Peds Exam #3 COMBO - Chapters 34, 35, 45, 41, 44
Which aspect of cognition develops during adolescence? a. Capability to use a future time perspective b. Ability to place things in a sensible and logical order c. Ability to see things from the point of view of another d. Progress from making judgments based on what they see to making judgments based on what they reason
A Adolescents are no longer restricted to the real and actual. They also are concerned with the possible; they think beyond the present. During concrete operations (between ages 7 and 11 years), children exhibit the ability to place things in a sensible and logical order, the ability to see things from another's point of view, and the ability to make judgments based on what they reason rather than just what they see.
Which statement is true about smoking in adolescence? a. Smoking is related to other high-risk behaviors. b. Smoking is more common among athletes. c. Smoking is less common when the adolescent's parent(s) smokes. d. Smoking among adolescents is becoming more prevalent.
A Cigarettes are considered a gateway drug. Teenagers who smoke are 11.4 times more likely to use an illicit drug. Teens who refrain from smoking often have a desire to succeed in athletics. If a parent smokes, it is more likely that the teen will smoke. Cigarette smoking has declined among all groups since the 1990s.
According to Piaget, the adolescent is in the fourth stage of cognitive development, or period of: a. Formal operations. b. Concrete operations. c. Conventional thought. d. Postconventional thought.
A Cognitive thinking culminates with capacity for abstract thinking. This stage, the period of formal operations, is Piaget's fourth and last stage. The concrete operations stage usually develops between ages 7 and 11 years. Conventional and postconventional thought refer to Kohlberg's stages of moral development.
The nurse closely monitors the temperature of a child with nephrosis. The purpose of this is to detect an early sign of: a. Infection. b. Hypertension. c. Encephalopathy. d. Edema.
ANS: A Infection is a constant source of danger to edematous children and those receiving corticosteroid therapy. An increased temperature could be an indication of an infection, but it is not an indication of hypertension or edema. Encephalopathy is not a complication usually associated with nephrosis. The child will most likely have neurologic signs and symptoms.
A young adolescent boy tells the nurse he "feels gawky" (awkward). The nurse should explain that this occurs in adolescents because: a. Growth of the extremities and neck precedes growth in other areas. b. Growth is in the trunk and chest. c. The hip and chest breadth increases. d. The growth spurt occurs earlier in boys than it does in girls.
A Growth in length of the extremities and neck precedes growth in other areas, and, because these parts are the first to reach adult length, the hands and feet appear larger than normal during adolescence. Increases in hip and chest breadth take place in a few months, followed several months later by an increase in shoulder width. These changes are followed by increases in length of the trunk and depth of the chest. This sequence of changes is responsible for the characteristic long-legged, gawky appearance of early adolescent children. The growth spurt occurs earlier in girls than in boys.
Which statement is correct about childhood obesity? a. Heredity is an important factor in the development of obesity. b. Childhood obesity in the United States is decreasing. c. Childhood obesity is the result of inactivity. d. Childhood obesity can be attributed to an underlying disease in most cases.
A Heredity is an important fact that contributes to obesity. Identical twins reared apart tend to resemble their biologic parents to a greater extent than their adoptive parents. It is difficult to distinguish between hereditary and environmental factors. The rate of childhood obesity has increased so dramatically that it has now reached epidemic proportions. Inactivity is an important contributing factor; however, obesity is the result of a combination of a number of other factors. Fewer than 5% of all cases of obesity can be linked to underlying disease.
Matt, age 14 years, seems to be always eating, although his weight is appropriate for his height. The best explanation for this is: a. This is normal because of increase in body mass. b. This is abnormal and suggestive of future obesity. c. His caloric intake would have to be excessive. d. He is substituting food for unfilled needs.
A In adolescence, nutritional needs are closely related to the increase in body mass. The peak requirements occur in the years of maximal growth. The caloric and protein requirements are higher than at almost any other time of life. This describes the expected eating pattern for young adolescents as long as weight and height are appropriate; obesity and substitution of food for unfilled needs are not concerns.
The nurse is caring for a boy with probable intussusception. He had diarrhea before admission but, while waiting for administration of air pressure to reduce the intussusception, he passes a normal brown stool. The most appropriate nursing action is to: a. Notify the practitioner. b. Measure abdominal girth. c. Auscultate for bowel sounds. d. Take vital signs, including blood pressure.
A Passage of a normal brown stool indicates that the intussusception has reduced itself. This is immediately reported to the practitioner, who may choose to alter the diagnostic/therapeutic plan of care.
A high-fiber food that the nurse could recommend for a child with chronic constipation is: a. Popcorn. b. Muffins. c. Pancakes. d. Ripe bananas.
A Popcorn is a high-fiber food. Pancakes and muffins do not have significant fiber unless made with fruit or bran. Raw fruits, especially those with skins and seeds, other than ripe bananas and avocados are high in fiber.
What food choice by the parent of a 2-year-old child with celiac disease indicates a need for further teaching? a. Oatmeal b. Rice cake c. Corn muffin d. Meat patty
A The child with celiac disease is unable to fully digest gluten, the protein found in wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Oatmeal contains gluten and is not an appropriate food selection. Rice is an appropriate choice because it does not contain gluten. Corn is digestible because it does not contain gluten. Meats do not contain gluten and can be included in the diet of a child with celiac disease.
What is characterized by a chronic inflammatory process that may involve any part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from mouth to anus? a. Crohn's disease b. Meckel's diverticulum c. Ulcerative colitis d. Irritable bowel syndrome
A The chronic inflammatory process of Crohn's disease involves any part of the GI tract from the mouth to the anus but most often affects the terminal ileum. Ulcerative colitis, Meckel's diverticulum, and irritable bowel syndrome do not affect the entire GI tract.
A nurse is teaching adolescent boys about pubertal changes. The first sign of pubertal change seen with boys is: a. Testicular enlargement. b. Facial hair. c. Scrotal enlargement. d. Voice deepens.
A The first sign of pubertal changes in boys is testicular enlargement in response to testosterone secretion, which usually occurs in Tanner stage 2. Slight pubic hair is present and the smooth skin texture of the scrotum is somewhat altered. As testosterone secretion increases, the penis, testes, and scrotum enlarge. During Tanner stages 4 and 5, rising levels of testosterone cause the voice to deepen and facial hair appears at the corners of the upper lip and chin.
An important nursing consideration in the care of a child with celiac disease is to: a. Refer to a nutritionist for detailed dietary instructions and education. b. Help the child and family understand that diet restrictions are usually only temporary. c. Teach proper hand washing and Standard Precautions to prevent disease transmission. d. Suggest ways to cope more effectively with stress to minimize symptoms.
A The main consideration is helping the child adhere to dietary management. Considerable time is spent in explaining to the child and parents the disease process, the specific role of gluten in aggravating the condition, and those foods that must be restricted. Referral to a nutritionist would help in this process. The most severe symptoms usually occur in early childhood and adult life. Dietary avoidance of gluten should be lifelong. Celiac disease is not transmissible or stress related.
A 14-year-old boy and his parents are concerned about bilateral breast enlargement. The nurse's discussion of this should be based on knowing that: a. This is usually benign and temporary. b. This is usually caused by Klinefelter's syndrome. c. Administration of estrogen effectively reduces gynecomastia. d. Administration of testosterone effectively reduces gynecomastia.
A The male breast responds to hormone changes. Some degree of bilateral or unilateral breast enlargement occurs frequently in boys during puberty. This is not a manifestation of Klinefelter's syndrome. Administration of estrogen or testosterone will have no effect on the reduction of breast tissue and may aggravate the condition.
Which predisposes the adolescent to feel an increased need for sleep? a. An inadequate diet b. Rapid physical growth c. Decreased activity that contributes to a feeling of fatigue d. The lack of ambition typical of this age group
B During growth spurts, the need for sleep is increased. Rapid physical growth, the tendency toward overexertion, and the overall increased activity of this age contribute to fatigue.
Which demonstrates the school-age child's developing logic in the stage of concrete operations (select all that apply)? a. The school-age child is able to recognize that he can be a son, brother, or nephew at the same time. b. The school-age child understands the principles of adding, subtracting, and reversibility. c. The school-age child has thinking that is characterized by egocentrism and animism.
A, B
Peer victimization is becoming a significant problem for school-age children and adolescents in the United States. Parents should be educated regarding signs that a child is being bullied. These might include (select all that apply): a. The child spends an inordinate amount of time in the nurse's office. b. Belongings frequently go missing or are damaged. c. The child wants to be driven to school. d. School performance improves. e. The child freely talks about his or her day.
A, B, C
A nurse is planning care for a 7-year-old child hospitalized with osteomyelitis. Which activities should the nurse plan to bring from the playroom for the child (select all that apply)? a. Paper and some paints b. Board games c. Jack-in-the-box d. Stuffed animals e. Computer games
A, B, E
A nurse is recommending strategies to a group of school-age children for prevention of obesity. Which should the nurse include (select all that apply)? a. Eat breakfast daily. b. Limit fruits and vegetables. c. Have frequent family meals with parents present. d. Eat frequently at restaurants. e. Limit television viewing to 2 hours a day.
A, C, E
Injuries claim many lives during adolescence. Which factors contribute to early adolescents engaging in risk-taking behaviors (select all that apply)? a. Peer pressure b. A desire to master their environment c. Engagement in the process of separation from their parents d. A belief that they are invulnerable e. Impulsivity
A, D, E Peer pressure (including impressing peers) is a factor contributing to adolescent injuries. During early to middle adolescence, children feel that they are exempt from the consequences of risk-taking behaviors; they believe that negative consequences only happen to others. Feelings of invulnerability ("It can't happen to me") are evident in adolescence. Impulsivity places adolescents in unsafe situations. Mastering the environment is the task of young school-age children. Emancipation is a major issue for the older adolescent. The process is accomplished as the teenager gains an education or vocational training.
The nurse is monitoring an infant for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which are late signs of increased ICP in an infant (Select all that apply)? a. Tachycardia b. Alteration in pupil size and reactivity c. Increased motor response d. Extension or flexion posturing e. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
ANS: B, D, E Late signs of ICP in an infant or child include bradycardia, alteration in pupil size and reactivity, decreased motor response, extension or flexion posturing, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
Therapeutic management of nephrosis includes: a. Corticosteroids. b. Antihypertensive agents. c. Long-term diuretics. d. Increased fluids to promote diuresis.
ANS: A Corticosteroids are the first line of therapy for nephrosis. Response is usually seen within 7 to 21 days. Antihypertensive agents and long-term diuretic therapy are usually not necessary. A diet that has fluid and salt restrictions may be indicated.
What should the nurse recommend to prevent urinary tract infections in young girls? a. Wearing cotton underpants b. Limiting bathing as much as possible c. Increasing fluids; decreasing salt intake d. Cleansing the perineum with water after voiding
ANS: A Cotton underpants are preferable to nylon underpants. No evidence exists that limiting bathing, increasing fluids, decreasing salt intake, or cleansing the perineum with water decreases urinary tract infections in young girls.
Which type of seizure may be difficult to detect? a. Absence b. Generalized c. Simple partial d. Complex partial
ANS: A Absence seizures may go unrecognized because little change occurs in the child's behavior during the seizure. Generalized, simple partial, and complex partial seizures all have clinical manifestations that are observable.
Which clinical manifestations would suggest hydrocephalus in a neonate? a. Bulging fontanel and dilated scalp veins b. Closed fontanel and high-pitched cry c. Constant low-pitched cry and restlessness d. Depressed fontanel and decreased blood pressure
ANS: A Bulging fontanel, dilated scalp veins, and separated sutures are clinical manifestations of hydrocephalus in neonates. Closed fontanel and high-pitched cry, constant low-pitched cry and restlessness, and depressed fontanel and decreased blood pressure are not clinical manifestations of hydrocephalus, but all should be referred for evaluation.
The priority nursing intervention when a child is unconscious after a fall is to: a. Establish an adequate airway. b. Perform neurologic assessment. c. Monitor intercranial pressure. d. Determine whether a neck injury is present.
ANS: A Respiratory effectiveness is the primary concern in the care of the unconscious child. Establishing an adequate airway is always the first priority. A neurologic assessment and determination of neck injury are performed after breathing and circulation are stabilized. Intracranial, not intercranial, pressure is monitored if indicated after airway, breathing, and circulation are maintained.
An adolescent boy is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle accident. His respirations are deep, periodic, and gasping. There are extreme fluctuations in blood pressure. Pupils are dilated and fixed. What type of head injury should the nurse suspect? a. Brainstem b. Skull fracture c. Subdural hemorrhage d. Epidural hemorrhage
ANS: A Signs of brainstem injury include deep, rapid, periodic or intermittent, and gasping respirations. Wide fluctuations or noticeable slowing of the pulse, widening pulse pressure, or extreme fluctuations in blood pressure are consistent with a brainstem injury. Skull fracture and subdural and epidural hemorrhages are not consistent with these signs.
A toddler fell out of a second-story window. She had brief loss of consciousness and vomited four times. Since admission, she has been alert and oriented. Her mother asks why a computed tomography (CT) scan is required when she "seems fine." The nurse should explain that the toddler: a. May have a brain injury. b. Needs this because of her age. c. May start having seizures. d. Probably has a skull fracture.
ANS: A The child's history of the fall, brief loss of consciousness, and vomiting four times necessitate evaluation of a potential brain injury. The severity of a head injury may not be apparent on clinical examination but will be detectable on a CT scan. The need for the CT scan is related to the injury and symptoms, not the child's age, and is necessary to determine whether a brain injury has occurred.
An important nursing intervention when caring for a child who is experiencing a seizure is to: a. Describe and record the seizure activity observed. b. Restrain the child when seizure occurs to prevent bodily harm. c. Place a tongue blade between the teeth if they become clenched. d. Suction the child during a seizure to prevent aspiration.
ANS: A When a child is having a seizure, the priority nursing care is observation of the child and seizure. The nurse then describes and records the seizure activity. The child should not be restrained, and nothing should be placed in his or her mouth. This may cause injury. To prevent aspiration, if possible, the child should be placed on his or her side, facilitating drainage.
In girls, the initial indication of puberty is: a. Menarche. b. Growth spurt. c. Growth of pubic hair. d. Breast development.
D In most girls, the initial indication of puberty is the appearance of breast buds, an event known as the larche. The usual sequence of secondary sexual characteristic development in girls is breast changes, rapid increase in height and weight, growth of pubic hair, appearance of axillary hair, menstruation, and abrupt deceleration of linear growth.
A nurse should expect which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) laboratory results on a child diagnosed with bacterial meningitis (Select all that apply)? a. Elevated white blood cell (WBC) count b. Decreased protein c. Decreased glucose d. Cloudy in color e. Increase in red blood cells (RBCs)
ANS: A, C, D The CSF laboratory results for bacterial meningitis include elevated WBC counts, cloudy or milky in color, and decreased glucose. The protein is elevated and there should be no RBCs present. RBCs are present when the tap was traumatic.
A school-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis and oliguria. Which dietary menu items should be allowed for this child (Select all that apply)? a. Apples b. Bananas c. Cheese d. Carrot sticks e. Strawberries
ANS: A, D, E Moderate sodium restriction and even fluid restriction may be instituted for children with acute glomerulonephritis. Foods with substantial amounts of potassium and sodium are generally restricted during the period of oliguria. Apples, carrot sticks, and strawberries would be items low in sodium and allowed. Bananas are high in potassium and cheese is high in sodium. Those items would be restricted.
An infant with hydrocephalus is hospitalized for surgical placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which interventions should be included in the child's postoperative care (Select all that apply)? a. Observe closely for signs of infection. b. Pump the shunt reservoir to maintain patency. c. Administer sedation to decrease irritability. d. Maintain Trendelenburg position to decrease pressure on the shunt. e. Maintain an accurate record of intake and output. f. Monitor for abdominal distention.
ANS: A, E, F Infection is a major complication of ventriculoperitoneal shunts. Observation for signs of infection is a priority nursing intervention. Intake and output should be measured carefully. Abdominal distention could be a sign of peritonitis or a postoperative ileus. Pumping the shunt reservoir, administering sedation, and maintaining Trendelenburg position are not interventions associated with this condition.
A school-age child has sustained a head injury and multiple fractures after being thrown from a horse. The child's level of consciousness is variable. The parents tell the nurse that they think their child is in pain because of periodic crying and restlessness. The most appropriate nursing action is to: a. Discuss with parents the child's previous experiences with pain. b. Discuss with practitioner what analgesia can be safely administered. c. Explain that analgesia is contraindicated with a head injury. d. Explain that analgesia is unnecessary when child is not fully awake and alert.
ANS: B A key nursing role is to provide sedation and analgesia for the child. Consultation with the appropriate practitioner is necessary to avoid conflict between the necessity to monitor the child's neurologic status and to promote comfort and relieve anxiety. Gathering information about the child's previous experiences with pain should be obtained as part of the assessment, but because of the severity of injury, analgesia should be provided as soon as possible. Analgesia can be used safely in individuals who have sustained head injuries and can decrease anxiety and resultant increased intracranial pressure.
The nurse is preparing a school-age child for a computed tomography (CT) scan to assess cerebral function. When preparing the child for the scan, which statement should the nurse include? a. "Pain medication will be given." b. "The scan will not hurt." c. "You will be able to move once the equipment is in place." d. "Unfortunately no one can remain in the room with you during the test."
ANS: B For CT scans, the child will not be allowed to move and must be immobilized. It is important to emphasize to the child that at no time is the procedure painful. Pain medication is not required; however, sedation is sometimes necessary. Someone is able to remain with the child during the procedure.
The Glasgow Coma Scale consists of an assessment of: a. Pupil reactivity and motor response. b. Eye opening and verbal and motor responses. c. Level of consciousness and verbal response. d. Intracranial pressure (ICP) and level of consciousness.
ANS: B The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses eye opening and verbal and motor responses. Pupil reactivity is not a part of the Glasgow Coma Scale but is included in the pediatric coma scale. Level of consciousness and ICP are not part of the Glasgow Coma Scale.
The nurse has received report on four children. Which child should the nurse assess first? a. A school-age child in a coma with stable vital signs b. A preschool child with a head injury and decreasing level of consciousness c. An adolescent admitted after a motor vehicle accident who is oriented to person and place d. A toddler in a persistent vegetative state with a low-grade fever
ANS: B The nurse should assess the child with a head injury and decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) first. Assessment of LOC remains the earliest indicator of improvement or deterioration in neurologic status. The next child the nurse should assess is a toddler in a persistent vegetative state with a low-grade fever. The school-age child in a coma with stable vital signs and the adolescent admitted to the hospital who is oriented to his or her surroundings would be of least worry to the nurse.
The narrowing of the preputial opening of the foreskin is called: a. Chordee. b. Phimosis. c. Epispadias d.Hypospadias.
ANS: B Phimosis is the narrowing or stenosis of the preputial opening of the foreskin. Chordee is the ventral curvature of the penis. Epispadias is the meatal opening on the dorsal surface of the penis. Hypospadias is a congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located anywhere along the ventral surface of the penis.
The diet of a child with nephrosis usually includes: a. High protein. b. Salt restriction. c. Low fat. d. High carbohydrate.
ANS: B Salt is usually restricted (but not eliminated) during the edema phase. The child has very little appetite during the acute phase. Favorite foods are provided (with the exception of high-salt ones) in an attempt to provide nutritionally complete meals.
An infant with pyloric stenosis experiences excessive vomiting that can result in: a. Hyperchloremia. b. Hypernatremia. c. Metabolic acidosis. d. Metabolic alkalosis.
D Infants with excessive vomiting are prone to metabolic alkalosis from the loss of hydrogen ions. Chloride ions and sodium are lost with vomiting. Metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis, is likely.
An objective of care for the child with nephrosis is to: a. Reduce blood pressure. b. Reduce excretion of urinary protein. c. Increase excretion of urinary protein. d. Increase ability of tissues to retain fluid.
ANS: B The objectives of therapy for the child with nephrosis include reduction of the excretion of urinary protein, reduction of fluid retention, prevention of infection, and minimizing of complications associated with therapy. Blood pressure is usually not elevated in nephrosis. Increased excretion of urinary protein and increased ability of tissues to retain fluid are part of the disease process and must be reversed.
Which factor predisposes a child to urinary tract infections? a. Increased fluid intake b. Short urethra in young girls c. Prostatic secretions in males d. Frequent emptying of the bladder
ANS: B The short urethra in females provides a ready pathway for invasions of organisms. Increased fluid intake and frequent bladder emptying offer protective measures against urinary tract infections. Prostatic secretions have antibacterial properties that inhibit bacteria.
A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse would expect the urinalysis during this acute phase to show: a. Bacteriuria and hematuria. b. Hematuria and proteinuria. c. Bacteriuria and increased specific gravity. d. Proteinuria and decreased specific gravity.
ANS: B Urinalysis during the acute phase characteristically shows hematuria and proteinuria. Bacteriuria and changes in specific gravity are not usually present during the acute phase.
A school-age child has been admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of nephrotic syndrome. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess (Select all that apply)? a. Weight loss b. Facial edema c. Cloudy, smoky brown-colored urine d. Fatigue e. Frothy-appearing urine
ANS: B, D, E A child with nephrotic syndrome will present with facial edema, fatigue, and frothy-appearing urine (proteinuria). Weight gain, not loss, is expected because of the fluid retention. Cloudy, smoky brown-colored urine is seen with acute glomerulonephritis but not with nephrotic syndrome because there is no gross hematuria associated with nephrotic syndrome.
1Which statement is most descriptive of a concussion? a. Petechial hemorrhages cause amnesia. b. Visible bruising and tearing of cerebral tissue occur. c. It is a transient, reversible neuronal dysfunction. d. A slight lesion develops remote from the site of trauma.
ANS: C A concussion is a transient, reversible neuronal dysfunction with instantaneous loss of awareness and responsiveness resulting from trauma to the head. Petechial hemorrhages along the superficial aspects of the brain along the point of impact are a type of contusion but are not necessarily associated with amnesia. A contusion is visible bruising and tearing of cerebral tissue. Contrecoup is a lesion that develops remote from the site of trauma as a result of an acceleration/deceleration injury.
A child has been seizure-free for 2 years. A father asks the nurse how much longer the child will need to take the antiseizure medications. The nurse includes which intervention in the response? a. Medications can be discontinued at this time. b. The child will need to take the drugs for 5 years after the last seizure. c. A stepwise approach will be used to reduce the dosage gradually. d. Seizure disorders are a lifelong problem. Medications cannot be discontinued.
ANS: C A predesigned protocol is used to wean a child gradually off antiseizure medications, usually when the child is seizure-free for 2 years and has a normal electroencephalogram. Medications must be gradually reduced to minimize the recurrence of seizures. Seizure medications can be safely discontinued. The risk of recurrence is greatest within the first year.
A 10-year-old boy has been hit by a car while riding his bicycle in front of the school. The school nurse immediately assesses airway, breathing, and circulation. The next nursing action should be to: a. Place on side. b. Take blood pressure. c. Stabilize neck and spine. d. Check scalp and back for bleeding.
ANS: C After determining that the child is breathing and has adequate circulation, the next action is to stabilize the neck and spine to prevent any additional trauma. The child's position should not be changed until the neck and spine are stabilized. Blood pressure is a later assessment. Less urgent, but an important assessment, is inspection of the scalp for bleeding.
Which type of seizure involves both hemispheres of the brain? a. Focal b. Partial c. Generalized d. Acquired
ANS: C Clinical observations of generalized seizures indicate that the initial involvement is from both hemispheres. Focal seizures may arise from any area of the cerebral cortex, but the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes are most commonly affected. Partial seizures are caused by abnormal electrical discharges from epileptogenic foci limited to a circumscribed region of the cerebral cortex. A seizure disorder that is acquired is a result of a brain injury from a variety of factors; it does not specify the type of seizure.
The initial clinical manifestation of generalized seizures is: a. Being confused. b. Feeling frightened. c. Losing consciousness. d. Seeing flashing lights.
ANS: C Loss of consciousness is a frequent occurrence in generalized seizures and is the initial clinical manifestation. Being confused, feeling frightened, and seeing flashing lights are clinical manifestations of a complex partial seizure.
An appropriate nursing intervention when caring for an unconscious child should be to: a. Change the child's position infrequently to minimize the chance of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). b. Avoid using narcotics or sedatives to provide comfort and pain relief. c. Monitor fluid intake and output carefully to avoid fluid overload and cerebral edema. d. Give tepid sponge baths to reduce fever because antipyretics are contraindicated.
ANS: C Often comatose patients cannot cope with the quantity of fluids that they normally tolerate. Overhydration must be avoided to prevent fatal cerebral edema. The child's position should be changed frequently to avoid complications such as pneumonia and skin breakdown. Narcotics and sedatives should be used as necessary to reduce pain and discomfort, which can increase ICP. Antipyretics are the method of choice for fever reduction.
A child is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a seizure at school. There is no previous history of seizures. The father tells the nurse that he cannot believe the child has epilepsy. The nurse's best response is: a. "Epilepsy is easily treated." b. "Very few children have actual epilepsy." c. "The seizure may or may not mean that your child has epilepsy." d. "Your child has had only one convulsion; it probably won't happen again."
ANS: C Seizures are the indispensable characteristic of epilepsy; however, not every seizure is epileptic. Epilepsy is a chronic seizure disorder with recurrent and unprovoked seizures. The treatment of epilepsy involves a thorough assessment to determine the type of seizure the child is having and the cause of events, followed by individualized therapy to allow the child to have as normal a life as possible. The nurse should not make generalized comments like "Very few children have actual epilepsy" and "Your child has had only one convulsion; it probably won't happen again" until further assessment is made.
A 5-year-old girl sustained a concussion when she fell out of a tree. In preparation for discharge, the nurse is discussing home care with her mother. Which statement made by the mother indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should expect my child to have a few episodes of vomiting." b. "If I notice sleep disturbances, I should contact the physician immediately." c. "I should expect my child to have some behavioral changes after the accident." d. "If I notice diplopia, I will have my child rest for 1 hour."
ANS: C The parents are advised of probably post-traumatic symptoms that may be expected, including behavioral changes. If the child has episodes of vomiting, sleep disturbances, or diplopia, they should be immediately reported for evaluation.
The nurse is teaching the parent about the diet of a child experiencing severe edema associated with acute glomerulonephritis. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. "You will need to decrease the number of calories in your child's diet." b. "Your child's diet will need an increased amount of protein." c. "You will need to avoid adding salt to your child's food." d. "Your child's diet will consist of low-fat, low-carbohydrate foods."
ANS: C For most children, a regular diet is allowed, but it should contain no added salt. The child should be offered a regular diet with favorite foods. Severe sodium restrictions are not indicated.
The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the child with acute glomerulonephritis is: a. Risk for Injury related to malignant process and treatment. b. Deficient Fluid Volume related to excessive losses. c. Excess Fluid Volume related to decreased plasma filtration. d. Excess Fluid Volume related to fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces.
ANS: C Glomerulonephritis has a decreased filtration of plasma. The decrease in plasma filtration results in an excessive accumulation of water and sodium that expands plasma and interstitial fluid volumes, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. No malignant process is involved in acute glomerulonephritis. A fluid volume excess is found. The fluid accumulation is secondary to the decreased plasma filtration, not fluid accumulation.
The nurse is caring for a neonate with suspected meningitis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse prepare to assess if meningitis is confirmed (Select all that apply)? a. Headache b. Photophobia c. Bulging anterior fontanel d. Weak cry e. Poor muscle tone
ANS: C, D, E Assessment findings in a neonate with meningitis include bulging anterior fontanel, weak cry, and poor muscle tone. Headache and photophobia are signs seen in an older child.
Clinical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in infants are (Select all that apply): a. Low-pitched cry. b. Sunken fontanel. c. Diplopia and blurred vision. d. Irritability. e. Distended scalp veins. f. Increased blood pressure.
ANS: C, D, E Diplopia and blurred vision, irritability, and distended scalp veins are signs of increased ICP in infants. Low-pitched cry, sunken fontanel, and increased blood pressure are not clinical manifestations associated with ICP in infants.
The mother of a 1-month-old infant tells the nurse that she worries that her baby will get meningitis like her oldest son did when he was an infant. The nurse should base her response on knowing that: a. Meningitis rarely occurs during infancy. b. Often a genetic predisposition to meningitis is found. c. Vaccination to prevent all types of meningitis is now available. d. Vaccination to prevent Haemophilus influenzae type b meningitis has decreased the frequency of this disease in children.
ANS: D H. influenzae type B meningitis has virtually been eradicated in areas of the world where the (HiB) vaccine is administered routinely. Bacterial meningitis remains a serious illness in children. It is significant because of the residual damage caused by undiagnosed and untreated or inadequately treated cases. The leading causes of neonatal meningitis are the group B streptococci and Escherichia coli organisms. Meningitis is an extension of a variety of bacterial infections. No genetic predisposition exists. Vaccinations are not available for all of the potential causative organisms.
The nurse should recommend medical attention if a child with a slight head injury experiences: a. Sleepiness. b. Vomiting, even once. c. Headache, even if slight. d. Confusion or abnormal behavior.
ANS: D Medical attention should be sought if the child exhibits confusion or abnormal behavior; loses consciousness; or has amnesia, fluid leaking from the nose or ears, blurred vision, or unsteady gait. Sleepiness alone does not require evaluation. If the child is difficult to arouse from sleep, medical attention should be obtained. Vomiting more than three times requires medical attention. Severe or worsening headache or one that interferes with sleep should be evaluated.
The nurse is performing a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) on a school-age child with a head injury. The child opens eyes spontaneously, obeys commands, and is oriented to person, time, and place. Which is the score the nurse should record? a. 8 b. 11 c. 13 d. 15
ANS: D The GCS consists of a three-part assessment: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Numeric values of 1 through 5 are assigned to the levels of response in each category. The sum of these numeric values provides an objective measure of the patient's level of consciousness (LOC). A person with an unaltered LOC would score the highest, 15. The child who opens eyes spontaneously, obeys commands, and is oriented is scored at a 15.
The nurse is assessing a child who was just admitted to the hospital for observation after a head injury. The most essential part of the nursing assessment to detect early signs of a worsening condition is: a. Posturing. b. Vital signs. c. Focal neurologic signs. d. Level of consciousness.
ANS: D The most important nursing observation is assessment of the child's level of consciousness. Alterations in consciousness appear earlier in the progression of head injury than do alterations of vital signs or focal neurologic signs. Neurologic posturing indicates neurologic damage. Vital signs and focal neurologic signs are later signs of progression when compared with level-of-consciousness changes.
A child is unconscious after a motor vehicle accident. The watery discharge from the nose tests positive for glucose. The nurse should recognize that this suggests: a. Diabetic coma. b. Brainstem injury. c. Upper respiratory tract infection. d. Leaking of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
ANS: D Watery discharge from the nose that is positive for glucose suggests leaking of CSF from a skull fracture and is not associated with diabetes or respiratory tract infection. The fluid is probably CSF from a skull fracture and does not signify whether the brainstem is involved.
A mother asks the nurse what would be the first indication that acute glomerulonephritis is improving. The nurse's best response should be that the: a. Blood pressure will stabilize. . b. Child will have more energy. c. Urine will be free of protein d. Urinary output will increase.
ANS: D An increase in urinary output may signal resolution of the acute glomerulonephritis. If blood pressure is elevated, stabilization usually occurs with the improvement in renal function. The child having more energy and the urine being free of protein are related to the improvement in urinary output.
Which intervention is appropriate when examining a male infant for cryptorchidism? a. Cooling the examiner's hands b. Taking a rectal temperature c. Eliciting the cremasteric reflex d. Warming the room
ANS: D For the infant's comfort, the infant should be examined in a warm room with the examiner's hands warmed. Testes can retract into the inguinal canal if the infant is upset or cold. Examining the infant with cold hands is uncomfortable for the infant and likely to cause the infant's testes to retract into the inguinal canal. It may also cause the infant to be uncooperative during the examination. A rectal temperature yields no information about cryptorchidism. Testes can retract into the inguinal canal if the cremasteric reflex is elicited. This can lead to an incorrect diagnosis.
The nurse is assisting the pediatric provider with a newborn examination. The provider notes that the infant has hypospadias. The nurse understands that hypospadias refers to: a. Absence of a urethral opening. b. Penis shorter than usual for age. c. Urethral opening along dorsal surface of penis. d. Urethral opening along ventral surface of penis.
ANS: D Hypospadias is a congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located anywhere along the ventral surface of the penis. The urethral opening is present, but not at the glans. Hypospadias does not refer to the size of the penis. When the urethral opening is along the dorsal surface of the penis, it is known as epispadias.
Which diagnostic finding is present when a child has primary nephrotic syndrome? a. Hyperalbuminemia b. Positive ASO titer c. Leukocytosis d. Proteinuria
ANS: D Large amounts of protein are lost through the urine as a result of an increased permeability of the glomerular basement membrane. Hypoalbuminemia is present because of loss of albumin through the defective glomerulus and the liver's inability to synthesize proteins to balance the loss. ASO titer is negative in a child with primary nephrotic syndrome. Leukocytosis is not a diagnostic finding in primary nephrotic syndrome.
A preschool child is being admitted to the hospital with dehydration and a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which urinalysis result should the nurse expect with these conditions? a. WBC <1; specific gravity 1.008 b. WBC <2; specific gravity 1.025 c. WBC >2; specific gravity 1.016 d. WBC >2; specific gravity 1.030
ANS: D The white blood cell count (WBC) in a routine urinalysis should be <1 or 2. Over that amount indicates a urinary tract inflammatory process. The urinalysis specific gravity for children with normal fluid intake is 1.016 to 1.022. When the specific gravity is high, dehydration is indicated. A low specific gravity is seen with excessive fluid intake, distal tubular dysfunction, or insufficient antidiuretic hormone secretion.
38.A child with secondary enuresis who complains of dysuria or urgency should be evaluated for what condition (Select all that apply)? a. Hypocalciuria b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Glomerulonephritis d. Urinary tract infection (UTI) e. Diabetes mellitus
ANS: D, E Complaints of dysuria or urgency from a child with secondary enuresis suggest the possibility of a UTI. If accompanied by excessive thirst and weight loss, these symptoms may indicate the onset of diabetes mellitus. An excessive loss of calcium in the urine (hypercalciuria) can be associated with complaints of painful urination, urgency, frequency, and wetting. Nephrotic syndrome is not usually associated with complaints of dysuria or urgency. Glomerulonephritis is not a likely cause of dysuria or urgency.
Which behavior suggests appropriate psychosocial development in the adolescent? a. The adolescent seeks validation for socially acceptable behavior from older adults. b. The adolescent is self-absorbed and self-centered and has sudden mood swings. c. Adolescents move from peers and enjoy spending time with family members. d. Conformity with the peer group increases in late adolescence.
B During adolescence, energy is focused within. Adolescents concentrate on themselves in an effort to determine who they are or who they will be. Adolescents are likely to be impulsive and impatient. Parents often describe their teenager as being "self-centered" or "lazy." The peer group validates acceptable behavior during adolescence. Adolescents move from family and enjoy spending time with peers. Adolescents also spend time alone; they need this time to think and concentrate on themselves. Conformity becomes less important in late adolescence.
Which statement is the most appropriate advice to give parents of a 16-year-old girl who is rebellious? a. "You need to be stricter so that your teen stops trying to test the limits." b. "You need to collaborate with your daughter and set limits that are perceived as being reasonable." c. "Increasing your teen's involvement with her peers will improve her self-esteem." d. "Allow your teenager to choose the type of discipline that is used in your home."
B Allowing teenagers to choose between realistic options and offering consistent and structured discipline typically enhances cooperation and decreases rebelliousness. Structure helps adolescents to feel more secure and assists them in the decision-making process. Setting stricter limits typically does not decrease rebelliousness or decrease testing of parental limits. Increasing peer involvement does not typically increase self-esteem.
The psychologic effects of being obese during adolescence include: a. Sexual promiscuity. b. Poor body image. c. Memory having no effect on eating behavior. d. Accurate body image but self-deprecating attitude.
B Common emotional consequences of obesity include poor body image, low self-esteem, social isolation, and feelings of depression and isolation. Sexual promiscuity is an unlikely effect of obesity. The obese adolescent often substitutes food for affection. Eating behaviors are closely related to memory. Memory and appetite are closely linked and can be modified over time with treatment. Obese adolescents most often have a very poor self-image.
A newborn was admitted to the nursery with a complete bilateral cleft lip and palate. The physician explained the plan of therapy and its expected good results. However, the mother refuses to see or hold her baby. Initial therapeutic approach to the mother should be to: a. Restate what the physician has told her about plastic surgery. b. Encourage her to express her feelings. c. Emphasize the normalcy of her baby and the baby's need for mothering. d. Recognize that negative feelings toward the child continue throughout childhood.
B For parents, cleft lip and cleft palate deformities are particularly disturbing. The nurse must place emphasis not only on the infant's physical needs but also on the parents' emotional needs. The mother needs to be able to express her feelings before the acceptance of her child can occur. Although discussing plastic surgery will be addressed, it is not part of the initial therapeutic approach. As the mother expresses her feelings, the nurse's actions should convey to the parents that the infant is a precious human being. The child's normalcy is emphasized, and the mother is assisted to recognize the child's uniqueness. A focus on abnormal maternal-infant attachment would be inappropriate at this time.
A 4-month-old infant has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) but is thriving without other complications. What should the nurse suggest to minimize reflux? a. Place in Trendelenburg position after eating. b. Thicken formula with rice cereal. c. Give continuous nasogastric tube feedings. d. Give larger, less frequent feedings.
B Giving small frequent feedings of formula combined with 1 teaspoon to 1 tablespoon of rice cereal per ounce of formula has been recommended. Milk thickening agents have been shown to decrease the number of episodes of vomiting and increase the caloric density of the formula. This may benefit infants who are underweight as a result of GERD. Placing the child in Trendelenburg position would increase the reflux. Continuous nasogastric feedings are reserved for infants with severe reflux and failure to thrive. Smaller, more frequent feedings are recommended in reflux.
The nurse is completing a health history with a 16-year-old male. He informs the nurse that he has started using smokeless tobacco after he plays baseball. Which information regarding smokeless tobacco would be most correct for the nurse to provide to this teen? a. Not addicting. b. Proven to be carcinogenic. c. Easy to stop using. d. A safe alternative to cigarette smoking.
B Smokeless tobacco is a popular substitute for cigarettes and poses serious health hazards to children and adolescents. Smokeless tobacco is associated with cancer of the mouth and jaw. Smokeless tobacco is just as addictive as cigarettes. Although teens believe that it is easy to stop using smokeless tobacco, this is not the case. A popular belief is that smokeless tobacco is a safe alternative to cigarettes; this has been proven incorrect. Half of all teens who use smokeless tobacco agree that it poses significant health risks.
The mean age of menarche in the United States is: a. 11.5 years b. 12.5 years c. 13.5 years d. 14 years
B The average age of menarche is 12 years and 4 months in North American girls, with a normal range of 10.5 to 15 years.
The nurse is caring for an infant whose cleft lip was repaired. Important aspects of this infant's postoperative care include: a. Arm restraints, postural drainage, and mouth irrigations. b. Cleansing of suture line, supine and side-lying positions, and arm restraints. c. Mouth irrigations, prone position, and cleansing of suture line. d. Supine and side-lying positions, postural drainage, and arm restraints.
B The suture line should be cleansed gently after feeding. The child should be positioned on back or side or in an infant seat. Elbows are restrained to prevent the child from accessing the operative site. Postural drainage is not indicated. This would increase the pressure on the operative site when the child is placed in different positions. Mouth irrigations would not be indicated.
According to Erikson, the psychosocial task of adolescence is developing: a. Intimacy. b. Identity. c. Initiative. d. Independence.
B Traditional psychosocial theory holds that the developmental crises of adolescence lead to the formation of a sense of identity. Intimacy is the developmental stage for early adulthood. Initiative is the developmental stage for early childhood. Independence is not one of Erikson's developmental stages.
A nurse teaches parents that team play is important for school-age children. Which can children develop by experiencing team play (select all that apply)? a. Achieve personal goals over group goals. b. Learn complex rules. c. Experience competition. d. Learn about division of labor.
B, C, D
Which screening tests should the school nurse perform for the adolescent (select all that apply)? a. Glucose b. Vision c. Hearing d. Cholesterol e. Scoliosis
B, C, E The school nurse should perform vision, hearing, and scoliosis screening tests according to the school district's required schedule. Glucose and cholesterol screening would be performed in the medical clinic setting.
A mother who intended to breastfeed has given birth to an infant with a cleft palate. Nursing interventions should include (Select all that apply): a. Giving medication to suppress lactation. b. Encouraging and helping mother to breastfeed. c. Teaching mother to feed breast milk by gavage. d. Recommending use of a breast pump to maintain lactation until infant can suck.
B, D The mother who wishes to breastfeed may need encouragement and support because the defect does present some logistical issues. The nipple must be positioned and stabilized well back in the infant's oral cavity so that the tongue action facilitates milk expression. The suction required to stimulate milk, absent initially, may be useful before nursing to stimulate the let-down reflex. Because breastfeeding is an option, if the mother wishes to breastfeed, medications should not be given to suppress lactation. Because breastfeeding can usually be accomplished, gavage feedings are not indicated.
The nurse is preparing to care for an infant returning from pyloromyotomy surgery. Which prescribed orders should the nurse anticipate implementing (Select all that apply)? a. Nothing by mouth for 24 hours b. Administration of analgesics for pain c. Ice bag to the incisional area d. Intravenous (IV) fluids continued until tolerating fluids by mouth e. Clear liquids as the first feeding
B, D, E Feedings are usually instituted soon after a pyloromyotomy surgery, beginning with clear liquids and advancing to formula or breast milk as tolerated. IV fluids are administered until the infant is taking and retaining adequate amounts by mouth. Appropriate analgesics should be given around the clock because pain is continuous. Ice should not be applied to the incisional area as it vasoconstricts and would reduce circulation to the incisional area and impair healing.
When caring for a child with probable appendicitis, the nurse should be alert to recognize that a sign of perforation is: a. Bradycardia. b. Anorexia. c. Sudden relief from pain. d. Decreased abdominal distention.
C Signs of peritonitis, in addition to fever, include sudden relief from pain after perforation. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a manifestation of peritonitis. Anorexia is already a clinical manifestation of appendicitis. Abdominal distention usually increases in addition to an increase in pain (usually diffuse and accompanied by rigid guarding of the abdomen).
A 9-year-old girl often comes to the school nurse complaining of stomach pains. Her teacher says that she is completing her schoolwork satisfactorily, but lately she has been somewhat aggressive and stubborn in the classroom. The school nurse should recognize this as: a. Signs of stress. b. Developmental delay. c. A physical problem causing emotional stress. d. Lack of adjustment to the school environment.
a. Signs of stress.
A nurse is caring for an adolescent hospitalized for cellulitis. The nurse notes that the adolescent experiences many "mood swings" throughout the day. The nurse interprets this behavior as: a. Requiring a referral to a mental health counselor. b. Requiring some further lab testing. c. Normal behavior. d. Related to feelings of depression.
C Adolescents vacillate in their emotional states between considerable maturity and childlike behavior. One minute they are exuberant and enthusiastic; the next minute they are depressed and withdrawn. Because of these mood swings, adolescents are frequently labeled as unstable, inconsistent, and unpredictable, but the behavior is normal. The behavior would not require a referral to a mental health counselor or further lab testing. The mood swings do not indicate depression.
A nurse is reviewing hormone changes that occur during adolescence. The hormone that is responsible for the growth of beard, mustache, and body hair in the male is: a. Estrogen. b. Pituitary hormone. c. Androgen. d. Progesterone.
C Beard, mustache, and body hair on the chest, upward along the linea alba, and sometimes on other areas (e.g., back and shoulders) appears in males and is androgen dependent. Estrogen and progesterone are produced by the ovaries in the female and do not contribute to body hair appearance in the male. The pituitary hormone does not have any relationship to body hair appearance in the male.
Constipation has recently become a problem for a school-age girl. She is healthy except for seasonal allergies, which are now being successfully treated with antihistamines. The nurse should suspect that the constipation is most likely caused by: a. Diet. b. Allergies. c. Antihistamines. d. Emotional factors.
C Constipation may be associated with drugs such as antihistamines, antacids, diuretics, opioids, antiepileptics, and iron. Because this is the only known recent change in her habits, the addition of antihistamines is most likely the etiology of the diarrhea, rather than diet, allergies, or emotional factors. With a change in bowel habits, the presence and role of any recently prescribed medications should be assessed.
What is used to treat moderate-to-severe inflammatory bowel disease? a. Antacids b. Antibiotics c. Corticosteroids d. Antidiarrheal medications
C Corticosteroids such as prednisone and prednisolone are used in short bursts to suppress the inflammatory response in inflammatory bowel disease. Antacids and antidiarrheals are not drugs of choice to treat the inflammatory process of inflammatory bowel disease. Antibiotics may be used as adjunctive therapy to treat complications.
The parents of a 15-year-old girl are concerned that their adolescent spends too much time looking in the mirror. Which statement is the most appropriate for the nurse to make? a. "Your teenager needs clearer and stricter limits about her behavior." b. "Your teenager needs more responsibility at home." c. "During adolescence this behavior is not unusual." d. "The behavior is abnormal and needs further investigation."
C Egocentric and narcissistic behavior is normal during this period of development. The teenager is seeking a personal identity. Stricter limits are not an appropriate response for a behavior that is part of normal development. More responsibility at home is not an appropriate response for this situation. The behavior is normal and needs no further investigation.
The school nurse tells adolescents in the clinic that confidentiality and privacy will be maintained unless a life-threatening situation arises. This practice is: a. Not appropriate in a school setting. b. Never appropriate because adolescents are minors. c. Important in establishing trusting relationships. d. Suggestive that the nurse is meeting his or her own needs.
C Health professionals who work with adolescents should consider the adolescents' increasing independence and responsibility while maintaining privacy and ensuring confidentiality. However, circumstances may occur in which they are not able to maintain confidentiality, such as self-destructive behavior or maltreatment by others. Confidentiality and privacy are necessary to facilitate trust with this age group. The nurse must be aware of the limits placed on confidentiality by local jurisdiction.
Which description of a stool is characteristic of intussusception? a. Ribbon-like stools b. Hard stools positive for guaiac c. "Currant jelly" stools d. Loose, foul-smelling stools
C Pressure on the bowel from obstruction leads to passage of "currant jelly" stools. Ribbon-like stools are characteristic of Hirschsprung's disease. With intussusception, passage of bloody mucus-coated stools occurs. Stools will not be hard. Loose, foul-smelling stools may indicate infectious gastroenteritis.
What is the most important information to be included in the discharge planning for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux? a. Teach parents to position the infant on the left side. b. Reinforce the parents' knowledge of the infant's developmental needs. c. Teach the parents how to do infant cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). d. Have the parents keep an accurate record of intake and output.
C Risk of aspiration is a priority nursing diagnosis for the infant with gastroesophageal reflux. The parents must be taught infant CPR. Correct positioning minimizes the risk for aspiration. The correct position for the infant is on the right side after feeding and supine for sleeping. Knowledge of developmental needs should be included in discharge planning for all hospitalized infants, but it is not the most important in this case. Keeping a record of intake and output is not a priority and may not be necessary.
The nurse is explaining Tanner staging to an adolescent and her mother. Which statement best describes Tanner staging? a. Predictable stages of puberty that are based on chronologic age b. Staging of puberty based on the initiation of menarche and nocturnal emissions c. Predictable stages of puberty that are based on primary and secondary sexual characteristics d. Staging of puberty based on the initiation of primary sexual characteristics
C Tanner sexual-maturing ratings are based on the development of stages of primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Tanner stages are not based on chronologic age. The age at which an adolescent enters puberty is variable. The puberty stage in girls begins with breast development. The puberty stage in boys begins with genital enlargement. Primary sexual characteristics are not the sole basis of Tanner staging.
A 3-year-old child with Hirschsprung's disease is hospitalized for surgery. A temporary colostomy will be necessary. The nurse should recognize that preparing this child psychologically is: a. Not necessary because of child's age. b. Not necessary because the colostomy is temporary. c. Necessary because it will be an adjustment. d. Necessary because the child must deal with a negative body image.
C The child's age dictates the type and extent of psychologic preparation. When a colostomy is performed, the child who is at least preschool age is told about the procedure and what to expect in concrete terms with the use of visual aids. It is necessary to prepare this age child for procedures. The preschooler is not yet concerned with body image.
A histamine receptor antagonist such as cimetidine (Tagamet) or ranitidine (Zantac) is ordered for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux. The purpose of this is to: a. Prevent reflux. b. Prevent hematemesis. c. Reduce gastric acid production. d. Increase gastric acid production.
C The mechanism of action of histamine receptor antagonists is to reduce the amount of acid present in gastric contents and may prevent esophagitis. Preventing reflux and hematemesis and increasing gastric acid production are not the modes of action of histamine receptor antagonists.
During the first few days after surgery for cleft lip, which intervention should the nurse do? a. Leave infant in crib at all times to prevent suture strain. b. Keep infant heavily sedated to prevent suture strain. c. Remove restraints periodically to cuddle infant. d. Alternate position from prone to side-lying to supine.
C The nurse should remove restraints periodically, while supervising the infant, to allow him or her to exercise arms and to provide cuddling and tactile stimulation. The infant should not be left in the crib, but should be removed for appropriate holding and stimulation. Analgesia and sedation are administered for pain. Heavy sedation is not indicated. The child should not be placed in the prone position.
The parents of a 14-year-old girl express concerns about the number of hours their daughter spends with her friends. The nurse explains that peer relationships become more important during adolescence because: a. Adolescents dislike their parents. b. Adolescents no longer need parental control. c. They provide adolescents with a feeling of belonging. d. They promote a sense of individuality in adolescents.
C The peer group serves as a strong support to teenagers, providing them with a sense of belonging and strength and power. During adolescence, the parent-child relationship changes from one of protection-dependency to one of mutual affection and quality. Parents continue to play an important role in personal and health-related decisions. The peer group forms the transitional world between dependence and autonomy.
The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis? a. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation b. Rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds c. Visible peristalsis and weight loss d. Distention of lower abdomen and constipation
C Visible gastric peristaltic waves that move from left to right across the epigastrium are observed in pyloric stenosis, as is weight loss. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation, and rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds, are usually not present. The upper abdomen is distended, not the lower abdomen.
A nurse is conducting dietary teaching on high-fiber foods for parents of a child with constipation. Which foods should the nurse include as being high in fiber (Select all that apply)? a. White rice b. Avocados c. Whole grain breads d. Bran pancakes e. Raw carrots
C, D, E High-fiber foods include whole grain breads, bran pancakes, and raw carrots. Unrefined (brown) rice is high in fiber but white rice is not. Raw fruits, especially those with skins or seeds, other than ripe banana or avocados are high in fiber.
Therapeutic management of most children with Hirschsprung's disease is primarily: a. Daily enemas. b. Low-fiber diet. c. Permanent colostomy. d. Surgical removal of affected section of bowel.
D Most children with Hirschsprung's disease require surgical rather than medical management. Surgery is done to remove the aganglionic portion of the bowel, relieve obstruction, and restore normal bowel motility and function of the internal anal sphincter. Preoperative management may include enemas and low-fiber, high-calorie, high-protein diet until the child is physically ready for surgery. The colostomy that is created in Hirschsprung's disease is usually temporary.
Which statement best describes fear in school-age children? a. They are increasingly fearful for body safety. b. Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family. c. They should be encouraged to hide their fears to prevent ridicule by peers. d. Those who have numerous fears need continuous protective behavior by parents to eliminate these fears.
b. Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family.
By what age should concerns about pubertal delay be considered in boys? a. 12 to 12.5 years b. 12.5 to 13 years c. 13 to 13.5 years d. 13.5 to 14 years
D Concerns about pubertal delay should be considered for boys who exhibit no enlargement of the testes or scrotal changes by 13.5 to 14 years of age. Ages younger than 13.5 years are too young for initial concern.
Which type of hernia has an impaired blood supply to the herniated organ? a. Hiatal hernia b. Omphalocele c. Incarcerated hernia d. Strangulated hernia
D A strangulated hernia is one in which the blood supply to the herniated organ is impaired. A hiatal hernia is the intrusion of an abdominal structure, usually the stomach, through the esophageal hiatus. An incarcerated hernia is a hernia that cannot be reduced easily. Omphalocele is the protrusion of intraabdominal viscera into the base of the umbilical cord. The sac is covered with peritoneum and not skin.
Which intervention should be included in the nurse's plan of care for a 7-year-old child with encopresis who has cleared the initial impaction? a. Have the child sit on the toilet for 30 minutes when he gets up in the morning and at bedtime. c. Use a Fleet enema daily. b. Increase sugar in the child's diet to promote bowel elimination. d. Give the child a choice of beverage to mix with a laxative.
D Offering realistic choices is helpful in meeting the school-age child's sense of control. To facilitate bowel elimination, the child should sit on the toilet for 5 to 10 minutes after breakfast and dinner. Decreasing the amount of sugar in the diet will help keep stools soft. Daily Fleet enemas can result in hypernatremia and hyperphosphatemia, and are used only during periods of fecal impaction.
Which clinical manifestation would most suggest acute appendicitis? a. Rebound tenderness b. Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding c. Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating d. Abdominal pain that is most intense at McBurney's point
D Pain is the cardinal feature. It is initially generalized and usually periumbilical. The pain localizes to the right lower quadrant at McBurney's point. Rebound tenderness is not a reliable sign and is extremely painful to the child. Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating and bright or dark red rectal bleeding are not signs of acute appendicitis.
When planning care for adolescents, the nurse should: a. Teach parents first, and they, in turn, will teach the teenager. b. Provide information for their long-term health needs because teenagers respond best to long-range planning. c. Maintain the parents' role by providing explanations for treatment and procedures to the parents only. d. Give information privately to adolescents about how they can manage the specific problems that they identify.
D Problems that teenagers identify and are interested in are typically the problems that they are the most willing to address. Confidentiality is important to adolescents. Adolescents prefer to confer privately (without parents) with the nurse and health care provider. Teenagers are socially and cognitively at the developmental stage where the health care provider can teach them. The nurse must keep in mind that teenagers are more interested in immediate health care needs than in long-term needs
The most common cause of death in the adolescent age-group involves: a. Drownings. b. Firearms. c. Drug overdoses. d. Motor vehicles.
D The leading cause of all adolescent deaths in the United States is motor vehicle accidents. Drownings, firearms, and drug overdoses are major concerns in adolescence but do not cause the majority of deaths.
An adolescent boy tells the nurse that he has recently had homosexual feelings. The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that: a. This indicates that the adolescent is homosexual. b. This indicates that the adolescent will become homosexual as an adult. c. The adolescent should be referred for psychotherapy. d. The adolescent should be encouraged to share his feelings and experiences.
D These adolescents are at increased risk for health-damaging behaviors, not because of the sexual behavior itself, but because of society's reaction to the behavior. The nurse's first priority is to give the young man permission to discuss his feelings about this topic, knowing that the nurse will maintain confidentially, appreciate his feelings, and remain sensitive to his need to talk it. In recent studies among self-identified gay, lesbian, and bisexual adolescents, many of the adolescents report changing their self-labels one or more times during their adolescence.
Caring for the newborn with a cleft lip and palate before surgical repair includes: a. Gastrostomy feedings. b. Keeping the infant in near-horizontal position during feedings. c. Allowing little or no sucking. d. Providing satisfaction of sucking needs.
D Using special or modified nipples for feeding techniques helps to meet the infant's sucking needs. Gastrostomy feedings are usually not indicated. Feeding is best accomplished with the infant's head in an upright position. The child requires both nutritive and nonnutritive sucking.
Which statement characterizes moral development in older school-age children? a. They are able to judge an act by the intentions that prompted it rather than just by the consequences. b. Rules and judgments become more absolute and authoritarian. c. They view rule violations in an isolated context. d. They know the rules but cannot understand the reasons behind them.
a. They are able to judge an act by the intentions that prompted it rather than just by the consequences.
Which behavior by parents or teachers will best assist the child in negotiating the developmental task of industry? a. Identifying failures immediately and asking the child's peers for feedback b. Structuring the environment so the child can master tasks c. Completing homework for children who are having difficulty in completing assignments d. Decreasing expectations to eliminate potential failures
b. Structuring the environment so the child can master tasks
When teaching injury prevention during the school-age years, the nurse should include: a. Teaching the need to fear strangers. b. Teaching basic rules of water safety. c. Avoiding letting children cook in microwave ovens. d. Cautioning children against engaging in competitive sports.
b. Teaching basic rules of water safety.
A nurse is assessing an older school-age child recently admitted to the hospital. Which assessment indicates that the child is in an appropriate stage of cognitive development? a. The child's addition and subtraction ability b. The child's ability to classify c. The child's vocabulary d. The child's play activity
b. The child's ability to classify
The ability to mentally understand that 1 + 3 = 4 and 4 - 3 = 1 occurs in which stage of cognitive development? a. Concrete operations stage b. Formal operations stage c. Intuitive thought stage d. Preoperations stage
a. Concrete operations stage
Which activity is most appropriate for developing fine motor skills in the school-age child? a. Drawing b. Singing c. Soccer d. Swimming
a. Drawing
An 8-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has cancer because God is punishing her for "being bad." She shares her concern that, if she dies, she will go to hell. The nurse should interpret this as being: a. A belief common at this age. b. A belief that forms the basis for most religions. c. Suggestive of excessive family pressure. d. Suggestive of a failure to develop a conscience.
a. A belief common at this age.
Teasing can be common during the school-age years. Which of the following does the nurse recognize as applying most to teasing? a. Can have a lasting effect on children b. Is not a significant threat to self-concept c. Is rarely based on anything that is concrete d. Is usually ignored by the child who is being teased
a. Can have a lasting effect on children
A child has an evulsed (knocked-out) tooth. In which medium should the nurse instruct the parents to place the tooth for transport to the dentist? a. Cold milk c. Warm salt water b. Cold water d. A dry, clean jar
a. Cold milk
Parents of a 12-year-old child ask the clinic nurse, "How many hours of sleep should our child get?' The nurse should respond that 12-year-old children need how many hours of sleep at night? a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11
b. 9
Which statement accurately describes physical development during the school-age years? a. The child's weight almost triples. b. A child grows an average of 2 inches per year. c. Few physical differences are apparent among children at the end of middle childhood. d. Fat gradually increases, which contributes to the child's heavier appearance.
b. A child grows an average of 2 inches per year.
An important consideration for the school nurse who is planning a class on bicycle safety is: a. Most bicycle injuries involve collision with an automobile. b. Head injuries are the major causes of bicycle-related fatalities. c. Children should wear bicycle helmets if they ride on paved streets. d. Children should not ride double unless the bicycle has an extra-large seat.
b. Head injuries are the major causes of bicycle-related fatalities.
What is descriptive of the play of school-age children? a. Individuality in play is better tolerated than at earlier ages. b. Knowing the rules of a game gives an important sense of belonging. c. They like to invent games, making up the rules as they go. d. Team play helps children learn the universal importance of competition and winning.
b. Knowing the rules of a game gives an important sense of belonging.
A nurse is teaching parents of first-grade children general guidelines to assist their children in adapting to school. Which statement by the parents indicates they understand the teaching? a. "We will only meet with the teacher if problems occur." b. "We will discourage hobbies so our child focuses on schoolwork." c. "We will plan a trip to the library as often as possible." d. "We will expect our child to make all As in school."
c. "We will plan a trip to the library as often as possible."
Generally the earliest age at which puberty begins is: a. 13 years in girls, 13 years in boys. b. 11 years in girls, 11 years in boys. c. 10 years in girls, 12 years in boys. d. 12 years in girls, 10 years in boys.
c. 10 years in girls, 12 years in boys.
A nurse planning care for a school-age child should take into account that which thought process is seen at this age? a. Animism b. Magical thinking c. Ability to conserve d. Thoughts are all-powerful
c. Ability to conserve
A group of boys ages 9 and 10 years have formed a "boys-only" club that is open to neighborhood and school friends who have skateboards. This should be interpreted as: a. Behavior that encourages bullying and sexism. b. Behavior that reinforces poor peer relationships. c. Characteristic of social development of this age. d. Characteristic of children who later are at risk for membership in gangs.
c. Characteristic of social development of this age.
Identify the statement that is the most accurate about moral development in the 9-year-old school-age child. a. Right and wrong are based on physical consequences of behavior. b. The child obeys parents because of fear of punishment. c. The school-age child conforms to rules to please others. d. Parents are the determiners of right and wrong for the school-age child.
c. The school-age child conforms to rules to please others.
What describes moral development in younger school-age children? a. The standards of behavior now come from within themselves. b. They do not yet experience a sense of guilt when they misbehave. c. They know the rules and behaviors expected of them but do not understand the reasons behind them. d. They no longer interpret accidents and misfortunes as punishment for misdeeds.
c. They know the rules and behaviors expected of them but do not understand the reasons behind them
Which comment is most developmentally typical of a 7-year-old boy? a. "I am a Power Ranger, so don't make me angry." b. "I don't know whether I like Mary or Joan better." c. "My mom is my favorite person in the world." d. "Jimmy is my best friend."
d. "Jimmy is my best friend."
A school nurse is teaching dental health practices to a group of sixth-grade children. How often should the nurse recommend the children brush their teeth? a. Twice a day b. Three times a day c. After meals d. After meals and snacks, and at bedtime
d. After meals and snacks, and at bedtime
Which behavior is not normally demonstrated in the 8-year-old child? a. Understands that his or her point of view is not the only one b. Enjoys telling riddles and silly jokes c. Understands that pouring liquid from a small to a large container does not change the amount d. Engages in fantasy and magical thinking
d. Engages in fantasy and magical thinking
The father of 12-year-old Ryan tells the nurse that he is concerned about his son getting "fat." Ryan's body mass index for age is at the 60th percentile. The most appropriate nursing action is to: a. Reassure the father that Ryan is not "fat." b. Reassure the father that Ryan is just a growing child. c. Suggest a low-calorie, low-fat diet. d. Explain that this is typical of the growth pattern of boys at this age.
d. Explain that this is typical of the growth pattern of boys at this age
What describes the cognitive abilities of school-age children? a. Have developed the ability to reason abstractly b. Become capable of scientific reasoning and formal logic c. Progress from making judgments based on what they reason to making judgments based on what they see d. Have the ability to classify, group and sort, and hold a concept in their minds while making decisions based on that concept
d. Have the ability to classify, group and sort, and hold a concept in their minds while making decisions based on that concep
The role of the peer group in the life of school-age children is that it: a. Gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility. b. Allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time. c. Decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles. d. Provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents.
d. Provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents
The school nurse has been asked to begin teaching sex education in the 5th grade. The nurse should recognize that: a. Children in 5th grade are too young for sex education. b. Children should be discouraged from asking too many questions. c. Correct terminology should be reserved for children who are older. d. Sex can be presented as a normal part of growth and development.
d. Sex can be presented as a normal part of growth and development.
What is characteristic of dishonest behavior in children ages 8 to 10 years? a. Cheating during games is now more common. b. Lying results from the inability to distinguish between fact and fantasy. c. They may steal because their sense of property rights is limited. d. They may lie to meet expectations set by others that they have been unable to attain.
d. They may lie to meet expectations set by others that they have been unable to attain.