Odontopsylla multispinosus, the giant eastern rabbit flea, is often found over the "tail-head" region at the base of the tail of domestic rabbits (when they curl up in sleep with the head close to the tail). Echidnophaga gallinacea is also known as the sticktight flea of poultry (Figure 13-41; see also Figure 13-38). A common flea of chickens and guinea fowl, E. gallinacea also feeds on dogs and cat

What is the demeanor of animals that are in neuroleptanalgesia?

generally lie quietly in lateral or sternal recumbency(standing in adult horses) but can be aroused by sufficient noise or surgical stimulation

What are the miscellaneous effects of etomidatea?

good muscle relaxant but myoclonus may occur during induction and recovery -IV injection painful -rapid injection can cause RBC hemolysis in cats -adrenal cortical function can be depressed -nausea, vomiting and involuntary excitement

What are the two types of sterilizers commonly used?

gravity air displacement and high vacuum sterilizers both types use

Grade II open fracture

have a larger puncture or tear in the skin around the location of the fracture, and more soft tissue damage associated with the external trauma is evident.

Grade I open fracture

have a small puncture hole in the skin around the location of the fracture. The bone broke through the skin and was exposed to external factors but is no longer visible. Soft tissue damage is minimal.

Grade III open fractures

have large tears and in some cases, loss of skin at the area of impact. Soft tissue damage is extensive and usually caused by severe bone fragmentation along with the force of the external impact. Grade III open fractures can also be described as shearing injuries. The patients usually have lost so much soft tissue that the bone is exposed, and in some cases, the bone is sheared away or even missing.

What are the fluid rates for patients in shock

he IV infusion rates for animals in shock are even higher (e.g., 80 to 90 mL/kg for dogs and for large animals, and 40 to 60 mL/kg for cats). In a clinical setting, for patients with blood loss, hypotension, or shock, a 10 to 20 mL/kg bolus is commonly administered, and the patient is reevaluated. Further boluses are given as necessary. If two boluses have not stabilized the patient, administration of a colloid should be considered.

Describe the life cycle of Sarcoptidae mites

he entire four-stage life cycle is spent on the host. Male and female mites breed on the skin surface. The female mite penetrates the keratinized layers of the skin and burrows or tunnels through the epidermis. Over a 10- to 15-day period, she deposits 40 to 50 eggs within the tunnel. After egg deposition, the female dies. Six-legged larvae emerge from the eggs in 3 to 10 days and exit the tunnel to wander on the skin surface. These larvae molt to the eight-legged nymphal stage within tiny pockets in the epidermis. Nymphs become sexually active adults in 12 to 17 days, and the life cycle begins again.

What is the dosing of epinephrine with the RECOVER guidelines?

he low dose (0.1 mL/10 kg body weight IV) is recommended every other 2-minute BLS cycle unless there has been no ROSC for over 10 minutes, in which case the high dose (1.0 mL/10 kg body weight IV) may be considered. Epinephrine is supplied in a concentration of 1:1000 (1 mg/mL). Consequently, when using the low dose protocol, cats, small dogs, medium dogs, and large dogs receive approximately 0.05 mL, 0.1 mL, 0.2 mL, and 0.3 mL respectively.

How is the time constant calculated

he time constant (in minutes) is calculated by dividing the total volume of the breathing circuit (in L) by the carrier gas flow rate (in L/min). When the vaporizer dial setting is changed, it takes five time constants to effect a 95% change in circuit concentration.

Why are white blood cells monitored before anesthesia?

he total WBC and absolute leukocyte counts (calculated from the total WBC and the differential WBC counts) measure the total number of leukocytes and the number of each type of leukocyte (neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils). Changes in these counts may be associated with infection, parasitism, leukemias, and many other conditions that may be exacerbated by anesthesia and surgery or may increase anesthetic risk. The blood smear evaluation reveals changes in blood cell morphology, inclusions, parasites, and other conditions that may influence preanesthetic patient management. Interpretation of these tests is complex and beyond the scope of this chapter.

Mayo-Hegar Needle Holder

heavy duty suturing

What are complications associated with castrations?

hemorrhage and scrotal hematoma

Describe the life cycle of ticks

here are four major stages in the life cycle of ticks: egg, larva, nymph, and adult. After their engorgement on the host, female ticks drop off the host and seek protected places, such as cracks and crevices or under leaves and branches, to lay their eggs (Figure 13-73). The six-legged larvae, or seed ticks, hatch from the eggs and feed on the host (Figure 13-74). The larva molts to the eight-legged nymphal stage, which resembles the adult stage but lacks the functioning reproductive organs of adult ticks. After one or two blood meals, the nymph becomes mature and molts to the adult stage. During the larval, nymphal, and adult stages, ticks may infest one, two, three, or even many different host species (Figure 13-75). This ability to feed on several hosts during the life cycle plays an important role in the transmission of disease pathogens among hosts. It is important to remember that any infestation of domestic animals by either mites or ticks is referred to as acariasis. -Most ticks do not tolerate direct sunlight, dryness, or excessive rainfall. They can survive as long as 2 to 3 years without a blood meal, but female ticks require a blood meal before fertilization and subsequent egg deposition. Tick activity is restricted during the cold winter months but increases dramatically during the spring, summer, and fall seasons.

Why is monitoring a pig difficult?

hey have few palpable peripheral arteries, and their cone-shaped legs make the use of blood pressure cuffs, which are designed for the more cylindrical arms of people, difficult. In most pigs the pulse can be palpated in the ear and on the medial aspect of the carpus. In smaller pigs the brachial artery may be palpable, a Doppler signal may be obtained from it, and oscillometric cuffs will often give pressure readings (Figure 11-13). A Doppler signal is also relatively easy to elicit from the tail artery, which runs along the ventral midline of the tail. Pulse oximeter transmission probes will usually work on the tongue, but can also be placed on other areas such as the snout and ears of pink pigs (Figure 11-14).

Define stridor

high-pitched sound generated from partially obstructed air flow in the upper airway.\n\ncan be present on inhalation or exhalation.

Which areas are targeted for pain prevention with epidurals?

hind limbs, abdomen, caudal thorax, pelvis and tail

How to confirm Leishmania infection`

histopathology submission of infected organs

Connell suture pattern and Cushing pattern

historically used to close hollow organs but not used very frequently anymore. Can be placed to appose tissue edges but if pulled more tightly create an inverting pattern.

Describe plasma sterilization

hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) gas is produced when the gas is stimu- lated under a deep vacuum with radiofrequency (RF) or microwave energy. The plasma system uses H2O2 to form the reactive components to kill microorganisms. After a liquid solution of H2O2 is vaporized in a chamber, RF energy is applied to create an electric field that then creates low-temperature gas plasma (Figure 9-15). Within the plasma, H2O2 is broken into reactive components, including hydroperoxy-free and hydroxyl-free radicals. These radicals interact with cell membranes, killing the microorganisms in the process. After the components lose their energy, they recombine to form harmless by-products of oxygen and water.

Which disease states can cause cardiac arrhythmias?

hypoxia, hypercarbia, heart disease, trauma, and gastric dilatation-volvulus.

What are the tick species associated with tick paralysis?

ick species associated with tick paralysis are Dermacentor andersoni, the Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) tick; Dermacentor occidentalis, the Pacific Coast tick; Ixodes holocyclus, the paralysis tick of Australia; and Dermacentor variabilis, the wood tick.

When are dark red mucous membranes seen?

if a patient is septic

What is the onset and duration of action for mepivacaine? What is the potency?

immediate onset -duration 90-180 minutes -2.5 potency

enterotomy

incision into the intestines

gastrotomy

incision of the stomach

Indications for amputation

include trauma resulting in severe soft tissue damage or irrepa- rable fractures and neurologic injuries (e.g., brachial plexus avulsion). Other indications are neoplasia, isch- emic necrosis, unmanageable arthritis, and severe congenital deformities.

What are the physiological differences that put brachycephalic breeds at increased anesthetic risk>

including very small nasal openings, an elongated soft palate, everted laryngeal saccules, and a small-diameter trachea compared with non-brachycepahlic breeds.

tachypnea

increase in RR

peripheral hypersensitivity

increased sensitivity to painful stimulus

What does a prolonged CRT indicate?

indicates that tissues in the area tested have reduced blood perfusion. This may be a result of vasoconstriction caused by epinephrine release. Poor perfusion may also be a result of low BP caused by anesthetic drugs (including acepromazine, alpha2-agonists, propofol, and inhalation agents), hypothermia, cardiac failure, excessive anesthetic depth, blood loss, or shock. Poor perfusion will also result in reduced temperature of the affected part.

fly strike

infestation of skin by fly larvae -These larvae irritate, injure, and kill successive layers of skin and produce exudates. Maggots can tunnel through the thinned epidermis into the subcutis. This process produces tissue cavities in the skin that measure up to several centimeters in diameter

pediculosis

infestation with lice -sucking lice can reduce PCV by as much as 10-20%

acariasis

infestation with ticks or mites

What is coccidiosis?

inflammation of the intestine. One of the most commonly diagnosed protozoan diseases in puppies and kittens causes watery diarrhea

What are the effects of anticholenergics on the GI system?

intestinal peristalsis which can cause colic in horses and bloat in ruminants

What is an R and A surgery?

intestinal resection and anastomosis is the excision of a segment of bowel followed by the reestablishment of the two remaining segments. Done to remove dead or diseased segment.

Thiopental sodium injection time

ive thiopental via an indwelling catheter to reduce the risk of perivascular injection. Alternatively, a skilled anesthetist may use a needle and syringe, using extreme care to stay within the vein. In healthy patients, give one half the calculated dose over 10 to 15 seconds, then to effect. If intubation is not possible after 45 seconds, a second dose (approximately one quarter the calculated dose) may be given. Continue until the desired depth is reached. This technique allows rapid induction of stage III anesthesia with minimal stage II excitement. Old, ill, or debilitated patients may need much less and require that the drug be given much more cautiously and slowly.

What does athropod mean?

jointed foot

Where are IV catheters placed in horses?

jugular

agonal breathing

irregular, gasping breaths that precede apnea and death

What were the disadvantages of diethyl ether?

irritating to tracheal and bronchial mucosa which resulted in increased salivation, mucous secretions and increased risk of airway blockage

Why is the heart harder to assess under anesthesia?

irst, because of a decreased strength of contraction often associated with anesthesia and, second, because the heart will gravitate to the lowest aspect of the thoracic cavity, making the heartbeat hard to hear if the stethoscope is placed in the customary locations.

Define a surpraventricular tachycardia

is a series of three or more SPCs in a row. SPCs are abnormal but may or may not require treatment, depending on the frequency.

Describe ventricular tachycardia

is a series of three or more VPCs in a row. It is a dangerous rhythm that significantly compromises cardiac output and requires intervention. Intravenous (IV) lidocaine is the most common treatment for severe VPC

What is systolic blood pressure?

is produced by the contraction of the left ventricle as it propels blood through the systemic arteries.

What is diastolic blood pressure?

is the pressure that remains in the arteries when the heart is in its resting phase, between contractions.

Which anesthetic gases are considered the least toxic?

isoflurane and sevoflurane, are thought to be among the least toxic inhalation agents because a very small percentage of these agents is metabolized (approximately 0.2% of inhaled isoflurane and 2% to 5% of sevoflurane).

What are the commonly used liquid anesthetics?

isoflurane, sevoflurane, and desflurane

What are the adverse effects of butorphanol?

less sedation, dysphoria, cardiac depression, respiratoy depression

What are the doses for splash blocks?

lidocaine-Should not exceed 4mg/kg for dog 2mg/kg for cat bupivacaine should not exceed 2mg/kg for dog and 0.5mg/kg in cats

number 15 blade

like number 10 but have the length

Which areas are appropriate for pulse stregnth testing?

lingual(dogs, femoral, dorsal pedal, facial(horses), auricular and carotid.

Which arteries can be used to monitor pulses?

lingual, femoral, carotid, dorsal metatarsal, and digital

What are the adverse effects of buprenorphine?

little sedative effect on its own and respiratory depression that is difficult to reverse especially at high doses

What marks the border between Stage I and stage II anesthesia?

loss of conciousness

Define anesthesia

loss of sensation

What marks the border between Stage II and Stage III anesthesia?

loss of spontaneous muscle movement

What are the advantages of local anesthesia?

low cardiovascular toxicity, low cost, excellent pain control in immediate post operative period and minimal recovery time

What are some signs of appropriate sedation for a horse?

lowering of the head and neck, drooping of the lower lip, reluctance to move, a wide-based stance, and a lack of interest in the surrounding activity.

What forms is propofol available in?

macroemulsion-10mg/mL as well as egg lecithin, glycerin and soybean oil microemulsion microemulsion-clear with no lipids but only available in UK and other countries

Canine eyelid neoplasms

meibomian adenoma is most common, melanoma, papilloma, histiocytoma

laparoscopy

minimally invasive abdominal procedure performed for the purpose of examining the peritoneal cavity and its viscera. A type of endoscope, called a laparoscope, is placed through a small midline incision or opening into the abdominal wall for inspection of the abdominal contents.

What are benzodiazepines referred to as?

minor tranquilizers

What type of pain is butorphanol used for?

moderate to mild pain

Cruciate pattern

modification of horizontal matteress. Results in an x over the wound edges

What does more zeroes in a suture material mean

more 0s means smaller suture 0000=4-0 suture

Class 3 wound

more than 12 hours old with profound contamination

What are opioids commonly used for neuroleptanalgesia?

morphine, buprenorphine, butorphaol and hydromorphone

Which drugs can be given by CRI?

morphine, fentanyl, oxymorphone, hydromorphone, methadone and butorphanol

What are the opioids used for severe pain?

morphine, oxymorphone, hydromorphone, methadone and fentanyl

backhaus towel clamp

most common. Has penetrating tips and is available in 3.5 or 5.5 inch sizes

Why do renal patients sometimes have prolonged recovery?

most drugs are secreted by the kidneys, inhalant agents have an advantage

What are the forms of Entamoeba hisolytica

motile feeding stage and environmentally resistant cyst stage

Which anesthetic gases are considered the most toxic?

much higher percentage of the older halogenated agents administered to a patient or inhaled by the anesthetist (approximately 15% to 20% of halothane and 40% to 50% of methoxyflurane) is retained within the body fat, to be metabolized in the liver and excreted through the kidneys over the next few hours to days.

What are agonist antagonists?

nalbuphine, butorphanol

What are possible complications of enterotomy surgeries?

necrosis, perforations of the bowel, leakage and dehiscence of the intestines which can lead to peritonitis.

What are the two types of receptors for acetylcholine in the PNS?

nicotinic(postganglionic neurons) and muscarinic(on target organs)

Should you fast small rodents and rabbits?

no because they do not vomit and can lead to hypoglycemia. Give food up to 1-2 hours before anesthesia and immediately following recovery

What length should the ET tube be?

no longer than the distance between the most rostral aspect of the mouth and the thoracic inlet

How long does IV anesthesia induction last?

no more than 10-20 minutes

What should the pressure manometer read when the controlled ventilation is provided?

no more than 20cm H2O(15 mmHg) in small animals or 40 in large animals

Lorna(Edna) clamp

non-penetrating tips which makes it ideal clamp for securing second layer drapes

inflammatory pain

occurs at the site of tissue injury due to the release of chemical mediators such as prostaglandins and histamine

When are anesthetic chambers used?

on patients that are feral, vicious or cannot otherwise be sedated

What are the characteristics that define protozoans

one celled organism

proglottid

one of the segments that make up most of a tapeworm's body -contains complete set of both male and female reproductive organs

What is an open faced interface system

one that is open to the room air and contains no valves (see Figure 5-2, B). In this type, an open port communicating directly with the room air provides positive and negative pressure relief. This type works best with high-flow active evacuation systems.

What type of system is most effective active or passive?

one with a dedicated vacuum pump

What is the onset of action and duration of acepromazine?

onset is about 15 minutes IM or IV in horses with peak effect in 30-60 minutes -duration is 4-8 hours in small animals but may be longer in older, sick patients -duration of action is shorter in horses 1-3 hours

What is the onset of action and duration of propofol?

onset is about 30-60 seconds duration is 2-5 minutes after single bolus with complete recovery in 20 minutes for dogs and 30 minutes for cats

What is the onset of action and duration of bupivacaine?

onset-20 minutes and duration is 6

Why is bagging important?

opens up collapsed alveoli which prevents atelectasis. Anesthetized patients tend to breathe more shallowly; combined with the weight of other internal organs on the lungs, the shallow breath ing contributes to atelectasis

Which anesthetics can be reversed?

opiods, alpha 2 agonists and benzodiazepines

Which drugs block transduction pathway?

opioids, NSAIDs, local anesthetics, corticosteroids

How can patient pain be reduced through measures other than drugs?

optimization of the patient's environment, use of gentle handling techniques, and nutritional interventions that can be performed or coordinated by the veterinary technician.

What is nystagmus?

oscillation of the eyeballs that is commonly seen in horses during certain planes of anesthesia -slows as depth increases -rarely happens in ruminants and small animals

Otodectes cynotis Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

ost: Canines, felines, and ferrets Location of Adult: External ear canal Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Ear biter or ear receiver Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Ear mites Zoonotic: Yes, but extremely rare (per American Association of Veterinary Parasitologists and Companion Animal Parasite Council) -highly transmissible -The mites exhibit characteristic short, unjointed pedicels with 241suckers on the ends of some of the legs (Figure 13-56). The anus of O. cynotis is terminal.

Cheyletiella parasitivorax Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

ost: Dogs, cats, and rabbits Location of Adult: Surface of the skin and hair coat Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Small lip Transmission Route: Direct contact from host to host Common Name: Walking dandruff Zoonotic: Yes (per the American Association of Veterinary Parasitologists) -surface-dwelling (nonburrowing) mites that reside in the keratin layer of the skin and in the hair coat of various definitive hosts, which may be dogs, cats, or rabbits. These mites ingest keratin debris and tissue fluids and are often referred to as walking dandruff because the motile mites resemble large, moving flakes of dandruff. -visible to naked eye -enourmous hooklike accessory mouthparts on anterior end -Members of the genus are also known for their characteristic body shape, a silhouette that has been reported as resembling a shield, a bell pepper, the acorn of an oak tree, or a western horse saddle when viewed from above

Chrysops species and Tabanus species Location of adult Distribution Derivation of genus transmission route Common name Zoonotic Prepatent period Drawing Identification method

ost: Large mammals and humans, but small animals and avians can be attacked Location of Adult: Skin surface when feeding; otherwise around lakes and ponds Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Chrysops, golden eye; Tabanus, gadfly Transmission Route: Fly from host to host Common Name: Deerflies (Chrysops species) and horseflies (Tabanus species) -Tabanus very large flies, Chrysops are smaller with banded wings -both have very large eyes -Adult flies lay eggs in the vicinity of open water such as lakes and ponds. Larval stages of horseflies and deerflies are found in aquatic to semiaquatic environments, often buried deep in mud at the bottom of lakes and ponds. Adults are seen in summer and prefer sunlight. The female flies feed in the vicinity of open water and have reciprocating, scissorlike mouthparts, which they use to lacerate the tissues of vertebrates and lap up the oozing blood. -These flies may act as mechanical transmitters of anthrax, anaplasmosis, and the virus of equine infectious anemia.

E. bovis oocysts

oval small micropyle opening 20 x 28 um

Trichinelloid egg

oviparous

ascaroid egg

oviparous

trichostrongyle egg

oviparous

spiruroid egg

ovoviviparous

somatic pain

pain from musculoskeletal system

visceral pain

pain from organs

What is the visual analogue scale?

pain scale where the left end is no pain and the right pain is the worst inmaginable -the observer places an x on the ruler -still subjective

pathological pain

pain that is amplified and persistent. This type of pain is due to malfunction of or damage to the nervous system and is maladaptive pain because it serves no useful function, but causes suffering.

What sensations are lost during an epidural bloc?

pain, cold, warmth, touch, joint sensation, and deep pressure. After an epidural block, the patient will be unable to move the pelvic limbs, and the muscles, including the anal sphincter, will appear relaxed.

What stages of anesthesia is the pupillary reflex present?

present in light Stage III and surgical anesthesia, but is lost during deep Stage III anesthesia.

How to preserve a specimen from a fecal sample

preserve in 70% alcohol or 10% formalin

What are the different ways to monitor heart rate?

palpation of the apical pulse through the thoracic wall, palpation of a peripheral pulse, or auscultation with a stethoscope or with the assistance of an esophageal stethoscope, which is a device that amplifies the heart sounds. It may be measured mechanically with an electrocardiograph, a BP monitor (Doppler blood flow detector or oscillometric monitor), or an intra-arterial line attached to a transducer.

What are the reflexes used in anesthesia?

palpebral, corneal, pedal, swelling, laryngeal, PLR

paratenic host

parasite remains encysted within the hosts tissue

What happens if the reservoir bag is too small??

patient may be unable to fill its lungs completely during inspiration -may also become overinflated increasing air pressure in patients lungs

Tritrichomonas foetus

pear shaped 10-25 um long sail like undulating membrane three whiplike flagella

Babesia canis

pear shaped organism within the RBC

What are the differences in vital signs between pediatric and adult patients?

pediatric patients tend to have higher heart and respiratory rates than adult animals and slightly lower blood pressure

hypostome

penetrating anchorlike sucking organ of the tick

Jones towel clamp

penetrating towel clamp, Jones is more delicate and lightweight than the other styles. Has squeeze handle mechanism. Good for small patients

postoperative care for external fixators

periodic visits for cleaning of pin tracts and tightening of clamps. In most cases the external bars or rings need to be padded and wrapped to prevent trauma to the patient and to reduce the risk that the fixator will be caught on objects (e.g., bedding mate- rial, crate, furniture). Radiographs should be taken post- operatively and then every 4 weeks until the fixator is removed. Activity should be restricted for the first 4 weeks, then left to the veterinarian's discretion.

What is an esophageal stethoscope?

permits auscultation of the heart from a distance even when the patient's chest is covered with surgical drapes and conventional auscultation is difficult. The esophageal stethoscope consists of a thin, flexible catheter attached to an audio monitor that electronically amplifies the heart sounds

circulating nurse

person who opens packs and is a runner for the surgical team

What are the three classes of tranquilizers or sedatives?

phenothiazines, benzodiazipines and alpha2 adrenoceptor agnosts

What are the three membrane layers of the spinal cord?

pia mater arachnoid dura mater

How to pick up a rat

pick up around the shoulders and lift clear of box. If resents handling an be picked up by base of tail. place thumb under chin to avoid being bit

How to handle a mouse for exam

picked up by base of tail and lifted clear of their transport box

What are generally the sedating drugs of choice for patients with cardiac issues?

pioid agonists such as hydromorphone or fentanyl with or without a benzodiazepine are often a good choice for sedating patients because both drug classes cause minimal cardiovascular depression and bradycardia can generally be controlled with anticholinergics if excessive.

subcuticular suture pattern

placed in the subcuticular space just under the skin. Placed to eliminate need for skin sutures. Skin edges are close enough in apposition that further the external sutures are unneccesary. Usually a continous pattern but sometimes interrupted.

When should an epidural be started

presurgically, not as effective for pain control postoperatively

Why is ET intubation difficult in a pig?

poor visibility, resulting from the limited extent to which the mouth can be opened, a long soft palate, the relatively narrow dental arcade, and the anatomy of the larynx and proximal trachea. A ventral laryngeal diverticulum is present into which the tube can easily be misdirected, and the laryngotracheal junction is at an angle rather than being straight as in other domestic species. Finally, the larynx of a pig is sensitive and may spasm when stimulated, making intubation even harder.

What are the five types of symbolic relationships?

predator-prey, phoresis(carrying), mutualism, commensalism, parasitism

What is done differently during induction of brachycephalic breeds?

preoxygenate for 5 minutes before anesthetic induction

What are the three distinct areas for surgical facilities?

preparation area, scrub area and surgery room

What are the methods of wound closure?

primary closure delayed primary closure secondary closure secondary intention

What are the adverse effects of fentanyl?

profound sedation bradycardia respiratory depression panting in dogs hyperresponsiveness to sound

Neuroleptanalgesia

profound state of sedation and analgesia induced by simultaneous administration of an opioid and a tranquilizer

adaptive pain

promotes survival by preventing injury and by promoting healing of the injured body part. This type of pain is generally treatable and typically resolves when healing is complete

Which local anesthetics are used for ophthalmics?

proparacaine and tetracaine

What are the different injectable anesthetics?

propofol, etomidate, alfaxalone and barbiturates

Spironucleus muris

protozoa in small intestines and feces Host: Rodents (Giardia assemblage G), mice Location: Proximal small intestine Distribution: Worldwide Derivation of Genus: Named after the famous biologist Alfred Giard (Giardia) Transmission Route: Ingestion of oocyst Common Name: Giardia (Giardia spp.), flagellates of mice (S. muris) Zoonotic: No (only assemblage A is zoonotic) Greatest potential for pathogenicity

What types of procedures is acepromazine used for?

provide sedation, decrease the dose of general anesthetic required and to ease induction and recovery -Also used alone or with opioids to provide mild to moderate level of sedation and traquilization for minor procedures like wound cleaning, grooming and noninvasive diagnostics

Describe closed gloving

provides assurance against contamination because no bare skin is exposed in the process. With the left hand, pick up the right glove from the inner wrapper of the glove package by the folded cuff (Figure 3-22). Extend the right hand (still within the cuff) with the palm facing upward. Place the palm of the glove palm down against the palm of the hand with the thumb and fingers of the glove facing the body. (The thumb side should be underneath on the same side as the thumb of the right hand facing upward.) When performing closed gloving, remember the saying, "Palm to palm, thumb to thumb, fingers of glove facing the elbow." Through the gown cuff, grasp the back of the glove cuff with the right hand (Figure 3-23). With the left hand, pull and lift the cuff up and over the gown cuff and the right hand (Figure 3-24). The hand is still inside the sleeve. With the left hand, grasp both the top of the right glove cuff and the gown cuff, and pull toward the elbow while pushing the hand through the gown cuff and into the glove. Be sure the cuff of the glove completely covers the cuff of the gown (Figure 3-25). Glove the left hand using the same technique (Figures 3-26 to 3-28).

What is an incision drainage procedure?

purpose is to eliminate dead space between the layers of cartilage until scar tissue can form. An incision is made directly over entire hematoma. Fibrin and blood clots are removed and area is lavaged. Several vertical mattress sutures are placed on the concave surface of the ear around the incision to avoid pocket formation where fluid can collect. The incision itself should remain open to allow contiual drainage

Anoplocephala perfoliata, Anoplocephala magna, and Paranoplocephala mamillana eggs

pyriform apparatus

What are the four egg types of cestodes?

pyriform apparatus, dipylidium, taenia and pseudophyllidean

What are neuroendocrine responses to pain?

release of acTH, elevation in cortisol, noprenephrine, epinephrine and decrease in insulin.

What are the long term effects of exposure to waste gases?

reproductive disorders, liver and kidney damage, bone marrow abnormalities, and chronic nervous system dysfunction.

entropion

rolling in of the eyelid

How are anesthetic agents classified?

route of administration, time period they are given, principal effect or based on chemistry

What instruments are used for abdominal exploratory sugeries

routine pack, Balfour abdominal retractor(self retaining), sterile laparotomy sponges, heated lavage fluids and suction.

When are rigid endoscopes better?

s are better than flexible endoscopes for procedures involving a direct pathway that are better viewed with a straight or a direct line of sight. Such areas include the ears, nose, urinary bladder, joint spaces, and abdominal or thoracic viscera.

What is malignant hyperthermia?

s most commonly seen in pigs, although there are reports of susceptible individuals in other species. In pigs this is caused by a genetic defect that results in excess muscle metabolism in the presence of some anesthetic drugs such as the halogenated inhalant agents and the muscle relaxant succinylcholine. Restraint can also precipitate this syndrome, so stress should be minimized during handling of susceptible swine.

What is the schedule of fentanyl?

schedule II

What schedule are ketamine and telazol?

schedule III

What schedule drug is buprenorphine

schedule III

What is the schedule of butorphanol?

schedule IV

What schedule is alfaxolone?

schedule IV

Gelpi

self retaining retractor with single sharp pointed tips. Traumatic. Useful in orthopedic and neurologic surgery

Weitlaner Retractor

self retaining that has teeth in the jaw that can be blunt or sharp. Used mostly in orthopedic surgery

What are the disadvantages of local anesthetics

short duration anad danger of cardiac/CNS toxicity with repeat use

Describe how to preserve a specimen for shipping

should be in a preservative such as 70% ethyl alcohol or 10% formalin to render it noninfectious. Specimen jars must be sealed well so that they do not leak, and a suitable packing material, such as Styrofoam "peanuts," should be added to cushion the contents from any rigorous handling during the shipping process. During the summer months or during any hot spell, cool packs should accompany any specimen.

What is the lowest a blood pressure should be underanesthesia?

should be maintained above 70mmHg and never allowed to drop below 60mmHg

How are surgical drills cleaned?

should not be submerged in water or ultrasonically cleaned. A foam disinfectant cleaner should be used to loosen debris and then wiped with a cloth with alcohol. Can be autoclaved

Crile hemostatic forceps

similar to kelly with the difference being how far the serrations extend along the jaw. Crile has serrations that extend the full length

What happens during anesthesia for ruminants?

similar to that of dogs, eyes rotate ventromedially during surgical anesthesia

What is the difference between methadone and oxymorphone/hydromorphone?

similar with the exception that it is less likely to cause vomiting in cats and dogs. Also an antagonist at the NMDA receptor

What are the different suture attachment ends

single eye, french that have to have the suture attached swaged needles(eyeless) have suture attached when manufactered

Draw the trophozoite stage of Entamoeba histolytica

single spherical nucleus 4 to 7 um with a tiny pinpoint structure an endosome

What is a yankauer suction tip?

single tube design but bulkier than the Frazier. General purpose

What is a frazier/adson suction tip

single tube with fairly small opening. Thumb hole to control amoutn of vacuum. Frequently used in orthopedic and neurologic procedures

What are the main agents used for local anesthetic?

skin-bupivacaine, lidocaine, mepivacaine and procaine ophthalmic-tetracaine and proparacaine

Derf needle holder

small in length and is used with small animals, special species and extraocular opthalmic procedures.

Halstead mosquito hemostatic forceps

small jaws with fine horizontal serrations that extend the entire length of the tip. Used to clamp small vessels

What are the criteria for patient machine selection?

small machine is used for patient under 150kg and large animal machine is intended for patients >150kg

What is the most efficient flotation solution?

sodium nitrate but it forms crystals and distort the eggs after a time

What are the instruments required for GDV surgery?

soft tissue pack, Balfour abdominal retractor, Army-Navy retractors and extra towel clamps, orogastric tube, sterile laparotomy sponges, heated lavage fluid and suction

What types of instruments are needed for a cystotomy?

soft tissue pack, bladder spoon, Balfour abdominal retractor

What instruments are used for an enterotomy?

soft tissue pack, doyen intestinal clamps, sterile laporotomy sponges, heated lavage fluids, suction

spiracular plate

specific diagnosis can be made by examining the spiracular plate on the posterior end of the fly maggot. Each species of fly maggot has its own distinctive spiracular plate, much like a fingerprint

How is entamoeba diagnosed

standard fecal flotation for cyst and trophozoite forms

What are the disadvantages of PVC tubes?

stiffness risks trauma to tracheal mucosa during tube placement

Postoperative care for internal fixation

strict confinement for 6 to 8 weeks. The patient is rechecked at suture removal, usually 10 to 14 days after surgery. Follow-up radiographs are taken every 4 to 6 weeks postoperatively to monitor bone healing. Young animals may need to be followed more closely because of the rate of bone healing and increased risk of angular complications. Internal fixation is not routinely removed unless the complications involve the implant.

treatment of silicate crystals

surgical removal

treatment of cystine crystals

surgical removal or dissolution -hills u/d -d-penicillamine -mercaptopropoionyl gycline

treatment of calcium oxalate crystal

surgical removal, hills u/d diet

What is etomidate?

tomidate is a noncontrolled, sedative-hypnotic imidazole drug that is occasionally used for induction of anesthesia in dogs, cats, and exotics. Little effect on cardiovascular and respiratory systems very useful in high risk patients not used very often due to high cost nd significant adverse effects

What are the types of colloid fluids?

synthetic colloids blood products

Position for abdominal procedures

the patient is placed in dorsal recumbency and secured by all four legs to the table. Keeping the patient in perfect dorsal recumbency is a challenge in the animal with a deep-chested conforma- tion. Deep-chested dogs need to be placed in a V-trough or braced up by sandbags (Figures 2-63 and 2-64). Some surgery tables are designed with built-in adjustability to form a V-trough (Figure 2-65). Another technique to keep the patient balanced on the table involves tying the fore- legs crossed over the chest (Figure 2-66).

What are the orthopedic preps rule of thumbs?

the rule of thumb of clipping the limb from the joint distal to and the joint proximal to the surgical incision. The limb needs to be clipped circumfer- entially to allow complete limb draping and manipula- tion. As with soft tissue procedures, the rule for clipping may need to be adjusted according to the patient's size, the surgeon's preference, and additional procedures to be performed (e.g., bone graft harvest, drain placement). Tables 2-7 (forelimb) and 2-8 (hind limb) provide clip- ping guidelines for most orthopedic procedures.

Which blood pressure measurement is taken on a doppler?

systolic

What are normal systolic, diastolic and MAP for dogs and cats

systolic=110-160 MAP=60-90 Diastolic=50-70

What are normal systolic, diastolic and MAP for horses

systolic=>80 MAP=60-90 diastolic=>50

What are normal systolic, diastolic and MAP for cattle

systolic=>80 map=60-90 diastolic=>50

Cochliomyia hominivorax larva

t possesses two deeply pigmented (black) and parallel tracheal tubes on the dorsal-posterior third of the third-stage larva (Figure 13-29)

What are the adverse effects of ketamin?

tachycardia, increased blood pressure, increased intraocular and cranial pressure, seizures, delirium and slaivation

What are pain related respiratory changes?

tachypnea, shallow breathing, exaggerated abdominal component, panting, open mouth breathing

Taenia egg

tapeworm egg type with a wide outer shell and thicker outer covering and with a single six hooked hexacanth within.

pseudophyllidean egg

tapeworm egg type with an operculum at one end and an oval shape

armed tapeworm

tapeworms with a rostellum (backward facing hooks of attachment)

What is TKX

telazol, ketamine and xylazine commonly used for sedative protocol in swine

What is the composition of maintenance fluids?

tend to have moderate levels fo Na and Cl and are designed to maintain fluid balance over a long period of time

What are the different characteristics of surture material?

tensile strength-amount of force in PSI that the suture can withstand before it breaks memory-ability or tendency of suture to return to its original packaged form Flexibility-the ease with which the suture is manipulated absorbability capillarity-ability of the suture to allow microbes to wick to the interior of the suture stand structure-multi or monofilament knot security-ability of suture to hold the knots the surgeon puts in place color

What is the benefit of induction and maintenance with an inhalant agent?

the anesthetist has excellent control over depth and can either increase or decrease depth relatively rapidly by changing the vaporizer dial setting. With inhalant agents, however, there is a delay between the time the dial setting is changed and the time it takes for the patient's anesthetic depth to change, because it takes at least several minutes for the new concentration to fill the breathing circuit, reach the patient's lungs, and equilibrate with the blood and CNS.

What are the life stages of anoplurans and mallophagans?

the egg stage which is also called a nit. Oval and white and are usualyl in the hair or feather shaft which hatch about 5-14 days after being laid -nymphal stage similar to adult but lacks reproductive organs and genetal openings. Lasts 2-3 weeks -adult stage is similar in appearance to nymphal stage but large and can reproduce. -cannot live longer than 7 days after being removed from host -transmitted by fomates

What are the developmental stages in the life cycle of acarines?

the egg stage, the larval stage, the nymphal stage, and the adult stage. -larval stage has three pairs of legs where nymphal and adult acarines have four pairs

Describe complex metamorphosis

the egg stage, the larval stage, the pupal stage, and the adult stage

What happens to horse eye position during anesthesia?

the eye can rotate in any direction and sometimes they eyes will rotate in opposite directions

procercoid

the first parasitic larval stage of Pseudophyllidean cestodes

intermediate host

the host that harbors the larval, juvenile, immature or asexual stages of a parasite

Why are antihcholinergics avoided in ruminants?

they don't decrease saliva but instead make it thick and ropey increasing obstruction risk

Why do NSAIDs have renal toxicity?

they reducte the beneficial prostaglandin PGE2 that maintains adequate blood flow within the kidney -can also interfere with platelet aggregation

What is a variable-bypass, flow-over vaporaizer

they regulate the anesthetic output by routing a portion of the carrier gas through the vaporization 111chamber where the liquid anesthetic is located, while the remainder of the carrier gas bypasses the vaporization chamber. The portion of the carrier gas that enters the chamber flows over the surface of the liquid anesthetic and picks up vaporized anesthetic.

What is a disadvantage of using electrocautery for incisions?

they take longer to heal becuase of the charring of the tissue

trichuris egg

thick, yellow-brown, symmetric shell with prominent polar plugs are both legs

Cooley clamp

thoracic forceps

Satinsky clamps

thoracic forceps

How are older halogenated compounds metabolized

through the liver and kidneys because they have very high lipid solubility

prepatent period

time from point of infection until a specific diagnostic stage can be recovered

What are the two methods of scrubbing procedures for surgical personnel

timed stroke count both should begin with general hand and arm wash to loosen surface debris and transient microorganisms

What are the indications for entropion surgery?

to alleviate ocular irritation caused by the eyelid or by the facial hairs adjacent to it which come on contact with the conjunctiva and cornea

What are the different routes of administering a local anesthetic?

topical, injection, intraarticular, nerve plexus, vein or epidural space

What is TIVA?

total intravenous anesthesia where the anesthetists gives boluses every 3-5 minutes to maintain surgical anesthesia

What are the morphologic forms of giardia?

trophozoite(feeding stage) and cyst stage

What is a good rule of thumb to follow when shaving a surgical area?

two clipper blade widths in every direction from proposed incision site

pedipalps

two leglike accessory appendages that act as sensors or supports when the tick fastens to hosts body

What is a universal F-circuit?

type of breathing tube in which the inspiratory tube is located within the expiratory tube. This arrangement is designed to conserve body heat. As the cold inspired gases travel though the inner turquoise tube, the warm expired gases travel through the outer, transparent tube, warming the inspired gases

ring fixator

type of external fixator that uses different-sized rings (usually three or four) and various types of pins (Figures 7-102 and 7-103). These pins are drilled through the bone and attached to the ring using clamps. The pin is then put under tension to pull the fracture back into alignment and is secured to the ring frame.

Toxocara eggs

unembryonated and spherical and have a deeply pigmented center and rough pitted outer shell

What is the mode of action of doxapram?

unknown but thought to stimulate the CNS

idiopathic

unknown cause

Describe the characteristics of a nematode

unsegmented, elongate, rounded on both ends, circular in cross section and bilaterally symmetric -exterior covered by thin cuticle

Iodine Disinfectant

used as antiseptics, corrosive, inactivated by organic material

External fixation implants

used for compound fracture repair. Applied to the external surface of the skin

Scalpel number 10 blade

used for small animal surgery. Primarily for skin incisions

What is doxapram used for?

used in small animals to stimulate respiration and speed awakening during recovery -also used in neonates

What are other uses for tranquilizers?

used to calm patients for transport, physical examiniation, radiographic procedures and wound treatment

Jamshidi biopsy needle

used to collect bone biopsies

Beaver blade handle

used to hold beaver scalpel blades.

Freer Elevator

used to lift bone

Michele Trephine

used to obtain a bone biopsy

Intramedullary pins

used to stabilize certain types of fractures or soft tissue in orthopedic situations.

Mayo dissecting scissors

used when cutting large muscle masses, cartilage or any other nondelicate tissue. Can be straight or curved

horizontal mattress suture

used when suturing a flap, goes in and out of the tissue on the same surface; identified by a horizontal stitch or "bite"; tied with one surgeon's knot on the surface where suture procedure began. ideal in areas of tension.

bothria

usually 2 in number (dorsal and ventral), and take the form of shallow pits

How is GG used?

usually given as a part of an anesthetic induction protocol in combination with ketamine (after premedication with an alpha2-agonist or acepromazine). GG is also used to maintain anesthesia for short periods (less than 1 hour) in horses as part of a total IV anesthetic mixture commonly known as "triple drip" (GG combined with ketamine and an alpha2-agonist, typically xylazine).

What is the vapor pressure of isoflurane? What type of machine is used What is the blood-gas coefficient? MAC?

vapor pressure = 240mmHG -precision -low coefficient 1.46 -1.3 to 1.63% in common domestic species

What does VOC mean for anesthesia machines?

vaporizer out of circuit -precision vaporizers

What body processes do IV fluids compensate for?

vasodilation, decreased cardiac output, and increase in insensible fluid loss that can occur during anesthesia

What is the T wave?

ventricular repolarization

Adson thumb tissue forceps

very narrow tip that broadens to a 1/2 inch wide shaft tips are as follows: adson dressing-flat atraumatic serrations adson-brown-two parallel rows of nine shallow teeth on both tips adson 1x2-one tooth on one tip and two teeth on the other

What are common clinical signs of neoplasia of the intestinal tract?

vomiting, weight loss, flatulence, and melena.

What are the effective workplace practices to minimize gas exposure

waste gas, the anesthetist must adhere to workplace practices that minimize waste gas release. These practices include minimizing leaks in anesthetic delivery systems, following anesthetic techniques and procedures that minimize usage of anesthetic gases, avoiding spills of liquid anesthetic, capturing exhaled waste gas, and minimizing the use of anesthetic techniques that make effective scavenging difficult such as use of masks and chambers.

Which drugs can be mixed?

water-soluble medications can be mixed together

Define cachexia

weakness and wasting of the body due to severe chronic illness

Biologic data signs rabbit

weight= 2000-6000g RR=40-60 HR=135-325 Blood volume=250 PCV=36-48 BG=4-8 TP=5.4-7.5 BUN=17-23.5 Life span=5-10 years

Biologic data sign mouse

weight= 25-40 RR=80-200 HR=350-600 Blood volume=2.5 PCV=36-49 BG=3.5-9 TP=3.5-7.2 BUN=12-28 Life span=2-2.5 years

Biologic signs rat

weight= 300-500g RR=70-115 HR=250-350 Blood volume=30 PCV=38-50 BG=3-8 TP=5.6-7 BUN=6-23 Life span=2-3.5 years

Biologic data signs guinea pig

weight= 700-1200g RR=50-140 HR=150-250 Blood volume=60 PCV=37-48 BG=4.5-6 TP=4.6-6.2 BUN=9-32 ALT-25-59 Life span=4-8 years

Biologic data signs hamster

weight= 85-150g RR=80-135 HR=250-500 Blood volume=9 PCV=36-55 BG=3-8 TP=5.9-6.5 BUN=10-25 ALT=12-36 Life span=1.5-2 years

Biologic data signs gerbil

weight= 85-150g RR=90 HR=260-300 Blood volume=9 PCV=41-52 BG=3-7 TP=4.3-12.5 BUN=17-27 Life span=3-5 years

When are trypsin or chymotrypsin used for wounds?

when (1) further surgi- cal débridement may damage important nerves and blood vessels, (2) deeper fistulas exist, or (3) the patient is a poor anesthesia risk.

When is local anesthesia used?

when the patient is tractable, when general anesthesia is undesirable or of high risk, or when the means to deliver it safely are unavailable. The advantages of local anesthesia include low cardiovascular toxicity, low cost, excellent pain control in the immediate postoperative period, and minimal patient recovery time

When should an oxygen tank be changed?

when the pressure drops below 500 psi (about 3400 kPa), indicating only 150 L of oxygen remaining in the tank.

What are the objectives of surgical anesthesia?

xthe patient does not move, is not aware, does not feel pain, and has no memory of the procedure afterward. At the same time, the anesthetist must avoid excessive anesthetic depth, which will result in a dangerous depression of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems.

Which anesthetic medication are cows most sensitive to?

xylazine, they require 1/10th the dose of horses

What is the color of sevoflurane?

yellow

What are the weight guidelines for selecting a reservoir bag?

• 500 mL for patients up to 3 kg • 1 L for 4 to 7 kg • 2 L for 8 to 15 kg • 3 L for 16 to 50 kg • 5 L for 51 to 150 kg • 35 L (on a LA machine) for large animals over 150 kg

What are indications that animals are too deeply anesthetized?

• A respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min or fewer; shallow respirations, or exaggerated respiratory movements • Pale or cyanotic mucous membranes • Capillary refill time greater than 2 seconds • Bradycardia • Weak pulse; systolic blood pressure less than 80 mmHg (indirect measurement) • Cardiac arrhythmias • Cold extremities; body temperature is often less than 35° C • Absent reflexes, including palpebral and corneal reflexes • Flaccid muscle tone • Dilated pupils; absent pupillary light reflex

surgical dress code

• A surgical dress code should be written and posted so that it can be easily followed and enforced. • A dress code should include the defined areas where surgi- cal attire must be worn, appropriate attire within those defined areas, and the acceptable options for cover apparel outside the surgical area. • The scrub suit should be covered with a clean laboratory coat at all times when outside the surgical area. • Personnel are not allowed to wear laboratory coats in the surgery room. • Scrub suits worn in the surgery room should not be worn home. • Clean, freshly laundered scrub suits should be donned just before entry into the surgery room and should not be worn from home into the hospital. • Proper surgical attire includes wearing a head cover that completely covers all head and facial hair, surgical masks that effectively cover the mouth and nose, and clean shoes with or without shoe covers. • Head covers and masks need to be donned before the surgical hand scrub or hand rub is begun. • Masks must fit properly so that a cough or sneeze is not vented out the side of the mask.

What are teh ACVAA guidelines for anesthetic monitoring?

• Assessment of circulation, oxygenation, ventilation, and body temperature • Monitoring of patients under, and recovering from, neuromuscular blockade • Recordkeeping • Monitoring during the recovery period • Recommendations regarding personnel • Monitoring sedated patients

What are some of the procedures that have been described for induction of anesthesia with neuroleptanalgesicse?

• Administration of an anticholinergic and tranquilizer intramuscularly 15 minutes before slow IV injection of the opioid. • Administration of an anticholinergic intramuscularly, followed 15 minutes later by slow IV administration of the tranquilizer-opioid mixture. If diazepam is selected as the tranquilizing agent, the opioid should be given first, followed 1 to 2 minutes later by diazepam, because if diazepam is given before the opioid agent has taken effect, excitement may be seen. In young dogs, acepromazine offers more reliable sedation than diazepam and can be given at the same time as the opioid. • Alternating small doses of hydromorphone or fentanyl and diazepam by slow IV injection until the animal is adequately anesthetized. Two syringes are used because these drugs cannot be mixed together. • IM administration of the tranquilizer-opioid mixture.

What is the consensus of the anesthetic community regarding waste gases?

• Adverse health effects are associated with chronic exposure to high levels of waste anesthetic gas, but studies have failed to prove an association between the low levels of waste anesthetic gas normally found in scavenged hospitals and adverse effects on hospital employees. • A waste anesthetic gas scavenging system should always be used with any equipment used to deliver halogenated inhalant anesthetics or nitrous oxide and specific workplace practices should be followed to keep exposure to waste anesthetic gases to a minimum.

What are the main reasons a patient will not stay anesthetized?

• An inadequate vaporizer setting. • A vaporizer that is inadequately filled with liquid anesthetic. • A blocked, misplaced, or disconnected endotracheal tube. • An endotracheal tube that is too small or is inadequately cuffed. • Apnea or inadequate tidal volume • Misassembly or leakage of the anesthetic machine. This may be due to a failure to set it up correctly, leaks in the system, or inadvertent disconnection of hoses. • Inadequate oxygen flow. • Malfunction or incorrect calibration of the vaporizer.

What are common causes of hypotension?

• Anesthetic agents (especially acepromazine, alpha2-agonists, barbiturates, propofol, and inhalant agents) • Excessive anesthetic depth • Vasodilatation secondary to allergic reactions or endotoxic shock • Blood loss • Dehydration • Cardiac arrhythmias • Preexisting heart disease • Positive-pressure ventilation • Gastric distention

Why does body temperature decrease during a procedure

• Animals are routinely shaved before surgery, and the skin is often prepared with antiseptic and alcohol solutions that cool the skin by evaporation. • An anesthetized animal is incapable of generating heat by shivering or muscular activity. • The metabolic rate of an anesthetized animal is less than that of a conscious animal, resulting in less heat generation. • During the course of surgery, a body cavity may be opened and the viscera exposed to air at room temperature. • Some preanesthetic and general anesthetic agents cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in an increased rate of heat loss. • Pediatric and geriatric animals are less able to maintain thermoregulation and are therefore even more predisposed to hypothermia than adult animals. • Small patients lose heat faster because the body surface area is proportionately greater than the surface area of larger patients. • Administration of room temperature IV fluids will further decrease body temperature. • Patients placed on non-rebreathing systems constantly breathe fresh gas, which is cold and dry; they therefore expend energy warming and humidifying this gas.

What are some of the emergency situations that may arise during anesthesia?

• Animals that will not stay anesthetized • Animals that are too deeply anesthetized • Pale mucous membranes 379 • Prolonged capillary refill time • Hypotension • Dyspnea and/or cyanosis • Tachypnea • Abnormalities in cardiac rate and rhythm • Apnea • Respiratory arrest • Cardiac arrest

How do you prevent laryngospasm?

• Apply no more than 0.1 mL of 2% injectable lidocaine directly to the glottis before placement. Aerosolize it with a 25- to 26-gauge needle, or apply 2 to 4 drops on the arytenoid cartilages with a tomcat catheter attached to a 1-mL syringe. Wait 30 to 60 seconds for the lidocaine to take effect before attempting intubation. As an alternative, a small amount of lidocaine gel can be gently applied with a sterile cotton swab. • Be sure the patient is adequately anesthetized before attempting to intubate the patient, because increased anesthetic depth decreases the incidence and severity of laryngospasm. • Prepare carefully, wait for the glottis to open before attempting placement, and try to get the tube in the first time. Repeat attempts worsen laryngospasm. • Never force the tube! This can lead to severe and potentially life-threatening complications including tracheal rupture, pneumothorax, and pneumomediastinum.

What equipment is required for e tube intubation?

• Appropriately sized endotracheal tubes (at least three of slightly different diameters) • A 2-foot length of IV tubing or rolled gauze to secure the tube • A gauze sponge to grasp the tongue • A 6-mL or 12-mL syringe to inflate the cuff • A good examination light • A stylette if using a narrow-diameter tube (this is most important for cats) or any other tube that requires additional support • Lidocaine injectable solution or lidocaine gel to control laryngospasm (in cats only) • A laryngoscope with an appropriately sized blade if desired

What equipment is needed for intubation of a ruminant?

• Appropriately sized endotracheal tubes (at least two of slightly different diameters) • Stylette (small ruminants and calves only) • A mouth gag to hold the jaws apart (adult cattle only) • Laryngoscope (small ruminants and calves) • Gauze sponge to grasp the tongue (if preferred) • A syringe to inflate the cuff (10 mL for small ruminants and calves or 60 mL for adult cattle) • Long forceps to remove feed material if present • Suction to remove liquid regurgitus if present

Oxygen flow rates for closed system during maintenance for >150kg

• Approximately 1 to 2.5 L/min. (This guideline represents approximately 3 to 5 mL/kg/min.)

What are the unique risks of c-sections?

• Aspiration of vomitus because of a partially full stomach in the event that an emergency caesarean section must be performed • Decreased lung capacity because of a diaphragm that is pushed cranially from a distended uterus • Increased cardiac workload because of advanced pregnancy • Physiologic anemia because of increased plasma volume without a corresponding increase in the number of red blood cells (this is accentuated as the number of fetuses increases) • Poor regulation of blood pressure • Decreased anesthetic requirements because of the effect of progesterone and its metabolites on gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors

What are the monitoring recommendations of the ACVAA?`

• Assessment of circulation, oxygenation, ventilation, and body temperature • Monitoring of patients under, and recovering from, neuromuscular blockade • Recordkeeping • Monitoring during the recovery period • Recommendations regarding personnel • Monitoring sedated patients

What are the ECG rhythms associated with a patient in CPA?

• Asystole (no electrical activity, or "flatline"): On an electrocardiogram, this rhythm appears as a flat baseline with no visible waveforms or complexes and the heart is not beating (Figure 13-9). • Pulseless electrical activity (PEA): A normal or nearly normal ECG tracing is evident, but this organized electrical activity does not produce any heart beats (Figure 13-10). Patients with this rhythm have no pulse and no heart muscle contractions and therefore no forward movement of blood. PEA (also known as electromechanical dissociation [EMD]) is the hardest rhythm to treat. • Ventricular fibrillation (VF): This is a pattern of chaotic and disorganized electrical activity that appears as coarse vertical zigzag lines that do not resemble normal complexes (Figure 13-11). When viewed directly, the heart muscle "writhes" and has the appearance of a bag of worms. • Pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT): This rhythm is a continuous series of wide and bizarre QRS complexes that occur very close together (ventricular premature complexes, or VPCs) in a patient that has no palpable pulse (Figure 13-12). In patients wi

What are some strategies to avoid excessive anesthetic depth

• Avoid excessive anesthetic depth. • Provide adequate analgesia. • Use preanesthetic medications to decrease the amount of anesthetic required. • Use caution when administering drugs that decrease cardiac output, induce bradycardia, or cause vasodilatation. • Administer IV fluids at a rate sufficient to maintain blood pressure. • Some patients may require medication to maintain blood pressure (such as ephedrine, dobutamine, or dopamine).

What are some strategies to minimize heat loss in anesthetized patients?

• Avoid excessively cold temperatures in the surgery suite or treatment room. • Always place a barrier between the patient and tabletops, especially those made of stainless steel. • Warm IV fluids to 37.5° C (approximately 100° F) before administration, or place a segment of the fluid line in a bowl of warm (37.5° C [approximately 100° F]) water to warm the fluids as they travel through the IV line. Realize that warming fluids in a microwave can result in excessively hot regions or can easily overheat the fluids. Fluids over 42° C (107.6° F) cause hemolysis and damage to the vascular endothelium and organs. For this reason, fluids must be mixed and the temperature always checked before they are administered to the patient. • Place a circulating warm water blanket between the patient and the table. These quilted, vinyl blankets are attached to a unit that circulates warm water through the blanket. • Place the patient on a forced warm-air blanket. These devices consist of a quilted plastic blanket (similar to a pool floater) that is placed under and sometimes over the patient. A device is attached that circulates warm air through the blanket.

What are the most common problems that can result in waste gas leakage?

• Breathing hoses, the reservoir bag, or the endotracheal tube have holes or are not securely connected to the machine or breathing system. • The carbon dioxide absorber canister is not securely sealed. Leaks are often caused by improper positioning of the canister or by the presence of absorbent granules on the seals around the canister. • The covering over a unidirectional valve is not tightly closed. • The connection between the pop-off valve and scavenger is not airtight. • The vaporizer cap was not replaced, or not tightly closed, after the vaporizer was last filled. • If using nitrous oxide: the connections for nitrous oxide gas lines are not tightly secured; O-rings, washers, and other seals joining nitrous oxide gas tanks to the machine hanger yokes are missing, worn, or out of position.

Induction and Maintenance with an IM Injection

• Calculate the volume to be administered. • Administer the agent via the IM route. • Place the patient in a quiet area for 15 to 20 minutes, where it can be monitored. • After peak effect, check the anesthetic depth and start the procedure if depth is adequate. • If the anesthetic depth is inadequate, give additional drug intramuscularly or intravenously or administer an inhalant agent by mask.

What are some strategies to reduce anesthetic risk in geriatric patients?

• Carefully assess and stabilize the patient prior to procedure • Use premedications to minimize adverse effects of general anesthetics • Reduce anesthetic doses by 30% to 50% • Allow longer time for response to drugs • Administer fluids at reduced rate • Keep patient warm

What are the therapies used in post cardiac arrest?

• Carefully controlled oxygen therapy to ensure adequate oxygen delivery to tissues, but to avoid over oxygenation, which may injure tissues. • Carefully controlled ventilation to normalize blood carbon dioxide levels, which may cause decreased blood flow to the brain if too low or increased intracranial pressure if too high. Controlled ventilation can also decrease cardiac output if excessive or lead to pulmonary atelectasis and hypoxemia if inadequate. • Intravenous fluid therapy to optimize arterial blood pressure and central venous pressure. • Use of vasopressor drugs (drugs that increase vascular tone such as norepinephrine, vasopressin, and dopamine) and positive inotropes (drugs that increase the strength of heart muscle contractions such as dopamine and dobutamine) to support blood pressure. • Control of body temperature to protect organ function. • Treatment of cerebral edema with osmotic agents including mannitol and hypertonic saline.

When placing and maintaining an IV catheter for use during surgery remember these points...

• Choose a catheter of sufficient length to minimize the risk of dislodgement. • Choose a catheter of large diameter. • Choose a location that will not interfere with the procedure. • Use an administration set with an injection port. • After positioning the patient, check that fluids are flowing freely. • Avoid excessive catheter and patient movement during transfer. • Administer IV drugs slowly. • Use saline flush following IV injection of a drug.

Describe maintenance with inhalant agent

• Choose the initial dial setting on the basis of the anesthetic depth following intubation. • Make periodic changes in the vaporizer dial setting based on monitoring parameters. • If the anesthetic depth is slightly too light or deep, make small dial changes of approximately 0.5% to 1% increments with isoflurane or sevoflurane. • If the patient's anesthetic depth is significantly light (e.g., the patient exhibits spontaneous movement, swallowing, active reflexes, strong muscle tone), increase the oxygen flow to 50 to 100 mL/kg body weight per minute, and set isoflurane at 3% to 5% or sevoflurane at 4% to 6% (induction levels) until signs of increased depth are evident. • If anesthetic depth is significantly too deep (e.g., absent reflexes, flaccid jaw tone, central dilated pupils), then increase the oxygen flow to 50 to 100 mL/kg body weight per minute, turn off the vaporizer, and monitor the patient carefully until signs of decreased depth are evident. As soon as depth starts to decrease and the patient is safe, resume the anesthetic.

What are the disadvantages of laser surgery?

• Cost • Safety • Need for extensive training to prevent tissue damage

Describe the advantages and disadvantages of breathing vs nonrebreathing system

• Cost: Closed rebreathing (total) systems are most economical because the very low gas flow rates used with these systems conserve carrier and anesthetic gases. Semiclosed rebreathing (partial) systems use higher gas flow rates and so are not as economical as closed rebreathing systems. Non-rebreathing systems are the least economical because they use the highest gas flow of all the systems and consequently use more carrier and anesthetic gas per unit body weight. -Control of anesthetic depth: The speed at which the anesthetist can change anesthetic depth depends in part on the type of system used. rebreathing system takes longer for changes -conservation of heat and moisture: Rebreathing systems automatically warm and humidify fresh gas that enters the circuit as it mixes with the patient's expired gases. In non-rebreathing systems, the warmed and humidified gases exhaled by the patient exit through the scavenger, and the patient breathes only the cool, dry fresh gas. Non-rebreathing systems are therefore associated with significant loss of heat and water from the patient. In addition, the dry anesthetic gases may impair tracheobronchial ciliary function and dry the airways. -Production of waste gas-: Closed rebreathing systems release little waste anesthetic gas because oxygen flow rates are low and exhaled gases are recirculated rather than vented through the pop-off valve. Semiclosed rebreathing systems vent some waste anesthetic gas, which varies depending on the carrier gas flow rates used. In contrast, non-rebreathing systems vent nearly all exhaled gas.

What are some new findings on physical assessments that can be concerning before an anesthetic procedure?

• Dehydration increases the risk of anesthetic complications including hypotension, poor tissue perfusion, and kidney damage. • Anemia decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and predisposes the patient to hypoxemia. • Bruising lesions on the skin or mucous membranes, in the absence of trauma, often indicate a clotting disorder, which will increase the risk of potentially life-threatening intraoperative and postoperative bleeding. • Respiratory or cardiovascular system abnormalities increase the risk of anesthetic complications and death. • Abnormalities of abdominal organs such as an enlarged liver or abnormally small kidneys may be associated with abnormal organ function and a reduced ability to metabolize or excrete anesthetic agents. • General conditions that require veterinary attention such as ear mite or flea infestations, otitis externa, dental disease, overgrown nails, and anal sac impaction. These conditions are often most easily treated during the anesthetic procedure. Owners are often not aware these conditions are present and, once informed, will frequently authorize treatment. • Physical abnormalities that may influence the procedure. One example of this is an abdominally retained testicle in a patient presented for castration. This condition increases the complexity and cost of surgery, so the owner must be informed before the veterinarian proceeds.

Describe signs of all exotic species that should be more closely examined

• Discharges from the eyes and nose may indicate the presence of respiratory disease. Rats are commonly seen with a black or reddish brown discharge around their eyes or nose. This is a buildup of porphyrin secretions which, when wiped with a damp swab, will appear bright red. This can lead owners to report that their animal has been bleeding from its eyes or nose. These secretions are a nonspecific response to stress or illnesses such as chronic respiratory disease. • Labored or noisy respiration is also indicative of respiratory disease. • Soiling of the perineum can indicate gastrointestinal disturbances. • An unkempt or "staring" appearance of the coat is a general sign of ill health in small mammals. • Loss of skin tone in response to dehydration is more difficult to detect in small mammals than in the dog and cat. If loss of elasticity is noted, it usually indicates that more than 10% of body weight has been lost as fluid. When small mammals are markedly dehydrated, the eyes become sunken. This is commonly seen in rabbits and small mammals that are anesthetized for treatment of dental disease. Because the disease may have been present for some time, the animal may have had a prolonged period of reduced food and water intake. It is essential that these animals receive supportive fluid therapy before anesthesia. • Palpation of the regions overlying the spine and pelvis is helpful in assessing body condition. If the prominences of the vertebrae and of the pelvis are easily palpable, it is likely that the animal has lost a considerable amount of body fat. • It is difficult to examine the mucous membranes in small rodents, but in the rabbit both the gingiva and conjunctiva can be inspected easily. They should have a normal reddish coloration, and the capillary refill time should be under 1 second. As with the dog and cat, abnormal coloration of the mucous membranes may indicate underlying disease.

What are the major effects of halogenated inhalation anesthetics?

• Dose-related CNS depression • Hypothermia • Paddling, excitement, and muscle fasciculations during recovery • Variable effect on the heart rate • Vasodilation, and decreased cardiac output, blood pressure, and tissue perfusion • Dose-dependent respiratory depression • Hypoventilation, retention of carbon dioxide, and respiratory arrest • Adequate to good muscle relaxation • Depression of respiration in neonates • Production of carbon monoxide when exposed to desiccated CO2 absorbent

What are causes of bradycardia?

• Drug effects (e.g., alpha2-agonists or opioids) • Pre-existing conditions • Vagal stimulation associated with endotracheal intubation • Vagal stimulation associated with ocular surgery or manipulation of viscera • Excessive anesthetic depth • Hypothermia or hypoxia

What are some causes of cardiac arrhythmias?

• Drug effects (e.g., anticholinergics, alpha2-agonists, and barbiturates) • Anesthetic induction and light anesthesia • Hypoxemia or hypercapnia • Pre-existing conditions (e.g., gastric volvulus, splenic disease, heart disease, electrolyte and acid-base disturbances)

What are some causes of apnea?

• Drug effects (e.g., propofol, alfaxalone) • Hyperventilation that may accompany anesthetic induction and intubation • Overzealous manual ventilation

What are the different anesthetic techniques used for caesarean surgeries?

• Epidural analgesia combined with a tranquilizer or neuroleptanalgesia is popular because this technique, once mastered, provides inexpensive but effective anesthesia with minimal depression of the dam or the neonates. IV fluids and oxygen should be administered in conjunction with epidural analgesia, and blood pressure should be monitored. • General anesthesia using a variety of injectable and inhalant agents is also commonly used, with anesthetics given at the lowest effective dose to maintain anesthesia without unnecessarily depressing pediatric respiration. Because of the dam's increased sensitivity to medications, the dose of inhalant anesthetic required is often reduced by up to 40%. Propofol and ketamine are commonly used injectable agents. • Preoxygenation is helpful, regardless of the anesthetic protocol. • Opioid agents are favored by some veterinarians for caesarean anesthesia because they are reversible in both the dam and the neonates through the use of naloxone or another reversal agent. • Use of diazepam should be avoided because this agent is poorly metabolized by pediatric animals.

What are the additional complications of intubation in horses?

• Epistaxis may follow nasal intubation. • Animals with abnormal anatomy (miniature horses, diseases of the oral and nasal cavity, laryngeal paralysis) may be difficult or impossible to intubate. These patients may require endoscopy-assisted intubation, in which an endoscope is passed through the tube and into the larynx, then the tube is threaded off the endoscope. In some cases, placement of an endotracheal tube through a tracheostomy incision may be indicated.

What are the risks of controlled ventilation?

• Excessive airway pressure may rupture alveoli, leading to pneumothorax and/or pneumomediastinum. • Cardiac output may be decreased if positive pressure is maintained throughout the respiratory cycle (during both expiration and inspiration). • If the ventilation rate is too high, excessive amounts of carbon dioxide may be exhaled, leading to respiratory alkalosis, which (if severe) can cause cerebral vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral blood flow. • Controlled ventilation is generally more efficient at delivering anesthetic gas. A ventilator will thus deliver more inhalant anesthetic to the patient, which may lead to exacerbation of side effects such as hypotension and increased central nervous system depression. Consequently it may be advisable to reduce the precision vaporizer setting slightly when PPV is initiated, otherwise the patient's level of anesthesia may become too deep because of increased delivery of anesthetic. The anesthetist should monitor the patient closely and adjust the vaporizer setting according to the patient's anesthetic depth. Conversely, ventilators are often used as anesthetic delivery devices for large animal patients to maintain a smoother plane of anesthesia than sometimes occurs with spontaneous breathing. • Mechanical ventilation is not intended to relieve the anesthetist of the necessity for patient monitoring. The anesthetist must closely monitor all animals when ventilation is controlled or assisted to ensure that anesthetic depth and vital signs are maintained within acceptable limits. (See Case Presentation 7-2 for an example of the benefits and risks of providing ventilatory support.)

What are procedures performed under standing chemical restraint?

• Eye and eyelid surgery • Sinus and dental surgery • Castration • Major wound evaluation and repair • Mass removals • Rectovaginal fistula repair • Laparoscopy • Ovariectomy

What are the effects of GG on major organ systems

• GG affects the cardiovascular and respiratory systems minimally, causing transient mildly decreased blood pressure and tidal volume and mildly increased respiratory rate and GI motility. • GG causes skeletal muscle relaxation, including the pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles, but minimally affects the diaphragm. • At therapeutic doses, few adverse effects are seen. Excessive doses can cause muscle rigidity and apneustic breathing. -irritating to tissues -strong concentrations can result in RBC hemolysis

What are some common abnormalities of a capnogram?

• Hyperventilation caused by increased RR or VT or overzealous mechanical or manual ventilation will cause CO2 to be exhaled more quickly than it is produced and will consequently cause a gradual decrease in the ETCO2 (a shorter rectangle). • Hypoventilation (decreased RR or VT or inadequate mechanical or manual ventilation) will cause a gradual increase in ETCO2 (a taller rectangle). • Detachment of the endotracheal tube from the sensor fitting, esophageal intubation, a blocked endotracheal tube, or apnea will cause a sudden loss of the waveform (a flat line), because in each of these circumstances no CO2 will reach the sensor. • A malfunctioning exhalation unidirectional valve or exhausted CO2 absorbent will cause the baseline to rise above 0, reflecting rebreathing of CO2 in the inspired air (a failure of the baseline to return to 0 during inspiration) and increased ETCO2. • A leaky cuff or partially kinked endotracheal tube will cause a sloppy upstroke and downstroke (rounding of the edges of the rectangle).

What are the differences between IM and IV induction

• IM injections cannot be titrated or given "to effect." Usually the entire calculated dose is given at once. • In general, the dose for IM injection is about twice the corresponding IV dose. • Drugs administered by the IM route require more time to reach a high enough concentration in the brain to induce anesthesia. IM induction is therefore characterized by a relatively slow onset of anesthesia compared with IV induction (typically 10 to 20 minutes). Occasionally, if drugs are deposited in a fascial plane between muscles, or in subcutaneous (SC) tissue, slow or incomplete absorption may result in an even longer induction or a blunted effect. • After peak effect, if the patient's depth of anesthesia is still inadequate, additional drug must be given or an inhalant agent must be administered with a mask until the patient can be intubated. (Remember that some drugs such as propofol, etomidate, and thiopental sodium must not be given intramuscularly.) • IM induction is characterized by a lengthy recovery period because the animal requires considerable time to metabolize the relatively large dose of drug given by this route.

What are the most typical human errors causing anesthetic emergencies

• Inadequate training • Lack of familiarity with the anesthetic machine or anesthetic agents • Failure to adequately prepare the patient • Drug calculation and administration errors • Errors caused by fatigue, haste, or inattention

How does the blood-gas partition coefficient of an inhalant influence clinical use of the agent?

• Induction. Agents with a low blood-gas partition coefficient (isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane, and halothane) may be used for mask and chamber inductions, because inductions are rapid enough to induce the patient safely and in a reasonable length of time. Methoxyflurane, an agent with a high partition coefficient, cannot be used this way. • Maintenance. Agents with low blood-gas partition coefficients also have the advantage of allowing a rapid patient response to changes in anesthetic concentration during anesthesia. Patients anesthetized with isoflurane or sevoflurane may respond within a few minutes to changes in the vaporizer setting. If an agent with a higher partition coefficient is used (such as methoxyflurane), the anesthetist will observe a slower patient response to changes in the vaporizer setting. • Recovery. Patients anesthetized with agents with low blood-gas partition coefficients have a relatively fast recovery. Patients anesthetized with sevoflurane or isoflurane are often fully awake within a relatively short time after the vaporizer is turned off. Patients anesthetized with methoxyflurane often sleep quietly for 30 to 60 minutes after anesthesia.

What are the different characteristics of devitalized intestinal tissue?

• Lack of motility • Discoloration: black, green, gray • Severe thinning of the visceral wall • Lack of bleeding on cut section • Lack of fluorescein dye uptake • Lack of Doppler blood flow

What are the indications for a c-section?

• Maldeveloped fetuses. • Oversized fetuses. • Malpositioned fetuses. • Small pelvic canal size of dam. • Previous pelvic trauma of dam. • Insufficient dilation. • Uterine inertia (lack of contractility of uterus; can result from overstretching of uterus, toxemia, obesity, or exhaustion).

What are some strategies to reduce risk in pediatric anesthetic patients?

• Minimize heat loss • Avoid prolonged fasting and do not withhold water • Consider IV 5% dextrose in isotonic crystalloids using an infusion pump or volume control chamber • Weigh accurately and dilute injectable drugs if necessary • Reduce anesthetic doses • Inhalant agents preferred to injectable agents • Minimize dead space

What are the indications for castration?

•Prevention of roaming. •Prevention of aggressive behavior or fighting. • Prevention of urine marking. • Correction of congenital abnormalities. •Treatment of scrotal or testicular neoplasia. •Treatment of scrotal abscess, infection, or trauma. •Treatment of disease elsewhere in the body related to hormones (e.g., prostatic disease, perineal hernias, perianal tumors)

What are the procedures for minimizing waste gas?

• Minimize use of anesthetic induction chambers. When necessary, use anesthetic chambers in a well-ventilated room, and close the anesthetic chamber immediately after the patient has been removed. • Minimize the use of anesthetic masks. When use is necessary, ensure that the mask fits snugly but comfortably around the face. • Use cuffed endotracheal tubes and check the cuff for leaks before use. • Choose the lowest fresh gas flow rates that can be safely used. • Connect the patient to the breathing circuit and cuff the ET tube before turning on the vaporizer. • Avoid disconnecting the patient from the breathing circuit unnecessarily, and occlude the Y-piece, or turn off the flowmeters and vaporizer, when it is necessary to do so. • When it is necessary to empty the rebreathing bag, gently evacuate the contents into the scavenging system instead of into the room. • At the end of a procedure, turn the vaporizer off, and have the animal breathe pure oxygen for several minutes, before detaching the endotracheal tube connector. • Ensure ventilation of all rooms in which anesthetic waste gas is released at a rate of at least 15 air changes per hour, 3 of which should be fresh. • Keep at least 3 feet (1 m) distant from recovering animals when possible, and use an exhaust fan in recovery areas if available. • Service anesthetic machines regularly. • Inspect equipment often and perform routine maintenance. • Discard damaged or nonfunctional equipment. • After each procedure, wash, rinse, and dry hoses; reservoir bags; masks; endotracheal tubes; and all other detachable rubber components. • Fill vaporizers at the end of the workday. Place a scavenger hose near the fill port to evacuate evaporated anesthetic, wear gloves and an apron, and use a filling device or bottle adapter to minimize spills. Cap empty liquid anesthetic bottles, wash hands, and launder protective clothing immediately after. • Turn vaporizers and flowmeters off when not in use. • If liquid anesthetic is spilled, use approved methods to clean up, cap empty bottles, and store vaporizer-filling devices in a sealed plastic bag.

Maintenance with Repeat Boluses of Propofol, Alfaxalone, or Another Ultrashort-Acting Agent

• Monitor the patient every few minutes. • Administer additional boluses as needed to effect, typically every 3 to 5 minutes. • The necessary volume for each bolus varies but is often approximately one tenth to one quarter of that required for induction. • Maintain the patient at an optimal plane and avoid overdose.

What are the advantages of laser surgery>

• More rapid healing time of tissue • Cauterization of blood vessels during incision • Sterilization of tissue during incision (less risk of postopera- tive infection) • Minimal risk of damage to underlying healthy tissue (CO2 laser specifically) • Less need for suturing • Reduced postoperative discomfort or pain • Reduced postoperative swelling • Shorter surgery time in many cas

What are the risks that an anesthetist must always keep in mind when using anesthesia?

• Most anesthetic agents have a very narrow therapeutic index, so the consequences of a calculation or administration error may be serious. Therefore care and attention to detail are critical when dosages are calculated and rates of administration are adjusted. • Most anesthetic agents cause significant changes in cardiovascular and pulmonary function (e.g., decreased cardiac output, respiratory rate, tidal volume, and blood pressure), which can be dangerous or lethal if not carefully assessed and managed. These changes often occur quickly and without much warning. Consequently, vital signs and indicators of anesthetic depth must be closely monitored. • The anesthetist must accurately interpret a wide spectrum of visual, tactile, and auditory information from the patient, anesthetic equipment, and monitoring devices. To do this successfully, he or she must be able to assess rapidly multiple pieces of information and distinguish those that require action from those that do not. • The anesthetist must have a comprehensive understanding of the significance of physical parameters (e.g., heart rate, respiratory rate, and reflex responses) and machine-generated data (e.g., blood pressure and oxygen saturation readings). The anesthetist must also be able to use his or her knowledge to make rapid and decisive judgments regarding patient management and to carry out corrective actions quickly and effectively. • The potential for patient harm during administration of anesthetics is relatively high when compared with many other procedures. When serious anesthetic accidents occur, they are often devastating not only for the patient, but also for the client and the anesthetist. In addition, after an accident, clients may choose to pursue legal action or file a complaint with the state veterinary medical board if they feel negligence was involved. These factors underscore the importance of maintaining a high standard to maximize the likelihood of a favorable outcome. This high standard includes not only sound practices but also maintenance of detailed and accurate medical records, which are the cornerstone of a solid legal defense should a complaint arise. (See Chapter 6 for more information about anesthetic records.)

What are the precautions taken when handling etoprhine and carfentanil?

• Never handle these agents unless a trained person certified in CPR is present and in the immediate vicinity. • Inform all personnel of the potential danger. Be sure that only personnel directly involved in the procedure are present. • Wear personal protective equipment including gloves (double gloves are preferred), mask and goggles or preferably a face shield, and long pants and sleeves when handling these agents • Naloxone must be drawn up and ready for use. Note that up to three bottles (12 mg) may be necessary to antagonize a single drop of these opioids. So a total of at least 30 to 40 mg (three to four 10 mL bottles of naloxone at a concentration of 1 mg/mL) may be needed to reverse the effects of an accidental injection effectively. Some cases may require upwards of three times that volume. • Prepare the drug in an area that can easily be cleaned in the event that it is spilled. Have a source of running water or, if none is available, a bucket of fresh water in the immediate vicinity. • Avoid distractions and have all uninvolved personnel out of the room when preparing these agents. • Do NOT inject air into the drug vial (overpressurize the vial) before drawing the drug up. This will minimize the possibility of drug leaking out of the rubber stopper when the needle is withdrawn. • Use a device designed to prevent needle sticks when removing or replacing a needle cap • Transport loaded darts in a labeled, impenetrable, unbreakable, leakproof container. • Clearly mark the injection site on the skin of the animal so all personnel can visually identify it. Do not touch this area. • Dispose of used needles and syringes in a closed container immediately after use. • All reusable equipment used to inject the patient should be washed thoroughly with copious amounts of water. • If exposure occurs, immediately wash skin and clothing with copious amounts of cold water and make those around you aware so that emergency procedures may be instituted.

Describe electrode placement in large animals

• Obtain ECG before anesthesia with the patient in a standing position, as long as the patient is cooperative. • If monitoring for patients undergoing procedures, position does not matter. • Place the electrodes on the following locations: • White electrode on the right jugular furrow • Black electrode on the right jugular furrow a few centimeters away from the white electrode • Red electrode at the apex of the heart (left lateral thorax) • Monitor ECG using lead II

What are the different types of gastropexy procedures?

•Tube gastropexy •Circumcostal gastropexy •Muscular flap gastropexy •Belt-loop gastropexy •Incisional gastropexy-not a particular techniquie

When is a neuromuscular blocking agent appropriate?

• Patients that require mechanical ventilation. The use of neuromuscular blocking agents prevents spontaneous inspiratory efforts by the patient and allows more rapid and complete control of ventilation. This is particularly useful for thoracic or diaphragmatic surgery. • Orthopedic surgery. Neuromuscular blocking agents provide excellent muscle relaxation, which may be helpful in orthopedic procedures. • Ophthalmic surgery. Neuromuscular blocking agents prevent movement of the eyeball and cause it to remain in a central rather than ventral position, which facilitates intraocular surgery. • Cesarean sections. Neuromuscular blocking agents are not transferred across the placenta to the fetus and provide abdominal muscle relaxation, allowing easier access to the uterus. • Neuromuscular blocking agents may be useful in facilitating difficult intubation (e.g., intubating animals with laryngospasm) because they allow rapid control of the airway without coughing or gagging. • Occasionally, muscle-paralyzing agents are used in "balanced anesthesia" techniques. In balanced anesthesia, different drugs are used to provide the three components of general anesthesia (unconsciousness, muscle relaxation, and analgesia). Instead of using a high dose of a single agent such as propofol to induce general anesthesia, a balanced technique will include low doses of multiple agents (often an analgesic, a muscle-paralyzing agent, and an unconsciousness-inducing agent). The aim is to induce general anesthesia with a minimum of cardiovascular, respiratory, and other side effects.

Maintenance with a CRI of Propofol or Alfaxalone

• Place an IV catheter, attach an administration set, and begin IV fluid administration. • Calculate the volume of anesthetic needed to last the anticipated length of the procedure. • Draw this volume into a syringe. • Place the syringe in a syringe pump and program in the infusion rate in milliliters or microliters per minute, or in milliliters or microliters per hour (the manual will indicate accepted units). • Attach the syringe to the port of a winged infusion set primed with anesthetic to be administered. • Place the needle of the winged infusion set into the injection port of an IV administration set near the catheter. • After induction and intubation, start the syringe pump at the calculated rate. • Based on the results of monitoring parameters, make subtle changes in the infusion rate as needed to maintain the patient in surgical anesthesia.

What are some additional warming techniques during a procedure?

• Place warm water bottles containing water at 37.5° C (approximately 100° F) next to the patient. These bottles will lose heat quickly, however, and if left near the patient too long will worsen the hypothermia. Consequently, they must be checked and reheated on a regular basis. • Place the patient under infrared heating lamps at a distance of 75 cm (30 inches). • Flush the abdominal cavity with warmed fluids.

What are the predisposing factors for hypercarbia. hypoxemia and atelectasis?

• Prolonged anesthesia (more than 90 minutes) • Obesity • Administration of neuromuscular blocking agents (see following section) • Preexisting lung disease such as pneumonia • Recent head trauma • Surgical procedures involving the chest or diaphragm. These animals may have preexisting cardiovascular or pulmonary disease and are at significant risk for cardiovascular collapse or respiratory arrest if conventional anesthesia with unassisted ventilation is attempted • Species differences. Horses in particular are prone to the problems listed previously, regardless of physical status. Adult ruminants also tend to hypoventilate and become hypercarbic

What are procedures commonly performed under sedation in horses?

• Radiographic studies • Ultrasonographic studies • Endoscopy • Teeth floating • Minor wound suturing • Hoof trimming and shoeing • Nasogastric intubation • Venipuncture for catheter placement

Give some examples of procedures commonly performed under sedation

• Radiographic studies • Ultrasonographic studies • Transtracheal washes • Otic examination, flushing, and treatment • Blood draws • Wound treatment • Bandage and splint application • Toenail trimming • Grooming • Orogastric intubation • Urinary catheterization

What are some anesthetic problems encountered with geriatric patients?

• Reduced organ function • Poor response to stress • Serious illness not uncommon • Increased susceptibility to hypothermia, hypoxemia, hypotension, respiratory depression, and overhydration

What are some causes of cardiac arrest?

• Respiratory arrest • Drug reactions • Hypoxia of the heart muscle • Disease conditions such as gastric dilatation-volvulus, and heart muscle trauma • Anesthetic overdose

Complications with casts and splints

• Skin irritation • Skin ulcers • Non-union • Malunion • Delayed union • Infection

How would you perform chest compressions?

• Start chest compressions immediately after identification of CPA. • Perform compressions in uninterrupted 2-minute cycles. • Place most patients in lateral recumbency (right or left) with the feet away from you. (Dorsal recumbency may be considered for brachycephalic breeds.) • Use a two-handed technique over the widest portion of the chest cavity. (A one-handed technique directly over the heart may be considered for small dogs and cats. Compression directly over the heart in a lateral direction may be considered for keel-chested breeds. Compression directly over the heart on the sternum [while in dorsal recumbency] may be considered for barrel-chested breeds.) • Compress the chest at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute. • Compress the chest by one third to one half its width. • Allow full elastic recoil between compressions.

What are the most common sources of respiratory distress?

• The animal is unable to obtain oxygen from the anesthetic machine because the oxygen supply has run out, the flowmeter has been turned off, or the anesthetic circuit or endotracheal tube is blocked. 382 • The animal is unable to breathe normally because of airway obstruction or respiratory pathology. Causes of airway obstruction include endotracheal tube blockage, excessive flexion of the head and neck, laryngospasm, bronchoconstriction, aspiration of stomach contents after vomiting or regurgitation, and brachycephalic conformation. Common causes of respiratory pathology include pneumothorax, pulmonary edema, diaphragmatic hernia, and pleural effusion. • Use of heavy surgical drapes or constricting bandages also may impair normal respiration. • The animal may be too deeply anesthetized, to the point that respiration and other vital functions are adversely affected.

What must the inventory of controlled drugs include?

• The date the inventory was taken, including whether it was taken at the beginning or end of the day • The finished form of the drug (e.g., injectable, tablets, oral liquid) • The amount of each drug on hand (e.g., volume for liquid drugs, number of tablets) • The drug concentration (e.g., 10 mg/mL, 100 mg tablets) • The number of containers of each drug (e.g., five 10 mL bottles, two 500 tablet bottles)

How are the eyes used to gauge anesthesia depth?

• The eye rotates ventrally when the animal is in a mod erate or surgical level of anesthesia (Figure 510). • At light and deep levels of anesthesia, the eye is in a central position. • When dissociative anesthetics are given, the eye posi tion may never change (Figure 511). • As the anesthetic depth increases, the pupil constricts more slowly in response to a light shined at it (pupil lary light response [PLR]). • Deeper stages of anesthesia and anticholinergic drugs cause pupillary dilation (mydriasis). The use of these drugs in the preanesthetic protocol interferes with the reliability of this reflex.

Sterile field

• The space above and surrounding an open sterile pack is considered part of the sterile field. • The sterile field cannot be entered or touched by non- scrubbed-in personnel. • If non-scrubbed-in personnel enter or touch the sterile field, it is no longer sterile and is considered contaminated. Scrubbed personnel function within a sterile field. The scrubbed personnel's gowns are sterile in front from the chest to the level of the sterile field. The sleeves of the sterile gown are sterile from 2 inches above the elbow to the top of the edge of the cuff. The neckline, shoulders, and cuffed portion of the gown sleeves may become con- taminated by perspiration and therefore are not consid- ered sterile. The back of the gown is never considered sterile because a member of the surgical team cannot observe it constantly. The cuffs of the gown are considered contaminated because hands have passed through them.

What are the advantages of telazol over ket-val?

• Tiletamine appears to cause less pronounced apneustic respiration than ketamine. However, respiratory depression may be significant, particularly if a high dose is used or tiletamine is used in combination with other sedatives or anesthetics. • Tiletamine-zolazepam may be administered intramuscularly, intravenously, or subcutaneously, although currently in the United States. it is approved only for IM use in dogs and cats. • Tiletamine-zolazepam is effective in many species of wildlife, and in some species it is the drug of choice for capture and immobilization.

How would you check if the e tube is properly placed?

• Visualize the larynx, and confirm that the tube is in the correct location. • Watch for expansion and contraction of the reservoir bag as the animal breathes. • Feel for air movement from the tube connector as the patient exhales or when light, quick pressure is applied to the chest wall. • Watch for fogging of the tube with condensation during exhalation. • Check that the motion of the unidirectional valves coincides with breathing. The inhalation valve should open as the patient inhales, and the exhalation valve should open when the patient exhales. • Palpate the neck. The trachea is the only naturally firm structure in the neck. If the tube is inside the trachea, only the trachea will be palpable. If the tube is in the esophagus, both the tube and trachea may be palpable. It is not always easy to feel the tube, however, so mastery of this technique requires practice. • The ability of the patient to vocalize (growl, whine, or cry) indicates a misplaced tube. This is because vocalization requires the vocal cords to vibrate together, which is impossible if the tube is properly placed. • Many patients, especially if in a light plane of anesthesia, will cough or exhale forcefully during intubation. This is indicative of proper placement, although not all patients exhibit this sign, especially if anesthesia is deep. • Connecting a capnograph to the endotracheal tube will reveal an appropriate waveform and level of end-tidal CO2 if the animal is correctly intubated.

What are the indications for OVH?

•Neoplasia of reproductive tract. • Treatment of neoplasia elsewhere in the body influ- enced by reproductive hormones (e.g., mammary tumors). •Trauma or injury to reproductive tract. • Dystocia (difficult birth). • Uterine torsion. •Abolition of heat cycle. •Stabilization of other systemic diseases (e.g., diabetes). •Congenital abnormalities.