Part 3- Saunders NCLEX Cardiovascular
A client with no history of cardiovascular disease comes to the ambulatory clinic with flulike symptoms. The client suddenly complains of chest pain. Which question should best help the nurse discriminate pain caused by a noncardiac problem? 1. "Can you describe the pain to me?" 2. "Have you ever had this pain before?" 3. "Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?" 4. "Can you rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?"
"Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?" Chest pain is assessed by using the standard pain assessment parameters (e.g., characteristics, location, intensity, duration, precipitating and alleviating factors, and associated symptoms). The remaining options may or may not help discriminate the origin of pain. Pain of pleuropulmonary origin usually worsens on inspiration.
A client with pulmonary edema has been receiving diuretic therapy. The client has a prescription for additional furosemide in the amount of 40 mg intravenous push. Knowing that the client will also be started on digoxin, which laboratory result should the nurse review as the priority? 1. Sodium level 2. Digoxin level 3. Creatinine level 4. Potassium level
Potassium level Diuretic therapy can cause hypokalemia. The serum potassium level is measured in the client receiving digoxin and furosemide. Heightened digoxin effect leading to digoxin toxicity can occur in the client with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia also predisposes the client to ventricular dysrhythmias.
An ambulatory care nurse measures the blood pressure of a client and finds it to be 156/94 mm Hg. Which statement indicates that the client needs additional education? 1. "It is important that I limit protein intake." 2. "I need to maintain a regular exercise program." 3. "I understand that I need to avoid adding salt to foods." 4. "It is important that I begin reducing and then maintaining weight."
It is important that I limit protein intake." Obesity and sodium intake are modifiable risk factors for hypertension. These are of the utmost importance because they can be changed or modified by the individual through a regular exercise program and careful monitoring of sodium intake. Protein intake has no relationship to hypertension.
The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of Raynaud's disease. How should the nurse assess for this disease? 1. Checking for a rash on the digits 2. Observing for softening of the nails or nail beds 3. Palpating for a rapid or irregular peripheral pulse 4. Palpating for diminished or absent peripheral pulses
Palpating for diminished or absent peripheral pulses Raynaud's disease produces closure of the small arteries in the distal extremities in response to cold, vibration, or external stimuli. Palpation for diminished or absent peripheral pulses checks for interruption of circulation. Skin changes include hair loss, thinning or tightening of the skin, and delayed healing of cuts or injuries. The nails grow slowly, become brittle or deformed, and heal poorly around the nail beds when infected. Although palpation of peripheral pulses is correct, a rapid or irregular pulse would not be noted.
Spironolactone is prescribed for a client with heart failure. In providing dietary instructions to the client, the nurse identifies the need to avoid foods that are high in which electrolyte? 1. Calcium 2. Potassium 3. Magnesium 4. Phosphorus
Potassium Spironolactone is a potassium-retaining diuretic, and the client should avoid foods high in potassium. If the client does not avoid foods high in potassium, hyperkalemia could develop. The client does not need to avoid foods that contain calcium, magnesium, or phosphorus while taking this medication.
The nurse notes bilateral 2+ edema in the lower extremities of a client with myocardial infarction who was admitted 2 days ago. Based on this observation, what should the nurse plan to do first? 1. Review intake and output records for the last 2 days. 2. Prescribe daily weights starting on the following morning. 3. Change the time of diuretic administration from morning to evening. 4. Request a sodium restriction of 1 g/day from the health care provider (HCP).
Review intake and output records for the last 2 days Edema, the accumulation of excess fluid in the interstitial spaces, can be measured by intake greater than output and by a sudden increase in weight. Therefore, the nurse should review intake and output records for the last 2 days. Diuretics should be given in the morning whenever possible to avoid nocturia. Strict sodium restrictions are reserved for clients with severe symptoms.
The nurse monitors the client for which condition as a complication of polycythemia vera? 1. Thrombosis 2. Hypotension 3. Cardiomyopathy 4. Pulmonary edema
Thrombosis Polycythemia vera is a disorder of the bone marrow. It results in excessive production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. Clients with polycythemia vera are also more likely to form blood clots that can cause thrombi, strokes, myocardial infarctions, and abnormal bleeding. Clients with polycythemia vera are hypertensive; therefore, hypotension is incorrect. Cardiomyopathy and pulmonary edema are not concerns with this disorder.
The nurse determines that a client requires further teaching after permanent pacemaker insertion if which statement is made? 1. "My pulse rate should be less than what my pacemaker is set at." 2. "I'll need to call my health care provider if I feel tired or dizzy." 3. "I'll have to avoid carrying the grocery bags into the house for the next 6 weeks." 4. "It's safe to use my microwave as long it is properly grounded and well shielded."
"My pulse rate should be less than what my pacemaker is set at." The client should call the health care provider (HCP) if the pulse rate is less than what the pacemaker is set at because this could be a sign of pacemaker or battery failure. Option 1 indicates the client needs further teaching, whereas the remaining options are correct statements.
A new registered nurse (RN) is assisting the RN in admitting a client who has a diagnosis of hypothermia. The RN provides education to the new RN on anticipated vital signs in the client with hypothermia. Which statement by the new RN indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "The client will likely exhibit increased heart rate and increased blood pressure." 2. "The client will likely exhibit increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure." 3. "The client will likely exhibit decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure." 4. "The client will likely exhibit decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure."
"The client will likely exhibit decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure." The heart rate and blood pressure are decreased because the metabolic needs of the body are reduced with hypothermia. With fewer metabolic needs, the workload of the heart decreases. Therefore, the vital sign changes in the remaining options are incorrect.
The nurse is reviewing the procedure for performance of an electrocardiogram (ECG). Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the correct position for the V1 lead when performing a 12-lead electrocardiogram? 1. "The lead should be placed on the fourth intercostal space left sternal border." 2. "The lead should be placed on the fourth intercostal space right sternal border." 3. "The lead should be placed on the fifth intercostal space left midaxillary line." 4. "The lead should be placed on the fifth intercostal space left midclavicular line."
"The lead should be placed on the fourth intercostal space right sternal border." The correct location for the V1 lead is the fourth intercostal space right sternal border. Therefore, the locations in the remaining options are incorrect.
A client with rapid-rate atrial fibrillation asks the nurse why the health care provider (HCP) is going to perform carotid sinus massage. The nurse educates the client about the treatment. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "The vagus nerve slows the heart rate." 2. "The diaphragmatic nerve slows the heart rate." 3. "The diaphragmatic nerve overdrives the rhythm." 4. "The vagus nerve increases the heart rate, overdriving the rhythm."
"The vagus nerve slows the heart rate." Carotid sinus massage is one maneuver used for vagal stimulation to decrease a rapid heart rate and possibly terminate a tachydysrhythmia. Others include inducing the gag reflex and asking the client to strain or bear down. Medication therapy is often needed as an adjunct to keep the rate down or maintain the normal rhythm. The remaining options are incorrect descriptions of this procedure.
The registered nurse (RN) is listening to a lecture on pulmonary edema. Which statement by the RN indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "The client may have mild anxiety." 2. "The client will not experience anxiety." 3. "The client will experience extreme anxiety." 4. "The client will only experience anxiety in a stressful environment."
"The client will experience extreme anxiety." Pulmonary edema causes the client to be extremely agitated and anxious. The client may complain of a sense of drowning, suffocation, or smothering. Therefore, the client will experience extreme anxiety.
The nurse is assessing a client newly diagnosed with mild hypertension. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect? 1. Asymptomatic 2. Shortness of breath 3. Visual disturbances 4. Frequent nosebleeds
Asymptomatic Hypertensive clients often have no symptoms until target organ involvement, which happens with very high blood pressure. This is why it is often noted as the "silent killer." The remaining options are incorrect because those clinical manifestations occur with severely high hypertension.
The nurse is auscultating a 56-year-old adult client's apical heart rate before giving digoxin and notes that the heart rate is 48 beats/minute. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Withhold the digoxin, and re-evaluate the heart rate in 4 hours. 2. Administer half of the prescribed dose to avoid a further decrease in heart rate. 3. Withhold the digoxin, and assess for signs of decreased cardiac output and digoxin toxicity. 4. Administer the digoxin; the heart rate would be considered normal because of the client's age.
Withhold the digoxin, and assess for signs of decreased cardiac output and digoxin toxicity. The normal heart rate is 60 to 100 beats/minute in an adult. If the nurse notes a heart rate that is less than 60 beats/minute, the nurse would not administer the digoxin and would further evaluate the client for signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity. When clients are bradycardic, they may have symptoms of decreased cardiac output, so this would also be assessed.
A client seeks treatment in a health care provider's office for unsightly varicose veins, and radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is recommended. Before leaving the examining room, the client says to the nurse, "Can you tell me again how this is done?" Which statement should the nurse make? 1. "The varicosity is surgically removed." 2. "A heating element is used to occlude the vein." 3. "The vein is tied off at the upper end to prevent stasis from occurring." 4. "The vein is tied off at the lower end to prevent stasis from occurring."
"A heating element is used to occlude the vein." Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is a treatment for varicose veins that uses a radiofrequency heat element to ablate (occlude) the affected vessel. This procedure is less invasive than a ligation and removal of veins procedure. Using ultrasound guidance, the clinician advances a catheter into a vein and injects an anesthetic agent around it. Then the vessel is ablated while the catheter is slowly removed. This causes collapse and sclerosis of the vein causing the occlusion.
The nurse is listening to a lecture on Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS). The instructor is discussing electrocardiographic (ECG) changes caused by myocardial ischemia. Which statement by the nurse indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "Tall, peaked T waves can indicate ischemia." 2. "Prolonged PR interval can indicate ischemia." 3. "Widened QRS complex can indicate ischemia." 4. "ST segment elevation or depression can indicate ischemia."
"ST segment elevation or depression can indicate ischemia." An ECG taken during a chest pain episode captures ischemic changes, which include ST segment elevation or depression. Tall, peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia. A prolonged PR interval indicates first-degree heart block. A widened QRS complex indicates delay in intraventricular conduction, such as a bundle branch block.
The nurse is educating the client about variant angina. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "Variant angina is induced by exercise." 2. "Variant angina occurs at the same time each day." 3. "Variant angina occurs at lower levels of activity." 4. "Variant angina is less predictable and a precursor of myocardial infarction."
"Variant angina occurs at the same time each day." Variant angina, or Prinzmetal's angina, is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, usually in the morning. Stable angina is induced by exercise and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin tablets. Unstable angina occurs at lower levels of activity than those that previously precipitated the angina. Unstable angina also occurs at rest, is less predictable, and is often a precursor of myocardial infarction.
A client is at risk for vasovagal attacks that cause bradydysrhythmias. The nurse would tell the client to avoid which actions to prevent this occurrence? Select all that apply. 1. Applying pressure on the eyes 2. Raising the arms above the head 3. Taking stool softeners on a daily basis 4. Bearing down during a bowel movement 5. Simulating a gag reflex when brushing the teeth
1. Applying pressure on the eyes 2. Raising the arms above the head 4. Bearing down during a bowel movement 5. Simulating a gag reflex when brushing the teeth Vasovagal attacks or syncope occurs when the client faints because the body overreacts to certain triggers. The vasovagal syncope trigger causes your heart rate and blood pressure to drop suddenly. That leads to reduced blood flow to the brain, causing the client to briefly lose consciousness. The client at risk should be taught to avoid actions that stimulate the vagus nerve. Actions to avoid include raising the arms above the head, applying pressure over the carotid artery, applying pressure over the eyes, stimulating a gag reflex when brushing the teeth or putting objects into the mouth, and bearing down or straining during a bowel movement. Taking stool softeners is an important measure to prevent the bearing down and straining during a bowel movement
The nurse is conducting a health history of a client with a primary diagnosis of heart failure. Which conditions reported by the client could play a role in exacerbating the heart failure? Select all that apply. 1. Emotional stress 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. Nutritional anemia 4. Peptic ulcer disease 5. Recent upper respiratory infection
1. Emotional stress 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. Nutritional anemia 5. Recent upper respiratory infection Heart failure is precipitated or exacerbated by physical or emotional stress, dysrhythmias, infections, anemia, thyroid disorders, pregnancy, Paget's disease, nutritional deficiencies (thiamine, alcoholism), pulmonary disease, and hypervolemia. Peptic ulcer disease is not an exacerbating factor.
The health care provider (HCP) prescribes limited activity (bed rest and bathroom only) for a client who developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after surgery. What interventions should the nurse plan to include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Encourage coughing with deep breathing. 2. Place in high Fowler's position for eating. 3. Encourage increased oral intake of water daily. 4. Place thigh-length elastic stockings on the client. 5. Place sequential compression boots on the client. 6. Encourage the intake of dark green, leafy vegetables.
1. Encourage coughing with deep breathing. 3. Encourage increased oral intake of water daily. 4. Place thigh-length elastic stockings on the client. The client with DVT may require bed rest to prevent embolization of the thrombus resulting from skeletal muscle action, anticoagulation to prevent thrombus extension and allow for thrombus autodigestion, fluids for hemodilution and to decrease blood viscosity, and elastic stockings to reduce peripheral edema and promote venous return. While the client is on bed rest, the nurse prevents complications of immobility by encouraging coughing and deep breathing. Venous return is important to maintain because it is a contributing factor in DVT, so the nurse maintains venous return from the lower extremities by avoiding hip flexion, which occurs with high Fowler's position. The nurse avoids providing foods rich in vitamin K, such as dark green, leafy vegetables, because this vitamin can interfere with anticoagulation, thereby increasing the risk of additional thrombi and emboli. The nurse also would not include use of sequential compression boots for an existing thrombus. They are used only to prevent DVT, because they mimic skeletal muscle action and can disrupt an existing thrombus, leading to pulmonary embolism.
The nurse employed in a cardiac unit determines that which client is the least likely to have an implanted cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) inserted? 1. A client with syncopal episodes related to ventricular tachycardia 2. A client with ventricular dysrhythmias despite medication therapy 3. A client with an episode of cardiac arrest related to myocardial infarction 4. A client with 3 episodes of cardiac arrest unrelated to myocardial infarction
A client with an episode of cardiac arrest related to myocardial infarction An ICD detects and delivers an electrical shock to terminate life-threatening episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. This device is implanted in clients who are considered high risk, including those who have syncopal episodes related to ventricular tachycardia, those who are refractive to medication therapy, and those who have survived sudden cardiac death unrelated to myocardial infarction.
Endovenous laser treatment (EVLT) is done on a client with varicose veins. Which interventions should the nurse include in the postprocedure plan of care? 1. Inform the client that the EVLT procedure ensures closure of the treated vein. 2. Assess color and temperature of the affected limb to determine vascular status. 3. Teach the client the importance of using graduated compression stockings (GCSs) during the day. 4. Inform the client that circulation impairment and nerve damage is expected to occur following the procedure.
Assess color and temperature of the affected limb to determine vascular status. Endovenous laser treatment (EVLT) is a treatment for varicose veins that uses laser heat to ablate (occlude) the affected vessel. This procedure is less invasive than a ligation and removal of veins procedure. Using ultrasound guidance, the clinician advances a catheter into a vein (most commonly the saphenous vein) and injects an anesthetic agent around it. Then the vessel is ablated while the catheter is slowly removed. After the procedure, the client is taught the importance of using a GSC or other form of compression such as elastic compression bandages as prescribed for 24 hours a day (not just during the day), except for showers for at least the first week. A follow-up ultrasonography is done to ensure closure, so it is not appropriate to tell the client that the EVLT ensures closure; this need to be verified. Circulation impairment is not expected. Nerve damage is not expected but can occur; if it does occur it is usually temporary and minimal and resolves within a few months. The nurse needs to assess the vascular status of the affected limb and check for changes in color or temperature of the limb. The nurse would also monitor for pain, edema, and paresthesias that could indicate complications such as deep vein thrombosis or nerve damage.
Which is the priority assessment in the care of a client who is newly admitted to the hospital for acute arterial insufficiency of the left leg and moderate chronic arterial insufficiency of the right leg? 1. Monitor oxygen saturation with pulse oximetry. 2. Assess activity tolerance before and after exercise. 3. Observe the client's cardiac rhythm with telemetry. 4. Assess peripheral pulses with an ultrasonic Doppler device.
Assess peripheral pulses with an ultrasonic Doppler device. Acute arterial insufficiency is associated with interruption of arterial blood flow to an organ, tissue, or extremity. It is associated with an acutely painful pasty-colored leg. The priority is for the nurse to perform a comprehensive assessment of peripheral circulation. When pulses are difficult to palpate, the Doppler device is useful to determine the presence of blood flow to the area. The Doppler directs sound waves toward the artery being examined, which emits an audible sound. The nurse must document that the pulse was present via Doppler and not palpation. Although the remaining options may be components of the assessment, they are not the priority.
A client's electrocardiogram shows that the ventricular rhythm is irregular and there are no discernible P waves. The nurse recognizes that this pattern is associated with which condition? 1. Atrial flutter 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. Third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block 4. First-degree AV block
Atrial fibrillation With atrial fibrillation, the ventricular rhythm is irregular and there are usually no discernible P waves. Therefore, an atrial rhythm cannot be determined. In atrial flutter, the QRS complexes may be either regular or irregular, and the P waves occur as flutter waves. A client in third-degree AV block (also known as complete heart block) has regular atrial and ventricular rhythms, but there is no connection between the P waves and the QRS complexes. In other words, the PR interval is variable and the QRS complexes are normal or widened, with no relationship with the P waves. With first-degree AV block, the PR interval is longer than normal, and there is a connection between the occurrence of P waves and that of QRS complexes.
A client has been admitted with left-sided heart failure. When planning care for the client, interventions should be focused on reduction of which specific problem associated with this type of heart failure? 1. Ascites 2. Pedal edema 3. Bilateral lung crackles 4. Jugular vein distention
Bilateral lung crackles The client with heart failure may present with different symptoms, depending on whether the right side or the left side of the heart is failing. Adventitious breath sounds, such as crackles, are an indicator of decreased left-sided heart function. Peripheral edema, jugular vein distention, and ascites all can be present because of insufficiency of the pumping action of the right side of the heart.
The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who had a percutaneous insertion of an inferior vena cava filter and was on heparin therapy before surgery. The nurse should be most concerned about monitoring for which potential complications? 1. Bleeding and infection 2. Thrombosis and infection 3. Bleeding and wound dehiscence 4. Wound dehiscence and evisceration
Bleeding and infection After inferior vena cava filter insertion, the nurse inspects the surgical site for bleeding and signs and symptoms of infection. Heparin therapy also predisposes the client to bleeding. Thrombosis is unlikely because the client is on heparin therapy. Wound dehiscence and evisceration are not concerns because no abdominal incision is made.
The nurse is performing a cardiovascular assessment on a client. Which parameter would the nurse assess to gain the best information about the client's left-sided heart function? 1. Breath sounds 2. Peripheral edema 3. Hepatojugular reflux 4. Jugular vein distention
Breath sounds The client with heart failure may present with different signs and symptoms according to whether the right or the left side of the heart is failing. Peripheral edema, jugular vein distention, and hepatojugular reflux are all indicators of impaired right-sided heart function. Breath sounds are an accurate indicator of left-sided heart function.
A chaotic small, irregular, disorganized cardiac pattern suddenly appears on a client's cardiac monitor. Which is the nurse's first action? 1. Check the blood pressure. 2. Call the health care provider (HCP). 3. Check the client and the chest leads. 4. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
Check the client and the chest leads. This type of pattern on the cardiac monitor indicates either ventricular fibrillation or lead displacement. The first action of the nurse is always to check the client and the chest leads. If the client is nonresponsive and the leads are not the problem, CPR would be the next choice, along with designating another person to contact the HCP.
The nurse is assessing a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment finding by the nurse is unrelated to the aneurysm? 1. Pulsatile abdominal mass 2. Hyperactive bowel sounds in the area 3. Systolic bruit over the area of the mass 4. Subjective sensation of "heart beating" in the abdomen
Hyperactive bowel sounds in the area Hyperactive bowel sounds are not related specifically to an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Not all clients with abdominal aortic aneurysm exhibit symptoms. Those who do may describe a feeling of the "heart beating" in the abdomen when supine or being able to feel the mass throbbing. A pulsatile mass may be palpated in the middle and upper abdomen. A systolic bruit may be auscultated over the mass.
The nurse assesses the sternotomy incision of a client on the third day after cardiac surgery. The incision shows some slight puffiness along the edges and is nonreddened, with no apparent drainage. The client's temperature is 99°F (37.2°C) orally. The white blood cell count is 7500 mm3 (7.5 × 109/L). How should the nurse interpret these findings? 1. Incision is slightly edematous but shows no active signs of infection. 2. Incision shows early signs of infection, although the temperature is nearly normal. 3. Incision shows no sign of infection, although the white blood cell count is elevated. 4. Incision shows early signs of infection, supported by an elevated white blood cell count.
Incision is slightly edematous but shows no active signs of infection. Sternotomy incision sites are assessed for signs and symptoms of infection, such as redness, swelling, induration, and drainage. An elevated temperature and white blood cell count 3 to 4 days postoperatively usually indicate infection. Therefore, the option indicating that there is slight edema and no active signs of infection is correct.
The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who has just undergone vein ligation and stripping. The nurse evaluates that the client understands activity and positioning limitations if the client states that which action is appropriate to do? 1. Walk for as long as possible each day. 2. Cross the legs at the ankle only, not at the knee. 3. Sit in a chair 3 times a day for 3 hours at a time. 4. Lie down with the legs elevated and avoid sitting.
Lie down with the legs elevated and avoid sitting. The client who has had vein ligation and stripping should avoid standing or sitting for prolonged periods. The client should remain lying down unless performing a specific activity for the first few days after the procedure. Prolonged standing or sitting increases the risk of edema in the legs by decreasing blood return to the heart. The client should avoid crossing the legs at any level for the same reason.
The nurse is caring for a client immediately after insertion of a permanent demand pacemaker via the right subclavian vein. Which activity will assist with preventing dislodgement of the pacing catheter? 1. Limiting both movement and abduction of the left arm 2. Limiting both movement and abduction of the right arm 3. Assisting the client to get out of bed and ambulate with a walker 4. Having the physical therapist do active range-of-motion exercises to the right arm
Limiting both movement and abduction of the right arm In the first several hours after insertion of a permanent or temporary pacemaker, the most common complication is pacing electrode dislodgement. The nurse helps prevent this complication by limiting the client's activities of the arm on the side of the insertion site. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.
The nurse is caring for a client after an above-the-knee amputation. The nurse assesses the residual (remaining) limb and expects to note which finding? 1. Pink color to the skin flap 2. Hot feeling on palpation of the skin flap 3. Serous fluid leaking from the skin flap incision 4. Absent pulse at the proximal pulse point site closest to the skin flap
Pink color to the skin flap Following above-the-knee amputation, the nurse's primary focus is to monitor for signs indicating that there is sufficient tissue perfusion and no hemorrhage. The skin flap at the end of the residual (remaining) limb should be pink in a light-skinned person and not discolored (lighter or darker than other skin pigmentation) in a dark-skinned person. The area should be warm but not hot. If the area is hot this could indicate inflammation or infection. The incision should be clean and dry with no serous or other fluid leaking from it. There should be a pulse at the closest proximal pulse point. If no pulse is felt, the nurse would assess for a pulse using a Doppler. If no pulse is detected using the Doppler device, this could indicate lack of perfusion and the surgeon would need to be notified.
Cardiac monitoring leads are placed on a client who is at risk for premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which heart rhythm will the nurse anticipate in this client if PVCs are occurring? 1. A P wave preceding every QRS complex 2. QRS complexes that are short and narrow 3. Inverted P waves before the QRS complexes 4. Premature beats followed by a compensatory pause
Premature beats followed by a compensatory pause PVCs are abnormal ectopic beats originating in the ventricles. They are characterized by an absence of P waves, the presence of wide and bizarre QRS complexes, and a compensatory pause that follows the ectopy.
The nurse is preparing to ambulate a client on the third day after cardiac surgery. What should the nurse plan to do to enable the client to best tolerate the ambulation? 1. Remove telemetry equipment. 2. Provide the client with a walker. 3. Premedicate the client with an analgesic. 4. Encourage the client to cough and breathe deeply.
Premedicate the client with an analgesic. The nurse should encourage regular use of pain medication for the first 48 to 72 hours after cardiac surgery because analgesia will promote rest, decrease myocardial oxygen consumption resulting from pain, and allow better participation in activities such as coughing, deep breathing, and ambulation. Providing the client with a walker and encouraging the client to cough and breathe deeply will not help in tolerating ambulation. Removal of telemetry equipment is contraindicated unless prescribed.
A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization using an iodineagent. Which assessment is most critical before the procedure? 1. Intake and output 2. Height and weight 3. Baseline peripheral pulse rates 4. Previous allergy to contrast agents
Previous allergy to contrast agents A cardiac catheterization requires an informed consent because it involves injection of an iodine-based contrast agent into the blood vessel. The risk of allergic reaction and possible anaphylaxis is a concern, and the presence of allergies to previous received contrast agents must be assessed before the procedure. An antihistamine or corticosteroid may be given to a client with a positive history or to prevent a reaction. Although the remaining options are accurate, they are not the most critical preprocedure assessments.
The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who has lost a significant amount of blood because of complications during a surgical procedure. Which assessment finding would be indicative of further fluid volume deficit? 1. 4+ edema noted in lower extremities 2. Crackles auscultated from lung bases to apices 3. Blood pressure rises from 116/68 to 118/74 mm Hg 4. Pulse rate increases from 100 beats/min to 136 beats/min
Pulse rate increases from 100 beats/min to 136 beats/min The cardiac output is determined by the volume of the circulating blood, the pumping action of the heart, and the tone of the vascular bed. An increase in the pulse rate compensates for decreases in fluid volume. Options 1 and 2 may be noted in fluid overload. A low blood pressure is expected in a postoperative client who lost a significant amount of blood.
A client is having a follow-up health care provider (HCP) office visit after vein ligation and stripping. The client describes a sensation of "pins and needles" in the affected leg. Which would be an appropriate action by the nurse based on evaluation of the client's comment? 1. Report the complaint to the HCP. 2. Instruct the client to apply warm packs. 3. Reassure the client that this is only temporary. 4. Advise the client to take acetaminophen until it is gone.
Report the complaint to the HCP Hypersensitivity or a sensation of pins and needles in the surgical limb may indicate temporary or permanent nerve injury following surgery. The saphenous vein and saphenous nerve run close together in the distal third of the leg. Although complications from this surgery can occur, they are relatively rare so this symptom should be reported. The actions in the remaining options are incorrect and could be harmful; in addition, they delay the possible need for intervention about the client's complaint. Although nerve damage can occur and is usually temporary and minimal and resolves within a few months, it is not appropriate to tell the client that this occurrence is only temporary. The complaint needs to be further assessed.
The nurse identifies that a client is having occasional premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on the cardiac monitor. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which result would be consistent with the observation? 1. Serum chloride level of 98 mEq/L (98 mmol/L) 2. Serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L (145 mmol/L) 3. Serum calcium level of 10.5 mg/dL (2.75 mmol/L) 4. Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L)
Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) The nurse should check the client's serum laboratory study results for hypokalemia. The client may experience PVCs in the presence of hypokalemia because this electrolyte imbalance increases the electrical instability of the heart. The values noted in the remaining options are normal.
The nurse is evaluating a client's cardiac rhythm strip to determine if there is proper function of the VVI mode pacemaker. Which denotes proper functioning? 1. Spikes precede all P waves and QRS complexes. 2. There are consistent spikes before each P wave. 3. Spikes occur before QRS complexes when intrinsic ventricular beats do not occur. 4. Spikes occur before all QRS complexes regardless of intrinsic ventricular activity.
Spikes occur before QRS complexes when intrinsic ventricular beats do not occur. When a pacemaker is operating in the VVI mode, pacemaker spikes will be observed before the QRS complex if the client does not have his or her own intrinsic beat; therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.
The nurse reading the operative record of a client who had cardiac surgery notes that the client's cardiac output immediately after surgery was 3.2 L/min. Evaluation of the cardiac output results leads the nurse to make which conclusion? 1. The cardiac output is above the normal range. 2. The cardiac output is below the normal range. 3. The cardiac output is in the low-normal range. 4. The cardiac output is in the high-normal range.
The cardiac output is below the normal range. The normal cardiac output for the adult can range from 4 to 7 L/min. Therefore, a cardiac output of 3.2 L/min is below normal range.
After instruction on the application of antiembolism stockings, the nurse determines that the client requires further teaching if which of these actions is performed? 1. The client puts on the stockings before getting out of bed. 2. The client bunches up the stockings for easier application. 3. The client ensures that stockings are pulled up all the way. 4. The client ensures that the rough seams of the stockings are on the outside.
The client bunches up the stockings for easier application. When applying antiembolism stockings, the client should not bunch up the stockings. Instead, the client should place the hand inside the stocking and pull the heel out. The foot of the stocking should then be placed over the client's foot and the rest of the stocking pulled up the leg. This will help to prevent wrinkling and twisting of the stocking. The remaining options demonstrate correct application of the stockings.
A client's total cholesterol level is 344 mg/dL (8.6 mmol/L), low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) level is 164 mg/dL (4.25 mmol/L), and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) level is 30 mg/dL (1.2 mmol/L). Based on analysis of the data, how should the nurse direct client teaching? 1. The client should maintain the current dietary regimen but increase activity level. 2. Results are inconclusive unless the triglyceride level is also screened, so teaching is not indicated at this time. 3. The client is at high risk for cardiovascular disease, and measures to modify all identified risk factors should be taught. 4. The client is at low risk for cardiovascular disease, so the client should be encouraged to continue to follow the current regimen.
The client is at high risk for cardiovascular disease, and measures to modify all identified risk factors should be taught. In the absence of documented cardiovascular disease, the desired goal is to have the total cholesterol level lower than 200 mg/dL (<5 mmol/L). A desired LDL-C level for all individuals is lower than 100 mg/dL (<2.59 mmol/L), and a desirable HDL-C level is higher than 40 mg/dL (>1.55 mmol/L). Because the client's levels are outside the range to a significant degree for all three values, the client is at high risk for developing cardiovascular disease and requires teaching on risk factor reduction.
A client is seen in the emergency department for complaints of chest pain that began 3 hours ago. The nurse should suspect myocardial injury or infarction if which laboratory value comes back elevated? 1. Myoglobin 2. Troponinn 3. C-reactive protein 4. Creatine kinase (CK)
Troponinn Cardiac troponin elevations indicate myocardial injury or infarction. Although the remaining options may also rise, they are not definitive enough to draw a conclusive diagnosis.
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client recovering from pulmonary edema. The nurse establishes a goal to have the client participate in activities that reduce cardiac workload. The nurse should identify which client action as contributing to this goal? 1. Using a bedside commode 2. Sleeping in the supine position 3. Elevating the legs when in bed 4. Using seasonings to improve the taste of food
Using a bedside commode Using a bedside commode decreases the work of getting to the bathroom or struggling to use the bedpan. The supine position increases respiratory effort and decreases oxygenation. Elevating the client's legs increases venous return to the heartthus increasing cardiac workload. Seasonings may be high in sodium and promote further fluid retention.
An emergency room nurse is performing a cardiovascular assessment on a client. During auscultation of the heart sounds, the nurse hears these abnormal sounds. The nurse suspects that the client has which condition? 1. Atrial fibrillation 2. Ventricular fibrillation 3. Ventricular hypertrophy 4. Left bundle branch block
Ventricular hypertrophy The sound that the nurse hears is the fourth heart sound (S4). Diastolic filling sounds or gallops (S3, the third heart sound, and S4, the fourth heart sound) are produced when there is decreased compliance of either or both ventricles. S3 is termed ventricular gallop and S4 is referred to as atrial gallop. The S4 sound occurs in the later stage of diastole, during atrial contraction and active filling of the ventricles. It is a soft, low-pitched sound and is heard immediately before S1. An atrial gallop is found most commonly in disorders involving increased stiffness of the ventricle, such as ventricular hypertrophy, ischemia, and fibrosis. S4 is never heard in the absence of atrial contraction (atrial fibrillation). S4 is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope at the apex, with the client in the supine, left lateral position. The presence of S4 may also result from myocardial infarction, hypertension, hypertrophy, fibrosis, cardiomyopathy, cor pulmonale, aortic stenosis, or pulmonic stenosis. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.
