Patho + Health Assessment: Cardio & Respiratory

What is the most common symptom in a client with abdominal aortic aneurysm? a. Abdominal pain b. Diaphoresis c. Headache d. Upper back pain

A. Abdominal pain in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm results from the disruption of normal circulation in the abdominal region. Lower back pain, not upper, is a common symptom, usually signifying expansion and impending rupture of the aneurysm. Headache and diaphoresis aren't associated with abdominal aortic aneurysm.

What is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm? a. Atherosclerosis b. DM c. HTN d. Syphilis

A. Atherosclerosis accounts for 75% of all abdominal aortic aneurysms. Plaques build up on the wall of the vessel and weaken it, causing an aneurysm. Although the other conditions are related to the development of an aneurysm, none is a direct cause.

Which of the following conditions most commonly results in CAD? a. Atherosclerosis b. DM c. MI d. Renal failure

A. Atherosclerosis, or plaque formation, is the leading cause of CAD (Coronary Artery Disease). DM is a risk factor for CAD but isn't the most common cause. Renal failure doesn't cause CAD, but the two conditions are related. Myocardial infarction is commonly a result of CAD.

Which of the following sounds is distinctly heard on auscultation over the abdominal region of an abdominal aortic aneurysm client? a. Bruit b. Crackles c. Dullness d. Friction rubs

A. Bruit, a vascular sound resembling heart murmur, suggests partial arterial occlusion. Crackles are indicative of fluid in the lungs. Dullness is heard over solid organs, such as the liver. Friction rubs indicate inflammation of the peritoneal surface.

What is the term used to describe an enlargement of the heart muscle? a. Cardiomegaly b. Cardiomyopathy c. Myocarditis d. Pericarditis

A. Cardiomegaly denotes an enlarged heart muscle. Cardiomyopathy is a heart muscle disease of unknown origin. Myocarditis refers to inflammation of heart muscle. Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart.

Which ofthe following symptoms is most commonly associated with left-sided heart failure? a. Crackles b. Arrhythmias c. Hepatic engorgement d. Hypotension

A. Crackles in the lungs are a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. These sounds are caused by fluid backing up into the pulmonary system. Arrhythmias can be associated with both right and left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure causes hypertension secondary to an increased workload on the system.

Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular valves to close? A. Increased intraventricular pressure B. Decreased intraventricular Pressure C. Ventricular relaxation and backflow of blood D. Depolarization at the AV node

A. Increased intraventricular pressure causes the atrioventricular valves to close. AV valves include the tricuspid and mitral valves.

62. Which of the following tissue changes is a characteristic of emphysema? a. Overdistention, inelasticity and rupture of alveoli b. Accumulation of pus in the pleural space c. Filling of air passage by inflammatory alveoli d. Accumulation of fluids in the pleural sac

A. Overdistention, inelasticity and rupture of alveoli

Which of the following complications is indicated by a third heart sound (S3)? a. Ventricular dilation b. Systemic hypertension c. Aortic valve malfunction d. Increased atrial contractions

A. Rapid filling of the ventricles causes vasodilation that is auscultated as S3.

Which of the following is the most common symptom of myocardial infarction? a. Chest pain b. Dyspnea c. Edema d. Palpitations

A. The most common symptom of an MI is chest pain, resulting from deprivation of oxygen to the heart. Dyspnea is the second most common symptom, related to an increase in the metabolic needs of the body during an MI. Edema is a later sign of heart failure, often seen after an MI. Palpitations may result from reduced cardiac output, producing arrhythmias.

A pulsating abdominal mass usually indicates which of the following conditions? a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm b. Enlarged spleen c. Gastric distention d. Gastritis

A. The presence of a pulsating mass in the abdomen is an abnormal finding, usually indicating an outpouching in a weakened vessel, as in abdominal aortic aneurysm. The finding, however, can be normal on a thin person. Neither an enlarged spleen, gastritis, nor gastric distention cause pulsation.

What is the most appropriate nursing response to a myocardial infarction client who is fearful of dying? a. "Tell me how you're feeling right now." b. "When the doctor arrives, everything will be fine." c. "This is a bad situation, but you'll feel better soon." d. "Please be assured we're doing everything we can to make you feel better."

A. Validation of the client's feelings is the most appropriate response. It gives the client a feeling of comfort and safety. The other three responses give the client false hope. No one can determine if a client experiencing MI will feel or get better and therefore, these responses are inappropriate.

Atherosclerosis impedes coronary blood flow by which of the following mechanisms? a. Plaques obstruct the vein b. Plaques obstruct the artery c. Blood clots form outside the vessel wall d. Hardened vessels dilate to allow the blood to flow through

B. Arteries, not veins, supply the coronary arteries with oxygen and other nutrients. Atherosclerosis is a direct result of plaque formation in the artery. Hardened vessels can't dilate properly and, therefore, constrict blood flow.

Which of the following conditions is linked to more than 50% of clients with abdominal aortic aneurysms? a. DM b. HTN c. PVD d. Syphilis

B. Continuous pressure on the vessel walls from hypertension causes the walls to weaken and an aneurysm to occur. Atherosclerotic changes can occur with peripheral vascular diseases and are linked to aneurysms, but the link isn't as strong as it is with hypertension. Syphilis and Diabetes mellitus have little to no direct link to aneurysm.

With which of the following disorders is jugular vein distention (JVD) most prominent? a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm b. Heart failure c. Myocardial infarction d. Pneumothorax

B. Elevated venous pressure, exhibited as jugular vein distention (JVD), indicates a failure of the heart to pump. JVD isn't a symptom of abdominal aortic aneurysm or pneumothorax. An MI, if severe enough, can progress to heart failure; however, in and of itself, an MI doesn't cause jugular vein distention.

Which of the following actions is the first priority care for a client exhibiting signs and symptoms of coronary artery disease? a. Decrease anxiety b. Enhance myocardial oxygenation c. Administer sublignual nitroglycerin d. Educate the client about his symptoms

B. Enhancing mocardial oxygenation is always the first priority when a client exhibits signs and symptoms of cardiac compromise. Without adequate oxygen, the myocardium suffers damage. Although educating the client and decreasing anxiety are important in care delivery, nether are priorities when a client is compromised. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to treat acute angina, but its administration isn't the first priority.

When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output? a. decreased peripheral resistance b. increased heart rate c. decreased venous return d. general vasodilation

B. Increased heart rate Volume x HR = Cardiac Output (CO) so... Volume decreased ->HR increase to maintain cardiac output

Which of the following systems is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration? a. Cardiac b. Gastrointestinal c. Musculoskeletal d. Pulmonary

B. Pulmonary pain is generally described by these symptoms. Musculoskeletal pain only increase with movement. Cardiac and GI pains don't change with respiration.

Which of the following landmarks is the correct one for obtaining an apical pulse? a. Left intercostal space, midaxillary line b. Left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line c. Left 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line d. Left 7th intercostal space, midclavicular line

B. The correct landmark for obtaining an apical pulse is the left intercostal space in the midclavicular line. This is the point of maximum impulse (PMI) and the location of the left ventricular apex. The left 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line is where the pulmonic sounds are auscultated. Normally, heart sounds are not heard in the midaxillary line or the 7th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

A murmur is heard at the 2nd left intercostal space along the left sternal border. Which valve area is this? a. Aortic b. Mitral c. Pulmonic d. Tricuspid

C. Abnormalities of the pulmonic valve are auscultated at the 2nd left intercostal space along the left sternal border. Aortic valve abnormalities are heard at the 2nd intercostal space, to the right of the sternum. Mitral valve abnormalities are heard at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line. Tricuspid valve abnormalities are heard at the 3rd and 4th intercostal spaces along the sternal border.

What is the most common complication of a myocardial infarction? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Heart failure c. Arrhythmias d. Pericarditis

C. Arrhythmias, caused by oxygen deprivation to the myocardium, are the most common complication of an MI. Because the pumping function of the heart is compromised by an MI, heart failure is the second most common complication. Cardiogenic shock, another complication of MI, is defined as the end stage of left ventricular dysfunction. The condition occurs in approximately 15% of clients with MI. Pericarditis most commonly results from a bacterial or viral infection but may occur after MI.

Which of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease cannot be corrected? a. Cigarette smoking b. DM c. Heredity d. HTN

C. Because "heredity" refers to our genetic makeup, it can't be changed. Cigarette smoking cessation is a lifestyle change that involves behavior modification. Diabetes mellitus is a risk factor that can be controlled with diet, exercise, and medication. Altering one's diet, exercise, and medication can correct hypertension.

Which type of lipoprotein contributes to arteriosclerosis and atheroma development? a. HDL b. LDL

C. LDL High laboratory values of LDL indicate increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease. LDL=lousy HDL=happy

Which hereditary disease is most closely linked to aneurysm? a. Cystic fibrosis b. Lupus erythematosus c. Marfan's syndrome d. Myocardial infarction

C. Marfan's syndrome results in the degeneration of the elastic fibers of the aortic media. Therefore, clients with the syndrome are more likely to develop an aortic aneurysm. Although cystic fibrosis is hereditary, it hasn't been linked to aneurysms. Lupus erythematosus isn't hereditary. Myocardial infarction is neither hereditary nor a disease.

Which of the following are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulatory system?? 1. decreased viscosity of the blood 2. damaged blood vessel walls 3. immobility 4. prosthetic valves a. 1, 3 b. 2,4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 3, 4

D. 2, 3, 4 2. damaged blood vessel walls 3. immobility 4. prosthetic valves

Which of the following cardiac conditions does a fourth heart sound (S4) indicate? a. Dilated aorta b. Normally functioning heart c. Decreased myocardial contractility d. Failure of the ventricle to eject all the blood during systole

D. An S4 occurs as a result of increased resistance to ventricular filling and atrial contraction. This increased resistance is related to decrease compliance of the ventricle. A dilated aorta doesn't cause an extra heart sound, though it does cause a murmur. Decreased myocardial contractility is heard as a third heart sound. An s4 isn't heard in a normally functioning heart.

What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with myocardial infarction? a. To sedate the client b. To decrease the client's pain c. To decrease the client's anxiety d. To decrease oxygen demand on the client's heart

D. Morphine is administered because it decreases myocardial oxygen demand. Morphine will also decrease pain and anxiety while causing sedation, but isn't primarily given for those reasons.

Which of the following diagnostic tools is most commonly used to determine the location of myocardial damage? a. Cardiac catheterization b. Cardiac enzymes c. Echocardiogram d. Electrocardiogram

D. The ECG is the quickest, most accurate, and most widely used tool to determine the location of myocardial infarction. Cardiac enzymes are used to diagnose MI but can't determine the location. An echocardiogram is used most widely to view myocardial wall function after an MI has been diagnosed. Cardiac catheterization is an invasive study for determining coronary artery disease and may also indicate the location of myocardial damage, but the study may not be performed immediately.

Which of the following symptoms is common in clients with tuberculosis? a. Mental status changes b. Increased appetite c. Dyspnea on exertion d. Weight loss

D. Weight loss

What does the term PVC mean?

Premature Ventricular Contraction

When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease about oxygen by cannula, the nurse should also instruct the client's family to A) Avoid smoking near the client B) Turn off oxygen during meals C) Adjust the liter flow to 10 as needed D) Remind the client to keep mouth closed

The correct answer is A: Avoid smoking near the client Since oxygen supports combustion, there is a risk of fire if anyone smokes near the oxygen equipment.

The nurse is caring for a client with COPD who becomes dyspneic. The nurse should: A) Instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag B) Place the client in a high Fowler's position C) Assist the client with pursed lip breathing D) Administer oxygen at 6L/minute via nasal cannula

The correct answer is C: Assist the client with pursed lip breathing Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea to control rate and depth of respiration and improve respiratory muscle coordination.

The primary nursing diagnosis for a client with congestive heart failure with pulmonary edema is A) Pain B) Impaired gas exchange C) Cardiac output altered: decreased D) Fluid volume excess

The correct answer is C: Cardiac output altered: decreased All nursing interventions should be focused on improving cardiac output. Increasing cardiac output is the primary goal of therapy. Comfort will improve as the client improves and the respiratory status will improve as cardiac output increases.

The nurse is caring for a post myocardial infarction client in an intensive care unit. It is noted that urinary output has dropped from 60 -70 ml per hour to 30 ml per hour. This change is most likely due to A) Dehydration B) Diminished blood volume C) Decreased cardiac output D) Renal failure

The correct answer is C: Decreased cardiac output Cardiac output and urinary output are directly correlated. The nurse should suspect a drop in cardiac output if the urinary output drops.

The nurse is caring for a client who has developed cardiac tamponade. Which finding would the nurse anticipate? A) Widening pulse pressure B) Pleural friction rub C) JVD D) Bradycardia

The correct answer is C: JVD (Jugular Vein Distention). Distended neck veins In cardiac tamponade, intrapericardial pressures rise to a point at which venous blood cannot flow into the heart. As a result, venous pressure rises and the neck veins become distended.

The nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention? A) Temperature of 102 degrees Fahrenheit B) Pulse rate of 98 beats per minute C) Respiratory rate of 32 D) Blood pressure of 90/50

The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate of 32 Clients with deep vein thrombosis are at risk for the development of pulmonary embolism. The most common symptoms are tachypnea, dyspnea, and chest pain.

he nurse has been assigned to these clients in the emergency room. Which client would the nurse go check first? A) Viral pneumonia with atelectasis B) Spontaneous pneumothorax with a respiratory rate of 38 C) Tension pneumothorax with slight tracheal deviation to the right D) Acute asthma with episodes of bronchospasm

The correct answer is C: Tension pneumothorax with slight tracheal deviation to the right. Tracheal deviation indicates a significant volume of air being trapped in the chest cavity with a mediastinal shift. In tension pneumothorax the tracheal deviation is away from the affected side. The affected side is the side where the air leak is in the lung. This situation also results in sudden air hunger, agitation, hypotension, pain in the affected side, and cyanosis with a high risk of cardiac tamponade and cardiac arrest.

Which of the following conditions is most closely associated with weight gain, nausea, and a decrease in urine output? a. Angina pectoris b. Cardiomyopathy c. Left-sided heart failure d. Right-sided heart failure

Weight gain, nausea, and a decrease in urine output are secondary effects of right- sided heart failure. Cardiomyopathy is usually identified as a symptom of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure causes primarily pulmonary symptoms rather than systemic ones. Angina pectoris doesn't cause weight gain, nausea, or a decrease in urine output.

Which drug is taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion? a. acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) b. streptokinase c. acetaminophen d. heparin

a. acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) (Aspirin) reduces platelet adhesion.

What is the most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction? a. cardiac arrhythmias b. ruptured ventricle c. congestive heart failure d. cerebrovascular accident

a. cardiac arrhythmias

Which of the following results from increased secretion of epinephrine? a. increased heart rate and force of contraction b. decreased stimulation of the SA node and ventricles c. vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles and kidneys d. vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels

a. increased heart rate and force of contraction (heart pounding commonly associated with 'adrenaline rush')

Which modifiable factor can increase the risk for atherosclerosis? a. sedentary life style b. female more than 40 years of age c. exclusion of saturated fats from the diet d. familial hypercholesterolemia

a. sedentary life style

What does the term preload refer to? a. volume of venous return b. peripheral resistance c. stroke volume d. cardiac output

a. volume of venous return entering the heart

Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest? a. Delayed conduction through the A V node blocks ventricular stimulation. b. Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium. c. The ventricles contract before the atria. d. Parasympathetic stimulation depresses the SA node.

b. Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.

Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity correctly? a. lt contains sufficient fluid to provide a protective cushion for the heart. b. It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid. c. It is lined by the endocardium. d. It is located between the double-walled pericardium and the epicardium.

b. It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid. "Potential Space" is an anatomic space that is potential, not realized. It CAN be a space/cavity but is not always open.

An atheroma develops from: a. a torn arterial wall and blood clots b. accumulated lipids, cells. and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred c. thrombus forming on damaged walls of veins d. repeated vasospasms

b. accumulated lipids, cells. and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred

Which of the following effects may be expected from a beta-adrenergic blocking drug? ("Beta blocker") a. increasing systemic vasoconstriction b. decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart c. blockage of an angiotensin receptor site d. increased release of renin

b. decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart Remember... Parasympathetic = rest & digest Everything is is SNS

Which of the following are significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure? a. severe chest pain and tachycardia b. edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly c. frequent cough with blood-streaked frothy sputum d. orthopnea. fatigue, increased blood pressure

b. edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly

Which is the best definition of congestive heart failure? a. cessation of all cardiac activity b. inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body c. insufficient circulating blood in the body d. the demand for oxygen by the heart is greater than the supply

b. inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body

Which of the following occur as compensation mechanisms for decreased cardiac output in cases of congestive heart failure? a. slow cardiac contractions b. increased renin and aldosterone secretions c. decreased erythropoietin secretion d. fatigue and cold intolerance

b. increased renin and aldosterone secretions

Which of the following are typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction? a. brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing b. persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse c. bradycardia. increased blood pressure, and severe dyspnea d. flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness, and numbness

b. persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse

Why does pericarditis cause a reduction in cardiac output? a. Delays in the conduction system interfere with cardiac rhythm. b. Due to friction rub, the myocardial contractions are weak. c. Excess fluid in the pericardia! cavity decreases ventricular filling. d. Incompetent valves allow regurgitation of blood.

c. Excess fluid in the pericardia! cavity decreases ventricular filling.

Each of the following compares the output of blood from the left and right ventricles with each contraction of a normal heart. Which is correct? a. Left ventricular output is slightly greater than the right ventricular output. b. Left ventricular output is approximately double that of right ventricular output. c. Left ventricular output equals the right ventricular output. d. Left ventricular output is Jess than right ventricular output.

c. Left ventricular output equals the right ventricular output. If they were not equal there would be an imbalance of I/O of blood volume from the heart. Remember input should always equal output!

Which of the following best describes the basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction? a. Cardiac output is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body. b. Temporary vasospasm occurs in a coronary artery. c. Total obstruction of a coronary artery causes myocardial necrosis. d. Heart rate and force is irregular, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries.

c. Total obstruction of a coronary artery causes myocardial necrosis.

What will a partial obstruction in a coronary artery likely cause? a. pulmonary embolus b. hypertension c. angina attacks d. myocardial infarction

c. angina attacks Angina is caused by partial obstruction of coronary arteries. Complete obstruction of coronary arteries causes MI.

Which statement describes a coronary artery bypass procedure? a. removing the section of an artery containing plaque and thrombus b. compressing the thrombus with an inflated balloon to provide a larger lumen c. attaching a section of vein to the coronary artery proximal and distal to the obstruction d. adding a piece of vein to the end of each coronary artery

c. attaching a section of vein to the coronary artery proximal and distal to the obstruction

Which of the following is used confirm the presence of a myocardial infarction? a. a full description of the pain b. the presence of elevated serum cholesterol and triglycerides c. characteristic patterns for serum isoenzymes and the ECG d. leukocytosis and elevated C-reactive protein

c. characteristic patterns for serum isoenzymes and the ECG/EKG

Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise? a. rapid emptying of the right side of the heart b. forceful action of the valves in the veins c. contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle d. peristalsis in the large veins

c. contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle causes pumping action in the venous return system

Which are the first arteries to branch off the aorta? a. common carotid arteries b. pulmonary arteries c. coronary arteries d. subclavian arteries

c. coronary arteries

What does the tenn arteriosclerosis specifically refer to? a. development of atheromas in large arteries b. intermittent vasospasm in coronary arteries c. degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries d. ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart

c. degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries

In which blood vessels will failure of the left ventricle cause increased hydrostatic pressure? a. veins of the legs and feet b. jugular veins c. pulmonary capillaries d. blood vessels of the liver and spleen

c. pulmonary capillaries When LV is not working, pulmonary capillaries will not be able to empty causing increased pressure

Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in: a. reducing the risk of blood clotting b. decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques c. reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions d. decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias

c. reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions

Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from: a. decreased blood pressure b. increased parasympathetic stimulation c. relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles d. increased stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors

c. relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles

What is the cardiac reserve? a. afterload b. the difference between the apical and radial pulses c. the ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed d. the extra blood remaining in the heart after it contracts

c. the ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed

Which event causes the QRS wave on an ECG tracing? a. atrial depolarization b. atrial repolarization c. ventricular depolarization d. ventricular repolarization

c. ventricular depolarization causes the large QRS complex on the EKG tracing

Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following EXCEPT: a. eating a large meal b. an angry argument c. walking down stairs d. shovelling snow on a cold, windy day

c. walking down stairs This activity produces very little strain on the heart compared to the other activities listed.

When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true? a. Both angina and Ml cause tissue necrosis. b. Angina often occurs at rest; Ml occurs during a stressful time. c. Pain is more severe and lasts longer with angina than with MI. d. Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; the pain of MI is not.

d. Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; the pain of MI is not.

Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions? a. Pericarditis b. HTN c. MI d. Heart Failure

d. These are the classic symptoms of heart failure. Pericarditis is exhibited by a feeling of fullness in the chest and auscultation of a pericardial friction rub. Hypertension is usually exhibited by headaches, visual disturbances and a flushed face. Myocardial infarction causes heart failure but isn't related to these symptoms.

What does the term cardiac arrest mean? a. cardiac output is less than the demand b. decreased circulating blood volume c. missing a ventricular contraction d. cessation of all cardiac function

d. cessation of all cardiac function

The normal delay in conduction through the atrioventricular node is essential for: a. preventing an excessively rapid heart rate b. limiting the time for a myocardial contraction c. allowing the ventricles to contract before the atria d. completing ventricular filling

d. completing ventricular filling The *essential function* of the delay in conduction through the AV node is to allow complete ventricular filling. The delay in conduction also allows the delay between atrial & ventricular contraction (c) but the ventricles contract after the atria, not before.

What is considered to be the basic pathophysiologic change in essential hypertension? a. development of lipid plaques in large arteries b. recurrent inflammation and fibrosis in peripheral arteries c. degeneration and loss of elasticity in arteries d. increased systemic vasoconstriction

d. increased systemic vasoconstriction

What is the function of the baroreceptors? a. stimulate the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems at the SA node as needed b. adjust blood pressure by changing peripheral resistance c. sense a change in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels d. signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure

d. signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure Baro- = pressure

Which change results from total heart block? a. a prolonged PR interval b. periodic omission of a ventricular contraction c. a wide QRS wave d. spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction

d. spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction A heart block results from an issue with the heart's electrical conduction system

Which of the following causes increased heart rate? a. stimulation of the vagus nerve b. increased renin secretion c. administration of beta blocking drugs d. stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

d. stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system Remember! Parasympathetic=rest & digest, anything else is SNS

Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure? a. incompetent tricuspid heart valve b. chronic pulmonary disease c. infarction in the right atrium d. uncontrolled essential hypertension

d. uncontrolled essential hypertension