Patho Final Exam

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

Nursing: assessment

1) ascending paralysis 2) respiratory function 3) ABGs 4) gag, corneal and swallowing reflexes 5) BP, pulse/rhythm

Match the electrolytes with the corresponding descriptions. Terms may be used more than once. A. Chloride B. Magnesium C. Sodium D. Potassium E. Phosphate 1. Regulation of osmolality 2. Changes in hydrogen ion concentration affect this electrolyte 3. Inversely related to HCO3 4. An intracellular metabolic form is ATP 5. Major determinant of resting membrane potential

1. Sodium 2. Potassium 3. Chloride 4. Phosphate 5. Potassium

A nurse realizes a patient has thrombocytopenia when the platelet count is below _____ platelets per cubic millimeter. 1.

100,000

To make a diagnosis of fibromyalgia, tenderness must be present in ____ of the 18 points necessary for diagnosis.

Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because carbonic acid and bicarbonate exist in a ratio of:

1:20

Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because carbonic acid and bicarbonate exist in a ratio of: 10:2 2:10 1:20 20:1

1:20

On average the kidneys receive approximately _____ of the cardiac output.

20% to 25%

What is the typical age of onset of Myasthenia Gravis? women/men?

20-30 years of age for women, later in life for men. More common in women

Normal HCO3

22-26

A nurse is monitoring a patient for pulmonary hypertension. Which mean pulmonary artery pressure reading will indicate to the nurse that pulmonary hypertension is occurring? Pulmonary artery pressure above _____ mm Hg.

When the spouse of a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke asks when "clot busting" treatment should begin, how should the nurse respond? Recommendations suggest that treatment for a thrombotic stroke begin within ________ hours of onset of symptoms.

Age and the admission of the GCS are important diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI? 13-15 12-13 9-12 3-8

3-8

A 35-year-old male weighs 70 kg. Approximately how much of this weight is ICF?

42 L

11. Loud snoring, a decrease in oxygen saturation, fragmented sleep, chronic daytime sleepiness, and fatigue are clinical manifestations of which sleep disorder? a. Obstructive sleep apnea b. Upper airway resistance syndrome c. Somnambulism d. Narcolepsy

17. What event is most likely occur to the brain in a classic cerebral concussion? a. Brief period of vital sign instability b. Cerebral edema throughout the cerebral cortex c. Cerebral edema throughout the diencephalon d. Disruption of axons extending from the diencephalon and brainstem

24. When treating individuals with depression, the result produced by electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is believed to be an alteration in: a. The monoamine systems b. Serotonin c. Norepinephrine d. The limbic system

5. Both oligodendroglia and Schwann cells share the ability to: a. Form a myelin sheath b. Remove cellular debris c. Transport nutrients d. Line the ventricles

A 45-year-old male presents with seizures. An MRI reveals a meningioma most likely originating from the: a. Dura mater and arachnoid membrane b. Astrocytes c. Pia mater d. CNS neurons

A patient is admitted to the neurological critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. When an intraventricular catheter is inserted, the intracranial pressure (ICP) is recorded at 24 mm Hg. How should the nurse interpret this reading? Correct! A. Higher than normal. B. Lower than normal. C. Normal. D. Borderline.

A patient with an addiction to alcohol checked into a rehabilitation center. He experiences delirium, inability to concentrate, and is easily distracted. From which of the following is he most likely suffering? a. Acute confusional state b. Echolalia c. Dementia d. Dysphagia

For legal purposes, brain death is defined as _____. A. Cessation of entire brain function. B. Lack of cortical function. C. A consistent vegetative state (VS). D. Death of the brainstem.

Of the following groups, who are at highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? a. Blacks over 65 years of age b. Whites over 65 years of age c. Blacks under 65 years of age d. Whites under 65 years of age

The breathing pattern that reflects respirations based primarily on carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood is _____. A. Cheyne-Stokes. B. Ataxic. C. Central neurogenic. D. Normal.

The patient is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure. This increase results in: a. Brain tissue hypoxia b. Intracranial hypotension c. Ventricular swelling d. Expansion of the cranial vault

Which pathway carries sensory information toward the central nervous system (CNS)? a.Ascending b.Descending c.Afferent d.Efferent

After a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestations that include increased pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are a result of:

A rapid gastric emptying and creation of a high osmotic gradient in the small intestine that causes a sudden shift of fluid from the blood vessels to the intestinal lumen (Early dumping syndrome)

Causes of hypocalcemia include (Select all that apply) A. Repeated blood administration B. Pancreatitis C. Decreased reabsorption of calcium D. Hyperparathyroidism E. Kidney stones

A, B

The electrolyte imbalance called hyponatremia exhibits which clinical manifestations (Select all that apply) A. Headache B. Seizures C. Paranoia D. Confusion E. Lethargy

A, B, D, E

Physical barriers that offer the body protection from damage and infection are located in the (select all that apply): A. Genitourinary tract B. Gastrointestinal tract C. Lymph system D. Hematopoietic system E. Respiratory tract

A. Genitourinary tract B. Gastrointestinal tract E. Respiratory tract

An immunologist is discussing endotoxin production. Which information should the immunologist include? Endotoxins are produced by: A. Gram-negative bacteria B. Gram-negative fungi C. Gram-positive fungi D. Gram-positive bacteria

A. Gram-negative bacteria

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia? A. High sodium in the blood vessel pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink B. High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell C. High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain D. High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell

A. High sodium in the blood vessel pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells resting membrane potential? A. Hypopolarization B. Depolarization C. Hyperexcitability D. Repolarization

A. Hypopolarization

A 54-year-old male intravenous (IV) drug user is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis C. Testing revealed that he is a candidate for treatment. Which of the following could be used to treat his condition? A. INFs B. Interleukin-10 C. Interleukin-6 D. Interleukin-1

A. INFs

Which statement indicates a correct understanding of antibodies? The most abundant class of antibody in the serum is: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgA

A. IgG

Which statement by the staff indicates teaching was successful concerning aldosterone. Secretion of aldosterone results in A. Increased blood volume B. Localized edema C. Decreased plasma osmolality D. Increased serum potassium levels

A. Increased blood volume

When changes in total body water are accompanied by proportional changes in electrolytes, what type of alteration occurs? A. Isotonic B. Hypotonic C. Hypertonic D. Normotonic

A. Isotonic

During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes. Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because: A. Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing. B. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule. C. Microorganisms are accumulating. D. The nodes are not functioning properly.

A. Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.

A nurse recalls that monocytes are blood cells that mature (differentiate) into: A. Macrophages B. Neutrophils C. Eosinophils D. Mast cells

A. Macrophages

A nurse recalls bacteria become resistant to antimicrobials by: A. Mutation B. Attenuation C. Proliferation D. Specialization

A. Mutation

A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective? A. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus B. Psychogenic diabetes insipidus C. SIADH D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus

A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia. Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart? A. Sideroblastic anemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Folate deficiency anemia D. Pernicious anemia

A. Sideroblastic anemia

A patient has a disease state that results from the secretion of toxins by bacteria. Which medical diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart? A. Tetanus B. Hepatitis C. Malaria D. Smallpox

A. Tetanus

If a patient's posterior pituitary is removed, which hormone would the nurse expect to decrease PRF ADH ACTH GH

ADH

If a patient's posterior pituitary is removed, which hormone would the nurse expect to decrease?

ADH

It is true that natriuretic peptides: a. Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion. b. Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion. c. Increase heart rate and decrease potassium excretion. d. Decrease heart rate and increase potassium excretion.

ANS: A Natriuretic peptides are hormones that include atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) produced by the myocardial atria, brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) produced by the myocardial ventricles, and urodilatin within the kidney.

When changes in total body water are accompanied by proportional changes in electrolytes, what type of alteration occurs? a. Isotonic b. Hypertonic c. Hypotonic d. Normotonic

ANS: A Only isotonic alterations occur when proportional changes in electrolytes and water accompany changes in total body water .

Which arterial pH will initiate the formation of ammonium (NH4) from ammonia (NH3), referred to as academia, in the tubular lumen of the kidney? a. 7.25 b. 7.35 c. 7.55 d. 7.65

ANS: A Pathophysiologic changes in the concentration of hydrogen ion or base in the blood lead to acid-base imbalances.

Water movement between the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment and the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is primarily a function of: a. Osmotic forces b. Plasma oncotic pressure c. Antidiuretic hormone d. Hydrostatic forces

ANS: A The movement of water between the ICF and ECF compartments is primarily a function of osmotic forces.

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of: a. 20:1 c. 10:2 b. 1:20 d. 10:5

ANS: A The relationship between HCO3 and H2CO3 is usually expressed as a ratio. When the pH is 7.4, this ratio is 20:1 (HCO3:H2CO3). The other options do not accurately identify physiologic pH by the correct ratio of HCO3 and H2CO3

The electrolyte imbalance hypokalemia exhibits which clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.) a. Paralytic ileus b. Sinus bradycardia c. Atrioventricular block d. Dry mucous membranes e. Tetany

ANS: A, B, C A variety of dysrhythmias may occur, including sinus bradycardia, atrioventricular block, paroxysmal atrial tachycardia, and paralytic ileus.

The mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarily as a consequence of hormonal: a. Atrophy c. Anaplasia b. Hyperplasia d. Dysplasia

ANS: B Hormonal hyperplasia occurs chiefly in estrogen-dependent organs, such as the uterus and breast. The remaining options do not adequately describe the consequence of hormones on breast tissue during pregnancy

In hypoxic injury, sodium enters the cell and causes swelling because: a. The cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia. b. ATP is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell. c. The lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium in the cell. d. Sodium cannot be transported to the cell membrane during hypoxia.

ANS: B In hypoxic injury, movement of fluid and ions into the cell is associated with acute failure of metabolism and a loss of ATP production. Normally, the presence of ATP and ATPase, the active-transport enzyme, maintains the pump that transports sodium ions out of the cell. In metabolic failure caused by hypoxia, reduced ATP and ATPase levels permit sodium to accumulate in the cell, whereas potassium diffuses outward. The other options do not accurately describe the cause of the swelling caused by hypoxia.

Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity? a. IV c. II b. III d. I

ANS: B The characteristics of serum sickness are observed in only systemic type III autoimmune diseases such as Raynaud phenomenon.

It is true that when insulin is administered: a. The Na+, K+-ATPase pump is turned off. b. Potassium is moved out of muscle cells. c. The liver increases its potassium levels. d. Glucose transport is impaired.

ANS: C Insulin contributes to the regulation of plasma potassium levels by stimulating the Na+, K+-ATPase pump, thereby promoting the movement of potassium simultaneously into the liver and muscle cells with glucose transport after eating. The other options do not accurately describe the effect of insulin administration.

"An alcoholic checked into a rehabilitation centre. He experiences delirium, inability to concentrate, and is easily distracted. Which of the following is he most likely to be affected by?"

Acute confusional state

A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, hematuria, and fever. Which of the following does the nurse suspect the patient is most likely experiencing?

Acute cystitis

A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is:

Acute glomerulonephritis

Describe the onset and progression of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Acute, rapidly progressing and potentially fatal.

Transchondral fractures are most prevalent in:

Adolescents

Norepinephrine (adrenergic) is the neurotransmitter for which receptors

Alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, and beta 2

While planning care for a patient with an extradural hematoma, which principle should the nurse remember? The main source of bleeding in extradural (epidural) hematomas is:

Arterial

Which primary brain tumor occurs most commonly? Astrocytoma Ependymoma Oligodendroglioma Meningioma

Astrocytoma

Antidote for cholinesterase inhibitors

Atropine

Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

Auditory hallucinations

28. Which defect of neural tube closure is most common? a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Lateral d. Midline

8. Coronary artery disease is most affected by which component of sleep? a. Non-REM b. REM c. Light d.Delta wave

A neurologist is teaching about encephalitis. Which information should the neurologist include? Most causes of encephalitis are: a. Bacterial b. Viral c. Fungal d. Toxoid

Upon autopsy of a 25-year-old, abnormalities in the media of the arterial wall and degenerative changes were detected. Which of the following would most likely accompany this finding? A. Fusiform aneurysm. B. Saccular aneurysm. C. Arteriovenous malformation. D. Thrombotic stroke.

Outcomes of laboratory tests include an elevated level of natriuretic peptides. Which organ is the priority assessment? A. Lungs B. Heart C. Liver D. Brain

B. Heart

Chvostek and Trousseau signs are associated with what metabolic abnormality? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypercalcemia

B. Hypocalcemia

Which information would indicate more teaching is needed regarding hypersensitivity reactions? Type _______ hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response. A. I B. IV C. III D. II

B. IV

After erythrocytes have circulated for about 120 days, they are removed by macrophages, which are mainly in the: A. Liver B. Spleen C. Appendix D. Bone marrow

B. Spleen

Which statement is true regarding benighn prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? BPH is an uncommon condition BPH may be problematic if urethral compression occurs 10% of men will have BPH by the age of 80 The prostate is largest at birth and continues to shrink

BPH may be problematic if urethral compression occurs

Parkinson's disease is a degenerative disorder of the:

Basal Ganglia

Of the following people, who is at highest risk for a CVA? White woman over 65 Black woman over 70 Black man over 65 White man over 70

Black woman over 70

Blacks over 65 years of age

Cranial nerve X (vagus) affects a patient's?

Blood pressure, bradycardia, heart block and asystole. These symptoms are part of autonomic dysfunction which is linked to vagus nerve X deficit.

A 65-year-old female loses her balance while walking in the woods, causing her to fall and hit her head. She loses consciousness and is in a coma for 5 days. She is diagnosed as having diffuse brain injury. Which of the following would most likely occur in this patient?

Blunted Affect

What structure is part of the CNS: Brain Somatic nervous system Peripheral nerve pathways Cranial Nerves

Brain

The patient is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure. This increase results in:

Brain tissue hypoxia

A 45-year-old male undergoes lung transplantation. He now suffers from airway occlusion secondary to fibrosis. Which diagnosis will the nurse see on the chart?

Bronchiolitis obliterans

How do drugs used for treating Alzheimer's disease work?

By enhancing acetylecholine action in the brain

12. What type of cerebral edema occurs when permeability of the capillary endothelium increases after injury to the vascular structure? a. Cytotoxic b. Interstitial c. Vasogenic d. Ischemic

25. The link between major depression and cortisol secretion is that individuals with depression: a. Show suppression of plasma cortisol when given dexamethasone. b. Have a decreased plasma cortisol level, despite the administration of exogenous corticosteroids. c. Show that persistently elevated plasma cortisol levels can result in inflammation that is believed to trigger depression. d. Have normal plasma cortisol levels throughout the day when they take antidepressant medication as prescribed.

4. During a synapse, what change occurs after the neurotransmitter binds to the receptor? a. The permeability of the presynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane potential is changed as well. b. The permeability of the postsynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane potential is changed as well. c. The postsynaptic cell prevents any change in permeability and destroys the action potential. d. The presynaptic cell synthesizes and secretes additional neurotransmitters.

6. The neurotransmitter, acetylcholine, is least secreted in the: a. Somatic nervous system b. Parasympathetic preganglion c. Sympathetic postganglion d. Parasympathetic postganglion

7. From which part of the mid brain do cranial nerves IX and XII emerge? a. Midbrain b. Pons c. Medulla oblongata d. Lateral colliculi

A 15-year-old male was struck by a motor vehicle and suffered a traumatic brain injury. Paramedics found him unconscious at the scene of the accident. During the ambulance ride, he regained consciousness and was able to maintain a conversation with the medical staff. Upon arrival to hospital, he was alert and oriented. Physical exam reveals confusion and impaired responsiveness. What is the probable nature of his brain injury based on this history? a. Mild concussion b. Subdural hematoma c. Extradural (epidural) hematoma d. Mild diffuse axonal injury

A 30-year-old female had a seizure that started with her fingers and progressive1y spread up her arm and then extended to her leg, with no loss of consciousness. How should the nurse chart this? a. Myoclonic seizure b. Tonic-clonic seizure c. Focal motor seizure d. Atonic seizure

A 33-year-old male is brought to the ER for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. An MRI reveals an injury of the cervical cord. Cord swelling in this region may be life threatening because: a. Increased ICP may occur. b. Reflexes will be disrupted. c. Diaphragm function may be impaired. d. Bladder emptying will not occur.

A 60-year-old patient with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hypertension presents to the ER for changes in mental status. MRI reveals that the patient has experienced a subarachnoid hemorrhage. What does the nurse suspect caused this type of stroke? A. Rheumatic heart disease. B. Thrombi. C. Aneurysm. D. Hypotension.

A 65-year-old male suffers a subarachnoid hemorrhage secondary to uncontrolled hypertension. He appears drowsy and confused with pronounced focal neurologic deficits. This condition is grade: a. I b. II c. III d. IV

A 70-year-old patient is being closely monitored in the neurological critical care unit for a severe closed head injury. After 48 hours, signs of deterioration occur: pupils are small and sluggish, pulse pressure is widening, and heart rate is bradycardic. These clinical findings are evidence of what stage of intracranial hypertension? A. Stage 1. B. Stage 2. C. Stage 3. D. Stage 4.

A patient diagnosed with a diffuse brain injury (DBI) is at increased risk for which complication? A. Complete loss of vision. B. Arrhythmia. C. Acute brain swelling. D. Meningitis infection.

What are the most common primary central nervous system (CNS) tumors in adults? A. Meningiomas. B. Oligodendrogliomas. C. Astrocytomas. D. Ependymomas.

When a patient asks, "What is the cause of multiple sclerosis?" the nurse bases the answer on the interaction between _____. A. Vascular and metabolic factors. B. Bacterial infection and the inflammatory response. C. Autoimmunity and genetic susceptibility D. Neurotransmitters and inherited genes.

Which assessment finding by the nurse characterizes a mild concussion? A. A brief loss of consciousness. B. Significant behavioral changes. C. Retrograde amnesia. D. Permanent confusion.

Which nerves are capable of regeneration? a. Nerves within the brain and spinal cord b. Peripheral nerves that are cut or severed c. Myelinated nerves in the peripheral nervous system d. Unmyelinated nerves of the peripheral nervous system

patient presents to the emergency room (ER) reporting excessive vomiting. A CT scan of the brain reveals a mass in the _____. A. Skull fractures. B. Thalamus. C. Medulla oblongata. D. Frontal lobe.

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? a. Neutrophils c. Eosinophils b. Monocytes d. T lymphocytes

C Of the options provided, only eosinophils are activated during IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions.

A 21-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Her hematocrit is 32%. Which of the following treatments would the nurse expect to be prescribed for her? A. No treatment is necessary B. A bone marrow transplant C. Iron replacement D. Splenectomy

C. Iron replacement

Which organ system should the nurse monitor when the patient has long-term potassium deficits? A. Central nervous system (CNS) B. Lungs C. Kidneys D. Gastrointestinal tract

C. Kidneys

The existence of hyperkalemia is likely to result in which changes to a person's electrocardiogram (ECG)? A. Flattened U waves B. Depressed ST segment C. Peaked T waves D. Peaked P waves

C. Peaked T waves

Which diagnosis would support the diagnosis of respiratory acidosis? A. Vomiting B. Hyperventilation C. Pneumonia D. An increase in noncarbonic acids

C. Pneumonia

A report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. A nurse recalls that muscular atrophy involves a decrease in muscle cell: A. Lipofuscin B. Vacuoles C. Size D. Number

C. Size

A nurse recalls asthma is classified by:

Clinical severity

Which drug may produce psychosis at high doses? (Select all that apply) Levodopa Fluphenazine Haloperidol Cocaine

Cocaine and Levodopa

A person experiences a vertebral fracture in which the C1 vertebra is fractured into several fragments. This type of fracture can be described as which of the following? Simple Compressed Comminuted Wedge

Comminuted

A 27-year-old male has a severe kidney obstruction leading to removal of the affected kidney. Which of the following would the nurse expect to occur?

Compensatory hypertrophy of the remaining kidney

A nurse recalls stress-induced stimulation of the adrenal cortex causes it to secrete:

Cortisol

Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagus) affects a patient's ability to?

Cough, gag or swallow.

An important and useful clinical measure in the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis is measurement of which laboratory value?

Creatine kinase (CK)

19. What group is most at risk of spinal cord injury from minor trauma? a. Children b. Adolescents c. Adults d. Older Adults

21.It is true that myasthenia gravis: a. Is an acute autoimmune disease. b. Affects the nerve roots. c. May result in adrenergic crisis. d. Causes muscle weakness.

27. Which nutritional deficiency in a pregnant woman is associated with neural tube defect (NTD)? a. Iron b. Vitamin C c. Zinc d. Folate

32. Prompt surgical repair of a myelomeningocele is critical to best prevent: a. Infection b. Paralysis c. Mental retardation d. Additional nervous system damage

A 20-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. A spinal cord injury is suspected. What two regions should the nurse assess as they are most likely to be damaged? a. Cervical and thoracic regions b. Thoracic and lumbar regions c. Lumbar and sacral regions d. Cervical and lumbar regions

A patient experiences a stroke and now has difficulty writing and producing language. This condition is most likely caused by occlusion of the _____. A. Anterior communicating artery. B. Posterior communicating artery. C. Circle of Willis. D. Middle cerebral artery.

A teenage sustains a severe closed head injury following an all-terrain vehicle (ATV) accident and is in a state of deep sleep that requires vigorous stimulation to elicit eye opening. How should the nurse document this in the chart? A. Confusion. B. Coma. C. Obtundation. D. Stupor.

An adult is diagnosed with communicating hydrocephalus. The form of hydrocephalus in adults is most often caused by _____. A. Overproduction of CSF. B. Intercellular edema. C. Elevated arterial blood pressure. D. Defective CSF reabsorption.

The majority of intervertebral disk herniations occur between which vertebral levels? A. C1-C3 B. T1-T4 C. T12-L3 D. L4-S1

What is the most common early symptom of a brain abscess? A. Neck rigidity. B. Vomiting. C. Drowsiness. D. Headache.

A 35 year old male weighs 70 kg. Approximately how much of this weight is considered the total volume of body water? A. 5 L B. 10 L C. 28 L D. 42 L

D. 42 L

When the immunologist says that pathogens possess virulence, what does virulence mean? A. Induces an immune response B. Damages tissue C. Spreads from one individual to others and causes disease D. Causes disease

D. Causes disease

A 52-year-old diabetic male presents to the ER with lethargy, confusion, and depressed reflexes. His wife indicates that he does not follow the prescribed diet and takes his medication sporadically. Lab results indicate hyperglycemia. Which assessment finding is most likely to occur? A. Decreased urine formation B. Clammy skin C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Decreased sodium

D. Decreased sodium

A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit? A. Gait problems B. Petechiae C. Hyperactivity D. Spoon-shaped nails

D. Spoon-shaped nails

An infant is experiencing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in the infant's history and physical? A. The mother was exposed to measles. B. The father was exposed to Agent Orange. C. The baby was born 6 weeks prematurely. D. The baby is Rh positive.

D. The baby is Rh positive.

A student asks the instructor about recycled iron. What information should the instructor share? Recycled iron from macrophages is delivered to the bone marrow bound to: A. Ferritin B. Hemoglobin C. Hemosiderin D. Transferrin

D. Transferrin

A 35-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find? A. Hypotension B. Episodes of hypoglycemia C. Renal toxicity D. Type 2 DM

D. Type 2 DM

Which of the following clinical findings would be expected in the patient with rhabdomyolysis?

Dark urine

When taking care of a patient with hyperkalemia, which principle is priority? Hyperkalemia causes a(n) _____ in resting membrane potential with _____ excitability of cardiac muscle. Increase; decreased Decrease; increased Increase; increased Decrease; decreased

Decrease; increased

A 45-year-old female has elevated thyroxine production. Which of the following would accompany this condition Increased thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) Increased anterior pituitary stimulation Decreased T4 Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Decreased TSH

A 25-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal cortex. Which finding would the nurse expect to see in the lab results?

Decreased blood K+ levels

While planning care for a patient with urinary problems, the nurse recalls that the renin-angiotensin system will be activated by:

Decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles

A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture. She is diagnosed with osteoporosis. One factor that most likely contributed to her condition is:

Decreased estrogen levels

A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with restrictive lung disease caused by fibrosis. The patient had a pulmonary functions test. Which of the following findings is expected?

Decreased functional residual capacity

A group of mountain climbers experience confusion, tachycardia, edema, and decreased renal output after climbing Mount Rainier. A nurse recalls this condition is caused by:

Decreased inspired oxygen

While planning care for elderly individuals, the nurse remembers the elderly are at a higher risk for developing dehydration because they have a(n):

Decreased muscle mass

Which of the following patients is the most at risk for developing hypernatremia? A patient with:

Dehydration

Which statement is true regarding a mood disorder? HPA system hormones are decreased in a large % of individuals with major depression Depression occurs with deficits in brain norepinephrine Environmental factors play no role in depression No genetic role exists in depression

Depression occurs with deficits in brain norepinephrine

Which of the following is a benefit of fever? Decreases lymphocytic transformation Diminishes the response of phagocytosis Decreases calcium concentration Deprives bacteria of a food source

Deprives bacteria of a food source

Remyelination occurs in what kind of pattern?

Descending

A 35-year-old male received a traumatic brain injury in a motor vehicle accident. CT scan revealed a lesion above the pontine micturition center. Which of the following would the nurse expect?

Detrusor hyperreflexia

A 30-year-old white male recently suffered a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following is the most likely factor that contributed to his stroke?

Diabetes

A woman with long term Type 2 diabetes returns from vacation and developed "flu like symptoms". Her family had difficulty waking her up in the morning, and took her to the hospital. Her current blood glucose level is 502 mg/dL. Her urine is positive for glucose and negative for ketones. Based on the information provided: which of the following statements is INCORRECT? An increased resistance to the effects of insulin (possibly exacerbated by the infection) and an excessive carbohydrate intake contributed to her problem Diabetic ketoacidosis is a result of mismanaged sick days and insulin management Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non-ketotic is a complication of only type 2 diabetes Treatment for this problem is hydration and insulin management of hyperglycemia

Diabetic ketoacidosis is a result of mismanaged sick days and insulin management

Diaphragm function may be impaired.

Which of the following best describes schizophrenia? Positive personality Negative personality Disruption of thoughts Constant halluncinations

Disruption of thoughts

A 32-year-old male was injured in a motor vehicle accident and confined to bed for 3 weeks. During this time, the size and strength of muscle fibers decreased, a condition referred to as:

Disuse atrophy

A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting visual disturbances. CT reveals a pituitary tumor and lab tests reveal elevated prolactin. He is diagnosed with prolactinoma. Which of the following treatments would the nurse help implement? Administering: A. Calcium B. Dopaminergic agonists C. Insulin D. Radiation

Dopaminergic agonists

A patient presents reporting visual disturbances. When CT reveals a pituitary tumor and lab tests reveal elevated prolactin, the diagnosis of prolactinoma is made. Which intervention is the treatment of choice for this condition?

Dopaminergic agonists

A patient has high levels of hormones. To adapt to the high hormone concentrations, the patient's target cells have the capacity for:

Down regulation

Which of the following is consistent with dumping syndrome?

Dumping syndrome usually responds well to dietary management.

A 10-year-old female develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal retractions. She reports that breathing is difficult and she feels she cannot get enough air. What term should the nurse use to document this condition?

Dyspnea

Individuals with a recent diagnosis of emphysema should be assessed for which most common presenting factor?

Dyspnea

Which of these are phases of fat digestion and absorption of fat? (Select all that apply) Emulsification and lipolysis Micelle formation Hydrolysis Fat absorption Segmentation

Emulsification and lipolysis, micelle formation, and fat absorption

A 36-year-old male complains of pain and weakness in the elbow. He reports that he is a warehouse worker and lifts boxes daily. MRI reveals inflammation of the tendon where it attaches to bone. This condition is called:

Epicondylopathy

Which of the following is an arterial bleed from the blood vessels that lie within the grooves of the skull? Subdural Epidural Subarachnoid Lumbar cisterna

Epidural

If a patient had a problem with the adrenal medulla, which of the following hormones should the nurse monitor?

Epinephrine

Which bacteria is the most common cause of UTIs? Klebsiella Proteus Escherichia coli Staphylococcus

Escherichia Coli

Hepatitis A is transmitted through infected blood and other body fluids

False

Obesity is defined as BMI greater than 40. True or false

False

Which are the early (prodromal) clinical manifestations of hepatitis?

Fatigue, fever, hyperalgia, and vomiting

Antibiotics eradicate which infection? (Select all that apply) Gonorrhea Chlamydia Bacterial vaginosis Herpes simple virus Molluscum contagiosum

Gonorrhea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis

The primary cause of duodenal ulcers is:

Helicobacter pylori.

Which type of hepatitis is transferred via the fecal-oral route? Hep A Hep B Hep C Hep D

Hep A

While checking the lab results for a patient with Graves disease, the nurse would check the T3 level to be abnormally:

High

Which assessment result would the nurse expect to find associated with a patient diagnosed with Graves disease?

High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating autoantibodies

Which principle should the nurse include while planning care for a patient with an ADH problem ADH release from the posterior pituitary is stimulated by: Low blood pressure sensed by baroreceptors in the kidneys High serum osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus Low osmolality sensed by osmoreceptors in the kidneys High concentration of potassium sensed by chemoreceptors in the carotid body

High serum osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

Which principle should the nurse include while planning care for a patient with an ADH problem? ADH release from the posterior pituitary is stimulated by:

High serum osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

Which principle should the nurse include while planning care for a patient with an ADH problem? ADH release from the posterior pituitary is stimulated by: Low osmolality sensed by osmoreceptors in the kidneys Low blood pressure sensed by baroreceptors in the kidneys High serum osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus High concentration of potassium sensed by chemoreceptors in the carotid body

High serum osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

Diet for Guillian-Barre Syndrome?

High-calorie, High-protein.

Nursing management of Myasthenia gravis

*prevention *frequent rest periods *prevent corneal abrasion-alternate eye patch every 2-3 hours *nutritional support-small frequent meals, high calorie snacks *emotional support-encourage family to discuss feelings

When a nurse is teaching about urinary pathogens in men. Which information should the nurse include? Mechanisms for defense against urinary pathogens in men include (select all that apply):

- The long length of the urethra - Antimicrobial secretions from the prostate

A healthcare professional is educating a community men's group about prostate cancer. What information should the professional include in the presentation? (Select all that apply.)

-Being over 65 years of age increases the risk for developing prostate cancer. -A familial history of prostate cancer is a risk factor.

What are the common clinical manifestations of endometriosis?

-Dysmenorrhea -Infertility

A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. While the nurse is reviewing the lab tests, which results would the nurse expect to find?

-High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies - High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies AND elevated T3 AND Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss

A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). Which of the following are correct statements? Select ALL that apply.

-It is caused by the immune mediated destruction of the pancreas -Glycosylated hemoglobin measurements, testing for the presence C peptide, fasting plasma glucose levels, and glucose tolerance tests are diagnostic tests for diabetes

A woman has a pelvic organ prolapse. What treatments does the healthcare professional teach the women about? (select all)

-Kegel exercises -estrogen therapy

A nurse is preparing to teach a patient about Addison disease. Which information is correct. Select all that apply.

-The most common cause of Addison disease is an autoimmune reaction. -Addison disease is characterized by inadequate corticosteroid and mineralocorticoid synthesis and elevated serum ACTH.

A nurse is assessing a patient with hypoparathyroidism. Clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism include (select all that apply)

-Trousseau sign -Hair loss -Tetany -Chvostek sign

A healthcare professional reads in a woman's chart that she has a grade 2 uterine prolapse. What assessment finding does the professional correlate with this condition?

-Uterus reaches the hymen -Uterus protruding from the vagina

The nurse assesses a patient for long term complications of diabetes. This assessment includes evaluations for the following. Select all that apply

-auscultation of carotids for bruits associated with atherosclerosis. -pedal pulse palpation for arterial insufficiency. -auscultation of carotids for bruits associated with atherosclerosis.

what are the cholinergic receptors

muscarinic, nicotinic n, nicotinic m

The clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease (PD) include:

muscle tremor; slow, rigid movements; and postural abnormalities.

While planning care for a patient from general anesthesia, which principle should the nurse remember? A side effect of some general anesthetic agents is _____ diabetes insipidus.

nephrogenic

A nurse recalls direct stimulation of the insulin-secreting cells of the pancreas by the autonomic nervous system is an example of _control. Negative feedback Positive feedback Neural Substrate-level dependent

neural

The __________ is the primary information and communication cell of the nervous system>

neuron

Visual disturbances are a common occurrence in patients with untreated Graves disease. The endocrinologist explains to the patient that the main cause of these complications is:

orbital edema and protrusion of the eyeball.

The type of diarrhea that is a result of unhydrolyzed lactose is referred to as:

osmotic

Increased bilirubin production, impaired hepatic uptake and excretion of bilirubin, and reabsorption of bilirubin in the small intestine can each lead to:

physiologic jaundice of the newborn.

An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. What classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for?

polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss

What do cholinesterase inhibitors do

prohibit the break down of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase - enhance action of ACh

"A patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and begins treatment with levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet). After several months of therapy, the patient reports no change in symptoms. The nurse will expect the physician to:"

re-evaluate the diagnosis;

A 75-year-old female suffers a stroke and now has impaired comprehension of language. This clinical manifestation is called:

receptive aphasia;

Thymectomy

removal of the thymus gland-performed early in the disease because effects are not immediate

A high concentration of urinary ________________ is a factor that leads to the formation of renal calculus

salt

A 22-year-old female has a low level of TSH. What condition does the nurse expect the patient is experiencing?

secondary hypothyroidism

A 10-year-old female was brought to the ER following a sudden onset of convulsions. The primary care provider thinks that she experienced an explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons referred to as:

seizure

A sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons is termed:

seizure.

A nurse is teaching a patient about insulin. What information should the nurse include? Insulin is primary regulated by:

serum glucose levels

what does the nicotinic receptor do

stimulates smooth muscle and gland secretions

what does the muscarinic receptor do

stimulates smooth muscle and gland secretions, decreases heart rate and force of contraction

A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released. How should the nurse respond High serum levels of cortisol Hypotension Hypoglycemia Stress

stress

A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released. How should the nurse respone?

stress

A nurse is assessing a patient with hypoparathyroidism. Clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism include: (select all that apply)

tetany, Chvostek sign, Trousseau sign, hair loss.

Vasogenic oedema is clinically important because:

the blood-brain barrier is disrupted.

When a nurse is teaching about urinary pathogens in men. Which information should the nurse include? Mechanisms for defense against urinary pathogens in men include

the long length of the urethra and antimicrobial secretions from the prostate.

An ednocrinologist is teaching about aldosterone secretion. What information should the endocrinolgist include? Aldosterone secretion is regulated by:

the renin-angiotension system

An endocrinologist is teaching about aldosterone secretion. Which information should the endocrinologist include Aldosterone secretion is regulated by: The sympathetic nervous system ACTH feedback The renin-angiotension system Positive feedback

the renin-angiotension system

Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, and SIADH share what assessment manifestations?

thirst

More than _____ stools per day is considered abnormal.

three(3)

A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Synthesis of which of the following would decrease in this patient Corticosteroid B globulin Sex hormone-binding globulin Thyroid-binding globulin Albumin

thyroid binding globulin

Endoscopy and biopsy may show long-standing inflammatory process and gastric atrophy indicating chronic gastritis in an individual with no HX of abd distress. True or false

true

While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is:

urine pH.

A nurse is teaching staff about oxytocin. What information should the nurse include? Target cells for oxytocin are located in the:

uterus

A nurse is teaching the staff about oxytocin. Which information should the nurse include Target cells for oxytocin are located in the: Renal tubules Thymus Liver Uterus

uterus

what does the alpha 1 receptor do

vasoconstriction and dilates pupils

List the anatomic alterations of the lungs associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome

• rare autoimmune disorder of the peripheral nervous system in which flaccid paralysis of the skeletal muscle and loss of reflexes develop in previous health patient • Paralysis of the skeletal muscles develops in response to various pathologic changes in the peripheral nerves • the nerves will show demyelination, inflammation, and edema • the ability of the nerons to transmit impulses to the muscle decreases, and eventually paralysis ensues • In severe cases, paralysis of the diaphragm and ventilatory failure •If the ventilatory failure is not properly managed GB may develop: o Mucous accumulation o Airway obstruction o Alveolar consolidation o Atelectasis

How is Guillen Barre Syndrome diagnosed?

History, clinical signs, lumbar puncture to evaluate CSF, electrophysiologic studies (EPS), electromygraphic (EMG) findings.

Which of these causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts?

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

In the female reproductive system, what is the appropriate term for the thin perforate membrane that generally covers the vaginal introitus? Mons Pubis Labia Majora Vulva Hymen

Hymen

Which of the following alterations would the nurse expect to find in a patient with untreated Cushing disease or syndrome?

Hypertension

Which of the following alterations would the nurse expect to find in a patient with untreated Cushing disease or syndrome? A. Hyperkalemia B. Bradycardia C. Hypertension D. Tachypnea

Hypertension

A 12-year-old male who uses insulin to control his type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion during gym class. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

Which symptom would the nurse expect in a patient diagnosed with hyperaldosteronism?

Hypokalemia

A nurse is reviewing the results of an ABG and finds reduced oxygenation of arterial blood. What term should the nurse use to describe this condition?

Hypoxemia

A nurse is reviewing lab reports. The nurse recalls blood plasma is located in which of the following fluid compartments?

Intravascular fluid

Which statement is true regarding a subdural hematoma? Is a collection of blood between the dura and archnoid Occurs as a result of the disruption of an artery It is closely adhered to the brain It also produces CSF

Is a collection of blood between the dura and archnoid

Which statement is true regarding a mood disorder? Is a sustained emotional state Is a disruption of thought Lifetime prevalence is 1% 95% of depressed pts respond to medications

Is a sustained emotional state

Which statement is true regarding Broca's area? Is responsible for receptive speech Is responsible for motor speech Results in the inability to hear Is located in the right cerebral hemisphere

Is responsible for motor speech

What is Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

It is an auto immune attack on the peripheral nerves and some cranial nerves, producing ascending weakness (paralysis).

For a patient with respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by the body will include:

Kidney excretion of H+

Which of the following are categories of neurologic function that are classifed as critical for evaluation? (Select all that apply) LOC Pattern of breathing HR Eye position

LOC, pattern of breathing, and Eye position

List some autonomic manifestations of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Labile (easily altered) blood pressure, cardiac dysrhythmias and tachycardia.

A 30-year-old diagnosed with Graves disease is admitted to a hospital unit for the surgical removal of the thyroid gland. During the postoperative period, the nurse notes that the patient's serum calcium is low. The nurse should observe the patient for which of the following signs/symptoms?

Laryngeal spasms and hyperreflexia

Laryngeal spasms, tetany and hyperreflexia

A nurse is teaching staff about pulmonary edema. Which information should the nurse include? The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:

Left heart failure

Which patient would the nurse assess for paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)? A patient with:

Left ventricular failure

Regarding ulcerative colitis, which is a true statement? UC extends throughout the entire GI tract UC generally appears in childhood African Americans are more commonly affected Lesions are limited to the mucosa

Lesions are limited to the mucosa

Which cells of the liver store lipids? Hepatocytes Sinusoids Lipocytes Kupffer Cells

Lipocytes

Which of the following patients should the nurse assess for a decreased oncotic pressure in the capillaries? A patient with:

Liver failure

Which factors determine the severity of obstructive uropathy? (Select all that apply) Blockage location Duration of the blockage Cause of the lesion Amount of renal blood flow Degree of completeness of blockage

Location, duration, completeness of blockage and cause of the lesion

A nurse thinks a patient may be experiencing dementia. Which assessment finding will most help support this diagnosis?

Loss of recent and remote memory

While planning care for a patient with hypothyroidism, which principle should the nurse remember? The basal metabolic rate is unusually _____ with hypothyroidism.

Low

A nurse recalls regulation of acid-base balance through removal or retention of volatile acids is accomplished by the:

Lungs

Ovulation marks the beginning of which phase of menstruation? Menstruation Follicular or proliferative Luteal or secretory Secretory

Luteal or secretory

Which statement is true regarding the cerebellum? Makes up fibers of the coricospinal tract Maintains balance or posture Controls respirations Is the location of cranial nerves V to VIII

Maintains balance and posture

Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system abnormalities exist in a large percentage of individuals with what?

Major depression

A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the use of Memantine for Alzheimer s disease. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

Memantine modulates the effects of glutamate to alter calcium influx into neurons.

Which of the following are characteristic of Alzheimer disease? (Select all that apply) Rapid onset Memory Loss Increase irritability Anxiety and depression

Memory loss, Increased irritability, and anxiety and depression

Which of the following people is at highest risk for the development of gout?

Men aged 40 to 50 years

Meningeal Infection

A 3-year-old male was diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism. The parents ask the nurse if left untreated what will happen. What is the nurse's best response? If left untreated, the child would have: A. Liver, kidney, and pacreas failure B. Hyperactivity and ADD C. Mental retardation and stunted growth D. Increased risk of childhood thyroid cancer

Mental retardation and stunted growth

A 54-year-old male was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which of the following is the expected treatment of choice?

Methotrexate

Which organs are considered part of the alimentary or GI tract? (Select all that apply) Mouth Esophagus Stomach Liver Gallbladder Large Intestine

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, and large intestine

A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse include? Airway obstruction contributing to increased airflow resistance and hypoventilation in asthma is caused by:

Mucus secretion, bronchoconstriction, and airway edema

What is mediated by acetylcholine receptor (AChR) antibodies that act at the neurmuscular junction

Myastenia gravis

Which of the following is an insulating substance for the neuron? Schwann Sheath Myelin Neurilemma Node of Ranvier

Myelin

A 60-year-old female with emphysema is having difficulty expiring a given volume of air. When giving report, the nurse will relay that the patient is most likely experiencing _____ pulmonary disease.

Obstructive

A 60-year-old female is diagnosed with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to observe?

Oliguria

A 20-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting difficulty breathing when lying down. What term should the nurse use to document this condition?

Orthopnea

Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined

Osmotic forces

A 39-year-old female is recovering from the birth of her third child. What hormone would help prevent uterine bleeding?

Oxytocin

If a patient had a problem with the hypothalamus, which of the following hormones would be affected?

Oxytocin

List some complications pertaining to immobility.

Paralytic ileus, muscle atrophy, DVT, pulmonary emboli, skin breakdown, orthostatic hypotension and nutritional deficiencies.

A patient has paralysis of both legs. What type of paralysis does the patient have?

Paraplegia

Paralysis of the lower extremities is called:

Paraplegia

Hypomagnesemia

Paresthesia, dysrhythmias, Trousseau's sign, Chvostek's sign, agitation, confusion, hyperreflexia, hypertension, insomnia,irritability, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, dysphagia

Hyperkalemia

Peaked T waves, ventricular dysrhythmias, muscle twitching and paresthesia (early), ascending muscle weakness (late), increased bowel motility

A 65-year-old Hispanic female is admitted to the hospital with a pathologic, compound, transverse fracture of the femur. Which of the following statements best describes the location of this fracture?

Perpendicular across the bone

A man reports an abnormal curvature of his penis. He states it has been getting worse since puberty and that intercourse is painful. These symptoms support which diagnosis? Peyronie disease Orchitis Phimosis Paraphimosis

Peyronie disease

A 30-year-old female presents with hypertension, headache, tachycardia, impaired glucose tolerance, and weight loss. What diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart?

Pheochromocytoma

A 30-year-old female presents with hypertension, headache, tachycardia, impaired glucose tolerance, and weight loss. Which of the following diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart?

Pheochromocytoma

A 30-year-old presents with hypertension, headache, tachycardia, impaired glucose tolerance, and weight loss. Which of the following diagnoses is supported by this symptomology?

Pheochromocytoma

Which enzyme is responsible for cleaving fatty acids from phospholipids? Cholesterol esterase Phospholipase Lipase Enterokinase

Phospholipase

What are some things that can be done to increase immobility?

Physical Therapy, ROM exercises and attention to body position.

What has been linked with early pubertal development in girls? Presence of liptin Thin body habitus Decreased growth hormone Intense exercise

Presence of leptin

A 60-year-old male undergoes surgery for a bone fracture. Which of the following nursing measures would be most effective for preventing pulmonary embolism (PE) in this patient?

Prevent deep vein thrombosis formation.

In the distual tubule, which cells reabsorb sodium and water, as well as secret potassium? Distal Proximal Principal Intercalated

Principal

A 54-year-old female is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following is a common symptom of this disease?

Proteinuria

An 80-year-old female is in the hospital for a bone fracture. While there she develops a large, nonlethal pulmonary embolus. Which of the following is a direct result of the obstruction to pulmonary blood flow?

Pulmonary hypertension

The most common cause of pure water deficit is:

Renal water loss

Arousal is mediated by the:

Reticular activating system RAS

Which assessment finding by the nurse characterizes a mild concussion?

Retrograde Amnesia

A 21-year-old female presents with low back pain and stiffness that is alleviated by physical activity. She was diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). The first joint to be affected would be the:

Sacroiliac

A decrease in receptor binding for which neurotransmitter is found in individuals with depression?

Serotonin

A nurse is teaching a patient about insulin. Which information should the nurse include? Insulin is primarily regulated by:

Serum glucose levels

A nurse is teaching a patient about insulin. Which information should the nurse include? Insulin is primarily regulated by: Enzyme activation Metabolic rate Prostaglandins Serum glucose levels

Serum glucose levels

A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find before treatment?

Skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate

A patient diagnosed with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find before treatment?

Skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate

In the majority of cases delayed puberty is due to:

Slow maturation

Cranial nerve VII (facial) affects a patient's ability to?

Smile, frown, whistle or drink from a straw.

A patient has been searching on the Internet about natriuretic hormones. When the patient asks the nurse what do these hormones do, how should the nurse respond? Natriuretic hormones affect the balance of:

Sodium

_________ pain arises from connective tissue, muscle, bone, and skin.

Somatic

A 12-year-old female hurts her ankle while playing basketball. Tests reveal that she tore a ligament. This condition is known as a:

Sprain

A 10-year-old male is brought to the ER with prolonged bronchospasm and severe hypoxemia. The most likely diagnosis on the chart is:

Status asthmaticus

A 48-year-old female presents at the ER reporting an acute severe headache, nausea, photophobia, and nuchal rigidity. What does the nurse suspect caused these signs and symptoms?

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

An older adult who abuses alcohol has fallen and is diagnosed with a hematoma that is located on the top of the brain. Which type of hematoma fits this descrition? Epidural Subdural Extradural Intracerebral

Subdural

A 35-year-old female suffers a broken clavicle following a motor vehicle accident. X-ray reveals that the bone surfaces in the joint partially lost contact with each other. This condition is called:

Subluxation

Which glands are considered salivary glands? (Select all that apply) Thyroid Submandibular Sublingual Parotid

Submandibular, sublingal, and parotid

Which of the following concerning Gestational diabetes is incorrect?

Symptoms appear in the first trimester of pregnancy

Which of the following concerning Gestational diabetes is incorrect? Maternal hyperglycemia causes fetal hyperinsulinemia Symptoms appear in the first trimester of pregnancy Women with Gestational diabetes have a greater risk of future development of Type 2 diabetes Insulin sensitivity is replaced by insulin resistance.

Symptoms appear in the first trimester of pregnancy

Which statement regarding renal cell carcinoma is true? Renal cell carcinoma is associated with TP53 Early stages of the disease produce a large abdominal mass Symptoms include hematuria Granular cell tumors have a better prognosis than renal cell carcinoma

Symptoms include hematuria

A 34-year-old female was recently diagnosed with RA. Physical examination revealed that inflammation started in the:

Synovial membrane

Which condition is associated with orchitis? (Select all that apply) Systemic infection Mumps Epididymitis Testicular torsion Perpubertal boys

Systemic infection, mumps, and epididymitis

The risk of which cancer is greater if the man has a history of cryptorchidism?

Testicular

What happens during the acute or initial phase?

The acute or initial period (1 to 4 weeks), begins with the onset of the first symptoms and ends when no further deterioration occurs.

The primary care provider states that the patient has vasogenic edema. The nurse realizes vasogenic edema is clinically important because:

The blood-brain barrier is disrupted.

_____ are most at risk of spinal cord injury from minor trauma.

The elderly

How does SIADH cause excess water? The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of sodium that retains excessive water in the renal tubules. The decrease in antidiuretic hormone increases serum glucose, which binds to water. The decrease in antidiuretic hormone prevents the renal tubules from reabsorbing water. The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of water in the renal tubules.

The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of water in the renal tubules.

When a nurse is checking the urinalysis, plasma proteins should be absent from the urine because:

The negative charge of the glomerular filtration membrane repels the plasma proteins

What happens during the plateau period?

The plateau period (several days to 2 weeks).

What happens during the recovery phase?

The recovery phase (4 to 6 months) is thought to coincide with remyelination and axonal regeneration. Although some never recover and have permanent neurologic deficits, referred to as chronic GBS.

An endocrinologist is teaching about aldosterone secretion. Which information should the endocrinologist include? Aldosterone secretion is regulated by:

The renin-angiotensin system

A healthcare professional is teaching a high school group about STIs. Which statement by the professional provides the most accurate information regarding the transmission of herpes simplex virus (HSV)?

The risk of transmission is present even during latent periods

Describe the demyelination effect of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

The transmission of nerve impulses is stopped or slowed down, muscles supplied by damaged peripheral and cranial nerves undergo denervation and atrophy. The Schwann cells are not effected and can allow for remyelination. Axon damage requires nerve cell regrowth.

The most common manifestation of portal hypertension induced splenomegaly is:

Thrombocytopenia

The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called:

Tophaceous gout

Ammonia formation may increase hepatic encephalopathy.

True

Anorexia is the lack of desire to eat despite physiologic stimuli that would normally produce hunger

True

Anorexia is the lack of desire to eat despite physiologic stimuli that would normally produce hunger.

True

Because patterns of bowel evacuation differ greatly among individuals, constipation must be individually defined.

True

A 12-year-old female hurts her ankle while playing basketball. Tests reveal that she tore a ligament. This condition is known as a: a. Sprain b. Strain c. Disunion d. Subluxation

A 34-year-old female was recently diagnosed with RA. Physical examination revealed that inflammation started in the: a. Synovial membrane b. Articular cartilage c. Subchondral bone d. Surrounding ligaments

Transchondral fractures are most prevalent in: a. Adolescents b. Older adults c. Infants d. Premenopausal females

Which of the following people is at highest risk for the development of gout? a. Men aged 40 to 50 years b. Premenopausal women c. Male adolescents d. Female children

a distended bladder or rectum

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a result of:

a zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES).

The pattern of bone destruction indicative of an aggressive malignant tumor is known as J_____ pattern. (Select all that apply.) a. Moth-eaten b. Permeative c. Geographic d. Radial e. Selective

a, b, c

What is the first sign of puberty in girls? a. Breast enlargement b. Growth of pubic hair c. Menstruation d. Vaginal discharge

a. Breast enlargement

Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer? a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) b. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) c. Herpes simplex II virus (HSV) d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Which benign breast tumor affects postmenopausal women and is characterized by the principal lactiferous ducts becoming dilated and filled with cellular debris? a. Mammary duct ectasia b. Intraductal papilloma c. Phyllodes tumor d. Fibroadenoma

a. Mammary duct ectasia

Which type of precocious puberty causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex? a. Mixed b. Incomplete c. Isosexual d. Homosexual

a. Mixed

Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because carbonic acid and bicarbonate exist in a ratio of: a. 20:1 b. 1:20 c. 10:2 d. 2:10

a. 20:1

While planning care for a patient with an extradural hematoma, which principle should the nurse remember? The main source of bleeding in extradural (epidural) hematomas is: a. Arterial b. Venous c. Capillary d. Sinus

a. Arterial

a. Blacks over 65 years of age

A 10-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) because he is incoherent and semiconscious. CT scan reveals that he is suffering from cerebral edema. This type of edema is referred to as: a. Localized edema b. Generalized edema c. Pitting edema d. Lymphedema

a. Localized edema Rationale: Cerebral edema is a form of localized edema. Generalized edema is manifested by a more uniform distribution of fluid in interstitial spaces. Pitting edema is due to a pit left in the skin. Lymphedema is due to swelling in interstitial spaces, primarily in the extremities.

A nurse is discussing endocrine system dysfunction with a patient. What statement indicated that patient understood? Endocrine system dysfunction can result from hyposecretion, hypersecretion, or from:

abnormal receptor activity

Besides hyposecretion and hypersecretion, endocrine system dysfunction can result from:

abnormal receptor activity.

A 60-year-old female with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hypertension presents to the ED for changes in mental status. MRI reveals that she had a haemorrhagic stroke. This type of stroke is often caused by:

aneurysms

A nurse recalls prolactin-inhibiting factor's target tissue is the: Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Mammary glands Posterior pituitary

anterior pituitary

A 35-year-old female suffers a broken clavicle following a motor vehicle accident. X-ray reveals that the bone surfaces in the joint partially lost contact with each other. This condition is called: a. Dislocation b. Subluxation c. Distortion d. Nonunion

A 54-year-old female was recently diagnosed with degenerative joint disease. This condition is characterized by loss of: a. The epiphyses b. Articular cartilage c. Synovial fluid d. The joint capsule

A 65-year-old Hispanic female is admitted to the hospital with a pathologic, compound, transverse fracture of the femur. Which of the following statements best describes this type of fracture? a. The fracture line is parallel to the bone. b. The fracture line is straight across the bone. c. The fracture line is perpendicular to the bone. d. The fracture line is vertical to the shaft of the bone.

A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture. She is diagnosed with osteoporosis. One factor that most likely contributed to her condition is: a. Increased androgen levels b. Decreased estrogen levels c. Strenuous exercise d. Excessive dietary calcium

A disorder similar to osteomalacia that occurs in growing bones of children is termed: a. Paget disease b. Rickets c. Osteomyelitis d. Osteosarcoma

Researchers now believe that RA is: a. Curable with antiviral agents b. An autoimmune disease c. A complication of rheumatic fever d. Related superficial joint injury

The cause of Paget disease is: a. Fluoride deficiency b. Unknown at present c. Excess vitamin A d. Osteogenic sarcoma

The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called: a. Monarticular arthritis b. Tophaceous gout c. Asymptomatic hyperuricemia d. Complicated gout

Which of the following clinical findings would be expected in the patient with rhabdomyolysis? a. Sweating b. Dark urine c. Yellow color to the skin d. Lower extremity swelling

Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after how many months of unprotected intercourse with the same partner? a. 6 b. 12 c. 18 d. 24

b. 12

Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? a. Premenstrual syndrome b. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding c. Polycystic ovary syndrome d. Primary dysmenorrhea

b. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

The release of which chemical mediator causes primary dysmenorrhea? a. Leukotrienes b. Prostaglandins c. Bradykinin d. C-reactive protein

b. Prostaglandins

A 19-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting restlessness, muscle cramping, and diarrhea. Lab tests reveal that he is hyperkalemic. Which of the following could have caused his condition? a. Primary hyperaldosteronism b. Acidosis c. Insulin secretion d. Diuretic use

b. Acidosis Rationale: During acute acidosis, hydrogen ions accumulate in the ICF and potassium shifts out of the cell to the ECF, causing hyperkalemia. Primary hyperaldosteronism is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. Insulin secretion helps reduce potassium levels in the cell, not cause it. Diuretics would cause hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.

A 15-year-old male suffered diffuse brain injury after wrecking an all-terrain vehicle. He had momentary confusion and retrograde amnesia after 5 to 10 minutes. His injury could be categorized as: a. Grade I b. Grade II c. Grade III d. A mild concussion

b. Grade II

Which information indicates the nurse understands assessment findings of an aneurysm? a. A headache is the most common symptom b. The majority are asymptomatic c. Nosebleeds are an early symptom d. Epidural hemorrhage occurs in over 80% of patients

b. The majority are asymptomatic

Myasthenia Gravis-Symptoms related to generalized muscle weakness

bland facial expressions, dystonia(voice impairment), potential choking and aspiration, muscle weakness during periods of activity, potential respiratory failure

.........................is slowness of voluntary movement

bradykinesia

Dilated fixed pupils can be caused by:

brain stem hypoxia

Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the:

brain tissue.

When a woman's uterus is assessed as protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen, which grade of prolapse does this indicate? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

c. 2

Which description is used when a progressive neoplastic change involves the full epithelial thickness of the cervix? a. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia b. Cervical dysplasia c. Cervical carcinoma in situd. Invasive carcinoma of the cervix

c. Cervical carcinoma in situ

Which term is used to identify the descent of the posterior bladder and trigone into the vaginal canal? a. Rectocele b. Vaginocele c. Cystocele d. Enterocele

c. Cystocele

A 60-year-old female with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hypertension presents to the ER for changes in mental status. MRI reveals that she had a hemorrhagic stroke. What does the nurse suspect caused this type of stroke? a. Rheumatic heart disease b. Thrombi c. Aneurysm d. Hypotension

c. Aneurysm

c. Diaphragm function may be impaired.

Which patient is most prone to metabolic alkalosis? A patient with: a. Retention of metabolic acids b. Hypoaldosteronism c. Excessive loss of chloride (Cl) d. Hyperventilation

c. Excessive loss of chloride (Cl) Rationale: When acid loss is caused by vomiting, renal compensation is not very effective because loss of Cl stimulates renal retention of bicarbonate, leading to alkalosis. Retention of metabolic acids would lead to acidosis, not alkalosis. Hypoaldosteronism leads to hyponatremia and does not cause alkalosis. Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis, not metabolic alkalosis.

c. Extradural (epidural) hematoma

c. III

Which assessment finding by the nurse characterizes a mild concussion? a. A brief loss of consciousness b. Significant behavioral changes c. Retrograde amnesia d. Permanent confusion

c. Retrograde amnesia

Patients with myasthenia gravis often have tumors or pathologic changes in the: a. Brain b. Pancreas c. Thymus d. Lungs

c. Thymus

When a patient asks what the most common type of renal stones is composed of, how should the nurse respond? The most common type of renal stone is composed of:

calcium

When a patient asks about target cell receptors, what is the nurse;s best response? Target cell receptors for most water soluble hormones are located in the:

cell membrane

What causes a Myasthenic Crisis

change in medication

The incidence of fractures of the pelvis is highest in: a. Preadolescent boys b. Adolescent boys c. Adolescent girls d. Older adults

What type of cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated but no dominant follicle develops and completes the maturity process? a. Follicular b. Corpus luteal c. Corpus albicans d. Benign ovarian

d. Benign ovarian

Which condition is considered a clinical cause of amenorrhea? a. Disorder in the endometrium b. Obstruction of the fallopian tubes c. Lack of physical exercise d. Failure to ovulate

d. Failure to ovulate

4. Which of the following are possible precursors to Guillain-Barre syndrome? 1. Mumps 2. Swine influenza vaccine 3. Infectious mononucleosis 4. Measles a. 2 and 4 only b. 3 and 4 only c. 2,3, and 4 only d. 1,2,3, and 4 only

d. 1,2,3, and 4 only

1. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, which of the following pathologic changes develop in the the peripheral nerves? 1. Inflammation 2. Increased ability to transmit nerve impulses 3. Demyelination 4. Edema a. 2 and 3 only b. 3 and 4 only c. 2,3, and 4 only d. 1,3, and 4 only

d. 1,3, and 4 only

A nurse is preparing to teach staff about the most common type of traumatic brain injury. Which type of traumatic brain injury should the nurse discuss? a. Penetrating trauma b. Diffuse axonal injury c. Focal brain injury d. Concussion

d. Concussion

A 40-year-old male undergoes surgery for a PTH-secreting tumor in which the parathyroid is removed. What would the nurse expect following surgery

decrease calcium reabsorption in the kidney

Signs and Symptoms specific to Cholinergic Crisis

decreased blood pressure, bradycardia

"A 23-year-old female begins having problems with tiredness, weakness and visual changes. Her diagnosis is multiple sclerosis (MS). The pathogenic model of MS includes:"

demyelination of axon tracts in the CNS;

Palpation of the neck of a patient diagnosed with Graves disease would most likely reveal:

diffuse thyroid enlargement.

A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. While planning care, the nurse realizes that the patient is expected to have hydronephrosis and a decreased glomerular filtration rate caused by:

dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces proximal to a blockage.

What is the cause of the hyperpigmentation seen in people with Cushing syndrome?

elevated levels of ACTH

An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be a water-soluble amine. Which of the following is most like this new hormone?

epinephrine

Cholinergic Crisis

excessive amount of ACh

When an individual reports that, "Voices are telling me to steal money," the nurse determines that the person is experiencing? Delusions Disorganized speech Disorganized behavior Hallucinations

hallucinations

Frank bleeding of the rectum is called:

hematochezia Hematochezia is frank bright red or burgundy blood from the rectum. (p. 1456)

While checking the lab results for a patient with Graves disease, the nurse would check the T3 level to be abnormally:

high

Myasthenia Gravis-Diagnostics

history and physical of pt, test for antibodies (80-90% have elevated ACh, Tensilon test

When a staff member asks the nurse what causes the chronic complications of DM such as microvascular and macrovasular disease, how should the nurse respond? These complications are primarily related to:

hyperglycemia

When catecholamines are released in a patient, what should the nurse assess for Nutrient absorption Fluid retention Hypotension Hyperglycemia

hyperglycemia

When catecholamines are released in a patient, what should the nurse assess for?

hyperglycemia

A patient with Addison disease has weakness and easy fatigability. A nurse recalls this is due to:

hypocortisolism

The nurse assesses a patient for short term complications of diabetes. This assessment includes evaluations for:.

hypoglycemia,hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis.

The nurse assesses a patient for short term complications of diabetes. This assessment includes evaluations for:. atherosclerosis. renal insufficiency. nerve function assessment for peripheral neuropathy. hypoglycemia,hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis.

hypoglycemia,hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis.

A major contributing process in cerebrovascular accidents (CVA) is the development of atheromatous plaques in cerebral circulation. These most commonly form:

in cerebral arteries;

Parkinson's disease is

is associated with decreased amounts of dopamine

An initial assessment finding associated with acute spinal cord injury is _____ the injury.

loss of voluntary control below

While planning care for a patient with hypothyroidism, what principle should the nurse remember? The basal metabolic rate is unusually ________ with hypothyroidism.

low

When considering hypothyroidism, the basal metabolic rate is unusually:

low.

If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which substance would the nurse monitor Melatonin Epinephrine Cortisol Somatostatin

melatonin

Normal paCO2

35-45

Match the electrolytes with the corresponding descriptions. Terms may be used more than once. ______ A. Sodium ______ B. Chloride ______ C. Potassium ______ D. Magnesium ______ E. Phosphate 43. Regulates osmolality in the extracellular fluid (ECF) space. 44. Is inversely related to HCO3 concentration. 45. Is a major determinant of resting membrane potential. 46. An intracellular metabolic form is adenosine triphosphate (ATP). 47. Changes in hydrogen ion concentration affect this electrolyte.

43. ANS: A 44. ANS: B 45. ANS: C 46. ANS: E 47. ANS: C

Normal intracranial pressure is _____ mm Hg

5 - 15 Intracranial pressure normally is 5 to 15 mm Hg, or 60 to 180 cm H20. p. 557

A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?

Normal pH

7.35-7.45

Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing pulmonary embolism (PE)?

72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospital

What is the prognosis for a patient with Guillen Barre Syndrome?

85-95% of patients recover completely with supportive care.

Which of the following are indicators for intubation and mechanical ventilation in patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome? 1. pH <7.40 2. PaCO2 > 45 3. FVC < 20 ml/kg 4. NIF < -25 cm H2O a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 and 4 only c. 2,3, and 4 only d. 1,2, and 3 only

10. What are the expected changes in sleep patterns of older adults? a. Older adults experience difficulty falling asleep with less time spent in REM sleep. b. They experience sound sleep during the night with approximately 50% of the time spent in REM sleep and dreaming. c. Older men commonly experience interrupted sleep patterns later in life than do older women. d. Older adults awaken often but with a rapid return to sleep; they awaken refreshed but often later in the morning.

14. What is the normal intracranial pressure (in mm Hg) ? a. 5 to 15 b. 7 to 20 c. 12 to 14 d. 80 to 120

20. Diffuse axonal injuries (DAIs) of the brain often result in: a. Reduced levels of consciousness b. Mild but permanent dysfunction c. Fine motor tremors d. Visual disturbances

23. The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they: a. Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. b. Increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse c. Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse d. Decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.

29. What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is missing? a. Anencephaly b. Myelodysplasia c. Cranial meningocele d. Hydrocephaly

31. What is the term for a herniation or protrusion of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull? a. Encephalocele b. Meningocele c. Arachnoidocele d. Microcephaly

33.Which body system is the largest site for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in infants and children? a. Central nervous system b. Gastrointestinal system c. Integumentary system d. Musculoskeletal system

A 15-month-old child from Pennsylvania was brought to the ER with symptomatology that includes fever, seizure activity, cranial palsies, and paralysis. Which form of encephalitis is best supported by the available assessment data? A. Eastern equine encephalitis. B. Venezuelan encephalitis. C. St. Louis encephalitis. D. West Nile encephalitis.

A 25-year-old male was in an automobile accident. At impact, his forehead struck the windshield. In this situation, a nurse recalls the coup injury would occur in the _____ region. a. Frontal b. Temporal c. Parietal d. Occipital

A cause of hydrocephalus in subarachnoid hemorrhage is: a. Scarring of meninges and impairment of CSF resorption b. Choroid plexus injury c. Impairment of CSF flow through the ventricles d. Vasoconstriction related to carbon dioxide (CO2) changes in the cerebral circulation

A coup injury resulting from a blow to the frontal portion of the skull would occur in which region of the brain? Correct! A. Frontal. B. Temporal. C. Parietal. D. Occipital.

A neurologist is teaching about brain injuries. Which information should the neurologist include? The most severe diffuse brain injury caused by rotational acceleration is most likely to be located _____ the brainstem. a. More peripheral to b. In the central portion of c. Throughout d. Distal to

A nurse notes that a patient walks with the leg extended and held stiff, causing a scraping over the floor surface. What type of gait is the patient experiencing? A. Spastic gait. B. Cerebellar gait. C. Basal ganglion gait. D. Scissors gait.

A patient has paralysis of both legs. What type of paralysis does the patient have? A. Paraplegia. B. Quadraplegia. C. Infraparaplegia. D. Paresthesia.

What is the main source of bleeding in extradural (epidural) hematomas? A. Arterial. B. Venous. C. Capillary. D. Sinus.

When a student asks what can cause dilated, fixed pupils, what is the nurse's best response? Dilated fixed pupils can be caused by: a. Brainstem hypoxia b. Cerebral contusions c. Compression of the hypothalamus d. Spinal shock

Confirmation of somatic death is based on: A. Complete cessation of respiration and circulation B. Presence of livor mortis C. Presence of algor mortis D. Change in skin color to pale yellow

A. Complete cessation of respiration and circulation

A 44-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for SIADH. Which of the following assessment findings would be expected in this patient? A. Concentrated urine B. Tachycardia C. Peripheral edema D. Low blood pressure

A. Concentrated urine

It is true that natriuretic peptides A. Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion B. Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion C. Increase heart rate and decrease potassium excretion D. Decrease heart rate and increase potassium excretion

A. Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion

A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with altered consciousness and the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high) and serum K+ 2 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the "flu" for a week. The diagnosis is hyperosmolar hyperglycemia nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS). What relationship do these values have with her insulin deficiency? A. Decreased insulin causes hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis. B. Increased glucose utilization causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space. C. Increased glucose and fatty acid metabolism stimulates renal diuresis and electrolyte loss. D. Increased insulin use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, and electrolyte loss.

A. Decreased insulin causes hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis.

Which of the following patients is the most at risk for developing hypernatremia? A patient with: A. Dehydration B. Vomiting C. Diuretic use D. Hypoaldosteronism

A. Dehydration

A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting visual disturbances. CT reveals a pituitary tumor and lab tests reveal elevated prolactin. He is diagnosed with prolactinoma. Which of the following treatments would the nurse help implement? Administering: A. Dopaminergic agonists B. Calcium C. Radiation D. Insulin

A. Dopaminergic agonists

The nurse is assessing a patient with a diagnosis of inflammation. The nurse would expect to find which of the following signs and symptoms consistent with acute inflammation? (Select all that apply.) A. Erythema B. Pain C. Loss of function D. Exudates E. Heat F. Swelling

A. Erythema B. Pain C. Loss of function E. Heat F. Swelling

A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the: A. Erythrocytes B. Spleen pulp C. Bone marrow D. Liver tissue

A. Erythrocytes

A patient has microcytic hypochromic anemia. Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms may cause anemia in this patient? (Select all that apply.) A. Failure of mechanisms of compensatory erythropoiesis B. Increased basal metabolic rate C. Decreased erythrocyte life span D. Swelling in the tissues E. Disturbances of the iron cycle

A. Failure of mechanisms of compensatory erythropoiesis C. Decreased erythrocyte life span E. Disturbances of the iron cycle

A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers? A. Hodgkin lymphoma B. Epstein-Barr virus C. Acute leukemia D. Burkitt lymphoma

A. Hodgkin lymphoma

Match each electrolyte imbalance with its clinical manifestations A. Depression, confusion, irritability, increased reflexes, tetany B. Hypotension, fever, tachycardia C. Fatigue, weakness, kidney stones, varying degrees of heart block D. Absent bowel sounds, skeletal muscle weakness, bradycardia E. Confusion, irritability, depression, headache, seizures 1. Hypercalcemia 2. Hypomagnesemia 3. Hypokalemia 4. Hypernatremia 5. Hyponatremia

A. Hypomagnesemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia E. Hyponatremia

A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood. Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect? A. Peripheral vasoconstriction B. Movement of fluid into the cell C. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin D. Decreased cardiac output

A. Peripheral vasoconstriction

A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with SLE. Which of the following findings would be considered a symptom of this disease? A. Photosensitivity B. Gastrointestinal ulcers C. Decreased glomerular filtration rate D. Rash on trunk and extremities Reset Selection

A. Photosensitivity

A patient has been reading on the Internet that light to moderate intake of alcohol is cardioprotective. When the patient asks the nurse what this means, the nurse should respond that the heart is protected by which of the following mechanisms? (Select all that apply.) A. Prevention of clot formation B. Reduction in platelet aggregation C. Increased collateral circulation D. Vasodilation E. Increased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol F. Increasing fibrinolysis

A. Prevention of clot formation B. Reduction in platelet aggregation E. Increased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol F. Increasing fibrinolysis

Which patient should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis? A patient diagnosed with: A. Renal failure B. Cushing syndrome C. Diabetes insipidus D. Pulmonary disorders

A. Renal failure

A 54-year-old male with a long history of smoking complains of excessive tiredness, shortness of breath, and overall ill feelings. Lab results reveal decreased pH, increased CO2 , and normal bicarbonate ion. These findings help to confirm the diagnosis of: A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

A. Respiratory acidosis

A 55 year old female presents to her primary care provider and reports dizziness, confusion, and tingling in the extremities. Blood tests reveal an elevated pH, decreased PCO2, and slightly decreased HCO3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation B. Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation C. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation D. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

A. Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation

A 40-year-old female develops disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Upon obtaining the history, which finding is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Sepsis B. Blood transfusion C. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) D. Snake bite

A. Sepsis

A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely? A. T lymphocyte deficiency B. B lymphocyte deficiency C. Combined immunologic deficiency D. Complement deficiency

A. T lymphocyte deficiency

Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. I c. III b. II d. IV

ANS: A Hypersensitivity reactions have been divided into four distinct types: type I (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions, type II (tissue-specific) hypersensitivity reactions, type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions, and type IV (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions.

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia? a. High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink. b. High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell. c. High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain. d. High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell

ANS: A Hypertonic (hyperosmolar) imbalances result in an extracellular fluid concentration greater than 0.9% salt solution (e.g., water loss or solute gain); cells shrink in a hypertonic fluid (see Table 3-7). This shrinking of cells results in the symptoms described in the question. The other options do not accurately describe the cause of these symptoms as they relate to hypernatremia

What is the single most common cause of cellular injury? a. Hypoxic injury c. Infectious injury b. Chemical injury d. Genetic injury

ANS: A Hypoxia, or lack of sufficient oxygen, is the single most common cause of cellular injury (see Figure 2-8). The other options are not a commonly observed as is the correct option

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells' resting membrane potential? a. Hypopolarization b. Hyperexcitability c. Depolarization d. Repolarization

ANS: A If extracellular potassium concentration increases without a significant change in intracellular potassium, then the resting membrane potential becomes more positive (i.e., changes from -90 to -80 mV) and the cell membrane is hypopolarized (i.e., the inside of the cell becomes less negative or partially depolarized [increase excitability]).

Which arterial pH will initiate the formation of ammonium (NH4) from ammonia (NH3), referred to as academia, in the tubular lumen of the kidney? a. 7.25 c. 7.55 b. 7.35 d. 7.65

ANS: A Pathophysiologic changes in the concentration of hydrogen ion or base in the blood lead to acid-base imbalances. Acidemia is a state in which the pH of arterial blood is less than 7.35. NH3 is produced from glutamine in the epithelial cell and diffuses to the tubular lumen, where it combines with H+ to form NH4

The electrolyte imbalance called hyponatremia exhibits which clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.) a. Headache b. Seizures c. Paranoia d. Confusion e. Lethargy

ANS: A, B, D, E Behavioral and neurologic changes characteristic of hyponatremia include lethargy, headache, confusion, apprehension, seizures, and coma.

Exposure to which of the following could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.) a. Poison ivy d. Nickel b. Neomycin e. Detergents c. Dairy products

ANS: A, B, D, E Allergens that primarily elicit type IV allergic hypersensitivities include plant resins (e.g., poison ivy, poison oak); metals (e.g., nickel, chromium); acetylates and chemicals in rubber, cosmetics, detergents; and topical antibiotics (e.g., neomycin).

The electrolyte imbalance called hyponatremia exhibits which clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.) a. Headache b. Seizures c. Paranoia d. Confusion e. Lethargy

ANS: A, B, D, E Behavioral and neurologic changes characteristic of hyponatremia include lethargy, headache, confusion, apprehension, seizures, and coma. Paranoia is not associated with hyponatremia.

Which statements regarding total body water (TBW) are true? (Select all that apply.) a. During childhood, TBW slowly decreases in relationship to body weight. b. Gender has no influence on TBW until old age. c. Men tend to have greater TBW as a result of their muscle mass. d. Estrogen plays a role in female TBW. e. Older adults experience a decrease in TBW as a result of decreased muscle mass.

ANS: A, C, D, E During childhood, TBW slowly decreases to 60% to 65% of body weight.

A distended bladder or rectum

A pituitary adenoma

A 15-year-old female presents with breast discharge, dysmenorrhea, and excessive excitability. Tests reveal that all her pituitary hormones are elevated. What does the nurse suspect as the most likely cause for these assessment findings? A. Phenochromocytoma B. A pituitary adenoma C. Hypothalamic inflammation D. Hypothalamic hyposecretion

A pituitary adenoma

A patient presents with breast discharge, dysmenorrhea, and excessive excitability. Tests reveal that all pituitary hormones are elevated. What does the nurse suspect as the most likely cause for these assessment findings?

A pituitary adenoma

A 50-year-old diabetic male did not take his medication and is now in metabolic acidosis. He is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. What type of breathing will the nurse observe upon assessment?

A slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause

The onset of Guillian-Barre Syndrome is usually preceded by what?

A viral infection.

Things to consider when administering Cholinesterase Inhibitors

*administer with food to help prevent the gastrointestinal side effects *eat meals 45-60 minutes after medication to avoid aspiration

An person arrives in the ED in a coma with a possible OD. Which drugs would cause the pupils to be fixed and dilated? (Select all that apply) Atropine Scoploamine Opiates Amphetamines

-Mines

Elevated levels of glucocorticoids result in which of the following assessment findings? (Select all that apply.)

-Polycythemia -Decreased Calcium -Increased appetite

The nurse is explaining clinical manifestations of alterations in the extrapyramidal system. The nurse would correctly include (select all that apply):

-Presence of tremor -Little or no paralysis of voluntary movement -Rigidity in muscle tone -Normal or slightly increased tendon reflexes

The major pathologic or structural changes of the lungs associated with ventilatory failure accompanying Guillain-Barré syndrome include: 1. bronchospasm 2. airway obstruction 3. mucous accumulation 4. alveolar dilation 1, 4 2, 3 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4

2, 3 Airway obstruction and mucus accumulation are structural changes in the lungs of the Guillain-Barré patient with ventilatory failure. Bronchospasm is associated with asthma and alveolar dilation is associated with emphysema. REF: 381

A 35-year-old male was diagnosed with hepatitis B. Further tests revealed neutropenia characterized by a neutrophil count less than _____ per milliliter. 1.

2,000

An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for? A. Weakness, vomiting, hypotension, and mental confusion B. Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss C. Vomiting; abdominal pain; sweet, fruity breath; dehydration; and Kussmaul breathing D. Recurrent infections, visual changes, fatigue, and paresthesias

B. Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss

During acidosis, the body compensates for the increase in hydrogen ions in the blood by shifting hydrogen ions into the cell in exchange for which electrolyte? A. Oxygen B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Magnesium

B. Potassium

A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to: A. Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes B. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation C. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding D. Activate a humoral response

B. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation

A patient has a long history of smoking. He has blood studies done because he is very tired, is short of breath, and just does not feel well. His blood gases reveal the following findings: pH 7.3; HCO3 27 mEq/L; CO2 58 mmHg. What is the interpretation of these gases? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

B. Respiratory acidosis

A 22-year-old female has a low level of TSH. What condition does the nurse expect the patient is experiencing? A. Autoimmune hypothyroidism B. Secondary hypothyroidism C. Atypical hypothyroidism D. Primary hypothyroidism

B. Secondary hypothyroidism

A nurse recalls an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Serum sickness C. Contact dermatitis D. Bronchial asthma

B. Serum sickness

A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find before treatment? A. Slow heart rate, rash B. Skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate C. Constipation, confusion D. Weight gain, cold intolerance

B. Skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate

A patient has been searching on the internet about natriuretic hormones. When the patient asks the nurse what these hormones do, how should the nurse respond? Natriuretic hormones affect the A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Magnesium D. Potassium

B. Sodium

When planning care for a dehydrated patient, the nurse remembers the principle of water balance is closely related to ____ balance. A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Bicarbonate D. Chloride

B. Sodium

When planning care for a dehydrated patient, the nurse remembers the principle of water balance is closely related to _____ balance. A. Chloride B. Sodium C. Bicarbonate D. Potassium

B. Sodium

How does SIADH cause excess water? A. The decrease in antidiuretic hormone prevents the renal tubules from reabsorbing water B. The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of water in the renal tubules C. The decrease in antidiuretic hormone increases serum glucose, which binds to water D. The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of sodium that retains excessive water in the renal tubules

B. The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of water in the renal tubules

Which of the following statements indicates more teaching is needed regarding secondary lymph organs? ________is/are a secondary lymph organ. A. The spleen B. The liver C. Adenoids D. Peyer patches

B. The liver

What is the major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses? A. The ratio between intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+ B. The ratio between intracellular K+ and extracellular potassium C. The ratio between intracellular Na+ and extracellular sodium D. The ratio between intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

B. The ratio between intracellular K+ and extracellular potassium

A major contributing process in CVAs is the development of atheromatous plaques in cerebral circulation. Where do these plaques most commonly form? A. In the larger veins. B. Near capillary sphincters. C. In cerebral arteries. D. In the venous sinuses.

A patient diagnosed with a spinal cord injury experienced spinal shock lasting 15 days. The patient is now experiencing an uncompensated cardiovascular response to sympathetic stimulation. What does the nurse suspect caused this condition? A. Toxic accumulation of free radicals below the level of the injury. B. Pain stimulation above the level of the spinal cord lesion. C. A distended bladder or rectum. D. An abnormal vagal response.

A patient has memory loss of events that occurred before a head injury. What cognitive disorder does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? A. Selective memory deficit. B. Anterograde amnesia. C. Retrograde amnesia. D. Executive memory deficit.

A patient presents with acute low back pain. There is no history of trauma. An MRI reveals that the vertebra at L5 has slipped forward relative to those below it. Which of the following conditions will be documented on the chart? A. Degenerative disk disease. B. Spondylolysis. C. Spondylolisthesis. D. Spinal stenosis.

An initial assessment finding associated with acute spinal cord injury is _____ the injury. a. Pain below the level of b. Loss of autonomic reflexes above c. Loss of voluntary control below d. Hyperactive spinal reflexes below

Hepatitis _____ in children is primarily associated with blood transfusions.

Patients diagnosed with myasthenia gravis often have tumors or pathologic changes in the _____. A. Brain. B. Pancreas. C. Thymus. D. Lungs.

Six weeks ago a patient suffered a T6 spinal cord injury. What complication does the nurse suspect when the patient develops a blood pressure of 200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia? A. Extreme spinal shock. B. Acute anxiety. C. Autonomic hyperreflexia. D. Parasympathetic areflexia.

The neurologist explains that arousal is mediated by the _____. A. Cerebral cortex. B. Medulla oblongata. C. Reticular activating system. D. Cingulate gyrus.

A 15-year-old male suffers from severe hemorrhage following a motor vehicle accident. He is given a blood transfusion, but shortly afterward the red blood cells are destroyed by agglutination and lysis. Which of the following blood type-transfusion type matches would cause this? A. A-A B. AB-O C. A-AB D. B-O

C. A-AB

Which of the following conditions would cause the nurse to monitor for hyperkalemia? A. Excess aldosterone B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Acute acidosis D. Insulin usage

C. Acute acidosis

A 6-year-old female is diagnosed with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system. Which of the following will most likely try to fight the antigen? A. Self-antigens B. Helper T cells C. Antibodies D. Cytotoxic T cells

C. Antibodies

A 30-year-old female presents with hematuria, menorrhagia, and bleeding gums. She is diagnosed with immune thrombocytic purpura (ITP). A nurse realizes the most likely cause is: A. Allergy-induced platelet lysis B. T cell injury to megakaryocytes C. Antibody destruction of platelets D. An immune response to hypersplenism

C. Antibody destruction of platelets

A 30-year-old female complains of fatigue, arthritis, rash, and changes in urine color. Laboratory testing reveals anemia, lymphopenia, and kidney inflammation. Assuming a diagnosis of SLE, which of the following is also likely to be present? A. Anti-CMV antibodies B. Anti-LE antibodies C. Antinuclear antibodies D. Antiherpes antibodies

C. Antinuclear antibodies

The post-surgical patient is experiencing delayed wound healing. The dietician believes the delay is related to nutritional intake. A deficiency in which of the following substances could directly affect healing? A. Cholesterol B. Melanin C. Ascorbic acid D. Vitamin D

C. Ascorbic acid

A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment? A. Monocytosis B. Lymphocytosis C. Basophilia D. Eosinophilia

C. Basophilia

An aide asks the nurse what is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. How should the nurse respond? A. Autoimmune disease B. Pregnancy C. Cancer D. Heart failure

C. Cancer

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the A. Capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure B. Interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure C. Capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than capillary oncotic pressure D. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure

C. Capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than capillary oncotic pressure

A nurse remembers the primary actions of the complement cascade include (select all that apply): A. Increased clotting B. Vasoconstriction C. Cell killing D. Chemotaxis E. Increased vascular permeability F. Opsonization

C. Cell killing D. Chemotaxis E. Increased vascular permeability F. Opsonization

A 5-year-old female takes a hike through the woods during a school field trip. Upon returning home, she hugs her father, and he later develops poison ivy. Which of the following immune reactions is he experiencing? A. Tissue specific B. IgE-mediated C. Cell-mediated D. Immune complex

C. Cell-mediated

The directional migration of leukocytes along a chemical gradient is termed: A. Endocytosis B. Diapedesis C. Chemotaxis D. Margination

C. Chemotaxis

A 2-year-old swallowed watch batteries. Following ingestion, kidney function was impaired, and the heart began to fail. Which of the following was the most likely cause? A. Karyorrhexis B. Caseous necrosis C. Coagulative necrosis D. Ammonia accumulation

C. Coagulative necrosis

An experiment is carried out to characterize newly discovered immunoglobulins. Specificity of the amino acids within the immunoglobulin could be determined by studying the: A. C region of the H chain B. C region of the light chain C. Complementary-determining region (CDR) D. Framework regions

C. Complementary-determining region (CDR)

What mechanisms cause hypernatremia? A. Excessive diuretic therapy B. Prolonged vomiting or diarrhea C. Cushing disease and hyperaldosteronism D. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)

C. Cushing disease and hyperaldosteronism

Which of the following patients is the most at risk for developing hypernatremia? A patient with A. Vomiting B. Diuretic use C. Dehydration D. Hypoaldosteronism

C. Dehydration

A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate? A. Dilutional hyponatremia B. Metabolic acidosis C. Dehydration from polyuria D. Cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia

C. Dehydration from polyuria

Biochemical secretions that trap and kill microorganisms include: A. Hormones B. Gastric acid C. Earwax D. Neurotransmitters

C. Earwax

While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are: A. Leukocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Erythrocytes D. Thrombocytes

C. Erythrocytes

Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the perception of thirst are stimulated by a(n): a. Decrease in serum sodium b. Increase in plasma osmolality c. Increase in glomerular filtration rate d. Decrease in osmoreceptor stimulation

ANS: B Secretion of ADH and the perception of thirst are primary factors in the regulation of water balance.

Dehydration can cause which result? (Select all that apply.) a. Moist mucous membranes b. Weak pulses c. Tachycardia d. Polyuria e. Weight loss

ANS: B, C, E Significant water deficit is demonstrated by symptoms of dehydration that include headache, thirst, dry skin and mucous membranes, elevated temperature, weight loss, and decreased or concentrated urine (with the exception of diabetes insipidus). Skin turgor may be normal or decreased. Symptoms of hypovolemia include tachycardia, weak pulses, and postural hypotension

Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure? a. Capillary hydrostatic b. Interstitial hydrostatic c. Plasma oncotic d. Interstitial oncotic

ANS: C Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin is the only option that contributes to a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure.

Causes of hyperkalemia include: a. Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition b. Vomiting and diarrhea c. Renal failure and Addison disease d. Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease

ANS: C Hyperkalemia should be investigated when a history of renal disease, massive trauma, insulin deficiency, Addison disease, use of potassium salt substitutes, or metabolic acidosis exists.

During acidosis, the body compensates for the increase in serum hydrogen ions by shifting hydrogen ions into the cell in exchange for which electrolyte? a. Oxygen b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Magnesium

ANS: C In states of acidosis, hydrogen ions shift into the cells in exchange for intracellular fluid potassium; hyperkalemia and acidosis therefore often occur together.

Causes of hyperkalemia include: a. Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition b. Vomiting and diarrhea c. Renal failure and Addison disease d. Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease

ANS: C Hyperkalemia should be investigated when a history of renal disease, massive trauma, insulin deficiency, Addison disease, use of potassium salt substitutes, or metabolic acidosis exists. The other options are not known to be causes of hyperkalemia

Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an): a. Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens b. Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person c. Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease d. Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens

ANS: C Hypersensitivity is an altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to the host. The other options are not accurate definitions of hypersensitivity.

When an aide asks the nurse what is a purpose of the inflammatory process, how should the nurse respond? A. To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms B. To prevent infection of the injured tissue C. To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury D. To provide specific responses toward antigens

B. To prevent infection of the injured tissue

Insulin is used to treat hyperkalemia because it: a. Stimulates sodium to be removed from the cell in exchange for potassium. b. Binds to potassium to remove it through the kidneys. c. Transports potassium from the blood to the cell along with glucose. d. Breaks down the chemical components of potassium, causing it to be no longer effective.

The abnormal proliferation of cells in response to excessive hormonal stimulation is called: a. Dysplasia c. Hyperplasia b. Pathologic dysplasia d. Pathologic hyperplasia

ANS: D Pathologic hyperplasia is the abnormal proliferation of normal cells and can occur as a response to excessive hormonal stimulation or the effects of growth factors on target cells (see Figure 2-4). The other options do not accurately identify the term for the results of excessive hormonal stimulation on cells.

The body's inability to conserve water and sodium when affected by Addison disease is explained by which of the following conditions? A. Decreased levels of ACTH B. Aldosterone deficiency C. Elevated levels of cortisol D. Hypersecretion of ADH

Aldosterone deficiency The symptoms of Addison disease are primarily a result of hypocortisolism and hypoaldosteronism.

The body's inability to conserve water and sodium and has weakness and fatigability when affected by Addison disease is explained by which of the following conditions?

Aldosterone deficiency and Hypocortisolism

A 19-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which she sustained a closed head injury. She is now experiencing detrusor sphincter dyssynergia. Which of the following is the most beneficial medication treatment?

Alpha blocker

A 53-year-old male with a 20-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. When the nurse is asked what causes this, what is the nurse's best response? Changes in his lungs are caused by:

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

Which description is consistent with a focal to bilateral tonic-clonic seizure?

Alternative tonic and clonic movements

When the pulmonologist discusses the condition in which a series of alveoli in the left lower lobe receive adequate ventilation but do not have adequate perfusion, which statement indicates the nurse understands this condition? When this occurs in a patient it is called:

Alveolar dead space

Which of the following shows a correct cause and effect sequence in the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Alveolocapillary membrane injury causing a massive inflammatory response

What is a form of dementia caused by tangles?

Alzheimer disease

Which neurologic disorder is characterized by cortical nerve cell processes that have become twisted and dilated?

Alzheimer disease

Name the degenerative disorder diffusely involving lower and upper motor neurons, resulting in progressive muscle weakness.

Amyotropic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

Researchers now believe that RA is:

An autoimmune disease

A nurse is preparing to teach a patient about Addison disease. What information should the nurse include? The most common cause of Addison disease is:

An autoimmune reaction

What is the most common cause of Addison disease?

An autoimmune reaction

Aneurysm

When a patient's renal system secretes rennin, what effect will that cause in the body? It causes the direct activation of:

Angiotensin I

Which term describes the inability to experience emotions, especially pleasure? Alogia Avolition Anhedonia Aphasia

Anhedonia

A 54-year-old female was recently diagnosed with degenerative joint disease. This condition is characterized by loss of:

Articular cartilage

List some motor manifestations of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Ascending muscle weakness leading to flaccid paralysis without muscle atrophy (wasting), absent or decreased deep tendon reflexes, respiratory compromise, respiratory failure, ataxia and loss of bowel and bladder control.

What pattern does Guillain-Barre Syndrome follow?

Ascending weakness.

What are the characterizing factors of Guillen Barre Syndrome?

Ascending, symmetric paralysis of cranial nerves and peripheral nervous systems.

Key nursing interventions for Guillen Barre Syndrome?

Assess respiratory and neurologic status, Maintain the position and patency of NG and ET tubes. Monitor: Vital signs, I/O, vital capacity, neurovital signs, and pulse oximetry. Assess muscle strength. Assess gag and swallow reflexes. Assess for Homans' sign. Apply anti embolism stockings. Reposition patient every 2 hours.

A 16-year-old's level of arousal was altered after taking a recreational drug. Physical exam revealed a negative Babinski sign, equal and reactive pupils, and roving eye movements. Which of the following diagnoses will the nurse most likely see on the chart? A. Psychogenic arousal alteration. B. Metabolically-induced coma. C. Structurally induced coma. D. Structural arousal alteration.

A 20-year-old experiences a severe closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following structures is most likely keeping the patient in a vegetative state (VS) one month after the accident? A. Cerebral cortex. B. Brainstem. C. Spinal cord. D. Cerebellum.

A 40-year-old male complains of uncontrolled excessive movement and progressive dysfunction of intellectual and thought processes. He is experiencing movement problems that begin in the face and arms that eventually affect the entire body. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Tardive dyskinesia b. Huntington disease c. Hypokinesia d. Alzheimer disease

A 48-year-old patient presents at the ER reporting an acute severe headache, nausea, photophobia, and nuchal rigidity. Which medical diagnosis is supported by these signs and symptoms? A. Diffuse brain injury. B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage. C. Epidural hematoma. D. Classic concussion.

A 51-year-old male is admitted to the neurological critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. All four extremities are in rigid extension, his forearm is hyperpronated, and his legs are in plantar extension. How should the nurse chart this condition? a. Decorticate posturing b. Decerebrate posturing c. Caloric posturing d. Excitation posturing b

A 65-year-old patient who recently suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is now unable to recognize and identify objects by touch because of injury to the sensory cortex. How should the nurse document this finding? A. Hypomimesis. B. Agnosia. C. Dysphasia. D. Echolalia.

A 69-year-old patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the emergency room (ER) after a month-long episode of headaches and confusion. The patient's history and symptomatology support which medical diagnosis? A. Concussion. B. Chronic subdural hematoma. C. Epidural hematoma. D. Subacute subdural hematoma.

A 75-year-old patient experienced a lacunar stroke. When looking through the history of the patient's chart, which of the following would the nurse expect to find? A. An embolus. B. An ischemic lesion. C. A hemorrhage. D. An aneurysm.

A CT scan reveals that a patient has an open basilar skull fracture. Which major complication should the nurse observe for in this patient? A. Hematoma formation. B. Meningeal infection. C. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP). D. Cognitive deficits.

A patient is admitted with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which classic assessment findings will support the diagnosis of ALS? a. Progressive dementia b. Muscle weakness and atrophy c. Severe paresthesias d. Autonomic dysfunctions

A patient is brought to the ER for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. An MRI reveals spinal cord injury and his body temperature fluctuates markedly. The most accurate explanation of this phenomenon is that _____. A. He developed pneumonia. B. His sympathetic nervous system has been damaged. C. He has a brain injury. D. He has septicemia from an unknown source.

A patient is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). What physiological change is causing the patient's symptoms? A. Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system (CNS). B. Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS. C. The development of neurofibril webs in the CNS. D. Reduced amounts of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

A patient presents to a primary care provider reporting fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, and decreased consciousness. History includes a previously treated sinusitis. Which medical condition is best supported by this assessment data? A. Aspectic meningitis. B. Bacterial meningitis. C. Fungal meningitis. D. Nonpurulent meningitis.

A patient reports tiring easily, having difficulty rising from a sitting position, and the inability to stand on toes. The nurse would expect a diagnosis of _____. A. Parkinson disease. B. Hypotonia. C. Huntington disease. D. Paresis.

After falling, a patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 5 initially and 7 after 1 day. The patient remained unconscious for 2 weeks but is now awake, confused, and experiencing retrograde amnesia. This history supports which medical diagnosis? A. Mild diffuse brain injury. B. Moderate diffuse brain injury. C. Severe diffuse brain injury. D. Postconcussive syndrome.

An infant is diagnosed with noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is an immediate priority concern for this patient? A. Metabolic edema. B. Interstitial edema. C. Vasogenic edema. D. Ischemic edema.

Spinal shock is characterized by _____. A. Loss of voluntary motor function with preservation of reflexes. B. Cessation of spinal cord function below the lesion. C. Loss of spinal cord function at the level of the lesion only. D. Temporary loss of spinal cord function above the lesion.

The patient reports generalized muscle weakness. The health care provder orders administration of the medication edrophonium chloride (Tensilon). This medication is used in the diagnosis of _____. A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). B. Myasthenia gravis. C. Multiple sclerosis (MS). D. Autonomic hyperreflexia.

The primary care provider states that the patient is experiencing vasogenic edema. The nurse realizes vasogenic edema is clinically important because _____. A. It usually has an infectious cause. B. The blood-brain barrier is disrupted. C. ICP is excessively high. D. It always causes herniation.

What term is used to describe an explosive, disorderly discharge of cortical neurons? A. Reflex. B. Seizure. C. Inattentiveness. D. Brain death.

When a patient asks how bad the injuries will be from a spinal injury, what is the nurse's best response? It is difficult to know the full extent of the injury because of: a. Incomplete transection of the spinal cord b. Swelling within the spinal cord c. Necrosis of the spinal cord d. Free radical injury and scarring of the glial cells

When thought content and arousal level are intact, but a patient cannot communicate and is immobile, the patient is experiencing _____. A. Cerebral death. B. Locked-in syndrome. C. Dysphagia. D. Cerebellar motor syndrome.

Which type of axon transmits a nerve impulse at the highest rate? a. Large nonmyelinated b .Large myelinated c. Small nonmyelinated d. Small myelinated

Which information is basic to the assessment findings associated with a patient diagnosed with an aneurysm? A. A headache is the most common symptom. B. The majority are asymptomatic. C. Nosebleeds are an early symptom. D. Epidural hemorrhage occurs in over 80% of patients.

A 67-year-old female is admitted to the emergency department with a diagnosis of polycythemia vera. Upon taking the history, the patient will most likely report: A. A pale skin color B. Chest pain C. Hyperactivity D. Decreased blood pressure

B. Chest pain

A 30-year-old female presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. This wound would be documented as a(n) _____ wound. A. Indeterminate range entrance B. Contact range entrance C. Intermediate range entrance D. Exit

B. Contact range entrance

Which information indicates a good understanding of bacterial vaccines? Most bacterial vaccines contain: A. Synthetic bacteria B. Dead bacteria C. Active bacteria D. Bacterial toxins

B. Dead bacteria

A 25-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting vaginal discharge of a white, viscous, and foul-smelling substance. She reports that she has been taking antibiotics for the past 6 months. Which finding will the nurse most likely see on the microorganism report? A. Clostridium difficile overgrowth B. Decreased Lactobacillus C. Decreased Candida albicans D. Streptococcus overgrowth

B. Decreased Lactobacillus

A 25 year old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal cortex. Which finding would the nurse expect to see in the lab results? A. Decreased blood volume B. Decreased blood K+ levels C. Increased urine Na+ levels D. Increased white blood cells

B. Decreased blood K+ levels

While planning care for elderly individuals, the nurse remembers the elderly are at a higher risk for developing dehydration because they have A. A higher total water volume B. Decreased muscle mass C. Increased thirst D. An increased tendency toward developing edema

B. Decreased muscle mass

While planning care for an elderly patient, the nurse remembers that increased age is associated with (select all that apply): A. Increased production of antibodies B. Decreased numbers of circulating immune complexes C. Decreased immune function D. Increased T cell function E. Decreased ability to fight infection

B. Decreased numbers of circulating immune complexes C. Decreased immune function E. Decreased ability to fight infection

A 65-year-old male is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. He reports severe pain. This pain can be attributed to: A. Tissue hypoxia B. Destruction of bone tissue C. Neuropathic infiltrations D. Accumulation of toxic proteins

B. Destruction of bone tissue

A child fell off the swing and scraped the right knee. The injured area becomes painful. What else will the nurse observe upon assessment? A. Pale skin at injured site B. Edema at injured site C. Vasoconstriction at injured site D. Decreased RBC concentration at injured site

B. Edema at injured site

Which patient is most prone to metabolic alkalosis? A patient with: A. Hypoaldosteronism B. Excessive loss of chloride (Cl) C. Retention of metabolic acids D. Hyperventilation

B. Excessive loss of chloride (Cl)

Which portion of the antibody is responsible for the biologic functions of antibodies? A. Variable region B. Fc portion C. Heavy chain D. Epitope

B. Fc portion

Outcomes of laboratory tests include an elevated level of natriuretic peptides. Which organ is the priority assessment? a. Lungs b. Heart c. Liver d. Brain

B. Heart Rationale: Elevated natriuretic peptides indicate problems with the heart or the vasculature.

A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective? A. Entrance inhibitors B. Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) C. Protease inhibitors D. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

B. Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)

After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes? A. Altered coagulation B. Hyperdynamic circulatory state C. Decreased cardiac output D. Increased viscosity of blood

B. Hyperdynamic circulatory state

When a staff member asks the nurse what causes the chronic complications of DM such as microvascular and macrovascular disease, how should the nurse respond? These complications are primarily related to: A. Hyperinsulinemia B. Hyperglycemia C. Ketone toxicity D. Pancreatic changes

B. Hyperglycemia

For a patient experiencing metabolic acidosis, the body will compensate by: A. Excreting H+ through the kidneys B. Hyperventilating C. Retaining CO2 in the lungs D. Secreting aldosterone

B. Hyperventilating

A 45-year-old female with Graves disease underwent surgical removal of her thyroid gland. During the postoperative period, her serum calcium was low. The most probable reason for her low serum calcium is: A. Myxedema secondary to surgery B. Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury to the parathyroid glands C. Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves disease D. Hypothyroidism resulting from lack of thyroid replacement

B. Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury to the parathyroid glands

A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He experiences a severe allergic reaction and has to go to the ER. The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of: A. IgA B. IgE C. Toxoids D. IgM

B. IgE

Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the perception of thirst are stimulated by a(n) A. Decrease in serum sodium B. Increase in plasma osmolality C. Increase in glomerular filtration rate D. Decrease in osmoreceptor stimulation

B. Increase in plasma osmolality

Which of the following patients is most prone to hypochloremia? A patient with: A. Hypokalemia B. Increased bicarbonate intake C. Hypernatremia D. Hypercalcemia

B. Increased bicarbonate intake

A 68-year-old female is admitted to the emergency department with a diagnosis of polycythemia vera (PV). A nurse realizes the patient's symptoms are mainly the result of: A. A decreased erythrocyte count B. Increased blood viscosity C. Rapid blood flow to the major organs D. Vessel injury

B. Increased blood viscosity

A nurse is teaching the staff about antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which information should the nurse include? Secretion of ADH is stimulated by A. Increased serum potassium B. Increased plasma osmolality C. Decreased renal blood flow D. Generalized edema

B. Increased plasma osmolality

A 5 year old male presents to the ER with delirium and sunken eyes. After diagnosing him with severe dehydration, the primary care provider orders fluid replacement. The nurse administers a hypertonic IV solution. Which of the following would be expected? A. Decreased ECF volume B. Intracellular dehydration C. Increased ICF volume D. Symptoms subside quickly

B. Intracellular dehydration

Two-thirds of the body's water is found in its A. Interstitial fluid spaces B. Intracellular fluid compartments C. Vascular system D. Intraocular fluids

B. Intracellular fluid compartments

What is the significance of deep, rapid breathing (Kussmaul respirations) in metabolic acidosis? A. It indicates that more oxygen is necessary to compensate for respiratory acidosis B. It indicates the excessive carbon dioxide is exhaled to compensate for metabolic acidosis C. It indicates that diabetic ketoacidosis is the cause of metabolic acidosis D. It indicates that anxiety, with rapid breathing, is a cause of respiratory acidosis

B. It indicates the excessive carbon dioxide is exhaled to compensate for metabolic acidosis

The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma? A. Great Britain B. Japan C. United States D. Denmark

B. Japan

After ingestion of lead, what organ systems should the nurse monitor because they are the most sensitive to the effects of lead? (Select all that apply.) A. Heart B. Kidneys C. Brain D. Hematopoietic E. Lungs F. Liver

B. Kidneys C. Brain D. Hematopoietic

A 25-year-old male is in a car accident and sustains a fracture to his left femur with extensive soft tissue injury. The pain associated with the injury is related to: A. Histamine and serotonin B. Kinins and prostaglandins C. Vasoconstriction D. Immune complex formation

B. Kinins and prostaglandins

A 30-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a hospital unit for the surgical removal of her thyroid gland. During the postoperative period, the nurse notes that the patient's serum calcium is low. The nurse should observe the patient for which of the following signs/symptoms? A. Abdominal pain and fever B. Laryngeal spasms and hyperreflexia C. Muscle weakness and constipation D. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting

B. Laryngeal spasms and hyperreflexia

Which of the following patients should the nurse assess for decreased oncotic pressure in the capillaries? A patient with A. High protein diet B. Liver failure C. Low blood pressure D. Low blood glucose

B. Liver failure

A 10-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) because he is incoherent and semiconscious. CT scan reveals that he is suffering from cerebral edema. This type of edema is referred to as: A. Generalized edema B. Localized edema C. Pitting edema D. Lymphedema

B. Localized edema

Which statement indicates teaching was successful regarding collectins? Collectins are produced by the: A. Bowel B. Lungs C. Integument D. Kidneys

B. Lungs

When phagocytes begin to stick avidly to capillary walls, which process is occurring? A. Integration B. Margination C. Exudation D. Emigration

B. Margination

A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process? A. Apoptosis B. Necrosis C. Adaptation D. Pathologic calcification

B. Necrosis

A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with thyroid carcinoma. The lab tests the nurse would most likely find are _____ T3 and T4 levels. A. High B. Normal C. Low D. Variable

B. Normal

A 49-year-old female is diagnosed with hypercortisolism. Which of the following would the nurse expect? A. Weight loss B. Osteoporosis C. Decreased urination D. Hypoglycemia

B. Osteoporosis

A 20-year-old female has an increase in eosinophils. When the patient wants to know the most likely cause of the eosinophilia. What is the nurse's best response? A. Fungal infections and delayed hypersensitivity B. Parasitic invasion and allergic reactions C. Stress and anxiety reactions D. Viral and bacterial infections

B. Parasitic invasion and allergic reactions

The calcium and phosphate balance is influenced by which three substances? A. Parathyroid hormone, vasopressin, and vitamin D B. Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D C. Thyroid hormone, vasopressin, and vitamin A D. Thyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin A

B. Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D

A 58-year-old female presents in the clinic presenting with fatigue, weight loss, and tingling in her fingers. Laboratory findings show low hemoglobin and hematocrit, a high mean corpuscular volume, and normal plasma iron. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia? A. Aplastic anemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Iron deficiency anemia

B. Pernicious anemia

Low plasm albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure? A. Capillary hydrostatic B. Plasma oncotic C. Interstitial hydrostatic D. Interstitial oncotic

B. Plasm oncotic

After a patient is exposed to a specific antigen, B cells will differentiate into: A. B cytotoxic cells B. Plasma cells C. Bursal cells D. Clonal equivalents

B. Plasma cells

A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause. A. Gastric enzymes B. Erythropoietin C. Intrinsic factor D. Ferritin

C. Intrinsic factor

For a patient with respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by the body will include: A. Protein buffering B. Kidney excretion of HCO3 C. Kidney excretion of H+ D. Prolonged exhalations to blow off CO2

C. Kidney excretion of H+

A nurse is preparing to teach about erythropoietin. Which information should the nurse include? Erythropoietin is produced in the: A. Liver B. Bone marrow C. Kidneys D. Spleen

C. Kidneys

Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infant's A. High body surface-to-body size B. Slow metabolic rate C. Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses D. Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty

C. Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses

A nurse recalls that regulating of acid-base balance through removal or retention of volatile acids is accomplished by the A. Buffer systems B. Skin C. Lungs D. Liver

C. Lungs

A 15-year-old female presents to the ER following a physical assault. She has internal damage to the neck with deep bruising. X-ray reveals fractures of the hyoid bone and tracheal and cricoid cartilage. Which of the following most likely caused her injuries? A. Ligature strangulation B. Chemical asphyxiation C. Manual strangulation D. Choking asphyxiation

C. Manual strangulation

An unstable type of hemoglobin that cannot bind with oxygen is termed: A. Deoxyhemoglobin B. Oxyhemoglobin C. Methemoglobin D. Glycosylated hemoglobin

C. Methemoglobin

A 60 year old female is diagnosed with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to observe? A. Weak pulse B. Excessive thirst C. Oliguria D. Constipation

C. Oliguria

What problem should the nurse assess for in a patient with chronic hyperparathyroidism? A. Hyponatremia B. Vitamin D malabsorption C. Osteoporosis and pathologic fractures D. Seizure disorders

C. Osteoporosis and pathologic fractures

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart? A. Sideroblastic anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Pernicious anemia D. Iron deficiency anemia

C. Pernicious anemia

A nurse is discussing fibrinolysis. Which information should the nurse share? Fibrinolysis is mediated by: A. Heparin B. Fibrinogen C. Plasmin D. Albumin

C. Plasmin

A 42 year old female presents to her primary care provider reporting muscle weakness and cardiac abnormalities. Lab tests indicate that she is hypokalemic. Which of the following could be the cause of her condition? A. Constipation B. Hypoglycemia C. Primary hyperaldosteronism D. Respiratory acidosis

C. Primary hyperaldosteronism

The most common cause of hypermagnesmia is A. Hepatitis B. Trauma to the hypothalamus C. Renal failure D. Pancreatitis

C. Renal failure

Causes of hyperkalemia include A. Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition B. Vomiting and diarrhea C. Renal failure and Addison disease D. Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease

C. Renal failure and Addison disease

Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced? A. Angiotensin I B. Angiotensin II C. Renin D. Aldosterone

C. Renin

A 54 year old male with a long history of smoking complains of excessive tiredness, shortness of breath, and overall ill feelings. Lab results reveal decreased pH, increased CO2, and normal bicarbonate ion. These findings help to confirm the diagnosis of A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Respiratory acidosis

Vomiting-induced metabolic alkalosis, resulting in the loss of chloride, causes: A. Retained sodium to bind with the chloride B. Hydrogen to move into the cell and exchange with potassium to maintain cation balance C. Retention of bicarbonate to maintain the anion balance D. Hypoventilation to compensate for the metabolic alkalosis

C. Retention of bicarbonate to maintain the anion balance

In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for: A. Immunoglobulins B. HLA type C. Rh antigen D. Platelet compatibility

C. Rh antigen

It is true that when insulin is administered A. The Na+, K+-ATPase pump is turned off B. Potassium is moved out of muscle cells C. The liver increases its potassium levels D. Glucose transport is impaired

C. The liver increases its potassium levels

Insulin is used to treat hyperkalemia because it A. Stimulates sodium to be removed from the cell in exchange for potassium B. Binds to potassium to remove it through the kidneys C. Transports potassium from the blood to the cell along with glucose D. Breaks down the chemical components of potassium, causing it to be no longer effective

C. Transports potassium from the blood to the cell along with glucose

Regarding cancer of the intestinal tract, which statement is true? Colorectal CA is the most frequent cause of CA death CA of the intestinal tract is most common among Caucasians It tends to occur in young individuals CA of the small intestine is rare

CA of the small intestine is rare

Which statement is true regarding the epidemiologic effect of an acute CVA? Incidence of CVA 2x higher among white vs. black pts CVAs are the 3rd leading cause of death in the US 50% of CVAs are recurrent 2 million pts are victims of CVAs a year

CVAs are the 3rd leading cause of death in the US

A patient with end-stage renal disease has pruritus. When the patient asks what causes this, what is the nurse's best response? Pruritus, seen in patients with end-stage renal disease, is caused by high levels of:

Calcium

A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following symptoms most likely occurred before treatment?

Chest pain and shortness of breath

A 30-year-old female received a severe head injury in a motor vehicle accident. She is now experiencing respiratory abnormalities characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing with periods of apnea. What term should the nurse use when charting this condition?

Cheyne-Stokes

Regarding cholelithiasis, which statement is true? Cholelithiasis is more prevalent in underdeveloped contries Its incidence is well known and documented Cholesterol stones are the most common Risk factors include male gender

Cholesterol stones are the most common

Regarding salivation, which statement is true? The CNS controls salivation Cholinergic fibers stimulate the salivary glands Atropine increases salivary secretion Beta-adrenergic stimulation decrease salivary secretion

Cholinergic fibers stimulate the salivary glands

Pyridostigmine (Mestinon)

Cholinesterase inhibitor drug taken orally for myasthenia gravis

Chronic Subdural Hematoma

A 25-year-old male presents with chronic bronchitis of 5 months' duration. When obtaining the patient's history, which of the following findings is most likely to cause this condition?

Cigarette smoke

A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed with lung cancer. He was previously exposed to air pollution, asbestos, and radiation at his job. Which of the following should the nurse realize had the greatest impact on the development of his cancer?

Cigarette smoke

Which statement is FALSE concerning the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity?

Circulating nitric oxide causes vasoconstriction, which forces fluid from the capillaries into the peritoneal cavity

Which statement is false concerning the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity?

Circulating nitric oxide causes vasoconstriction, which forces fluid from the capillaries into the peritoneal cavity.

What type of headache are more common in men and occur in episodes several times during a day for a period of days at different times of the year and pain is unilateral, intense, tearing, and burning

Cluster headaches

A healthcare professional is educating a community men's group on symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The professional relates that the most symptoms are a result of which pathophysiologic condition?

Compression of the urethra

A 44-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for SIADH. Which of the following assessment findings would be expected in this patient?

Concentrated urine

A 44-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for SIADH. Which of the following assessment findings would be expected in this patient? Peripheral edema Low blood pressure Concentrated urine Tachycardia

Concentrated urine

A 44-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is evaluated for SIADH. Which assessment finding would support this diagnosis?

Concentrated urine

A 44-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for SIADH. Which of the following assessment findings would be expected in this patient? A. Peripheral edema B. Concentrated urine C. Tachycardia D. Low blood pressure

Concentrated urine Clinical manifestations of SIADH include urine that is inappropriately concentrated with respect to serum osmolarity.

Which statement is true regarding the epidemiologic effects of schizophrenia? If one twin has schizophrenia the other twin has a 70% chance of getting it 10% of the general population will have schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a simple genetic transmission Concordance between siblings is 12%

Concordance between siblings is 12%

A nurse is preparing to teach staff about the most common type of traumatic brain injury. Which type of traumatic brain injury should the nurse discuss

Concussion

Which term is used to identify hypertrophied, flat, moist, and wartlike lesions? Chancre Buboe Condyloma lata Condyloma acuminatum

Condyloma lata

A 60-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting lung tumor. Further testing indicates that the tumor secretes ADH. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Confusion, weakness, nausea, and muscle twitching

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking an antiepileptic drug for several weeks. The nurse asks the patient if the therapy is effective. The patient reports little change in seizure frequency. What will the nurse do?

Contact the physician to request an order for serum drug levels.

A nurse is preparing to teach staff about the most common type of traumatic brain injury. Which type of traumatic brain injury should the nurse discuss? A. Penetrating trauma. B. Diffuse axonal injury. C. Focal brain injury. D. Concussion.

A nurse thinks a patient may be experiencing dementia. Which assessment finding will most help support this diagnosis? a. Violent behavior b. Hyperactivity c. Depression d. Loss of recent and remote memory

A patient experiences a severe head injury hitting a tree while riding a motorcycle. Breathing becomes deep and rapid, but with normal pattern. What term should the nurse use for this condition? A. Gasping. B. Ataxic breathing. C. Apneusis. D. Central neurogenic hyperventilation.

An older adult is admitted to the ER following a fall. The patient complains of pain in the back. The patient has a history of osteoporosis. The nurse would expect the patient's injury and subsequent pain is most likely due to: a. A fractured hip b. Spinal stenosis c. Herniation of a thoracic disk d. A spinal compression fracture

As a portion of the assessment of the patient with meningitis, the health care provider flexes the patient's neck to the chest. The patient responds with flexion of the legs and thighs. The name for this response is: a. Decorticate posturing b. Decerebrate posturing c. Kernig's sign d. Brudzinski's sign

Patient teaching is considered successful regarding myasthenia gravis when the patient identifies its cause as being _____. A. Viral infection of skeletal muscle. B. Atrophy of motor neurons in the spinal cord. C. Demyelination of skeletal motor neurons. D. Autoimmune injury at the neuromuscular junction.

The progress notes read: the cerebellar tonsil has shifted through the foramen magnum due to increased pressure within the posterior fossa. The nurse would identify this note as a description of _____ herniation. A. Supratentorial. B. Central. C. Cingulated gyrus. D. Infratentorial.

When a patient has a peculiar sensation that immediately precedes a seizure, what term should the nurse use to describe this sensation? a. Prodroma b. Agnosia c. Spasm d. Aura

Which of the following would increase a patient's risk for thrombotic stroke? A. Hyperthyroidism. B. Hypertension. C. Anemia. D. Dehydration.

Who is most at risk of spinal cord injury because of preexisting degenerative disorders? A. Infants. B. Men. C. Women. D. The elderly.

A 67-year-old male was diagnosed with polycythemia vera (PV) but refused treatment. His condition is at risk for converting to: A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia B. Multiple myeloma C. Burkitt lymphoma D. Acute myeloid leukemia

D. Acute myeloid leukemia

A 5-year-old male is diagnosed with a bacterial infection. Cultures of the bacteria revealed lipopolysaccharides on the bacterial cell surface. Which of the complement pathways would be activated in this case? A. Classical pathway B. Kinin pathway C. Lectin pathway D. Alternative pathway

D. Alternative pathway

A patient has researched white blood cells on the Internet. Which statement indicates the patient has a good understanding? _______________ contain preformed granules of vasoactive amines. A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Monocytes D. Basophils

D. Basophils

An immunology nurse is caring for a patient. While planning care, which principle will the nurse remember? The primary role of IgA1 is to prevent infections in the: A. Lungs B. Mucous membranes C. Kidneys D. Blood

D. Blood

The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores? A. Serum ferritin B. Total iron-binding capacity C. Transferrin saturation D. Bone marrow biopsy

D. Bone marrow biopsy

Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure? A. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure B. Capillary hydrostatic pressure C. Interstitial oncotic pressure D. Capillary oncotic pressure

D. Capillary oncotic pressure

A family presents to their primary care provider reporting headache, nausea, weakness, and vomiting. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation for these symptoms? A. Lead exposure B. Mercury poisoning C. Ethanol exposure D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Thrombocytopenia may be: A. Transient or consistent B. Normal or abnormal C. Active or inactive D. Congenital or acquired

D. Congenital or acquired

An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be isolated? A. Helper T cells B. Lymphokine-producing cells C. Macrophages D. Cytotoxic T cells

D. Cytotoxic T cells

While planning care for elderly individuals, the nurse remembers the elderly are at a higher risk for developing dehydration because they have a(n): A. Increased tendency towards developing edema B. Higher total body water volume C. Increase in thirst D. Decreased muscle mass

D. Decreased muscle mass

A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make? A. Collagen B. Fibrinogen C. Thrombin D. Fibrin

D. Fibrin

A 50-year-old female experiences decreased blood pressure, decreased oxygen delivery, cardiovascular shock, and subsequent death. A complication of endotoxic shock is suspected. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. Virus B. Fungi C. Gram-positive bacteria D. Gram-negative bacteria

D. Gram-negative bacteria

A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has? A. Sideroblastic anemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Pernicious anemia D. Hemolytic anemia

D. Hemolytic anemia

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces? A. Oncotic pressure B. Net filtration C. Buffering D. Hydrostatic pressure

D. Hydrostatic pressure

When a patient asks what causes hyperglycemia in type 2 DM, how should the nurse respond? Hyperglycemia is a result of: A. Liver dysfunction B. Glucagon deficiency C. Insulin deficiency D. Hyperinsulinemia

D. Hyperinsulinemia

A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and overall abnormal feelings. Hyperaldosteronism is diagnosed. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect? A. Hypovolemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypotension D. Hypokalemia

D. Hypokalemia

A 30-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting fatigue, excessive sweating, and increased appetite. Physical examination reveals protruding eyes, and laboratory testing reveals hyperthyroidism secondary to autoantibody production. This disorder falls into the category of type _____ hypersensitivity. A. IV B. I C. III D. II

D. II

A 70-year-old male with chronic renal failure presents with edema. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Increased capillary oncotic pressure B. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure C. Decreased interstitial oncotic pressure D. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

D. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

An experiment was designed to test the effects of the Starling forces on fluid movement. Which of the following alterations would result in fluid moving into the interstitial space? A. Increased capillary oncotic pressure B. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure C. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure D. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure

D. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure

A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high), urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high), and arterial pH 7.20 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the "flu" for a week. Which of the following statements best explains her acidotic state? A. Low serum insulin promotes lipid storage and a corresponding release of ketones. B. Her uncontrolled diabetes has led to renal failure. C. Increased insulin levels promote protein breakdown and ketone formation. D. Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation.

D. Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation.

A nurse is reviewing lab reports. The nurse recalls blood plasma is located in which of the following fluid compartments? A. Intracellular fluid (ICF) B. Extracellular fluid (ECF) C. Interstitial fluid D. Intravascular fluid

D. Intravascular fluid

When the immunologist says that pathogens possess infectivity, what is the immunologist explaining? Infectivity allows pathogens to: A. Spread from one individual to others and cause disease B. Induce an immune response C. Damage tissue D. Invade and multiply in the host

D. Invade and multiply in the host

Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain because: A. Of protein denaturation B. Ischemia results in chemical injury C. Debris is not digested by hydrolases D. It is rich in hydrolytic enzymes and lipids

D. It is rich in hydrolytic enzymes and lipids

A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins? A. E B. B12 C. D D. K

D. K

A 42 year old female presents to her primary care provider reporting muscle weakness and cardiac abnormalities. Laboratory tests indicate that she is hypokalemic. Which of the following could be the cause of her condition? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Constipation C. Hypoglycemia D. Laxative abuse

D. Laxative abuse

The pathophysiologic process of edema is related to which mechanism? A. Sodium depletion B. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure C. Increased plasma oncotic pressure D. Lymphatic obstruction

D. Lymphatic obstruction

While planning care for a patient with inflammation, which principle will the nurse remember? The predominant phagocyte of early inflammation is the: A. Eosinophil B. Lymphocyte C. Macrophage D. Neutrophil

D. Neutrophil

Visual disturbances are a common occurrence in patients with untreated Graves disease. The endocrinologist explains to the patient that the main cause of these complications is: A. Local lactic acidosis B. Decreased blood flow to the eye C. TSH neurotoxicity to retinal cells D. Orbital edema and protrusion of the eyeball

D. Orbital edema and protrusion of the eyeball

Thirst activates osmoreceptors by an increase in which blood plasma A. Antidiuretic hormone B. Hydrostatic pressure C. Aldosterone D. Osmotic pressure

D. Osmotic pressure

When a patient wants to know what most commonly causes hypoparathyroidism, how should the nurse reply? It is most commonly caused by: A. Hypothalamic inactivity B. Pituitary hyposecretion C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Parathyroid gland injury

D. Parathyroid gland injury

A 50-year-old male intravenous drug user is diagnosed with hepatitis C. Examination of the liver reveals cell death secondary to: A. Pyknosis B. Physiologic apoptosis C. Fat necrosis D. Pathologic apoptosis

D. Pathologic apoptosis

A 24-year-old female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances. These cellular changes would be referred to as: A. Hyperplasia B. Dysplasia C. Pathologic dysplasia D. Pathologic hyperplasia

D. Pathologic hyperplasia

Which patient should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis? A patient diagnosed with A. Diabetes insipidus B. Pulmonary disorders C. Cushing syndrome D. Renal failure

D. Renal failure

When a nurse observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6 to 14 hours after death, the nurse should document this finding as _____ present. A. Algor mortis B. Gangrene C. Livor mortis D. Rigor mortis

D. Rigor mortis

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of A. Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin B. Inflammation resulting from an immune response C. Blockage within the lymphatic channel system D. Sodium and water retention

D. Sodium and water retention

While planning care for a newborn, the pediatric nurse recalls the main site of hematopoiesis in the fetus is the: A. Bone marrow B. Liver C. Lymph nodes D. Spleen

D. Spleen

A 50-year-old male sustained a closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident. CT scan revealed a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain. Which type of injury will the nurse be caring for? A. Epidural hematoma B. Contusion C. Abrasion D. Subdural hematoma

D. Subdural hematoma

Decreased insulin causes fatty acid use, ketone formation, metabolic acidosis, and solute diuresis

A 14 year old boy, who was previously diagnosed with Type I diabetes, is admitted with the following lab values: arterial pH 7.2; serum glucose 350 mg/dL; urine glucose and ketones 4+/strong. His parents state that he has been sick with the "flu" for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency? Increased glucose utilization causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to intracellular space Increased insulin use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis Decreased insulin causes fatty acid use, ketone formation, metabolic acidosis, and solute diuresis

Decreased insulin causes fatty acid use, ketone formation, metabolic acidosis, and solute diuresis

Decreased insulin causes hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis.

A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with altered consciousness and the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high) and serum K+ 2 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the "flu" for a week. The diagnosis is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What relationship do these values have with her insulin deficiency? Increased glucose and fatty acid metabolism stimulates renal diuresis and electrolyte loss. Increased insulin use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, and electrolyte loss. Increased glucose utilization causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space. Decreased insulin causes hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis.

Decreased insulin causes hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis.

Decreased sodium

A 45-year-old female has elevated thyroxine production. What would accompany this condition?

Decreased thyroid-stimulation hormone

An adult has hydrocephalus. When the patient asks the nurse what caused this, how should the nurse respond? Hydrocephalus in adults is most often caused by:

Defective CSF reabsorption

Dehydration from polyuria

A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate? A. Cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia B. Dilutional hyponatremia C. Metabolic acidosis D. Dehydration from polyuria

Dehydration from polyuria

A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate?

Dehydration from polyuria

An individual having difficulty concentrating is restless and irritable and briefly confused. These changes have developed over 2-3 days. Which of the following describes this condition? Alzheimer disease Dementia Delirium Coma

Delirium

What will EPS studies show when diagnosing Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

Demonstrate demyelinating neuropathy and slowed nerve conduction velocity.

A 7-year old child has cryptorchidism. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?

Describe the correct administration of GnRH.

Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal disorder characterized by:

Diffuse pain, fatigue, and tender points

A 25-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Palpation of her neck would most likely reveal:

Diffuse thyroid enlargement

A 25-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Palpation of her neck would most likely reveal: A. A small discrete thyroid nodule B. A normal-sized thyroid C. Multiple discrete thyroid nodules D. Diffuse thyroid enlargement

Diffuse thyroid enlargement

A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by: Diffusion Osmosis Active transport Endocytosis

Diffusion

A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding? Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by:

Diffusion

A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding? Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by: Endocytosis Osmosis Active transport Diffusion

Diffusion

What is the paralysis of either upper or lower extremities as a result of cerebral hemisphere injuries?

Diplegia

When insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells occurs. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.

Direct

When insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells occurs. This is an example of a ________effect by a hormone.

Direct

Dopaminergic agonists

What is an indicator of inadequate gag reflex?

Drooling and difficulties with secretions.

When the nurse observes a diagnosis of nosocomial pneumonia, the patient generally acquires this pneumonia:

During hospitalization

Which statements are true regarding gonorrhea? (Select all that apply) Dysuria is common symptom Of those who have intercourse with an infected man, 30% will develop gonorrhea Gonorrhea affects the genitalia, as well as eyes, mouth, and rectum Infection rates of gonorrhea are highest in the NE region

Dysuria is a common symptom, affects the gentials, eyes, mouth, and rectum

Which statement is true regarding hepatits? There are five types of hepatitis viruses Hepatitis D is known to be sexually transmitted Each type of hepatitis virus causes icteric liver inflammation Three of the viruses have possible cures

Each type of hepatitis virus causes icteric liver inflammation

A 30-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustains trauma to the lungs and chest wall. He experiences respiratory failure. Which of the following lab values would the nurse expect?

Elevated PaCO2

What is the cause of the hyperpigmentation seen in people with Cushing syndrome?

Elevated levels of ACTH

A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with renal failure. While the nurse is reviewing lab results, which of the following lab values would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

Elevated plasma creatinine level

An 80-year-old female develops pneumonia in the hospital. She becomes cyanotic, tachycardic, and develops a fever and cough. Chest x-ray reveals pus in the pleural space. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis documented on the chart?

Empyema

Which is an example of a disease process producing diffuse cortical dysfunction? CVA Cerebral neoplasm Cerebral emboli

Encephalitis

What theory is used to describe the cause of endometriosis?

Endometrial tissue passes through the Fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones

Which structure is comma shaped and curves over the posterior portion of each of the testes? Vas Deferens Tunica dartos Epididymis Corpora cavernosa

Epididymis

A man reports unilateral pain in his scrotum. He has a red and swollen area on his scrotum. Which is the most likely cause of his pain? Balanitis Paraphimosis Epididymitis Testicular cancer

Epididymitis

Stress induces sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla. This causes the secretion of catecholamines, which include: Cortisol and aldosterone Epinephrine and aldosterone Norepinephrine and cortisol Epinephrine and norepinephrine

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

Which statement is true regarding epinephrine? Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers release epinephrine Epinephrine stimulates only alpha-adrengic receptors Epinephrine induces general vasodilation The action of epinephrine is the same no matter which receptor it binds

Epinephrine induces general vasodilation

Sexual dysfunction involves impairment of which functions? (Select all that apply) Erection Emission Spermatogenesis Ejaculation

Erection, emission, and ejaculation

A 25-year-old female presents with burning urination. She was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. When the nurse checks the culture results, which of the following organisms is most likely infecting her urinary tract?

Escherichia coli

The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is ___bleeding.

Esophageal

Which patient is most prone to metabolic alkalosis? A patient with:

Excessive loss of chloride (Cl)

Which of the following statements of Acromegaly is INCORRECT? Excessive skeletal growth is related to the lack of closure in the epiphyseal plates Hyperglycemia and diabetes mellitus are a concurrent problem Growth hormone stimulates bone and connective tissue growth Cardiac alterations are a major chronic problem

Excessive skeletal growth is related to the lack of closure in the epiphyseal plates

A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse include? Airway hyper-responsiveness in asthma is related to:

Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulation

Extradural (epidural) hematoma

What care should a patient with facial paralysis need?

Eye care: artificial tears, inspect for lashes, ointment and impermeable eye shield at night.

List some cranial nerve manifestations of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Facial weakness, dysphagia, diplopia, blindness, inability to swallow or clear secretions and difficulting speaking.

Which condition is considered a clinical cause of amenorrhea?

Failure to ovulate

An alkaline urinary pH significantly decreases the risk of calcium phosphate stone formation whereas acid urine decreases the risk of uric acid stones. True or false

False

Azotemia is associated with a decrease in serum urea levels. True or false

False

Chronic gastritis of the fundus occurs more frequently than chronic gastritis of the antrum.

False

Primary biliary cirrhosis can be a result of gallstones

False

Primary biliary cirrhosis can be a result of gallstones.

False

The tonic phase of a generalized seizure is characterized by alternating contractions and relaxation of muscles.

False

A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. What tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the diagnosis?

Fasting plasma glucose levels

A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which of the following tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the diagnosis?

Fasting plasma glucose levels

A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which of the following tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the diagnosis? Genetic testing Fasting plasma glucose levels Glycosylated hemoglobin measurements Random serum glucose levels

Fasting plasma glucose levels

A 32-year-old obese male begins a jogging routine. A week after beginning, he fractures his leg. This is referred to as a what type of fracture?

Fatigue

____________ is a temporary resetting of the hypothalamic thermostat to a higher level in response to endogenous or exogenous pyrogens

Fever

Hypernatremia

Fever, swollen dry tongue, sticky mucous membranes, hallucinations, lethargy, restlessness, irritability, seizures, tachycardia, hypertension, hyper reflexia, twitching, pulmonary edema

Which conditions represent nonproliferative changes in breast tissue? (Seleet all that apply) Fibrocystic changes Cysts Florid hyperplasia Mamary dysplasia Interductal papilomas

Fibrocystic changes, cysts, and mammary dysplasia

Regarding uterine fibroids (leiomyomas), which statements are true? (Select all that apply) Fibroids are more common in white women Fibroids are most pervalent before the age of 20 yrs Fibroid incidence decreases with menopause Firbroids develop from cartilage Fibroids complications can require hospitalizations

Fibroid incidence decreases with menopause and fibroid complications can require hospitalization

Which factors contribute to bacterial virulence within the urinary tract? (Select all that apply.) Fimbriae expression Sidophore production Mucous production Biofilm formation

Fimbriae expression, sidophore production, and biofilm formation

A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing obstruction. Which of the following symptoms would she most likely experience?

Flank pain

List some precipitating factors (vaccinations) of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Flu, Group A streptococcus and rabies.

A 55-year-old male presents reporting urinary retention. Tests reveal that he has a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse?

Formation of renal calculi

A 25-year-old male was in an automobile accident. At impact, his forehead struck the windshield. In this situation, a nurse recalls the coup injury would occur in the _____ region.

Frontal

Which neurotransmitter is reduced in people with schizophrenia?

Gamma-aminobutyric acid

Which statement is FALSE regarding the contributing factors of duodenal ulcers?

Gastric emptying is slowed causing greater exposure of the mucosa to acid

Which statement is false regarding the contributing factors of duodenal ulcers?

Gastric emptying is slowed causing greater exposure of the mucosa to acid.

If a nurse wants to obtain the best estimate of renal function, which test should the nurse monitor?

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the pancreas alpha cells. Which of the following would the nurse expect to be most likely increased in this patient?

Glucagon

A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the pancreas alpha cells. Which of the following would the nurse expect to be most likely increased in this patient? Amylin Insulin Somatostatin Glucagon

Glucagon

Which of teh following si an excitatory neurotransmitter? Glutamate Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Glycine Substance P

Glutamate

A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). Which of the following are correct statements? Select ALL that apply. Hyperglycemia from eating too many sweets causes the overuse of endogenous insulin Glycosylated hemoglobin measurements, testing for the presence C peptide, fasting plasma glucose levels, and glucose tolerance tests are diagnostic tests for diabetes Obesity and lack of exercise are the principle causative factors It is caused by the immune mediated destruction of the pancreas

Glycosylated hemoglobin measurements, testing for the presence C peptide, fasting plasma glucose levels, and glucose tolerance tests are diagnostic tests for diabetes It is caused by the immune mediated destruction of the pancreas

A 15-year-old male suffered diffuse brain injury after wrecking an all-terrain vehicle. He had momentary confusion and retrograde amnesia after 5 to 10 minutes. His injury could be categorized as:

Grade II

A 65-year-old male suffers a subarachnoid hemorrhage secondary to uncontrolled hypertension. He appears drowsy and confused with pronounced focal neurologic deficits. This condition is grade:

Grade III

An individual has symptoms of confusion and retrograde amnesia after sustaining a blunt force injury to the skull as a result of being hit with a baseball. The symptoms confirm the diagnosis of which grade of concussion? Grade I Grade II Grade III Grade IV

Grade III

Which part of the brain contains all cell bodies and dendrites of the neurons? Gyri Sulci White matter Gray matter

Gray matter

A 15-year-old male was diagnosed with pharyngitis. Eight days later he developed acute glomerulonephritis. While reviewing the culture results, which of the following is the most likely cause of this disease?

Group A B-hemolytic streptococcus

Group A ß-hemolytic streptococcus

A 10-year-old male was physically abused for the previous 4 years. He reports feeling stressed all the time and frequently gets ill. Which of the following hormones is most likely suppressed in this child?

Growth Hormone

Growth hormone

What is characterized by an idiopathic polyneuritis with acute inflammatory demyelinating

Guillain-Barre

What are the risk factors of peptic ulcer development? (Select all that apply) H. Pylori infection Smoking Anorexia Genetic predisposition Cirrhosis

H. pylori infection, smoking, genetic predisposition, and cirrhosis

In order to help prevent a preadolescent girl from developing later cervical cancer, which virus does the healthcare professional recommend vaccination against to the parent?

HPV

Outcomes of laboratory tests include an elevated level of natriuretic peptides. Which organ is the priority assessment?

Heart

Which term describes bright red blood from the rectum? Hematemesis Hematochezia Melena Occult bleeding

Hematochezia

An individual sustains a CVA that results in left-sided paralysis. Which of the following describes this condition? Hemiplegia Paraplegia Diplegia Quadriplegia

Hemiplegia

A 28-year-old male reports to his primary care provider that he has had a cold for a week and is coughing up bloody secretions. When giving report, what term should the nurse use to describe this condition?

Hemoptysis

A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. While the nurse is reviewing the lab tests, which results would the nurse expect to find? A. Low circulating levels of thyroid hormone B. Increases circulation of iodine C. Ectopic secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D. High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies

High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies Graves disease results from a form of Type II hypersensitivity in which there is stimulation of the thyroid by autoantibodies directed against the TSH receptor.

A 20-year-old male is admitted to the neurological critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. When an intraventricular catheter is inserted, the ICP is recorded at 24 mm Hg. How should the nurse interpret this reading? This reading is:

Higher than normal

His sympathetic nervous system has been damaged and thermal control disturbed.

What causes the chronic microvascular and macrovascular complications of DM?

Hyperglycemia

When a staff member asks the nurse what causes the chronic complications of DM such as microvascular and macrovascular disease, how should the nurse respond? These complications are primarily related to: Pancreatic changes Ketone toxicity Hyperglycemia Hyperinsulinemia

Hyperglycemia

When a patient asks what causes hyperglycemia in type 2 DM, how should the nurse respond? Hyperglycemia is a result of:

Hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance

When a patient asks what causes hyperglycemia in type 2 DM, how should the nurse respond? Hyperglycemia is a result of: Liver dysfunction Insulin deficiency Hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance Glucagon deficiency

Hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance

Which condition is a risk factor for postobstructive diuresis? Unilateral obstruction Hypertension Dehydration Neurogenic diabetes insipidus

Hypertension

____________ is the elevation of the body temperature without an increase in eh hypothalamic set point

Hyperthermia

Hyperlipidemia and hyperglycemia are associated with:

Hypertonic hyponatremia

For a patient experiencing metabolic acidosis, the body will compensate by:

Hyperventilating

For a patient experiencing metabolic acidosis, the body will compensate by: Hyperventilating Excreting H+ through the kidneys Secreting aldosterone Retaining CO2 in the lungs

Hyperventilating

A 20-year-old male is in acute pain. An arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide (CO2) levels. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?

Hyperventilation

A patient diagnosed with Addison disease reports weakness and is easily fatigued. What is the root of these symptoms?

Hypocortisolism

A patient with Addison disease has weakness and easy fatigability. A nurse recalls this is due to:

Hypocortisolism

A patient with Addison disease has weakness and easy fatigability. A nurse recalls this is due to: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypocortisolism C. Hypoglycemia D. Metabolic acidosis

Hypocortisolism

Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

A 13-year-old male who uses insulin to control his type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion during gym class. The most probable cause of these symptoms is: Somogyi effect caused by insulin sensitivity Hyperglycemia resulting from incorrect insulin administration Dawn phenomenon caused by eating a snack before gym class Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and overall abnormal feelings. Hyperaldosteronism is diagnosed. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect?

Hypokalemia

A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and overall abnormal feelings. Hyperaldosteronism is diagnosed. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypotension C. Hyponatremia D. Hypovolemia

Hypokalemia

A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this patient? A. Hypernatremia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypokalemia

Hyponatremia

A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH). Which electrolyte imbalance would be expected in this patient?

Hyponatremia

A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances AND assessments would be expected in this patient?

Hyponatremia AND concentrated urine

Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury to the parathyroid glands

When the endocrinologist asks the staff how the releasing hormones that are made in the hypothalamus travel to the anterior pituitary, how should the staff reply? Via the:

Hypophysial portal system

When the endocrinologist asks the staff how the releasing hormones that are made in the hypothalamus travel to the anterior pituitary, how should the staff reply? Via the: Median eminence Chromophils Hypophysial portal system Vessels of the zona fasciculata

Hypophysial portal system

Which of the following would you, the RN, NOT expect to find in a patient with untreated Cushing disease or syndrome?

Hypotension

Hypermagnesemia

Hypotension, drowsiness, bradycardia, Bradypnea, coma, cardiac arrest, hyporeflexia, nausea, vomiting, facial flushing

Which part of the brain is responsible for temperature regulation? Thalamus Medulla Hypothalamus Limbic system

Hypothalamus

A male patient complains of tiring easily, has difficulty rising from a sitting position, and cannot stand on his toes. The nurse would expect a diagnosis of:

Hypotonia

What is the treatment plan for a patient with Guillen Barre Syndrome?

IV administration of high-dose immunoglobulin and Plasmapheresis within 2 - 4 weeks after onset of symptoms. (ambulatory and non- ambulatory patients respectively)

What is the cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM)?

Immune destruction of the pancreas

An 80-year-old male presents with skeletal pain and tenderness, especially in the hips. He is diagnosed with osteomalacia caused by:

Inadequate bone mineralization

A 45-year-old female presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and anemia. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. When the patient asks what caused this anemia, how should the nurse respond? Your anemia is caused by:

Inadequate production of erythropoietin

Anemia accompanies chronic renal failure because of:

Inadequate production of erythropoietin

A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a lot of blood. The nurse realizes he is in acute renal failure caused by:

Inadequate renal blood flow

In Parkinson disease (PD) the basal ganglia influences the hypothalamic function to produce which grouping of clinical manifestations?

Inappropriate diaphoresis, orthostatic hypotension, constipation, and urinary retention

Which statements are true regarding gyncomastia? (Select all that apply) Gynecomastia may begin as a palpable mass anywhere on the chest Gynecomastia affects less than 3% of the male population Incidence of gyncomastia is greatest among adolescents and older men Gyncomastia usually involves an imbalance of the estrogen/testosterone ratio

Incidence of gynecomastia is greatest among adolescents and older men and gynecomastia usually involves an imbalance of the estrogen/testosterone ratio

The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they do what?

Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse

"A patient is admitted to the hospital for a new onset seizure disorder, and is prescribed carbamazepine. The nurse reviewing the patient's medical history notes that the patient is taking warfarin. The nurse will discuss with the physician to:"

Increase the warfarin

When taking care of a patient with hyperkalemia, which principle is priority? Hyperkalemia causes a(n) _____ in resting membrane potential with _____ excitability of cardiac muscle.

Increase; increased

Which of the following patients is most prone to hypochloremia? A patient with:

Increased bicarbonate intake

Which statement by the staff indicates teaching was successful concerning aldosterone? Secretion of aldosterone results in:

Increased blood volume

Which statement by the staff indicates teaching was successful concerning aldosterone? Secretion of aldosterone results in: Increased blood volume Increased serum potassium levels Decreased plasma osmolality Localized edema

Increased blood volume

A 70-year-old male with chronic renal failure presents with edema. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

A 70-year-old male with chronic renal failure presents with edema. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition? Decreased interstitial oncotic pressure Increased capillary oncotic pressure Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

An experiment was designed to test the effects of the Starling forces on fluid movement. Which of the following alterations would result in fluid moving into the interstitial space?

Increased interstitial oncotic pressure

An experiment was designed to test the effects of the Starling forces on fluid movement. Which of the following alterations would result in fluid moving into the interstitial space? Increased capillary oncotic pressure Increased interstitial oncotic pressure Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

Increased interstitial oncotic pressure

A nurse is teaching the staff about antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which information should the nurse include? Secretion of ADH is stimulated by: Generalized edema Increased plasma osmolality Increased serum potassium Decreased renal blood flow

Increased plasma osmolaity

A nurse is teaching the staff about antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which information should the nurse include? Secretion of ADH is stimulated by:

Increased plasma osmolality

A nurse is teaching the staff about antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which information should the nurse include? Secretion of ADH is stimulated by: Increased plasma osmolality Increased serum potassium Decreased renal blood flow Generalized edema

Increased plasma osmolality

A nurse is reviewing lab results. Which of the following lab results would slow down the rate of parathyroid hormone secretion?

Increased serum calcium levels

A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production. What assessment finding would the nurse expect to find?

Increased urine volume

A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find?

Increased urine volume

A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find? Increased blood volume Increased urine volume Increased arterial vasoconstriction Increased urine osmolality

Increased urine volume

What is the most common cause of a urethral stricture in man? Prostatitis Carcinoma Indwelling catheter use Congential defect

Indwelling catheter use

List some Nursing Diagnosis for a patient with Guillen Barre Syndrome?

Ineffective breathing pattern, ineffective airway clearance and impaired gas exchange, Risk for aspiration, Acute pain, Impaired verbal communication, Powerlessness, anxiety and fear, Impaired mobility and self-care deficits.

Regarding infertility, which statements are true? (Select all that apply) Infertility affects 15% of couples trying to conceive Infertility rates are declining The man is the sole cause of the infertility in 50% of the cases Age is a major factor in female fertility Ovulatory factors account for 40% of femal infertility

Infertility affects 15% of couples trying to conceive and Ovulatory fators account for 40% of female infertility

Which conditions are complications of STIs? (Select all that apply) Colon CA Infertility PID Ectopic pregnancy Gential CAs

Infertility, PID, Ectopic pregnancies, and gential CAs

Which statement is false about the pathophysiology of alcoholic cirrhosis?

Inflammation and damage leading to cirrhosis begin in the bile canaliculi.

Reflux esophagitis may be defined as a(n):

Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux

Infratentorial

A 57-year-old male presents with cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and decreased lung volume. He is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. When taking the patient's history, which finding is the most probable cause of his illness?

Inhalation of silica, asbestos, mica

Which hormone inhibits follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion? Activin Inhibin GnRH Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Inhibin

A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high), urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high), and arterial pH 7.20 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the "flu" for a week. Which of the following statements best explains her acidotic state? Low serum insulin promotes lipid storage and a corresponding release of ketones. Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation. Her uncontrolled diabetes has led to renal failure. Increased insulin levels promote protein breakdown and ketone formation.

Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation.

A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 500 milligrams per deciliter (high), urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high), and arterial pH 7.20 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the "flu" for a week. Which of the following statements best explains her acidotic state?

Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation.

When the nurse is asked what causes asthma, how should the nurse respond? Asthma is thought to be caused by:

Interactions between genetic and environmental factors

Which neurons transmit impulses from neuron to neuron? Unipolar Sensory Motor Interneurons

Interneurons

An infant is diagnosed with noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is an immediate priority concern for this patient?

Interstitial edema

A 5-year-old male presents to the ER with delirium and sunken eyes. After diagnosing him with severe dehydration, the primary care provider orders fluid replacement. The nurse administers a hypertonic intravenous solution. Which of the following would be expected?

Intracellular dehydration

A 35-year-old female was severely burned and is hospitalized. She is now suffering from acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

Intrarenal

A nurse is reviewing lab reports. The nurse recalls blood plasma is located in which of the following fluid compartments? Intravascular fluid Intracellular fluid (ICF) Extracellular fluid (ECF) Interstitial fluid

Intravascular fluid

A nurse recalls the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and plasma creatinine (Pcr) concentration are _____ related.

Inversely

Vomiting is a result of a CNS injury caused by which of the following? Impingement directly on the floor of the third ventricle Decrease in intracranial pressure Involvement of the vestibular nuclei Decompression of the brainstem

Involvement of the vestibular nuclei

Which nutrient would the nurse encourage the patient to consume for thyroid hormone synthesis?

Iodine

Regarding unconjugated bilirubin, which statement is true? It is bilirubin bound to albumin Occurs after joining with glucuronic acid Formation occurs in the ileum and the colon It is water-soluble

It is bilirubin bound to albumin

Which statements are true regarding Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome? (Select all that apply.) It is extremely rare in men Spleen involvement is a common complication of this condition Perihepatitis is a result of gonorrheal infection Symptoms include acute upper left abdominal pain

It is extremely rare in men and perihepatitis is a result of gonorrheal infection

List some precipitating factors of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

It is often preceded by immune system stimulation from: respiratory infection, acute illness or trauma, surgery, HIV, vaccinations, gastroenteritis, SLE, Hodgkin's disease, virus and drugs.

A person has been diagnosed with primary dysmenorrhea and wants to know why ibuprofen is a good choice for pain control. What response by the healthcare professional is best?

It reduces the production of prostaglandins in your body

For a patient with respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by the body will include: Kidney excretion of HCO3 Kidney excretion of H+ Protein buffering Prolonged exhalations to blow off CO2

Kidney excretion of H+

For a patient with respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by the body will include: Protein buffering Prolonged exhalations to blow off CO2 Kidney excretion of H+ Kidney excretion of HCO3

Kidney excretion of H+

Which condition is a cause of an upper urinary tract obstruction? Kidney stone Bladder neck dyssynergia Prostate enlargement Urethral Stricture

Kidney stone

Which organ system should the nurse monitor when the patient has long-term potassium deficits?

Kidneys

A 30-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a hospital unit for the surgical removal of her thyroid gland. During the postoperative period, the nurse notes that the patient's serum calcium is low. The nurse should observe the patient for which of the following signs/symptoms? A. Abdominal pain and fever B. Laryngeal spasms and hyperreflexia C. Anorexia, nausea, vomiting D. Muscle weakness and constipation

Laryngeal spasms and hyperreflexia

Which two systems regulate the complex emotional responses to pain? Frontal and cerebellar lobes Limbic and reticular systems Thalamus and brainstem Midbrain and nuclei of the thalamus

Limbic and reticular systems

Which of the following patients should the nurse assess for a decreased oncotic pressure in the capillaries? A patient with: A high-protein diet Low blood pressure Low blood glucose Liver failure

Liver failure

A 10-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) because he is incoherent and semiconscious. CT scan reveals that he is suffering from cerebral edema. This type of edema is referred to as:

Localized edema

A 10-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) because he is incoherent and semiconscious. CT scan reveals that he is suffering from cerebral edema. This type of edema is referred to as: Lymphedema Generalized edema Pitting edema Localized edema

Localized edema

A 10-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) because he is incoherent and semiconscious. CT scan reveals that he is suffering from cerebral edema. This type of edema is referred to as: Pitting edema Localized edema Generalized edema Lymphedema

Localized edema

A 53-year-old male with a 20-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. When a staff member asks why the patient's airways are obstructed, how should the nurse respond? The airways are obstructed because of:

Loss of elastic recoil

Dementia is characterized by:

Loss of recent and remote memory

Dementia is manifested by:

Loss of recent and remote memory

While planning care for a patient with hypothyroidism, which principle should the nurse remember? The basal metabolic rate is unusually _____ with hypothyroidism. A. Steady B. Low C. High D. Variable

Low

What are some nursing goals for a patient with Guillen Barre Syndrome?

Maintain adequate ventilation, be free from aspiration, be pain free or control it, maintain acceptable method of communication, maintain adequate nutritional intake and return to usual physical functioning.

A woman with a Hx of schizophrenic asks the RN, "Now that I'm pregnant, how will my mental illness affect my baby?" Which response from the nurse is true regarding her child? May result from neurodevelopmental defects Research doesn't indicate any environmental involvement is schizophrenia An early brain defect immediately reveals itself No alterations are suspected in the brain structure

May result from neurodevelopmental defects

Immunosuppressants used in the treatment of Myasthenia Gravis

Methotrexate and Cyclosporin

A nurse wants to determine if there is kidney dysfunction in a patient with diabetes. Which of the following is the earliest manifestation?

Microalbuminuria

A nurse wants to determine if there is kidney dysfunction in a patient with diabetes. Which of the following is the earliest manifestation? Microalbuminuria Glycosuria Polyuria Decreased glomerular filtration

Microalbuminuria

What is the earliest manifestation of diabetes-induced kidney dysfunction?

Microalbuminuria

What patient is more at risk for Guillen Barre Syndrome?

Middle aged males slightly more than females. Euro-Americans have the disease more often than any other racial group.

What type of headache tend to throb and are often unilateral and is classified as with and without aura and is precipitated by a triggering event

Migraines

A 10-year-old male was climbing on a house and fell. He suffered a severe brain injury. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 5 initially and 7 after 1 day. He remained unconscious for 2 weeks, then was confused and suffered from anterograde amnesia. Which of the following is he most likely experiencing?

Moderate Diffuse Brain Injury

"A 10-year-old male was climbing on a house and fell. He suffered a severe brain injury. His Glasgow Coma Scale was 5 initially and 7 after one day. He remained unconscious for two weeks, then was confused and suffered from anterograde amnesia. Which of the following is he most likely experiencing?"

Moderate diffuse brain injury

A nurse is reviewing lab results for glycosylated hemoglobin (Hemoglobin A1c) levels. A nurse recalls the purpose of this test is to:

Monitor long term serum glucose control

A nurse is reviewing lab results for glycosylated hemoglobin (hemoglobin A1c) levels. A nurse recalls the purpose of this test is to:

Monitor long-term serum glucose control.

A nurse is reviewing lab results for glycosylated hemoglobin (hemoglobin A1c) levels. A nurse recalls the purpose of this test is to: Detect acute complications of diabetes. Monitor long-term serum glucose control. Check for hyperlipidemia. Measure fasting glucose levels.

Monitor long-term serum glucose control.

What is the purpose of the glycosylated hemoglobin (hemoglobin A1c) test?

Monitoring long-term serum glucose control.

Regarding breast cancer, which statements are true? (Select all that apply) The older the woman at her first childbirth, the lower her risk. Breast cancer is the second most common cause of cancer in women The incidence has declined since 1955 More than 2/3 of those with breast CA occur in women older than 55 yrs old The incidence for all races combined is approximately 125 per 100000 women annually

More than 2/3 of those with breast CA occur in women older than 55 yr old and The incidence for all races combined is approximately 125 per 100000 women annually

Nursing considerations for Myasthenia Gravis pt

Morning's are better, space out cares, give rest periods

Which of the following is classified as myofascial pain syndrome? Muscle strain Mastectomy Neck dissection Surgical amputation

Muscle strain

Hypercalcemia

Muscle weakness, hypercalciuria/kidney stones, dysrhythmias, lethargy,coma,hyporeflexia, pathologic fractures,flank pain, deep bone pain, polyuria,polydipsia,dehydration,hypertension, nausea, vomiting

Hypokalemia

Muscle weakness/ cramping, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, irritability, confusion, decreased bowel motility, paresthesia, dysrhythmias, flat/inverted T waves (ECG)

A 25-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting changes in facial features. CT scan reveals a mass on the anterior pituitary, and lab tests reveal severely elevated growth hormone (GH). Which of the following would the nurse also expect to find?

Muscular atrophy

When the nurse is discussing the functional unit of the kidney, what other term should the nurse use?

Nephron

Papilledema and blindness have which cranial nerve associated with it?

Nerve II

Ptosis, visual field defects, and diplopia have which cranial nerve associated with it?

Nerve III

Facial paresis or paralysis have which cranial nerve associated with it?

Nerve VII

Deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo have which cranial nerve associated with it?

Nerve VIII

A nurse recalls direct stimulation of the insulin-secreting cells of the pancreas by the autonomic nervous system is an example of _____ control

Neural

A nurse recalls direct stimulation of the insulin-secreting cells of the pancreas by the autonomic nervous system is an example of _____ control. Positive feedback Neural Negative feedback Substrate-level dependent

Neural

A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For what condition would this treatment be effective

Neurogenic diabetes insipidus

A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective?

Neurogenic diabetes insipidus

A patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst and is given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective?

Neurogenic diabetes insipidus

A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective? A. SIADH B. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Psychogenic diabetes insipidus

Neurogenic diabetes insipidus Neurogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by the insufficient secretion of ADH; thus, exogenous ADH would be useful in the treatment of this disorder.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with SIADH. What severe complication should the nurse assess for?

Neurologic damage

A nurse is caring for a patient with SIADH. What severe complication should the nurse assess for?

Neurologic damage

A nurse is caring for a patient with SIADH. What severe complication should the nurse assess for?

Neurological Damage

Which factor increases the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40 years?

Never having children

Acetylcholine (cholinergic) is the neurotransmitter for which receptors

Nicotinic and muscarinic

____________ are free nerve endings in the afferet peripheral nervous system that selectively respond to different chemical, mechanical, and thermal stimuli.

Nociceptors

A 60-year-old male with a 40-year history of smoking presents with chest pain, cough, sputum production, and pneumonia. Tests reveal widespread metastatic cancer, and the primary care provider plans radiation therapy. Which of following is the most likely type of cancer to be documented on the chart?

Non-small cell carcinoma

Two primary neurotransmitters of the Autonomic Nervous System

Norepinephrine (NE) and Acetylcholine (ACh)

What does the CSF reveal in a patient with Guillen Barre Syndrome?

Normal or low protein cell count initially, elevated protein after 1 - 2 weeks after illness. CSF lymphocyte count is normal.

What should be nutritional assessment should be made for a patient with Guillen Barre Syndrome?

Nutritional status, body weight, serum albumin levels and calorie counts.

Which statement is true regarding migraine? Diagnosis is made on the basis of a head CT Occur most frequently before and during menses Not linked with any other disorder Drug therapy always includes NARCS

Occur most frequently before and during menses

Which criterion is not used when determining brain death? Unresponsive coma No spontaneous respiration Isoelectric electroencephalogram (EEG) Ocular response to head turning

Ocular response to head turning

What are symptoms of autonomic neuropathy?

Orthostatic hypotension, hypertension, sweating dysfunction, cardiac dysfunction, paralytic ileus, urinary retention

The type of diarrhea that is a result of unhydrolyzed lactose is referred to as:

Osmotic

Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined by: Buffer systems Osmotic forces Plasma oncotic pressure Antidiuretic hormone

Osmotic forces

A 49-year-old female is diagnosed with hypercortisolism. What should the nurse expect?

Osteoporosis

A nurse assesses a patient with a complicated urinary tract infection (UTI) for:

Other health problems

Which condition is considered a complicated gonococcal infection in women? UTI PID ectopic pregnancy arthritis

PID

What is the appropriate definition of perceptual dominance? Overt pain responses are regulated Pain at one location may mask pain at another location Is a repeated exposure to pain Is the point at which pain is perceived

Pain at one location may mask pain at another location

When assessing the effects of elevated â-endorphins in a patient, which of the following should the nurse monitor? Hyperglycemia Peripheral vasoconstriction Pain inhibition Decreased immune cell activity

Pain inhibition

Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types?

Paracrine

What refers to the loss of motor function of the lower extremities?

Paraplegia

What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?

Parathyroid gland injury

When a patient wants to know what most commonly causes hypoparathyroidism, how should the nurse reply? It is most commonly caused by: A. Parathyroid gland injury B. Hypothalamic inactivity C. Pituitary hyposecretion D. Parathyroid adenoma

Parathyroid gland injury

Hypophosphatemia

Paresthesia, muscle weakness, bone pain and deformities, chest pain, confusion,seizures,nystagmus

List some sensory manifestations of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Paresthesias (burning, stinging or prickly feeling) and pain (cramping).

Which cells of the stomach secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor? Parietal Chief G Enterochromaffin-like

Parietal

Which term describes localized and intense abd pain that lateralizes? Parietal Visceral Referred Phatom

Parietal

A person experiences a unilateral, focal seizure and maintains consciousness. Which term is appropriate to describe this type of seizure? Generalized Partial Secondary Status epilepticus

Partial

A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes how glucose is transported from the blood to the cell. What type of transport system should the nurse discuss with the patient?

Passive-mediated transport (facilitated diffusion

A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes how glucose is transported from the blood to the cell. What type of transport system should the nurse discuss with the patient? Active diffusion Passive osmosis Active-mediated transport (active transport) Passive-mediated transport (facilitated diffusion)

Passive-mediated transport (facilitated diffusion)

A 76-year-old female was diagnosed with osteoporosis by radiologic exam. She is at high risk for:

Pathologic bone fractures

A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis fractures her leg at a location of preexisting abnormality following a minor fall. Which of the following best describes the fracture?

Pathologic fracture

Why is nutrition compromised in a patient with Guillen Barre Syndrome?

Patient may have problems swallowing, possible paralytic ileus, intestinal obstruction or motor issues in self-feeding.

A man has balanitis. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?

Perform a finger stick for a blood glucose reading.

While reviewing urine lab results, the nurse remembers the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly related to the:

Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries

A 30-year-old female presents with hypertension, headache, tachycardia, impaired glucose tolerance, and weight loss. Which of the following diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart? A. Cushing disease B. Conn disease C. Addison disease D. Phenochromocytoma

Phenochromocytoma

A 47-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary edema. Which assessment findings will the nurse observe?

Pink, frothy sputum

A 25-year-old male presents with fatigue, constipation, and sexual dysfunction. Tests reveal all pituitary hormones are normal and no masses are present. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of his symptoms is a dysfunction in the: A. Pituitary stalk B. Posterior pituitary C. Anterior pituitary D. Pars intermedia

Pituitary stalk When pituitary hormones are normal, dysfunction in the action of hypothalamic hormones are most commonly related to interruption of the connection between the hypothalamus and pituitary, the pituitary stalk.

The RN is assigned a patient who is one day post-operative thyroidectomy. During AM assessment the RN notes that the dressing is dry and intact and vital signs are stable. The patient complains that he feels tingling around his mouth when he drinks or eats anything. The RN notes facial twitching in response to a light tap over the facial nerve. Which of the following laboratory measurements provide physiological rationale for these symptoms?

Plasma calcium= total(4mg/dl) 3.3 mg/dL(ionized)

A 65-year-old male recently had a cerebrovascular accident that resulted in dysphagia. He now has aspiration of gastric contents. The nurse assesses the patient for which complication?

Pneumonia

Which finding would support the diagnosis of respiratory acidosis?

Pneumonia

Which clinical diagnosis is associated with hirutism, amenorrhea, and infertility? Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) Primary amenorrhea

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

An 11-year-old is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for?

Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss

An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for?

Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss

An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for? Weakness, vomiting, hypotension, and mental confusion Vomiting; abdominal pain; sweet, fruity breath; dehydration; and Kussmaul breathing Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss Recurrent infections, visual changes, fatigue, and paresthesias

Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss

An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for? A. Polydipsia, polyuria, weight loss B. Recurrent infections C. Weakness, vomiting, hypotension, mental confusion D. Vomiting, abdominal pain, sweet, fruity breath, and Kussmaul breathing

Polydipsia, polyuria, weight loss

When a staff member asks the nurse which gland secretes ADH and oxytocin, how should the nurse respond?

Posterior pituitary

Which gland secretes ADH and oxytocin? Posterior pituitary Pineal gland Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary

Posterior pituitary

A 56-year-old male presents with flank pain and polyuria. Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate. Which of the following types of renal failure should the nurse monitor for as it is the most likely to occur?

Postrenal

A nurse recalls insulin has an effect on what group of electrolytes?

Potassium, magnesium, phosphate

A nurse recalls insulin has an effect on which of the following groups of electrolytes?

Potassium, magnesium, phosphate

A nurse recalls insulin has an effect on which of the following groups of electrolytes? Calcium, magnesium, potassium Sodium, chloride, phosphate Potassium, magnesium, phosphate Hydrogen, bicarbonate, chlorid

Potassium, magnesium, phosphate

A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting muscle weakness and cardiac abnormalities. Laboratory tests indicate that she is hypokalemic. Which of the following could be the cause of her condition?

Primary hyperaldosteronism

Which clinical diagnosis is consistent with symptoms of painful menstruation in the absence of pelvic disease? Primary dysmenorrhea Primary amenorrhea Secondary dysmenorrhea Secondary amenorrhea

Prmary dysmenorrhea

A 25-year-old male was diagnosed with Goodpasture syndrome. While planning care for this patient, which of the following mechanisms would cause tissue injury?

Production of antibodies against the glomerular basement membrane

Which structure secretes a thin milky substance with an alkaline pH that helps sperm survive the acidic environment of the female reproductive tract? Prostate gland Cowper gland Seminal vesicles Seminiferous tubules

Prostate gland

A 42-year-old female is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is discussing dietary treatment. Which information indicates the nurse understands dietary regimen? Treatment includes restricting:

Proteins

What is the appropriate term for sexual maturation? Adolescence Puberty Adrenarche Godadarche

Puberty

A person reporting abdominal and back pain has been found to have bacteria in the urine. What term is used to identify this type of uppUer urinary tract involvement? Cystitis Pyelonephritis UTI Asymptomatic bacteruria

Pyelonephritis

What refers to the paralysis of all four extremities?

Quadriplegia

Which mechanism of heat loss involves electromagnetic waves? Radiation Conduction Convection Evaporation

Radiation

A 25-year-old male presents with chronic bronchitis of 5 months' duration. Which of the following is the most significant concern for the nurse to monitor in this patient?

Recurrent pulmonary infections

What is the purpose of an EMG?

Reflects peripheral nerve function.

What statement is true regarding the specificity theory of pain? Focuses on the attention of pain focuses on the previous experience of pain Relates the amount of pain to the amount of soft-tissue injury Is related to the emotions exhibited toward pain

Relates the amount of pain to the amount of soft-tissue injury

Which statements are true regarding torsion of a testis? (Select all that apply) Relief is not obtained with the elevation of the scrotum High-riding testis may be noted Torsion of a testis is a benign condition Torsion of a testis is most common in middle-aged men Thickened spermatic cord is evident

Relief is not obtained with the elevation of the scrotum, high-riding testis may be noted, and thickened spermatic cord is evident

What is plasmapheresis?

Removes the circulating antibodies thought to be responsible for the disease. Plasma is selectively separated from whole blood and the blood cells are returned to the patient without the plasma.

Describe the demyelination recovery phase of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Remyelination occurs slowly and neurologic function returns in a top to bottom pattern.

Which patient should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis? A patient diagnosed with:

Renal failure

A 28-year-old female presents with fever, chills, and flank pain. She is diagnosed with pyelonephritis. A nurse recalls the patient's infection is located in the:

Renal pelvis

A 46-year-old male presents with severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the right big toe. He was diagnosed with gouty arthritis. He is at risk for developing:

Renal stones

When a person experiences hypotension, which enzyme is primarily released? Renin Angiotensin I Angiotensin II Angiotensin III

Renin

A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture secondary to osteoporosis. This condition is caused by an increase in bone:

Resorption

A 54-year-old male with a long history of smoking complains of excessive tiredness, shortness of breath, and overall ill feelings. Lab results reveal decreased pH, increased CO2, and normal bicarbonate ion. These findings help to confirm the diagnosis of:

Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation

A 55-year-old female presents to her primary care provider and reports dizziness, confusion, and tingling in the extremities. Blood tests reveal an elevated pH, decreased PCO2, and slightly decreased HCO3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation

Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation

List some complications of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Respiratory failure, respiratory infections, UTI and paralysis-related issues.

Is Neostigmine reversible or irreversible

Reversible

A systemic illness and skin lesions characterize which stage of syphilis? Primary Secondary Tertiary Latent

Secondary

Which hypothyroid diagnosis is supported by low levels of TSH?

Secondary

Which hormone is responsible for the inhibition of the stomach contraction? Gastrin Motilin Secretin Cholecystokinin

Secretin

A person who has cholera would be expected to have which type of diarrhea?

Secretory diarrhea

Testosterone binds to which of the following? (Select all that apply) Sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) Prolactin Albumin Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

Sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) and albumin

A 25-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting changes in facial features. CT scan reveals a mass on the anterior pituitary and lab tests reveal several elevated growth hormone (GH). What would the nurse expect to find?

Sexual dysfunction

When a patient has a massive pulmonary embolism (PE), what complications will the nurse monitor for?

Shock and death

A nurse remembers a low ventilation-perfusion ratio results in:

Shunting

A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find before treatment? A. Constipation, confusion B. Skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate C. Slow heart rate, rash D. Weight gain, cold intolerance

Skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate

Regarding Crohn disease, which is a true statement? Lesion are limited to the mucosa layer Skip lesions are common Crohn disease affects only rectum Both sides of the intestinal wall are affected

Skip lesions are common

Which statements are true regarding sleep patterns in older adults (Select all that apply) 1. Sleep time is decreased 2. Sleep takes longer to initiate 3. Sleep is maintained much easier 4. Sleep is deeper

Sleep time is decreased and sleep takes longer to initiate

Sodium

When planning care for a dehydrated patient, the nurse remembers the principle of water balance is closely related to _____ balance.

Sodium

When planning care for a dehydrated patient, the nurse remembers the principle of water balance is closely related to _____ balance. Potassium Sodium Bicarbonate Chloride

Sodium

Which diagnostic finding would be found in a normal urinalysis? pH less than 5 Dark yellow urine Specific gravity 1.016 to 1.022 2 to 5 RBCs

Specific gravity 1.016 to 1.022

Which condition is associated with uncontrolled or premature contractions of detrusor muscle? Spinal cord injury Immune system dysfunction Congestive heart failure Renal carcinoma

Spinal cord injury

Which structure is susceptible to the oncogenic huma papillomavirus (HPV)? Pariertal peritoneum Uterine myometrium Squamous epithelium Squamous-columnar junction

Squamous-columnar junction

A 70-year-old female is being closely monitored in the neurological critical care unit for a severe closed head injury. After 48 hours, her condition begins to deteriorate. Her pupils are small and sluggish, pulse pressure is widening, and she is bradycardic. These clinical findings are evidence of what stage of intracranial hypertension?

Stage 3 Early decompensated

"A 70-year-old female is being closely monitored in the neurological critical care unit for a severe closed head injury. After 48 hours her condition begins to deteriorate. Her pupils are small and sluggish, pulse pressure is widening, and she is bradycardic. These clinical findings are evidence of what stage of intracranial hypertension (raised intracranial pressure)?"

Stage 3 decompensation.

A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with empyema. Upon receiving and reviewing the culture result, which organism does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?

Staphylococcus aureus

Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) affects a patient's ability to?

Stick the tongue out straight.

What sequence cause automomic hyperreflexia-induced bradycardia? Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system to beta-adrenergic receptors to the sinoatrial node Stimulation of the carotid sinus to the vagus nerve to the sinoatrial node Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system to the glossopharyngeal nerve to the atrioventricular node Stimulation of the bundle branches to the alpha-adrenergic receptors to teh sinoatrial node

Stimulation of the carotid sinus to the vagus nerve to the sinoatrial node

Regarding the function of stomach acid, which statement is true? (Select all that apply) Stomach acid dissolves food fibers It acts as a bactericide Stomach acid chemically synthesized intrinsic factor It converts pepsinogen into pepsin Stomach acid breaks down carbohydrates into saccharides

Stomach acid dissolves food fibers, acts as a bactericide, and converts pepsinogen into pepsin

Which clinical manifestation is associated with constipation? (Select all that apply) Straining with defecation Hard or lumpy stool Less than 2 BMs per week Sensation of incomplete evacuation

Straining with defecation, hard or lumpy stool, and sensation of incomplete evacuation.

A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released. How should the nurse respond?

Stress

A 75-year-old male reports to his primary care provider loss of urine with cough, sneezing, or laughing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

Stress incontinence

What type of urinary calculus is made up of magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate? Calcium Struvite Uric Acid Indinvir

Struvite

Which of the following is involved in pain transmission? Posterior horn Substantia gelatinosa Anterior horn Dorsal root ganglia

Substantia gelatinosa

A student is learning about pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). What information does the student clarify with a study partner as being correct?

Such an inflammation results in permanent changes to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian tubes

_____________ cortical nephrons constitute approximately 85% of all nephrons

Superficial

What is the objective of therapy for a patient with Guillen Barre Syndrome?

Support body systems until patient recovers.

When a patient asks how bad the injuries will be from a spinal injury, what is the nurse's best response? It is difficult to know the full extent of the injury because of:

Swelling within the spinal cord

Which of the following is a component of the midbrain? Cerebral hemisphere Tegmentum Cerebellum Medulla oblongata

Tegmentum

A patient has positive signs of schizophrenia and is scheduled for a brain scan. What part of the brain does the healthcare professional expect the scan will focus on?

Temporal lobe

Which term describes successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the same synapse? Temporal summation Spatial summation Actuation Failiation

Temporal summation

Describe Tensilon test

Tensilon is given, patient will show improvement in muscle tone. This drug is short acting so effects won't last long, only for duration of test

A 23 y/o reports bilateral pain with a sensation of a light band around the head. Which type of headache fits this description? Migraine with aura Migraine without aura Tension headache Cluster headache

Tension headache

A 50-year-old male presents with hypotension, hypoxemia, and tracheal deviation to the left. Tests reveal that the air pressure in the pleural cavity exceeds barometric pressure in the atmosphere. Based upon these assessment findings, what does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?

Tension pneumothorax

In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin, bone and soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, and neurosyphilis?

Tertiary

Cryptorchidism can be defined as which of the following?

Testicular maldescent

Hyperphosphatemia

Tetany, cramps, paresthesia, dysrhythmias, Trousseau's sign, Chvostek's sign, hyperreflexia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, soft tissue calcification

Hypocalcemia

Tetany,cramps,paresthesia, dysrhythmias, Trousseau's sign, Chvostek's sign, seizures,hyperreflexia, impaired clotting time

What are the three stages that make up the acute course of Guillen Barre Syndrome?

The acute or initial period, the plateau period and the recovery phase.

A patient wants to know why ADH is important in the body. What is the nurse's best response ADH is important in: The body's water balance and urine concentration Maintaining electrolyte levels and concentrations Follicular maturation Regulation of metabolic processes

The body's water balance and urine concentration

A patient wants to know why ADH is important in the body. What is the nurse's best response? ADH is important in:

The body's water balance and urine concentration

A patient wants to know why ADH is important in the body. What is the nurses best response? ADH is important in:

The body's water balance and urine concentration

While turning a patient with chronic renal failure, which principle should the nurse recall? Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic renal failure because:

The kidneys fail to activate vitamin D.

Which statement is true regarding renal blood flow? The kidneys receive 1000-1200 ml of blood per minute The kidneys receive 50% of cardiac output The glomerular filtration rate is not related to renal blood flow No autoregulation is found in renal blood flow

The kidneys received 1000-1200 ml of blood per minute

Regarding the esophagus, which is true statement? The upper third is smooth muscle The middle third is innervated by motor fibers The lower third is striated muscle The lower third is innervated by nerve fibers

The lower third is innervated by nerve fibers

What is the appropriate term for breast development? Adrenarche Thelarche Gonadarche Puberty

Thelarche

A 22-year-old female presents with chronic bronchitis. Tests reveal closure of the airway during expiration. While planning care, a nurse recalls this condition is most likely caused by:

Thick mucus from hypertrophied glands

A 45-year-old male presents with oliguria. He is diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis. The nurse knows oliguria is related to:

Thickening of the glomerular membrane and decreased renal blood flow

Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations?

Thirst

Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations? A. Edema B. Polyuria C. Vomiting and abdominal cramping D. Thirst

Thirst

The movement of and solute from the tubular lumen to the peritubular capillary plasma is called: Ultrafiltration Tubular reabsorption Tubular secretion Excretion

Tubular reabsorption

What term is used to identify the deposition of an excessive amount of extracellular matrix? Tubulointerstitial fibrosis Compensatory hypertrophy Obligatory growth Compensatory growth

Tubuloninterstitial fibrosis

A 35-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?

Type 2 DM

A 35-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find? A. Type 2 DM B. Renal toxicity C. Episodes of hypoglycemia D. Hypotension

Type 2 DM

Which statement regarding chronic gastritis is true? 4 types of chronic gastritis exist Type A or fundal gastritis, is the most severe Type B or antral gastritis is the most rare Chronic gastritis tends to occur in young individuals

Type A or fundal gastritis, the most severe

A 46-year-old male presents with severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the right big toe. He was diagnosed with gouty arthritis. The symptoms he experienced are caused by the crystallization of _____ within the synovial fluid.

Uric acid

While planning care for a patient who has acute pyelonephritis. A nurse recalls the most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is:

Urinary tract obstruction

While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is:

Urine pH

7. The most important thing to assess in the Guillain-Barré patient to determine acute ventilatory failure is: VC measurement maximum voluntary ventilation forced expiratory volume in one second tidal volume measurement

VC measurement A VC (vital capacity) of < 20 ml/kg would indicate acute ventilatory failure. The other listed pulmonary function tests are less important to assess. REF: 383

List some precipitating factors (virus) of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Varicella-zoster virus, Epstein-Barr virus and Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

What is the medical term for abnormal dilation of the veins in the spermatic cord? Varicocele Hydrocele Spermatocele Cryptorchildism

Varicocele

What type of cerebral edema occurs when there is increased permeability of capillary endothelium after injury to the vascular structure?

Vasogenic

What type of cerebral edema occurs when there is increased permeability of capillary endothelium after injury to the vascular structure? Cytotoxic Interstitial Vasogenic Ischemic

Vasogenic

A patient asks what causes pneumonia. How should the nurse reply? Pneumonia is caused by:

Viral or bacterial infections

__________ pain refers to pain in internal organs and the lining of the body cavities.

Visceral

What common neurologic disturbances should the nurse assess for in a patient with pituitary adenoma?

Visual distrubances

What common neurologic disturbances should the nurse assess for in a patient with a pituitary adenoma?

Visual disturbances

What common neurologic disturbances should the nurse assess for in a patient with a pituitary adenoma? A Confused states B. Visual disturbances C. Coma D. Breathing abnormalities

Visual disturbances The clinical manifestations of pituitary adenomas are visual changes including visual field impairments (often beginning in one eye and progressing to the other) and temporary blindness.

Clinical manifestations of bile salt deficiency are related to poor intestinal absorption of fat and fat-soluble vitamins. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin? Vit C Vit K Vit B12 Vit B6

Vit K

A 56-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of osteomalacia. History reveals that he takes anticonvulsants, underwent small bowel resection 3 years earlier, and suffers from chronic pancreatitis. What is the common link between these three factors and the development of osteomalacia?

Vitamin D deficiency

Which is the most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension? Vomiting blood from esophageal varices Abdominal pain from splenomegaly Ascites Altered mental status

Vomiting blood from esophageal varices

Hyponatremia

Weakness, lethargy, confusion, seizures, headache, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, muscle cramps, twitching, hypotension, tachycardia, weight gain, edema

The nurse would anticipate the patient with syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) to demonstrate which of the following symptoms?

Weakness, nausea, headache, and muscle twitching

The nurse would anticipate the patient with syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) to demonstrate which of the following symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

Weakness, nausea, muscle twitching, headache, and weight gain

Explain why patients with Guillain-Barre often have mucus retention in the lungs

When the diaphragm causes a ventilatory failure, mucous accumulation is build up in the airway because the diaphragm cant expel secretions and the muc fails to move the mucus out

A 51-year-old male experienced severe acute gouty arthritis. Which of the following is the most common trigger for the symptoms? a. Trauma b. Anemia c. High-fat foods d. Lack of exercise

A 60-year-old male presents with swelling and pain in the knee. CT reveals a tumor of spongy bone. His diagnosis would be: a. Chondrosarcoma b. Rhabdomyoma c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. Fibrosarcoma

A 70-year-old male presents with back pain, fever, and weight loss. He reports that he had a recent respiratory infection from which he thought he recovered. Tests revealed increased white blood cell count, and a diagnosis of endogenous osteomyelitis was made. The primary organism causing this condition is: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Salmonella c. Mycobacterium d. Haemophilus influenza

Myotonia is characterized by: a. Prolonged depolarization of muscle cell membranes b. Absence of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for muscle contraction c. Delayed muscle contraction d. Hyperactive reflexes

A 35-year-old female presents with impaired motor function and visual disturbances. The diagnosis is Paget disease. What additional symptoms would be expected? (Select all that apply.) a. Skull thickness b. Dementia c. Deafness d. Headache e. Hypertension

a, b, c, d

A 29-year-old male was recently diagnosed with AS. He is interested in obtaining more information about his disease. Patient teaching would include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. A diagnosis is made from history, physical examination, x-rays, and genetic analysis. b. Inflammation of the fibrocartilage in cartilaginous joints results in the erosion of bone structure, scar tissue formation, and joint fusion. c. The more common signs and symptoms of early disease include restricted joint movement and increased pain after physical activity. d. The usual treatment includes anti-inflammatory and analgesic medications, exercises, and physical therapy. e. The spine becomes bent forward as the normal convex curve of the lower spine diminishes.

a, b, d, e

Signs and symptoms of subluxation include (select all that apply): a. Pain b. Swelling c. Hemorrhage d. Limitation of movement e. Joint deformity

a, b, d, e

Considering the pathophysiologic characteristics of primary amenorrhea, what anatomic structure is involved in compartment II? a. Ovary b. Anterior pituitary c. Hypothalamus d. Vagina

a. Ovary

What is a recognized treatment for the symptoms often associated with pelvic organ prolapse? (Select all that apply.) a. Pessary b. Kegel exercises c. Estrogen therapy d. Surgical repair e. Bearing down exercises

a. Pessary b. Kegel exercises c. Estrogen therapy d. Surgical repair

The size of benign uterine tumors, such as leiomyomas, is thought to be caused by the influence of which hormone? (Select all that apply.) a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone d. Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone e. Growth factors

a. Progesterone b. Estrogen e. Growth factors

Which of the following is not considered a cause of galactorrhea? a. Proliferation of the lactiferous ducts of the breast b. Hypothyroidism, resulting from a decrease in thyroid-releasing hormone c. Excess prolactin secretion from the pituitary d. Drugs such as high-dose oral contraceptives and phenothiazines

a. Proliferation of the lactiferous ducts of the breast

The majority of the small percentage of ovarian cancers that are associated with a known pattern of inheritance are associated with: a. Susceptibility of the BRCA1 gene b. Mutations of the BRCA2 gene c. Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) syndrome d. Low progesterone levels

a. Susceptibility of the BRCA1 gene

Which factor increases the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40 years? a. Use of fertility drugs b. Oral contraceptive use c. Multiple pregnancies d. Prolonged lactation

a. Use of fertility drugs

A 45-year-old male presents with seizures. An MRI reveals a meningioma most likely originating from the: a. Dura mater and arachnoid membrane b. Astrocytes c. Pia mater d. CNS neurons

a. Dura mater and arachnoid membrane

A 15-month-old child from Pennsylvania was brought to the ER for fever, seizure activity, cranial palsies, and paralysis. Which of the following diagnosis will be documented in the chart? a. Eastern equine encephalitis b. Venezuelan encephalitis c. St. Louis encephalitis d. West Nile encephalitis

a. Eastern equine encephalitis

a. Frontal

When taking care of a patient with hyperkalemia, which principle is priority? Hyperkalemia causes a(n) _____ in resting membrane potential with _____ excitability of cardiac muscle. a. Increase; increased b. Decrease; increased c. Increase; decreased d. Decrease; decreased

a. Increase; increased

For a patient with respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by the body will include: a. Kidney excretion of H+ b. Kidney excretion of HCO3 c. Prolonged exhalations to blow off CO2 d. Protein buffering

a. Kidney excretion of H+ Rationale: The kidneys excrete H+ to compensate for respiratory acidosis.

a. More peripheral to

Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined by: a. Osmotic forces b. Plasma oncotic pressure c. Antidiuretic hormone d. Buffer systems

a. Osmotic forces

The most common cause of pure water deficit is: a. Renal water loss b. Hyperventilation c. Sodium loss d. Insufficient water intake

a. Renal water loss Rationale: The most common cause of water loss is increased renal clearance of free water as a result of impaired tubular function.

d. Intracellular dehydration A hypertonic solution would cause fluid to move into the extracellular space, leading to intracellular dehydration.

A nurse is reviewing lab reports. The nurse recalls blood plasma is located in which of the following fluid compartments? a. Intracellular fluid (ICF) b. Extracellular fluid (ECF) c. Interstitial fluid d. Intravascular fluid

d. Intravascular fluid Rationale: Blood plasma is the intravascular fluid. ICF is fluid in the cells. ECF is all the fluid outside the cells. Interstitial fluid is fluid between the cells and outside the blood vessels.

The majority of intervertebral disk herniations occur between which vertebral levels (cervical, C; thoracic, T; lumbar, L; sacral, S)? a. C1 to C3 b. T1 to T4 c. T12 to L3 d. L4 to S1

d. L4 to S1

d. Primary hyperaldosteronism Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism, with excessive secretion of aldosterone from an adrenal adenoma (tumor) also causes potassium wasting. Acidosis is related to hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Constipation can occur with hypokalemia but does not cause it. Hypoglycemia is not related to muscle weakness.

Which patient should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis? A patient diagnosed with: a. Diabetes insipidus b. Pulmonary disorders c. Cushing syndrome d. Renal failure

d. Renal failure Rationale: Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis. Diabetes insipidus results in hypernatremia. Pulmonary disorders are a cause of respiratory acidosis or alkalosis but do not affect hyperkalemia. Cushing syndrome results in hypernatremia.

When planning care for a dehydrated patient, the nurse remembers the principle of water balance is closely related to _____ balance. a. Potassium b. Chloride c. Bicarbonate d. Sodium

d. Sodium Rationale: Because water follows the osmotic gradients established by changes in salt concentration, water balance is tied to sodium balance.

_____ are most at risk of spinal cord injury from minor trauma. a. Infants b. Men c. Women d. The elderly

d. The elderly

Elevated levels of glucocorticoids result in which of the following assessment findings (Select all that apply.) Polycythemia Increased appetite Weight loss Decreased calcium Increased height

decreased calcium increased appetite polycythemia

A 40-year-old male undergoes surgery for a PTH-secreting tumor in which the parathyroid is removed. Which of the following would the nurse expect following surgery Increased serum calcium Decreased bone formation Decreased calcium reabsorption in the kidney Increased calcitonin

decreased calcium reabsorption in the kidney

A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with altered consciousness and the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high) and serum K 2 )low. Her parents state that she has been sick with the "flu" for a week. THe diagnosis is hyperolsmolar hyperglycemiz nonketotic syndrome. What relationship do these values have with her insulin deficiency?

decreased insulin causes hyperglyceima and osmotic diuresis

Status epilepticus is considered a medical emergency because of the:

development of cerebral hypoxia.

2. In severe cases of Guillain-Barré syndrome, paralysis can include: a. head and neck b. legs c. diaphragm d. intestine

diaphragm The diaphragm is only paralyzed in severe cases of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The legs are the most commonly affected, followed by the arms, and then head and neck. The intestine is not affected by the paralysis. REF: 381

Myasthenia Gravis-initial symptoms

diplopia(double vision), ptosis(drooping of eyelids)

When insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells occurs. This is an example of a _effect by a hormone. Pharmacologic Permissive Biphasic Direct

direct

Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which neurotransmitter?

dopamine

A patient has high levels of hormones. To adapt to the high hormone concentrations, the patient's target cells have the capacity for: Negative feedback Positive feedback Down-regulation Up-regulation

down-regulation

Parasympatholytic agent

drug that blocks the action of the parasympathetic nervous system

Sympatholytic agent

drug that blocks the action of the sympathetic nervous system

Parasympathomimic agent

drug that facilitates the action of the parasympathetic nervous system, mimics the parasympathetic nervous system

Adrenegic agent

drug that facilitates the action of the sympathetic nervous system;mimics the sympathetic nervous system

Cholinergic agent

drug that mimics the parasympathetic nervous system

Epigastric pain, beginning 30mins to 2 hours after eating when the stomach is empty or in the middle of the night, is consistent with which diagnosis? Acute gastrtitis Chronic gastritis gastric ulcer duodenal ulcer

duodenal ulcer

the body's inability to conserve water and sodium when affected by Addison disease is explained by what condition?

elevated levels of cortisol

An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be a water-soluble amine. Which of the following is most like this new hormone Growth hormone (GH) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Epinephrine

epinephrine

If a patient had a problem with the adrenal medulla, what hormone should the nurse monitor?

epinephrine

If a patient had a problem with the adrenal medulla, which of the following hormones should the nurse monitor Cortisol Epinephrine Androgens Estrogens

epinephrine

The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.

esophageal

Two clinical manifestations of nephrotic syndrome include decreased glomerular permaeability and increased proximal tubule reabsorption. True or false

false

Which of the following are characteristic of idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH)?

fatigue, dyspnea, and jugular vein distention

Cirrhosis causes intrahepatic portal hypertension in children as a result of:

fibrosis increasing resistance to blood flow within the portal system.

Guillian-Barré syndrome:

follows a viral or bacterial infection

Neostigmine's effect on nicotinic n receptors

ganglionic - some sympathetic actions

8. Management of the patient with Guillain-Barré Syndrome includes all of the following, EXCEPT: giving corticosteroids mechanical ventilation high-dose immunoglobulin therapy plasmapheresis

giving corticosteroids It has been shown that corticosteroids are not effective in treating the Guillain-Barré patient and may actually prolong recovery time. All of the other listed options may be needed to help manage the patient. REF: 383-38

glucagon

Which principle should the nurse include while planning care for a patient with an ADH problem? ADH release from the posterior pituitary is stimulated by:

high serum osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

While checking the lab results for a patient diagnosed with Graves disease, the nurse would expect the T3 level to be abnormally:

high.

"A 20-year-old male is admitted to the neurological critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. When an intraventricular catheter is inserted, the intracranial pressure is recorded at 24 mmHg. This reading is:"

higher than normal

A 55-year-old female presents to her primary care provider and reports dizziness, confusion, and tingling in the extremities. Blood tests reveal an elevated pH, decreased PCO2, and slightly decreased HCO3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation b. Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation c. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation d. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

a. Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation Rationale: With an elevated pH, the diagnosis must be alkalosis. Since the PCO2 is low, it is likely respiratory with a slight decrease in HCO3 indicating renal compensation.

a. Scarring of meninges and impairment of CSF resorption

Subarchnoid hemorrhage causes communicating hydrocephalus by obstructing: CSF flow between ventricles CSF flow into the subarachnoid space blood flow into the arachnoid villli absorption of CSF by the arachnoid villi

absorption of CSF by the arachnoid villi

The nurse is teaching the staff about aldosterone. Which information should the nurse include The main site of aldosterone synthesis is the: Liver Kidneys Adrenal cortex Hypothalamus

adrenal cortex

A nurse checks lab results as both Cushing disease and Addison disease can manifest with elevated levels of:

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

A 50-year-old male with one kidney had to undergo surgery for an adrenal tumor. His zona glomerulosa was largely removed during the surgery. The nurse would expect the removal of this tumor to result in a decrease in: Sodium Aldosterone Potassium Acid

aldosterone

9. Your patient has a severe case of Guillain-Barré syndrome. It is most important that he be monitored for: tachycardia apnea hypertension fever

apnea A patient with a severe case of Guillain-Barré syndrome can have paralysis of the diaphragm and other breathing muscles. This can cause apnea and death. The other listed options should be monitored, but are not life threatening. REF: 382

The main source of bleeding in extradural (epidural) haematomas is

arterial;

Where do cholinesterase inhibitors work

at all three cholinergic receptors

A 55-year-old female is admitted to the medical unit for complications of long-term, poorly controlled type 2 DM. What should the nurse expect to find in addition to elevated glucose?

atherosclerosis

how do you treat cholinergic crisis

atropine, respiratory support

The nurse assesses a patient for long term complications of diabetes. This assessment includes evaluations for the following. Select all that apply hyperglycemia and diabetic ketoacidosis auscultation of carotids for bruits associated with atherosclerosis. pedal pulse palpation for arterial insufficiency. hypoglycemia, and ketoacidosis. nerve function assessment for peripheral neuropathy.

auscultation of carotids for bruits associated with atherosclerosis. pedal pulse palpation for arterial insufficiency. nerve function assessment for peripheral neuropathy.

What theory is used to describe the cause of endometriosis? a. Obstruction within the fallopian tubes prevents the endometrial tissue from adhering to the lining of the uterus. b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones. c. Inflammation of the endometrial tissue develops after recurrent sexually transmitted diseases. d. Endometrial tissue lies dormant in the uterus until the ovaries produce sufficient hormone to stimulate its growth.

b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones.

Considering the pathophysiologic characteristics of primary amenorrhea, what anatomic structure is involved in compartment IV? a. Vagina b. Hypothalamus c. Ovary d. Anterior pituitary

b. Hypothalamus

What are the common clinical manifestations of endometriosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Back and flank pain b. Infertility c. Dysuria d. Amenorrhea e. Dysmenorrhea

b. Infertility e. Dysmenorrhea

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB), secondary to ovarian dysfunction, is abnormal uterine bleeding resulting from: (Select all that apply.) a. Endometriosis b. Progesterone deficiency c. Sexually transmitted infections d. Congenital abnormalities in the uterine structure e. Estrogen excess

b. Progesterone deficiency e. Estrogen excess

Which of the following conditions would cause the nurse to monitor for hyperkalemia? a. Excess aldosterone b. Acute acidosis c. Insulin usage d. Metabolic alkalosis

b. Acute acidosis Rationale:In acidosis, ECF hydrogen ions shift into the cells in exchange for ICF potassium and sodium; hyperkalemia and acidosis therefore often occur together.

A 25-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, and decreased consciousness. She was previously treated for sinusitis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Aseptic meningitis b. Bacterial meningitis c. Fungal meningitis d. Nonpurulent meningitis

b. Bacterial meningitis

Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering system? a. Protein/fat b. Carbonic acid/bicarbonate c. Sodium/potassium d. Amylase/albumin

b. Carbonic acid/bicarbonate Rationale: The carbonic acid/bicarbonate buffer pair operates in both the lung and the kidney and is a major extracellular buffer.

A 69-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the emergency room (ER) after a month-long episode of headaches and confusion. Based on his alcoholism, a likely cause of his neurologic symptoms is: a. Concussion b. Chronic subdural hematoma c. Epidural hematoma d. Subacute subdural hematoma

b. Chronic subdural hematoma

A 25-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal cortex. Which finding would the nurse expect to see in the lab results? a. Decreased blood volume b. Decreased blood K+ levels c. Increased urine Na+ levels d. Increased white blood cells

b. Decreased blood K+ levels Rationale: Aldosterone is secreted from the adrenal cortex. It promotes renal sodium and water reabsorption and excretion of potassium, leading to decreased potassium levels.

While planning care for elderly individuals, the nurse remembers the elderly are at a higher risk for developing dehydration because they have a(n): a. Higher total body water volume b. Decreased muscle mass c. Increase in thirst d. Increased tendency towards developing edema

b. Decreased muscle mass

A 52-year-old diabetic male presents to the ER with lethargy, confusion, and depressed reflexes. His wife indicates that he does not follow the prescribed diet and takes his medication sporadically. Lab results indicate hyperglycemia. Which assessment finding is most likely to occur? a. Clammy skin b. Decreased sodium c. Decreased urine formation d. Metabolic alkalosis

b. Decreased sodium Rationale: Hypertonic hyponatremia develops with hyperglycemia. Increases in plasma lipids displace water volume and decrease sodium concentration, leading to the symptoms described.

A 23-year-old female begins having problems with tiredness, weakness, and visual changes. Her diagnosis is multiple sclerosis (MS). What is occurring in the patient's body? a. Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system (CNS) b. Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS c. The development of neurofibril webs in the CNS d. Reduced amounts of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

b. Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS

A 15-year-old male is brought to the ER for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. An MRI reveals spinal cord injury, and his body temperature fluctuates markedly. The most accurate explanation of this phenomenon is that: a. He developed pneumonia. b. His sympathetic nervous system has been damaged and thermal control disturbed. c. He has a brain injury. d. He has septicemia from an unknown source.

b. His sympathetic nervous system has been damaged and thermal control disturbed.

A 75-year-old male experienced a lacunar stroke. When looking through the history of the patient's chart, which of the following would the nurse expect to find? a. An embolus b. Hypertension c. A hemorrhage d. An aneurysm

b. Hypertension

Hyperlipidemia and hyperglycemia are associated with: a. Hypernatremia b. Hypertonic hyponatremia c. Hypokalemia d. Acidosis

b. Hypertonic hyponatremia

For a patient experiencing metabolic acidosis, the body will compensate by: a. Excreting H+ through the kidneys b. Hyperventilating c. Retaining CO2 in the lungs d. Secreting aldosterone

b. Hyperventilating Rationale: In an attempt to compensate for metabolic acidosis, the lungs hyperventilate to blow off CO2. It is the lungs hyperventilating that would compensate for metabolic acidosis, not the kidneys. CO2 retention would increase the acidotic state. Aldosterone would conserve water, but does not help compensate for acidosis.

A nurse is teaching the staff about antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which information should the nurse include? Secretion of ADH is stimulated by: a. Increased serum potassium b. Increased plasma osmolality c. Decreased renal blood flow d. Generalized edema

b. Increased plasma osmolality

Which of the following patients should the nurse assess for a decreased oncotic pressure in the capillaries? A patient with: a. A high-protein diet b. Liver failure c. Low blood pressure d. Low blood glucose

b. Liver failure Rationale: Liver failure leads to lost or diminished plasma albumin production, and this contributes to decreased plasma oncotic pressure.

A 39-year-old male suffers a severe brain injury when he falls off a building while working. CT scan reveals that he has a basilar skull fracture. Based upon his injuries, what major complication should the nurse observe for in this patient? a. Hematoma formation b. Meningeal infection c. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) d. Cognitive deficits

b. Meningeal infection

b. Moderate diffuse brain injury

b. Muscle weakness and atrophy

The patient reports generalized muscle weakness. The health care provider orders administration of the medication edrophonium chloride (Tensilon). This medication is used in the diagnosis of: a. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis b. Myasthenia gravis c. MS d. Autonomic hyperreflexia

b. Myasthenia gravis

A 25-year-old male died from a gunshot wound to the heart. Upon autopsy, abnormalities in the media of the arterial wall and degenerative changes were detected. Which of the following most likely accompanied this finding? a. Fusiform aneurysm b. Saccular aneurysm c. Arteriovenous malformation d. Thrombotic stroke

b. Saccular aneurysm

b. Sodium Rationale: Natriuretic hormones are sometimes called a "third factor" in sodium regulation.

A 48-year-old female presents at the ER reporting an acute severe headache, nausea, photophobia, and nuchal rigidity. What does the nurse suspect caused these signs and symptoms? a. Diffuse brain injury b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage c. Epidural hematoma d. Classic concussion

b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

b. Swelling within the spinal cord

A neurologist is teaching about encephalitis. Which information should the neurologist include? Most causes of encephalitis are: a. Bacterial b. Viral c. Fungal d. Toxoid

b. Viral

1. The cause of Guillain-Barré syndrome is: a.fungal infection b. autoimmune disorder c. genetic disorder d. neuromuscular toxin

b. autoimmune disorder Guillain-Barré syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that happens after a patient has a viral or bacterial infection of the respiratory or gastrointestinal system. Fungal infections do not seem to lead to Guillain-Barré syndrome. Neither is it caused by a genetic disorder or a neuromuscular toxin. REF: 381

A 32-year-old male was injured in a motor vehicle accident and confined to bed for 3 weeks. During this time, the size and strength of muscle fibers decreased, a condition referred to as: a. Myodysplasia b. Ischemic atrophy c. Disuse atrophy d. Deconditioning hypoplasia

A 32-year-old obese male begins a jogging routine. A week after beginning, he fractures his leg. This is referred to as a what type of fracture? a. Comminuted b. Greenstick c. Fatigue d. Compound

A 46-year-old male presents with severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the right big toe. He was diagnosed with gouty arthritis. He is at risk for developing: a. Cholelithiasis b. Myocarditis c. Renal stones d. Liver failure

A 54-year-old male was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which of the following is the expected treatment of choice? a. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) b. Gold salts c. Methotrexate d. Hydroxychloroquine

A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture secondary to osteoporosis. This condition is caused by an increase in bone: a. Density b. Formation c. Resorption d. Mineralization

A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis fractures her leg at a location of preexisting abnormality. She reports that the fracture occurred following a minor fall. Which of the following best describes the fracture? a. Fatigue fracture b. Stress fracture c. Pathologic fracture d. Greenstick fracture

A 76-year-old female was diagnosed with osteoporosis by radiologic exam. She is at high risk for: a. Bone infections b. Joint injuries c. Pathologic bone fractures d. Ssteomalacia

A malignant tumor of striated muscle tissue origin is called: a. Myelogenic tumor b. Giant cell tumor c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. Rhabdomyoma

The most common cause of toxic myopathy is: a. Infection b. A tumor c. Alcoholism d. Osteoporosis

Which term is used to identify benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium and are commonly called uterine fibroids? a. Endometrial polyps b. Myometrial polyps c. Leiomyomas d. Myometriomas

c. Leiomyomas

Fluid-filled squishy sacs characterize which breast disorder? a. Paget disease b. Cysts c. Nonproliferative breast lesions d. Lobular carcinoma in situ

c. Nonproliferative breast lesions

A 60-year-old female is diagnosed with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to observe? a. Weak pulse b. Excessive thirst c. Oliguria d. Constipation

c. Oliguria Rationale: Hyperkalemia is manifested by oliguria. Hypokalemia is manifested by a weak pulse; it is not caused by hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia is manifested by excessive thirst. Diarrhea, not constipation, is a manifestation of hyperkalemia.

Which finding would support the diagnosis of respiratory acidosis? a. Vomiting b. Hyperventilation c. Pneumonia d. An increase in noncarbonic acids

c. Pneumonia Rationale: Respiratory acidosis occurs with hypoventilation, and pneumonia leads to hypoventilation. Vomiting leads to loss of acids and then to alkalosis. Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. Metabolic acidosis is caused by an increase in noncarbonic acids.

A 54-year-old male with a long history of smoking complains of excessive tiredness, shortness of breath, and overall ill feelings. Lab results reveal decreased pH, increased CO2, and normal bicarbonate ion. These findings help to confirm the diagnosis of: a. Respiratory alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

c. Respiratory acidosis Rationale: A decreased pH indicates acidosis. With increased CO2, it is respiratory acidosis.

A 50-year-old male presents with low back pain. He denies trauma and says he just woke up and it was hurting. An MRI reveals that the vertebra at L5 slid forward relative to those above and below it. Which of the following conditions will be documented on the chart? a. Degenerative disk disease b. Spondylolysis c. Spondylolisthesis d. Spinal stenosis

c. Spondylolisthesis

A 72-year-old male demonstrates left-sided weakness of upper and lower extremities. The symptoms lasted 4 hours and resolved with no evidence of infarction. The patient most likely experienced a(n): a. Stroke in evolution b. Arteriovenous malformation c. Transient ischemic attack d. Cerebral hemorrhage

c. Transient ischemic attack

When a patient asks what the most common type of renal stones is composed of, how should the nurse respond? The most common type of renal stone is composed of:

calcium.

What diseases should the nurse teach the patient to prevent as it is the ultimate cause of death in the patient with diabetes?

cardiovascular disease

When a patient asks about target cell receptors, which is the nurse's best response Target cell receptors for most water-soluble hormones are located in the: Cytosol Cell membrane Endoplasmic reticulum Nucleus

cell membrane

Acetylcholine

chemical neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system

Which of the following assessment findings would be expected in pulmonary embolism (PE)?

chest pain, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, hemoptysis

alternate name for cholinesterase inhibitors

cholinergic agonists, or anti-cholinesterase agents

A student asks the instructor which of the following is the most potent naturally occurring glucocorticoid. How should the instructor respond Aldosterone Testosterone Cortisol Prolactin

cortisol

A 13-year-old female is admitted to the hospital for evaluation and treatment of an osteosarcoma in her left distal femur. Which statement best describes osteosarcoma? a. Myelogenic, develops in red bone marrow only b. Benign, develops in spongy bone tissue c. Collagenic, originates in the periosteum d. Osteogenic, most often develops in the bone marrow

An 80-year-old male presents with skeletal pain and tenderness, especially in the hips. He is diagnosed with osteomalacia caused by: a. Collagen breakdown in the bone matrix b. Excessive bone resorption c. Crowding of bone marrow by excessive bone growth d. Inadequate bone mineralization

An important and useful clinical measure in the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis is measurement of which laboratory value? a. White blood cell count b. Antinuclear antibodies c. Aspartate aminotransferase d. Creatine kinase (CK)

Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal disorder characterized by: a. Pain resulting from joint and muscle inflammation b. Muscle pain in the back and gastrointestinal symptoms c. Neurologic pain in the skeletal muscles d. Diffuse pain, fatigue, and tender points

Which statement regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is true? a. An episode of mild PID can decrease the possibility of a successful pregnancy by 80%. b. Such an inflammation results in temporary changes to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian tubes. c. PID has not been associated with an increased risk of an ectopic pregnancy. d. Contracting this infection increases the risk of uterine cancer.

d. Contracting this infection increases the risk of uterine cancer.

What is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer? a. Nipple dimpling b. Nipple discharge c. Enlargement of one breast d. Painless lump

d. Painless lump

In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: a. Disruption in the hypothalamus b. Disruption of the pituitary c. Deficit in estrogen or testosterone d. Physiologic hormonal delays

d. Physiologic hormonal delays

What is the leading cause of infertility in women? a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Endometriosis c. Salpingitis d. Polycystic ovary syndrome

d. Polycystic ovary syndrome

A 35-year-old male weighs 70 kg. Approximately how much of this weight is ICF? a. 5 L b. 10 L c. 28 L d. 42 L

d. 42 L

Full recovery from Guillain-Barre syndrome is expected in approximately what percentage of cases? a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 90%

d. 90%

d. A spinal compression fracture

Which statement by a patient indicates teaching was successful regarding myasthenia gravis? Myasthenia gravis results from: a. Viral infection of skeletal muscle b. Atrophy of motor neurons in the spinal cord c. Demyelination of skeletal motor neurons d. Autoimmune injury at the neuromuscular junction

d. Autoimmune injury at the neuromuscular junction

d. Brudzinski's sign

d. Cervical and lumbar regions

Which of the following would increase a patient's risk for thrombotic stroke? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypertension c. Anemia d. Dehydration

d. Dehydration

The nursing student would correctly identify the most common symptom of brain abscess as: a. Nuchal rigidity b. Vomiting c. Drowsiness d. Headache

d. Headache

Which of the following patients is most prone to hypochloremia? A patient with: a. Hypernatremia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Increased bicarbonate intake

d. Increased bicarbonate intake Rationale: Hypochloremia is the result of elevated bicarbonate concentration, as occurs in metabolic alkalosis.

An experiment was designed to test the effects of the Starling forces on fluid movement. Which of the following alterations would result in fluid moving into the interstitial space? a. Increased capillary oncotic pressure b. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure c. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure d. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure

d. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure

An infant is diagnosed with non-communicating hydrocephalus. An immediate concern for this patient is:

interstitial oedema;

Which nutrient would the nurse encourage the patient to consume for thyroid hormone synthesis Zinc Sodium Iodine Calcium

iodine

Which nutrient would the nurse encourage the patient to consume for thyroid hormone synthesis?

iodine

A peptic ulcer may occur in all of the following areas except the:

jejunum.

A 30-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a hospital unit for the surgical removal of her thyroid gland. During the postoperative period the nurse notes that the patient's serum calcium is low. The nurse should observe that patient for what sign and symptoms?

laryngeal spasms and hyperrelexia

if a patient has a problem with the pineal gland, what substance would the nurse monitor?

melatonin

Clinical manifestations of headache, positive Kernig sign, petechiael rash and photophobia are indicative of:

meningitus

mental retardation and stunted growth

A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state? Coma vegetative minimally conscious Locked-in syndrome

minimally conscious

A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with thyroid carcinoma. The lab tests the nurse would most likely find are _______ T3 and T4 levels:

normal

10. Your Guillain-Barré syndrome patient was placed on mechanical ventilation when respiratory failure appeared imminent. She is now stable. Her chest radiograph will most likely show: enlarged heart pleural effusion normal lung fields pneumonia

normal lung fields The patient's chest radiograph should show normal lung fields unless there is a complicating cardiopulmonary problem. None is mentioned. REF: 383

A patient diagnosed with thyroid carcinoma would be expected to have T3 and T4 levels that are:

normal.

Visual disturbances are a common occurrence in patients with untreated Graves disease. The endocrinologist explains to the patient that the main cause of these complications is:

orbital edema and protrusion of the eyeball

Mrs. Johnson is admitted to your unit with tachycardia, fever, agitation, and diarrhea. Her assessment revealed hyperplasia of the thyroid gland and elevated triiodo-L-thyronine (T3). She also reports that she has been very upset at the recent death of her mother. Her diagnosis is Graves disease and thyrotoxic crisis. Graves disease develops from a(n):

thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones.

what does the alpha 2 receptor do

vasodilation, effecting brain function

5. Guillain-Barré syndrome: 1. is usually preceded by an infection 2. is caused by inadequate acetylcholine (ACH) 3. presents as a descending paralysis starting at the body 4. presents as an ascending paralysis starting in the legs 1 2 2 and 3 1 and 4

1 and 4 Guillain-Barré syndrome is preceded by an infection and usually presents as an ascending paralysis starting in the legs. The paralysis may also start in the arms or facial muscles but never starts in the body. REF: 381-382

4. Your patient has an infection caused by Campylobacter jejuni. Her physician is concerned about the possible development of Guillain-Barré syndrome. If this disease were to occur, when would it appear after this current infection? 1 to 7 days 1 to 4 weeks 1 to 2 months > 2 months

1 to 4 weeks Guillain-Barré syndrome usually appears 1 to 4 weeks after a patient has a viral or bacterial infection of the respiratory or gastrointestinal system. REF: 381

6. A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome has been placed in the intensive care unit. Initial treatment should include: 1. assessment of breathing 2. mechanical ventilation 3. supportive care 4. stabilizing vital signs 1, 2 3, 4 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4

1, 3, 4 It is initially important to support the patient, assess his/her breathing, and stabilize the vital signs. Mechanical ventilation would only be instituted if the patient was in respiratory failure. REF: 383

A compensatory alteration in the diameter of cerebral blood vessels in response to increased intracranial pressure is called _____. A. Herniation. B. Vasodilation. C. Autoregulation. D. Amyotrophy.

An imbalance of potassium can produce which dysfunction? (Select all that apply) A. Weakness of skeletal muscles B. Cardiac dysrhythmias C. Smooth muscle atony D. Visual impairment E. Hearing loss

A, B, C

The electrolyte imbalance hypokalemia exhibits which clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply) A. Paralytic ileus B. Sinus bradycardia C. Atrioventricular block D. Dry mucous membranes E. Tetany

A, B, C

The nurse would anticipate the patient with syndrome of inappropriate ADH to demonstrate which of the following symptoms (select all that apply) a. weakness b. nausea c. headache d. muscle twitching e. weight loss

A, B, C, D

A, B, C, D Rationale: Secretion of ADH leads to water intoxication with symptoms of cerebral edema, with confusion and convulsions; weakness; nausea; muscle twitching; headache; and weight gain, not loss.

A third of the body's fluid is contained in the extracellular interstitial fluid spaces that include (Select all that apply) A. Urine B. Intraocular fluids C. Lymph D. Blood plasma E. Sweat

A, B, C, E

The nurse would anticipate the patient with syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) to demonstrate which of the following symptoms? (Select all that apply.) a. Weakness b. Nausea c. Headache d. Weight loss e. Muscle twitching

A, B, C, E Rationale: Weakness, nausea, muscle twitching, headache, and weight gain, not loss, are common symptoms of chronic water accumulation.

Edema does not affect the secretion of ADH. A 60 year old male with a 30 year history of smoking is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting lung tumor. Further testing indicates that the tumor secretes ADH. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect? A. Weakness B. Weight loss C. Confusion D. Muscle twitching E. Nausea

A, C, D, E

Which statements regarding total body water (TBW) are true? (Select all that apply) A. During childhood, TBW slowly decreases in relationship to body weight B. Gender has no influence on TBW until old age C. Men tend to have greater TBW as a result of their muscle mass D. Estrogen plays a role in female TBW E. Older adults experience a decrease in TBW as a result of decreased muscle mass

A, C, D, E

A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis. A. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Neutrophils

A. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because carbonic acid and bicarbonate exist in a ratio of: A. 20:1 B. 10:2 C. 1:20 D. 10:5

A. 20:1

A nurse recalls posthemorrhagic anemia can result in death when a patient's blood loss is in excess of: A. 40% to 49% B. 20% to 29% C. 30% to 39% D. 50% to 59%

A. 40% to 49%

Which arterial pH will initiate the formation of ammonium (NH4) from ammonia (NH3), referred to as academia, in the tubular lumen of the kidney? A. 7.25 B. 7.55 C. 7.35 D. 7.65

A. 7.25

A 15-year-old female presents with breast discharge, dysmenorrhea, and excessive excitability. Tests reveal that all her pituitary hormones are elevated. What does the nurse suspect as the most likely cause for these assessment findings? A. A pituitary adenoma B. Pheochromocytoma C. Hypothalamic inflammation D. Hypothalamic hyposecretion

A. A pituitary adenoma

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because A. Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling B. The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults C. The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults D. The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively

A. Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling

A nurse checks lab results as both Cushing syndrome and Addison disease can manifest with elevated levels of: A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) B. ADH C. Cortisol D. Aldosterone

A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Which statement indicates teaching was successful regarding the classic pathway of the complement system? The classic pathway of the complement system is activated by: A. Antigen-antibody complexes B. Prostaglandins C. Histamine D. Leukotrienes

A. Antigen-antibody complexes

Which of the following is responsible for initiating clonal selection? A. Antigens B. T cells C. B cells D. Lymphocytes

A. Antigens

A 30-year-old male is having difficulty breathing and has been spitting blood. He reports that he began experiencing this reaction after cleaning his pigeons' cages. Testing reveals he is suffering from allergic alveolitis. Which of the following is he experiencing? A. Arthus reaction B. Raynaud phenomenon C. Serum sickness D. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity

A. Arthus reaction

A common pathway of irreversible cell injury involves increased intracellular: A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Magnesium D. Potassium

A. Calcium

Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure? A. Capillary hydrostatic B. Capillary oncotic C. Interstitial hydrostatic D. Interstitial oncotic

A. Capillary hydrostatic

A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with: A. Chemotherapy B. Bone marrow transplant C. Localized radiation therapy D. Immunotherapy

A. Chemotherapy

In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because: A. Clotting factors are depleted. B. Prothrombin is activated. C. Inflammatory mediators are released. D. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.

A. Clotting factors are depleted.

A 30-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident. The glass from the shattered window cut his face and neck. The scar, however, was raised and extended beyond the original boundaries of the wound. This pattern of scarring is caused by impaired: A. Collagen synthesis B. Epithelialization C. Contraction D. Nutritional status

A. Collagen synthesis

The nurse is reviewing the lab data of a newly admitted patient. The nurse notes the patient had an erythrocyte sedimentation done, and the results are quite elevated. The nurse would focus the care plan on which of the following conditions? A. Inflammation B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Anemia D. Infection

A. Inflammation

For a patient with respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by the body will include A. Kidney excretion of H+ B. Kidney excretion of HCO3 C. Prolonged expirations to blow off CO2 D. Protein buffering

A. Kidney excretion of H+

A 10 year old male is brought to the ER incoherent and semiconscious. CT scan reveals that his is suffering from cerebral edema. This type of edema is referred to as A. Localized edema B. Generalized edema C. Pitting edema D. Lympedema

A. Localized edema

How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis? A. Loss of chloride causes retention of bicarbonate to maintain the anion balance B. Loss of chloride stimulates the release of aldosterone, which causes the retained sodium to bind with the chloride C. Loss of chloride causes hypoventilation to compensate for the metabolic alkalosis D. Loss of chloride cause hydrogen to move into the cell and exchange with potassium to maintain cation balance

A. Loss of chloride causes retention of bicarbonate to maintain the anion balance

A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand? A. Neutrophils B. Leukotrienes C. Monocytes D. Eosinophils

A. Neutrophils

Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined by A. Osmotic forces B. Plasma oncotic pressure C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Buffer system

A. Osmotic forces

What common neurologic disturbances should the nurse assess for in a patient with a pituitary adenoma? A. Visual disturbances B. Coma C. Confused states D. Breathing abnormalities

A. Visual disturbances

How does the body reestablish equilibrium when solute is added to extracellular fluid making it hypertonic? A. Water is drawn from the intracellular space to the extracellular space B. Water is drawn from the extracellular space to the intracellular space C. Sodium is drawn from the intracellular space to the extracellular space D. Sodium is drawn from the extracellular space to the intracellular space

A. Water is drawn from the intracellular space to the extracellular space

A. Weakness B. Confusion C. Muscle twitching D. Nausea

A nurse recalls neural systems basic to cognitive functions include _____ systems. (Select all that apply.) a. Attentional b. Memory and language c. Affective d. Sensory and motor e. Tactile

ABC

The nurse is explaining clinical manifestations of alterations in the extrapyramidal system. The nurse would correctly include (select all that apply): a. Little or no paralysis of voluntary movement b. Normal or slightly increased tendon reflexes c. Positive (present) Babinski d. Presence of tremor e. Rigidity in muscle tone

ABDE

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action? a. Histamine bound to H2 b. Chemotactic factor binding to the receptor c. Epinephrine bound to mast cells d. Acetylcholine bound to mast cells

ANS: A Histamine bound to H2 results in the degranulation of mast cells during an IgE-medicated hypersensitivity reaction. The other options do not cause this reaction.

In a woman with endometriosis, endemterial tissue that responds to hormonal changes of the menstrual cycle may be found in the lungs? True or False

True

ANS: A Hypertonic (hyperosmolar) imbalances result in an extracellular fluid concentration greater than 0.9% salt solution (e.g., water loss or solute gain); cells shrink in a hypertonic fluid

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells' resting membrane potential? a. Hypopolarization b. Hyperexcitability c. Depolarization d. Repolarization

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because: a. Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling. b. The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults. c. The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults. d. The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.

ANS: A The percentage of total body water (TBW) varies with the amount of body fat and age.

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of: a. 20:1 b. 1:20 c. 10:2 d. 10:5

ANS: A The relationship between HCO3 and H2CO3 is usually expressed as a ratio.

Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure? a. Capillary hydrostatic b. Interstitial hydrostatic c. Capillary oncotic d. Interstitial oncotic

ANS: A Venous obstruction can increase the hydrostatic pressure of fluid in the capillaries enough to cause fluid to escape into the interstitial spaces.

Which statement is a description of the characteristics of apoptosis? a. Programmed cell death of scattered, single cells b. Characterized by swelling of the nucleus and cytoplasm c. Unpredictable patterns of cell death d. Results in benign malignancies

ANS: A Apoptosis is an active process of cellular self-destruction, also known as programmed cell death, which is implicated in normal and pathologic tissue changes. The remaining options do not accurately describe the characteristics of apoptosis

What is an example of compensatory hyperplasia? a. Hepatic cells increase cell division after part of the liver is excised. b. Skeletal muscle cells atrophy as a result of paralysis. c. The heart muscle enlarges as a result of hypertension. d. The size of the uterus increases during pregnancy.

ANS: A Compensatory hyperplasia is an adaptive mechanism that enables certain organs to regenerate. For example, the removal of part of the liver leads to hyperplasia of the remaining liver cells (hepatocytes) to compensate for the loss. The other options do not accurately describe the term compensatory hyperplasia.

When mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, the erythrocytes are destroyed by: a. Complement-mediated cell lysis c. Phagocytosis in the spleen b. Phagocytosis by macrophages d. Natural killer cells

ANS: A Erythrocytes are destroyed by complement-mediated lysis in individuals with autoimmune hemolytic anemia or as a result of an alloimmune reaction to ABO-mismatched transfused blood cells. The other options are not involved in an ABO incompatibility reaction

It is true that nondividing cells are: a. Found in gastrointestinal lining c. Incapable of synthesizing DNA b. Affected by hyperplasia d. Affected by only hypertrophy

ANS: A Gastrointestinal lining is made up of rapidly dividing cells. Hyperplasia and hypertrophy take place if the cells are capable of synthesizing DNA; however, only hypertrophy occurs in nondividing cells.

After ovulation, the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen. This process is an example of hormonal: a. Hyperplasia c. Hypertrophy b. Dysplasia d. Anaplasia

ANS: A Hormonal hyperplasia chiefly occurs in estrogen-dependent organs, such as the uterus and breast. After ovulation, for example, estrogen stimulates the endometrium to grow and thicken for reception of the fertilized ovum. The other options do not accurately describe the process identified in the question

Individuals with chronic hepatitis C are at increased risk for chronic liver disease

True

Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to: a. Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation b. Mast cells that are bound to specific endothelial receptors, causing them to degranulate and creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation c. Cytotoxic T cells that attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues d. Antibodies that detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species

ANS: A Raynaud phenomenon is a condition caused by the temperature-dependent deposition of immune complexes in the capillary beds of the peripheral circulation. None of the other options are involved in causing this condition.

Graves disease (hyperthyroidism) is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction? a. Modulation b. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity c. Neutrophil-mediated damage d. Complement-mediated lysis

ANS: A The antibody reacts with the receptors on the target cell surface and modulates the function of the receptor by preventing interactions with their normal ligands, replacing the ligand and inappropriately stimulating the receptor or destroying the receptor. For example, in the hyperthyroidism (excessive thyroid activity) of Graves disease, autoantibody binds to and activates receptors for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (a pituitary hormone that controls the production of the hormone thyroxine by the thyroid). The other options are not examples of type II hypersensitivity reactions.

The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? a. IgE c. IgM b. IgG d. T cells

ANS: A Type I reactions are mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1). The most common allergies (e.g., pollen allergies) are type I reactions. In addition, most type I reactions occur against environmental antigens and are therefore allergic. The other options do not accurately identify the mediation factor related to hay fever.

Causes of hypocalcemia include: (Select all that apply.) a. Repeated blood administration b. Pancreatitis c. Decreased reabsorption of calcium d. Hyperparathyroidism e. Kidney stones

ANS: A, B Blood transfusions are a common cause of hypocalcemia because the citrate solution used in storing whole blood binds with calcium.

Causes of hypocalcemia include: (Select all that apply.) a. Repeated blood administration b. Pancreatitis c. Decreased reabsorption of calcium d. Hyperparathyroidism e. Kidney stones

ANS: A, B Blood transfusions are a common cause of hypocalcemia because the citrate solution used in storing whole blood binds with calcium. Pancreatitis causes a release of lipases into soft-tissue spaces; consequently, the free fatty acids that are formed bind calcium, causing a decrease in ionized calcium. The other options are not recognized causes of hypocalcemia.

An imbalance of potassium can produce which dysfunctions? (Select all that apply.) a. Weakness skeletal muscles b. Cardiac dysrhythmias c. Smooth muscle atony d. Visual impairment e. Hearing loss

ANS: A, B, C Symptoms of hyperkalemia vary, but common characteristics are muscle weakness or paralysis and dysrhythmias with changes in the ECG.

ANS: A, B, C A variety of dysrhythmias may occur, including sinus bradycardia, atrioventricular block, paroxysmal atrial tachycardia, and paralytic ileus. The other options are not related to hypokalemia.

An imbalance of potassium can produce which dysfunctions? (Select all that apply.) a. Weakness skeletal muscles b. Cardiac dysrhythmias c. Smooth muscle atony d. Visual impairment e. Hearing loss

ANS: A, B, C Symptoms of hyperkalemia vary, but common characteristics are muscle weakness or paralysis and dysrhythmias with changes in the ECG. A wide range of metabolic dysfunctions may result from hypokalemia. Neuromuscular excitability is decreased, causing skeletal muscle weakness, smooth muscle atony, and cardiac dysrhythmias

Which disorders are considered autoimmune? (Select all that apply.) a. Crohn disease d. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Addison disease e. Noninsulin-dependent diabetes c. Rheumatoid arthritis

ANS: A, B, C, D Crohn disease, Addison disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all diseases that result from autoimmune pathologic conditions. Insulin-dependent diabetes is also an autoimmune disorder, but noninsulin-dependent diabetes is not.

A third of the body's fluid is contained in the extracellular interstitial fluid spaces that include: (Select all that apply.) a. Urine b. Intraocular fluids c. Lymph d. Blood plasma e. Sweat

ANS: A, B, C, E Two thirds of the body's water is in the intracelluarl fluid (ICF) compartment, and one third is in the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartments.

Individuals with chronic hepatitis C are at increased risk for chronic liver disease.

True

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the: a. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure. b. Capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure. c. Interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure. d. Capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

ANS: B At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial because capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

It is true that Kussmaul respirations indicate: a. Anxiety is a cause of respiratory acidosis. b. A compensatory measure is needed to correct metabolic acidosis. c. Diabetic ketoacidosis is the cause of the metabolic acidosis. d. More oxygen is necessary to compensate for respiratory acidosis.

ANS: B Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) are indicative of respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis.

What mechanism can cause hypernatremia? a. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone b. Hypersecretion of aldosterone c. Brief bouts of vomiting or diarrhea d. Excessive diuretic therapy

ANS: B Hypernatremia occurs because of (1) inadequate free water intake, (2) inappropriate administration of hypertonic saline solution , (3) high sodium levels as a result of oversecretion of aldosterone, or (4) Cushing syndrome

The existence of hyperkalemia is likely to result in which changes to a person's electrocardiogram (ECG)? a. Flattened U waves b. Peaked T waves c. Depressed ST segments d. Peaked P waves

ANS: B Observed ECG changes include peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, and absent P wave with a widened QRS complex.

The most common cause of hypermagnesemia is: a. Hepatitis b. Renal failure c. Trauma to the hypothalamus d. Pancreatitis

ANS: B Renal failure usually causes hypermagnesemia, in which magnesium concentration is greater than 2.5 mEq/L.

Individuals with chronic hepatitis C are at increased risk for chronic liver disease. True or false

True

An excessive use of magnesium-containing antacids and aluminum-containing antacids can result in: a. Hypomagnesemia b. Hypophosphatemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypokalemia

ANS: B The most common causes of hypophosphatemia are intestinal malabsorption and increased renal excretion of phosphate.

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between: a. Intracellular and extracellular Na+ b. Intracellular and extracellular K+ c. Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+ d. Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

ANS: B The ratio of K+ in the ICF to K+ in the ECF is the major determinant of the resting membrane potential, which is necessary for the transmission and conduction of nerve impulses, for the maintenance of normal cardiac rhythms, and for the skeletal and smooth muscle contraction.

The calcium and phosphate balance is influenced by which three substances? a. Parathyroid hormone, vasopressin, and vitamin D b. Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D c. Thyroid hormone, vasopressin, and vitamin A d. Thyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin A

ANS: B Three hormones regulate calcium and phosphate balance: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin. Vasopressin, thyroid hormone, and vitamin A do not influence calcium and phosphate balance.

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: a. Potassium moves out of the cell, and potassium and sodium are inversely related. b. The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in ATP levels. c. The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane. d. Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

ANS: B A reduction in ATP levels causes the plasma membrane's sodium-potassium (Na+-K+) pump and sodium-calcium exchange to fail, which leads to an intracellular accumulation of sodium and calcium and diffusion of potassium out of the cell. (The Na+-K+ pump is discussed in Chapter 1.)

Parietal pain is diffuse because nerve endings in the abd organs are sparse and multi-segmented. True or false

True

Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following? a. Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators b. Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues c. Tc cells or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets d. Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface

ANS: B Antigen-antibody (immune) complexes that are formed in the circulation and then deposited later in vessel walls or extravascular tissues (see Figure 9-3) cause most type III hypersensitivity diseases. The other options do not cause this type of reaction.

Which statement is true concerning an atopic individual? a. They tend to produce less IgE. b. They tend to produce more Fc receptors. c. They tend to attract very few mast cells. d. They tend to produce very high levels of IgM

ANS: B Atopic individuals tend to produce higher quantities of IgE and have more Fc receptors for IgE on their mast cells. The other available options are not true.

What type of necrosis is often associated with pulmonary tuberculosis? a. Bacteriologic c. Liquefactive b. Caseous d. Gangrenous

ANS: B Caseous necrosis, which commonly results from tuberculous pulmonary infection, particularly Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is a combination of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis. The other types of necrosis are not observed in pulmonary tuberculosis

ANS: B Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) are indicative of respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis. The other options are not true.

A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called: a. Hemolytic shock c. Necrotizing vasculitis b. Anaphylaxis d. Systemic erythematosu

ANS: B Examples of systemic anaphylaxis are allergic reactions to beestings, peanuts, and fish. The other options are not accurate examples of hypersensitivity.

What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells? a. Coagulative c. Caseous b. Liquefactive d. Gangrene

ANS: B Liquefactive necrosis commonly results from ischemic injury to neurons and glial cells in the brain. The other types of necrosis are not related to ischemic injuries in the brain.

Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining have been replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells? a. Hyperplasia c. Dysplasia b. Metaplasia d. Anaplasia

ANS: B Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell by another, sometimes a less differentiated cell type. The best example of metaplasia is the replacement of normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial (airway) lining by stratified squamous epithelial cells. The other options do not accurately describe the event in the question.

The existence of hyperkalemia is likely to result in which changes to a person's electrocardiogram (ECG)? a. Flattened U waves c. Depressed ST segments b. Peaked T waves d. Peaked P waves

ANS: B Observed ECG changes include peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, and absent P wave with a widened QRS complex. The other options are not related to hyperkalemia.

Blood transfusion reactions are an example of: a. Autoimmunity c. Homoimmunity b. Alloimmunity d. Hypersensitivity

ANS: B Only alloimmunity (also termed isoimmunity) occurs when the immune system of one individual produces an immunologic reaction against tissues of another individual.

The most common cause of hypermagnesemia is: a. Hepatitis c. Trauma to the hypothalamus b. Renal failure d. Pancreatitis

ANS: B Renal failure usually causes hypermagnesemia, in which magnesium concentration is greater than 2.5 mEq/L. Hypermagnesemia is not a result of the other options

An excessive use of magnesium-containing antacids and aluminum-containing antacids can result in: a. Hypomagnesemia b. Hypophosphatemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypokalemia

ANS: B The most common causes of hypophosphatemia are intestinal malabsorption and increased renal excretion of phosphate. Inadequate absorption is associated with vitamin D deficiency, the use of magnesium and aluminum-containing antacids (which bind with phosphorus), long-term alcohol abuse, and malabsorption syndromes. The excessive use of such antacids will not result in the other options.

Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? a. IgA c. IgG b. IgE d. IgM

ANS: B Type I reactions are only mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1).

Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response? a. IgG c. IgA b. IgM d. IgE

ANS: B Typically, IgM is produced first (primary immune response), followed by IgG against the same antigen. The other options are not involved.

What type of necrosis is associated with wet gangrene? a. Coagulative c. Caseous b. Liquefactive d. Gangrene

ANS: B Wet gangrene develops only when neutrophils invade the site, causing liquefactive necrosis.

When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs? a. T-cell immunity c. Fetal immunity b. Alloimmunity d. Autoimmunity

ANS: B Alloimmunity occurs when an individual's immune system reacts against antigens on the tissues of other members of the same species. Sensitization against fetal antigens is not the cause of any other available option

Retention of sodium and water is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure? A. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure B. Capillary hydrostatic pressure C. Interstitial oncotic pressure D. Capillary oncotic pressure

B. Capillary hydrostatic pressure

The electrolyte imbalance hypercalcemia exhibits which clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.) a. Diarrhea b. Calcium based kidney stones c. ECG showing narrow T waves d. Lethargy e. Bradycardia

ANS: B, D, E Fatigue, weakness, lethargy, anorexia, nausea, and constipation are common. Behavioral changes may occur.

Which groups are at risk for fluid imbalance? (Select all that apply.) a. Women b. Infants c. Men d. Obese persons e. Older adults

ANS: B, D, E Kidney function, surface area, total body water, and the hydrophobic nature of fat cells all contribute to the increased risk for fluid imbalance among obese individuals, infants, and older adults.

ANS: B, D, E Fatigue, weakness, lethargy, anorexia, nausea, and constipation are common. Behavioral changes may occur. Impaired renal function frequently develops, and kidney stones form as precipitates of calcium salts. A shortened QT segment and depressed widened T waves also may be observed on the ECG, with bradycardia and varying degrees of heart block

When a tuberculin skin test is positive, the hard center and erythema surrounding the induration are a result of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Histamine d. Products of complement b. T lymphocytes e. Macrophages c. Immune complexes

ANS: B, E The reaction site is infiltrated with only T lymphocytes and macrophages, resulting in a clear hard center (induration) and a reddish surrounding area (erythema)

Renal colic is the principal symptom of renal stones. True or false

True

Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infant's: a. High body surface-to-body size ratio b. Slow metabolic rate c. Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses d. Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty

ANS: C Renal mechanisms that regulate fluid and electrolyte conservation are often not mature enough to counter the losses; consequently, dehydration may rapidly develop.

A patient's blood gases reveal the following findings: pH, 7.3; bicarbonate (HCO3) 27 mEq/L; carbon dioxide (CO2), 58 mm Hg. What is the interpretation of these gases? a. Respiratory alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

ANS: C The values provided in this question characterize only acute uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypercalcemia

ANS: C Two clinical signs of hypocalcemia are the Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign.

Two thirds of the body's water is found in its: a. Interstitial fluid spaces b. Vascular system c. Intracellular fluid compartments d. Intraocular fluids

ANS: C Two thirds of the body's water is in the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment, and one third is in the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment.

Vomiting-induced metabolic alkalosis, resulting in the loss of chloride, causes: a. Retained sodium to bind with the chloride b. Hydrogen to move into the cell and exchange with potassium to maintain cation balance c. Retention of bicarbonate to maintain the anion balance d. Hypoventilation to compensate for the metabolic alkalosis

When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, the blood cells are destroyed by: a. Complement-mediated cell lysis b. Phagocytosis by macrophages c. Phagocytosis in the spleen d. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

ANS: C Antibodies against platelet-specific antigens or against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system coat those cells at low density, resulting in their preferential removal by phagocytosis in the spleen, rather than by complement-mediated lysis. The other options do not cause this reaction.

What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? a. Greater quantities of histamine c. Greater quantities of IgE b. More histamine receptors d. A deficiency in epinephrine

ANS: C Atopic individuals tend to produce higher quantities of IgE and to have more crystalline fragment (Fc) receptors for IgE on their mast cells. The other options do not cause this reaction.

Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing compensatory: a. Atrophy c. Hyperplasia b. Metaplasia d. Dysplasia

ANS: C Compensatory hyperplasia is an adaptive mechanism that enables certain organs to regenerate. For example, the removal of part of the liver leads to hyperplasia of the remaining liver cells (hepatocytes) to compensate for the loss. The other options do not accurately identify the compensatory process described in the question.

In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of: a. Cytotoxic T cells c. Complement activation b. Natural killer cells d. Degranulation of mast cells

ANS: C Complement activation, particularly through the generation of chemotactic factors for neutrophils, causes the harmful effects of immune complex deposition. The neutrophils bind to antibody and C3b contained in the complexes and attempt to ingest the immune complexes. Type III hypersensitivity reactions as described are not the result of any of the other option

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? a. Bronchial edema caused by the chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis b. Bronchial edema caused by binding of the cytotropic antibody c. Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors d. Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H2 receptors

ANS: C During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, only smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors results in bronchospasms.

Dysplasia refers to a(n): a. Abnormal increase in the number of a specific cell type b. True adaptive process at the cellular level c. Modification in the shape of a specific cell type d. Lack of oxygen at the cellular level

ANS: C Dysplasia refers only to abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells.

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of: a. Complement-mediated cell lysis b. Phagocytosis by macrophages c. Phagocytosis in the spleen d. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

ANS: D Of the options available, only the components of neutrophil granules damage the tissue

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, an increase in the osmotic pressure occurs within the cell because: a. Plasma proteins enter the cell. b. The adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)-driven pump is stronger during hypoxia. c. Sodium chloride enters the cell. d. An influx of glucose occurs through the injured cell membranes.

ANS: C In hypoxic injury, movement of fluid and ions into the cell is associated with acute failure of metabolism and a loss of ATP production. Normally, the pump that transports sodium ions out of the cell is maintained by the presence of ATP and ATPase, the active-transport enzyme. In metabolic failure caused by hypoxia, reduced ATP and ATPase levels permit sodium to accumulate in the cell, whereas potassium diffuses outward. The increase of intracellular sodium increases osmotic pressure, which draws more water into the cell. (Transport mechanisms are described in Chapter 1.) The remaining options do not accurately describe the cell injury that results in increased osmotic pressure caused by hypoxia.

During acidosis, the body compensates for the increase in serum hydrogen ions by shifting hydrogen ions into the cell in exchange for which electrolyte? a. Oxygen b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Magnesium

ANS: C In states of acidosis, hydrogen ions shift into the cells in exchange for intracellular fluid potassium; hyperkalemia and acidosis therefore often occur together. This is not true of the other options.

Graves disease is a result of: a. Increased levels of circulating immunoglobulins b. The infiltration of the thyroid with T lymphocytes c. Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites d. Exposure to acetylates in substances such as rubber

ANS: C In the hyperthyroidism (excessive thyroid activity) of Graves disease, autoantibody binds to and activates receptors for TSH (a pituitary hormone that controls the production of the hormone thyroxine by the thyroid). The other options do not accurately describe the cause of Graves disease.

ANS: C Insulin contributes to the regulation of plasma potassium levels by stimulating the Na+, potassium-adenosine triphosphatase (K+-ATPase) pump, thereby promoting the movement of potassium simultaneously into the liver and muscle cells with glucose transport after eating. The intracellular movement of potassium prevents an acute hyperkalemia related to food intake. The other options do not accurately describe how insulin is used to treat hyperkalemia

ANS: C The values provided in this question characterize only acute uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypercalcemia

ANS: C Two clinical signs of hypocalcemia are the Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign. These clinical signs are not indicative of any of the other options.

A type IV hypersensitivity reaction causes which result? a. Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators b. Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues c. Lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets d. Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface

ANS: C Types I, II, and III hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by antibody, type IV reactions are mediated by T lymphocytes and do not involve antibody. Type IV mechanisms occur through either Tc cells or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells. Tc cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

ANS: C When vomiting with the depletion of ECF and chloride (hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis) causes acid loss, renal compensation is not effective; the volume depletion and loss of electrolytes (sodium [Na+], potassium [K+], hydrogen [H+], chlorine [Cl-]) stimulate a paradoxic response by the kidneys. The kidneys increase sodium and bicarbonate reabsorption with the excretion of hydrogen. Bicarbonate is reabsorbed to maintain an anionic balance because the ECF chloride concentration is decreased. The other options do not accurately describe the mechanism that results from vomiting-induced metabolic alkalosis.

Where are antibodies produced? a. Helper T lymphocytes c. Plasma cells b. Thymus gland d. Bone marrow

ANS: C An antibody or immunoglobulin is a serum glycoprotein produced only by plasma cells in response to a challenge by an immunogen.

What organs are affected by the type of necrosis that results from either severe ischemia or chemical injury? (Select all that apply.) a. Lungs b. Brain c. Kidneys d. Muscles e. Heart

ANS: C, E Coagulative necrosis, which occurs primarily in the kidneys, heart, and adrenal glands, is a common result of hypoxia from severe ischemia or hypoxia caused by chemical injury, especially the ingestion of mercuric chloride. The other options do not accurately identify organs affected by necrosis resulting from ischemia or chemical injury.

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of: a. Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin b. Inflammation resulting from an immune response c. Blockage within the lymphatic channel system d. Sodium and water retention

ANS: D Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure can result from venous obstruction or sodium and water retention.

The pathophysiologic process of edema is related to which mechanism? a. Sodium depletion b. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure c. Increased plasma oncotic pressure d. Lymphatic obstruction

ANS: D The pathophysiologic process of edema is related to an increase in the forces favoring fluid filtration from the capillaries or lymphatic channels into the tissues.

Thirst activates osmoreceptors by an increase in which blood plasma? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Hydrostatic pressure d. Osmotic pressure

ANS: D Thirst is experienced when water loss equals 2% of an individual's body weight or when osmotic pressure increases.

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces? a. Oncotic pressure b. Buffering c. Net filtration d. Hydrostatic pressure

ANS: D Water moves between the plasma and interstitial fluid through the forces of only osmosis and hydrostatic pressure, which occur across the capillary membrane.

Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced? a. Angiotensin I b. Angiotensin II c. Aldosterone d. Renin

ANS: D When circulating blood volume or blood pressure is reduced, renin, an enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney, is released in response to sympathetic nerve stimulation and decreased perfusion of the renal vasculature.

The body's inability to conserve water and sodium when affected by Addison disease is explained by which of the following conditions?

Aldosterone deficiency

Smoking is a risk factor for bladder and kidney CAs. True or false

True

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions? a. Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators. b. Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues. c. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets. d. Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

ANS: D The mechanism that results in a type II hypersensitivity reaction begins with antibody binding to tissue-specific antigens or antigens that have attached to particular tissues. The cell can be destroyed by antibody IgG or IgM and activation of the complement cascade through the classical pathwa

How are target cells destroyed in a type II hypersensitivity reaction? a. Complement-mediated cell lysis b. Phagocytosis by macrophages c. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products d. Natural killer cells

ANS: D The mechanism that results in a type II hypersensitivity reaction involves a subpopulation of cytotoxic cells that are not antigen specific (natural killer [NK] cells). Antibody on the target cell is recognized by Fc receptors on the NK cells, which releases toxic substances that destroy the target cell. The other options do not cause the destruction of target cells related to a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

Urticaria are a manifestation of a which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. IV c. II b. III d. I

ANS: D Urticaria, or hives, is a dermal (skin) manifestation of only type I allergic reactions.

A nurse is discussing endocrine system dysfunction with a patient. Which statement indicates the patient understood? Endocrine system dysfunction can result from hyposecretion, hypersecretion, or from:

Abnormal receptor activity

Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?

Abnormal uterine bleeding

Which statement is true regarding TBI About 1.7 million head injuries occur each yr in the US The greatest risk of TBI occurs in those between 19-65 20% of head injuries are mild 80% of head injuries are severe

About 1.7 million head injuries occur each year in the US

A 26-year-old female recently underwent surgery and is now experiencing dyspnea, cough, fever, and leukocytosis. Tests reveal that she has a collapsed lung caused by removal of air from obstructed alveoli. What condition will the nurse observe on the chart?

Absorption atelectasis

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to hepatic encephalopathy?

Accumulation of short-chain fatty acids attaches to ammonia

Which of the following is false regarding the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to hepatic encephalopathy?

Accumulation of short-chain fatty acids attaches to ammonia

Which is a cause of functional dysphagia? Tumor Stricture Herniations Achalasia

Achalasia

Which factors help maintain the self-cleansing action of the vagina? (Select all that apply) Acid-base balance that discourages the proliferation of most pathogenic bacteria Thickness of the vaginal epithelium Low estrogen level Excess of Lactobacillus acidophilus Basic pH levles

Acid-base balance that discourages the proliferation of most pathogenic bacteria and thichness of the vaginal epithelium

Acidosis

A 19-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting restlessness, muscle cramping, and diarrhea. Lab tests reveal that he is hyperkalemic. Which of the following could have caused his condition? Diuretic use Insulin secretion Acidosis Primary hyperaldosteronism

Acidosis

Which of the following conditions would cause the nurse to monitor for hyperkalemia?

Acute acidosis

A 42-year-old female presents with dyspnea; rapid, shallow breathing; inspiratory crackles; decreased lung compliance; and hypoxemia. Tests reveal a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

The nurse is teaching the staff about aldosterone. Which information should the nurse include? The main site of aldosterone synthesis is the:

Adrenal cortex

The nurse is teaching the staff about aldosterone. Which information should the nurse include? The main site of aldosterone synthesis is the: Hypothalamus Liver Kidneys Adrenal cortex

Adrenal cortex

A nurse checks lab results as both Cushing syndrome and Addison disease can manifest with elevated levels of:

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A healthcare professional is educating a community men's group about prostate cancer. What information should the professional include in the presentation?

African-American men have an increased risk for its development.

A person experiencing difficulty in recognizing a pattern cannot recognize the form and nature of objects. Which term describes this condition? Agnosia Aphasis Dysphasia Alzheimer

Agnosia

A 60-year-old female with a 25-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. She has an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter. The nurse attributes this finding to:

Air trapping

A 30-year-old male prison inmate contracted tuberculosis during an outbreak. While planning interactions, the nurse realizes the patient can transmit this disease through:

Airborne droplets

Hepatic fat accumulation is seen in which form of cirrhosis?

Alcoholic

The most common cause of toxic myopathy is:

Alcoholism

How does SIADH cause excess water?

Ans: The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of water in the renal tubules. Exp: SIADh is not caused by excess water intake but by increased renal absorption of water as a result of inappropriate increases in ADH. Serum sodium and osmolality are reduced by dilution. The kidney continues to excrete sodium, and urine sodium and urine osmolality are elevated; water is reabsorbed, increasing body fluid volume, and urine volume is decreased.

A nurse recalls prolactin-inhibiting factor's target tissue is the:

Anterior Pituitary

A nurse recalls prolactin-inhibiting factor's target tissue is the:

Anterior pituitary

Which statement is true regarding the development of the reproductive system? Anterior pituitary development starts between the 4th and 6th wks of fetal life The vascular connection between the hypothalamus and the pituitary is established by the 2nd wk of life Ganadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is produced at wk 20 The genital tubercle is developed at wk 17

Anterior pituitary development starts between the 4th and 6th wks of fetal life

What is plasmapheresis

Antibody removal from the plasma

Neostigmine (Prostigmine)

Anticholinesterase

Which substance controls final urine concentration? Antidiuretic hormone Renin Angiotensin I Urea

Antidiuretic hormone

When a nurse observes poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis as a diagnosis on a patient, which principle will the nurse remember? Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by:

Antigen-antibody complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage

Which statement is true anxiety disorders? Anxiety disorders are the most prevalent psychiatric illness More than 20 distinct anxiety disorders have been recognized Anxiety disorders are normal and will correct themselves Benzodiazepines are first-line, single treatment for panic disorder

Anxiety disorders are the most prevalent psychiatric illness

A man reports to the healthcare professional that he had a sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and perineal pain with high fever and chills, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?

Assist the man in obtaining a urine sample.

A 55-year-old female is admitted to the medical unit for complications of long-term, poorly controlled type 2 DM. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in addition to elevated glucose? Metabolic alkalosis Anemia Elevated liver enzymes Atherosclerosis

Atherosclerosis

A patient is admitted to the medical unit for complications of long-term, poorly controlled type 2 DM. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in addition to elevated glucose?

Atherosclerosis

What pathologic alteration produces tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia, and postural abnormalities?

Atrophy of neurons in the substantia nigra that produce dopamine

Which of the following are basic neural systems that are essential for the cognitive sphere? (Select all that . apply) 1. Attentional systems 2. Memory and language systems 3. Affective or emotive systems 4. Sensory systems

Attentional systems, memory and language systems, and affective or emotive systems

When a patient has a peculiar sensation that immediately precedes a seizure, what term should the nurse use to describe this sensation?

Aura

Describe Myasthenia Gravis (MG)

Autoimmune disease that is caused by an autoantibody attack on the ACH receptors in the muscles and end plate membranes.

Six weeks ago a female patient suffered a T6 spinal cord injury. She then developed a blood pressure of 200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia. What does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?

Autonomic hyperreflexia

A compensatory alteration in the diameter of cerebral blood vessels in response to increased intracranial pressure is called:

Autoregulation

15. Which edema is most often observed with noncommunicating hydrocephalus? a. Metabolic b. Interstitial c. Vasogenic d. Ischemic

16. Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the brain's: a. Ventricles b. Tissue c. Neurons d. Meninges

18. Which disorder has clinical manifestations that include decreased consciousness for up to 6 hours, as well as retrograde and posttraumatic amnesia? a. Mild concussion b. Classic concussion c. Cortical contusion d. Acute subdural hematoma

22. A decrease in receptor binding for which neurotransmitter is found in individuals with depression? a. Norepinephrine b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine

26. The neural groove closes dorsally during which week of gestational life? a. Second b. Fourth c. Eighth d. Twelfth

30. The most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in infants is: a. Obstructed arachnoid villi b. Stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius c. Excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid d. Impaired cerebrospinal fluid circulation in the subarachnoid space

9. Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs in cycles approximately every: a. 45 minutes b.90 minutes c. 120 minutes d. 150 minutes

A 16-year-old male fell off the bed of a pickup truck and hit his forehead on the road. He now has resistance to passive movement that varies proportionally with the force applied. He is most likely suffering from: a. Spasticity b. Gegenhalten c. Rigidity d. Dystonia

Dehydration can cause which result? (Select all that apply) A. Moist mucous membranes B. Weak pulse C. Tachycardia D. Polyuria E. Weight loss

B, C, E

The electrolyte imbalance called hypernatremia exhibits which clinical manifestations (Select all that apply) A. Diarrhea B. Calcium based kidney stones C. ECG showing narrow T waves D. Lethargy E. Bradycardia

B, D, E

Which groups are at risk for fluid imbalance? (Select all that apply) A. Women B. Infants C. Men D. Obese persons E. Older adults

B, D, E

A 19 year old male presents to his primary care provider reporting restlessness, muscle cramping, and diarrhea. Lab tests reveal that he is hyperkalemic. Which of the following could have caused his condition? A. Primary hyperaldosteronism B. Acidosis C. Insulin secretion D. Diuretic use

B. Acidosis

The complement, clotting, and kinin systems share which of the following characteristics? A. Granulocyte production B. Activation of a series of proenzymes C. Phagocytosis initiation D. Activated by interferon

B. Activation of a series of proenzymes

Which of the following conditions would cause the nurse to monitor for hyperkalemia? A. Excess aldosterone B. Acute acidosis C. Insulin usage D. Metabolic alkalosis

B. Acute acidosis

During inflammation, the liver is stimulated to release plasma proteins, collectively known as: A. Opsonins B. Acute phase reactants C. Antibodies D. Phagolysosome

B. Acute phase reactants

A 40-year-old male vegetarian is diagnosed with folate deficiency anemia. He reports that he is an alcoholic. Which of the following factors put him at greatest risk for developing his disease? A. Age B. Being alcoholic C. Being vegetarian D. Gender

B. Being alcoholic

When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated? A. By an increase in the antidiuretic hormone secreted into the plasma B. By an increase in the osmotic pressure of the plasma C. By an increase in the hydrostatic pressure of the plasma D. By an increase in aldosterone secreted into the plasma

B. By an increase in the osmotic pressure of the plasma

A cell that is produced in the thymus and interacts with MHC class II molecules would have which of the following surface proteins? A. Th1 B. CD4 C. CD8 D. Superantigen

B. CD4

Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering system? A. Protein/fat B. Carbonic acid/bicarbonate C. Sodium/potassium D. Amylase/albumin

B. Carbonic acid/bicarbonate

"A 25-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of fever, headache, nuchal rigidity and decreased consciousness. She was previously treated for sinusitis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?"

Bacterial Meningitis

A thin, gry malodorous discharge that adheres to the vaginal wall characterizes which medical condition? Gonorrhea Chlamydia Bacterial vaginosis HSV infection

Bacterial vaginosis

A 30-year-old male prison inmate contracted tuberculosis during an outbreak. When the nurse reviews the lab results, the organism that caused this condition is a:

Bacterium

What is the medical term for the inflammation of the glans penis? Phimosis Paraphimosis Priapism Balanitis

Balanitis

A 70-year-old female is in the hospital for pelvic fracture. She develops pulmonary thromboembolism. The nurse realizes this embolus is composed of:

Blood clot

A 30-year-old white male recently suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following is the most likely factor that contributed to his stroke? A. Age. B. Gender. C. Diabetes. D. Race.

A 72-year-old patient demonstrates left-sided weakness of upper and lower extremities. The symptoms lasted less than an hour and resolved with no evidence of infarction. The patient most likely experienced a/an _____. A. Stroke in evolution. B. Arteriovenous malformation. C. Transient ischemic attack. D. Cerebral hemorrhage.

Which patient is most prone to metabolic alkalosis? A patient with A. Retention of metabolic acids B. Hypoaldosteronism C. Excessive loss of chloride D. Hyperventilation

C. Excessive loss of chloride

A 22-year-old female just delivered a healthy baby girl. She suffered from eclampsia during her pregnancy, and on the second postpartum day she complained of bleeding gums and bruising on her arms and legs. Hematology lab tests indicate that she had disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Further review of lab tests by the nurse revealed an increase in: A. Protein C B. Platelets C. Fibrin degradation products (FDPs) D. Hematocrit

C. Fibrin degradation products (FDPs)

Self-antigens do not meet the requirements for immunogenicity because they lack which of the following? A. Virulence B. Quantity C. Foreignness D. Size

C. Foreignness

An 86-year-old female patient has the wasting syndrome of aging, making her vulnerable to falls, functional decline, disease, and death. The nurse knows this patient is experiencing: A. Sarcopenia B. Somatic death C. Frailty D. Cellular aging

C. Frailty

The nurse would correctly respond that the etiology of a congenital immune deficiency is due to a(n): A. Adverse response to a medication B. Renal failure C. Genetic defect D. Negative response to an immunization

C. Genetic defect

Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS? A. HIV only infects B cells. B. Infection does not require a host cell receptor. C. HIV is a retrovirus. D. After infection, cell death is immediate.

C. HIV is a retrovirus.

Which patient will develop active immunity? A patient who: A. Has T cells that become B cells B. Receives preformed antibodies or T cells from a donor C. Has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization D. Receives immunoglobulin

C. Has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization

Outcomes of laboratory tests include an elevated level of natriuretic peptides. Which organ is the priority assessment? A. Lungs B. Liver C. Heart D. Brain

C. Heart

While checking the lab results for a patient with Graves disease, the nurse would check the T3 level to be abnormally: A. Low B. Absent C. High D. Variable

C. High

An excessive use of magnesium-containing antacids and aluminum containing antacids can result in A. Hypomagnesemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypophosphatemia D. Hypokalemia

C. Hypophosphatemia

A 70 year old male with chronic renal failure presents with edema. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Increased capillary oncotic pressure B. Decreased interstitial oncotic pressure C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure D. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure

C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

An aide asks the nurse what is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. How should the nurse respond?

Cancer

What is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion?

Cancer

List some precipitating factors (drugs) of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Captopril, Danazol and Penicillamine.

Levodopa is frequently combined with carbidopa (decarboxylase inhibitor). This combination may achieve a better therapeutic outcome because:

Carbidopa decreases Levadopa breakdown in the periphery

Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering system?

Carbonic acid/bicarbonate

Which condition is considered the ultimate cause of death in the patient with diabetes?

Cardiovascular disease

Which of the following diseases should the nurse teach the patient to prevent as it is the ultimate cause of death in the patient with diabetes? Cancer Renal disease Cardiovascular disease Stroke

Cardiovascular disease

Which of the following diseases should the nurse teach the patient to prevent as it is the ultimate cause of death in the patient with diabetes? A. Renal disease B. Stroke C. Cancer D. Cardiovascular disease

Cardiovascular disease

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking the end amino acids away from the ingested protein? Trypsin Chymotrypsin Lipase Caroxypeptidase

Caroxypeptidase

Which artery provides blood to the stomach? Celiac Gastric Splenic Mesenteric

Celiac

When a patient asks about target cell receptors, which is the nurse's best response? Target cell receptors for most water-soluble hormones are located in the:

Cell membrane

When a patient asks about target cell receptors, which is the nurse's best response? Target cell receptors for most water-soluble hormones are located in the: Nucleus Endoplasmic reticulum Cytosol Cell Membrane

Cell membrane

Describe the pathophysiology of Guillen Barre Syndrome.

Cellular and humoral immune mechanisms attack nerves, leading to a loss of myelin, edema and inflammation.

A person is in status epilepticus. What are the greatest concerns when treating this individual (Select all that apply) Cerebral hypoxia Aspiration bleeding of the tongue Musculoskeletal trauma

Cerebral hypoxia and aspiraion

Cervical and lumbar regions

Which principle should the nurse remember while planning care for a patient with spinal shock? Spinal shock is characterized by:

Cessation of spinal cord function below the lesion

Which disease is associated with teh bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi? Chancre Chancroid Donovan bodies Pseudobuboes

Chancroid

Which statement is true regarding spinal shock? Characterized by a complete loss reflex function It is permanent It causes increased muscle tone below the lesion No disruption of thermal control results

Characterized by a complete loss of reflex function

The risk of testicular cancer is 35-50x greater for men with cryptorchidism than for the general male population. True or False

True

Trichomoniasis is caused by a parasite. True or false

True

When the right kidney is the nephrons in the left kidney increase in size to compensate. True or false

True

With early diagnosis and treatment of cervical cancer, prognosis is excellent. True or False

True

A nurse recalls stress-induced stimulation of the adrenal cortex causes it to secrete: Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) Estrogen Parathyroid hormone Cortsol

Cortsol

A 65-year-old female with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals bluish skin and mucous membranes. How should the nurse chart this condition? Patient has:

Cyanosis

Which of the following is the correct term for a prolapse of a portion of the bladder into the vaginal canal? Cystocele Uterine prolapse Rectocele Urethrocele

Cystocele

13. A communicating hydrocephalus is caused by an impairment of the: a. Cerebrospinal fluid flow between the ventricles b. Cerebrospinal fluid flow into the subarachnoid space c. Blood flow to the arachnoid villi d. Absorption of cerebrospinal fluid

A 20-year-old male was at the supermarket when he fell to the ground. Bystanders reported that he lost consciousness and his body tensed up then relaxed, then tensed and relaxed several times. He most likely was experiencing a(n): a. Partial seizure b. Absence seizure c. Myoclonic seizure d. Tonic-clonic seizure

When a nurse is assessing the physical features of individuals with Cushing syndrome, these findings will include:

Truncal obesity and moon face

When a nurse is assessing the physical features of individuals with Cushing syndrome, these findings will include: A. Pallor and swollen tongue B. Truncal obesity and moon face C. Weight loss and muscle wasting D. Depigmented skin and eyelid lag

Truncal obesity and moon face

Which physical feature supports the diagnosis of Cushing syndrome?

Truncal obesity and moon face

A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Synthesis of what would decrease in this patient?

Thyroid-binding globulin

Which factors are believed to increase the risk for developing cervical cancer (Select all that apply) Smoking Trachomatis infection Breast Cancer Human immundodeficiency viral (HIV) infection Human papilomavirus (HPV) infection

Trachomatis infection, smoking, HIV, and HPV

Why is it important to assess cardiac rate and rhythm for a patient with Guillen Barre Syndrome?

Transient cardiac dysrhythmia is possible.

A 60-year-old female with a history of cirrhosis presents with dyspnea, impaired ventilation, and pleural pain. A diagnosis of pleural effusion is made, and a watery fluid is drained. When giving report, the nurse will refer to this fluid as:

Transudative

A 51-year-old male experienced severe acute gouty arthritis. Which of the following is the most common trigger for the symptoms?

Trauma

Microscopically, which bacterium resembles a corkscrew? Neisseria gonorrhoeae Chlamydia trachomatis Treponema pallidum Herpes simplex

Treponema pallidum

Which STI is likely to cause small punctate marks on the cervix? Human papillomavirus Trichomoniasis Molluscum contagiosum Entamoeba histolytica

Trichomoniasis

Which muscle lies between the two openings of the ureter and urethra? Micturition Detrusor Trigone Urethra

Trigone

A low-fat, vegetarian diet helps relieve symptoms of premenstrual syndrome? True or False

True

A neurogenic bladder is a functional urinary obstruction caused by an interruption of the nerve supply to the bladder. True or false

True

After a gastrectomy, individuals develop anemia from deficiencies in iron, folate, and vitamin B12.

True

All virally induced STIs are incurable. True or false

True

Ammonia formation may increase hepatic encephalopathy

True

Ammonia formation may increase hepatic encephalopathy, True or false

True

Chronic gastritis tends to occur in older adults and causes thinning and degeneration of the stomach wall.

True

Chronic gastritis tends to occur in older adults and causes thinning and degeneration of the stomach wall. True or false

True

Endoscopy and biopsy may show long-standing inflammatory process and gastric atrophy indicating chronic gastritis in an individual with no history of abdominal distress.

True

Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease

True

Hepatitis D virus (HDV) occurs in individuals with hepatitis B

True

Hepatitis D virus (HDV) occurs in individuals with hepatitis B.

True

What statement concerning the pathogenetic mechanisms of polycystic ovarian syndrome (POS) is true? a. POS causes a decrease in leptin levels; this decrease reduces the hypothalamic pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, which reduces the number of follicles that mature. b. POS is a result of a disorder in the anterior pituitary that increases the follicle-stimulating hormone, which reduces the luteinizing hormone released. c. POS is a result of a combination of conditions that include oligo-ovulation or anovulation, elevated levels of androgens, or clinical signs of hyperandrogenism and polycystic ovaries. d. POS inhibits testosterone, which stimulates androgen secretion by the ovarian stroma and indirectly reduces sex hormone-binding globulin.

c. POS is a result of a combination of conditions that include oligo-ovulation or anovulation, elevated levels of androgens, or clinical signs of hyperandrogenism and polycystic ovaries.

Considering the mediating factors of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which medication may be used either continually or only during the menstrual period as a treatment for the condition? a. NSAIDs b. Estrogen c. SSRIs d. Progesterone

c. SSRIs

What are typical findings on breast palpation of a woman diagnosed with simple fibroadenoma? a. Painful, round, movable, and fluid-filled mass b. Painless, movable, hard, and irregular mass c. Smooth, solid, mobile, and well-circumscribed mass d. Smooth, nonmovable, irregular, and soft mass

c. Smooth, solid, mobile, and well-circumscribed mass

3. Guillain-Barre syndrome is more common in: 1. People older than 45 years of age 2. Blacks than in whites 3. Males than in females 4. Early childhood a. 1 only b. 4 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 3 and 4 only

c. 1 and 3 only

2. Which of the following is associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome? 1. Alveolar consolidation 2. Mucous accumulation 3. Alveolar hyperinflation 4. Atelectasis a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 and 4 only c. 1,2, and 4 only d. 2,3, and 4 only

c. 1,2, and 4 only

A 20-year-old female suffered from spinal cord injury that resulted from a motor vehicle accident. She had spinal shock lasting 15 days and is now experiencing an uncompensated cardiovascular response to sympathetic stimulation. What does the nurse suspect caused this condition? a. Toxic accumulation of free radicals below the level of the injury b. Pain stimulation above the level of the spinal cord lesion c. A distended bladder or rectum d. An abnormal vagal response

c. A distended bladder or rectum

Which statement by the nurse indicates teaching was successful regarding CNS tumors in adults? The most common primary CNS tumors in adults are: a. Meningiomas b. Oligodendrogliomas c. Astrocytomas d. Ependymomas

c. Astrocytomas

When a patient asks, "What is the cause of multiple sclerosis?" how should the nurse reply? The cause of MS seems to be an interaction between: a. Vascular and metabolic factors b. Bacterial infection and the inflammatory response c. Autoimmunity and genetic susceptibility d. Neurotransmitters and inherited genes

c. Autoimmunity and genetic susceptibility

18. Six weeks ago a female patient suffered a T6 spinal cord injury. She then developed a blood pressure of 200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia. What does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? a. Extreme spinal shock b. Acute anxiety c. Autonomic hyperreflexia d. Parasympathetic areflexia

c. Autonomic hyperreflexia

c. Blunted affect

Which of the following patients is the most at risk for developing hypernatremia? A patient with: a. Vomiting b. Diuretic use c. Dehydration d. Hypoaldosteronism

c. Dehydration Rationale: Dehydration leads to hypernatremia because an increase in sodium occurs with a net loss in water. Vomiting leads to hyponatremia. Diuretic use would lead to sodium loss. Hypoaldosteronism leads to hyponatremia.

A 30-year-old white male recently suffered a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following is the most likely factor that contributed to his stroke? a. Age b. Gender c. Diabetes d. Race

c. Diabetes

A major contributing process in CVAs is the development of atheromatous plaques in cerebral circulation. These most commonly form: a. In the larger veins b. Near capillary sphincters c. In cerebral arteries d. In the venous sinuses

c. In cerebral arteries

Which statement by the staff indicates teaching was successful concerning aldosterone? Secretion of aldosterone results in: a. Decreased plasma osmolality b. Increased serum potassium levels c. Increased blood volume d. Localized edema

c. Increased blood volume Rationale: Aldosterone promotes renal sodium and water reabsorption and excretion of potassium, thus, increasing blood volume.

A 70-year-old male with chronic renal failure presents with edema. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition? a. Increased capillary oncotic pressure b. Decreased interstitial oncotic pressure c. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure d. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure

c. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure Rationale: Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure would facilitate increased movement from the capillary to the interstitial space, leading to edema.

Which organ system should the nurse monitor when the patient has long-term potassium deficits? a. Central nervous system (CNS) b. Lungs c. Kidneys d. Gastrointestinal tract

c. Kidneys Rationale: Long-term potassium deficits lasting more than 1 month may damage renal tissue, with interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy.

c. Loss of voluntary control below

A nurse recalls regulation of acid-base balance through removal or retention of volatile acids is accomplished by the: a. Buffer systems b. Kidneys c. Lungs d. Liver

c. Lungs Rationale: The volatile acid is carbonic acid (H2CO3), which readily dissociates into carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). The CO2 is then eliminated by the lungs.

Lois is a 56 year old woman who has been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. She is being treated with 1800 calorie diet, exercise, glucophage 500 mg po bid ( oral hypoglycemic agent) and 2 units of NPH at night. She has a history of difficulty in maintaining a tight control of the glucose levels as indicated by high levels of Hg A-1c. She goes on a 5 day Caribbean cruise. The day after she returned from the cruise, her husband brought her to the ER stating that she was lethargic and confused. He indicates that her blood sugar was "too high to read". The hospital Lab values included: blood sugar 800, BUN 25, Cr 1.1, glucose was negative for ketones. Arterial blood gas (ABG) indicates metabolic acidosis. BP was 104/60 ( her normal is 150/80), HR 110, RR 18 and deep. She is a woman approximately 5'8'' and weighs about 180 lbs. Which of the following are problems/complications in this case?

hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome and dehydration

Lois is a 56 year old woman who has been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. She is being treated with 1800 calorie diet, exercise, glucophage 500 mg po bid ( oral hypoglycemic agent) and 2 units of NPH at night. She has a history of difficulty in maintaining a tight control of the glucose levels as indicated by high levels of Hg A-1c. She goes on a 5 day Caribbean cruise. The day after she returns from the cruise, her husband brought her to the ER stating the she was lethargic and confused. He indicates that her blood sugar was "too high to read". The hospital Lab values included: blood sugar 800, BUN 25, Cr 1.1, glucose was negative for keytones. Arterial blood gas (ABG) indicates metabolic acidosis. BP was 104/60 ( her normal is 150/80), HR 110, RR 18 and deep. She is a woman approximately 5'8'' and weighs about 180 lbs. Which of the following are problem/complications in this case? Somogyi effect, with inadequate pharmacologic and dietary management diabetic ketoacidosis and dementia related to cerebral vascular occlusion hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome and dehydration hypoglycemia and hypotension

hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome and dehydration

A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and overall abnormal feeling. Hyperaldosteronism is diagnosed. What symptoms would the nurse expect?

hypokalemia

A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secreation. What electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this patient?

hyponatremia

When the endocrinologist asks the staff how the releasing hormones that are made in the hypothalamus travel to the anterior pituitary, how should the staff replay? Via the:

hypophysial portal system

When the endocrinologist asks the staff how the releasing hormones that are made in the hypothalamus travel to the anterior pituitary, how should the staff reply Via the: Vessels of the zona fasciculata Chromophils Median eminence Hypophysial portal system

hypophysial portal system

Anemia accompanies chronic renal failure because of:

inadequate production of erythropoietin.

Neostigmine's effect on muscarinic receptors

increase GI, slows HR and BP, induces urination/ erection, bronchoconstriction

Signs and Symptoms specific to Myasthenic Crisis

increase in blood pressure, tachycardia

A nurse is reviewing lab results. What lab results would slow down the rate of parathyroid hormone secretion?

increase serum calcium levels

Signs and Symptoms similar for Myasthenic and Cholinergic Crisis

increased bronchial secretions, dyspnea, difficulty swallowing and speaking, generalized muscle weakness

A nurse is reviewing lab results. Which of the following lab results would slow down the rate of parathyroid hormone secretion Increased serum calcium levels Decreased serum calcium levels Decreased levels of TSH Increased levels of TSH

increased serum calcium levels

Neostigmine's effect on nicotinic m receptors

increased skeletal muscle strength

A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find Increased blood volume Increased urine osmolality Increased urine volume Increased arterial vasoconstriction

increased urine volume

what does the beta 1 receptor do

increases heart rate and force of contraction

A 70-year-old female has brittle bones secondary to osteoporosis. Her primary care provider prescribes calcitonin to:

inhibit calcium resorption from bones

A 70-year-old female has brittle bones secondary to osteoporosis. Her primary care provider prescribes calcitonin to: Activate vitamin D Stimulate osteoclastic activity Inhibit calcium resorption from bones Promote thyroid hormone release

inhibit calcium resorption from bones

what does the beta 2 receptor do

inhibits smooth muscle

What does Tensilon do for Myasthenia Gravis patients

inhibits the breakdown of ACh

Myasthenic Crisis

insufficient amount of ACh

A nurse is teaching staff about protein hormones. What information should the nurse include? One of the protein hormones is:

insulin

A nurse is teaching staff about protein hormones. Which information should the nurse include One of the protein hormones is: Thyroxine (T4) Aldosterone Testosterone Insulin

insulin

A nurse is teaching staff about protein hormones. Which information should the nurse include? One of the protein hormones is:

insulin

An aide asks the nurse what activates tyrosine. What is the nurse's best response GH PRL Insulin Estrogen

insulin

insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation

Hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus is a result of: liver failure decrease of pancreatic delta cell activity insulin resistance glucagon deficiency

insulin resistance

What problem should the nurse assess for in a patient with chronic hyperparatheyroidism?

osteoporosis and pathologic fractures

What causes a Cholingeric Crisis

overdose of medication

A 39-year-old female is recovering from the birth of her third child. Which hormone would help prevent uterine bleeding Aldosterone Cortisol Prolactin Oxytocin

oxytocin

If a patient had a problem with the hypothalamus, which of the following hormones would be affected ACTH Oxytocin ADH TSH

oxytocin

if a patient had a problem with the hypothalamus, what hormone would be affected

oxytocin

Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types? Hormonal Neurohormonal Autocrine Paracrine

paracrine

When a staff member asks the nurse which gland secretes ADH and oxytocin, how should the nurse respond Anterior pituitary Posterior pituitary Hypothalamus Pineal gland

posterior pituitary

When a staff member asks the nurse which gland secretes ADH and oxytocin, how should the nurse respond?

posterior pituitary

A nurse recalls insulin has an effect on which of the following groups of electrolytes Sodium, chloride, phosphate Calcium, magnesium, potassium Hydrogen, bicarbonate, chloride Potassium, magnesium, phosphate

potassium, magnesium, phosphate

"A 10-year-old female was brought to the ED following a sudden onset of convulsions. The doctors think she experienced an explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons referred to as:"

seizure

A nurse is teaching a patient about insulin. Which information should the nurse include Insulin is primarily regulated by: Metabolic rate Serum glucose levels Prostaglandins Enzyme activation

serum glucose levels

A 30-year-old female had a seizure that causes her to experience numbness and tingling extending from her left forearm to her left fingertips without loss of consciousness. This condition is known as:

simple partial seizure

A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. What symptoms would the nurse expect to find before treatment?

skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate

Describe the causes of Guillain-Barre syndrome

• GB is not known • Probably and immune disorder that causes inflammation and deterioration of the patient's peripheral nervous system o Elevated levels of immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies against myelin glycolipid have been found in the serum of patients with GB syndrome o Lymphocytes and macrophages appear to attack and strip off the myelin sheath of the peripheral nerves and leaving swelling and fragmentation of the neural axon o It is believed that the myelin sheath covering the peripheral nerves (or the myelin Schwann cell) is the actual target of the immune attack • GB syndrome often occurs 1 to 4 weeks after a febrile episode caused by a mild respiratory or gastrointestinal viral or bacterial infection • In about 60% of the cases, Campylobacter jejuni is identified as the cause of the preceding infections

Ver todos los conjuntos de estudio

Patho Final Exam

Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Psychology Final

17, 18, 19, 20 ,22, 23 NEW Ways to fix your hair

COMM103 Midterm

Series 63 exam 3

PSY 3

Basic Anatomy of Ear

Fahrenheit 451 Reading Notes P. 1-65

Psychotherapeutic Meds PrepU

Miscellaneous Spanish

Medication Administration

Clauses and phrases

10.1 insurance

HubSpot Academy Email Marketing Certification

Chapter 14

Accounting 2036 Chapter 7

Planificación y Proyectos Educativos - 1er. Parcial

Vis-à-Vis Chapitre 11 Vocabulaire

PRimerica (group life insurance, retirement plans and social security disability program)

HIST 1111: Quiz 2

Ap chemistry Unit 7 Progress Check: MCQ