Patho Test
A 72-year-old female has been told by her physician that she has a new heart murmur that requires her to go visit a cardiologist. Upon examination, the cardiologist informs the patient that she has aortic stenosis. After the cardiologist has left the room, the patient asks, "What caused this [aortic stenosis] to happen now?" The clinic nurse responds, "Heart murmurs result from tumultuous flow through a diseased heart valve that is too narrow and stiff. This flow causes a vibration called a murmur." B) "Aortic stenosis is commonly seen in elderly patients. Basically, there is a blockage in the valve that is causing blood to pool, causing decreased velocity of flow." C) "This is caused by a tear in one of the papillary muscles attached to the valve. They can do a procedure where they thread a catheter into the heart and reattach the muscle ends." D) "Because of the high amount of energy it takes to push blood through the aortic valve to the body, your valve is just had to work too hard and it is weakening."
A
As part of presurgical teaching for patients who are about to undergo a coronary artery bypass graft, a nurse is performing an education session with a group of surgical candidates. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of the human circulatory system? A) "The blood pressure varies widely between arteries and veins and between pulmonary and systemic circulation." B) "Only around one quarter of your blood is in your heart at any given time." C) "Blood pressure and blood volume roughly mimic one another at any given location in the circulatory system." D) "Left-sided and right-sided pumping action on each beat of the heart must equal each other to ensure adequate blood distribution."
A
Which of the following individuals is most likely to be experiencing vasodilation? A) A 51-year-old man with a history of hypertension who is taking a medication that blocks the effect of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system B) A 9-year-old boy who has been given an injection of epinephrine to preclude an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting C) A 30-year-old woman who takes antihistamines to treat her seasonal allergies D) A 32-year-old man who takes a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for the treatment of depression
A
Which of the following statements most accurately captures a principle of blood flow? A) With constant pressure, a small increase in vessel radius results in an exponential increase in blood flow. B) Blood flow is primarily determined by blood viscosity and temperature. C) Blood flows most quickly in the small diameter peripheral capillaries. D) Smaller cross-sectional vessel area is associated with lower flow velocity. Ans:
A
A patient arrived at the emergency department 2 days after the development of "chest pressure" and "tightness" was treated with antacids thinking it was indigestion. His enzymes show a massive myocardial infarction (MI). Following angioplasty, the patient asks why so much muscle was damaged if only one vessel was blocked, the left circumflex. The nurse responds, A) "With any blockage in the heart, muscle damage always occurs." B) "If a major artery like the circumflex is occluded, the smaller vessels supplied by that vessel cannot restore the blood flow." C) "Since the circumflex artery supplies oxygenated blood flow to the posterior surface of the left ventricle, any amount of blockage will result in vital muscle tissue being lost." D) "When it comes to arteries in the heart, all vessels are equal, and any blockage causes a massive amount of damage that will not be restored."
B
A patient is experiencing impaired circulation secondary to increased systemic arterial pressure. Which of the following statements is the most relevant phenomenon? A) Increased preload due to vascular resistance B) High afterload because of backpressure against the left ventricle C) Impaired contractility due to aortic resistance D) Systolic impairment because of arterial stenosis
B
When trying to explain to a new dialysis patient the movement of substances through the capillary pores, the nurse will explain that in the kidneys, the glomerular capillaries have A) no capillary openings since this would lead to extensive hemorrhage. B) small openings that allow large amounts of smaller molecular substances to filter through the glomeruli. C) large pores so that substances can pass easily through the capillary wall. D) endothelial cells that are joined by tight junctions that form a barrier to medication filtration
B
A pathologist is examining histological (tissue) samples from a client with an autoimmune disease. Which of the following characteristics of muscle samples would signal the pathologist that the samples are cardiac rather than skeletal muscle? A) The cell samples lack intercalated disks. B) The muscle cells have small and a few mitochondria. C) The cells have a poorly defined sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) The muscles are striated and composed of sarcomeres
C
Analysis has shown that a client's right atrial pressure is 30 mm Hg. What is the most likely conclusion that the client's care team will draw from this piece of data? A) The result is likely normal and gravity dependent given the lack of valves in thoracic and central veins. B) The pressure is insufficient to provide adequate stroke volume and cardiac output. C) The pressure is excessive given that the right atrium should be at atmospheric pressure. D) Pressure pulsations are likely to be undetectable given the low atrial pressure.
C
As part of their orientation to a cardiac care unit, a group of recent nursing graduates is receiving a refresher in cardiac physiology from the unit educator. Which of the following teaching points best captures a component of cardiac function? A) "Efficient heart function requires that the ventricles do not retain any blood at the end of the cardiac cycle." B) "Recall that the heart sounds that we listen to as part of our assessments are the sounds of the myocardium contracting." C) "The diastolic phase is characterized by relaxation of ventricles and their filling with blood." D) "Aortic pressure will exceed ventricular pressure during systole."
C
A client has suffered damage to his pericardium following a motor vehicle accident. Which consequence could be a possible complication of damaged pericardium that his care providers should assess for? A) Impaired physical restraint of the left ventricle B) Increased friction during the contraction/relaxation cycle C) Reduced protection from infectious organisms D) Impaired regulation of myocardial contraction
D
A physician is teaching a group of medical students about the physiological basis for damage to the circulatory and neurological systems that can accompany hypotension. Which of the following responses by a student would warrant correction by the physician? A) "As vessel wall thickness increases, tension decreases." B) "Smaller blood vessels require more pressure to overcome wall tension." C) "The smaller the vessel radius, the greater the pressure needed to keep it open." D) "Tension and vessel thickness increase proportionately."
D
A pediatrician is teaching a group of medical students about some of the particularities of heart failure in children as compared with older adults. Which of the physician's following statements best captures an aspect of these differences? A) "You'll find that in pediatric patients, pulmonary edema is more often interstitial rather than alveolar, so you often won't hear crackles." B) "Because of their higher relative blood volume, jugular venous distention is a better assessment technique for suspected heart failure in young patients." C) "Signs and symptoms in children may sometimes mimic those of shock, with a low blood pressure and high heart rate." D) "Fever is a sign of heart failure in children that you are unlikely to see in older adults."
a
All of the following interventions are ordered stat. for a patient stung by a bee who is experiencing severe respiratory distress and faintness. Which priority intervention will the nurse administer first? A) Epinephrine (Adrenalin) B) Normal saline infusion C) Dexamethasone (Decadron) D) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
a
Knowing the high incidence and prevalence of heart failure among the elderly, the manager of a long-term care home has organized a workshop on the identification of early signs and symptoms of heart failure. Which of the following teaching points is most accurate? A) "Displays of aggression, confusion, and restlessness when the resident has no history of such behavior can be a sign of heart failure." B) "Heart failure will often first show up with persistent coughing and lung crackles." C) "Residents in early heart failure will often be flushed and have warm skin and a fever." D) "Complaints of chest pain are actually more often related to heart failure than to myocardial infarction."
a
A female older adult client has presented with a new onset of shortness of breath, and her physician has ordered measurement of her brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels along with other diagnostic tests. What is the most accurate rationale for the physician's choice of blood work? A) BNP is released as a compensatory mechanism during heart failure, and measuring it can help differentiate the client's dyspnea from a respiratory pathology. B) BNP is an indirect indicator of the effectiveness of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) system in compensating for heart failure. C) BNP levels correlate with the client's risk of developing cognitive deficits secondary to heart failure and consequent brain hypoxia. D) BNP becomes elevated in cases of cardiac asthma, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and acute pulmonary edema, and measurement can gauge the severity of pulmonary effects.
a BNP is released to compensate for heart failure, and elevated levels help confirm the diagnosis of heart failure as opposed to respiratory etiologies. It does not measure the effectiveness of the RAA system, the risk of cognitive deficits, or the specific severity of pulmonary symptoms of heart failure.
A nurse educator in a geriatric medicine unit of a hospital is teaching a group of new graduates specific assessment criteria related to heart failure. Which of the following assessment criteria should the nurses prioritize in their practice? A) Measurement of urine output and mental status assessment B) Pupil response and counting the patient's apical heart rate C) Palpation of pedal (foot) pulses and pain assessment D) Activity tolerance and integumentary inspection
a Both increased and decreased urine output can be markers of heart failure, as can changes in mental status not attributable to other factors. While heart auscultation, pedal pulses, and activity tolerance are relevant parameters, integumentary inspection, pupil response, and pain assessment are less likely to be relevant assessment components.
A 31-year-old African American female who is in her 30th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with peripartum cardiomyopathy. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of peripartum cardiomyopathy? A) Her diagnosis might be attributable to a disordered immune response, nutritional factors, or infectious processes. B) Treatment is possible in postpartum women, but antepartum women are dependent on spontaneous resolution of the problem. C) Mortality exceeds 50%, and very few surviving women regain normal heart function. D) Symptomatology mimics that of stable angina and is diagnosed and treated similarly.
a Immune responses, diet, and infections are all potential etiologies of peripartum cardiomyopathy. Treatment is complicated, but not impossible, in antepartum women due to possible teratogenic drug effects. About half of women suffer long-term effects on cardiac function, while signs and symptoms are similar to those of early heart failure.
An IV drug abuser walks into the ED telling the nurse that, "he is sick." He looks feverish with flushed, moist skin; dehydrated with dry lips/mucous membranes; and fatigued. The assessment reveals a loud murmur. An echocardiogram was ordered that shows a large vegetation growing on his mitral valve. The patient is admitted to the ICU. The nurse will be assessing this patient for which possible life-threatening complications? A) Systemic emboli, especially to the brain B) Petechial hemorrhages under the skin and nail beds C) GI upset from the massive amount of antibiotics required to kill the bacteria D) Pancreas enlargement due to increased need for insulin secretion
a Systemic emboli develop and break off the mitral valve and travel into the vascular system. There is a high probability that the emboli could lodge in the brain, kidneys, lower extremities, etc. Answer choice B refers that petechial hemorrhages are signs and symptoms of IE. GI upset is common following antibiotic therapy but is not usually life threatening. Stress can increase insulin needs but not associated with pancreas enlargeme
As part of the diagnostic workup for a male client with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electrical activity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care? A) Echocardiogram, PET scan, ECG B) Ambulatory ECG, cardiac MRI, echocardiogram C) Serum creatinine levels, chest auscultation, myocardial perfusion scintigraphy D) Cardiac catheterization, cardiac CT, exercise stress testing
a An echocardiogram would provide an image of the client's heart, while a PET scan reveals metabolic activity and an ECG the electrical activity. Answer B would lack data on the client's myocardial metabolism; answer C would lack electrical and physical measurement information; answer D would lack electrical measurement of his heart
Emergency medical technicians respond to a call to find an 80-year-old man who is showing signs and symptoms of severe shock. Which of the following phenomena is most likely taking place? A) The man's α- and β-adrenergic receptors have been activated, resulting in vasoconstriction and increased heart rate. B) Hemolysis and blood pooling are taking place in the man's peripheral circulation. C) Bronchoconstriction and hyperventilation are initiated as a compensatory mechanism. D) Intracellular potassium and extracellular sodium levels are rising as a result of sodium-potassium pump failure.
a α- and β-adrenergic receptor activation is a central response to all types of shock. Hemolysis is not a noted accompaniment to shock. Bronchodilation, not bronchoconstriction, often results from adrenergic stimulation, and sodium-potassium pump failure results in increased extracellular potassium and intracellular sodium.
A pediatric nurse is assessing a newborn diagnosed with persistent patency of the ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings are associated with this heart defect? Select all that apply. A) Murmur heard at the second intercostal space, during both systole and diastole B) BP 84/30 classified as a wide pulse pressure C) Shortness of breath with activity such as kicking D) Stridor with inspiratory wheezes E) Bulging jugular neck veins
a,b
Following cardiac surgery, the nurse suspects the patient may be developing a cardiac tamponade. Which of the following clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Muffled heart tones B) Narrowed pulse pressure C) Low BP—84/60 D) Heart rate 78 E) Bounding femoral pulse Ans:
a,b,c Cardiac tamponade results in increased intracardiac pressure, progressive limitation of ventricular diastolic filling, and decreased stroke volume and cardiac output. This accumulation of fluid results in tachycardia, elevated CVP, jugular vein distention, fall in systolic BP, narrowed pulse pressure, and signs of shock. Heart sounds may be muffled. A pulse rate of 78 is normal (not tachycardic). With pulsus paradoxus, the arterial pulse as palpated at the carotid or femoral artery becomes weakened (not bulging) or absent with inspiration
Following a ST-segment myocardial infarction (STEMI), the nurse should be assessing the patient for which of the following complications? Select all that apply. A) Large amount of pink, frothy sputum and new onset of murmur B) Tachypnea with respiratory distress C) Frequent ventricular arrhythmia unrelieved with amiodarone drip D) Complaints of facial numbness and tingling E) Enhanced renal perfusion as seen as an increase in urine output
a,b,c,d
Following coronary bypass graft (CABG) surgery for a massive myocardial infarction (MI) located on his left ventricle, the ICU nurses are assessing for clinical manifestations of cardiogenic shock. Which of the following assessment findings would confirm that the client may be in the early stages of cardiogenic shock? Select all that apply. A) Decreasing mean arterial pressure (MAP) B) Low BP reading of 86/60 C) Urine output of 15 mL last hour D) Low pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) E) Periods of confusion
a,b,c,e
A 66-year-old client's echocardiogram report reveals a hypertrophied left ventricle. The health care provider suspects the client has aortic stenosis. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be observed if this client has aortic stenosis? Select all that apply. A) Decrease in exercise tolerance B) Exertional dyspnea C) Palpitations D) Syncope E) Heartburn
a,b,d
A client has many residual health problems related to compromised circulation following recovery from septic shock. The nurse knows that which of the following complications listed below are a result of being diagnosed with septic shock and therefore should be assessed frequently? Select all that apply. A) Profound dyspnea due to acute respiratory distress syndrome B) Atelectasis resulting in injury to endothelial lining of pulmonary vessels, which allows fluid/plasma to build up in alveolar spaces C) Formation of plaque within vessels supplying blood to the heart causing muscle damage and chest pain D) Acute renal failure due to decreased/impaired renal perfusion as a result of low BP E) Flushed skin and pounding headache that coincides with each heart beat
a,b,d
A 13-year-old boy has had a sore throat for at least a week and has been vomiting for 2 days. His glands are swollen, and he moves stiffly because his joints hurt. His parents, who believe in "natural remedies," have been treating him with various herbal preparations without success and are now seeking antibiotic treatment. Throat cultures show infection with group A streptococci. This child is at high risk for A) myocarditis. B) mitral valve stenosis. C) infective endocarditis. D) vasculitis.
b
A 34-year-old man who is an intravenous drug user has presented to the emergency department with malaise, abdominal pain, and lethargy. The health care team wants to rule out endocarditis as a diagnosis. Staff of the department would most realistically anticipate which of the following sets of diagnostics? CT of the heart, chest x-ray, and ECG B) Echocardiogram, blood cultures, and temperature C) ECG, blood pressure, and stress test D) Cardiac catheterization, chest x-ray, electrolyte measurement, and white cell count
b
A patient in the intensive care unit has a blood pressure of 87/39 and has warm, flushed skin accompanying his sudden decline in level of consciousness. The patient also has arterial and venous dilatation and a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. What is this client's most likely diagnosis? a.Hypovolemic shock B)Septic shock C) Neurogenic shock D) Obstructive shock
b
An 81-year-old female client of a long-term care facility has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse practitioner caring for the client has positioned her sitting up at an angle in bed and is observing her jugular venous distention. Why is jugular venous distention a useful indicator for the assessment of the client's condition? A) Increased cardiac demand causes engorgement of systemic blood vessels, of which the jugular vein is one of the largest. B) Blood backs up into the jugular vein because there are no valves at the point of entry into the heart. C) Peripheral dilation is associated with decreased stroke volume and ejection fraction. D) Heart valves are not capable of preventing backflow in cases of atrial congestion.
b
The nurse working in the ICU knows that chronic elevation of left ventricular end-diastolic pressure will result in the patient displaying which of the following clinical manifestations? A) Chest pain and intermittent ventricular tachycardia B) Dyspnea and crackles in bilateral lung bases C) Petechia and spontaneous bleeding D) Muscle cramping and cyanosis in the feet
b Although it may preserve the resting cardiac output, the resulting chronic elevation of left ventricular end-diastolic pressure is transmitted to the atria and the pulmonary circulation, causing pulmonary congestion.
A 77-year-old patient with a history of coronary artery disease and heart failure has arrived in the emergency room with a rapid heart rate and feeling of "impending doom." Based on pathophysiologic principles, the nurse knows the rapid heart rate could A) decrease renal perfusion and result in the development of ascites. B) be a result of catecholamines released from SNS that could increase the myocardial oxygen demand. C) desensitize the α-adrenergic receptors leading to increase in norepinephrine levels. D) prolong the electrical firing from the SA node resulting in the development of a heart block.
b An increase in sympathetic activity by stimulation of the β-adrenergic receptors of the heart leads to tachycardia, vasoconstriction, and arrhythmias. Acutely, tachycardia significantly increases the workload of the heart, thus increasing myocardial O2 demand and leading to cardiac ischemia, myocyte damage, and decreased contractility. Decreased renal perfusion would activate the RAA system, increasing heart rate and BP further. Ventricular arrhythmias are primarily seen at this stage of HF.
A nurse is administering morning medications to a number of patients on a medical unit. Which of the following medication regimens is most suggestive that the patient has a diagnosis of heart failure? A) Antihypertensive, diuretic, antiplatelet aggregator B) Diuretic, ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker C) Anticoagulant, antihypertensive, calcium supplement D) Beta-blocker, potassium supplement, anticoagulant
b Diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and beta-blockers are all commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Antiplatelet aggregators, calcium and potassium supplements, and anticoagulants are less likely to relate directly to a diagnosis of heart failure.
The nurse working in the ICU knows that chronic elevation of left ventricular end-diastolic pressure will result in the patient displaying which of the following clinical manifestations? A) Chest pain and intermittent ventricular tachycardia B) Dyspnea and crackles in bilateral lung bases C) Petechia and spontaneous bleeding D) Muscle cramping and cyanosis in the feet
b Although it may preserve the resting cardiac output, the resulting chronic elevation of left ventricular end-diastolic pressure is transmitted to the atria and the pulmonary circulation, causing pulmonary congestion.
A client has been diagnosed with mitral valve stenosis following his recovery from rheumatic fever. Which of the following teaching points would be most accurate to convey to the client? A) "The normal tissue that makes up the valve between the right sides of your heart has stiffened." B) "Your mitral valve isn't opening up enough for blood to flow into the part of your heart that sends blood into circulation." C) "Your heart's mitral valve isn't closing properly so blood is flowing backward in your heart and eventually into your lungs." D) "The valve between your left ventricle and left atria is infected and isn't allowing enough blood through."
b Mitral valve stenosis represents the incomplete opening of the mitral valve during diastole with left atrial distention and impaired filling of the left ventricle. It does not exist in the right side of the heart, and the problem is associated primarily with improper ventricular filling and with pulmonary backflow only secondarily. Although it is often caused by infection, it is not an infectious process of the valve per se.
Which of the following teaching points would be most appropriate for a group of older adults who are concerned about their cardiac health? A) "People with plaque in their arteries experience attacks of blood flow disruption at seemingly random times." B) "The plaque that builds up in your heart vessels obstructs the normal flow of blood and can even break loose and lodge itself in a vessel." C) "Infections of any sort are often a signal that plaque disruption is in danger of occurring." D) "The impaired function of the lungs that accompanies pneumonia or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a precursor to plaque disruption
b Stable plaque is associated with obstruction of blood flow, while unstable plaque may dislodge and result in thrombus formation. Plaque disruption is noted to correlate with sympathetic events and is not seemingly random; infections and respiratory problems are not noted to be associated with obstruction of blood flow, however.
In which of the following patient situations would a physician be most justified in preliminarily ruling out pericarditis as a contributing pathology to the patient's health problems? A) A 61-year-old man whose ECG was characterized by widespread T-wave inversions on admission but whose T waves have recently normalized B) A 77-year-old with diminished S3 and S4 heart tones, irregular heart rate, and a history of atrial fibrillation C) A 56-year-old obese man who is complaining of chest pain that is exacerbated by deep inspiration and is radiating to his neck and scapular ridge D) A 60-year-old woman whose admission blood work indicates elevated white cells, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein levels
b S3 and S4 irregularities and irregular heart rate are not noted symptoms of pericarditis. Widespread T-wave inversions that later normalize; chest pain radiating to the neck and scapula that is worse on inspiration; and high white cells, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein levels are all indicators of pericarditis
Which of the following ECG patterns would the nurse observe in a patient admitted for arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy/dysplasia (ARVC/D)? Select all that apply. A) Atrial flutter B) Ventricular tachycardia with left bundle branch block pattern C) T-wave inversion in the right precordial leads D) Sinus arrhythmia with a first-degree AV block E) Development of a "U" wave following a normal T wave
b,c
A 22-year-old male is experiencing hypovolemic shock following a fight in which his carotid artery was cut with a broken bottle. What immediate treatments are likely to most benefit the man? A) Resolution of compensatory pulmonary edema and heart arrhythmias B) Infusion of vasodilators to foster perfusion and inotropes to improve heart contractility C) Infusion of normal saline or Ringer lactate to maintain the vascular space D) Administration of oxygen and epinephrine to promote perfusion
c
A 3-year-old child with right-sided heart failure has been admitted for worsening of his condition. Which of the following assessments would be considered one of the earliest signs of systemic venous congestion in this toddler? A) Breathlessness with activity B) Excessive crying C) Enlargement of the liver D) Increased urine output
c
A 30-year-old woman presents at a hospital after fainting at a memorial service, and she is diagnosed as being in neurogenic shock. Which of the following signs and symptoms is she most likely to display? A) Faster than normal heart rate B) Pain C) Dry and warm skin D) Increased thirst
c
A 51-year-old patient with a history of alcohol abuse and liver disease has low serum levels of albumin and presents with ascites (excess fluid in his peritoneal space) and jaundice. A health care professional would recognize that which of the following processes is most likely underlying his health problems? A) Low albumin is contributing to excess hydrostatic pressure and inappropriate fluid distribution. B) Low albumin is inducing hypertension and increased filtration of fluid into interstitial spaces. C) Insufficient albumin is causing insufficient absorption of fluid into the capillaries. D) Low albumin contributing to an inability to counter gravitational effects.
c
A nurse who works on a pediatric cardiology unit of a hospital is providing care for an infant with a diagnosis of tetralogy of Fallot. Which of the following pathophysiologic results should the nurse anticipate? A) There is a break in the normal wall between the right and left atria that results in compromised oxygenation. B) The aortic valve is stenotic, resulting in increased afterload. C) Blood outflow into the pulmonary circulation is restricted by pulmonic valve stenosis. D) The right ventricle is atrophic as a consequence of impaired myocardial blood supply.
c
A nurse will be providing care for a female patient who has a diagnosis of heart failure that has been characterized as being primarily right sided. Which of the following statements best describes the presentation that the nurse should anticipate? a) The client has a distended bladder, facial edema, and nighttime difficulty breathing. B) complains of dyspnea and has adventitious breath sounds on auscultation (listening). C) has pitting edema to the ankles and feet bilaterally, decreased activity tolerance, and occasional upper right quadrant pain. D) has cyanotic lips and extremities, low urine output, and low blood pressure.
c
A patient in the emergency department is experiencing a massive stroke with extremely low blood flow to the brain exhibited by a BP less than 60 mm Hg. The nurse suddenly notes there is a sharp rise in the BP to 250 mm Hg. This high BP lasts about 5 minutes, and then the BP drops sharply again. The pathophysiologic principle behind this is likely due to the A) activation of the autonomic nervous system. B) release of mineralocorticoids. C) CNS ischemic response. D) protective homeostatic mechanism.
c
During an automobile accident where the patient is bleeding heavily, which vascular component is the most distensible and can store large quantities of blood that can be returned to the circulation at this time of need? A) Liver and pancreas B) Kidneys C) Veins D) Aorta
c
In which of the following situations would blood most likely rapidly relocate from central circulation to the lower extremities? A) A client undergoes a stress test on a treadmill. B) A client does isotonic exercises in a wheelchair. C) A client is helped out of bed and stands up. D) A client reclines from a sitting to supine position. Ans:
c
On a routine physical exam visit, the physician mentions that he hears a new murmur. The patient gets worried and asks, "What does this mean?" The physician responds, A) "It would be caused by stress. Let's keep our eye on it and see if it goes away with your next visit." B) "This could be caused by an infection. Have you been feeling well the past few weeks?" C) "One of your heart valves is not opening properly. We need to do an echocardiogram to see which valve is having problem." D) "This may make you a little more fatigued than usual. Let me know if you start getting dizzy or light-headed.
c
While intubated for surgery, a patient has inadvertently had his vagus nerve stimulated. What effect would the surgical team expect to observe? A) Decreased vascular perfusion due to parasympathetic stimulation B) Decreased heart rate, contractility, and afterload C) Decreased heart rate as a result of parasympathetic innervation of the heart D) Decreased heart rate as a result of impaired acetylcholine reuptake
c
he initial medical management for a symptomatic patient with obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) would be administering a medication to block the effects of catecholamines. The nurse will anticipate administering which of the following medications? A) Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor B) Lasix, a diuretic C) Propranolol, a β-adrenergic blocker D) Lanoxin, an inotropic
c
n the ICU, the nurse hears an emergency cardiac monitor go off. The nurse looks at the telemetry and notices the patient has gone into ventricular tachycardia. The nurse will likely assess for signs/symptoms of A) development of hypertension with BP 190/98. B) oxygen deprivation with O2 saturation decreasing to approximately 90%. C) decreasing cardiac output due to less ventricular filling time. D) increasing cardiac index by correlating the volume of blood pumped by the heart with an individual's body surface area.
c
Which of the following phenomena would be most likely to accompany increased myocardial oxygen demand (MVO2)? A) Inadequate ventricular end-diastolic pressure B) Use of calcium channel blocker medications C) Increased aortic pressure D) Ventricular atrophy Ans:
c An increase in aortic pressure results in a rise in afterload, wall tension, and, ultimately, MVO2. Increased, not inadequate, ventricular end-diastolic pressure would cause an increase in MVO2, and medications such as calcium channel blockers would decrease MVO2. Hypertrophy of ventricles would occur in response to prolonged wall stress and consequent oxygen demand.
A 78-year-old man has been experiencing nocturnal chest pain over the last several months, and his family physician has diagnosed him with variant angina. Which of the following teaching points should the physician include in his explanation of the man's new diagnosis? A) "I'll be able to help track the course of your angina through regular blood work that we will schedule at a lab in the community." B) "With some simple lifestyle modifications and taking your heparin regularly, we can realistically cure you of this." C) "I'm going to start you on low-dose aspirin, and it will help greatly if you can lose weight and keep exercising." D) "There are things you can do to reduce the chance that you will need a heart bypass, including limiting physical activity as much as possible."
c Aspirin, exercise, and weight loss are all identified treatments for angina. Angina does not normally necessitate blood work, heparin administration, or avoidance of activity.
Which of the following statements provides blood work results and rationale that would be most closely associated with acute coronary syndrome? A) Increased serum creatinine and troponin I as a result of enzyme release from damaged cells B) Increased serum potassium and decreased sodium as a result of myocardial cell lysis, release of normally intracellular potassium, and disruption of the sodium-potassium pump C) Elevated creatine kinase and troponin, both of which normally exist intracellularly rather than in circulation D) Low circulatory levels of myoglobin and creatine kinase as a result of the inflammatory response
c Myocardial necrosis releases creatine kinase and troponins that normally exist intracellularly. Serum creatinine and potassium are not core markers of heart damage, and myoglobin and creatine kinase levels rise, not fall, with cardiac events.
Four patients were admitted to the emergency department with severe chest pain. All were given preliminary treatment with aspirin, morphine, oxygen, and nitrates and were monitored by ECG. Which patient most likely experienced myocardial infarction? A) A 33-year-old male whose pain started at 7 AM during moderate exercise and was relieved by nitrates; ECG was normal; cardiac markers remained stable. B) A 67-year-old female whose pain started at 2 AM while she was asleep and responded to nitrates; the ECG showed arrhythmias and ST-segment elevation; cardiac markers remained stable. C) An 80-year-old woman whose pain started at 6 AM shortly after awakening and was not relieved by nitrates or rest; the ECG showed ST-segment elevation with inverted T waves and abnormal Q waves; levels of cardiac markers subsequently rose. D) A 61-year-old man whose pain started at 9 AM during a short walk and responded to nitrates, but not to rest; ECG and cardiac markers remained stable, but anginal pattern worsened.
c The chest pain of myocardial infarction does not respond to rest or to nitrates. Ischemic injury to the myocardium alters the ECG patterns, often elevating the ST segment and inverting T waves. Abnormal Q waves indicate necrosis. Cardiac markers are released in response to myocardial injury; rising levels indicate damage to the heart. The other patients have angina of varying severity
Which of the following changes associated with aging contributes to heart failure development in older adults? Select all that apply. A) Increased incidence of mitral stenosis B) Sludge buildup in the kidneys C) Elevated diastolic BP D) Increased vascular stiffness E) Inflammation in the joints due to arthritis
c,d
20. Which of the following situations related to transition from fetal to perinatal circulation would be most likely to necessitate medical intervention? A) Pressure in pulmonary circulation and the right side of the infant's heart fall markedly. B) Alveolar oxygen tension increases causing reversal of pulmonary vasoconstriction of the fetal arteries. C) Systemic vascular resistance and left ventricular pressure are both increasing. D) Pulmonary vascular resistance, related to muscle regression in the pulmonary arteries, rises over the course of the infant's first week
d
A 66-year-old obese man with diagnoses of ischemic heart disease has been diagnosed with heart failure that his care team has characterized as attributable to systolic dysfunction. Which of the following assessment findings is inconsistent with his diagnosis? A) His resting blood pressure is normally in the range of 150/90, and an echocardiogram indicates his ejection fraction is 30%. B) His end-diastolic volume is higher than normal, and his resting heart rate is regular and 82 beats/minute. C) He is presently volume overloaded following several days of intravenous fluid replacement. D) Ventricular dilation and wall tension are significantly lower than normal.
d
A nurse is using a stethoscope and blood pressure cuff to manually measure a client's blood pressure. The nurse knows that which of the following facts related to blood flow underlies the ability to hear blood pressure by auscultation (listening)? A) The force of blood with each cardiac contraction produces friction on vessel walls that can be heard and felt. B) The movement of smooth muscle surrounding vessels produces noise that is audible by a stethoscope. C) Turbulent flow of blood during systole produces sound while laminar flow during diastole is silent. D) Pressure pulsation that exceeds the velocity of blood flow is audible and coincides with systolic BP.
d
Mr. V. has been admitted for exacerbation of his chronic heart failure (HF). When the nurse walks into his room, he is sitting on the edge of the bed, gasping for air, and his lips are dusty blue. Vital signs reveal heart rate of 112, respiratory rate of 36, and pulse oximeter reading of 81%. He starts coughing up frothy pink sputum. The priority intervention is to A) have medical supply department bring up suction equipment. B) apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 lpm. C) page the respiratory therapist to come give him a breathing treatment. D) call for emergency assistance utilizing hospital protocol.
d Mr. V. is experiencing acute pulmonary edema. This is a life-threatening condition. The person is seen sitting and gasping for air. The pulse is rapid, the skin is moist, and the lips/nail beds are cyanotic. Dyspnea and air hunger are accompanied by productive cough with frothy and often blood-tinged sputum (pink). The patient needs the emergency responder team (including ICU nurses, physicians, respiratory therapist, etc.) to intervene. Applying O2 by mask will not increase his oxygen level fast enough, and he is probably mouth breathing (gasping for air). Suction equipment may be needed, but getting a physician to give orders for diuretics and inotropic medications is the priority. Of course respiratory therapist will arrive with the emergency assistance team
An 81-year-old male resident of a long-term care facility has a long-standing diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following short-term and longer-term compensatory mechanisms are least likely to decrease the symptoms of his heart failure? A) An increase in preload via the Frank-Starling mechanism B) Sympathetic stimulation and increased serum levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine C) Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and secretion of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) D) AV node pacemaking activity and vagal nerve suppression
d Reassignment of cardiac pacemaking activities and suppression of the vagal nerve are not noted compensatory actions related to heart failure. Increased preload and sympathetic stimulation, increased levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine, and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and secretion of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) are all noted compensatory mechanisms.
A number of clients have presented to the emergency department in the last 32 hours with complaints that are preliminarily indicative of myocardial infarction. Which of the following clients is least likely to have an ST-segment myocardial infarction (STEMI)? A 70-year-old woman who is complaining of shortness of breath and vague chest discomfort B) A 66-year-old man who has presented with fatigue, nausea and vomiting, and cool, moist skin C) A 43-year-old man who woke up with substernal pain that is radiating to his neck and jaw D) A 71-year-old man who has moist skin, fever, and chest pain that is excruciating when he moves but relieved when at rest
d STEMI pain is not normally relieved by rest, nor would fever be a common symptom. Shortness of breath, vague chest discomfort, fatigue, GI symptoms, and radiating substernal pain are all associated with STEMI.