Pathophysiology - Final Exam, Fall 2019
When a patient wants to know how many vertebrae make up the vertebral column, the nurse responds with: A. 33 B. 23 C. 43 D. 7
A. 33
Which embryonic stem cell characteristic is referred to as totipotent? A. Ability to differentiate into any type of somatic cell B. Ability to repair its own DNA C. Ability to determine which parental chromosome copy it will imprint D. Ability to minimize the impact of poor in-utero nutrition
A. Ability to differentiate into any type of somatic cell
What term is used to identify the period that follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? A. Absolute refractory B. Hyperpolarization C. Resting D. Threshold
A. Absolute refractory
An alcoholic checked into a rehab center. He experiences delirium, inability to concentrate, and is easily distracted. From which of the following is he most likely suffering? A. Acute confusional state B. Echolalia C. Dementia D. Dysphasia
A. Acute confusional state
A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, and hematuria. These signs and symptoms support which diagnosis? A. Acute cystitis. B. Renal calculi. C. Chronic renal failure. D. Postrenal renal failure.
A. Acute cystitis
What is the most common form of childhood leukemia? A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML) C. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) D. Chromic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
A 60-year-old female with a 25-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. She has an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter. The nurse attributes this finding to: A. Air trapping B. Alveolar destruction C. Decreased inspiratory reserve volumes D. Increased flow rates
A. Air trapping
A 60-year-old with a 25-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. Assessment shows an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter. The nurse attributes this finding to: a. air trapping. b. decreased inspiratory reserve volumes. c. increased flow rates. d. alveolar destruction.
A. Air trapping
A 60-year-old with a 25-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. Assessment shows an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter. The nurse attributes this finding to _____. A. Air trapping. B. Decreased inspiratory reserve volumes. C. Increased flow rates. D. Alveolar destruction.
A. Air trapping.
A 36-year-old male is experiencing frontotemporal hair recession. He is diagnosed with male pattern baldness, which is a form of _____. A. Alopecia. B. Areata. C. Hirsutism. D. Paronychia.
A. Alopecia.
An infant male experiences a constant dribbling of urine. His urethral opening is located behind the glans. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart? A. Anterior epispadias. B. Posterior epispadias. C. Exstrophy of the bladder. D. Bladder outlet obstruction.
A. Anterior epispadias.
A 6-year-old female is diagnosed with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system. Which of the following will most likely try to fight the antigen? A. Antibodies B. Cytoxic T cells C. Self-antigens D. Helper T cells
A. Antibodies
An immunologist has isolated a molecule from the human body to study. It is found to react with antibodies on B cells. Further testing reveals that the molecule is large and chemically diverse. What type of molecule is the immunologist studying? A. Antigen B. Immunogen C. Epitope D. Paratope
A. Antigen
A 6-year-old male presents with fatigue, jaundice, and irritability. A blood smear shows the presence of sickled cells. Erythropoiesis is compromised in this child; which crisis should the nurse monitor the patient for? A. Aplastic crisis B. Sequestration crisis C. Sequestration crisis D. Vaso-occlusive crisis
A. Aplastic crisis
Of the following groups, who are at highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? A. Blacks over 65 years of age B. Whites over 65 years of age C. Blacks under 65 years of age D. Whites under 65 years of age
A. Blacks over 65 years of age
A patient is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure. This increase results in: A. Brain tissue hypoxia B. Intracranial hypotension C. Ventricular swelling D. Expansion of the cranial vault
A. Brain tissue hypoxia
When a student asks what can cause dilated, fixed pupils, what is the nurse's best response? Dilated fixed pupils can be caused by: A. Brainstem hypoxia B. Cerebral contusions C. Compression of the hypothalamus D. Spinal shock
A. Brainstem hypoxia
A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. Which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur? A. Bronze-colored skin B. Decreased iron C. Normochromic erythrocytes D. Aplastic bone marrow
A. Bronze-colored skin
Chromosome aberrations and mutations in cells that were not directly irradiated are referred to as: A. Bystander effects B. Lethal mutation C. Delayed reproductive death D. Genetic instability
A. Bystander effects
A young male student becomes very hungry during class. He begins thinking of a cheeseburger and fries, his favorite meal. These thoughts will trigger which phase of gastric secretion? A. Cephalic. B. Gastric. C. Enteral. D. Intestinal.
A. Cephalic.
Blockage of which of the following would cause hydrocephalus? A. Cerebral aqueduct B. Inferior colliculi C. Red nucleus D. Tegmentum
A. Cerebral aqueduct
The directional migration of leukocytes along a chemical gradient is termed: A. Chemotaxis B. Endocytosis C. Margination D. Diapedesis
A. Chemotaxis
A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following symptoms most likely occurred before treatment? A. Chest pain and shortness of breath B. Shallow respirations and wheezing C. Dry cough and inspiratory crackles D. Kussmaul respirations and back pain
A. Chest pain and shortness of breath
The breathing pattern that reflects respirations based primarily on carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood is: A. Cheyne-Stokes B. Ataxic C. Central neurogenic D. Normal
A. Cheyne-Stokes
A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed with lung cancer. He was previously exposed to air pollution, asbestos, and radiation at his job. Which of the following should the nurse realize had the greatest impact on the development of his cancer? A. Cigarette smoke B. Asbestos C. Air pollution D. Radiation
A. Cigarette smoke
What term is used to describe a premature closure of one or more of the cranial sutures during the first 18 months of life? A. Craniosynostosis B. Congenital hydrocephalus C. Microcephaly D. Acrania
A. Craniosynostosis
What event occurs in about 70% of the cases of childhood cancers? A. Cured B. Required only chemotherapy C. Participated in clinical trials D. Developed a secondary malignancy
A. Cured
A 1-year-old female with ventricular septal defect is experiencing left-sided heart failure. Which symptom will most likely occur? A. Failure to thrive B. Increased urinary output C. Jaundice D. Flat neck veins
A. Failure to thrive
Menstruation is followed by the _____ phase of the menstrual cycle. A. Follicular. B. Luteal. C. Secretory. D. Ischemic.
A. Follicular.
A coup injury resulting from a blow to the frontal portion of the skull would occur in which region of the brain? A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Parietal D. Occipital
A. Frontal
The _____ reflex initiates propulsion in the entire colon, usually during or immediately after eating. A. Gastrocolic. B. Ileocolic. C. Duodenocolic. D. Cephalocolic.
A. Gastrocolic.
A patient has increased intraocular pressure. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? A. Glaucoma B. Ocular degeneration C. Diplopia D. Nystagmus
A. Glaucoma
A nurse is describing the slit-shaped space between the true vocal cords. What term should the nurse use? A. Glottis. B. Epiglottis. C. Larynx. D. Carina.
A. Glottis.
A 3-year-old is making play cakes in the sandbox and is eating the play cakes. The sand was also being used by cats as a litter box and was contaminated with toxoplasmosis. Which of the following would likely present? A. Granuloma formation B. Degranulation C. Blood clots D. Exudate production
A. Granuloma formation
Which patient will develop active immunity? A patient who: A. Has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization B. Receives preformed antibodies or T cells from a donor C. Has T cells that become B cells D. Receives immunoglobulin
A. Has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization
A patient is admitted to the neurological critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. When an intraventricular catheter is inserted, the intracranial pressure (ICP) is recorded at 24 mm Hg. How should the nurse interpret this reading? A. Higher than normal B. Lower than normal C. Normal D. Borderline
A. Higher than normal
Which process of fluid movement describes the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary? A. Hydrostatic pressure B. Osmosis C. Diffusion D. Active transport
A. Hydrostatic pressure
A patient's arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide levels. What is the most likely cause of this situation? A. Hyperventilation. B. Hypoventilation. C. Apnea. D. Cyanosis.
A. Hyperventilation.
A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. CT scan reveals that the cancer is limited to the ovaries. It would be classified as stage _____. A. I. B. II. C. III. D. IV.
A. I.
Which type of scoliosis accounts for the majority of the cases of scoliosis? A. Idiopathic. B. Infectious. C. Iatrogenic. D. Secondary.
A. Idiopathic.
Which statement indicates a correct understanding of antibodies? The most abundant class of antibody in the serum is: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE
A. IgG
Which reflex inhibits gastric motility when the ileum becomes overdistended? A. Ileogastric. B. Gastroduodenal. C. Gastroileal. D. Gastrocolic.
A. Ileogastric.
When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will experience hypertrophy which is a/an: A. Increase in size B. Decrease in length C. Increase in excitability D. Decrease in number
A. Increase in size
A 56-year-old female is in menopause. She has ovarian failure. While checking the lab results, which of the following will the nurse find? A. Increased FSH. B. Increased estrogen. C. Decreased GnRH. D. Decreased LH.
A. Increased FSH.
Which characteristic of Prader-Wili syndrome is not a characteristic of Angelman syndrome? A. It is inherited from the father B. Mental retardation is observable C. Imprinting of an abnormal chromosome 15 D. Seizure disorder is present
A. It is inherited from the father
Which type of nephron determines the concentration of the urine? A. Juxtamedullary. B. Midcortical. C. Cortical. D. Medullary.
A. Juxtamedullary.
Which type of nephron determines the concentration of the urine? A. Juxtamedullary. B. Midcortical. C. Cortical. D. Medullary.
A. Juxtamedullary.
A 3-year-old female was diagnosed with Wilms tumor. This disease is a tumor of the: A. Kidney B. Brain C. Bone marrow D. Liver
A. Kidney
For a patient with respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by the body will include: A. Kidney excretion of H+ B. Kidney excretion of HCO3 C. Prolonged exhalations to blow off CO2 D. Protein buffering
A. Kidney excretion of H+
A nurse observes on the chart that a patient is admitted with Wilms tumors. A nurse knows the tumors are found in the _____. A. Kidneys. B. Ureters. C. Bladder. D. Urethra.
A. Kidneys.
A nurse observes on the chart that a patient is admitted with Wilms tumors. A nurse knows the tumors are found in the _____. A. Kidneys. B. Ureters. C. Bladder. D. Urethra.
A. Kidneys.
A 5-year-old is diagnosed with tinea corporis following development of lesions on the nonhairy parts of the face, trunk, and limbs. What is a common source of this condition? A. Kitten. B. Pet bird. C. Hamster. D. Horse.
A. Kitten.
Which cells are involved in initiating immune responses in the skin? A. Langerhans cells. B. Merkel cells. C. Keratinocytes. D. Melanocyte.
A. Langerhans cells.
While auscultating a patient's lungs, a nurse recalls the alveoli in the apices of the lungs are _____ than alveoli in the bases. A. Larger. B. More numerous. C. More compliant. D. Less perfused.
A. Larger.
A nurse is preparing to teach the most common malignancy in children. Which malignancy should the nurse discuss? A. Leukemia B. Neuroblastoma C. Wilms tumor D. Retinoblastoma
A. Leukemia
Which group of people is most prone to color blindness? A. Males B. Females C. Elderly persons D. Children
A. Males
If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which substance should the nurse monitor? A. Melatonin B. Epinephrine C. Cortisol D. Somatostatin
A. Melatonin
A patient has paralysis of both legs. What type of paralysis does the patient have? A. Paraplegia B. Quadriplegia C. Infraparaplegia D. Paresthesia
A. Paraplegia
The nurse is describing the movement of blood into and out of the capillary beds of the lungs to the body organs and tissues. What term should the nurse use to describe this process? A. Perfusion. B. Ventilation. C. Diffusion. D. Circulation.
A. Perfusion
Gastroscopy reveals degeneration of the gastric mucosa in the body and fundus of the stomach. This condition increases the risk for the development of _____. A. Pernicious anemia. B. Osmotic diarrhea. C. Increased acid secretion. D. Decreased gastrin secretion.
A. Pernicious anemia.
A 30 year old female presents with hypertension, headache, tachycardia, impaired glucose tolerance and weight loss. Which of the following diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart? A. Pheochromocytoma B. Conn disease C. Addison disease D. Cushing disease
A. Pheochromocytoma
A 47-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary edema. Which assessment findings will the nurse observe? A. Pink, frothy sputum B. Wheezing C. Thick mucus secretions D. Hypocapnia
A. Pink, frothy sputum
Aspiration of oral secretions increases a patient's risk for which complication? a. Pneumonia b. Bronchiectasis c. Pneumothorax d. Emphysema
A. Pneumonia
Aspiration of oral secretions increases a patient's risk for which complication? A. Pneumonia. B. Bronchiectasis. C. Pneumothorax. D. Emphysema.
A. Pneumonia.
Most cases of combined systolic and diastolic hypertension have no known cause and are documented on the chart as _____ hypertension. A. Primary B. Secondary C. Congenital D. Acquired
A. Primary
A 4-year-old male is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following assessment findings accompanies this condition? A. Proteinuria. B. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN). C. Hematuria. D. Sodium loss.
A. Proteinuria.
An 8-week-old infant's well baby check reveals a murmur, and an echocardiogram shows a large ventricular septal defect. If left untreated, what condition could develop? A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Cyanosis C. Dysrhythmia D. Valve damage
A. Pulmonary hypertension
A 2-week-old infant vomits forcefully immediately after feeding for no apparent reason and is frequently constipated. These signs support which diagnosis? A. Pyloric stenosis. B. Meconium ileus. C. Esophageal atresia. D. Galactosemia.
A. Pyloric stenosis.
Neurotransmitters interact with the postsynaptic membrane by binding to which structure? A. Receptors B. Nissl body C. Glial cell D. Neurofibril
A. Receptor
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease? A. Reflux esophagitis. B. Intestinal parasites. C. Ingestion of salty foods. D. Frequent use of antacids.
A. Reflux esophagitis.
A 39-year-old is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following behaviors may have contributed to the development of the ulcer? A. Regular NSAID use. B. Drinking caffeinated beverages. C. Consuming limited fiber. D. Antacid consumption.
A. Regular NSAID use.
A 5-year-old female is found to have hypertension during three separate visits to her primary care provider. The nurse would expect tests to suggest that the hypertension is secondary to: A. Renal disease B. Brain tumor C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyponatremia
A. Renal disease
A 21-year-old is diagnosed with ankylosing spondyltis. The most likely joint to be affected would be the _____. A. Sacroiliac. B. Carpal. C. Shoulder. D. Knee.
A. Sacroiliac.
What is the primary organism responsible for osteomyelitis? A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Salmonella. C. Mycobacterium. D. Haemophilus influenza.
A. Staphylococcus aureus.
Which reflex of infancy will disappear first? A.Stepping B. Rooting C. Palmar grasp D. Moro reflex
A. Stepping
A 50-year-old male sustained a closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident. CT scan revealed a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain. Which type of injury will the nurse be caring for? A. Subdural hematoma B. Epidural hematoma C. Contusion D. Abrasion
A. Subdural hematoma
A 34-year-old female was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Physical examination revealed that inflammation is noted in various _____. A. Synovial membranes. B. Short bones. C. Subchondral bones. D. Bursae sacs.
A. Synovial membranes.
A 56-year-old presents to his primary care provider for a check-up. Physical exam reveals edema, hepatomegaly, and muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is the greatest concern to the nurse? A. Tamponade B. Exudate C. Aneurysm D. Pulsus paradoxus
A. Tamponade
A nurse is discussing the membrane that separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum. What term should the nurse use to describe this membrane? A. Tentorium cerebelli B. Falx cerebri C. Arachnoid membrane D. Temporal lobe
A. Tentorium cerebelli
A 22-year-old presents with chronic bronchitis. Tests reveal closure of the airway during expiration. This condition is most likely caused by _____. A. Thick mucus from hypertrophied glands. B. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch. C. Hyperventilation. D. Thinning smooth muscle in the bronchioles.
A. Thick mucus from hypertrophied glands.
Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations? A. Thirst B. Vomiting and abdominal cramping C. Edema D. Polyuria
A. Thirst
In a patient with acidosis, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to shift _____. A. To the right, causing more O2 to be released to the cells. B. To the left, allowing less O2 to be released to the cells. C. Downward, allowing less O2 to dissolve in the plasma. D. Upward, allowing more O2 to dissolve in the plasma.
A. To the right, causing more O2 to be released to the cells.
A 10-year-old is diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea. When the parents ask, the nurse shares that the initial treatment will be _____. A. Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. B. Weight loss. C. Continuous positive airway pressure. D. Drug therapy.
A. Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy.
What is the most common aggravating trigger of gouty arthritis attacks? A. Trauma. B. Anemia. C. High-fat foods. D. Lack of exercise.
A. Trauma.
A 35-year-old presents with symptomology that is associated with syphilis. What organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? A. Treponema pallidum. B. Chlamydia trachomatis. C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D. Haemophilus ducreyi.
A. Treponema pallidum.
What term is used to describe a retrograde flow of urine from the urinary bladder into the ureters that is the cause of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs)? A. Vesicoureteral reflux. B. Vesicourethral reflux. C. Vesicourethral influx. D. Hydronephrosis.
A. Vesicoureteral reflux.
Rubella, rubeola, and roseola are common communicable diseases caused by _____ infection. A. Viral. B. Bacterial. C. Yeast. D. Fungal.
A. Viral.
While reviewing the results of the pulmonary functions test, the nurse is aware that the maximum amount of gas that can be displaced (expired) from the lungs is called _____. A. Vital capacity (VC). B. Total lung capacity (TLC). C. Functional capacity. D. Residual volume.
A. Vital capacity (VC).
Multiple Sclerosis most commonly affects: A. Women age 18-45 B. Men age 18-45 C. Women age 45-60 D. Men age 45-60
A. Women age 18-45
Marasmus is most common in children of which age group? A. Younger than 1 year. B. 1-2 years. C. 5-6 years. D. 12-15 years.
A. Younger than 1 year.
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) peaks between _____ and _____ months. A. 1;2. B. 2;4. C. 6;8. D. 10;12.
B. 2;4.
A nurse should document on the chart that chronic pain is occurring when the patient reports the pain has lasted longer than: A. 1 month B. 3-6 months C. 1 year D. 2-3 years
B. 3-6 months
When checking lab results, the nurse remembers that the normal leukocyte count is: A. 1,000-2,000 per cubic millimeter B. 5,000-10,000 per cubic millimeter C. 4.2-6.2 million per cubic millimeter D. 1.2-2.2 million per cubic millimeter
B. 5,000-10,000 per cubic millimeter
A 9-month old was diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta. This disease is caused by _____. A. Uterine teratogens. B. A genetic defect. C. Malnutrition. D. Trauma.
B. A genetic defect.
A 5-year-old develops chickenpox after exposure at a daycare center. This disease is caused by _____. A. A pox virus. B. A herpes virus. C. An adenovirus. D. Human papillomavirus (HPV).
B. A herpes virus.
The nurse would anticipate the treatment for pelvic organ prolapse to be _____. A. Insertion of a urinary catheter. B. A pessary. C. Dietary fiber. D. Urinary antispasmodics.
B. A pessary.
The nurse would correctly identify the etiologic agent of smallpox as _____. A. A bacterium. B. A virus. C. Insects. D. Mites.
B. A virus.
A 19-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting restlessness, muscle cramping, and diarrhea. Lab tests reveal that he is hyperkalemic. Which of the following could have caused his condition? A. Primary hyperaldosteronism B. Acidosis C. Insulin secretion D. Diuretic use
B. Acidosis
Which of the following conditions would cause the nurse to monitor for hyperkalemia? A. Excess aldosterone B. Acute acidosis C. Insulin usage D. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Acute acidosis
What phrase describes the condition in which a series of alveoli in the left lower lobe receive adequate ventilation but lack adequate perfusion? a. A right-to-left shunt b. Alveolar dead space c. A low ventilation-perfusion ratio d. Pulmonary hypotension
B. Alveolar dead space
A 1-year-old female is diagnosed with anemia secondary to insufficient erythropoiesis. The most likely cause is: A. Genetic factors B. An iron deficiency C. A hemoglobin abnormality D. An erythrocyte structural abnormality
B. An iron deficiency
An oncologist is discussing when a cancer cell loses differentiation. Which of the following is the oncologist describing? A. Autonomy B. Anaplasia C. Pleomorphic D. Metastasis
B. Anaplasia
Which statement indicates teaching was successful regarding the classical pathway of the complement system? The classical pathway of the complement system is activated by: A. Histamine B. Antigen-antibody complexes C. Leukotrienes D. Prostaglandins
B. Antigen-antibody complexes
The post-surgical patient is experiencing delayed wound healing. The dietitian believes the delay is related to nutritional intake. A deficiency in which of the following substances would directly affect healing? A. Vitamin D B. Ascorbic acid C. Melanin D. Cholesterol
B. Ascorbic acid
A nurse is preparing to teach about brain tumors. Which information should the nurse include? The most common type of brain tumor in children is: A. Neuroblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Meningioma D. Germ cell
B. Astrocytoma
A public health nurse is teaching the community about health promotion. Which information should the nurse include for innate immunity? Innate immunity is gained: A. Following an illness B. At birth C. Via injection of specific antibodies D. In adulthood
B. At birth
Which information indicates a correct understanding of viral vaccines? Most viral vaccines contain: A. Active viruses B. Attenuated viruses C. Killed viruses D. Viral toxins
B. Attenuated viruses
_____ is an inflammation of the glans penis. A. Phimosis. B. Balanitis. C. Priapism. D. Hydrocele.
B. Balanitis.
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment? A. Eosinophilia B. Basophilia C. Monocytosis D. Lymphocytosis
B. Basophilia
What is the primary clinical manifestation of a stress ulcer? A. Bowel obstruction. B. Bleeding. C. Pulmonary embolism. D. Hepatomegaly.
B. Bleeding.
The glands of Montgomery are located in the _____. A. Testes. B. Breasts. C. Uterus. D. Vagina.
B. Breasts.
A neurologist is teaching about the region responsible for motor aspects of speech. Which area is the neurologist discussing? A. Wernicke area B. Broca area C. Brodmann area 4 D. Brodmann area 6
B. Broca area
An infant was born 10 weeks premature and requires mechanical ventilation. Two months later, the infant presents with hypoxemia and hypercapnia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe documented on the chart? A. Respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn. B. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia. C. Bronchiolitis. D. Pneumonia.
B. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
As a portion of the assessment of the patient with meningitis, the health care provider flexes the patient's neck to the chest. The patient responds with flexion of the legs and thighs. The name for this response is: A. Decorticate posturing B. Brudzinski's sign C. Decerebrate posturing D. Kernig's sign
B. Brugzinski's sign
What structure conducts action potentials down the atrioventricular septum? A. Bachmann bundle B. Bundle of His C. Sinoatrial node D. Atrioventricular nodef
B. Bundle of His
Digestion begins in the mouth with salivary _-amylase (ptyalin) that initiates the digestion of _____. A. Proteins. B. Carbohydrates. C. Fats. D. Amino acids.
B. Carbohydrates.
Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering system? A. Protein/fat B. Carbonic acid/bicarbonate C. Sodium/potassium D. Amylase/albumin
B. Carbonic acid/bicarbonate
One reason why carcinomas rarely occur in childhood is: A. Carcinomas are mesodermal B. Carcinomas are due to environmental exposures C. Carcinomas cannot develop in an immunosuppressed environment D. Carcinomas develop primarily in secondary sexual organs
B. Carcinomas are due to environmental exposures
A 50-year-old is diagnosed with lung cancer. The health history includes a 30-year history of smoking, exposure to air pollution, asbestos, and radiation. What had the greatest impact on the development of his cancer? A. Radiation. B. Cigarette smoke. C. Asbestos. D. Air pollution.
B. Cigarette smoke
A biopsy of the lung bronchi revealed ciliated epithelial cells that are capable of secretion and absorption. These cells are called: A. Simple columnar epithelium B. Ciliated simple columnar epithelium C. Stratified columnar epithelium D. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
B. Ciliated simple columnar epithelium
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because: A. Prothrombin is activated B. Clotting factors are depleted C. Inflammatory mediators are released D. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated
B. Clotting factors are depleted
The nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because: A. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling B. Clotting factors are produced in the liver C. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system D. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis
B. Clotting factors are produced in the liver
Individuals with Raynaud disease need to be counseled to avoid which of the following conditions to prevent severe symptoms? A. Allergic reactions B. Cold exposure C. Hot water immersion D. Tissue injury
B. Cold exposure
A patient has a severe kidney obstruction leading to removal of the affected kidney. Which of the following would the nurse expect to occur? A. Atrophy of the remaining kidney. B. Compensatory hypertrophy of the remaining kidney. C. Dysplasia in the remaining kidney. D. Renal failure.
B. Compensatory hypertrophy of the remaining kidney.
A 10-year-old presents with headache and seizures. CT scan reveals a tumor that is located near the pituitary gland. Which of the following is the most likely tumor type? A. Astrocytoma B. Craniopharyngioma C. Ependymoma D. Medulloblastoma
B. Craniopharyngioma
Which of the following patients has the best chance of recovery from nerve injury? A patient with a(n): A. Torn nerve B. Crushed nerve C. Injury located closer to the cell body of the nerve D. Injury located closer to the synapse
B. Crushed nerve
A 22-year-old underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, the patient experienced a peptic ulcer. This ulcer is referred to as a/an _____ ulcer. A. Infectious. B. Cushing. C. H. Pylori. D. Curling.
B. Cushing.
A 25-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal cortex. Which finding would the nurse expect to see in the lab results? A. Decreased blood volume B. Decreased K+ levels C. Increased urine Na+ levels D. Increased white blood cells
B. Decreased K+ levels
A 25-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting vaginal discharge of a white, viscous, and foul-smelling substance. She reports that she has been taking antibiotics for the past 6 months. Which finding will the nurse most likely see on the microorganism report? A. Clostridium difficile overgrowth B. Decreased lactobacillus C. Streptococcus overgrowth D. Decreased candida albicans
B. Decreased lactobacillus
During a routine pelvic exam, a 34-year-old female is found to have an ovarian cyst containing skin, hair, cartilage, and bone. This cyst is classified as a _____ cyst. A. Follicular. B. Dermoid. C. Corpus luteal. D. Micro.
B. Dermoid.
A nurse recalls the freely moveable joint is an example of which type of joint? A. Amphiarthrosis. B. Diarthrosis. C. Synarthrosis. D. Symphysis.
B. Diarthrosis.
A 10-year-old female develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal retractions. She reports that breathing is difficult and she feels she cannot get enough air. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? A. Cyanosis B. Dyspnea C. Hyperpnea D. Orthopnea
B. Dyspnea
A child is diagnosed with cerebral palsy, characterized by extreme difficulty in fine motor coordination and purposeful movement. Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is the child experiencing? A. Ataxic B. Dystonic C. Spastic D. Mixed
B. Dystonic
When histamine is released in the body, which of the following responses would the nurse expect? A. Bronchial dilation B. Edema C. Vasoconstriction D. Constipaton
B. Edema
Which of the following lab values would the nurse expect in a patient who has sustained trauma to the lungs and chest wall and is experiencing respiratory failure? A. Electrolyte imbalances. B. Elevated PaCO2 C. Low hematocrit. D. Elevated pH.
B. Elevated PaCO2
Stress-induced catecholamine release from the adrenal medulla may result in: A. Decreased blood flow to the brain B. Elevated blood pressure C. Decreased glycogen synthesis D. Decreased muscle contraction
B. Elevated blood pressure
An 80-year-old female develops pneumonia in the hospital. She becomes cyanotic, tachycardic, and develops a fever and cough. Chest x-ray reveals pus in the pleural space. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis documented on the chart? A. Chyle B. Empyema C. Emphysema D. Pleurisy
B. Empyema
When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should an oncologist discuss? A. Increasing hypersensitivity B. Facilitating new mutations C. Promoting cell death D. Enhancing mitosis
B. Facilitating new mutations
Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because _____. A. Children have lower adipose reserves. B. Fluid reserves are lower in children. C. Children have a lower metabolic rate. D. Children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.
B. Fluid reserves are lower in children.
The ova are contained within the ovarian _____. A. Corpus luteum. B. Follicle. C. Stroma. D. Infundibulum.
B. Follicle.
A 55-year-old presents reporting urinary retention. Tests reveal a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the following is of the most concern to the nurse? A. Vesicoureteral reflux and pyelonephritis. B. Formation of renal calculi. C. Glomerulonephritis. D. Increased bladder compliance.
B. Formation of renal calculi.
A mother has a child that is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. While the mother does not have the disease, which characteristic of her genetic makeup is responsible for the child's disease? A. HbS and HbS B. HbS and HbA C. HbS and HbC D. HbA and HbC
B. HbS and HbA
An increase in the rate of red blood cell breakdown causes which form of jaundice? A. Obstructive. B. Hemolytic. C. Hepatocellular. D. Metabolic.
B. Hemolytic.
ADH release from the posterior pituitary is stimulated by which process? A. Low blood pressure sensed by baroreceptors in the kidneys B. High plasma osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus C. Low osmolality sensed by osmoreceptors in the kidneys D. High concentration of potassium sensed by chemoreceptors in the carotid body
B. High plasma osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
When planning care for the pregnant patient, the nurse will recall that the mammary glands enlarge as a consequence of: A. Compensatory hyperplasia B. Hormonal hyperplasia C. Hormonal anaplasia D. Compensatory anaplasia
B. Hormonal hyperplasia
The nasopharynx is lined with a ciliated mucosal membrane with a highly vascular blood supply. One function of this membrane is to _____. A. Absorb air. B. Humidify air. C. Cool air. D. Exchange gases.
B. Humidify air.
A patient reports tiring easily, having difficulty rising from a sitting position, and the inability to stand on toes. The nurse would expect a diagnosis of: A. Parkinson disease B. Hypotonia C. Huntington disease D. Paresis
B. Hypotonia
The predominant antibody of a typical primary immune response is: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE
B. IgM
Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by _____. A. Swelling of mesangial cells in the Bowman space in response to the presence of bacteria. B. Immune complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory change. C. Inflammatory factors that stimulate cellular proliferation of epithelial cells. D. Accumulation of antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies.
B. Immune complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory change.
Hypovolemia in the early stages of burn shock is directly related to _____. A. Decreased cardiac contractility and shunting of blood away from visceral organs. B. Increased capillary permeability and evaporative water loss. C. Hypometabolism and renal water loss. D. Bacterial infection of the wound and resulting bacteremia.
B. Increased capillary permeability and evaporative water loss.
When a patient is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal cortex, which physiological response would be expected? A. Decreased blood pressure B. Increased incidence of gastric ulcers C. Increased lipogenesis of extremities D. Decreased gastric secretion
B. Increased incidence of gastric ulcers
What is the most likely cause of death associated with sickle cell disease? A. Decreased hemoglobin B. Infection C. An obstructive crisis D. A hyperhemolytic crisis
B. Infection
What genetic disorder is the result if an individual possesses an XXY chromosome configuration? A. Turner B. Klinefelter C. Down D. Fragile X
B. Klinefelter
When the nurse is discussing the sodium-sensing cells of the glomerulus, what term should the nurse use? A. Podocytes. B. Macula densa. C. Mesangial cells. D. Loop of Henle.
B. Macula densa.
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually causd by _____. A. Accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct. B. Obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone. C. Accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder. D. Viral infection of the gallbladder.
B. Obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone.
Once their initial function is complete, what do osteoblasts become? A. Osteoclasts. B. Osteocytes. C. Chondroblasts. D. Osteoids.
B. Osteocytes.
The patient's medication has a side effect of gynecomastia. The nurse would respond that gynecomastia is _____. A. Lack of breast development in women. B. Overdevelopment of breast tissue in males. C. A type of breast cancer. D. Inflammation of the mammary glands.
B. Overdevelopment of breast tissue in males.
Which major symptom indicates to the nurse that a patient diagnosed with sickle cell anemia is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis? A. Peripheral edema B. Pain C. Petichiae D. Enlarged spleen
B. Pain
An 18-year-old female is diagnosed with dysmenorrhea. Which of the following symptoms will she most likely experience? A. Absence of menstruation. B. Painful menstruation. C. Unusually long menstrual period. D. Menstrual irregularity.
B. Painful menstruation.
A 16-year-old male fell off the bed of a pickup truck and hit his forehead on the road. He now has resistance to passive movement that varies proportionally with the force applied. He is most likely suffering from: A. Spasticity B. Paratonia C. Rigidity D. Dystonia
B. Paratonia
When the immunoglobulin crosses the placenta, what type of immunity does the fetus receive? A. Active B. Passive C. Innate D. Cell-mediated
B. Passive
Osgood-Schlatter disease causes inflammation of the _____. A. Shoulder joint. B. Patellar tendon. C. Elbow ligaments. D. Hip cartilage.
B. Patellar tendon.
A 30-year-old presents with penile tenderness and discharge while the physical examination reveals that his foreskin cannot be retracted back of the glans penis. This assessment data is consistent with what condition? A. Paraphimosis. B. Phimosis. C. Peyronie disease. D. Priapism.
B. Phimosis.
When a newborn has a lack of bilirubin uptake, what does the nurse suspect is occurring in the patient? A. Biliary hypertrophy. B. Physiologic jaundice. C. Hepatitis A. D. Infantile cirrhosis.
B. Physiologic jaundice.
An 11-year-old is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for? A. Recurrent infections, visual changes, fatigue, paresthesia B. Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss C. Vomiting, abdominal pain, sweet fruity breath, dehydration, and Kussmaul breathing D. Weakness, vomiting, hypotension, and mental confusion
B. Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss
A nurse is preparing to teach about the most common defects of neural tube closure. Which one should the nurse discuss? A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Lateral D. Superior
B. Posterior
Physical examination of a newborn who dies shortly after birth reveals wide-set eyes, parrot-beak nose, low set ears, and receding chin. These abnormalities support which diagnosis? A. Unilateral renal agenesis. B. Potter syndrome. C. Renal aplasia. D. Renal dysplasia.
B. Potter syndrome.
The onset of Duchenne muscular dystrophy most often occurs at _____. A. 3-6 months. B. Preschool years. C. School age. D. The onset of puberty.
B. Preschool years.
A 60-year-old undergoes surgery for a bone fracture. Which nursing measurement would be most effective for preventing pulmonary embolism in this patient? A. Ensure that patient uses supplemental oxygen. B. Prevent deep vein thrombosis formation. C. Check hematocrit and hemoglobin levels frequently during the postoperative period. D. Promote aggressive fluid intake.
B. Prevent deep vein thrombosis formation.
A 25-year-old male is in a car accident and sustains a fracture to his left femur with extensive soft tissue injury. The pain associated with the injury is related to: A. Histamine B. Prostaglandins C. Vasoconstriction D. Immune complex formation
B. Prostaglandins
When describing the male urinary anatomy, which information should the nurse include? The portion of the male urethra that is closest to the bladder is the _____ portion. A. Membranous. B. Prostatic. C. Cavernous. D. Vas deferens.
B. Prostatic.
A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Biopsy of the tumor reveals Russell bodies, and laboratory testing reveals kidney dysfunction. Which substance should the nurse monitor as it is accumulating in the patient's body? A. Glycogen B. Protein C. Pigment D. Melanin
B. Protein
When the pediatric cardiologist discusses total anomalous pulmonary venous connection, which of the following statements BEST describes this condition? A. The foramen ovale closes after birth B. Pulmonary venous return is introduced into the right atrium C. Pulmonary venous return is introduced into the left atrium D. The foramen ovale does not close
B. Pulmonary venous return is introduced into the right atrium
What represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations? A. PR interval B. QRS complex C. QT interval D. P wave
B. QRS complex
A patient asks why indoor pollution is worse than outdoor pollution. How should the nurse respond? Indoor pollution is considered worse than outdoor pollution because of cigarette smoke and: A. Fireplace wood smoke B. Radon C. Benzene D. Chlorine
B. Radon
Which common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency? A. Anemia B. Recurrent infections C. Hypersensitivity D. Autoantibody production
B. Recurrent infections
In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to: A. Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes B. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation C. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding D. Activate a humoral response
B. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
What structure does urine pass through prior to entering the ureters? A. Collecting duct. B. Renal pelvis. C. Urethra. D. Major calyx.
B. Renal pelvis.
Acne vulgaris involves inflammation of the _____. A. Hair follicles B. Sebaceous follicles. C. Eccrine glands. D. Apocrine glands
B. Sebaceous follicles.
A nurse recalls the pleural membranes are examples of _____ membranes. A. Mucous. B. Serous. C. Synovial. D. Peritoneal.
B. Serous.
Insulin is primarily regulated by: A. Metabolic rate B. Serum glucose levels C. Prostaglandins D. Enzyme activation
B. Serum glucose levels
A low ventilation-perfusion ratio of the lung will result in _____. A. Increased dead space. B. Shunting. C. Alveolar collapse. D. Bronchoconstriction.
B. Shunting
Which organism does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause of empyema. A. Virus. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Fungus. D. Moraxella catarrhalis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
A 75-year-old reports loss of urine with cough, sneezing, or laughing. These symptoms support which diagnosis? A. Urge incontinence. B. Stress incontinence. C. Overflow incontinence. D Functional incontinence.
B. Stress incontinence.
A 35-year-old suffers a broken clavicle following a motor vehicle accident. X-ray reveals that the bone surfaces in the joint partially lost contact with each other. This condition is called _____. A. Dislocation. B. Subluxation. C. Distortion. D. Nonunion.
B. Subluxation.
A nurse takes an adult patient's blood pressure and determines it to be normal. What reading did the nurse obtain? A. Systolic pressure between 140 and 150 mmHg B. Systolic pressure less than 120 mmHg and diastolic pressure less than 80 mmHg C. Systolic pressure less than 100 mmHg of diastolic pressure D. Systolic pressure greater than 140 mmHg and a diastolic pressure of 100 mmHg
B. Systolic pressure less than 120 mmHg and diastolic pressure less than 80 mmHg
A patient has a disease state that results from the secretion of toxins by bacteria. Which medical diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart? A. Malaria B. Tetanus C. Smallpox D. Hepatitis
B. Tetanus
A newborn is severely cyanotic. An echocardiogram reveals transposition of the great arteries. What is the characteristic defect associated with this condition? A. The pulmonary artery leaving the right ventricle B. The aorta leaving the right ventricle C. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) D. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
B. The aorta leaving the right ventricle
A nurse realizes glucose will be excreted in the urine when _____. A. The maximum rate of glucose filtration is achieved. B. The carrier molecules have reached their maximum. C. Glucose is consumed. D. The ability of the kidneys to regulate blood glucose is lost.
B. The carrier molecules have reached their maximum.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a transverse fracture of the femur. Which statement best describes this type of fracture? A. The fracture line is parallel to the bone. B. The fracture line is straight across the bone. C. The fracture line is perpendicular to the bone. D. The fracture line is vertical to the shaft of the bone.
B. The fracture line is straight across the bone.
Which information indicates the nurse understands assessment findings of an aneurysm? A. A headache is the most common symptom B. The majority are asymptomatic C. Nosebleeds are an early symptom D. Epidural hemorrhage occurs in over 80% of patients
B. The majority are asymptomatic
Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of: A. A decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to ions B. The rapid movement of ions across the cell membrane C. A blockade by calcium ions D. Stimuli instigated during the refractory period
B. The rapid movement of ions across the cell membrane
The nurse would correctly identify the medical term for ringworm as _____. A. Impetigo. B. Tinea corporis. C. Thrush. D. Psoriasis.
B. Tinea corporis.
A 20-year-old male was at the supermarket when he fell to the ground. Bystanders reported that he lost consciousness and his body tensed up then relaxed, then tensed and relaxed several times. He most likely was experiencing a(n): A. Myoclonic seizure B. Tonic-clonic seizure C. Focal motor seizure D. Atonic seizure
B. Tonic-clonic seizure
The chronic stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissues is called _____. A. Monoarticular arthritis. B. Tophaceous gout. C. Asymptomatic hyperuricemia. D. Complicated gout.
B. Tophaceous gout.
Heat loss from the body via convection occurs by: A. Evaporation of electromagnetic waves B. Transfer of heat through currents of liquids or gas C. Dilation of blood vessels bringing blood to skin surfaces D. Direct heat loss from molecule-to-molecule
B. Transfer of heat through currents of liquids or gas
Which molecule prevents a muscle contraction from occurring when the muscle is at rest? A. Calcium. B. Troponin-tropomyosin. C. Actin. D. Myosin.
B. Troponin-tropomyosin.
Which physical feature supports the diagnosis of Cushing syndrome? A. Weight loss and muscle wasting B. Truncal obesity and moon face C. Pallor and swollen tongue D. Depigmented skin and eyelid lag
B. Truncal obesity and moon face
A newborn is in respiratory distress and requires ventilation. Tests reveal that he does not produce surfactant due to the absence of _____. A. Mucus-producing cells. B. Type II alveolar cells. C. Alveolar macrophages. D. Goblet cells.
B. Type II alveolar cells.
A newborn experiences frequent periods of cyanosis, usually occurring during crying or after feeding. Which cardiac diagnosis does this history support? A. Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect B. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
B. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
What is the most common type of congenital heart defect assessed for in infants? A. Atrial septal defect (ASD) B. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Atrioventricular canal defect
B. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Absorption of nutrients from the intestine occurs initially through the _____. A. Mesentery. B. Villi. C. Lamina propria. D. Splenic veins.
B. Villi.
Celiac disease, or sprue, is caused by alterations of the intestinal _____. A. Glands. B. Villi. C. Smooth muscle wall. D. Sphincters.
B. Villi.
Most causes of encephalitis are which of the following? A. Bacterial B. Viral C. Fungal D. Toxoid
B. Viral
Pityriasis rosea is caused by a _____. A. Parasite. B. Virus. C. Bacteria. D. Fungus.
B. Virus.
Which principle should the nurse remember while planning care for a patient with respiratory problems? Diffusion of respiratory gases takes place at the: A. Alveolocapillary membrane B. Visceral pleurae C. Parietal pleurae D. Respiratory center
B. Visceral pleurae
What common neurologic disturbances should the nurse assess for in a patient with a pituitary adenoma? A. Coma B. Visual disturbances C. Confused states D. Breathing abnormalities
B. Visual disturbances
As stated by the Frank-Starling law, there is a direct relationship between the _____ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _____ of contraction during the next systole. A. Pressure; volume B. Volume; force C. Viscosity; force D. Viscosity; duration
B. Volume; force
Receptive aphasia is caused by damage to the: A. Broca's area B. Wernicke's area C. The SNS D. Hypothalamus
B. Wernicke's area
Duchenne muscular dystrophy has a/an _____ inheritance pattern. A. Autosomal recessive. B. X-linked recessive. C. Y-linked dominant. D. Autosomal dominant.
B. X-linked recessive.
After a geneticist talks to a patient about being a chromosomal mosaic, the patient asks the nurse what that means. The nurse should respond with: A. You may only be a carrier of the genetic disease B. You may have a mild form of the genetic disease C. You may have two genetic diseases D. You may be sterile as the result of the genetic disease
B. You may have a mild form of the genetic disease
Incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) disease peaks at age______.
6
Cerebral edema is an accumulation of fluid in the:
Brain tissue
When a nurse notices that a patient has type O blood, the nurse realizes that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patients body. A. A only B. B only C. A and B D. O
C. A and B
The autopsy of a 55-year-old revealed an enlarged liver, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. What is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Bacterial infection. B. Viral infection. C. Alcoholic steatohepatitis. D. Drug overdose.
C. Alcoholic steatohepatitis.
Clusters of which type of cells are responsible for bone remodeling? A. Trabeculae. B. Osteoclastic cutting cones. C. Basic multicellular units. D. Haversian system cells.
C. Basic multicellular units.
A 70-year-old female is in the hospital for pelvic fracture. She develops pulmonary thromboembolism. The nurse realizes this embolus is composed of: A. Tissue fragment B. Fat C. Blood clot D. Air
C. Blood clot
How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes? A. By passive electrolyte channels B. By coupled channels C. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme D. By diffusion
C. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (APTase)
A 4-month-old develops oral white spots and shallow ulcers. The pediatrician diagnosis thrush which is caused by _____. A. Escherichia coli. B. Streptococcal bacteria. C. Candida albicans. D. Staphylococcal bacteria.
C. Candida albicans.
Baroreceptors are located in the: A. Renal artery B. Superior vena cava C. Carotid artery D. Circle of Willis
C. Carotid artery
A 50-year-old male suffers a severe head injury when his motorcycle hits a tree. His breathing becomes deep and rapid but with normal pattern. What term should the nurse use for this? A. Ataxic breathing B. Gasping C. Central neurogenic hyperventilation D. Apneusis
C. Central neurogenic hyperventilation
A 20-year old male is brought to the ER for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. A spinal cord injury is suspected. What two regions should the nurse assess as they are most likely to be damaged? A. Cervical ad thoracic regions B. Thoracic and lumbar regions C. Cervical and lumbar regions D. Lumbar and sacral regions
C. Cervical and lumbar regions
The primary bile salts are synthesized from _____ by hepatocytes lining the bile canaliculi. A. Lecithin. B. Fatty acids. C. Cholesterol. D. Testosterone.
C. Cholesterol.
The ophthalmologist is teaching about the structure of the eye that prevents light from scattering in the eye. What structure is the ophthalmologist describing? A. Iris B. Pupil C. Choroid D. Retina
C. Choroid
Confirmation of somatic death is based upon: A. Presence of algor mortis B. Presence of livor mortis C. Complete cessation of respiration and circulation D. Change in skin color to pale yellow
C. Complete cessation of respiration and circulation
In the liver, free bilirubin moves from the plasma in the sinusoids into the hepatocytes, where it is converted into _____. A. Unconjugated bilirubin. B. Biliverdin. C. Conjugated bilirubin. D. Urobilinogen.
C. Conjugated bilirubin.
Molluscum contagiosum affects the skin and _____. A. Nails. B. Tongue. C. Conjunctiva. D. Hair follicles.
C. Conjunctiva.
Which is the most potent naturally-occuring glucocorticoid? A. Aldosterone B. Testosterone C. Cortisol D. Prolactin
C. Cortisol
Meconium ileus is associated with which of the following disorders? A. Pyloric stenosis. B. Esophageal atresia. C. Cystic fibrosis. D. Esophagitis.
C. Cystic fibrosis.
The descent of the bladder and the anterior vaginal wall into the vaginal canal is called a _____. A. Rectocele. B. Varicocele. C. Cystocele. D. Urethrocele.
C. Cystocele.
Behavioral problems and self-care deficits are a likely indicator of: A. An expanding lesion B. An infratentorial lesion C. Damage to the right hemisphere D. Damage to the left frontal lobe
C. Damage to the right hemisphere
Surfactant facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by _____. A. Decreasing thoracic compliance. B. Attracting water to the alveolar surface. C. Decreasing surface tension in alveoli. D Increasing diffusion in alveoli.
C. Decreasing surface tension in alveoli.
A 10-year-old male is playing with matches and gets burned. His burn is waxy white in appearance. This burn is classified as _____. A. First degree. B. Superficial partial-thickness. C. Deep partial-thickness. D. Third degree.
C. Deep partial-thickness.
Which of the following hormones enhances myocardial contractility? A. Oxytocin B. Prolactin C. Epinephrine D. Somatotropin
C. Epinephrine
The process by which an action potential in the plasma membrane of a myocardial cell triggers the events that directly cause contraction of the myocardial cell is referred to as: A. Electrocontraction B. Intercalated communication C. Excitation-contraction coupling D. Myosin communication
C. Excitation-contraction coupling
Mutations in the encoding of histone-modifying proteins have been shown to influence the development of what congenital condition? A. Cleft palate B. Acephalous C. Heart disease D. Webbed digits
C. Heart disease
Fat cells are located in the _________. A. Epidermis B. Dermis C. Hypodermis D. Fascia beneath the skin
C. Hypodermis
During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities? A. Infancy B. Puberty C. In utero D. Middle age
C. In utero
A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident that has resulted in prerenal failure. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition? A. Kidney stones. B. Immune complex deposition. C. Inadequate renal blood flow. D. Obstruction of the proximal tubule.
C. Inadequate renal blood flow.
Which nutrient would the nurse encourage the patient to consume for thyroid hormone synthesis? A. Zinc B. Sodium C. Iodine D. Calcium
C. Iodine
Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain because: A. Debris is not digested by hydrolases B. Of protein denaturation C. It is rich in hydrolytic enzymes/lipids D. Ischemia results in chemical injury
C. It is rich in hydrolytic enzymes/lipids
A nurse recalls that regulation of acid-base balance through removal or retention of volatile acids is accomplished by the: A. Buffer systems B. Skin C. Lungs D. Liver
C. Lungs
Which statement indicates teaching was successful regarding collectins? Collectins are produced by the: A. Kidneys B. Bowel C. Lungs D. Integumentary system
C. Lungs
Which statement indicates the patient has a correct understanding of metastasis? The most common route of metastasis is through the blood vessels and: A. Lung tissue B. Body cavities C. Lymphatics D. Connective tissues
C. Lymphatics
When estrogen and progesterone levels drop, the endometrium enters the _____ phase. A. Proliferative. B. Luteal. C. Menstrual. D. Recovery.
C. Menstrual.
After a patient is exposed to a specific antigen, B cells will differentiate into: A. B cytotoxic cells B. Clonal equivalents C. Plasma cells D. Bursal cells
C. Plasma cells
Fibrinolysis is mediated by: A. Heparin B. Fibrinogen C. Plasmin D. Albumin
C. Plasmin
Which finding would support the diagnosis of respiratory acidosis? A. Vomiting B. Hyperventilation C. Pneumonia D. Increase in noncarbonic acids
C. Pneumonia
During a respiratory assessment of an infant diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome, a depression in the supraclavicular and intercostal areas of the thorax was noted with inspiration. This observation is documented as _____. A. Grunting. B. Tachypnea. C. Retractions. D. Nasal flaring.
C. Retractions.
What is the most common type of cerebral palsy? A. Ataxic B. Dystonic C. Spastic D. Mixed
C. Spastic
A neurologist is teaching about sensory pathways. Which information should the neurologist include? Sensory pathways in the spinal cord to the thalamus are included in the: A. Corticospinal tract B. Pyramids C. Spinothalamic tract D. Anterior column
C. Spinothalamic tract
When a nurse checks the patient for orthostatic hypertension, what activity did the nurse have the patient engage in? A. Physical exertion B. Eating C. Standing up D. Lying down
C. Standing up
When a patient who is trying to get pregnant asks where the usual site of fertilization is, how should the nurse respond? A. The uterus. B. The fimbriae. C. The ampulla of the fallopian tubes. D. The os of the fallopian tubes.
C. The ampulla of the fallopian tubes.
Symptoms of acute bacterial prostatitis are similar to symptoms of _____. A. Prostate cancer. B. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). C. Urinary tract infection (UTI). D. Epididymitis.
C. Urinary tract infection (UTI).
The most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is _____. A. Cystitis. B. Renal cancer. C. Urinary tract obstruction. D. Nephrotic syndrome.
C. Urinary tract obstruction.
A 5-year-old female takes a hike through the woods during a school field trip. Upon returning home, she hugs her father, and he later develops poison ivy. Which of the following immune reactions is he experiencing?
Cell-mediated
A 6-month-old infant is brought to the pediatrician for recurrent colds. The child is fed formula, and the other family members have not been ill. The primary care provider tells the mother that the child's immune system is not yet competent, but will be about 60% of an adult system around age _____ months. A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12
D. 12
What term identifies a muscle acting as a contraction's prime mover? A. Flexor. B. Recruiter. C. Antagonist. D. Agonist.
D. Agonist.
If an infant has hydrops fetalis, which type of thalassemia does the nurse expect? A. Beta minor B. Beta major C. Alpha minor D. Alpha major
D. Alpha major
What term should the nurse use when discussing male sex hormones collectively? A. Gonadotropins. B. Testosterones. C. Catabolic steroids. D. Androgens.
D. Androgens
A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective? A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. Entrance inhibitors D. Antiretroviral therapy (ART)
D. Antiretroviral therapy (ART)
What type of cell supports the forming of the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? A. Endothelial B. Schwann C. Oligodendrocyte D. Astrocyte
D. Astrocyte
A 7-month-old female presents with jaundice, clay-colored stool, and an enlarged liver. Testing reveals the absence of intrahepatic bile ducts. This condition is referred to as _____ atresia. A. Hepatic. B. Portal. C. Sinusoidal. D. Biliary.
D. Biliary.
A 70-year-old hospitalized for a pelvic fracture develops a pulmonary embolism. The nurse realizes this embolus is most commonly composed of: a. fat. b. air. c. tissue fragment. d. blood clot.
D. Blood clot
A 70-year-old hospitalized for a pelvic fracture develops a pulmonary embolism. The nurse realizes this embolus is most commonly composed of _____. A. Fat. B. Air. C. Tissue fragment. D. Blood clot.
D. Blood clot.
A common pathway of irreversible cell injury involves increased intracellular: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Calcium
D. Calcium
Which electrolyte will the nurse check to ensure normal platelet functioning? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Calcium
D. Calcium
When the nurse is discussing the patient's cyclical temperature fluctuation occurring on a daily basis, what term should the nurse use? A. Thermogenesis cycle B. Thermoconductive phases C. Adaptive pattern D. Circadian rhythm
D. Circadian rhythm
Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP? A. Digestion B. Glycolysis C. Oxidation D. Citric acid cycle
D. Citric acid cycle
An adult is diagnosed with communicating hydrocephalus. The form of hydrocephalus in adults is most often caused by: A. Overproduction of CSF B. Intercellular edema C. Elevated arterial blood pressure D. Defective CSF reabsorption
D. Defective CSF reabsorption
The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the sinoatrial (SA) node because it: A. Has a superior location in the right atrium B. Is the only area of the heart capable of spontaneous depolarization C. Has rich sympathetic innervation via the vagus nerve D. Depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart
D. Depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart
When an oncologist is discussing the degree to which an organism's development is contingent on its environment, which of the following is the oncologist explaining? A. Transgenerational inheritance B. Epigenetics C. Histone modification D. Developmental plasticity
D. Developmental plasticity
Palpation of the neck of a patient diagnosed with Graves disease would most likely reveal: A. A normal-sized thyroid B. A small discrete thyroid nodule C. Multiple discrete thyroid nodules D. Diffuse thyroid enlargement
D. Diffuse thyroid enlargement
Which description accurately describes electrolytes? A. Small lipid-soluble molecules B. Large protein molecules C. Micronutrients used to produce ATP D. Electrically charged molecules
D. Electrically charged molecules
The internal lining of the cardiovascular system is formed by what tissue? A. Tunica adventitia B. Connective C. Mesothelium D. Endothelium
D. Endothelium
A 36-year-old reports pain and weakness in the elbow. MRI reveals inflammation of the tendon and the presence of microtears where it attaches to the bone. This condition is called _____. A. Periostitis. B. Muscle strain. C. Bursitis. D. Epicondylopathy.
D. Epicondylopathy.
Which of the following is a water-soluble amine? A. Growth hormone (GH) B. Luteinizing protein (LP) C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D. Epinephrine
D. Epinephrine
A 10-year-old presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause? A. Cytomegalovirus B. Adenovirus C. Human papilloma virus D. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Epstein-Barr virus
A 15-year-old is diagnosed with an outer ear infection. Which of the following is most likely to cause this infection? A. Haemophilus B. Streptococcus pneumonia C. Moraxella catarrhalis D. Escherichia coli
D. Escherichia coli
A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. When the nurse checks the culture results, which of the following organisms is most likely infecting her urinary tract? A. Streptococcus. B. Candida albicans. C. Chlamydia. D. Escherichia coli.
D. Escherichia coli.
A patient is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing a urinary obstruction. Which symptoms would be most likely experienced? A. Anuria. B. Hematuria. C. Pyuria. D. Flank plain.
D. Flank plain.
A patient is looking at a picture of the brain and points to the convolutions on the surface of the cerebrum. The nurse should tell the patient these are called: A. Sulci B. Fissures C. Reticular formations D. Gyri
D. Gyri
A 23-year-old male develops a black eye following a fight. When the aide asks the nurse why this occurred, the nurse's best response is that the bruising is due to an accumulation of: A. Transferrin B. Bilirubin C. Albumin D. Hemosiderin
D. Hemosiderin
A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. These symptoms support which diagnosis? A. Pyloric stenosis. B. Gastric cancer. C. Achalasia. D. Hiatal hernia.
D. Hiatal hernia.
A nurse is preparing to teach about functions to maintain homeostasis and instinctive behavioral patterns. Which area of the brain is the nurse discussing? A. Thalamus B. Medulla C. Cerebellum D. Hypothalamus
D. Hypothalamus
After nearly drowning a 2-year-old developed acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following should the nurse assess the patient for? A. Decreased heart rate. B. Increased lung compliance. C. Increased surfactant production. D. Hypoxemia.
D. Hypoxemia.
Which condition will cause a patient to secrete erythropoietin? A. Low blood pressure B. Hypercarbia C. Inflammation D. Hypoxia
D. Hypoxia
Which information would indicate more teaching is needed regarding hypersensitivity reactions? Type _____ hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response. A. I B. II C. III D. IV
D. IV
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is mainly transported in the blood _____. A. Attached to oxygen (O2). B. Dissolved in red blood cells. C. Combined with albumin. D. In the form of bicarbonate.
D. In the form of bicarbonate.
Osteomalacia is a result of _____. A. Collagen breakdown in the bone matrix. B. Excessive bone resorption. C. Crowding of bone marrow by excessive bone growth. D. Inadequate bone mineralization.
D. Inadequate bone mineralization.
An important factor in the development of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) among Americans is _____. A. Recurrent prostatitis. B. A diet high in fat. C. Cigarette smoking. D. Increased age.
D. Increased age.
A student arrives at school to find that he/she has an exam for which he/she is unprepared. Which physiological response would be expected? A. Decreased lipolysis B. Brochoconstriction C. Decreased cortisol release D. Increased glucagon release
D. Increased glucagon release
The progress notes read: the cerebellar tonsil has shifted through the foramen magnum due to increased pressure within the posterior fossa. The nurse would identify this note as a description of _____ herniation. A. Supratentorial B. Central C. Cingulate gyrus D. Infratentorial
D. Infratentorial
A 19-year-old female with type 1 diabetes mellitus was admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 500 milligrams per deciliter (high); urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high); and arterial pH 7.20 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the "flu" for a week. Which of the following statements best explains her acidotic state? A. Increased insulin levels promote protein breakdown and ketone formation B. Her uncontrolled diabetes has led to renal failure C. Low serum insulin promotes lipid storage and a corresponding release of ketones D. Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation
D. Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation
The majority of intervertebral disk herniations occur between which vertebral levels? A. C1-C3 B. T1-T4 C. T12-L3 D. L4-S1
D. L4-S1
A nurse thinks a patient may be experiencing dementia. Which assessment finding will most help support this diagnosis? A. Depression B. Violent behavior C. Hyperactivity D. Loss of recent and remote memory
D. Loss of recent and remote memory
After teaching about coping, which information indicates a correct understanding? Coping is best defined as the process of: A. Adjusting to disease B. Preventing psychological distress C. Mediating anger D. Managing stressful challenges
D. Managing stressful challenges
A neurologist is teaching the staff about motor neurons. Which structural classification identifies motor neurons? A. Unipolar B. Pseudounipolar C. Bipolar D. Multipolar
D. Multipolar
A nurse recalls bacteria become resistant to antimicrobials by: A. Proliferation B. Attenuation C. Specialization D. Mutation
D. Mutation
The predominant phagocyte of inflammation is the: A. Eosinophil B. Lymphocyte C. Macrophage D. Neutrophil
D. Neutrophil
Which information should the nurse include when teaching about angiogenic factors? In cancer, angiogenic factors stimulate: A. Release of growth factors B. Tumor regression C. Apoptosis D. New blood vessel growth
D. New blood vessel growth
The incidence of fractures of the pelvis is highest in _____. A. Preadolescent boys. B. Adolescent boys. C. Adolescent girls. D. Older adults.
D. Older adults.
Cryptorchidism can be defined as _____. A. A normal development state of the testes. B. An abnormal state in which the testes are overdeveloped. C. Lack of a scrotum. D. Problems with testicular descent.
D. Problems with testicular descent.
A consequence of alveolar hypoxia is: A. Reactive vasodilation B. Local bronchoconstriction C. Decreased respiratory rate D. Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
D. Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
A normal characteristic of aging and the male reproductive system includes _____. A. Changes in libido are not related to health status. B. Tissue responsiveness to testosterone is increased. C. Testicles will experience hypertrophy. D. Refractory time after ejaculation is prolonged.
D. Refractory time after ejaculation is prolonged.
What term is used to describe a chronic renal failure caused by a lack of development of one of the kidneys? A. Renal dysplasia. B. Renal agenesis. C. Hypoplastic kidney. D. Renal aplasia.
D. Renal aplasia.
Which patient should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis? A patient diagnosed with: A. Diabetes insipidus B. Pulmonary disorder C. Cushing syndrome D. Renal failure
D. Renal failure
Which cellular function occurs when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy? A. Metabolic absorption B. Communication C. Secretion D. Respiration
D. Respiration
A patient presents with altered respiratory patterns following head trauma. Based upon the symptoms, which of the following areas does the nurse suspect is injured? A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Reticular formation
D. Reticular formation
As a result of blockage in the pulmonary artery, blood would first back up into the: A. Aorta B. Left ventricle C. Pulmonary veins D. Right ventricle
D. Right ventricle
When a nurse observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6-14 hours after death, the nurse should document this finding as the presence of: A. Liver mortis B. Gangrene C. Algor mortis D. Rigor mortis
D. Rigor mortis
Lab results showing high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit would support a diagnosis of which form of anemia? A. Pernicious B. Folate deficiency C. Iron deficiency D. Sideroblastic
D. Sideroblastic
A patient is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which of the following modifiable risk factors would the nurse suggest the patient change? A. Eating meat B. Living arrangements C. Drinking tomato juice D. Smoking cigarettes
D. Smoking cigarettes
When planning care for a dehydrated patient, the nurse remembers that the principle of water balance is closely related to the balance of: A. Potassium B. Chloride C. Bicarbonate D. Sodium
D. Sodium
While planning care for a newborn, the pediatric nurse recalls that the site of hematopoiesis in the fetus is the: A. Bone marrow B. Kidneys C. Lymph nodes D. Spleen
D. Spleen
Ewing sarcoma originates from _____. A. Osteoblasts. B. Epithelial cells. C. The spleen. D. The bone marrow.
D. The bone marrow.
Where are the target cells for oxytocin located? A. Renal tubules B. Thymus C. Liver D. Uterus
D. Uterus
A nurse recalls the mast cell, a major activator of inflammation, initiates the inflammatory response through the process of:
Degranulation
A child fell off the swing and scraped the right knee. The injured area becomes painful. What else will the nurse observe upon assessment?
Edema at injured site
When a staff member asks the nurse what is the most potent of the following estrogens, what is the nurse's best response? It is:
Estradiol
The nurse would correctly respond that the etiology of a congenital immune deficiency is due to a/an _____.
Genetic defect
An infant develops a fever secondary to a bacterial infection. Which of the following most likely triggered the fever?
Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
A 25-year-old male is in a car accident and sustains a fracture to his left femur with extensive soft tissue injury. The pain associated with the injury is related to:
Kinins and prostaglandins
A nurse is preparing to teach about puberty. Which information should the nurse include? One substance associated with puberty in males and females is the hormone:
Leptin
When phagocytes begin to stick avidly to capillary walls, which process is occurring?
Margination
A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
Neutrophils
A 12-year-old male is fighting with another child when he receives a puncture wound from a pencil. The school nurse cleans and bandages the wound. After about 1 week, the wound would be in which phase of healing?
Resolution
What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential?
Sodium gates open and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive
Healing by secondary intention would occur in which of the following patients? A patient with a:
Stage 4 pressure ulcer
Which factor will help the nurse differentiate leukotrienes from histamine?
Time of release
When an aide asks the nurse what is a purpose of the inflammatory process, how should the nurse respond?
To prevent infection of the injured tissue
When a newborn is admitted with urinary tract infections (UTIs), which type of infection will the nurse look for in the newborn? a. Blood-borne infections b. Infections caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract c. Yeast infections d. Viral infections
a. Blood-borne infections
A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, and hematuria. These signs and symptoms support which diagnosis? a. Acute cystitis b. Renal calculi c. Chronic renal failure d. Postrenal renal failure
a. Acute cystitis
A 53-year-old male with a 10-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. When the nurse is asked what causes this, what is the nurse's best response? Changes in his lungs are caused by: a. Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency b. Fibrotic lung disease c. Viral infections d. Destruction of alveolar macrophages
a. Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
Reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts requires which hormone? a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANP) c. Renin d. Aldosterone
a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Dermal appendages include which of the following structures? (select all that apply) a. Apocrine glands b. Nails c. Dermal papilla d. Haire. e.Eccrine glands
a. Apocrine glands b. Nails d. Haire. e.Eccrine glands
Individuals of which descent are more prone to developing keloids? a. Black b. Northern European c. Asian d. Native American
a. Black
Which of the following people is at highest risk for the development of gout? a. Men aged 40-50 years b. Premenopausal women c. Male adolescents d. Female children
a. Men aged 40-50 years
A 60-year-old male presents with swelling and pain in the knee. CT reveals a tumor has developed from a pre-existing benign bone lesion. This supports which diagnosis? a. Secondary chondrosarcoma b. Rhabdomyoma c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. Fibrosarcoma
a. Secondary chondrosarcoma
Which paired glands lie posterior to the urinary bladder in the male? a. Seminal vesicles b. Prostate glands c. Cowper glands d. Parabladder glands
a. Seminal vesicles
What term is used to describe a torn ligament? a. Sprain b. Strain c. Disunion d. Subluxation
a. Sprain
The patient generally acquires nosocomial pneumonia: a. during hospitalization. b. on airplanes. c. in the winter season. d. at daycare centers.
a. during hospitalization
Endometrial thickening during the proliferative phase is stimulated by increased levelsof: a. estrogen. b. progesterone. c. FSH. d. inhibin.
a. estrogen.
While auscultating a patient's lungs, a nurse recalls the alveoli in the apices of the lungs are _____ than alveoli in the bases. a. larger b. more numerous c. more compliant d. less perfused
a. larger
A 20-year-old presents reporting difficulty breathing when lying down. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? a. Orthopnia b. Tachypnea c. Apnea d. Dyspnea
a. orthopnia
The nurse is describing the movement of blood into and out of the capillary beds of the lungs to the body organs and tissues. What term should the nurse use to describe this process? a. Perfusion b. Ventilation c. Diffusion d. Circulation
a. perfusion
A 34-year-old female was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Physical examination revealed that inflammation is noted in various: a. synovial membranes. b. short bones. c. subchondral bones. d. bursae sacs.
a. synovial membranes.
While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is: a. urine pH. b. body temperature. c. gender. d. serum mineral concentrations.
a. urine pH.
A 20-year-old female presents with vaginal itch and thin-walled pustular lesions and isdiagnosed with candidiasis. This condition is caused by a: a. yeast-like fungus. b. virus. c. bacterium. d. parasite.
a. yeast-like fungus.
A 60-year-old female with a history of alcoholism complains of recent weight gain and right flank pain. Physical examination reveals severe ascites. This condition is caused by decreased: a.Albumin and lack of cellular integrity b.Capillary filtration pressure c.Capillary permeability d.Antidiuretic hormone secretion
a.Albumin and lack of cellular integrity
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) peaks between _____ and ____months of age. a. 1; 2 b. 2; 4 c. 6; 8 d. 10; 12
b. 2; 4
When considering pyelonephritis, where is the site of the infection? a. Bladder b. Renal pelvis c. Renal tubules d. Glomerulus
b. Renal pelvis
Between which structures will you find a joint that contains synchondrosis costal cartilage? a. Vertebrae b. Ribs and sternum c. Sutures of the skull d. Facial bones
b. Ribs and sternum
A 75-year-old reports loss of urine with cough, sneezing, or laughing. These symptoms support which diagnosis? a. Urge incontinence b. Stress incontinence c. Overflow incontinence d. Functional incontinence
b. Stress incontinence
The nasopharynx is lined with a ciliated mucosal membrane with a highly vascular blood supply. One function of this membrane is to: a. absorb air. b. humidify air. c. cool air. d. exchange gases.
b. humidify air.
A disorder similar to osteomalacia that occurs in growing bones of children is termed: a. Paget disease. b. rickets. c. osteomyelitis. d. osteosarcoma.
b. rickets.
If nephrotic syndrome is not caused initially by kidney disease, it is termed _____ nephrotic syndrome. A. Primary. B. Secondary. C. Tertiary. D. Idiopathic.
b. secondary
A 42-year-old female presents with dyspnea; rapid, shallow breathing; inspiratory crackles; decreased lung compliance; and hypoxemia. Tests reveal a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart? a. Malignant respiratory failure b. Postoperative respiratory failure c. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) d. Sarcoidosis
c. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
What physiology is present at the base of the lungs? a. Arterial perfusion pressure is less than that of alveolar gas pressure. b. Arterial perfusion pressure and alveolar gas pressure are less than they are at the apex. c. Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure. d. Arterial perfusion and alveolar gas pressure are equal.
c. Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure.
A 9-year-old contracted influenza. Which of the following complications is of greatest concern to the nurse? a. Emphysema b. Chronic bronchitis c. Bronchiolitis obliterans d. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
c. Bronchiolitis obliterans
What is the most common type of renal stone composed of? a. Struvite b. Cystine c. Calcium d. Uric acid
c. Calcium
A 14-year-old male is experiencing an asthma exacerbation. When reviewing the lab results, which of the following cells in the submucosa promote this inflammatory response and will be elevated? a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes c. Eosinophils d. Macrophages
c. Eosinophils
When giving report, what term should the nurse use to describe the coughing up of bloody secretions? a. Hematemesis b. Cyanosis c. Hemoptysis d. Rhinitis
c. Hemoptysis
A nurse is reviewing the results of an arterial blood gas (ABG) and finds reduced oxygenation of arterial blood. What term should the nurse use to describe this condition? a. Ischemia b. Hypoxia c. Hypoxemia d. Hypocapnia
c. Hypoxemia
What type of phagocytic cell lies between the layers of the renal capillaries? a. Podocytes b. Macula densa cells c. Mesangial cells d. Filtration slits
c. Mesangial cells
A 54-year-old male was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which of the following is the expected treatment of choice? a. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) b. Gold salts c. Methotrexate d. Colchicine
c. Methotrexate
Which term is used to describe the thick middle layer of the uterine wall? a. Epithelial layer b. Endometrium c. Myometrium d. Perimetrium
c. Myometrium
A 70-year-old diagnosed with osteoporosis fell and fractures the left leg at a location of pre-existing abnormality. Which term describes the fracture? a. Fatigue b. Stress c. Pathologic d. Greenstick
c. Pathologic
When a patient has a massive pulmonary embolism (PE), what complications will the nurse monitor for? a. Damage to the lung microcapillaries b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) c. Shock and death d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
c. Shock and death
Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle then develops into: a. an atretic follicle. b. a theca cell. c. a corpus luteum. d. scar tissue.
c. a corpus luteum.
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains: a. alpha cells. b. beta cells. c. acinar cells. d. islets of Langerhans.
c. acinar cells.
The renin-angiotensin system will be activated by: a. increased blood volume. b. elevated sodium concentrations. c. decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles. d. renal hypertension.
c. decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles.
Surfactant facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by: a. decreasing thoracic compliance. b. attracting water to the alveolar surface. c. decreasing surface tension in alveoli. d. increasing diffusion in alveoli.
c. decreasing surface tension in alveoli.
After puberty, the epiphyseal plate calcifies, and the epiphysis and _____ merge. a. epiphyseal line b. diaphyseal plate c. metaphysis d. articular cartilage
c. metaphysis
The inflammatory symptoms of classic gouty arthritis are caused by the crystallization of _____ within the synovial fluid. a. purines b. pyrimidines c. monosodium urate d. acetic acid
c. monosodium urate
Cells of the ____ have receptors for gonadotropins. a. uterus b. breast c. ovary d. vagina
c. ovary
A 46-year-old male diagnosed with gouty arthritis is at high risk for developing: a. cholelithiasis. b. myocarditis. c. renal stones. d. liver failure.
c. renal stones.
A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture secondary to osteoporosis. This condition is caused by an increase in bone: a. density. b. formation. c. resorption. d. mineralization.
c. resorption.
A malignant tumor of striated muscle tissue origin commonly found on the neck is called a: a. myelogenic tumor. b. giant cell tumor. c. rhabdomyosarcoma. d. rhabdomyoma.
c. rhabdomyosarcoma.
The most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is: a. cystitis. b. renal cancer. c. urinary tract obstruction. d. nephrotic syndrome.
c. urinary tract obstruction.
A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as: a.Intussusception b.A volvulus c.A hernia d.Adhesions
c.A hernia
The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is: a.Constipation b.Diarrhea c.Vomiting d.Heartburn
c.Vomiting
When describing a freely movable joint, which term should be used?a. Synarthrosis b. Amphiarthrosis c. Fibrous d. Diarthrosis
d. Diarthrosis
A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. When the nurse checks the culture results, which of the following organisms is most likely infecting her urinary tract? a. Streptococcus b. Candida albicans c. Chlamydia d. Escherichia coli
d. Escherichia coli
When giving report, what term should the nurse use to describe the coughing up of bloody secretions? a. Hematemesis b. Cyanosis c. Rhinitis d. Hemoptysis
d. Hemoptysis
A 57-year-old male presents with cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and decreased lung volume. He is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. When taking the patient's history, which finding is the most probable cause of his illness? a. Allergic reactions b. Flail chest c. Autoimmune disease d. Inhalation of silica, asbestos, mica
d. Inhalation of silica, asbestos, mica
A 6-month-old presents with rhinorrhea, cough, poor feeding, lethargy, and fever and is diagnosed with bronchiolitis. Which of the following will the nurse most likely observe on the culture report? a. Haemophilus influenzae type B b. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus c. Parainfluenza virus d. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus
A 10-year-old male is brought to the ER with prolonged bronchospasm and severe hypoxemia. The most likely diagnosis on the chart is: a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) b. Bronchiectasis c. Exercise-induced asthma d. Status asthmaticus
d. Status asthmaticus
A patient involved in a motor vehicle accident experiences a severe head injury and dies as a result of the loss of respirations. The nurse suspects the area of the brain most likely damaged is the: a. cerebral cortex. b. thalamus. c. basal ganglia. d. brainstem.
d. brainstem
A patient is experiencing respiratory difficulty and retaining too much carbon dioxide. Which receptor sites would be stimulated in an attempt to maintain a normal homeostatic state? a. Irritant b. Stretch c. Peripheral d. Central
d. central
Asthma is thought to be caused by: a. autoimmunity. b. excessive use of antibiotics as a young child. c. an autosomal recessive trait. d. interactions between genetic and environmental factors.
d. interactions between genetic and environmental factors.
A 30-year-old female has a history of frequent candidiasis. The area most likely affectedincludes: (select all that apply) a. plantar surface of the foot. b. eyes. c. ears. d. mucous membranes. e. vagina.
d. mucous membranes. e. vagina.
In burn injury patients, the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used toestimate: a. depth of burn injury. b. possibility of infection. c. degree of systemic involvement. d. total body surface area burned.
d. total body surface area burned.
A patient's arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide levels. What is the most likely cause of this situation? A. Hyperventilation. B. Hypoventilation. C. Apnea. D. Cyanosis.
A. Hyperventilation.
A 35-year-old hypertensive male begins taking a diuretic. Which of the following common side effects of this medication should the nurse monitor? A. Hypokalmeia. B. Hyponatremia. C. Increased uric acid secretion. D. Hypomagnesemia.
A. Hypokalmeia.
A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH). Which electrolyte imbalance would be expected in this patient? A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hypokalemia
A. Hyponatremia
For evaporation to function effectively as a means of dissipating excess body heat, which one of the following conditions must be present? A. Moisture B. Fever C. Pyrogens D. Trauma
A. Moisture
When should a nurse assess for the vomiting and headache that are the classic symptoms of childhood brain tumors? A. Morning B. Early afternoon C. As the sun goes down and darkness begins D. During the middle of the night
A. Morning
Which characteristic of a postural muscle is a result of having substantial amounts of type I muscle fibers? A. Resists fatigue. B. Rapid response time. C. Little contractility. D. Lacks a fascia lining.
A. Resists fatigue.
A nurse recalls that the most frequent location of a neuroblastoma is the: A. Retroperitoneal region B. Mediastinum C. Cervical ganglion D. Lung
A. Retroperitoneal region
When considering pyelonephritis, where is the site of infection? A. Bladder. B. Renal pelvis. C. Renal tubules. D. Glomerulus.
B. Renal pelvis.
The treatment of Osgood-Schlatter disease includes _____. A. Steroids. B. Restriction from physical activity. C. Intense physical therapy. D. Knee replacement surgery.
B. Restriction from physical activity.
A 19-year-old college student reports to his primary care provider that he cannot stay awake in class regardless of how much sleep he gets. Under-stimulation of which area of the brain is likely the site of the problem? A. Corpora quadrigemina B. Reticular activating system C. Cerebellum D. Hypothalamus
B. Reticular activating system
Which condition is considered the ultimate cause of death in the patients with diabetes? A. Renal disease B. Stroke C. Cardiovascular disease D. Cancer
C. Cardiovascular disease
A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. Coagulative necrosis B. Liquefactive necrosis C. Caseous necrosis D. Autonecrosis
C. Caseous Necrosis
When the immunologist says that pathogens possess virulence, what does virulence mean? A. Spreads from one individual to others and causes disease B. Induces an immune response C. Causes disease D. Damages tissue
C. Causes disease
The vermiform appendix is attached to the _____. A. Duodenum. B. Ileum. C. Cecum. D. Sigmoid colon.
C. Cecum.
The vermiform appendix is attached to the _____. A. Duodenum. B. Ileum. C. Cecum. D. Sigmoid colon.
C. Cecum.
When a patient asks about target receptors, which is the nurse's best response? Target cell receptors for most water soluble hormone are located in the: A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Cytosol C. Cell membrane D. Nucleus
C. Cell membrane
Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors? A. Grows slowly B. Has a well-defined capsule C. Cells vary in size and shape D. Is well-differentiated
C. Cells vary in size and shape
A 25-year-old sexually active male presents with urethritis and epididymitis, and is diagnosed with the most common bacterial STI in the United States. What is this infection? A. Gonorrhea. B. Syphilis. C. Chlamydia. D. Herpes.
C. Chlamydia.
What is the most likely cause of chronic bronchitis in a 25-year-old? A. Chronic asthma. B. Air pollution. C. Cigarette smoke. D. Recurrent pneumonias.
C. Cigarette smoke.
An older adult is diagnosed with cerebral aneurism. Where does the nurse suspect the cerebral aneurysm is located? A. Vertebral arteries B. Basilar artery C. Circle of Willis D. Carotid arteries
C. Circle of Willis
Which structure ensures collateral blood flow from blood vessels supplying the brain? A. Carotid arteries B. Basal artery C. Circle of Willis D. Vertebral arteries
C. Circle of Willis
The female erectile organ that secretes smegma is called the _____. A. Introitus. B. Bartholin glands. C. Clitoris. D. Labia minora.
C. Clitoris.
Which system modulates a patient's perception of pain? A. Sensory-discriminative system B. Affective-motivational system C. Cognitive-evaluative system D. Reticular-activating system
C. Cognitive-evaluative system
A 9-month old male was diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta. This disease is caused by errors in the synthesis of _____. A. Elastin. B. Glycoproteins. C. Collagen. D. Calcium salts.
C. Collagen.
Which component of the bone matrix gives bone its tensile strength? A. Calcium. B. Phosphate. C. Collagen. D. Magnesium.
C. Collagen.
A child is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. History reveals that the child's parents are siblings. Cystic fibrosis was most likely the result of: A. X-inactivation B. Genomic imprinting C. Consanguinity D. Obligate carriers
C. Consanguinity
The most commonly occurring cancer of the female reproductive tract is _____ cancer. A. Cervical. B. Ovarian. C. Endometrial. D. Fallopian.
C. Endometrial.
When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is currently being viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers? A. Family genetics B. Lifestyle choices C. Environmental stressors D. Emotional coping skills
C. Environmental stressors
A primary care provider is attempting to diagnose cancer and is looking for a tumor marker. Which of the following could be a possible marker? A. Red blood cells B. Apoptotic cells C. Enzymes D. Neurotransmitters
C. Enzymes
A 21-year-old presents with inflammation of the testes and is diagnosed with orchitis. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? A. Herpes virus. B. Escherichia coli. C. Mumps. D. Cytomegalovirus.
C. Mumps.
Which of the following disorders is manifested primarily in males? A. Cystic fibrosis B. Neurofibromatosis C. Muscular dystrophy D. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Muscular dystrophy
An 11-year-old presents with a low-grade fever and cough and is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. What type of pneumonia does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? A. Pneumonococcal pneumonia. B. Viral pneumonia. C. Mycoplasma pneumonia. D. Streptococcal pneumonia.
C. Mycoplasma pneumonia.
Which answer indicates a nurse understands regeneration of neurons? Neurons that have the capacity for regeneration include: A. Unmyelinated neurons in the brain B. Myelinated neurons in the spinal cord C. Myelinated peripheral neurons D. Postganglionic motor neurons
C. Myelinated peripheral neurons
A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla. He experiences elevated blood pressure and increased anxiety. Which of the following hormones is the predominant one released by the tumor? A. Antidiuretic hormone B. Acetylcholine C. Norepinephrine D. Cortisol
C. Norepinephrine
A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. IN which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained? A. Mitochondria B. Ribosome C. Nucleolus D. Nucleus Cytoplasm
C. Nucleolus
The _____ sphincter controls the movement of waste from the sigmoid colon into the rectum. A. Oddi. B. Ileocecal. C. O'Beirne. D. Internal anal.
C. O'Beirne.
Where is the primary visual cortex of the brain located? A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe
C. Occipital lobe
The nurse is assessing the patient with a pen light. The integrity of which cranial nerve is being evaluated? A. Olfactory B. Vagus C. Oculomotor D. Trigeminal
C. Oculomotor
A 60-year-old female is diagnosed with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to observe? A. Weak pulse B. Excessive thirst C. Oliguria D. Constipation
C. Oliguria
A sign that a newborn infant may have pyloric stenosis is _____. A. Diarrhea. B. Bile regurgitation. C. Olive-sized mass in the upper abdomen. D. Ascites with a fluid wave visible across the abdomen.
C. Olive-sized mass in the upper abdomen.
Polyarthritis is a type of juvenile arthritis in which more than _____ joints are affected.
3
A 50-year-old woman was prescribed a drug that acts as a negative inotrope. Which endogenous substance would be most similar? A. Acetylcholine B. Dopamine C. Epinephrine D. Thyroid hormone
A. Acetylcholine
A 16-month-old female presents with tachycardia, pallor, anorexia, and systolic murmur. The nurse is checking the lab results and the hemoglobin determination indicates a level below ____ grams per deciliter. A. 5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 14
A. 5
A newborn diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome is monitored for atelectasis because of _____. A. A lack of surfactant. B. Pulmonary edema. C. Airway obstruction. D. Pulmonary fibrosis.
A. A lack of surfactant.
Which of the following indicates a nurse understands a proto-oncogene? A proto-oncogene is best defined as: A. A normal gene B. An altered gene C. An inactive gene D. A tumor-suppressor gene
A. A normal gene
A patient presents with breast discharge, dysmenorrhea, and excessive excitability. Tests reveal that all pituitary hormones are elevated. What does the nurse suspect as the most likely cause for these assessment findings? A. A pituitary adenoma B. Hypothalamic hyposecretion C. Hypothalamic inflammation D. Pheochromocytoma
A. A pituitary adenoma
Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending daycare centers and can be attributed to poo handwashing. A. A. B. B. C. C. D. D.
A. A.
A patient begins taking a new drug that causes pupil dilation, vasoconstriction, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and goosebumps. Which of the following receptors are activated? A. A1 B. A2 C. B1 D. B2
A. A1
The symptoms and signs of large bowel obstruction are _____. A. Abdominal distention and hypogastric pain. B. Diarrhea and excessive thirst. C. Dehydration and epigastric pain. D. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding.
A. Abdominal distention and hypogastric pain.
In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damaged is caused by _____. A. Acetaldehyde accumulation. B. Bile toxicity. C. Acidosis. D. Fatty infiltrations.
A. Acetaldehyde accumulation.
The complement, clotting, and kinin systems share which of the following characteristics? A. Activation of a series of proenzymes B. Phagocytosis initiation C. Granulocyte production D. Activated by interferon
A. Activation of a series of proenzymes
Which hormone stimulates the secretion of follicle stimulating hormone? A. Activin. B. Inhibin. C. LH. D. Follistatin.
A. Activin.
A 28-year-old presents to the ER reporting severe chest pain that worsens with respirations or lying down. Other signs include a fever, tachycardia, and a friction rub. Assessment findings support which medical diagnosis? A. Acute pericarditis B. Myocardial infarction (MI) C. Stable angina D. Pericardial effusion
A. Acute pericarditis
Transchondral fractures are most prevalent in _____. A. Adolescents. B. Older adults. C Infants. D. Premenopausal females.
A. Adolescents.
The inability to recognize objects is called: A. Agnosia B. Aphasia C. Agraphia D. Alexia
A. Agnosia
A female student is driving to school when another driver nearly hits her. Her heart begins beating harder and faster as she becomes aroused and scared. Which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome is she experiencing? A. Alarm stage B. Stage of resistance C. Adaptation D. Exhaustion
A. Alarm stage
Which of the following compounds has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with smoking? A. Alcohol B. Steroids C. Antihistimines D. Hypnotics
A. Alcohol
A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is: A. Alive, but less infectious B. Mutated, but highly infectious C. Normal, but not infectious D. Inactive, but infectious
A. Alive, but less infectious
Which is the most beneficial medication treatment for a patient experiencing detrusor sphincter dyssynergia? A. Alpha-blocker. B. Beta-blocker. C. Vasodilator. D. Diuretic.
A. Alpha-blocker.
Which is the most beneficial medication treatment for a patient experiencing detrusor sphincter dyssynergia? A. Alpha-blocker. B. Beta-blocker. C. Vasodilator. D. Diuretic.
A. Alpha-blocker.
A 52-year-old male with hepatitis C recently developed hepatic cancer. Which of the following markers should be increased? A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) B. Catecholamines C. Prostate-specific antigen D. Homovanillic acid
A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Diffusion of respiratory gases takes place at the _____. A. Alveolocapillary membrane. B. Visceral pleurae. C. Parietal pleurae. D. Respiratory center.
A. Alveolocapillary membrane.
Pulmonary function tests reveal that an 80-year-old dyspneic patient has an increase in residual volume and _____ in lung compliance. A. An increase. B. A decrease. C. No change. D. An absence.
A. An increase.
Within a normal physiologic range, an increase i left ventricular end-diastolic volume would lead the nurse to monitor for: A. An increased force of contraction B. A decrease in cardiac output C. An increase in heart rate D. Heart failure
A. An increased force of contraction
The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as: A. Anaphase B. Telophase C. Prophase D. Metaphase
A. Anaphase
A 14-year-old presents with severe acne. Which of the following promotes acne development? A. Androgens. B. Estrogens. C. Gonadotropins. D. Glucocorticoids.
A. Androgens.
An infant male experiences a constant dribbling of urine. His urethral opening is located behind the glans. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart? A. Anterior epispadias. B. Posterior epispadias. C. Exstrophy of the bladder. D. Bladder outlet obstruction.
A. Anterior epispadias.
A 25-year-old female has sexual relations with her boyfriend. Later she is told that the boyfriend is infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Testing reveals that she does not have the disease. How is it possible that she did not contract the disease? A. Antibodies covered sites of attachment B. She was vaccinated against it C. Platelets provided protection D. IgE was released
A. Antibodies covered sites of attachment
A 30-year-old female presents with hematuria, menorrhagia, and bleeding gums. She is diagnosed with immune thrombocytic purpura (ITP). A nurse realizes the most likely cause is: A. Antibody destruction of platelets B. Allergy induces platelet lysis C. An immune response to hyperslenism D. T Cell injury to megakaryocytes
A. Antibody destruction of platelets
A 10-year-old female is arriving at a national spelling bee contest. Her heart starts beating faster and harder, and she begins to sweat. Which of the following is she experiencing? A. Anticipatory response B. Homeostasis C. Reactive response D. Exhaustion stage
A. Anticipatory response
Reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts requires which hormone? A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH). B. Atrial natriuretic factor. C. Renin. D. Aldosterone.
A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accumulate around the brain when there is injury to the sites of CSF reabsorption, which are called the: A. Arachnoid villi. B. Epidural foramina. C. Lateral apertures. D. Choroid plexuses.
A. Arachnoid villi
After studying about fungi, which information indicates a correct understanding of fungi? Fungi causing deep or systemic infections: A. Are commonly opportunistic. B. Are easily treated with penicillin. C. Are extremely rare. D. Never occur with other infections.
A. Are commonly opportunistic
While planning care for a patient with an extradural hematoma, which principle should the nurse remember? The main source of bleeding in extradural (epidural) hematomas is: A. Arterial B. Venous C. Capillary D. Sinus
A. Arterial
What are the phases of cellular catabolism? A. Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, citric acid cycle B. Diffusion, osmosis, mediated transport C. S phase, G phase, M phase D. Metabolic absorption, respiration, excretion
A. Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, citric acid cycle
A patient is admitted to the medical unit for complications of long-term, poorly controlled type 2 DM. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in addition to elevated glucose? A. Atherosclerosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Elevated liver enzymes D. Anemia
A. Atherosclerosis
When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse remembers this disease is an example of: A. Autoimmunity B. Alloimmunity C. Homoimmunity D. Alleimmunity
A. Autoimmunity
Cystic fibrosis is a/an _____ disease. A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant. C. X-linked recessive. D. X-linked dominant.
A. Autosomal recessive
Cystic fibrosis is a/an _____ disease. A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant. C. X-linked recessive. D. X-linked dominant.
A. Autosomal recessive
The alpha and beta thalassemias are inherited in a/an ____ fashion. A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant
A. Autosomal recessive
A nurse is preparing to teach about nerves. Which information should the nurse include? The axon leaves the cell body at the: A. Axon hillock B. Nissl body C. Node of Ranvier D. Myelin sheath
A. Axon hillock
A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus. After 2 months, the virus is still active. Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient? A. B-cell lymphoma B. Kaposi sarcoma C. T-cell leukemia D. T-cell lipoma
A. B-cell lymphoma
The organism that causes tuberculosis is a _____. A. Bacterium. B. Fungus. C. Virus. D. Parasite.
A. Bacterium
A 45-year-old male was previously diagnosed with Parkinson disease. He has impaired fine repetitive motor movements. Which of the following areas does the nurse suspect is most likely damaged? A. Basal ganglia B. Prefrontal area C. Hippocampus D. Temporal lobe
A. Basal ganglia
An immunology nurse is caring for a patient. While planning care, which principle will the nurse remember? The primary role of IgA1 is to prevent infections in the: A. Blood B. Kidneys C. Lungs D. Mucous membranes
A. Blood
Children with osteogenesis imperfecta are at high risk for _____. A. Bone fractures. B. Shoulder dislocations. C. Bone infections. D. Joint injuries.
A. Bone fractures.
After teaching the students about B cells, which statement indicates teaching was successful? B cells are originally derived from cells of the: A. Bone marrow B. Lymph nodes C. Gut-associated lymphoid tissue D. Thymus
A. Bone marrow
An 8-year-old female presents with edema of the cutaneous and mucosal tissue layers. Her mother reports that the condition is recurrent and seems to occur more often during stressful situations. The child is diagnosed with hereditary angioedema. Which of the following is deficient in this child? A. C1 esterase inhibitor B. Carboxypeptidase C. Neutrophils D. Plasmin
A. C1 esterase inhibitor
A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus? A. CD4+ T-helper B. CD8 T-helper C. CDC cells D. CDC 10 cells
A. CD4+ T-helper
What co-morbid condition does an individual diagnosed with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome have an increased risk of developing? A. Cancer B. Diabetes C. Depression D. Food allergies
A. Cancer
One difference between cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle is that: A. Cardiac muscle cells are arranged in branching networks B. Skeletal muscle cells have only one nucleus C. Cardiac muscle cells appear striped D. Skeletal muscle cells contain sarcomeres
A. Cardiac muscle cells are arranged in branching networks
Which form of cell communication is used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact? A. Cell junction B. Gap junction C. Desmosome D. Tight junction
A. Cell junction
A 21-year-old female is infected with human papillomavirus (HPV) following unprotected sexual intercourse with a male she recently met. She is now at higher risk of developing which of the following cancers? A. Cervical. B. Ovarian. C. Endometrial. D. Vulvar.
A. Cervical.
For legal purposes, brain death is defined as: A. Cessation of entire brain function B. Lack of cortical function C. A consistent vegetative state D. Death of the brainstem
A. Cessation of entire brain function
Which structures act as anchors for the arterioventricular valves? A. Chordae tendineae B. Great vessels C. Coronary ostia D. Trabeculae cameae
A. Chordae tendineae
The family learns that a 3D ultrasound of a 9-week fetus shows incomplete fusion of the nasomedial process. What is this defect commonly called? A. Cleft lip. B. Nasal passage atresia. C. Esophageal atresia. D. Lack of definition.
A. Cleft lip.
When the nurse discusses the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule together, it is referred to as the renal _____. A. Corpuscle. B. Capsule. C. Medulla. D. Pyramid.
A. Corpuscle.
During which stage of muscle contraction does actin bind to myosin? A. Coupling. B. Relaxation. C. Discharging. D. Excitation.
A. Coupling.
A 65-year-old diagnosed with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals both bluish skin and mucous membranes. What term will the nurse use to document these observations? A. Cyanosis. B. Hemoptysis. C. Hematemesis. D. Ischemia.
A. Cyanosis
A group of mountain climbers experience confusion, tachycardia, edema, and decreased renal output after climbing Mount Rainier. A nurse recalls this condition is caused by: A. Decreased inspired oxygen B. Diffusion abnormalities C. Hypoventilation D. Bronchoconstriction
A. Decreased inspired oxygen
A 45-year-old is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is: A. Defective DNA synthesis B. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin C. Defective use of Vitamin C D. Blocked protein synthesis
A. Defective DNA synthesis
A patient presents reporting visual disturbances. When CT reveals a pituitary tumor and lab tests reveal elevated prolactin, the diagnosis of prolactinoma is made. Which intervention is the treatment of choice for this condition? A. Dopaminergic agonists B. Calcium C. Insulin D. Radiation
A. Dopaminergic agonists
A 10-year-old is diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse assesses for which other condition that could be associated with this disease? A. Down Syndrome B. Hemophilia C. Hyperthyroidism D. Pheochromocytoma
A. Down syndrome
What term should the nurse use when talking about the outermost membrane surrounding the brain? A. Dura mater B. Arachnoid mater C. Pia mater D. Falx cerebri
A. Dura mater
A patient presents with seizures. An MRI reveals a meningioma most likely originating from the: A. Dura mater and arachnoid membrane B. Astrocytes C. Pia mater D. CNS neurons
A. Dura mater and arachnoid membrane
A 15-month-old child from Pennsylvania was brought to the ER with symptomatology that includes fever, seizure activity, cranial palsies, and paralysis. Which form of encephalitis is best supported by the available assessment data? A. Eastern equine encephalitis B. Venezuelan encephalitis C. St. Louis encephalitis D. West Nile encephalitis
A. Eastern equine encephalitis
What term is used to document a herniation of brain and meninges through a defect in the occipital area of the skull? A. Encephalocele B. Meningocele C. Myelomeningocele D. Craniosynostosis
A. Encephalocele
A young child presents to the ophthalmologist for visual difficulties secondary to eye deviation. One of the child's eyes deviates inward, thereby decreasing the visual field. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely? A. Entropia B. Extropia C. Diplopia D. Nystagmus
A. Entropia
The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the: A. Erythrocytes B. Spleen pulp C. Bone marrow D. Liver tissue
A. Erythrocytes
What term is used to document the condition that exists when the esophagus ends in a blind pouch? A. Esophageal atresia. B. Tracheoesophageal stenosis. C. Esophagitis. D. Pyloric stenosis.
A. Esophageal atresia.
Research has demonstrated that neural stem cells have an impaired ability to differentiate into functional neurons when subjected to: A. Ethanol B. Marijuana C. Insufficient nutrients D. Poor oxigenation
A. Ethanol
Clinical manifestations of bile salt deficiencies are related to poor absorption of _____. A. Fats and fat-soluble vitamins. B. Water-soluble vitamins. C. Proteins. D. Minerals.
A. Fats and fat-soluble vitamins.
The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which neonatal finding? A. Fecal impaction. B. Pancreatic insufficiency. C. Hyperactive peristalsis. D. Ileal atresia.
A. Fecal impaction.
An 86-year-old female patient has the wasting syndrome of aging, making her vulnerable to falls, functional decline, disease, and death. The nurse knows the patient is experiencing: A. Frailty B. Sarcopenia C. Somatic death D. Cellular aging
A. Frailty
Which of the following terms should the nurse use when there is a balance between outward recoil of the chest wall and inward recoil of lungs at rest? A. Functional residual capacity (FRC) is reached. B. Vital capacity (VC) is reached. C. Total lung capacity (TLC) is reached. D. Residual volume (RV) is reached.
A. Functional residual capacity (FRC) is reached.
Which of the following terms should the nurse use when there is a balance between outward recoil of the chest wall and inward recoil of the lungs at rest? A. Functional residual capacity (FRC) is reached. B. Vital capacity (VC) is reached. C. Total lung capacity (TLC) is reached. D. Residual volume (RV) is reached.
A. Functional residual capacity (FRC) is reached.
A 3-year-old develops tinea capitis after playing with the family dog. This infection is caused by a _____. A. Fungus. B. Bacterium. C. Virus D. Parasite.
A. Fungus.
A 45-year-old male presents with persistent, severe stomach pain. Testing reveals a peptic ulcer. Further laboratory tests reveal the presence of Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is of concern for this patient? A. Gastric cancer B. Leukemia C. Lung cancer D. Adenocarcinoma of the colon
A. Gastric cancer
The _____ reflex initiates propulsion in the entire colon, usually during or immediately after eating. A. Gastrocolic. B. Ileocolic. C. Duodenocolic. D. Cephalocolic.
A. Gastrocolic.
If a nurse wants to obtain the best estimate of renal function, which test should the nurse monitor? A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR). B. Circulating antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels. C. Volume of urine output. D. Urine specific gravity.
A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
If a nurse wants to obtain the best estimate of renal function, which test should the nurse monitor? A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR). B. Circulating antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels. C. Volume of urine output. D. Urine specific gravity.
A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
If a patient has carbuncles, the infection will be located in the _____. A. Hair follicles. B. Papillary layer of the dermis. C. Reticular layer of the dermis. D. Subcutaneous tissue.
A. Hair follicles.
A 54-year-old female is diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which of the following is a common symptom of this disease? A. Hematuria. B. Dysuria. C. Oliguria. D. Proteinuria.
A. Hematuria.
A 10-year-old presents with vesicles consistent with vesicular impetigo. What is the most likely cause of the condition? A. Herpes virus. B. Candida albicans. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
A. Herpes virus.
Which assessment result would the nurse expect to find associated with a patient diagnosed with Graves disease? A. High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating autoantibodies B. Ectopic secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C. Low circulating levels of thyroid hormones D. Increased circulation of iodine
A. High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating autoantibodies
Upon examination of a male infant, it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis. The nurse will document this condition as _____. A. Hypospadias. B. Epispadias. C. Hydroureter. D. Cryptorchidism.
A. Hypospadias.
Upon examination of a male infant, it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis. The nurse will document this condition as _____. A. Hypospadias. B. Epispadias. C. Hydroureter. D. Cryptorchidism.
A. Hypospadias.
A 3-year-old presents with bruising on the legs and trunk and a petichial rash. The mother also reports frequent nosebleeds. Lab tests reveal a decreased platelet count. This symtomatology supports which medical diagnosis? A. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) B. Leukemia C. Thalassemia D. Hemophilia
A. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
If an individual with respiratory difficulty were retaining too much carbon dioxide, which of the following compensatory responses would the nurse expect to be initiated? A. Increase in respiratory rate. B. Decrease in ventilation rate. C. Increase in tidal volume. D. Vasodilation of the pulmonary arterioles.
A. Increase in respiratory rate.
When a patient's vagus nerve is stimulated, what does the nurse expect to observe? A. Increased gastrointestinal activity B. Increased heart rate C. Pupil constriction D. Vasoconstriction
A. Increased gastrointestinal activity
After activation of the Bainbridge reflex in a patient, the nurse assesses for: A. Increased heart rate B. Decreased blood pressure C. Increased rate and depth of respirations D. Decreased myocardial contractility
A. Increased heart rate
Which of the following lab results would indicate a slowdown in the rate of parathyroid hormone secretion? A. Increased serum calcium levels B. Decreased serum calcium levels C. Decreased levels of TSH D. Increased levels of TSH
A. Increased serum calcium levels
A patient has researched bradykinin on the internet. Which information indicates the patient understands the functions of bradykinin? Bradykinin is involved in: A. Increasing vascular permability B. Vasoconstricting blood vessels C. Stimulating the clotting system D. Increasing degradation of prostaglandins
A. Increasing vascular permeability
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. When he asks what the most likely cause of this disease is, what is the nurse's best response? A. Ineffective iron uptake and abnormal hemoglobin production B. Misshapen erythrocytes with low hemoglobin C. Decreased levels of tissue iron with megaloblastic erythrocytes D. Premature erythrocyte destruction and erythropoietin deficiency
A. Ineffective iron uptake and abnormal hemoglobin production
A 57-year-old presents with cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and decreased lung volume and is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. When taking the patient's history, which finding is the most probable cause of the illness? A. Inhalation of silica. B. Autoimmune disease. C. Allergic reactions. D. Flail chest.
A. Inhalation of silica.
A 20-year-old male received a knife wound to the arm during an altercation. Which of the following types of immunity was compromised? A. Innate immunity B. Inflammatory response C. Adaptive immunity D. Specific immunity
A. Innate immunity
A 21-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. Her hematocrit is 32%. Which of the following treatments would the nurse expect to be prescribed for her? A. Iron replacement B. Splenectomy C. Bone marrow biopsy D. No treatment is necessary
A. Iron replacement
An IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. The patient is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins? A. K B. D C. E D. B12
A. K
When a student asks in which region of the neuron do nerve impulses travel the fastest, how should the nurse respond? The: A. Large axon B. Axon hillock C. Cell body D. Dendrites
A. Large axon
Which of the following assessment findings is most likely to occur after a splenectomy? A. Leukocytosis B. Hypoglycemia C. Decreased red blood cell count D. Decreased platelets
A. Leukocytosis
A 10-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) incoherent and semiconscious. CT scan reveals that he is suffering from cerebral edema. This type of edema is referred to as: A. Localized edema B. Generalized edema C. Pitting edema D. Lymphedema
A. Localized edema
A 53-year-old male with a 20-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. When a staff member asks why the patient's airways are obstructed, how should the nurse respond? The airways are obstructed because of: A. Loss of elastic recoil B. Airway edema C. Infection and inflammation D. Excessive mucus production
A. Loss of elastic recoil
During an infection, lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because: A. Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing B. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule C. Microorganisms are accumulating D. The nodes are not functioning properly
A. Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing
Monocytes are blood cells that mature (differentiate) into: A. Macrophages B. Neutrophils C. Eosinophils D. Mast cells
A. Macrophages
A patient has tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer. Which of the following terms best describes this growth? A. Malignant tumor B. Lipoma C. Meningioma D. Hypertrophy
A. Malignant tumor
A 2-month-old female is brought to the emergency room for persistent bile-stained vomiting after feeding. Physical examination reveals dehydration, and x-ray reveals gas bubbles in the intestines. What is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Malrotation. B. Ileocecal displacement. C. Pyloric stenosis. D. Meconium ileus.
A. Malrotation.
A student nurse asks the nurse what controls reflex activities concerned with heart rate and blood pressure. What is the nurse's best response? These reflex activities are controlled by the: A. Medulla oblongata B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Cerebrum
A. Medulla oblongata
A 65-year-old patient recently diagnosed with cancer retired from construction work. Which cancer is likely to develop secondarily to occupational hazards? A. Mesothelioma B. Bladder cancer C. Prostate cancer D. Bone cancer
A. Mesothelioma
A patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst and is given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective? A. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus B. Psychogenic diabetes insipidus C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. SIADH
A. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
An adult patient's blood sample is analyzed in a laboratory. Assuming a normal sample, which type of white blood cell accounts for the highest percentage? A. Neutrophil B. Eosinophil C. Basophil D. Lymphocyte
A. Neutrophil
A child suffers from sudden apparent arousals in which she expresses intense fear or other emotion. Her mother reports that she seems to wake screaming, but that she is difficult to awaken completely. The child most likely suffers from: A. Night terrors B. Parasomnia C. Somnambulism D. Enuresis episodes
A. Night terrors
A 2-year-old malnourished child is diagnosed with vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies. A blood smear suggests the deficiency is macrocytic and normochromic. The nurse would expect the hemoglobin to be: A. Normal B. Sporatic C. Low D. High
A. Normal
Which of the following characteristics is associated with an acute occlusion of mesenteric blood flow in the small intestine? A. Often precipitated by an embolism. B. Commonly associated with disease such as pancreatitis and gallstones. C. Caused by chronic malnutrition and mucosal atrophy. D. Often a complication of hypovolemic shock.
A. Often precipitated by an embolism.
What is the major difference between compact and spongy bone? A. Organization of the structural elements. B. Location within the body. C. Activating chemicals in each. D. Types of minerals in the bone matrix.
A. Organization of the structural elements.
A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring: A. Osmolality B. Osmolarity C. Osmotic pressure D. Oncotic pressure
A. Osmolality
Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined by: A. Osmotic forces B. Plasma oncotic pressure C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Buffer systems
A. Osmotic forces
A 20-year-old recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. This diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea. A. Osmotic. B. Secretory. C. Hypotonic. D. Motility.
A. Osmotic.
A 52-year-old male suffered a myocardial infarction secondary to atherosclerosis and ischemia. Once blood flow is returned to the damaged heart, reperfusion injury occurs as a result of: A. Oxidation stress B. Vacuolation C. Decreased intracellular calcium D. Lipid acceptor proteins
A. Oxidation stress
Which of the following diseases does the nurse screen for in newborns? A. PKU B. Pica C. Epilepsy D. Tay-Sachs disease
A. PKU
What is a priority assessment for Hodgkin lymphoma in children? A. Painless adenopathy in cervical nodes B. Significant bruising C. Weight gain D. Petechiae
A. Painless adenopathy in cervical nodes
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly related to the _____. A. Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries. B. Oncotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries. C. Vascular resistance in the glomerular arterioles. D. Hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
A. Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
Food is moved down the esophagus via what process? A. Peristalsis. B. Retropulsion. C. Haustral segmentation. D. Defecation.
A. Peristalsis.
Early identification and treatment for metabolic disorders are important because _____. A. Permanent damage to vital organs can be prevented. B. Surgery is usually necessary. C. Cure rates are higher with early detection. D. Death usually occurs within the first month.
A. Permanent damage to vital organs can be prevented.
A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for red face, hands, feet, ears, and headache and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating: A. Polycythemia vera B. Leukemia C. Sideroblastic anemia D. Hemosiderosis
A. Polycythemia vera
A 15-year-old presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever and is diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Poststreptococcal infection. B. Nephropathy. C. Renal aplasia. D. Renal dysplasia.
A. Poststreptococcal infection.
A nurse is discussing the pressure generated at the end of diastole. Which term is the nurse describing? A. Preload B. Afterload C. Systemic vascular resistance D. Total peripheral resistance
A. Preload
Occurrence of gastroesophageal reflux is highest in which pediatric population? A. Premature infants. B. Infants with Down syndrome. C. Children with cystic fibrosis. D. Children with esophageal atresia.
A. Premature infants.
A function of the pericardium is to: A. Provide a barrier against extracardial infections B. Improve blood flow through the heart C. Play a role in cardiac conduction D. Assist in cardiac output
A. Provide a barrier against extracardial infections
What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction? A. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development B. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle C. Restrain cell growth and development D. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development
A. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development
Where does the majority of sodium reabsorption take place? A. Proximal tubule. B. Loope of Henle. C. Distal tubule. D. Collecting duct.
A. Proximal tubule.
A 25-year-old male nursing student recently learned how diet can alter the chances of developing cancer. He tries to minimize his risks of developing the disease by ordering his steak: A. Rare B. Medium C. Medium-well D. Well done
A. Rare
A 25-year-old paralyzed male develops a dermal pressure ulcer. When assessing the patient's skin, which finding is the first indication of this ulcer? A. Redness. B. Whiteness. C. Indurations. D. Ulceration.
A. Redness.
What is the effect of telomere caps on cancer cells? A. Repeated divisions B. Clonal distinction C. Limited mitosis D. Mutation abilities
A. Repeated divisions
A 60 year-old male presents with swelling and pain in the knee. CT reveals a tumor has developed from a pre-existing benign bone lesion. This supports which diagnosis? A. Secondary chondrosarcoma. B. Rhabdomyoma. C. Rhabdomyosarcoma. D. Fibrosarcoma.
A. Secondary chondrosarcoma.
Which structure secretes glucose-rich fluid into the semen? A. Seminal vesicles. B. Ejaculatory duct. C. Prostate gland. D. Cowper gland.
A. Seminal vesicles.
A patient asks the nurse where nociceptors can be found. How should the nurse respond? One location in which nociceptors can be found is the: A. Skin B. Spinal cord C. Efferent pathways D. Hypothalamus
A. Skin
A nurse notes that a patient walks with the leg extended and held stiff, causing a scraping over the floor surface. What type of gait is the patient experiencing? A. Spastic gait B. Cerebellar gait C. Basal ganglion gait D. Scissors gait
A. Spastic gait
A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. A blood smear reveals severely sickled cells. A nurse recalls the sickled cells will be removed from circulation mostly by the: A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Kidney
A. Spleen
When a patient asks what types of cancers are associated with tobacco use, how should the nurse respond? A. Squamous and small cell adenocarcinomas B. Sarcoma and adenoma C. Melanoma and lymphoma D. Basal cell and lipoma
A. Squamous and small cell adenocarcinomas
A 51-year-old male is at the health clinic for an annual physical exam. After walking from the car to the clinic, he developed substernal pain. He also reported discomfort in his left shoulder and his jaw, lasting 2-3 minutes and then subsiding with rest. He indicates that this has occurred frequently over the past few months with similar exertion. The nurse suspects he is most likely experiencing: A. Stable angina B. Unstable angina C. Prinzmetal angina D. Myocardial infarction (MI)
A. Stable angina
Bullous impetigo is caused by a strain of _____. A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Molluscum contagiousum. C. Escherichia coli. D. Candida albicans.
A. Staphylococcus aureus.
A nurse is reviewing the pedigree chart. When checking for a proband, what is the nurse looking for? A. The person who is first diagnosed with a genetic disease B. The individual who has a disease gene but is phenotypically normal C. The phenotype of genetic material D. The codominance
A. The person who is first diagnosed with a genetic disease
A 22-year-old female presents with chronic bronchitis. Tests reveal closure of the airway during expiration. While planning care, a nurse recalls this condition is most likely caused by: A. Thick mucus from hypertrophied glands B. Hyperventilation C. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch D. Thinning smooth muscle in the bronchioles
A. Thick mucus from hypertrophied glands
A 50-year-old male reports episodes of frequently recurring crampy abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools. A possible diagnosis would be _____. A. Ulcerative colitis. B. Hiatal hernia. C. Pyloric obstruction. D. Achalasia.
A. Ulcerative colitis.
While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is _____. A. Urine pH. B. Body temperature. C. Gender. D. Serum mineral concentrations.
A. Urine pH.
What nerve provides the lungs with parasympathetic innervation? A. Vagus. B. Phrenic. C. Brachial. D. Pectoral.
A. Vagus.
Which of the following animo acids is present in Hb S and not present in normal Hb? A. Valine B. Glutamic acid C. Proline D. Histidine
A. Valine
What is the nurse monitoring when observing the QRS complex on the electrocardiogram? A. Ventricular activity B. Pulmonary artery closure C. Mitral valve opening D. Aortic valve closing
A. Ventricular activity
Assuming that midline epigastric pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as _____. A. Visceral. B. Somatic. C. Parietal. D. Referred.
A. Visceral.
Which of the following nutritional components will the nurse encourage a patient to consume as it is needed for erythropoiesis? A. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin D D. Zinc
A. Vitamin B12
A newboarn experiencing respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) will demonstrate signs _____. A. Within minutes of birth. B. 2-3 hours after birth. C. Within the first 12-24 hours after birth. D. 24-48 hours after exposure to an infectious organism.
A. Within minutes of birth.
A newborn experiencing respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) will demonstrate signs _____. A. Within minutes of birth. B. 2-3 hours after birth. C. Within the first 12-24 hours after birth. D. 24-48 hours after exposure to an infectious organism.
A. Within minutes of birth.
While preparing to teach the staff about female anatomy, which information should be included? During the years that a woman is more likely to be sexually active, the vagina mucosa is protected from infection by:
Acidic pH
A 20-year-old underwent an echocardiogram to assess chest pain. Results revealed a congenital defect in the papillary muscles. Which of the following would the nurse expect to occur? A. Closure of the semilunar valve B. Backward expulsion of the atrioventricular valves C. Closure of the atrioventricular valves D. Backward expulsion into the semilunar valves
B. Backward expulsion of the atrioventricular valves
A 25-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, and decreased consciousness. She was previously treated for sinusitis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Aseptic meningitis B. Bacterial meningitis C. Fungal meningitis D. Nonpurulent meningitis
B. Bacterial meningitis
In the United States, which group of people should be assessed first for sickle cell disease? A. Asians B. Blacks C. Hispanics D. Whites
B. Blacks
A patient asks how oxygen is transported in the body. The nurse's best response is that most oxygen (O2) is transported _____. A. Dissolved in the plasma. B. Bound to hemoglobin. C. In the form of carbon dioxide (CO2). D. As a free-floating molecule.
B. Bound to hemoglobin.
The most common type of tissue cancer occurring between the ages of 15 and 19 is: A. Sarcoma B. Squamous cell C. Carcinoma D. Neuroma
C. Carcinoma
Of the sweat glands, the _____ glands are most abundant in the axillae and genital areas. A. Eccrine. B. Apocrine. C. Sebaceous. D. Subcutaneous.
B. Apocrine.
A 49-year-old male presents reporting chest pain. EKG reveals ST elevation. He is diagnosed with myocardial ischemia. Which of the following interventions would be most beneficial? A. Administer a diuretic to decrease volume B. Apply oxygen to increase myocardial oxygen supply C. Encourage exercise to increase heart rate D. Give an antibiotic to decrease infection
B. Apply oxygen to increase myocardial oxygen supply
The nurse would be correct in identifying the duration of rubella as _____. A. 12 hours. B. 1-3 days. C. 7 days. D. 12-15 days.
B. 1-3 days.
A student is observing a cell under the microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student? A. A single circular chromosome B. A nucleus C. Free-floating nuclear material D. No organelles
B. A nucleus
The basic components of DNA are: A. Pentose sugars and four phosphate bases B. A phosphate molecule, deoxyribose, and four nitrogenous bases C. Adenine, guanine, purine D. Codons, oxygen, cytosine
B. A phosphate molecule, deoxyribose, and four nitrogenous bases
If a patient's posterior pituitary is removed, which hormone would the nurse expect to decrease? A. PRF B. ADH C. ACTH D. Growth hormone (GH)
B. ADH
A 25-year-old male develops a tumor of the breast glandular tissue. What type of tumor will be documented on the chart? A. Carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Sarcoma D. Lymphoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
A 65 y/o male is recently suffered a cerebral vascular accident. He is now unable to recognize and identify objects by touch because of injury to the sensory cortex. The condition is a form of: A. Hypomimesis B. Agnosia C. Dysphasia D. Echolalia
B. Agnosia
A patient with one kidney underwent surgery for an adrenal tumor that removed a large portion of the zona glomerulosa. The nurse would expect a postsurgical decrease in the patient's: A. Sodium B. Aldosterone C. Potassium D. Acid
B. Aldosterone
Autopsy on a stillborn fetus reveals cardiomegaly, hepatomegaly, edema, and ascites as well as fulminent intrauterine congestive heart failure. Considering these findings, what is the most likely cause of death? A. Alpha thalassemia minor B. Alpha thalassemia major C. Hemoglobin H disease D. Alpha trait
B. Alpha thalassemia major
To prevent sudden infant death syndrome, the nurse should instruct parents to _____. A. Place infants on a soft mattress for sleeping. B. Always lay infants down on their backs to sleep. C. Breast feed their infants. D. Keep the infant's room very warm.
B. Always lay infants down on their backs to sleep.
During the years that a woman is more likely to be sexually active, the vagina mucosa is protected from infection by _____. A. The presence of autoantibodies. B. An acidic pH. C. Low estrogen levels. D. Douching.
B. An acidic pH.
Researchers now believe that rheumatoid arthritis is a result of _____. A. An ineffective antiviral agent. B. An autoimmune disease. C. A complication of rheumatic fever. D. A superficial joint injury.
B. An autoimmune disease.
A 75-year-old patient experienced a lacunar stroke. When looking through the history of the patient's chart, which of the following would the nurse expect to find? A. An embolus B. An ischemic lesion C. A hemorrhage D. An aneurysm
B. An ischemic lesion
A 2-year-old male is diagnosed with Wilms tumor. Which clinical condition is often associated with this disease? A. Cystic disease of the liver. B. Aniridia. C. Anemia. D. Hypothyroidism.
B. Aniridia.
Which organ contains prolactin-inhibiting factor's target tissue? A. Hypothalamus B. Anterior pituitary C. Mammary glands D. Posterior pituitary
B. Anterior pituitary
A 30-year-old female complains of fatigue, arthritis, rash, and changes in urine color. Laboratory testing reveals anemia, lymphopenia, and kidney inflammation. Assuming a diagnosis of SLE, which of the following is also likely to be present? A. Anti-LE antibodies B. Antinuclear antibodies C. Antiherpes antibodies D. Anti-CMV antibodies
B. Antinuclear antibodies
A 20-year-old male suffers a severe closed head injury in a motor vehicle accident. He remains in a vegetative state (VS) 1 month after the accident. Which of the following structures is most likely keeping him in a vegetative state? A. Cerebral cortex B. Brainstem C. Spinal cord D. Cerebellum
B. Brainstem
What is the cause of peptic ulcer disease? A. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels. B. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions. C. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement. D. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux.
B. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions.
A 9-year-old contracted influenza. Which of the following complications is of greatest concern to the nurse? A. Chronic bronchitis. B. Bronchiolitis obliterans. C. Emphysema. D. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
B. Bronchiolitis obliterans.
Hydroxyapatite found in bone matrix contains a combination of which molecules in its crystalline structure? A. Calcium and magnesium. B. Calcium and phosphate. C. Phosphate and magnesium. D. Magnesium and hydrogen.
B. Calcium and phosphate.
What is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion? A. Autoimmune disease B. Cancer C. Pregnancy D. Heart failure
B. Cancer
Which finding indicates the patient is having complications from heat stroke? A. Mild elevation of body core temperatures B. Cerebral edema and degeneration of the CNS C. Spasmodic cramping in the abdomen and extremities D. Alterations in calcium uptake
B. Cerebral edema and degeneration of the CNS
Spinal shock is characterized by: A. Loss of voluntary motor function with preservation of reflexes B. Cessation of spinal cord function below the lesion C. Loss of spinal cord function at the level of the lesion only D. Temporary loss of spinal cord function above the lesion
B. Cessation of spinal cord function below the lesion
To help confirm a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis in a 1-year-old child, which substance will be monitored for in the child's sweat? A. Potassium. B. Chloride. C. Magnesium. D. Carbonic acid.
B. Chloride.
By what other name is the clotting factor IX disorder, hemophilia B known as? A. Classic hemophilia B. Christmas disease C. Thalassemia D. von Willebrand disease
B. Christmas disease
A 69-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the emergency room (ER) after a month-long episode of headaches and confusion. Based on his alcoholism, a likely cause of his neurologic symptoms is: A. Concussion B. Chronic subdural hematoma C. Epidural hematoma D. Subacute subdural hematoma
B. Chronic subdural hematoma
A 2-year-old swallowed watch batteries. Following ingestion, kidney function was impaired and the heart began to fail. Which of the following was the most likely cause? A. Karyorrhexis B. Coagulative necrosis C. Ammonia accumulation D. Caseous necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
A student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying the chief function of the nerve cell as: A. Sensory interpretation B. Conductivity C. Maintenance of homeostasis D. Communication
B. Conductivity
Which laboratory test will assist the nurse in identifying infants who are prone to develop hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? A. Total bilirubin B. Coombs C. Rh antibodies D. Platelets
B. Coombs
When a nurse is teaching about the transverse fiber tract that connects the two cerebral hemispheres, what term should the nurse use? A. Peduncle B. Corpus callosum C. Basal ganglia D. Pons
B. Corpus callosum
Progesterone is primarily secreted by the _____. A. Follicle. B. Corpus luteum. C. Granulosa cells. D. Anterior pituitary.
B. Corpus luteum.
The region of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli is called the _____. A. Medulla. B. Cortex. C. Pyramids. D. Columns.
B. Cortex.
A nurse recalls that stress-induced stimulation of the adrenal cortex causes it to secrete: A. Estrogen B. Cortisol C. Parathyroid hormone D. Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH)
B. Cortisol
A newborn child is diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot. What symptoms would the nurse expect to observe in the child? A. High-pitched cry and dyspnea B. Cyanosis and hypoxia C. Leg pain and twitching D. Epitaxis and anemia
B. Cyanosis and hypoxia
What is the role of inactive MLH1 in the development of some forms of inherited colon cancer? A. Deletion of a nucleotide repeat in the DUX4 gene B. DNA damage is left unrepaired C. Expansion in the number of cytosine-guanine dinucleotide D. Abnormalities of chromosome 11p15.5 that lead down regulation of IGF2.
B. DNA damage is left unrepaired
A patient is admitted to the neurological critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. All four extremities are in rigid extension, the forearms are hyperpronated, and the legs are in plantar extension. How should the nurse chart this condition? A. Decorticate posturing B. Decerebrate posturing C. Dystonic posturing D. Basal ganglion posturing
B. Decerebrate posturing
A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate? A. Dilutional hyponatremia B. Dehydration from polyuria C. Cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia D. Metabolic acidosis
B. Dehydration from polyuria
A patient is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). What physiological change is causing the patient's symptoms? A. Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system (CNS) B. Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS C. The development of neurofibril webs in the CNS D. Reduced amounts of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
B. Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS
When a patient's CT scan reveals a lesion above the pontine micturition center, which condition would the nurse expect? A. Dyssynergia. B. Detrusor hyperreflexia. C. Detrusor areflexia. D. Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia.
B. Detrusor hyperreflexia.
Apoptosis is a condition in which cells program themselves to: A. Atrophy B. Die C. Regenerate D. Age
B. Die
A faculty member asks a student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of a solute from an area of greater to lesser concentration. Which answer is correct? A. Osmosis B. Diffusion C. Hydrostatic pressure D. Active transport
B. Diffusion
Coarctation of the aorta is the local narrowing of the aorta near the: A. Aortic valve B. Ductus arteriosus C. Diaphragm D. Bifurcation into the common iliac arteries
B. Ductus arteriosus
A 10-year-old develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal retractions. The child reports that breathing is difficult with feelings that "I cannot get enough air." What term should the nurse use to document this condition? A. Cyanosis. B. Dyspnea C. Hyperpnea. D. Orthopnea
B. Dyspnea
Exogenous pyrogens are: A. Interleukins B. Endotoxins C. Prostaglandins D. Corticotropin-releasing factors
B. Endotoxins
Parasympathetic stimulation to the pancreas will cause which of the following reactions? A. Hormonal inhibition. B. Enzyme secretion. C. Vasoconstriction. D. Decreased bicarbonate production.
B. Enzyme secretion.
The function of the acinar cells of the pancreas is to secrete _____. A. Bicarbonate. B. Enzymes. C. Mucus. D. Electrolytes.
B. Enzymes.
A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with a parasite. Which lab result should the nurse check for a response to the parasite? A. Monocytes B. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils D. Macrophages
B. Eosinophils
If a patient has a problem with the adrenal medulla, which of the following hormones should the nurse monitor? A. Cortisol B. Epinephrine C. Androgens D. Estrogens
B. Epinephrine
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is: A. Adenovirus B. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) D. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
A 5-year-old presents with high fever, inspiratory stridor, severe respiratory distress, drooling, and dysphagia. Acute epiglottis is suspected. When assessing the child, the nurse would avoid _____. A. Trying to keep the child calm. B. Examining the throat for redness. C. Auscultating the child's respiratory rate. D. Counting the heart rate apically.
B. Examining the throat for redness.
Which condition should the nurse assess for in mothers carrying fetuses affected by esophageal malformations? A. Enlarged placentas. B. Excessive amniotic fluid. C. Short umbilical cords. D. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge.
B. Excessive amniotic fluid.
One of the functions of the pulmonary system is the _____. A. Expelling of bacteria. B. Exchange of gases between the environment and blood. C. Movement of blood into and out of the capillaries. D. Principal mechanism for cooling of the heart.
B. Exchange of gases between the environment and blood.
One of the functions of the pulmonary system is the _____. A. Expelling of bacteria. B. Exchange of gases between the environment and blood. C. Movement of blood into and out of the capillaries. D. Principal mechanism for cooling of the heart.
B. Exchange of gases between the environment and blood.
A 5-year-old male becomes ill with a severe cough. Histologic examination reveals a bacterial infection and further laboratory testing reveals cell membrane damage and decreased protein synthesis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this illness? A. Endotoxin B. Exotoxin C. Hemolysis D. Septicemia
B. Exotoxin
A 40-year-old female developed adenocarcinoma of the vagina. Which prenatal event is the most likely cause of her cancer? A. Rb gene mutation B. Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) C. Exposure to solvents D. Exposure to radiation
B. Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)
Why do people with neurofibromatosis show varying degrees of the disease? A. Penetrance B. Expressivity C. Dominance D. Recessiveness
B. Expressivity
If a neuron's membrane potential is held close to the threshold potential by excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs), the neuron is said to be: A. Hyperpolarized B. Facilitated C. Integrated D. Inhibited
B. Facilitated
After teaching the staff about the clotting system, which statement indicates the teaching was successful? The end product of the clotting system is: A. Plasmin B. Fibrin C. Collagen D. Factor X
B. Fibrin
A 42-year-old is diagnosed with constrictive pericarditis. The nurse assesses the blood pressure for decreased cardiac output because of: A. Pericardial effusions B. Fibrosis and calcification of the pericardial layers C. Cardiomyopathy D. Hemorrhage in the pericardial cavity
B. Fibrosis and calcification of the pericardial layers
A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second- and third-degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. Lab results show a high hematocrit due to _____. A. Sickle cell syndrome. B. Fluid movement out of the vascular space. C. Renal failure. D. Increased vascular protein secondary to increased metabolism.
B. Fluid movement out of the vascular space.
The area of the penis with the most nerve endings is the _____. A. Foreskin. B. Glans. C. Corpora cavernosa. D. Corpus spongiosum.
B. Glans.
A patient is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the pancreas alpha-cells. Which of the following would the nurse expect to be most likely to be increased in this patient? A. Amylin B. Glucagon C. Insulin D. Somatostatin
B. Glucagon
Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS? A. HIV only infects B cells B. HIV is a retrovirus C. Infection does not require a host cell receptor D. After infection, cell death is immediate
B. HIV is a retrovirus
Hikers are attempting to cross the Arizona desert with a small supply of water. The temperatures cause them to sweat profusely and become dehydrated. The hikers are experiencing: A. Heat cramping B. Heat exhaustion C. Heat stroke D. Malignant hyperthermia
B. Heat exhaustion
A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Tests reveal deposition of immunoglobulin IgA in the glomerular capillaries. The nurse will monitor for recurrent _____. A. Infections. B. Hematuria. C. Vomiting. D. Enuresis.
B. Hematuria.
While performing an assessment of a 2-month-old, the nurse notes a positive Ortolani click. The nurse would suspect the child has _____. A. A hip fracture. B. Hip dysplasia. C. Osteogenesis imperfecta. D. Osteomyelitis.
B. Hip dysplasia.
A patient is brought to the ER for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. An MRI reveals spinal cord injury and his body temperature fluctuates markedly. The most accurate explanation of this phenomenon is that: A. He developed pneumonia B. His sympathetic nervous system has been damaged C. He has a brain injury D. He has septicemia from an unknown source
B. His sympathetic nervous system has been damaged
A 62-year-old reports experiencing regular night sweats and unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged neck lymph nodes that do not appear to be painful. These findings support a diagnosis of which type of cancer? A. Epstein-Barr virus B. Hodgkin lymphoma C. Acute leukemia D. Burkitt lymphoma
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
A 40-year-old male complains of uncontrolled excessive movement and progressive dysfunction of intellectual and thought processes. He is experiencing movement problems that begin in the face and arms and eventually affect the entire body. The most likely diagnosis is: A. tardive dyskinesia B. Huntington disease C. Hypokinesia D. Alzheimer disease
B. Huntington disease
What causes the chronic microvascular and macrovascular complications of DM? A. Pancreatic changes B. Hyperglycemia C. Ketone toxicity D. Hyperinsulinemia
B. Hyperglycemia
For a patient experiencing metabolic acidosis, the body will compensate by: A. Excreting H+ through the kidneys B. Hyperventilating C. Retaining CO2 in the lungs D. Secreting aldosterone
B. Hyperventilating
When parasympathetic nervous system activity is inhibited what is the expected effect on salivary glands? A. Hyperactive function. B. Hypoactive function. C. Atrophy. D. Enlargement.
B. Hypoactive function.
A 68-year-old male presents to the ER reporting chest pain. He has history of stable angina that now appears to be unstable. He most likely has: A. Mild to moderate atherosclerosis B. Impending myocardial infarction (MI) C. Electrical conduction problems in the heart D. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand
B. Impending myocardial infarction (MI)
An 8-week-old is diagnosed with a congenital heart disease and Down syndrome. The infant is at risk for the development of which gastrointestinal disorder? A. Intussesception. B. Imperforate anus. C. Meckel diverticulum. D. Cystic fibrosis.
B. Imperforate anus.
What is the most common location of brain tumors in children? A. Above the cerebellum B. In the posterior fossa C. In the anterior cerebrum D. In the ventricular lining
B. In the posterior fossa
A 45-year-old presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and anemia and is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. What is the cause of this patient's anemia? A. Red blood cells being lost in the urine. B. Inadequate production of erythropoietin. C. Inadequate iron absorption in the gut. D. Red blood cells being injured as they pass through the glomerulus.
B. Inadequate production of erythropoietin.
A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency room with a jagged sharp-force injury that is longer than it is deep. Which type of wound would the nurse be caring for? A. Stab wound B. Incised wound C. Puncture wound D. Chopping wound
B. Incised wound
A 22-year-old pregnant woman presents to her OB/GYN for a prenatal check-up. The fetal heartbeat sounds irregular, and a fetal echocardiogram reveals an atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect. This defect is the result of: A. Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close B. Incomplete fusion of the endocardial cushions C. A patent foramen ovale D. A right-to-left shunt
B. Incomplete fusion of the endocardial cushions
A nurse is teaching the staff about antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which information should the nurse include? Secretion of ADH is stimulated by: A. Increased serum potassium B. Increased plasma osmolality C. Decreased renal blood flow D. Generalized edema
B. Increased plasma osmolality
A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with emphysema experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand? A. Broncoconstriction B. Increased rate and depth of breathing C. Dyspnea D. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
B. Increased rate and depth of breathing
What type of breathing will the nurse observe while assessing a patient experiencing both metabolic acidosis and Kussmaul respirations? A. Audible wheezing or stridor. B. Increased rate, large tidal volumes, no expiratory pause. C. Rapid respirations with periods of apnea. D. Very slow inhalations and rapid expirations.
B. Increased rate, large tidal volumes, no expiratory pause.
A 30-year-old female with newly diagnosed polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is being counseled by her OB-GYN. The physician indicates that this condition often results in _____. A. Ovarian cancer. B. Infertility. C. Early menopause. D. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
B. Infertility.
A nurse recalls that characteristics of upper motor neurons include: A. Directly innervating muscles B. Influencing and modifying spinal reflex arcs C. Cell bodies located in the gray matter of the spinal cord D. Dendritic processes extending out of the CNS
B. Influencing and modifying spinal reflex arcs
What are the thickened areas of the sarcolemma of myocardial cells that enable electrical impulses to travel in a continuous cell-to-cell fashion called? A. Myosins B. Intercalated discs C. Troponin Ts D. I bands
B. Intercalated discs
An infant is diagnosed with noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is an immediate priority concern for this patient? A. Metabolic edema B. Interstitial edema C. Vasogenic edema D. Ischemic edema
B. Interstitial edema
A 35-year-old who was severely burned is now demonstrating symptomology associated with acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Which form of renal failure is this patient experiencing? A. Prerenal. B. Intrarenal. C. Extrarenal. D. Postrenal.
B. Intrarenal.
A 12-month-old toddler weighing 18 pounds is brought to the clinic because of weakness, slow physical growth, and developmental delays. His mother reports that the only food he will consume is cow's milk. The symptoms support a diagnosis of which form of anemia? A. Pernicious B. Iron deficiency C. Aplastic D. Hemolytic
B. Iron deficiency
When the nurse sees a diagnosis of hereditary hemochromatosis on the chart, the nurse knows this is a disorder of: A. Intravascular coagulation B. Iron overload C. Leukocytosis D. Granulocytosis
B. Iron overload
When a patient is diagnosed with coronary artery disease, the nurse assesses for myocardial: A. Hypertrophy B. Ischemia C. Necrosis D. Inflammation
B. Ischemia
What is the physiological response when the body's core temperature is altered due to prolonged exposure to a cold environment? A. Increased respirations B. Ischemic tissue damage C. CNS excitation D. Increased cellular metabolism
B. Ischemic tissue damage
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma? A. United States B. Japan C. Denmark D. Netherlands
B. Japan
The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation? A. Anemia. B. Jaundice. C. Hypobilirubinemia. D. Ascites.
B. Jaundice.
Which of the following liver cells are phagocytic? A. Glisson. B. Kupffer. C. Meissner. D. Lieberk�hn
B. Kupffer.
The most common cause of pulmonary edema is _____. A. Right heart failure. B. Left heart failure. C. Asthma. D. Lung cancer.
B. Left heart failure.
What chamber of the heart generates the highest pressure? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
Which of the following conditions is thought to contribute to the development of obesity? A. Insulin excess. B. Leptin resistance. C. Adipocyte failure. D. Malabsorption.
B. Leptin resistance.
The nurse would expect the occurrence of scabies to be more common among children who _____. A. Attend day care. B. Live in unsanitary conditions. C. Reside in rural areas. D. Play outside.
B. Live in unsanitary conditions.
A newborn is diagnosed with biliary atresia. What is the long-term treatment for this disorder? A. Immunoglobulins. B. Liver transplant. C. Bone marrow transplant. D. Dietary modifications.
B. Liver transplant.
Chronic gastritis is classified according to the _____. A. Severity. B. Location of lesions. C. Patient's age. D. Signs and symptoms.
B. Location of lesions.
When thought content and arousal level are intact, but a patient cannot communicate and is immobile, the patient is experiencing: A. Cerebral death B. Locked-in syndrome C. Dysphagia D. Cerebellar motor syndrome
B. Locked-in syndrome
A 75-year-old obese female presents to her primary care provider reporting edema in the lower extremities. Physical exam reveals that she has varicose veins. Upon performing the history, which of the following is a possible cause for the varicose veins? A. Extreme exercise B. Long periods of standing C. Trauma to deep veins D. Ischemia
B. Long periods of standing
A patient suffers from head trauma that affects cranial nerve I. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect? A. Visual disturbances B. Loss of sense of smell C. Loss of ability to taste D. Hearing disturbances
B. Loss of sense of smell
When considering hypothyroidism, the basal metabolic rate is unusually: A. High B. Low C. Steady D. Variable
B. Low
A 70-year-old patient presents to the primary care provider reporting loss of vision. A history that includes hypertension and cigarette smoking supports which visual diagnosis? A. Presbyopia B. Macular degeneration C. Strabismus D. Amblyopia
B. Macular degeneration
A 39-year-old male suffers a severe brain injury when he falls off a building while working. CT scan reveals that he has a basilar skull fracture. Based upon his injuries, what major complication should the nurse observe for in this patient? A. Hematoma formation B. Meningeal infection C. Increased intracranial pressure D. Cognitive deficits
B. Meningeal infection
A 17-year-old male with a respiratory infection of two weeks duration presents with throbbing headache, photophobia, nuchal rigidity, high fever, petechial rays, and projectile vomiting. You suspect: A. West Nile virus B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Diffuse axonal injury D. Transient ischemic attack
B. Meningococcal meningitis
A 16-year-old's level of arousal was altered after taking a recreational drug. Physical exam revealed a negative Babinski sign, equal and reactive pupils, and roving eye movements. Which of the following diagnoses will the nurse most likely see on the chart? A. Psychogenic arousal alteration B. Metabolically-induced coma C. Structurally induced coma D. Structural arousal alteration
B. Metabolically-induced coma
Osteosarcoma is most likely present in the _____ of long bones. A. Epiphyses. B. Metaphyses. C. Marrow. D. Osteocytes.
B. Metaphyses.
After falling, a patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 5 initially and 7 after 1 day. The patient remained unconscious for 2 weeks but is now awake, confused, and experiencing retrograde amnesia. This history supports which medical diagnosis? A. Mild diffuse brain injury B. Moderate diffuse brain injury C. Severe diffuse brain injury D. Postconcussive syndrome
B. Moderate diffuse brain injury
What is the purpose of the glycosylated hemoglobin (hemoglobin A1c) test? A. Measuring fasting glucose levels B. Monitoring long-term serum glucose control C. Detecting acute complications of diabetes D. Checking for hyperlipidemia
B. Monitoring long-term serum glucose control
Which mother-fetus combination is at most risk for a maternal-fetal blood incompatibility? A. Mother is Rh+ and fetus is Rh- B. Mother is Rh- and fetus is Rh+ C. Mother has type A blood and fetus has type O blood D. Mother has type AB blood and fetus has type B blood
B. Mother is Rh- and fetus is Rh+
The patient reports generalized muscle weakness. The health care provider orders administration of the medication edrophonium chloride (Tensilon). This medication is used in the diagnosis of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Autonomic hyperreflexia
B. Myasthenia gravis
A 75-year-old male has severe chest pain and dials 911. Based upon the lab findings indicating a patient has elevated levels of cardiac troponins I and T, the nurse suspects which of the following has occurred? A. Raynaud disease B. Myocardial infarction (MI) C. Orthostatic hypertension D. Angina
B. Myocardial infarction
A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal portal venous gas and an intestinal perforation. This condition is referred to as _____. A. Infective enteropathy. B. Necrotizing enterocolitis. C. Mucoviscidosis. D. Ileus.
B. Necrotizing enterocolitis.
A 3-year-old has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse expect to find on the lab report for the most common cause of this bacterial meningitis? A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Streptococcus pneumonia D. Escherichia coli
B. Neisseria meningitidis
When discussing the functional unit of the kidney, what term should the nurse use? A. Calyx. B. Nephron. C. Collecting duct. D. Pyramid.
B. Nephron.
The predominant phagocyte of early inflammation is the: A. Eosinophil B. Neutrophil C. Lymphocyte D. Macrophage
B. Neutrophil
A 13-year-old female is concerned about several pigmented skin lesions on her body. Her primary care provider tells her that these lesions must be monitored because of their ability to transform into malignant melanoma. These lesions are referred to as _____. A. Macules. A 13-year-old female is concerned about several pigmented skin lesions on her body. Her primary care provider tells her that these lesions must be monitored because of their ability to transform into malignant melanoma. These lesions are referred to as _____. A. Macules. B. Nevi. C. Plaques. D. Keloids. C. Plaques. D. Keloids.
B. Nevi.
A nurse remembers the majority of total airway resistance occurs in the _____. A. Bronchi. B. Nose. C. Oral pharynx. D. Diaphragm.
B. Nose.
A 52-year-old male enters a sleep study to gather information about his sleep disturbances. He reports that his wife will not let him sleep in the bed with her until he stops snoring so loudly. He also reports feeling tired a lot throughout the day. When the nurse checks the chart, what is the most likely diagnosis? A. Insomnia B. Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS) C. Somnambulism D. Jet-lag syndrome
B. Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS)
Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS), causing venous distention in the upper extremities, is a result of progressive superior vena cava: A. Inflammation B. Occlusion C. Distention D. Sclerosis
B. Occlusion
It is true that viral meningitis: A. Is always sudden in onset. B. Often occurs with measles, mumps, or herpes C. Is effectively treated with antibiotics D. Causes increased sugar in the cerebrospinal fluid
B. Often occurs with measles, mumps, or herpes
A 20-year-old presents with difficulty breathing when lying down. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? A. Dyspnea. B. Orthopnea. C. Apnea. D. Tachypnea.
B. Orthopnea
An infant undergoes an echocardiogram for a suspected heart defect. Tests reveal an opening in the middle of the atrial septum. What term would the nurse use to describe this defect? A. Ostium primum B. Ostium secundum C. Sinus venosus D. Eisenmenger syndrome
B. Ostium secundum
A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with endometriosis. Suppressing which of the following would be the most appropriate medical treatment for this disease? A. Infection. B. Ovulation. C. Prostaglandins. D. Fertilization.
B. Ovulation.
Spinnbarkeit mucus is present during which stage of the menstrual cycle? A. Follicular. B. Ovulation. C. Luteal. D. Menstrual.
B. Ovulation.
Which cells of the gastric glands secrete hydrochloric acid? A. Chief. B. Parietal. C. Zymogenic. D. Surface epithelial.
B. Parietal.
The condition in which an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell is called: A. Reciprocal translocation B. Partial trisomy C. Inversion D. Down syndrome
B. Partial trisomy
A 45-year-old male presents with a chronic blister-forming disease of the skin and oral mucous membranes. The nurse would recognize this condition as _____. A. Lupus erythematosus. B. Pemphigus. C. Psoriasis. D. Eczema.
B. Pemphigus.
Which assessment findings will the nurse observe in a patient diagnosed with severe pulmonary edema? A. Thick mucous secretions. B. Pink, frothy sputum. C. Hypocapnia. D. Wheezing.
B. Pink, frothy sputum
A nurse is discussing a cell that can differentiate into any tissue type. Which term is the nurse describing? A. Hematopoietic B. Pluripotent C. Blastocyst D. Progenitor
B. Pluripotent
A 35-year-old nonpregnant female presents with breast discharge and is diagnosed with galactorrhea. The condition is most likely caused by _____. A. Infection. B. Prolactin imbalance. C. Tissue injury. D. Cancer.
B. Prolactin imbalance.
When describing the male urinary anatomy, which information should the nurse include? The portion of the male urethra that is closest to the bladder is the _____ portion. A. Membranous. B. Prostatic. C. Cavernous. D. Vas deferens.
B. Prostatic.
A 52-year-old female diagnosed with systemic scleroderma is at risk for which complication? A. Cutaneous vasculitis. B. Raynaud phenomenon. C. Cellulitis. D. Infection.
B. Raynaud phenomenon.
A child presents to his primary care provider with disorientation, delirium, aggressiveness, and stupor. His parents report that he was recently ill with an upper respiratory infection, which they treated with aspirin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Tay Sachs disease B. Reye syndrome C. PKU D. Epilepsy
B. Reye syndrome
In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for: A. HLA type B. Rh antigen C. Immunoglobulins D. Platelet compatability
B. Rh antigen
Between which two structures will you find a joint that contains synchondrosis costal cartilage? A. Vertebrae. B. Ribs and sternum. C. Sutures of the skull. D. Facial bones.
B. Ribs and sternum.
Upon autopsy of a 25-year-old, abnormalities in the media of the arterial wall and degenerative changes were detected. Which of the following would most likely accompany this finding? A. Fusiform aneurysm B. Saccular aneurysm C. Arteriovenous malformation D. Thrombotic stroke
B. Saccular aneurysm
Which of the following burns is most painful? A. First degree. B. Second degree. C. Charring. D. Third degree.
B. Second degree.
Which hypothyroid diagnosis is supported by low levels of TSH? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Autoimmune D. Atypical
B. Secondary
If nephrotic syndrome is not caused initially by kidney disease, it is termed _____ secondary nephrotic syndrome. A. Primary. B. Secondary. C. Tertiary. D. Idiopathic.
B. Secondary.
Which of the following types of diarrhea would most likely occur with a bacterial GI infection? a. Osmotic b. Secretory c. Hypotonic d. Motility
B. Secretory
Which of the following types of diarrhea would most likely occur with a bacterial infection? A. Osmotic. B. Secretory. C. Hypotonic. D. Motility.
B. Secretory.
What term is used to describe an explosive, disorderly discharge of cortical neurons? A. Reflex B. Seizure C. Inattentiveness D. Brain death
B. Seizure
To express a polygenic trait: A. Genes must interact with the environment B. Several genes must act together C. Multiple mutations must occur in the same family D. Penetrance must occur
B. Several genes must act together
The major difference between male and female sex hormone production is that _____. A. LH has no apparent action in the male. B. Sex hormone production in the male is relatively constant. C. Estrogen is not produced in the male. D. In the male, GnRH does not cause the release of FSH.
B. Sex hormone production in the male is relatively constant.
A report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. A nurse recalls that muscular atrophy involves a decrease in muscle cell: A. Number B. Size C. Vacuoles D. Lipofuscin
B. Size
A water test recently revealed arsenic levels above 200 mcg/L. Which of the following cancers would be most likely to develop in those who consistently drank the water? A. Liver B. Skin C. Colon D. Kidney
B. Skin
A nurse recalls fibrous joints generally are _____. A. Rotating. B. Slightly movable. C. Freely movable. D. Calcified.
B. Slightly movable.
Which sphincter, when it relaxes, allows bile to flow into the duodenum? A. Pyloric sphincter. B. Sphincter of Oddi. C. Ampulla of Vater. D. Ileocecal valve.
B. Sphincter of Oddi.
A serious complication of paraesophageal hiatal hernia is _____. A. Hemorrhage. B. Strangulation. C. Peritonitis. D. Ascites.
B. Strangulation.
A 48-year-old patient presents at the ER reporting an acute severe headache, nausea, photophobia, and nuchal rigidity. Which medical diagnosis is supported by these signs and symptoms? A. Diffuse brain injury B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Epidural hematoma D. Classic concussion
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a: A. Solute B. Substrate C. Receptor D. Ribosome
B. Substrate
The blood supply of the large intestine is derived from which vessel(s)? A. Celiac. B. Superior and inferior mesenteric. C. Hepatic and portal. D. Omental.
B. Superior and inferior mesenteric.
The blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the _____. A. Vagus nerve. B. Sympathetic nervous system. C. Somatic nervous system. D. Parasympathetic nervous system.
B. Sympathetic nervous system.
When a presynaptic neuron is stimulated in a patient's body by an electrical current, neurotransmitters are released from the: A. Synapse B. Synaptic bouton C. Synaptic cleft D. Receptor
B. Synaptic bouton
An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell- mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be isolated? A. Lymphokine-producing cells B. T-cytotoxic cells C. Helper T cells D.Macrophages
B. T-cytotoxic cells
A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely? A. B-lymphocyte deficiency B. T-lymphocyte deficiency C. Combined immunologic deficiency D. Complement deficiency
B. T-lymphocyte deficiency
A 50-year-old presents with hypotension, hypoxemia, and tracheal deviation to the left. Tests reveal that air pressure in the pleural cavity exceeds barometric pressure in the atmosphere. Based upon these assessment findings, what does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? A. Pleural effusion. B. Tension pneumothorax. C. Open pneumothorax. D. Transudative pneumothorax.
B. Tension pneumothorax.
The primary care provider states that the patient is experiencing vasogenic edema. The nurse realizes vasogenic edema is clinically important because: A. It usually has an infectious cause B. The blood-brain barrier is disrupted C. ICP is excessively high D. It always causes herniation
B. The blood-brain barrier is disrupted
A 51-year-old male presents with recurrent chest pain on exertion and is diagnosed with angina pectoris. The pain occurs when: A. Cardiac output has fallen below normal levels B. The myocardial oxygen supply has fallen below demand C. Myocardial stretch has exceeded the upper limits D. The vagus nerve is stimulated
B. The myocardial oxygen supply has fallen below demand
Housekeeping genes are vital to the function and maintenance of all the body's cells. What characteristic is associated with these genes? A. They lack encoding histones B. They are transcriptionally active C. Ribosomal RNA genes are absent D. Epigenetic silencing has occured
B. They are transcriptionally active
A 7-month-old presents with cystic fibrosis accompanied by failure to thrive and frequent, loose, oily stools. Sweat testing confirms the diagnosis. Which of the following is characteristic of cystic fibrosis? A. Autoantibodies that target the lungs and pancreas. B. Thick mucous sputum. C. Enzymes that degrade surfactant in the alveoli. D. A toxic amount of electrolytes from secretory glands.
B. Thick mucous sputum.
A nurse is giving an example of inflammation as an etiology for cancer development. What is the best example the nurse could give? A. Pneumonia and lung cancer B. Ulcerative colitis and colon cancer C. Prostatic hypertrophy and prostate cancer D. Hypercholesterolemia and leukemia
B. Ulcerative colitis and colon cancer
The cause of Paget disease is _____. A. Fluoride deficiency. B. Unknown at present. C. Excessive vitamin A. D. Osteogenic sarcoma.
B. Unknown at present.
A 38-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cancer. She learns that her mother almost miscarried while pregnant with her and was given diethylstilbestrol (DES) to prevent it. Which of the following cancers does she most likely have? A. Endometrial. B. Vaginal. C. Cervical. D. Uterine.
B. Vaginal.
A 1-month-old infant visits his primary care provider for a well-baby check. Physical exam reveals decreased cardiac output, hypotension, tachycardia, and a loud murmur suggestive of aortic stenosis. Which condition would be expected with this diagnosis? A. Atrial dilation B. Ventricular hypertrophy C. Atrial rigidity D. Decreased contractability
B. Ventricular hypertrophy
A 5-year-old male is diagnosed with immune thrombocytic purpura (ITP). What is the most common cause of this condition? A. Normal postnatal platelet lysis B. Virally induced antibody destruction of platelets C. An allergic reaction to vaccinations D. Maternal antibodies that target platelets in the neonate
B. Virally induced antibody destruction of platelets
A 6-year-old presents with slightly umbilicated, dome-shaped lesions on the skin of the trunk, face, and extremities. The child is diagnosed with molluscum contagiosum caused by a highly contagious _____. A. Bacterium. B. Virus. C. Fungus. D. Parasite.
B. Virus.
A 2-year-old presents with fever and cough and is diagnosed with pneumonia. While planning treatment for this patient, the nurse recognizes that which of the following is the most likely cause? A. Bacteria. B. Viruses. C. Mycoplasma species. D. Toxic inhalations.
B. Viruses.
A nurse is monitoring intracranial pressure. A nurse recalls the normal upper limit of intracranial pressure is _______ mm Hg. A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 16
C. 14
If a patient's hemoglobin concentration (Hb) is 14 g/100 ml and arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 98%, what would be his arterial oxygen content? Remember that 1.34 ml O2 is the maximum amount of oxygen that can be transported per gram of hemoglobin. Hint: O2 content = (1.34 ´ Hb) SaO2 A. 13.72 ml O2 per 100 ml blood B. 15.38 ml O2 per 100 ml blood C. 18.76 ml O2 per 100 ml blood D. 19.30 ml O2 per 100 ml blood
C. 18.76 ml O2 per 100 ml blood
A nurse remembers the brain receives approximately ____% of the cardiac output. A. 80 B. 40 C. 20 D. 10
C. 20
On average, the kidneys receive approximately _____ of the cardiac output. A. 10-14%. B. 15-19%. C. 20-25%. D. 26-35%.
C. 20-25%.
Which of the following individuals would be at greatest risk for an opportunistic infection? A. 18-year-old with diabetes B. 70-year-old with congestive heart failure C. 24-year-old who is immunocompromised D. 30-year-old with pneumonia
C. 24-year-old who is immunocompromised
A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes. A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
C. 3
A nurse observes a cardiologist multiplying the heart rate time stroke volume. What is the cardiologist measuring? A. Vascular resistance B. Preload C. Cardiac output D. Ejection fraction
C. Cardiac output
Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing pulmonary embolism (PE)? A. 21-year-old male with a hemophilia bleeding disorder B. 36-year-old woman with a history of alcohol abuse who is recovering from a gastric ulcer C. 72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospital D. 28-year-old woman who had a baby 6 months earlier
C. 72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospital
Which individual should the nurse assess initially for a vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? A. A 3-year-old female who is a fussy eater B. A 26-year-old female in the second trimester of her first pregnancy C. A 47-year-old male who had a gastrectomy procedure D. A 64-year-old male with a history of duodenal ulcers
C. A 47-year-old male who had a gastrectomy procedure
A 52-year-old is diagnosed with primary hypertension, but has no other health problems. Present treatment would cause the nurse to anticipate administering which drug to the patient? A. A beta-adrenergic agonist B. An alpha-adrenergic agonist C. A diuretic D. A calcium channel agonist
C. A diuretic
A 15-year-old female presents with splenomegaly, hepatomegaly and lymph node enlargement. She is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. What should the nurse tell her patient about recovery time? A. 72 hours B. 3-5 days C. A few weeks D. 6 months
C. A few weeks
The pericardium is: A. The outer muscular layer of the heart B. The innermost layer of the heart chambers C. A membranous sac that encloses the heart D. The heart's fibrous skeleton
C. A membranous sac that encloses the heart
The nurse would expect the patient with an alteration in proprioception to experience vertigo, which is manifested by _____. A. Headache B. Light sensitivity C. A sensation that the room is spinning D. Loss of feeling in the lips
C. A sensation that the room is spinning
The trigone is defined as _____. A. The orifice of the ureter. B. The inner area of the kidney. C. A triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra. D. The three divisions of the loop of Henle.
C. A triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra.
The base components of DNA are: A. A, G, C, and U B. P, G, C, and T C. A, G, C, and T D. X, XX, XY, and YY
C. A, G, C, and T
A patient's anemia is described as having erythrocytes that demonstrate poikilocytosis. The nurse would recognize the erythrocytes would be: A. Pale in color B. Present in various sizes C. Able to assume various shapes D. Live only for a few days
C. Able to assume various shapes
A patient presents to a primary care provider reporting chest pain and is diagnosed with atherosclerosis. This disease is caused by: A. Arterial wall thinning and weakening B. Abnormally dilated arteries and veins C. Abnormal thickening and hardening of vessel walls D. Autonomic nervous system imbalances
C. Abnormal thickening and hardening of vessel walls
A 26-year-old recently underwent surgery and is now experiencing dyspnea, cough, fever, and leukocytosis. Tests reveal a collapsed lung caused by the removal of air from an obstructed alveoli. Which term is used to document this condition? A. Compression atelectasis. B. Bronchiectasis. C. Absorption atelectasis. D. Hypoventilation.
C. Absorption atelectasis.
Which neurotransmitter is released when a patient's parasympathetic motor neurons are stimulated? A. Epinephrine B. Serotonin C. Acetylcholine D. Substance P
C. Acetylcholine
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains _____. A. Alpha cells. B. Beta cells. C. Acinar cells. D. Islets of Langerhans.
C. Acinar cells.
A patient diagnosed with a diffuse brain injury (DBI) is at increased risk for which complication? A. Complete loss of vision B. Arrhythmia C. Acute brain swelling D. Meningitis infection
C. Acute brain swelling
A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3-5 grams per day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is _____. A. Cystitis. B. Chronic pyelonephritis. C. Acute glomerulonephritis. D. Renal calculi.
C. Acute glomerulonephritis.
Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful. A. Flight or fight response B. Alarm C. Adaptation D. Arousal
C. Adaptation
What is the main source of fuel for skeletal muscle contraction? A. Potassium. B. Lactic acid. C. Adenosine triphosphate. D. Actin.
C. Adenosine triphosphate.
Where is the main site of aldosterone synthesis? A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Adrenal cortex D. Hypothalamus
C. Adrenal cortex
A patient asks when adjuvant chemotherapy is used. How should the nurse respond? A. As the primary treatment B. Before radiation therapy C. After surgical removal of a tumor D. In cancer with little risk of metastasis
C. After surgical removal of a tumor
What does the term sarcopenia mean? A. Absence of muscle cells. B. Fatigue of muscle cells. C. Age-related loss in skeletal muscle. D. Muscles that are unable to contract.
C. Age-related loss in skeletal muscle.
The patient diagnosed with tuberculosis can transmit this disease through _____. A. Skin contact. B. Fecal-oral contact. C. Airborne droplets. D. Blood transfusions.
C. Airborne droplets.
The most common cause of toxic myopathy is _____. A. Infection. B. A tumor. C. Alcoholism. D. Osteoporosis.
C. Alcoholism.
When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs? A. Autoimmune B. Anaphylaxis C. Alloimmune D. Allergic
C. Alloimmune
When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as: A. A reduced immune response found in most pathologic states B. A normal immune response to an infectious agent C. An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen D. Antigenic desensitization
C. An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen
A 16-year-old with aspirations of becoming a bodybuilder spends 3 hours a day in the gym. Five years later a hepatocellular carcinoma is discovered. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the cancer? A. Immunosuppressive agents B. Cytotoxic agents C. Anabolic steroids D. Viral infection
C. Anabolic steroids
A runner has depleted all oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance? A. Electron-transport chain B. Aerobic glycolysis C. Anaerobic glycolysis D. Oxidative phosphorylation
C. Anaerobic glycolysis
When a patient presents at the emergency department for an allergic reaction, the nurse recognizes the most severe consequence of a type I hypersensitivity reaction as: A. Uticaria B. Hives C. Anaphylaxis D. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
C. Anaphylaxis
Which complication is associated with gastric resection surgery? A. Constipation. B. Acid reflux gastritis. C. Anemia. D. Hiccups.
C. Anemia.
A 30-year-old presents with hematuria, menorrhagia, and bleeding gums, and is diagnosed with immune thrombocytic purpura (ITP). A nurse realizes the most likely cause is: A. Allergy-induced platelet lysis B. An immune response to hypersplenism C. Antibody destruction of platelets D. T-cell injury to megakaryocytes
C. Antibody destruction of platelets
Which of the following is responsible for initiating clonal selection? A. T cells B. B cells C. Antigens D. Lymphocytes
C. Antigens
A 1-year-old female was diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta. Which complication must be monitored for? A. Congestive heart failure. B. Liver failure. C. Aortic aneurysm. D. Pulmonary emboli.
C. Aortic aneurysm.
A 6-year-old male presents with fatigue, jaundice, and irritability. A blood smear shows the presence of sickled cells. Erythropoiesis is compromised in this child; which crisis should the nurse monitor the patient for? A. Vaso-occlusive crisis B. Sequestration crisis C. Aplastic crisis D. Hyperhemolytic crisis
C. Aplastic crisis
A 19-year-old presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and a low-grade fever. A possible diagnosis would be _____. A. Colon cancer. B. Pancreatitis. C. Appendicities. D. Hepatitis.
C. Appendicities.
The most common cause of myocardial ischemia is: A. Idiopathic vasospasm B. Arterial emboli from a heart valve C. Atherosclerosis D. Venous emboli
C. Atherosclerosis
A newborn child has a murmur and is cyanotic. An echocardiogram reveals that the tricuspid valve failed to develop and so no blood flows between the right atrium and ventricle. This condition is described with the term "tricuspid: A. Regurgitation B. Stenosis C. Atresia D. Transposition
C. Atresia
Six weeks ago a female patient suffered a T6 spinal cord injury. She then developed a BP 200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia. What does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? A. Parasympathetic areflexia B. Extreme spinal shock C. Autonomic hyperreflexia D. Acute anxiety
C. Autonomic hyperreflexia
Six weeks ago a patient suffered a T6 spinal cord injury. What complication does the nurse suspect when the patient develops a blood pressure of 200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia? A. Extreme spinal shock B. Acute anxiety C. Autonomic hyperreflexia D. Parasympathetic areflexia
C. Autonomic hyperreflexia
A compensatory alteration in the diameter of cerebral blood vessels in response to increased intracranial pressure is called: A. Herniation B. Vasodilation C. Autoregulation D. Amyotrophy
C. Autoregulation
Tissue damage in pancreatitis is initially triggered by _____. A. Insulin toxicity. B. Autoimmune destruction of the pancreas. C. Backup of pancreatic enzymes. D. Hydrochloric acid reflux into the pancreatic duct.
C. Backup of pancreatic enzymes.
A patient develops skin cancer on the head and neck following years of sunbathing. Which of the following cancers is most likely? A. Lymphoma B. Adenoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Leukemia
C. Basal cell carcinoma
A 65-year-old female loses her balance while walking in the woods, causing her to fall and hit her head. She loses consciousness and is in a coma for 5 days. She is diagnosed as having diffuse brain injury. Which of the following would most likely occur in this patient? A. Complete loss of vision B. Arrhythmia C. Blunted affect D. Meningitis infection
C. Blunted affect
After birth, red blood cells are normally made only in the: A. Liver B. Spleen C. Bone marrow D. Kidney
C. Bone marrow
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores? A. Serum ferritin B. Transferrin saturation C. Bone marrow biopsy D. Total iron-binding capacity
C. Bone marrow biopsy
Which structures would not receive an electrical impulse when the patient is experiencing a left bundle branch block? A. Atrioventricular (AV) node B. Sinoatrial (SA) node C. Bundle of His D. The left ventricle
C. Bundle of His
What is the most common type of renal stone composed of? A. Struvite. B. Cystine. C. Calcium. D. Uric acid.
C. Calcium.
Which ions directly control the contraction of muscles? A. Sodium. B. Potassium. C. Calcium. D. Magnesium.
C. Calcium.
A nurse is discussing preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing? A. Tumor in differentiation B. Dyplastic C. Cancer in situ D. Cancer beyond (meta) situ.
C. Cancer in situ
A 2-month-old develops diaper dermatitis. A nurse will monitor this patient for which secondary infection? A. Streptococcus. B. Proteus C. Candida albicans. D. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Candida albicans.
A 23-year-old sexually active female presents with white copious discharge and itch and is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis. This condition is caused by overgrowth of which micro-organism? A. Escherichia coli. B. Lactobacillus acidophilus. C. Candida albicans. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C. Candida albicans.
A 30-year-old female presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. This wound would be documented as a/an: A. Exit B. Intermediate range entrance C. Contact range entrance D. Intermediate range entrance
C. Contact range entrance
A 22-year-old female whose brother is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy wants to know if her children will inherit it. A fairly accurate test to identify female carriers of the disease is measurement of serum levels of _____. A. Dystrophin. B. Myoglobin. C. Creatine kinase (CK). D. Troponin 1.
C. Creatine kinase (CK).
An infant has an anterior midline defect of neural tube closure. What term will the nurse observe written on the chart? A. Anencephaly B. Myelodysplasia C. Cyclopia D. Hydrocephalus
C. Cyclopia
A baby is stillborn after 6 hours of labor. Autopsy reveals hydrocephalus caused by cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle and aqueductal compression. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Congenital hydrocephalus B. Microcephaly C. Dandy-Walker deformity D. Macewen sign
C. Dandy-Walker deformity
Which information indicates a good understanding of bacterial vaccines? Most bacterial vaccines contain: A. Fully active bacteria B. Synthetic bacteria C. Dead bacteria D. Bacterial toxins
C. Dead bacteria
The life expectancy of infants who are diagnosed with bilateral renal agenesis is expected to be _____. A. Death within 1 year of birth. B. A fairly normal, healthy life. C. Death within a few hours of birth. D. Good when anomalies are corrected with surgery.
C. Death within a few hours of birth.
The renin-angiotensin system will be activated by _____. A. Increased blood volume. B. Elevated sodium concentrations. C. Decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles. D. Renal hypertension.
C. Decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles.
A newborn baby is diagnosed with a blood disorder in which her platelet count is low. Which of the following does the nurse suspect could be the reason? A. Increased megakaryocytes B. Increased platelet cell division C. Decreased thrombopoietin D. Decreased spleen function
C. Decreased thrombopoietin
A 25-year-old female experiences a headache and takes aspirin for relief. A nurse recalls aspirin relieves the headache by: A. Decreasing leukotriene production B. Increasing histamine release C. Decreasing prostaglandin production D. Increasing platelet-activating factor
C. Decreasing prostaglandin production
A client is burned through all the dermis with only a few epidermal appendages intact. This burn is classified as _____. A. First egree. B. Superficial partial-thickness. C. Deep partial-thickness. D. Third degree.
C. Deep partial-thickness.
A patient presents with severe chest pain and shortness of breath and is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The embolism most likely originated from the: A. Left ventricle B. Systemic arteries C. Deep veins of the leg D. Superficial veins of the arm
C. Deep veins of the leg
A patient presents with poison ivy on the extremities, face, and buttocks after an initial exposure 48 hours ago. This condition is an example of: A. Anaphylaxis B. Serum sickness C. Delayed hypersensitivity D. Viral disease
C. Delayed hypersensitivity
A 30-year-old white male recently suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following is the most likely factor that contributed to his stroke? A. Age B. Gender C. Diabetes D. Race
C. Diabetes
A 33-year old male is brought to the ER for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. An MRI reveals and injury of the cervical cord. Cord swelling in this region may be life threatening because: A. Bladder emptying will not occur B. Reflexes will be disrupted C. Diaphragm function may be impaired D. Increased ICP may occur
C. Diaphragm function may be impaired
A patient is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. While planning care, the nurse realizes that the patient is expected to have hydronephrosis and a decreased glomerular filtration rate caused by _____. A. Decreased renal blood flow. B. Decreased peritubular capillary pressure. C. Dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces proximal to a blockage. D. Stimulation of antidiuretic hormone.
C. Dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces proximal to a blockage.
An 8-week-old infant presents to the pediatrician for a well-baby check up. Physical exam reveals a murmur, and an echocardiogram confirms a ventricular septal defect. Which genetic disorder is likely to accompany this diagnosis? A. Huntington disease B. Color blindness C. Down syndrome D. Hemophilia
C. Down syndrome
A 4-month-old is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis (AD). Which assessment finding will most likely support this diagnosis? A. Blistering. B. Moist reddened skin. C. Dry, itchy skin. D. White patches
C. Dry, itchy skin.
What term is used to describe the patent opening between the aorta and pulmonary artery in a fetus? A. Foramen ovale B. Sinus venosus C. Ductus arteriosus D. Septal defect
C. Ductus arteriosus
The patient generally acquires nosocomial pneumonia _____. A. At daycare centers. B. On airplanes. C. During hospitalization. D. In the winter season.
C. During hospitalization
Individuals with a recent diagnosis of emphysema should be assessed for which most common presenting factor? A. A productive cough. B. Cyanosis. C. Dyspnea. D. Cor pulmonale.
C. Dyspnea.
Biochemical secretions that trap and kill microorganisms include: A. Hormones B. Neurotransmitters C. Earwax D. Gastric acid
C. Earwax
What is the cause of the hyperpigmentation seen in people with Cushing syndrome? A. Abnormal levels of cortisol B. Permissive effects of aldosterone when cortisol levels are altered C. Elevated levels of ACTH D. Hypersensitivity of melanocytes with sun exposure
C. Elevated levels of ACTH
A 20-year-old female presents with pelvic and back pain severe enough to miss work beginning with the onset of menses. Physical examination supports the diagnosis of primary dysmenorrhea. The most likely cause of her condition is _____. A. Lack of estrogen. B. Stress. C. Elevated prostaglandins. D. Poor nutrition.
C. Elevated prostaglandins.
A 15-year-old male was struck by a motor vehicle and suffered a traumatic brain injury. Paramedics found him unconscious at the scene of the accident. During the ambulance ride, he regained consciousness and was able to maintain a conversation with the medical staff. Upon arrival to hospital, he was alert and oriented. Physical exam reveals confusion and impaired responsiveness. What is the probable nature of his brain injury based on this history? A. Mild concussion B. Subdural hematoma C. Epidural hematoma D. Mild diffuse axonal injury
C. Epidural hematoma
Immediately after being struck by a motor vehicle, a patient is unconscious, but the patient regains consciousness before arriving at the hospital and appears alert and oriented. The next morning, the patient is confused and demonstrates impaired responsiveness. The patient's history and symptoms support which medical diagnosis? A. Mild concussion B. Subdural hematoma C. Epidural hematoma D. Mild diffuse axonal injury
C. Epidural hematoma
Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the followng regions? A. Right lower quadrant. B. Right upper quadrant. C. Epigastric. D. Suprapubic.
C. Epigastric.
Stress induces sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla. This causes the secretion of catecholamines, which include: A. Epinephrine and aldosterone B. Norepinephrine and cortisol C. Epinephrine and norepinephrine D. Cortisol and aldosterone
C. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls that the most abundant cells in the blood are: A. Leukocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Erythrocytes D. Thrombocytes
C. Erythrocytes
Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys to stimulate bone marrow production of red blood cells? A. Creatinine. B. Aldosterone. C. Erythropoietin. D. Renin.
C. Erythropoietin.
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is _____. A. Diverticulosis. B. Hemorrhoids. C. Esophageal varices. D. Cancer.
C. Esophageal varices.
Which patient is most prone to metabolic alkalosis? A patient with: A. Retention of metabolic acids B. Hypoaldosteronism C. Excessive loss of chloride D. Hyperventilation
C. Excessive loss of chloride
Airway hyperresponsiveness in asthma is related to _____. A. Increased sympathetic nervous system response. B. The release of stress hormones. C. Exposure to an allergan causing mast cell degranulation. D. Hereditary decrease in IgE responsiveness.
C. Exposure to an allergan causing mast cell degranulation.
The skeletal muscles are encased in a connective tissue framework made of _____. A. Bone. B. Epithelium. C. Fascia. D. Cartilage.
C. Fascia.
A 32-year-old obese male begins a jogging routine. A week after beginning, he fractures his leg. This is referred to as what type of fracture? A. Comminuted. B. Greenstick. C. Fatigue. D. Compound.
C. Fatigue.
Which portion of the antibody is responsible for the biologic functions of antibodies? A. Heavy chain B. Variable region C. Fc portion D. Epitope
C. Fc portion
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make? A. Fibrinogen B. Collagen C. Fibrin D. Thrombin
C. Fibrin
A 30-year-old female had a seizure that started with her fingers and progressively spread up her arm and then extended to her leg, with no loss of consciousness. How should the nurse chart this? A. Myoclonic seizure B. Tonic-clonic seizure C. Focal motor seizure D. Atonic seizure
C. Focal motor seizure
A 7-year-old is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which sign would support this diagnosis? A. Constipation. B. Vesicular skin rash. C. Frothy urine. D. Jaundice.
C. Frothy urine.
What type of joint normally exists between the teeth and the maxilla or mandible? A. Symphysis. B. Diarthrosis. C. Gomphosis. D. Syndesmosis.
C. Gomphosis.
A 50-year-old female experiences decreased blood pressure, decreased oxygen delivery, cardiovascular shock, and subsequent death. A complication of endotoxic shock is suspected. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. Gram-positive bacteria B. Fungi C. Gram-negative bacteria D. Virus
C. Gram-negative bacteria
During infancy, what is the fastest growing part of the human body? A. Spinal cord B. Limb bones C. Head D. Vertebral column
C. Head
Bright red bleeding from the rectum is referred to as _____. A. Melena. B. Occult bleeding. C. Hematochezia. D. Hematemesis.
C. Hematochezia.
An elderly woman has a stroke that causes her to be unable to move her right arm and right leg. This condition is best described as: A. Paraplegia B. Quadriplegia C. Hemiplegia
C. Hemiplegia
Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension? A. Sinusoids. B. Bile ducts. C. Hepatic portal vein. D. Hepatic artery.
C. Hepatic portal vein.
Legg-Calv�-Perthes disease affects which of the following joints? A. Vertebral. B. Shoulder. C. Hip. D. Knee.
C. Hip.
A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer? A. Herpes virus B. Rubella virus C. Human papilloma virus (HPV) D. Hepatitis B virus
C. Human papilloma virus (HPV)
When a staff member asks which of the following substances is actively secreted by the renal tubules, what is the nurse's best response? A. Sodium and chlorine. B. Phosphate and calcium. C. Hydrogen and potassium. D. Bicarbonate and carbonic acid.
C. Hydrogen and potassium.
A patient has excessive movement. What disorder will the nurse see documented on the chart? A. Hypokinesia B. Akinesia C. Hyperkinesia D. Dyskinesia
C. Hyperkinesia
A nurse recalls that the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and plasma creatinine concentration are _____ related. A. Directly. B. Indirectly. C. Inversely. D. Not
C. Inversely.
A 45-year-old female with Graves disease underwent surgical removal of her thyroid gland. During the postoperative period, her serum calcium was low. The most probable reason for her low serum calcium is: A. Hypothyroidism resulting from lack of thyroid replacement B. Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves disease C. Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury to the parathyroid glands D. Myxedema secondary to surgery
C. Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury to the parathyroid glands
When the nurse is taking a patient's temperature, which principle should the nurse remember? Regulation of body temperature primarily occurs in the: A. Cerebrum B. Brainstem C. Hypothalamus D. Pituitary gland
C. Hypothalamus
A nurse is reviewing the results of an arterial blood gas and finds reduced oxygenation of arterial blood. What term should the nurse use to describe this condition? A. Ischemia. B. Hypoxia. C. Hypoxemia. D. Hypocapnia.
C. Hypoxemia.
A 65-year-old patient diagnosed with a subarachnoid hemorrhage secondary to uncontrolled hypertension appears drowsy and confused with pronounced focal neurologic deficits. This symptomology would place this hemorrhage at which grade? A. I B. II C. III D. IV
C. III
A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He experiences a severe allergiec reaction and has to go to the ER. The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of: A. Toxoids B. IgA C. IgE D. IgM
C. IgE
A 4-month-old brought to his primary care provider for severe itching and skin lesions is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which of the following would be elevated in this patient? A. IgD B. IgM C. IgE D. IgG
C. IgE
A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD
C. IgM
What is the cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus? A. A familial, autosomal dominant gene defect B. Obesity and lack of exercise C. Immune destruction of the pancreas D. Hyperglycemia from eating too many sweets
C. Immune destruction of the pancreas
A 5-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with recurring respiratory infections. A possible cause of this condition is: A. Hypergammaglobulinemia B. Increased maternal IgG C. Immune insufficiency D. Decreased maternal antibody breakdown, resulting in hypersensitivity
C. Immune insufficiency
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of _____. A. Hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice. B. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances. C. Impaired ammonia metabolism. D. Decreased cerebral blood flow.
C. Impaired ammonia metabolism.
During inspiration, muscular contraction of the diaphragm causes air to move into the lung. The mechanism that drives air movement during inspiration result in a/an _____. A. Decrease in intra-alveolar pressure and shortening of the rib cage. B. Decrease in the size o the thorax and alveolar expansion. C. Increase in the size of the thorax and decrease in intrapleural pressure. D. Increase in atmospheric pressure and intrapleural pressure.
C. Increase in the size of the thorax and decrease in intrapleural pressure.
Which action will occur when a patient's A1-receptors are stimulated? A. Dilation of the coronary arteries B. Vasoconstriction of arteries C. Increase in the strength of myocardial contraction D. Decrease in the rate of myocardial contraction
C. Increase in the strength of myocardial contraction
A 68-year-old is admitted to the emergency department with a diagnosis of polycythemia vera. The nurse realizes the patient's symptoms are mainly the result of: A. Decreased erythrocyte count B. Rapid blood flow to the major organs C. Increased blood viscosity D. Vessel injury
C. Increased blood viscosity
Which statement by the staff indicates teaching was successful concerning aldosterone? Secretion of aldosterone results in: A. Decreased serum osmolality B. Increased serum potassium levels C. Increased blood volume D. Localized edema
C. Increased blood volume
A 13-year-old took a weight loss drug that activated the sympathetic nervous system. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect? A. Decreased myocardial contraction B. Decreased heart rate C. Increased cardiac conduction D. Increased intranodial conduction time
C. Increased cardiac conduction
A patient received a prescription for a weight loss pill. One effect of the pills is to increase the release of epinephrine. Which of the following would be expected to also occur? A. Decreased vascular tone B. Increased skeletal muscle tone C. Increased heat production D. Decreased basal metabolic rate
C. Increased heat production
The nurse is reviewing the lab data of a newly-admitted patient. The nurse notes the patient had an erythrocyte sedimentation done, and the results are quite elevated. The nurse would focus the care plan on which of the following conditions? A. Anemia B. Infection C. Inflammation D. Electrolyte imbalance
C. Inflammation
A 70-year old female has brittle bones secondary to osteoporosis. Her primary care provider prescribes calcitonin to: A. Activate vitamin D B. Stimulate osteoclastic activity C. Inhibit calcium resorption from bones D. Promote thyroid hormone release
C. Inhibit calcium resorption from bones
What is the most serious complication of immune thrombocytopenic purpura? A. Respiratory infection B. Asymmetric bruising C. Intracranial bleeding D. Immunosuppression
C. Intracranial bleeding
A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). The most likely cause is a decrease in: A. Ferritin B. Gastric enzymes C. Intrinsic factor D. Erythropoietin
C. Intrinsic factor
A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of "currant jelly" stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve. Which term is used to describe this type of obstruction? A. Prolapse. B. Pyloric stenosis. C. Intussusception. D. Imperforation.
C. Intussusception.
After entering a room of chemical fog, a 20-year-old male cannot stop coughing. Which of the following structures are primarily responsible for his response? A. Upper respiratory tract mucosa. B. Irritant receptors in the trachea and large airways. C. Irritant receptors in the nostrils. D. Upper respiratory nasal hairs and turbinates.
C. Irritant receptors in the nostrils.
A 27-year-old male lung transplant patient developed Kaposi sarcoma (KS). The nurse knows that the cause of this patient's KS is most likely related to the fact that the patient _____. A. Is malnourished. B. Was exposed to hepatitis B. C. Is immunosuppressed. D. Was diagnosed with cystic fibrosis.
C. Is immunosuppressed.
The role of physical activity in the prevention of colon cancer is identified by which of the following? A. It increases fluid loss, leading to thirst and increased fluid intake, hydrating the colon B. It increases blood supply, thereby increasing oxygen to the colon C. It increases gut motility, thereby decreasing the time the bowel is exposed to mutagens D. It increases the secretion of hydrochloric acid, thereby killing mutants
C. It increases gut motility, thereby decreasing the time the bowel is exposed to mutagens
Erythropoietin is produced in the: A. Liver B. Bone marrow C. Kidneys D. Spleen
C. Kidneys
Which organ system should the nurse monitor when the patient has long-term potassium deficits? A. Central nervous system B. Lungs C. Kidneys D. GI tract
C. Kidneys
A patient has done research on monoclonal antibodies on the internet. Which statement indicates a correct understanding? Pure monoclonal antibodies are produced by: A. T lymphocytes B. Bone marrow C. Laboratories D. Fetuses
C. Laboratories
A 10-month-old infant presents for a well-baby visit. Which of the following reflexes should be present at this age? A. Stepping B. Sucking C. Landau D. Palmar grasp
C. Landau
When a student asks which type of nerves transmit nerve impulses at the fastest rate, what is the best response by the nurse? A. Large, non-myelinated B. Small, myelinated C. Large, myelinated D. Small, non-myelinated
C. Large, myelinated
A nurse is teaching about the area of the spinal cord that contains cell bodies involved in the autonomic nervous system. Which of the following areas is the nurse discussing? A. Anterior horn B. Ventral horn C. Lateral horn D. Dorsal horn
C. Lateral horn
A 2-week-old infant who presents with poor feeding, fatigue, dyspnea, and a murmur is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). This condition results in a/an: A. Decreased pulmonary blood flow B. Right-to-left shunt C. Left-to-right shunt D. Increased systemic blood flow
C. Left-to-right shunt
A 40-year-old female presents with cramping and excessive vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound reveals benign uterine tumors in the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium. These tumors are commonly called _____. A. Adenomyosis. B. Endometiosis. C. Leiomyomas. D. Adenomas.
C. Leiomyomas.
The nurse explains to a parent that young children diagnosed with Down syndrome are at a higher risk for developing: A. Neuroblastoma B. Rhabdomyosarcoma C. Leukemia D. Retinoblastoma
C. Leukemia
A 50-year-old is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux. This condition is caused by _____. A. Fibrosis of the lower third of the esophagus. B. Sympathetic nerve stimulation. C. Loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter. D. Reverse peristalsis of the stomach.
C. Loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter.
Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions occur. What is this cell phase called? A. G1 B. S C. M D. G2
C. M
A macrophage was isolated and analyzed for major histocompatability complex. Which of the following would be expected? A. MHC I only. B. MHC II only. C. MHC I and II. D. Neither MHC I nor MHC II.
C. MHC I and II.
Foam cells in a fatty streak are: A. Deposited adipose cells B. Injured neutrophils C. Macrophages that engulf low-density lipoprotein (LDL) D. Lipid-laden mast cells
C. Macrophages that engulf low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
What is the most common cause of Down syndrome? A. Paternal nondisjunction B. Maternal translocations C. Maternal nondisjunction D. Paternal translocations
C. Maternal nondisjunction
The primary cardiovascular control center is located in the: A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Medulla D. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla
A patient presents to the emergency room (ER) reporting excessive vomiting. A CT scan of the brain reveals a mass in the: A. Skull fissures B. Thalamus C. Medulla oblongata D. Frontal lobe
C. Medulla oblongata
What type of phagocytic cell lies between the layers of the renal capillaries? A. Podocytes. B. Macula densa cells. C. Mesangial cells. D. Filtration slits.
C. Mesangial cells.
What is the origin of most childhood cancer? A. Placenta B. Environment C. Mesodermal germ layer D. Neural tube
C. Mesodermal germ layer
A 55-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway (bronchial) reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adaption is called: A. Anaplasia B. Hyperplasia C. Metaplasia D. Dysplasia
C. Metaplasia
An unstable type of hemoglobin that cannot bind with oxygen is termed: A. Deoxyhemoglobin B. Oxygemoglobin C. Methemoglobin D. Glocosylated hemoglobin
C. Methemoglobin
A cell was isolated from the CNS. A researcher revealed that its main function was to clear cellular debris. What type of cell is the researcher studying? A. Astrocyte B. Ependymal cell C. Microglia D. Schwann cell
C. Microglia
Airway obstruction contributing to increased airflow resistance and hypoventilation in asthma is caused by _____. A. Type II alveolar cell injury and decreased surfactant. B. Alveolar fibrosis and pulmonary edema. C. Mucous secretion, bronchoconstriction, and airway edema. D. Collapse of the cartilaginous rings in the bronchi.
C. Mucous secretion, bronchoconstriction, and airway edema.
The PR interval viewed on a normal electrocardiogram represents: A. Atrial depolarization B. Ventricular depolarization C. Onset of atrial activation to onset of ventricular activity D. "Electrical systole" of the ventricles
C. Onset of atrial activation to onset of ventricular activity
Which hormone plays a role in breast milk ejection (letdown) during lactation? A. Cortisol. B. Prolactin. C. Oxytocin. D. Progesterone.
C. Oxytocin.
When assessing the effects of elevated beta-endorphins in a patient, which of the following should the nurse monitor? A. Peripheral vasoconstriction B. Hyperglycemia C. Pain inhibition D. Decreased immune cell activity
C. Pain inhibition
What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism? A. Pituitary hyposecretion B. Parathyroid adenoma C. Parathyroid gland injury D. Hypothalamic inactivity
C. Parathyroid gland injury
A 70-year-old diagnosed with osteoporosis fell and fractures the left leg at a location of a pre-existing abnormality. Which term describes the fracture? A. Fatigue. B. Stress. C. Pathologic. D. Greenstick.
C. Pathologic.
During which process are bacteria engulfed for ingestion? A. Endocytosis B. Pinocytosis C. Phagocytosis D. Exocytosis
C. Phagocytosis
Several months after an amputation the patient continues to sporadically feel pain in the absent hand. What type of pain should the nurse document in the chart? A. Neuropathic pain B. Visceral pain C. Phantom limb pain D. Chronic pain
C. Phantom limb pain
A 56-year-old male died of myocardial infarction. Autopsy would most likely reveal: A. Embolization of plaque from the aorta B. Decreased ventricular diastolic filling time C. Platelet aggregation within the atherosclerotic coronary artery D. Smooth muscle dysplasia in the coronary artery
C. Platelet aggregation within the atherosclerotic coronary artery
After rehabilitation for severe brain damage following a motor vehicle accident, a patient reports that her thought processes and ability to concentrate are impaired. Which area does the nurse suspect is damaged? A. Thalamus B. Limbic C. Prefrontal D. Occipital
C. Prefrontal
A newboarn is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome. When obtaining the patient's history, which of the following is the most important predisposing factor for this condition? A. Low birth weight. B. Alcohol consumption by the mother during pregnancy. C. Premature birth. D. Smoking by the mother during pregnancy.
C. Premature birth.
The most common form of sensorineural hearing loss in the elderly is: A. Conductive hearing loss B. Acute otitis media C. Presbycusis
C. Presbycusis
The major predictor of poor prognosis for Ewing sarcoma is _____. A. Age of onset. B. Size of tumor. C. Presence of metastasis. D. Gender of child.
C. Presence of metastasis.
A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent before. This hisotry supports which form of enuresis? A. Nocturnal. B. Diurnal. C. Primary. D. Secondary.
C. Primary.
A 62-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain at rest and with exertion. He does not have a history of coronary artery disease and reports that the pain often occurs at night. He is most likely experiencing which type of angina? A. Unstable B. Stable C. Prinzmetal D. Silent
C. Prinzmetal
Mucus production to form the mucosal barrier in the stomach is stimulated by the release of _____. A. Somatostatin. B. Gastrin. C. Prostaglandins. D. Histamine.
C. Prostaglandins.
Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of _____. A. Fat-soluble vitamins. B. Carbohydrates. C. Protein. D. Calcium and magnesium.
C. Protein.
When a 42-year-old is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, which dietary restriction will the nurse discuss with the patient? A. Fats. B. Complex carbohydrates. C. Proteins. D. Sugars.
C. Proteins.
An experiment looking at an isolated neuron revealed a sensory nerve with one process containing a dendritic portion extending away from the CNS and an axon extending toward the CNS. Which of the following classifications would this neuron fall into? A. Bipolar B. Multipolar C. Pseudounipolar D. Interpolar
C. Pseudounipolar
Tests reveal narrowing of the opening between the stomach and the duodenum. This condition is referred to as _____. A. Ileocecal obstruction. B. Hiatal hernia. C. Pyloric obstruction. D. Hiatal obstruction.
C. Pyloric obstruction.
A patient is undergoing a sleep lab test. When the sleep lab worker notices EEG patterns with brain activity similar to the normal awake pattern, which phase of sleep is occurring? A. Non-rapid eye movement B. Fast wave C. REM D. Delta wave
C. REM
Most memorable dreams occur during which sleep phase? A. Non-REM B. Alpha wave C. REM D. Delta wave
C. REM
During the sleep cycle, when does loss of temperature control occur? A. Non-REM sleep B. Light sleep C. REM sleep D. Delta wave sleep
C. REM sleep
What is the most common symptom of Meckel diverticulum observed in children? A. Constipation. B. Vomiting. C. Rectal bleeding. D. Ascites.
C. Rectal bleeding.
The early dilation (swelling) of the cell's endoplasmic reticulum results in: A. Increase aerobic metabolism B. Failure of DNA C. Reduced protein synthesis D. Increased Na+ K+ pump function
C. Reduced protein synthesis
A 35-year-old male has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and a mediastinal mass. He was diagnosed with Hodgkin Lymphoma. Which of the following abnormal cells would the nurse expect to find with this disease? A. Merkel cell B. Schwann cell C. Reed-Sternberg cell D. Kupffer cell
C. Reed-Sternberg cell
Which condition would be treated with therapeutic hypothermia? A. Malnutrition B. Hypothyroidism C. Reimplantation surgery D. Parkinson disease
C. Reimplantation surgery
After studying viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses: A. Contain no DNA or RNA B. Are capable of independent reproduction C. Replicate their genetic material inside of host cells D. Are easily killed with antimicrobials
C. Replicate their genetic material inside of host cells
A 54-year-old male with a long history of smoking complains of excessive tiredness, shortness of breath and overall ill feelings. Lab results reveal decreased pH, increased CO2, and normal bicarbonate ion. These findings help to confirm the diagnosis of: A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
A young patient is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis exacerbation. The nurse monitors the patient closely for which potentially fatal complication of cystic fibrosis? A. Airway rigidity. B. Pulmonary edema. C. Respiratory failure. D. Asthma-like bronchospasms
C. Respiratory failure.
A young patient is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis exacerbation. The nurse monitors the patient closely for which potentially fatal complication of cystic fibrosis? A. Airway rigidity. B. Pulmonary edema. C. Respiratory failure. D. Asthma-like bronchospasms.
C. Respiratory failure.
A 6-month-old presents with rhinorrhea, cough, poor feeding, lethargy, and fever, and is diagnosed with bronchiolitis. Which of the following will the nurse most likely observe on the culture report? A. Parainfluenza virus. B. Haemophilus influenzae type B. C. Respiratory syncytial virus. D. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
C. Respiratory syncytial virus.
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. History reveals that he had an infection 3 weeks before the onset of this condition. The infection was most likely located in the _____. A. Bone. B. Gastrointestinal tract. C. Respiratory tract. D. Ear.
C. Respiratory tract.
The neurologist explain that arousal is mediated by the: A. Cerebral cortex B. Medulla Oblongata C. Reticular activating system D. Cingulate gyrus
C. Reticular activating system
A patient has memory loss of events that occurred before a head injury. What cognitive disorder does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? A. Selective memory deficit B. Anterograde amnesia C. Retrograde amnesia D. Executive memory deficit
C. Retrograde amnesia
Which assessment finding by the nurse characterizes a mild concussion? A. A brief loss of consciousness B. Significant behavioral changes C. Retrograde amnesia D. Permanent confusion
C. Retrograde amnesia
A malignant tumor of striated muscle origin commonly found on the neck is called _____. A. Myelogenic tumor. B. Giant cell tumor. C. Rhabdomyosarcoma. D. Rhabdomyoma.
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
An example of a parasitic sexually transmitted infection (STI) that is transmitted through close skin-to-skin contact is _____. A. Chlamydia. B Syphilis. C. Scabies. D. Gardnerella.
C. Scabies
A 40-year-old develops disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Upon obtaining the history, which finding is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Snakebite B. Blood transfusion C. Sepsis D. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Sepsis
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be: A. Proliferated B. Activated C. Sequestered D. Infected
C. Sequestered
What type of mutation does not change the amino acid sequence and thus has no observable consequence? A. Frameshift B. Spontaneous C. Silent D. Missense
C. Silent
The capillaries of the liver are more commonly known as hepatic _____. A. Canaliculi. B. Ducts. C. Sinusoids. D. Papillae.
C. Sinusoids.
When a patient asks what the somatic nervous system controls, how should the nurse respond? It controls: A. The heart B. The spinal cord C. Skeletal muscle D. Smooth muscle organs
C. Skeletal muscle
A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find before treatment? A. Weight gain, cold intolerance B. Constipation, confusion C. Skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate D. Slow heart rate, rash
C. Skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate
A patient scrapes both knees while playing soccer and reports sharp and well-localized pain Which of the following should the nurse document to most accurately characterize the pain? A. Chronic pain B. Referred pain C. Somatic pain D. Visceral pain
C. Somatic pain
Which of the following clusters of symptoms would lead the nurse to suspect a child has immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)? A. Multiple infections, bruising, abdominal bone marrow aspiration B. Lower extremity that is warm to touch, edematous, and painful C. Spontaneous nosebleeds, bruising, and petichiae D. Increased platelet count, recent onset venous thrombosis
C. Spontaneous nosebleeds, bruising, and petichiae
A 70-year-old patient is being closely monitored in the neurological critical care unit for a severe closed head injury. After 48 hours, signs of deterioration occur: pupils are small and sluggish, pulse pressure is widening, and heart rate is bradycardic. These clinical findings are evidence of what stage of intracranial hypertension? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4
C. Stage 3
A 2-week-old female presents with fever, productive cough, respiratory distress, and empyema. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart? A. Viral pneumonia. B. Pneumococcal pneumonia. C. Staphylococcal pneumonia. D. Mycoplasma pneumonia.
C. Staphylococcal pneumonia.
A 10-year-old is brought to the ER with prolonged bronchospasm and severe hypoxemia. The symptomology supports which diagnosis? A. Exercise-induced asthma. B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. C. Status asthmaticus. D. Bronchiectasis.
C. Status asthmaticus.
Which valvular condition is characterized by the valve opening being constricted and narrowed, causing the valve leaflets, or cusps, to fall open completely? A. Regurgitation B. Insufficiency C. Stenosis D. Incompetence
C. Stenosis
The nurse is describing the receptors in the lung that decrease ventilatory rate and volume when stimulated. Which receptors is the nurse discussing? A. Carbon dioxide receptors. B. Baroreceptors. C. Stretch receptors. D. Chemoreceptors.
C. Stretch receptors.
A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed with bronchogenic cancer. He developed edema and venous distention in the upper extremities and face. Which of the following diagnoses will the nurse observe on the chart? A. Thromboembolism B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) D. Chronic venous insufficiency
C. Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)
Which of the following should the nurse include when discussing the different types of cartilaginous joints? A. Sutures and gomphosis. B. Syndesmosis and gomphosis. C. Symphysis and synchondrosis. D. Gomphosis and synchondrosis.
C. Symphysis and synchondrosis.
For a patient with candidiasis, which factor will exacerbate the condition? A. Poor hygiene. B. Older age. C. Systemic antibiotics. D. Anemia.
C. Systemic antibiotics.
The molecule that aids in bonding of the troponin complex to actin and tropomyosin in troponin: A. C B. I C. T D. M
C. T
Parents of a 3-month-old bring the infant to the emergency room (ER) after a seizure has caused muscle rigidity. Both parents are of Jewish ancestry. For what genetic disease should this infant be screened? A. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy B. Congenital encephalopathy C. Tay-Sachs disease D. PKU
C. Tay-Sachs disease
A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition? A. Biploidy B. Triploidy C. Tetraploidy D. Aneuploidy
C. Tetraploidy
Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic renal failure because _____. A. Calcium is lost in the urine. B. Osteoblast activity is excessive. C. The kidneys fail to activate vitamin D. D. Autoantibodies to calcium molecules develop.
C. The kidneys fail to activate vitamin D.
What term should the nurse use to document a detached blood clot? A. Thrombus B. Embolus C. Thromboembolus D. Infarction
C. Thromboembolus
When an aide asks the nurse about the purpose of the inflammatory process, how should the nurse respond? A. To provide specific responses toward antigens B. To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms C. To prevent infection of the injured tissue D. To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury
C. To prevent infection of the injured tissue
A 72-year-old male demonstrates left-sided weakness of upper and lower extremities. The symptoms lasted 4 hours and resolved with no evidence of infarction. The patient most likely experienced a(n): A. Stoke in evolution B. Arteriovenous malformation C. Transient ischemic attack D. Cerebral hemorrhage
C. Transient ischemic attack
A 65-year-old female is diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer. She has developed muscle wasting. Which of the following substances would be produced in large quantities to eliminate the tumor cells and cause muscle wasting? A. Interleukin-6 B. Eosinophils C. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha D. Platelets
C. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? A. Down syndrome B. Cri du chat syndrome C. Turner syndrome D. Fragile X syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
Which diagnosis features short stature, widely spaced nipples, and a reduced carrying angle at the elbow? A. Down syndrome B. Cri du chat syndrome C. Turner syndrome D. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to be increased in a patient with deficient ADH production? A. Blood volume B. Urine osmolality C. Urine volume D. Arterial vasoconstriction
C. Urine volume
Which information indicates the nurse understands digestion? During the cephalic and gastric phases of digestion, gallbladder contraction is mediated by branches of the _____. A. Sympathetic nervous system. B. Somatic nervous system. C. Vagus nerve. D. Glossopharyngeal nerve.
C. Vagus nerve.
A newborn develops a murmur and cyanosis after birth. A diagnosis of pulmonic stenosis (PS) is made after an echocardiogram revealed narrowing of the pulmonary: A. Tree B. Artery C. Valves D. Vein
C. Valves
Intrauterine exposure to which factor could be responsible for a diagnosis of congenital heart disease? A. Diabetes B. Alcohol exposure C. Viral infection D. Dextroamphetamine
C. Viral infection
A 56-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of osteomalacia. History reveals that he underwent bariatric surgery 3 years earlier. What is the common link between the surgery and the development of osteomalacia? A. Impaired phosphate absorption. B. Increased calcium excretion. C. Vitamin D deficiency. D. Impaired vitamin C metabolism.
C. Vitamin D deficiency.
A 13-year-old female is diagnosed with asthma. Which of the following should the nurse teach the patient to recognize as a part of an asthmatic attack? A. Headache. B. Chest pain. C. Wheezing. D. Low heart rate.
C. Wheezing.
A 3-month-old female presents with intention tremors, dystonia, greenish-yellow rings in the cornea, and hepatomegaly. Tests revel a defect on chromosome 13. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Galactosemia. B. Fructosemia. C. Wilson disease. D. Cirrhosis.
C. Wilson disease.
A 30-year-old is diagnosed with emphysema. Changes in this patient's lungs are caused by _____. A. Viral infections. B. Destruction of alveolar macrophages. C. _1-antitrypsin deficiency. D. Fibrotic lung disease
C. _1-antitrypsin deficiency.
When discussing DNA replication, which enzyme is most important? A. RNA polymerase B. Transfer RNA C. Messenger RNA D. DNA polymerase
D. DNA polymerase
A nurse assesses the heart after acetylcholine because the effect of the acetylcholine on the heart is to: A. Decrease the refractory period B. Increase calcium influx C. Increase the strength of myocardial contraction D. Decrease the heart rate
D. Decrease the heart rate
A 30-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident. The glass from the shattered window cut his face and neck. The scar, however, was raised and extended beyond the original boundaries of the wound. This pattern of scarring is caused by impaired:
Collagen synthesis
The diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis is based on the measurement of which laboratory value? A. White blood cell count. B. Antinuclear antibodies. C. Aspartate aminotransferase. D. Creatine kinase.
D. Creatine kinase.
What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the lung given the following conditions? (Percentage of oxygen in air: 20; Barometric pressure 700 mm Hg) A. 111 mm Hg. B. 124 mm Hg. C. 131 mm Hg. D. 140 mm Hg.
D. 140 mm Hg.
What is the chance that two siblings share both HLA haplotypes, making them a good match for an organ transplant from one to the other? A. 100% B. 75% C. 50% D. 25%
D. 25%
A patient asks the nurse how often REM sleep occurs. The nurse responds, "About every _____ minutes." A. 15 B. 30 C. 60 D. 90
D. 90
Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing pulmonary embolism? A. A 21-year-old male with a hemophilia bleeding disorder. B. A 28-year-old woman who had a baby 6 months earlier. C. A 36-year-old woman with a hisotry of alcohol abuse who is recovering from a gastric ulcer. D. A 72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospital.
D. A 72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospital.
Which of the following signs is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer? A. Dimpling. B. Nipple discharge. C. Chest pain. D. A painless lump.
D. A painless lump.
A 15-year-old male suffers from severe hemorrhage following a motor vehicle accident. He is given a blood transfusion, but shortly afterward the red blood cells are destroyed by agglutination and lysis. Which of the blood type transfusions type matches would cause this? A. A-A B. B-O C. AB-O D. A-AB
D. A-AB
How should the nurse describe cervical mucus during ovulation? A. Blood-tinged. B. Thin and watery. C. Absent. D. Abundant and elastic.
D. Abundant and elastic.
An increase in _____ is associated with pruritus. A. Substance P. B. Norepinephrine. C. Dopamine. D. Acetylcholine.
D. Acetylcholine.
A 67-year-old male was diagnosed with polycythemia vera but refused treatment. His condition is t risk for converting to: A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia B. Burkitt lymphoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Acute myeloid leukemia
D. Acute myeloid leukemia
The pressure required to inflate an alveolus is inversely related to _____. A. Wall thickness. B. Surface tension. C. Minute volume. D. Alveolar radius.
D. Alveolar radius.
A 30-year-old male is having difficulty breathing and has been spitting blood. He reports that he began experiencing this reaction after cleaning his pigeons' cages. Testing reveals he is suffering from allergic alveolitis. Which of the following is he experiencing? A. Serum sickness B. Raynaud phenomenon C. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity D. Arthus reaction
D. Arthus reaction
A common cause of chronic mesenteric ischemia among the elderly is _____. A. Anemia. B. Aneurysm. C. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen. D. Atherosclerosis.
D. Atherosclerosis.
When a patient has a peculiar sensation that immediately precedes a seizure, what term should the nurse use to describe this sensation? A. Prodroma B. Agnosia C. Spasm D. Aura
D. Aura
Patient teaching is considered successful regarding myasthenia gravis when the patient identifies its cause as being: A. Viral infection of skeletal muscle B. Atrophy of motor neurons in the spinal cord C. Demyelination of skeletal motor neurons D. Autoimmune injury at the neuromuscular junction
D. Autoimmune injury at the neuromuscular junction
Which type of white blood cell contains preformed granules of vasoactive amines? A. Neutrophil B. Eosinophil C. Monocyte D. Basophil
D. Basophil
A patient is experiencing respiratory difficulty and retaining too much carbon dioxide. Which receptor sites would be stimulated in an attempt to maintain a normal homeostatic state? A. Irritant. B. Stretch. C. Peripheral. D. Central.
D. Central.
A 30-year-old female received a severe head injury in a motor vehicle accident. She is now experiencing respiratory abnormalities characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing with periods of apnea. What term should the nurse use when charting this condition? A. Frank-Starling B. Orthopnea C. Apnea D. Cheyne-Stokes
D. Cheyne-Stokes
The most important environmental risk factor for cancer is exposure to: A. UV radiation B. Radon C. Estrogen D. Cigarette smoke
D. Cigarette smoke
A nurse recalls physical activity was shown to definitely reduce the risk of which of the following types of cancer? A. Prostate B. Lung C. Bone D. Colon
D. Colon
A 55-year-old is diagnosed with extrahepatic obstructive jaundice that is a result of the obstruction of the _____. A. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi. B. Gallbladder. C. Cystic duct. D. Common bile duct.
D. Common bile duct.
A 44-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for SIADH. Which of the following assessment findings would be expected in this patient? A. Peripheral edema B. Tachycardia C. Low blood pressure D. Concentrated urine
D. Concentrated urine
A nurse is preparing to teach staff about the most common type of traumatic brain injury. Which type of traumatic brain injury should the nurse discuss? A. Penetrating trauma B. Diffuse axonal injury C. Focal brain injury D. Concussion
D. Concussion
A 28-year-old with seizure disorder has a vagus nerve stimulator implanted to help control seizure activity. Which result will the nurse expect to occur? A. Increased speed of cardiac cycle B. Increased cardiac contractility C. Decreased vasodilation D. Decreased cardiac conduction
D. Decreased cardiac conduction
A 15-year-old is diagnosed with restrictive lung disease caused by fibrosis. Which pulmonary function test finding is expected? A. Increased compliance. B. Increased tidal volume. C. Decreased respiratory rate. D. Decreased functional residual capacity.
D. Decreased functional residual capacity.
Which of the following would increase a patient risk for thrombotic stroke? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypertension C. Anemia D. Dehydration
D. Dehydration
A 50-year-old was recently diagnosed with Huntington disease. Transmission of this disease is associated with: A. Penetrance of trait B. Recurrence risk C. Expressivity D. Delayed age of onset
D. Delayed age of onset
A 5-year-old breaks her leg after falling from a merry-go-round. Which of the following would be released from the midbrain to modulate her pain? A. Alpha endorphin B. Enkephalin C. Endomorphin D. Dynorphin
D. Dynorphin
A 40-year-old female's Pap smear indicates abnormal changes in the shape and organization of cervical cells. Which term would be used to identify this type of change? A. Metaplasia B. Atrophy C. Hypertrophy D. Dysplasia
D. Dysplasia
A 30-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustains trauma to the lungs and chest wall. He experiences respiratory failure. Which of the following lab values would the nurse expect? A. Electrolyte imbalances B. Elevated pH C. Low hematocrit D. Elevated PaCO2
D. Elevated PaCO2
A nurse is preparing to teach on the subject of opsonins. Which information should the nurse include? Opsonins are molecules that: A. Regulate inflammation B. Degranulate mast cells C. Are composed of fatty acids D. Enhance phagocytosis
D. Enhance phagocytosis
A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with lymphadenopathy. Which assessment finding will help confirm this diagnosis? A. Small, hard lymph nodes B. Disordered lymph nodes C. Nonpalpable, nontender lymph nodes D. Enlarged lymph nodes
D. Enlarged lymph nodes
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm, and they show phagocytic activity. Which of the following cells is most similar? A. Monocyte B. Macrophage C. Lymphocyte D. Eosinophil
D. Eosinophil
The hormone that promotes breast development during puberty is _____. A. Progesterone. B. Prolactin. C. Oxytocin. D. Estradiol.
D. Estradiol.
Which hormone promotes the formation of channels in the mucus of the cervical os to facilitate sperm movement into the uterus? A. LH. B. FSH. C. Progesterone. D. Estrogen.
D. Estrogen.
Which term is used to describe the duct that carries the ovum from the ovary to the uterus? A. Isthmus. B. Corpus. C. Endocervical canal. D. Fallopian tube.
D. Fallopian tube.
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make? A. Collagen B. Fibrogen C. Thrombin D. Fibrin
D. Fibrin
A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with lobar pneumonia (lung infection). Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of this advanced inflammatory response? A. Serous B. Purulent C. Hemorrhagic D. Fibrinous
D. Fibrinous
What nutrient should the nurse encourage a woman in the early stages of pregnancy to consume to prevent neural tube defects? A. Protein B. Iron C. Vitamin D D. Folic acid
D. Folic acid
Which of the following mutations have the most significant effect on protein synthesis? A. Base pair substitutions B. Silent mutations C. Intron mutations D. Frameshift mutations
D. Frameshift mutations
The coroner ruled sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) as the cause of death of a 5-month-old female. Which risk factor is most likely associated with SIDS? A. Congenital heart disease. B. Female gender. C. White race. D. Frequent respiratory infections.
D. Frequent respiratory infections.
A 50-year-old female became infected with Clostridium bacteria and died a week later. Examination of her red blood cells revealed lysis of membranes. Which of the following was the most likely cause of her death? A. Fat necrosis B. Wet gangrene C. Gangrenous necrosis D. Gas gangrene
D. Gas gangrene
A 30-year-old white female was recently diagnosed with primary hypertension. She reports that she eats fairly well, usually moderate red meat consumption. She also reports that her father has hypertension as well. A nurse determines which of the following risk factors is the most likely associated with this diagnosis? A. Race B. Diet C. Age D. Genetic
D. Genetic
Which of the following clusters of symptoms would support a child's diagnosis of glomerulonephritis? A. Pyruia, fever, and abdominal pain. B. Proteinuria, hypotension, and ascites. C. Dysuria, urinary frequency, and abdominal tenderness. D. Gross hematuria, edema, and hypertension.
D. Gross hematuria, edema, and hypertension.
The nursing student would correctly identify the most common symptom of brain abscess as: A. Nuchal rigidity B. Vomiting C. Drowsiness D. Headache
D. Headache
A 2-year-old male presented with growth and maturation retardation and splenomegaly. He died shortly after arriving at the ER. Autopsy revealed thalassemia secondary to defective: A. Erythrocyte membranes B. Iron metabolism C. Stem cell formation D. Hemoglobin synthesis
D. Hemoglobin synthesis
When a child is admitted with acute renal failure, a clinician realizes the most common cause of acute renal failure is _____. A. Glomerulonephritis. B. Obstruction. C. Nephrotic syndrome. D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS).
D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS).
Which of the following statements indicates more teaching is needed regarding secondary lymph organs? _____ is/are a secondary lymphoid organ. A. The spleen B. Peyer patches C. Adenoids D. The liver
D. The liver
A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and is taking immunosuppressant drugs. He now has painful vesicular eruptions on the face and trunk. He reports that he had chickenpox as a child. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on his chicken pox history? A. Erysipelas. B. Poliomyelitis. C. Warts. D. Herpes zoster.
D. Herpes zoster.
When catecholamines are released in a patient, what should the nurse assess for? A. Nutrient absorption B. Fluid retention C. Hypotension D. Hyperglycemia
D. Hyperglycemia
A 25-year-old female presents with amenorrhea and hirsutism and is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Lab testing will most likely reveal _____. A. Estrogen deficit. B. Genetic cancerous mutations. C. Cortisol excess. D. Hyperinsulinemia.
D. Hyperinsulinemia.
A 54-year-old male intravenous (IV) drug user is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis C. Testing revealed that he is a candidate for treatment. Which of the following could be used to treat his condition? A. Interleukin-1 B. Interleukin-6 C. Interleukin-10 D. INFs
D. INFs
A 6-year-old male diagnosed with vesicoureteral reflux is experiencing urine reflux from the urinary bladder into a grossly dilated ureter and calyces. This condition would be graded _____. A. I. B. II. C. III. D. IV.
D. IV.
Which immunoglobulin is found in normal saliva? A. IgG. B. IgD. C. IgE D. IgA.
D. IgA.
Which sphincter prevents reflux of digested material from the colon into the small intestine? A. Haustral. B. Lower esophageal. C. Pyloric. D. Ileocecal valve.
D. Ileocecal valve.
A 16-year-old is bitten by a rabid dog while jogging in the park. Upon admission to the emergency department, the nurse will administer which of the following to help prevent infection? A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Helper T cells C. Macrophages D. Immune globulin
D. Immune globulin
An experiment was designed to test the effects of the Starling forces on fluid movement. Which of the following alterations would result in fluid moving into the interstitial space? A. Increased capillary oncotic pressure B. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure C. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure D. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure
D. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure
A 3-year-old male is diagnosed with Kawasaki disease. What is the most likely cause of Kawasaki disease? A. A genetic defect causing left heart failure B. Autoimmune injury to the lymphatic vessels C. Infectious pericarditis D. Inflammation of small capillaries, arteries, and veins
D. Inflammation of small capillaries, arteries, and veins
Which of the following is an example of the protein hormone? A. Thyroxine (T4) B. Aldosterone C. Testosterone D. Insulin
D. Insulin
Asthma is thought to be caused by _____. A. An autosomal recessive trait. B. Autoimmunity. C. Excessive use of antibiotics as a young child. D. Interactions between genetic and environmental factors.
D. Interactions between genetic and environmental factors.
A nurse is reviewing lab reports. The nurse recalls blood plasma is located in which of the following fluid compartments? A. Intracellular fluid B. Extracellular fluid C. Interstitial fluid D. Intravascular fluid
D. Intravascular fluid
What is the term used to describe receptors that respond to increased pulmonary capillary pressure? A. Irritant receptors. B. Chemoreceptors. C. Stretch receptors. D. J-receptors.
D. J-receptors.
The thoracic lymphatic duct drains into the: A. Left subclavian artery B. Right atrium C. Right subclavian vein D. Left subclavian vein
D. Left subclavian vein
Which patient would the nurse assess for paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)? A patient with: A. Asthma B. Pulmonary fibrosis C. Hypotension D. Left ventricular failure
D. Left ventricular failure
Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors? A. Oxygen B. Ribosomes C. Amphipathic lipids D. Ligands
D. Ligands
Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for basal cell carcinoma? A. Dark complexion, light eyes, underweight B. Light complexion, dark eyes, overweight C. Medium complexion, light eyes, smoker D. Light complexion, light eyes, fair hair
D. Light complexion, light eyes, fair hair
A patient wants to know which malignant skin lesion is the most serious. The correct response is _____. A. Basal cell carcinoma. B. Squamous cell carcinoma. C. Kaposi sarcoma. D. Malignant melanoma.
D. Malignant melanoma.
A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process? A. Adaptation B. Calcification C. Apoptosis D. Necrosis
D. Necrosis
Which cytokines participate in hematopoiesis? A. Stimulating factors (CSFs) B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Neutrophils
D. Neutrophils
A 60-year-old male with a 40-year history of smoking presents with chest pain, cough, sputum production, and pneumonia. Tests reveal widespread metastatic cancer, and the primary care provider plans radiation therapy. Which of following is the most likely type of cancer to be documented on the chart? A. Small cell carcinoma B. Adenoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Non-small cell carcinoma
D. Non-small cell carcinoma
An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected? A. Insufficient bile production. B. Gastric atrophy. C. Hypersecretion of stomach acid. D. Nutrient malabsorption.
D. Nutrient malabsorption.
Research has provided support for the theory that epigenetic modifications can result from deficient in-utero nutrition causing: A. Asthma B. Diabetes C. Cardiovascular disease D. Obesity, cardiovascular disease, diabetes
D. Obesity, cardiovascular disease, diabetes
A 60-year-old female with emphysema is having difficulty expiring a given volume of air. When giving report, the nurse will relay that the patient is most likely experiencing _____ pulmonary disease. A. Restrictive B. Atelectatic C. Pleuritic D. Obstructive
D. Obstructive
A cardiovascular alteration seen in a newborn diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome includes _____. A. Left-to-right shunt. B. Left ventricular dilation. C. Pulmonary hypertension. D. Opening of fetal shunt pathways.
D. Opening of fetal shunt pathways.
A 13-year-old presents with pain at night, cough, and dyspnea and is diagnosed with a metastasizing malignant bone tumor. The most likely type of tumor is _____. A. Nonossifying fibroma. B. Chondrosarcoma. C. Ewing sarcoma. D. Osteosarcoma.
D. Osteosarcoma.
A patient is diagnosed with primary thrombocytopenia. A nurse would expect the blood smear to reveal ____ platelets. A. Defective B. Fragmented C. Consumed D. Overproduced
D. Overproduced
5-Azacytidine has demonstrated promise in the treatment of which form of cancer? A. Liver B. Colon C. Gallbladder D. Pancreatic
D. Pancreatic
A 24-year-old female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances. These cellular changes would be referred to as: A. Dysplasia B. Pathologic dysplasia C. Hyperplasia D. Pathologic hyperplasia
D. Pathologic hyperplasia
Which layer forms the fascicles in skeletal muscle? A. Tendon sheath. B. Endomysium. C. Epimysium. D. Perimysium.
D. Perimysium.
A 25-year-old female has heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood. Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect? A. Movement of fluid into the cell B. Decreased cardiac output C. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin D. Peripheral vasoconstriction
D. Peripheral vasoconstriction
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart? A. Sideroblastic B. Iron deficiency C. Hemolytic D. Pernicious
D. Pernicious
A 38-year-old presents reporting difficulty having sexual intercourse because his penis bends during erection. What term describes this condition? A. Phimosis. B. Cryptorchidism. C. Paraphimosis. D. Peyronie disease.
D. Peyronie disease.
A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with SLE. Which of the following findings would be considered a symptom of this disease? A. Gastrointestinal ulcers B. Decreased glomerular filtration rate C. Rash on trunk and extremities D. Photosensitivity
D. Photosensitivity
An older male presents with flank pain and polyuria. Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate. Which type of renal failure is this patient at risk for? A. Prerenal. B. Intrarenal. C. Extrarenal. D. Postrenal.
D. Postrenal.
A nurse recalls insulin has an effect on which of the following groups of electrolytes? A. Sodium, chloride, phosphate B. Calcium, magnesium, potassium C. Hydrogen, bicarbonate, chloride D. Potassium, magnesium, phosphate
D. Potassium, magnesium, phosphate
The microorganisms that make up the normal human flora are important for: A. Regulating inflammation B. Secreting bacteriostatic substances C. Activating white blood cells D. Preventing the colonization and multiplication of pathogens
D. Preventing the colonization and multiplication of pathogens
Progesterone is referred to as "the hormone of pregnancy" because it _____. A. Stimulates lactation. B. Increases ciliary action in the fallopian tubes. C. Thins the endometrium. D. Prevents smooth muscle contraction of the uterus.
D. Prevents smooth muscle contraction of the uterus.
A 50-year-old diabetic patient experiences visual disturbances and decides to visit his primary care provider. After examination, the primary care provider tells the patient that the cells that allow him to see are degenerated. Which of the following structures is most likely damaged? A. Lens. B. Pupil. C. Cornea. D. Retina.
D. Retina
The structure of the contractile subunit of the myofibril is called the _____. A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum. B. Actin. C. Motor end plate. D. Sarcomere.
D. Sarcomere.
Which type of sickle cell crisis occurs only in young children? A. Hypervolemic crisis B. Vaso-occlusive crisis C. Aplastic crisis D. Sequestration crisis
D. Sequestration crisis
Sickled cells will be removed from circulation mostly by the: A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Spleen
D. Spleen
A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with empyema. Upon receiving and reviewing the culture result, which organism does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause? A. Moraxella catarrhalis B. Klebsiella pneumonia C. Virus D. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Aplastic anemia is caused by: A. Iron deficiency B. Excess levels of erythropoietin C. Hemolysis D. Stem cell deficiency
D. Stem cell deficiency
A teenage sustains a severe closed head injury following an all-terrain vehicle (ATV) accident and is in a state of deep sleep that requires vigorous stimulation to elicit eye opening. How should the nurse document this in the chart? A. Confusion B. Coma C. Obtundation D. Stupor
D. Stupor
A patient brought to the emergency room (ER) with severe burns is requesting something for the excruciating pain and is medicated with morphine, which blocks which of the following neurotransmitters, thus reducing the pain? A. Enkephalin B. Dopamine C. Acetylcholine D. Substance P
D. Substance P
The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca++ simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which type of transport? A. Biport B. Uniport C. Antiport D. Symport
D. Symport
A patient is diagnosed with orthostatic hypertension. Which of the following symptoms would most likely be reported? A. Headache and blurred vision B. Nausea and vomiting C. Chest pain and palpitations D, Syncope and fainting
D. Syncope and fainting
When a patient has a fever, which of the following thermoregulatory mechanisms is activated? A. The body's thermostat is adjusted to a lower temperature B. Temperature is raised above the set point C. Bacteria stimulate peripheral thermogenesis D. The body's thermostat is reset to a higher level
D. The body's thermostat is reset to a higher level
When a nurse is checking the urinalysis, plasma proteins should be absent from the urine because _____. A. All filtered proteins are subsequently reabsorbed. B. The texture of the covering surrounding plasma proteins interferes with reabsorption. C. Filtered proteins are subsequently degraded before elimination. D. The negative charge of the glomerular filtration membrane repels the plasma proteins.
D. The negative charge of the glomerular filtration membrane repels the plasma proteins.
A 60-year-old female has survived a myocardial infarction. The nurse is providing care for impaired ventricular function because: A. There is a temporary alteration in electrolyte balance B. There is too much stress on the heart C. The cells become hypertrophic D. The resulting ischemia leads to hypoxic injury and myocardial cell death
D. The resulting ischemia leads to hypoxic injury and myocardial cell death
Considering anemia, what effect do vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies have on red blood cells? A. They are unable to differentiate into erythrocytes B. They contain malformed hemoglobin molecules C. Oxygen-carrying capacity is decreased D. Their life span is shorter
D. Their life span is shorter
A 20-year-old female is applying for nursing school and is required to be tested for immunity against several illnesses. Testing that looks at which of the following would be the best to determine immunity? A. Culture and sensitivity B. Agglutination C. Precipitation D. Titer
D. Titer
The macrophage secretion that stimulates procollagen synthesis and secretion is: A. Angiogenesis factor B. Matrix metalloproteinsase C. Vascular endothelial growth factor D. Transforming growth factor-beta
D. Transforming growth factor-beta
The pancreas produces which substance to prevent the premature activation of proteolytic enzymes in the pancreas? A. Bicarbonate. B. Carboxypeptidase. C. Secretin. D. Trypsin inhibitor.
D. Trypsin inhibitor.
A 36-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find? A. Renal toxicity B. Episodes of hypoglycemia C. Hypotension D. Type 2 DM
D. Type 2 DM
Which characterizes an embryonic cancer tumor? A. Commonly occurring B. Often seen in adults C. Composed of mature, differentiated cells D. Usually manifested around age 5
D. Usually manifested around age 5
Testing reveals that a child has hemophilia A. This bleeding disorder results from a deficiency in factor: A. IX B. XII C. XIII D. VIII
D. VIII
What structure supplies blood to the medulla? A. Renal artery. B. Arcuate artery. C. Peritubular capillary. D. Vasa recta.
D. Vasa recta.
What is the most likely cause of croup? A. Bacteria. B. Acute hyperventilation. C. Allergy. D. Viral infection.
D. Viral infection.
Pneumonia is caused by _____. A. Use of anesthetic agents in surgery. B. Atelectasis. C. Chronic lung changes seen with aging. D. Viral or bacterial infections.
D. Viral or bacterial infections
A 25-year-old female reports having unprotected sexual intercourse with several men. Blood tests reveal that she is positive for human papillomavirus. What else should the nurse assess for? A. Vaginal discharge B. Liver failure C. Breast cancer D. Warts
D. Warts
The descending segment of the loop of Henle primarily allows for _____. A. Sodium secretion. B. Potassium secretion. C. Hydrogen ion reabsorption. D. Water reabsorption.
D. Water reabsorption.
A newborn is suspected of having coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following assessments would aid in diagnosis? A. Cyanosis B. Bounding pedal pulses C. Cool arms D. Weak or absent femoral pulses
D. Weak or absent femoral pulses
A 9-year-old patient is admitted to the pediatric hospital with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. When planning care, the nurse recalls the patient inherited this condition through a trait that is: A. X-linked dominant B. X-influenced C. X-limited D. X-linked recessive
D. X-linked recessive
A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal: A. XY B. XX C. XYY D. XXY
D. XXY
While planning care for a patient with respiratory difficulty and retaining too much carbon dioxide, which principle should the nurse recall? _______ would be stimulated in an attempt to maintain a normal homeostatic state. A. Irritant receptors B. Stretch receptors C. Peripheral chemoreceptors D. Central chemoreceptors
D. central chemoreceptors
A 65-year-old female is diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer. She has developed muscle wasting. Which of the following substances would be produced in large quantities to eliminate the tumor cells and cause muscle wasting?
Tumor necrosis factor
An infant was born 10 weeks premature and put on mechanical ventilation. Two months later he presents with hypoxemia and hypercapnia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe documented on the chart? a. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) b. Bronchiolitis c. Pneumonia d. Respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn
a. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
A 6-year-old male presents with fever, pain, swelling, and warmth and is diagnosed with osteomyelitis. In addition to the clinical symptoms, the nurse would expect elevations in which lab tests? (select all that apply) a. C-reactive protein b. White blood cell count c. Red cell count d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) e. Liver enzymes
a. C-reactive protein b. White blood cell count d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
As a result of a severe head injury, a patient is now experiencing respiratory abnormalities characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing with periods of apnea. What term should the nurse use when charting this condition? a. Cheyne-Stokes b. Frank-Starling c. Apnea d. Orthopnea
a. Cheyne-Stokes
An 80-year-old develops pneumonia in the hospital. An assessment identifies that the patient is cyanotic and tachycardic and has developed a fever and a cough. Chest x-ray reveals pus in the pleural space. This symptomology supports which medical diagnosis? a. Empyema b. Emphysema c. Pleurisy d. Chyle
a. Empyema
A nurse is reviewing the results of an arterial blood gas (ABG) and finds reduced oxygenation of arterial blood. What term should the nurse use to describe this condition? a. Hypoxemia b. Hypocapnia c. Hypoxia d. Ischemia
a. Hypoxemia
If an individual with respiratory difficulty were retaining too much carbon dioxide, which of the following compensatory responses would the nurse expect to be initiated? a. Increase in respiratory rate b. Decrease in ventilation rate c. Increase in tidal volume d. Vasodilation of the pulmonary arterioles
a. Increase in respiratory rate
Which process would be expected in the first 24 hours following a serious burn? a. Increased capillary permeability b. Diuresis c. Decreased levels of stress hormones d. Fluid overload
a. Increased capillary permeability
A 70-year-old male nursing home resident developed a dermal pressure ulcer. Thiscondition is most often caused by (select all that apply): a. Shearing forces b. Friction c. Moistured. d. Unrelieved pressure e. High-carbohydrate diet
a. Shearing forces b. Friction c. Moistured. d. Unrelieved pressure
Which body structure contains the openings to the vagina and urinary meatus? a. Vestibule b. Mons pubis c. Introitus d. Perineal body
a. Vestibule
How do blood vessels penetrate into the inner structures of the bone? a. Volkmann canals b. Canaliculi c. Sharpey fibers d. Lamellae
a. Volkmann canals
A 40-year-old is diagnosed with skin cancer. It is explained that the most importantrisk factor for skin cancer is: a. amount of direct sun exposure at a young age. b. amount of sun exposure over age 50. c. lifetime amount of sun exposure. d. living in equatorial regions where the sun is most intense.
a. amount of direct sun exposure at a young age.
A 39-year-old female with chronic intermittent pain in the epigastric area 2 to 3 hours after eating is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following behaviors may have contributed to the development of the ulcer? a.Cigarette smoking b.Drinking caffeinated beverages c.Consuming limited fiber d.Antacid consumption
a.Cigarette smoking
Clinical manifestations of bile salt deficiencies are related to poor absorption of: a.Fats and fat-soluble vitamins b.Water-soluble vitamins c.Proteins d.Minerals
a.Fats and fat-soluble vitamins
A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea. a.Osmotic b.Secretory c.Hypotonic d.Motility
a.Osmotic
A 50-year-old male complains of frequently recurring abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools. A possible diagnosis would be: a.Ulcerative colitis b.Hiatal hernia c.Pyloric obstruction d.Achalasia
a.Ulcerative colitis
A 26-year-old recently underwent surgery and is now experiencing dyspnea, cough, fever, and leukocytosis. Tests reveal a collapsed lung caused by the removal of air from obstructed alveoli. Which term is used to document this condition? a. Hypoventilation b. Absorption atelectasis c. Compression atelectasis d. Bronchiectasis
b. Absorption atelectasis
Which clinical finding would be expected in the patient with rhabdomyolysis? a. Sweating b. Dark urine c. Yellow color to the skin d. Lower extremity swelling
b. Dark urine
A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse include? Airway hyper-responsiveness in asthma is related to: a. The release of stress hormones b. Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulation c. Increased sympathetic nervous system response d. Hereditary decrease in IgE responsiveness
b. Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulation
A 55-year-old presents reporting urinary retention. Tests reveal a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse? a. Vesicoureteral reflux and pyelonephritis b. Formation of renal calculi c. Glomerulonephritis d. Increased bladder compliance
b. Formation of renal calculi
During the menstrual cycle, what triggers ovulation to occur? a. A gradual decrease in estrogen levels. b. Inhibin B sharply spikes. c. A surge in progesterone occurs. d. Activin is released.
b. Inhibin B sharply spikes.
The nurse observed the patient's muscle contracted, but the limb did not move. How should the nurse chart this muscle contraction? a. Isotonic contraction b. Isometric contraction c. Eccentric contraction d. Concentric contraction
b. Isometric contraction
A nurse is teaching staff about pulmonary edema. Which information should the nurse include? The most common cause of pulmonary edema is: a. Asthma b. Left heart failure c. Right heart failure d. Lung cancer
b. Left heart failure
While planning care, a nurse recalls respiratory distress and hypoxemia in laryngotracheobronchitis are caused by: a. Decreased surfactant b. Mucosal edema c. Infectious pulmonary edema d. Nasopharyngeal obstruction
b. Mucosal edema
When discussing the functional unit of the kidney, what term should the nurse use? a. Calyx b. Nephron c. Collecting duct d. Pyramid
b. Nephron
Clusters of which type of bone cells are responsible for bone remodeling? a. Trabeculae b. Osteoclastic cutting cones c. Basic multicellular units d. Haversian system cells
b. Osteoclastic cutting cones
A 50-year-old presents with hypotension, hypoxemia, and tracheal deviation to the left. Tests reveal that the air pressure in the pleural cavity exceeds barometric pressure in the atmosphere. Based upon these assessment findings, what does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? a. Pleural effusion b. Tension pneumothorax c. Open pneumothorax d. Transudative pneumothorax
b. Tension pneumothorax
A 7-month-old presents with cystic fibrosis (CF) accompanied by failure to thrive and frequent, loose, and oily stools. Sweat testing confirms the diagnosis. Which of the following is characteristic of CF? a. Autoantibodies that target the lungs and pancreas b. Thick mucous sputum c. Enzymes that degrade surfactant in the alveoli d. A toxic amount of electrolytes from secretory glands
b. Thick mucous sputum
Researchers now believe that rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a result of: a. an ineffective antiviral agent. b. an autoimmune disease. c. a complication of rheumatic fever. d. a superficial joint injury.
b. an autoimmune disease.
Osteoarthritis, a degenerative joint disease, is characterized by loss of: a. the epiphyses. b. articular cartilage. c. synovial fluid. d. the joint capsule.
b. articular cartilage.
A wound scar that is sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, and progressively enlarging isa result of excessive amounts of _____ accumulated during connective tissue repair. a. elastin b. collagen c. keratin d. calcification
b. collagen
A 65-year-old diagnosed with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals both bluish skin and mucous membranes. What term will the nurse use to document these observations? a. Hemoptysis b. Cyanosis c. Hematemesis d. Ischemia
b. cyanosis
When a 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture she is diagnosed with osteoporosis. One factor that most likely contributed to her condition is: a. increased androgen levels. b. decreased estrogen levels. c. strenuous exercise. d. excessive dietary calcium.
b. decreased estrogen levels.
A nurse recalls the _____ is lined with columnar epithelial cells. a. perimetrium b. endocervical canal c. myometrium d. vagina
b. endocervical canal
Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by: a. swelling of mesangial cells in the Bowman space in response to the presence of bacteria. b. immune complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage. c. inflammatory factors that stimulate cellular proliferation of epithelial cells. d. accumulation of antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies.
b. immune complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage.
Under most circumstances, increased work of breathing results in: a. increased partial pressure of O2 in the lungs. b. increased oxygen consumption. c. decreased PaCO2. d. alterations in alveolar perfusion.
b. increased oxygen consumption
A newborn is in respiratory distress and requires ventilation. Tests reveal that he does not produce surfactant due to the absence of: a. mucus-producing cells. b. type II alveolar cells. c. alveolar macrophages. d. goblet cells.
b. type II alveolar cells.
A 24-year-old male who sustained a head injury and fractured femur develops a stress ulcer. A common clinical manifestation of this ulcer is: a.Bowel obstruction b.Bleeding c.Pulmonary embolism d.Hepatomegaly
b.Bleeding
A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. This condition is most likely caused by: a.Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels b.Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions c.Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement d.Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux
b.Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
The risk of hypovolemic shock is high with acute mesenteric arterial insufficiency because: a.The resulting liver failure causes a deficit of plasma proteins and a loss of oncotic pressure. b.Ischemia alters mucosal membrane permeability, and fluid is shifted to the bowel wall and peritoneum. c.Massive bleeding occurs in the GI tract. d.Overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system results in ischemic injury to the intestinal wall.
b.Ischemia alters mucosal membrane permeability, and fluid is shifted to the bowel wall and peritoneum.
The icteric phase of hepatitis is characterized by which of the following clinical manifestations? a.Fatigue, malaise, vomiting b.Jaundice, dark urine, enlarged liver c.Resolution of jaundice, liver function returns to normal d.Fulminant liver failure, hepatorenal syndrome
b.Jaundice, dark urine, enlarged liver
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by: a.Accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct b.Obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone c.Accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder d.Viral infection of the gallbladder
b.Obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone
A 34-year-old male was diagnosed with a bacterial GI infection. Which of the following types of diarrhea would most likely occur with his condition? a.Osmotic b.Secretory c.Hypotonic d.Motility
b.Secretory
A 60-year-old male undergoes surgery for a bone fracture. Which of the following nursing measures would be most effective for preventing pulmonary embolism (PE) in this patient? a. Promote aggressive fluid intake. b. Check hematocrit and hemoglobin levels frequently during the postoperative period. c. Prevent deep vein thrombosis formation. d. Ensure that patient uses supplemental oxygen.
c. Prevent deep vein thrombosis formation.
A 42-year-old female presents with raised red lesions with a brownish scale. She wasdiagnosed with discoid lupus erythematosus. This disorder is related to: a. infection. b. trauma. c. autoimmunity. d. cancer.
c. autoimmunity.
A 32-year-old male was injured in a motor vehicle accident and confined to bed for 3 weeks. During this time, the size and strength of muscle fibers decreased, a condition referred to as: a. myelodysplasia. b. ischemic atrophy. c. disuse atrophy. d. fibromyalgia.
c. disuse atrophy.
The coroner ruled sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) as the cause of death of a 5-month-old-female. Which risk factor is most likely associated with SIDS? a. Female gender b. White race c. Frequent respiratory infections d. Congenital heart disease
c. frequent respiratory infections
A 15-year-old female reports abnormal hair growth on her face and body. Thiscondition is referred to as: a. alopecia. b. areata. c. hirsutism. d. paronychia.
c. hirsutism.
Fat cells are located in the: a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. hypodermis. d. fascia beneath the skin.
c. hypodermis.
A newborn is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome. When obtaining the patient's history, which of the following is the most important predisposing factor for this condition? a. Low birth weight b. Alcohol consumption by the mother during pregnancy c. Premature birth d. Smoking by the mother during pregnancy
c. premature birth
A major predictor of poor prognosis for Ewing sarcoma is: a. age of onset. b. size of tumor. c. presence of metastasis. d. gender of child.
c. presence of metastasis.
Spermatogenesis occurs in the: a. epididymis. b. inguinal canals. c. seminiferous tubules. d. vas deferens.
c. seminiferous tubules.
In the majority of cases delayed puberty is due to: a. a disruption in the hypothalamus. b. a disruption of the pituitary. c. slow maturation. d. ambiguity in sex determination.
c. slow maturation.
A 3-year-old male is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Treatment will include: a. aspirin. b. antivirals. c. steroids. d. chemotherapy.
c. steroids.
A 50-year-old presents with hypotension, hypoxemia, and tracheal deviation to the left. Tests reveal that the air pressure in the pleural cavity exceeds barometric pressure in the atmosphere. Based upon these assessment findings, what does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? a. Open pneumothorax b. Pleural effusion c. Tension pneumothorax d. Transudative pneumothorax
c. tension pneumothorax
A 30-year-old obese female underwent gastric resection in an attempt to lose weight. Which of the following complications could the surgery cause? a.Constipation b.Acid reflux gastritis c.Anemia d.Hiccups
c.Anemia
The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding. a.Rectal b.Duodenal c.Esophageal d.Intestinal
c.Esophageal
When assessing a patient diagnosed with localized scleroderma, which changes in theskin will be observed? a. Cyanosis b. Hyperpigmented c. Necrosis d. Thickening
d. Thickening
A 10-year-old male was diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea. When the parents ask what treatment comes next, how should the nurse respond? The treatment that will most likely be tried first is: a. Continuous positive airway pressure b. Weight loss c. Drug therapy d. Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy (T&A)
d. Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy (T&A)
What structure supplies blood to the medulla? a. Renal artery b. Arcuate artery c. Peritubular capillary d. Vasa recta
d. Vasa recta
The pressure required to inflate an alveolus is inversely related to: a. wall thickness. b. surface tension. c. minute volume. d. alveolar radius.
d. alveolar radius
The pressure required to inflate an alveolus is inversely related to: a. wall thickness. b. surface tension. c. minute volume. d. alveolar radius.
d. alveolar radius.
Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal disorder characterized by: a. pain resulting from joint and muscle inflammation. b. muscle pain in the back and gastrointestinal symptoms. c. neurologic pain in the skeletal muscles. d. diffuse pain, fatigue, and tender points.
d. diffuse pain, fatigue, and tender points.
A 5-year-old presents with high fever, inspiratory stridor, severe respiratory distress, drooling, and dysphagia. Acute epiglottitis is suspected. When assessing the child the nurse would avoid: a. auscultating the child's respiratory rate. b. trying to keep the child calm. c. counting the heart rate apically. d. examining the throat for redness.
d. examining the throat for redness
After nearly drowning a 2-year-old developed acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following should the nurse assess the patient for? a. Decreased heart rate b. Increased lung compliance c. Increased surfactant production d. Hypoxemia
d. hypoxemia
A cardiovascular alteration seen in a newborn diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome includes: a. left ventricular dilation. b. left-to-right shunt. c. pulmonary hypotension. d. opening of fetal shunt pathways.
d. opening of fetal shunt pathways.
A nurse recalls the major hormonal determinant of sexual differentiation in utero is: a. estrogen. b. progesterone. c. growth hormone. d. testosterone.
d. testosterone.
A 60-year-old with a history of cirrhosis presents with dyspnea, impaired ventilation, and pleural pain. A diagnosis of pleural effusion is made, and a watery fluid is drained. When giving report, the nurse will refer to this fluid as: a. exudative. b. purulent. c. infected. d. transudative.
d. transudative.
The descending segment of the loop of Henle primarily allows for: a. sodium secretion. b. potassium secretion. c. hydrogen ion reabsorption. d. water reabsorption.
d. water reabsorption.
A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow's milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is: a.Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility b.Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea c.Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and decreased bowel motility d.Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility
d.Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility
A 10-month-old is brought to the pediatrician by the mother who states the baby has been experiencing colicky pain followed by vomiting, sweating, nausea, and irritability. Testing reveals a condition in which one part of the intestine telescopes into another. From which type of intestinal obstruction is he suffering? a.Hernia b.Ileus c.Torsion d.Intussusception
d.Intussusception
Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease? a.Abdominal pain b.Pattern of remission/exacerbations c.Diarrhea d.Malabsorption
d.Malabsorption
