Peds saunders 565 Q's

The nurse analyzes the laboratory values of a child with leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the platelet count is 19,500 mm3 (19.5 × 109/L). On the basis of this laboratory result, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? Initiate bleeding precautions. 2. Monitor closely for signs of infection. 3. Monitor the temperature every 4 hours. 4. Initiate protective isolation precautions.

Answer 1 Leukemia is a malignant increase in the number of leukocytes, usually at an immature stage, in the bone marrow. It affects the bone marrow, causing anemia from decreased erythrocytes, infection from neutropenia, and bleeding from decreased platelet production (thrombocytopenia). If a child is has a low platelet count usually less than 50,000 mm3 (50.0 × 109/L), bleeding precautions need to be initiated because of the increased risk of bleeding or hemorrhage. Precautions include limiting activity that could result in head injury, using soft toothbrushes, checking urine and stools for blood, and administering stool softeners to prevent straining with constipation. In addition, suppositories, enemas, and rectal temperatures are avoided. Options 2, 3, and 4 are related to the prevention of infection rather than bleeding.

The clinic nurse is reviewing the primary health care provider's prescription for a child who has been diagnosed with scabies. Lindane has been prescribed for the child. The nurse questions the prescription if which is noted in the child's record? The child is 18 months old. 2. The child is being bottle-fed. 3. A sibling is using lindane for the treatment of scabies. 4. The child has a history of frequent respiratory infections.

Answer 1 Lindane is a pediculicide product that may be prescribed to treat scabies. It is contraindicated for children younger than 2 years because they have more permeable skin, and high systemic absorption may occur, placing the children at risk for central nervous system toxicity and seizures. Lindane also is used with caution in children between the ages of 2 and 10 years. Siblings and other household members should be treated simultaneously. Options 2 and 4 are unrelated to the use of lindane. Lindane is not recommended for use by a breast-feeding woman because the medication is secreted into breast milk.

The mother of a 3-year-old child arrives at a clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been scratching the skin continuously and has developed a rash. The nurse assesses the child and suspects the presence of scabies. The nurse bases this suspicion on which finding noted on assessment of the child's skin? Fine grayish red lines 2. Purple-colored lesions 3. Thick, honey-colored crusts 4. Clusters of fluid-filled vesicles

Answer 1 Scabies is a parasitic skin disorder caused by an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei (itch mite). Scabies appears as burrows or fine, grayish red, thread-like lines. They may be difficult to see if they are obscured by excoriation and inflammation. Purple-colored lesions may indicate various disorders, including systemic conditions. Thick, honey-colored crusts are characteristic of impetigo or secondary infection in eczema. Clusters of fluid-filled vesicles are seen in herpesvirus infection.

The nurse is monitoring a 3-year-old child for signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) after a craniotomy. The nurse plans to monitor for which early sign or symptom of increased ICP? Vomiting 2. Bulging anterior fontanel 3. Increasing head circumference 4. Complaints of a frontal headache

Answer 1 The brain, although well protected by the solid bony cranium, is highly susceptible to pressure that may accumulate within the enclosure. Volume and pressure must remain constant within the brain. A change in the size of the brain, such as occurs with edema or increased volume of intracranial blood or cerebrospinal fluid without a compensatory change, leads to an increase in ICP, which may be life-threatening. Vomiting, an early sign of increased ICP, can become excessive as pressure builds up and stimulates the medulla in the brainstem, which houses the vomiting center. Children with open fontanels (posterior fontanel closes at 2 to 3 months; anterior fontanel closes at 12 to 18 months) compensate for ICP changes by skull expansion and subsequent bulging fontanels. When the fontanels have closed, nausea, excessive vomiting, diplopia, and headaches become pronounced, with headaches becoming more prevalent in older children.

The mother of a 4-year-old child tells the pediatric nurse that the child's abdomen seems to be swollen. During further assessment, the mother tells the nurse that the child is eating well and that the activity level of the child is unchanged. The nurse, suspecting the possibility of Wilms' tumor, should avoid which during the physical assessment? Palpating the abdomen for a mass 2. Assessing the urine for the presence of hematuria 3. Monitoring the temperature for the presence of fever 4. Monitoring the blood pressure for the presence of hypertension

Answer 1 Wilms' tumor is the most common intra-abdominal and kidney tumor of childhood. If Wilms' tumor is suspected, the tumor mass should not be palpated by the nurse. Excessive manipulation can cause seeding of the tumor and spread of the cancerous cells. Hematuria, fever, and hypertension are clinical manifestations associated with Wilms' tumor.

Which interventions should the nurse include when creating a care plan for a child with hepatitis? Select all that apply. Providing a low-fat, well-balanced diet. 2. Teaching the child effective hand-washing techniques. 3. Scheduling playtime in the playroom with other children. 4. Notifying the primary health care provider (PHCP) if jaundice is present. 5. Instructing the parents to avoid administering medications unless prescribed. 6. Arranging for indefinite home schooling because the child will not be able to return to school.

Answer 1-2-5 Hepatitis is an acute or chronic inflammation of the liver that may be caused by a virus, a medication reaction, or another disease process. Because hepatitis can be viral, standard precautions should be instituted in the hospital. The child should be discouraged from sharing toys, so playtime in the playroom with other children is not part of the plan of care. The child will be allowed to return to school 1 week after the onset of jaundice, so indefinite home schooling would not need to be arranged. Jaundice is an expected finding with hepatitis and would not warrant notification of the PHCP. Provision of a low-fat, well-balanced diet is recommended. Parents are cautioned about administering any medication to the child, because normal doses of many medications may become dangerous owing to the liver's inability to detoxify and excrete them. Hand washing is the most effective measure for control of hepatitis in any setting, and effective hand washing can prevent the immunocompromised child from contracting an opportunistic type of infection.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a 10-year-old child suspected to have Hodgkin's disease. Which assessment findings are specifically characteristic of this disease? Select all that apply. Abdominal pain 2. Fever and malaise 3. Anorexia and weight loss 4. Painful, enlarged inguinal lymph nodes 5. Painless, firm, and movable adenopathy in the cervical area

Answer 1-5 Hodgkin's disease (a type of lymphoma) is a malignancy of the lymph nodes. Specific clinical manifestations associated with Hodgkin's disease include painless, firm, and movable adenopathy in the cervical and supraclavicular areas and abdominal pain as a result of enlarged retroperitoneal nodes. Hepatosplenomegaly also is noted. Although fever, malaise, anorexia, and weight loss are associated with Hodgkin's disease, these manifestations are seen in many disorders.

A child has been diagnosed with acute otitis media of the right ear. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. Provide a soft diet. 2. Position the child on the left side. 3. Administer an antihistamine twice daily. 4. Irrigate the right ear with normal saline every 8 hours. 5. Administer ibuprofen for fever every 4 hours as prescribed and as needed. 6. Instruct the parents about the need to administer the prescribed antibiotics for the full course of therapy.

Answer 1-5-6 Acute otitis media is an inflammatory disorder caused by an infection of the middle ear. The child often has fever, pain, loss of appetite, and possible ear drainage. The child also is irritable and lethargic and may roll the head or pull on or rub the affected ear. Otoscopic examination may reveal a red, opaque, bulging, and immobile tympanic membrane. Hearing loss may be noted, particularly in chronic otitis media. The child's fever should be treated with ibuprofen. The child is positioned on her or his affected side to facilitate drainage. A soft diet is recommended during the acute stage to avoid pain that can occur with chewing. Antibiotics are prescribed to treat the bacterial infection and should be administered for the full prescribed course. The ear should not be irrigated with normal saline because it can exacerbate the inflammation further. Antihistamines are not usually recommended as a part of therapy.

The nurse is reviewing a primary health care provider's prescriptions for a child with sickle cell anemia who was admitted to the hospital for the treatment of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which prescriptions documented in the child's record should the nurse question? Select all that apply. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Position for comfort. 3. Avoid strain on painful joints. 4. Apply nasal oxygen at 2 L/minute. 5. Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet. 6. Give meperidine, 25 mg intravenously, every 4 hours for pain.

Answer 1-6 Sickle cell anemia is one of a group of diseases termed hemoglobinopathies, in which hemoglobin A is partly or completely replaced by abnormal sickle hemoglobin S. It is caused by the inheritance of a gene for a structurally abnormal portion of the hemoglobin chain. Hemoglobin S is sensitive to changes in the oxygen content of the red blood cell; insufficient oxygen causes the cells to assume a sickle shape, and the cells become rigid and clumped together, obstructing capillary blood flow. Oral and intravenous fluids are an important part of treatment. Meperidine is not recommended for a child with sickle cell disease because of the risk for normeperidine-induced seizures. Normeperidine, a metabolite of meperidine, is a central nervous system stimulant that produces anxiety, tremors, myoclonus, and generalized seizures when it accumulates with repetitive dosing. The nurse would question the prescription for restricted fluids and meperidine for pain control. Positioning for comfort, avoiding strain on painful joints, oxygen, and a high-calorie and high-protein diet are also important parts of the treatment plan.

After a tonsillectomy, the nurse reviews the surgeon's postoperative prescriptions. Which prescription should the nurse question? Monitor for bleeding. 2. Suction every 2 hours. 3. Give no milk or milk products. 4. Give clear, cool liquids when awake and alert.

Answer 2 A tonsillectomy is the surgical removal of the tonsils. After tonsillectomy, suction equipment should be available, but suctioning is not performed unless there is an airway obstruction because of the risk of trauma to the surgical site. Monitoring for bleeding is an important nursing intervention after any type of surgery. Milk and milk products are avoided initially because they coat the throat, cause the child to clear the throat, and increase the risk of bleeding. Clear, cool liquids are encouraged.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a child scheduled for a tonsillectomy. The nurse determines that which laboratory value is most significant to review? Creatinine level 2. Prothrombin time 3. Sedimentation rate 4. Blood urea nitrogen level

Answer 2 A tonsillectomy is the surgical removal of the tonsils. Because the tonsillar area is so vascular, postoperative bleeding is a concern. Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, platelet count, hemoglobin and hematocrit, white blood cell count, and urinalysis are performed preoperatively. The prothrombin time results would identify a potential for bleeding. Creatinine level, sedimentation rate, and blood urea nitrogen would not determine the potential for bleeding.

A 10-year-old child with asthma is treated for acute exacerbation in the emergency department. The nurse caring for the child should monitor for which sign, knowing that it indicates a worsening of the condition? 1. Warm, dry skin 2. Decreased wheezing 3. Pulse rate of 90 beats per minute 4. Respirations of 18 breaths per minute

Answer 2 Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways. Decreased wheezing in a child with asthma may be interpreted incorrectly as a positive sign when it may actually signal an inability to move air. A "silent chest" is an ominous sign during an asthma episode. With treatment, increased wheezing actually may signal that the child's condition is improving. Warm, dry skin indicates an improvement in the child's condition, because the child is normally diaphoretic during exacerbation. The normal pulse rate in a 10-year-old is 70 to 110 beats per minute. The normal respiratory rate in a 10-year-old is 16 to 20 breaths per minute.

The mother of a 6-year-old child arrives at a clinic because the child has been experiencing itchy, red, and swollen eyes. The nurse notes a discharge from the eyes and sends a culture to the laboratory for analysis. Chlamydial conjunctivitis is diagnosed. On the basis of this diagnosis, the nurse determines that which requires further investigation? Possible trauma 2. Possible sexual abuse 3. Presence of an allergy 4. Presence of a respiratory infection

Answer 2 Conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the conjunctiva. A diagnosis of chlamydial conjunctivitis in a child who is not sexually active should signal the health care provider to assess the child for possible sexual abuse. Trauma, allergy, and infection can cause conjunctivitis, but the causative organism is not likely to be Chlamydia.

The nurse is instructing the parents of a child with iron deficiency anemia regarding the administration of a liquid oral iron supplement. Which instruction should the nurse tell the parents? Administer the iron at mealtimes. 2. Administer the iron through a straw. 3. Mix the iron with cereal to administer. 4. Add the iron to formula for easy administration.

Answer 2 In iron deficiency anemia, iron stores are depleted, resulting in a decreased supply of iron for the manufacture of hemoglobin in red blood cells. An oral iron supplement should be administered through a straw or medicine dropper placed at the back of the mouth, because the iron stains the teeth. The parents should be instructed to brush or wipe the child's teeth or have the child brush the teeth after administration. Iron is administered between meals because absorption is decreased if there is food in the stomach. Iron requires an acid environment to facilitate its absorption in the duodenum. Iron is not added to formula or mixed with cereal or other food items.

A 4-year-old child is admitted to the hospital for abdominal pain. The mother reports that the child has been pale and excessively tired and is bruising easily. On physical examination, lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly are noted. Diagnostic studies are being performed because acute lymphocytic leukemia is suspected. The nurse determines that which laboratory result confirms the diagnosis? Lumbar puncture showing no blast cells 2. Bone marrow biopsy showing blast cells 3. Platelet count of 350,000 mm3 (350 × 109/L) 4. White blood cell count 4500 mm3 (4.5 × 109/L)

Answer 2 Leukemia is a malignant increase in the number of leukocytes, usually at an immature stage, in the bone marrow. The confirmatory test for leukemia is microscopic examination of bone marrow obtained by bone marrow aspirate and biopsy, which is considered positive if blast cells are present. An altered platelet count occurs as a result of the disease but also may occur as a result of chemotherapy and does not confirm the diagnosis. The white blood cell count may be normal, high, or low in leukemia. A lumbar puncture may be done to look for blast cells in the spinal fluid that indicate central nervous system disease.

The nurse provides a teaching session to the nursing staff regarding osteosarcoma. Which statement by a member of the nursing staff indicates a need for information? The femur is the most common site of this sarcoma." 2. "The child does not experience pain at the primary tumor site." 3. "Limping, if a weight-bearing limb is affected, is a clinical manifestation." 4. "The symptoms of the disease in the early stage are almost always attributed to normal growing pains."

Answer 2 Osteosarcoma is the most common bone cancer in children. Cancer usually is found in the metaphysis of long bones, especially in the lower extremities, with most tumors occurring in the femur. Osteosarcoma is manifested clinically by progressive, insidious, and intermittent pain at the tumor site. By the time these children receive medical attention, they may be in considerable pain from the tumor. Options 1, 3, and 4 are accurate regarding osteosarcoma.

A mother brings her 2-week-old infant to a clinic for a phenylketonuria rescreening blood test. The test indicates a serum phenylalanine level of 1 mg/dL (60.5 mcmol/L). The nurse reviews this result and makes which interpretation? It is positive. 2. It is negative. 3. It is inconclusive. 4. It requires rescreening at age 6 weeks.

Answer 2 Phenylketonuria is a genetic (autosomal recessive) disorder that results in central nervous system damage from toxic levels of phenylalanine (an essential amino acid) in the blood. It is characterized by blood phenylalanine levels greater than 20 mg/dL (1210 mcmol/L); normal level is 0 to 2 mg/dL (0 to 121 mcmol/L). A result of 1 mg/dL is a negative test result.

The nurse admits a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. On assessment, which data would the nurse expect to obtain when asking the parent about the child's symptoms? 1.Watery diarrhea 2.Projectile vomiting 3.Increased urine output 4.Vomiting large amounts of bile

Answer 2 Rationale:In pyloric stenosis, hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus causes narrowing of the pyloric canal between the stomach and the duodenum. Clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, irritability, hunger and crying, constipation, and signs of dehydration, including a decrease in urine output.

The day care nurse is observing a 2-year-old child and suspects that the child may have strabismus. Which observation made by the nurse indicates the presence of this condition? The child has difficulty hearing. 2. The child consistently tilts the head to see. 3. The child does not respond when spoken to. 4. The child consistently turns the head to hear.

Answer 2 Strabismus is a condition in which the eyes are not aligned because of lack of coordination of the extraocular muscles. The nurse may suspect strabismus in a child when the child complains of frequent headaches, squints, or tilts the head to see. Other manifestations include crossed eyes, closing one eye to see, diplopia, photophobia, loss of binocular vision, or impairment of depth perception. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not indicative of this condition.

The nursing student is presenting a clinical conference and discusses the cause of β-thalassemia. The nursing student informs the group that a child at greatest risk of developing this disorder is which of these? A child of Mexican descent 2. A child of Mediterranean descent 3. A child whose intake of iron is extremely poor 4. A breast-fed child of a mother with chronic anemia

Answer 2 β-Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the reduced production of 1 of the globin chains in the synthesis of hemoglobin (both parents must be carriers to produce a child with β-thalassemia major). This disorder is found primarily in individuals of Mediterranean descent. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

Which specific nursing interventions are implemented in the care of a child with leukemia who is at risk for infection? Select all that apply. Maintain the child in a semiprivate room. 2. Reduce exposure to environmental organisms. 3. Use strict aseptic technique for all procedures. 4. Ensure that anyone entering the child's room wears a mask. 5. Apply firm pressure to a needle-stick area for at least 10 minutes.

Answer 2-3-4 Leukemia is a malignant increase in the number of leukocytes, usually at an immature stage, in the bone marrow. It affects the bone marrow, causing anemia from decreased erythrocytes, infection from neutropenia, and bleeding from decreased platelet production (thrombocytopenia). A common complication of treatment for leukemia is overwhelming infection secondary to neutropenia. Measures to prevent infection include the use of a private room, strict aseptic technique, restriction of visitors and health care personnel with active infection, strict hand washing, ensuring that anyone entering the child's room wears a mask, and reducing exposure to environmental organisms by eliminating raw fruits and vegetables from the diet and fresh flowers from the child's room and by not leaving standing water in the child's room. Applying firm pressure to a needle-stick area for at least 10 minutes is a measure to prevent bleeding.

The nurse caring for a child who sustained a burn injury plans care based on which pediatric considerations associated with this injury? Select all that apply. Scarring is less severe in a child than in an adult. 2. A delay in growth may occur after a burn injury. 3. An immature immune system presents an increased risk of infection for infants and young children. 4. Fluid resuscitation is unnecessary unless the burned area is more than 25% of the total body surface area. 5. The lower proportion of body fluid to body mass in a child increases the risk of cardiovascular problems. 6. Infants and young children are at increased risk for protein and calorie deficiency, because they have smaller muscle mass and less body fat than adults.

Answer 2-3-6 Pediatric considerations in the care of a burn victim include the following: Scarring is more severe in a child than in an adult. A delay in growth may occur after a burn injury. An immature immune system presents an increased risk of infection for infants and young children. The higher proportion of body fluid to body mass in a child increases the risk of cardiovascular problems. Burns involving more than 10% of total body surface area require some form of fluid resuscitation. Infants and young children are at increased risk for protein and calorie deficiencies because they have smaller muscle mass and less body fat than adults.

The clinic nurse is assessing a child who is scheduled to receive a live virus vaccine (immunization). What are the general contraindications associated with receiving a live virus vaccine? Select all that apply. The child has symptoms of a cold. 2. The child had a previous anaphylactic reaction to the vaccine. 3. The mother reports that the child is having intermittent episodes of diarrhea. 4. The mother reports that the child has not had an appetite and has been fussy. 5. The child has a disorder that caused a severely deficient immune system. 6. The mother reports that the child has recently been exposed to an infectious disease.

Answer 2-5 The general contraindications for receiving live virus vaccines include a previous anaphylactic reaction to a vaccine or a component of a vaccine. In addition, live virus vaccines generally are not administered to individuals with a severely deficient immune system, individuals with a severe sensitivity to gelatin, or pregnant women. A vaccine is administered with caution to an individual with a moderate or severe acute illness, with or without fever. Options 1, 3, 4, and 6 are not contraindications to receiving a vaccine.

A child has fluid volume deficit. The nurse performs an assessment and determines that the child is improving and the deficit is resolving if which finding is noted? The child has no tears. 2. Urine specific gravity is 1.035. 3. Capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. 4. Urine output is less than 1 mL/kg/hr.

Answer 3 Indicators that fluid volume deficit is resolving would be capillary refill less than 2 seconds, specific gravity of 1.003 to 1.030, urine output of at least 1 mL/kg/hr, and adequate tear production. A capillary refill time less than 2 seconds is the only indicator that the child is improving. Urine output of less than 1 mL/kg/hr, a specific gravity of 1.035, and no tears would indicate that the deficit is not resolving.

An infant has just returned to the nursing unit after surgical repair of a cleft lip on the right side. The nurse should place the infant in which best position at this time? Prone position 2. On the stomach 3. Left lateral position 4. Right lateral position

Answer 3 A cleft lip is a congenital anomaly that occurs as a result of failure of soft tissue or bony structure to fuse during embryonic development. After cleft lip repair, the nurse avoids positioning an infant on the side of the repair or in the prone position, because these positions can cause rubbing of the surgical site on the mattress. The nurse positions the infant on the side lateral to the repair or on the back upright and positions the infant to prevent airway obstruction by secretions, blood, or the tongue. From the options provided, placing the infant on the left side immediately after surgery is best to prevent the risk of aspiration if the infant vomits.

The nurse is providing home care instructions to the parents of a 10-year-old child with hemophilia. Which sport activity should the nurse suggest for this child? Soccer 2. Basketball 3. Swimming 4. Field hockey

Answer 3 Hemophilia refers to a group of bleeding disorders resulting from a deficiency of specific coagulation proteins. Children with hemophilia need to avoid contact sports and to take precautions such as wearing elbow and knee pads and helmets with other sports. The safe activity for them is swimming.

A 10-year-old child with hemophilia A has slipped on the ice and bumped his knee. The nurse should prepare to administer which prescription? Injection of factor X 2. Intravenous infusion of iron 3. Intravenous infusion of factor VIII 4. Intramuscular injection of iron using the Z-track method

Answer 3 Hemophilia refers to a group of bleeding disorders resulting from a deficiency of specific coagulation proteins. The primary treatment is replacement of the missing clotting factor; additional medications, such as agents to relieve pain, may be prescribed depending on the source of bleeding from the disorder. A child with hemophilia A is at risk for joint bleeding after a fall. Factor VIII would be prescribed intravenously to replace the missing clotting factor and minimize the bleeding. Factor X and iron are not used to treat children with hemophilia A.

The nurse is caring for a newborn with a suspected diagnosis of imperforate anus. The nurse monitors the infant, knowing that which is a clinical manifestation associated with this disorder? Bile-stained fecal emesis 2.The passage of currant jelly-like stools 3.Failure to pass meconium stool in the first 24 hours after birth 4.Sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant

Answer 3 Imperforate anus is the incomplete development or absence of the anus in its normal position in the perineum. During the newborn assessment, this defect should be identified easily on sight. However, a rectal thermometer or tube may be necessary to determine patency if meconium is not passed in the first 24 hours after birth. Other assessment findings include absence or stenosis of the anal rectal canal, presence of an anal membrane, and an external fistula to the perineum. Options 1, 2, and 4 are findings noted in intussusception.

The school nurse has provided an instructional session about impetigo to parents of the children attending the school. Which statement, if made by a parent, indicates a need for further instruction? It is extremely contagious." 2. "It is most common in humid weather." 3. "Lesions most often are located on the arms and chest." 4. "It might show up in an area of broken skin, such as an insect bite."

Answer 3 Impetigo is a contagious bacterial infection of the skin caused by β-hemolytic streptococci or staphylococci, or both. Impetigo is most common during hot, humid summer months. Impetigo may begin in an area of broken skin, such as an insect bite or atopic dermatitis. Impetigo is extremely contagious. Lesions usually are located around the mouth and nose but may be present on the hands and extremities.

A 6-year-old child with leukemia is hospitalized and is receiving combination chemotherapy. Laboratory results indicate that the child is neutropenic, and protective isolation procedures are initiated. The grandmother of the child visits and brings a fresh bouquet of flowers picked from her garden and asks the nurse for a vase for the flowers. Which response should the nurse provide to the grandmother? "I have a vase in the utility room, and I will get it for you." 2. "I will get the vase and wash it well before you put the flowers in it." 3. "The flowers from your garden are beautiful, but should not be placed in the child's room at this time." 4. "When you bring the flowers into the room, place them on the bedside stand as far away from the child as possible."

Answer 3 Leukemia is a malignant increase in the number of leukocytes, usually at an immature stage, in the bone marrow. It affects the bone marrow, causing anemia from decreased erythrocytes, infection from neutropenia, and bleeding from decreased platelet production (thrombocytopenia). For a hospitalized neutropenic child, flowers or plants should not be kept in the room, because standing water and damp soil harbor Aspergillus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, to which the child is susceptible. In addition, fresh fruits and vegetables harbor molds and should be avoided until the white blood cell count increases.

The nurse is monitoring a child with burns during treatment. Which assessment provides the most accurate guide to determine the adequacy of fluid resuscitation? Skin turgor 2. Level of edema at burn site 3. Adequacy of capillary filling 4. Amount of fluid tolerated in 24 hours

Answer 3 Parameters such as vital signs (especially heart rate), urinary output volume, adequacy of capillary filling, and state of sensorium determine adequacy of fluid resuscitation. Although options 1, 2, and 4 may provide some information related to fluid volume, in a burn injury, and from the options provided, adequacy of capillary filling is most accurate.

The mother of a 6-year-old child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus calls a clinic nurse and tells the nurse that the child has been sick. The mother reports that she checked the child's urine and it was positive for ketones. The nurse should instruct the mother to take which action? Hold the next dose of insulin. 2. Come to the clinic immediately. 3. Encourage the child to drink liquids. 4. Administer an additional dose of regular insulin.

Answer 3 When the child is sick, the mother should test for urinary ketones with each voiding. If ketones are present, liquids are essential to aid in clearing the ketones. The child should be encouraged to drink liquids. Bringing the child to the clinic immediately is unnecessary. Insulin doses should not be adjusted or changed.

The nurse should implement which interventions for a child older than 2 years with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL (3.4 mmol/L)? Select all that apply. Administer regular insulin. 2. Encourage the child to ambulate. 3. Give the child a teaspoon of honey. 4. Provide electrolyte replacement therapy intravenously. 5. Wait 30 minutes and confirm the blood glucose reading. 6. Prepare to administer glucagon subcutaneously if unconsciousness occurs.

Answer 3-6 Hypoglycemia is defined as a blood glucose level less than 70 mg/dL (4 mmol/L). Hypoglycemia occurs as a result of too much insulin, not enough food, or excessive activity. If possible, the nurse should confirm hypoglycemia with a blood glucose reading. Glucose is administered orally immediately; rapid-releasing glucose is followed by a complex carbohydrate and protein, such as a slice of bread or a peanut butter cracker. An extra snack is given if the next meal is not planned for more than 30 minutes or if activity is planned. If the child becomes unconscious, cake frosting or glucose paste is squeezed onto the gums, and the blood glucose level is retested in 15 minutes; if the reading remains low, additional glucose is administered. If the child remains unconscious, administration of glucagon may be necessary, and the nurse should be prepared for this intervention. Encouraging the child to ambulate and administering regular insulin would result in a lowered blood glucose level. Providing electrolyte replacement therapy intravenously is an intervention to treat diabetic ketoacidosis. Waiting 30 minutes to confirm the blood glucose level delays necessary intervention.

A child is receiving a series of the hepatitis B vaccine and arrives at the clinic with his parent for the second dose. Before administering the vaccine, the nurse should ask the child and parent about a history of a severe allergy to which substance? Eggs 2. Penicillin 3. Sulfonamides 4. A previous dose of hepatitis B vaccine or component

Answer 4 A contraindication to receiving the hepatitis B vaccine is a previous anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of hepatitis B vaccine or to a component (aluminum hydroxide or yeast protein) of the vaccine. An allergy to eggs, penicillin, and sulfonamides is unrelated to the contraindication to receiving this vaccine.

The nurse has just administered ibuprofen to a child with a temperature of 102° F (38.8° C). The nurse should also take which action? Withhold oral fluids for 8 hours. 2. Sponge the child with cold water. 3. Plan to administer salicylate in 4 hours. 4. Remove excess clothing and blankets from the child.

Answer 4 After administering ibuprofen, excess clothing and blankets should be removed. The child can be sponged with tepid water but not cold water, because the cold water can cause shivering, which increases metabolic requirements above those already caused by the fever. Aspirin (a salicylate) is not administered to a child with fever because of the risk of Reye's syndrome. Fluids should be encouraged to prevent dehydration, so oral fluids should not be withheld.

A topical corticosteroid is prescribed by the primary health care provider for a child with contact dermatitis (eczema). Which instruction should the nurse give the parent about applying the cream? Apply the cream over the entire body. 2. Apply a thick layer of cream to affected areas only. 3. Avoid cleansing the area before application of the cream. 4. Apply a thin layer of cream and rub it into the area thoroughly.

Answer 4 Contact dermatitis is a superficial inflammatory process involving primarily the epidermis. A topical corticosteroid may be prescribed and should be applied sparingly (thin layer) and rubbed into the area thoroughly. The affected area should be cleaned gently before application. A topical corticosteroid should not be applied over extensive areas. Systemic absorption is more likely to occur with extensive application.

+++A parent brings her 4-month-old infant to a well-baby clinic for immunizations. The child is up to date with the immunization schedule. The nurse should prepare to administer which immunizations to this infant? Varicella, hepatitis B vaccine (HepB) 2. Diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis (DTaP); measles, mumps, rubella (MMR); inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) 3. MMR, Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib), DTaP 4. DTaP, Hib, IPV, pneumococcal vaccine (PCV), rotavirus vaccine (RV) Lion

Answer 4 DTaP, Hib, IPV, PCV, and RV are administered at 4 months of age. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; at 15 to 18 months of age; and at 4 to 6 years of age. Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and at 12 to 15 months of age. IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and at 4 to 6 years of age. PCV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and at 12 to 15 months of age. The first dose of MMR vaccine is administered at 12 to 15 months of age; the second dose is administered at 4 to 6 years of age (if the second dose was not given by 4 to 6 years of age, it should be given at the next visit). The first dose of HepB is administered at birth, the second dose is administered at 1 month of age, and the third dose is administered at 6 months of age. Varicella-zoster vaccine is administered at 12 to 15 months of age and again at 4 to 6 years of age.

A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department by the mother, who states that the child has been complaining of abdominal pain and has been lethargic. Diabetic ketoacidosis is diagnosed. Anticipating the plan of care, the nurse prepares to administer which type of intravenous (IV) infusion? Potassium infusion 2. NPH insulin infusion 3. 5% dextrose infusion 4. Normal saline infusion

Answer 4 Diabetic ketoacidosis is a complication of diabetes mellitus that develops when a severe insulin deficiency occurs. Hyperglycemia occurs with diabetic ketoacidosis. Rehydration is the initial step in resolving diabetic ketoacidosis. Normal saline is the initial IV rehydration fluid. NPH insulin is never administered by the IV route. Dextrose solutions are added to the treatment when the blood glucose level decreases to an acceptable level. Intravenously administered potassium may be required, depending on the potassium level, but would not be part of the initial treatment.

An adolescent client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect to note? Sweating and tremors 2. Hunger and hypertension 3. Cold, clammy skin and irritability 4. Fruity breath odor and decreasing level of consciousness

Answer 4 Diabetic ketoacidosis is a complication of diabetes mellitus that develops when a severe insulin deficiency occurs. Hyperglycemia occurs with diabetic ketoacidosis. Signs of hyperglycemia include fruity breath odor and a decreasing level of consciousness. Hunger can be a sign of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia, but hypertension is not a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis. Hypotension occurs because of a decrease in blood volume related to the dehydrated state that occurs during diabetic ketoacidosis. Cold clammy skin, irritability, sweating, and tremors all are signs of hypoglycemia.

The nurse provides feeding instructions to a parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis? Provide less frequent, larger feedings. 2.Burp the infant less frequently during feedings. 3.Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula. 4.Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.

Answer 4 Gastroesophageal reflux is backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus as a result of relaxation or incompetence of the lower esophageal or cardiac sphincter. Small, more frequent feedings with frequent burping often are prescribed in the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux. Feedings thickened with rice cereal may reduce episodes of emesis. If thickened formula is used, cross-cutting of the nipple may be required.

The clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant and notes that the primary health care provider (PHCP) has documented a diagnosis of suspected Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse reviews the assessment findings documented in the record, knowing that which sign most likely led the mother to seek health care for the infant? Diarrhea 2. Projectile vomiting 3. Regurgitation of feedings 4. Foul-smelling ribbon-like stools

Answer 4 Hirschsprung's disease is a congenital anomaly also known as congenital aganglionosis or aganglionic megacolon. It occurs as the result of an absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and other areas of the affected intestine. Chronic constipation beginning in the first month of life and resulting in pellet-like or ribbon-like stools that are foul-smelling is a clinical manifestation of this disorder. Delayed passage or absence of meconium stool in the neonatal period is also a sign. Bowel obstruction, especially in the neonatal period; abdominal pain and distention; and failure to thrive are also clinical manifestations. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not associated specifically with this disorder.

A diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease is suspected in a 12-year-old child. Several diagnostic studies are performed to determine the presence of this disease. Which diagnostic test result will confirm the diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease? Elevated vanillylmandelic acid urinary levels 2. The presence of blast cells in the bone marrow 3. The presence of Epstein-Barr virus in the blood 4. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in the lymph nodes

Answer 4 Hodgkin's disease (a type of lymphoma) is a malignancy of the lymph nodes. The presence of giant, multinucleated cells (Reed-Sternberg cells) is the classic characteristic of this disease. Elevated levels of vanillylmandelic acid in the urine may be found in children with neuroblastoma. The presence of blast cells in the bone marrow indicates leukemia. Epstein-Barr virus is associated with infectious mononucleosis.

A school-age child with type 1 diabetes mellitus has soccer practice and the school nurse provides instructions regarding how to prevent hypoglycemia during practice. Which should the school nurse tell the child to do? Eat twice the amount normally eaten at lunchtime. 2. Take half the amount of prescribed insulin on practice days. 3. Take the prescribed insulin at noontime rather than in the morning. 4. Eat a small box of raisins or drink a cup of orange juice before soccer practice.

Answer 4 Hypoglycemia is a blood glucose level less than 70 mg/dL (4 mmol/L) and results from too much insulin, not enough food, or excessive activity. An extra snack of 15 to 30 g of carbohydrates eaten before activities such as soccer practice would prevent hypoglycemia. A small box of raisins or a cup of orange juice provides 15 to 30 g of carbohydrates. The child or parents should not be instructed to adjust the amount or time of insulin administration. Meal amounts should not be doubled.

Laboratory studies are performed for a child suspected to have iron deficiency anemia. The nurse reviews the laboratory results, knowing that which result indicates this type of anemia? Elevated hemoglobin level 2. Decreased reticulocyte count 3. Elevated red blood cell count 4. Red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic

Answer 4 In iron deficiency anemia, iron stores are depleted, resulting in a decreased supply of iron for the manufacture of hemoglobin in red blood cells. The results of a complete blood cell count in children with iron deficiency anemia show decreased hemoglobin levels and microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells. The red blood cell count is decreased. The reticulocyte count is usually normal or slightly elevated.

The nurse is preparing to care for a child with a diagnosis of intussusception. The nurse reviews the child's record and expects to note which sign of this disorder documented? Watery diarrhea 2. Ribbon-like stools 3. Profuse projectile vomiting 4. Bright red blood and mucus in the stools

Answer 4 Intussusception is a telescoping of 1 portion of the bowel into another. The condition results in an obstruction to the passage of intestinal contents. A child with intussusception typically has severe abdominal pain that is crampy and intermittent, causing the child to draw in the knees to the chest. Vomiting may be present, but is not projectile. Bright red blood and mucus are passed through the rectum and commonly are described as currant jelly-like stools. Watery diarrhea and ribbon-like stools are not manifestations of this disorder.

The school nurse is performing pediculosis capitis (head lice) assessments. Which assessment finding indicates that a child has a "positive" head check for lice? Maculopapular lesions behind the ears 2. Lesions in the scalp that extend to the hairline or neck 3. White flaky particles throughout the entire scalp region 4. White sacs attached to the hair shafts in the occipital area

Answer 4 Pediculosis capitis is an infestation of the hair and scalp with lice. The nits are visible and attached firmly to the hair shaft near the scalp. The occiput is an area in which nits can be seen. Maculopapular lesions behind the ears or lesions that extend to the hairline or neck are indicative of an infectious process, not pediculosis. White flaky particles are indicative of dandruff.

The mother of an 8-year-old child being treated for right lower lobe pneumonia at home calls the clinic nurse. The mother tells the nurse that the child complains of discomfort on the right side and that ibuprofen is not effective. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the mother? Increase the dose of ibuprofen. 2. Increase the frequency of ibuprofen. 3. Encourage the child to lie on the left side. 4. Encourage the child to lie on the right side.

Answer 4 Pneumonia is an inflammation of the pulmonary parenchyma or alveoli, or both, caused by a virus, mycoplasmal agents, bacteria, or aspiration of foreign substances. Splinting of the affected side by lying on that side may decrease discomfort. It would be inappropriate to advise the mother to increase the dose or frequency of the ibuprofen. Lying on the left side would not be helpful in alleviating discomfort.

An infant receives a diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) immunization at a well-baby clinic. The parent returns home and calls the clinic to report that the infant has developed swelling and redness at the site of injection. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to the parent? Monitor the infant for a fever. 2. Bring the infant back to the clinic. 3. Apply a hot pack to the injection site. 4. Apply a cold pack to the injection site.

Answer: 4 On occasion, tenderness, redness, or swelling may occur at the site of the DTaP injection. This can be relieved with cold packs for the first 24 hours, followed by warm or cold compresses if the inflammation persists. Bringing the infant back to the clinic is unnecessary. Option 1 may be an appropriate intervention but is not specific to the subject of the question, a localized reaction at the injection site. Hot packs are not applied and can be harmful by causing burning of the skin.

A new parent expresses concern to the nurse regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). She asks the nurse how to position her new infant for sleep. In which position should the nurse tell the parent to place the infant? 1.Side or prone 2.Back or prone 3.Stomach with the face turned 4.Back rather than on the stomach

answer SIDS is the unexpected death of an apparently healthy infant younger than 1 year for whom an investigation of the death and a thorough autopsy fail to show an adequate cause of death. Several theories are proposed regarding the cause, but the exact cause is unknown. Nurses should encourage parents to place the infant on the back (supine) for sleep. Infants in the prone position (on the stomach) may be unable to move their heads to the side, increasing the risk of suffocation. The infant may have the ability to turn to a prone position from the side-lying position.

The nurse provides home care instructions to the parents of a child with celiac disease. The nurse should teach the parents to include which food item in the child's diet? 1.Rice 2.Oatmeal 3.Rye toast 4.Wheat bread

Answer 1

Antibiotics are prescribed for a child with otitis media who underwent a myringotomy with insertion of tympanostomy tubes. The nurse provides discharge instructions to the parents regarding the administration of the antibiotics. Which statement, if made by the parents, indicates understanding of the instructions provided? "Administer the antibiotics until they are gone." 2. "Administer the antibiotics if the child has a fever." 3. "Administer the antibiotics until the child feels better." 4. "Begin to taper the antibiotics after 3 days of a full course."

Answer 1 A myringotomy is the insertion of tympanoplasty tubes into the middle ear to promote drainage of purulent middle ear fluid, equalize pressure, and keep the ear aerated. The nurse must instruct parents regarding the administration of antibiotics. Antibiotics need to be taken as prescribed, and the full course needs to be completed. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. Antibiotics are not tapered but are administered for the full course of therapy.

The clinic nurse is providing instructions to a parent of a child with cystic fibrosis regarding the immunization schedule for the child. Which statement should the nurse make to the parent? "The immunization schedule will need to be altered." 2."The child should not receive any hepatitis vaccines." 3."The child will receive all of the immunizations except for the polio series." 4."The child will receive the recommended basic series of immunizations along with a yearly influenza vaccination."

Answer 4

Permethrin is prescribed for a child with a diagnosis of scabies. The nurse should give which instruction to the parents regarding the use of this treatment? 1. Apply the lotion to areas of the rash only. 2. Apply the lotion and leave it on for 6 hours. 3. Avoid putting clothes on the child over the lotion. 4. Apply the lotion to cool, dry skin at least 30 minutes after bathing.

Answer 4 Permethrin is massaged thoroughly and gently into all skin surfaces (not just the areas that have the rash) from the head to the soles of the feet. Care should be taken to avoid contact with the eyes. The lotion should not be applied until at least 30 minutes after bathing and should be applied only to cool, dry skin. The lotion should be kept on for 8 to 14 hours, and then the child should be given a bath. The child should be clothed during the 8 to 14 hours of treatment contact time.

After a tonsillectomy, a child begins to vomit bright red blood. The nurse should take which initial action? Turn the child to the side. 2. Administer the prescribed antiemetic. 3. Maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status. 4. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP).

Answer 1 After tonsillectomy, if bleeding occurs, the nurse immediately turns the child to the side to prevent aspiration and then notifies the PHCP. NPO status would be maintained, and an antiemetic may be prescribed; however, the initial nursing action would be to turn the child to the side.

The nurse is caring for a child after a tonsillectomy. The nurse monitors the child, knowing that which finding indicates the child is bleeding? Frequent swallowing 2. A decreased pulse rate 3. Complaints of discomfort 4. An elevation in blood pressure

Answer 1 A tonsillectomy is the surgical removal of the tonsils. Frequent swallowing, restlessness, a fast and thready pulse, and vomiting bright red blood are signs of bleeding. An elevated blood pressure and complaints of discomfort are not indications of bleeding.

The nurse prepares a teaching plan for the mother of a child diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis. Which, if stated by the mother, indicates a need for further teaching? "I need to wash my hands frequently." 2. "I need to clean the eye as prescribed." 3. "It is okay to share towels and washcloths." 4. "I need to give the eye drops as prescribed."

Answer 3 Conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the conjunctiva. Bacterial conjunctivitis is highly contagious, and the nurse should teach infection control measures. These include good hand washing and not sharing towels and washcloths. Options 1, 2, and 4 are correct treatment measures.

A child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. The nurse should monitor the child closely for which problem? 1. Diarrhea 2. Metabolic acidosis 3. Metabolic alkalosis 4. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Answer 3 Vomiting causes the loss of hydrochloric acid and subsequent metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis would occur in a child experiencing diarrhea because of the loss of bicarbonate. Diarrhea might or might not accompany vomiting. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not associated with vomiting.

The clinic nurse instructs parents of a child with sickle cell anemia about the precipitating factors related to sickle cell crisis. Which, if identified by the parents as a precipitating factor, indicates the need for further instruction? Stress 2. Trauma 3. Infection 4. Fluid overload

Answer 4 Sickle cell crises are acute exacerbations of the disease, which vary considerably in severity and frequency; these include vaso-occlusive crisis, splenic sequestration, hyperhemolytic crisis, and aplastic crisis. Sickle cell crisis may be precipitated by infection, dehydration, hypoxia, trauma, or physical or emotional stress. The mother of a child with sickle cell disease should encourage fluid intake of 1.5 to 2 times the daily requirement to prevent dehydration.

A child with β-thalassemia is receiving long-term blood transfusion therapy for the treatment of the disorder. Chelation therapy is prescribed as a result of too much iron from the transfusions. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed? Fragmin 2. Meropenem 3. Metoprolol 4. Deferoxamine

Answer 4 β-Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the reduced production of 1 of the globin chains in the synthesis of hemoglobin (both parents must be carriers to produce a child with β-thalassemia major). The major complication of long-term transfusion therapy is hemosiderosis. To prevent organ damage from too much iron, chelation therapy with either deferasirox or deferoxamine may be prescribed. Deferoxamine is classified as an antidote for acute iron toxicity. Dalteparin is an anticoagulant used as prophylaxis for postoperative deep vein thrombosis. Meropenem is an antibiotic. Metoprolol is a beta blocker used to treat hypertension.

A pediatrician prescribes an intravenous (IV) solution of 5% dextrose and half-normal saline (0.45%) with 40 mEq of potassium chloride for a child with hypotonic dehydration. The nurse performs which priority assessment before administering this IV prescription? Obtains a weight 2. Takes the temperature 3. Takes the blood pressure 4. Checks the amount of urine output

Answer4 In hypotonic dehydration, electrolyte loss exceeds water loss. The priority assessment before administering potassium chloride intravenously would be to assess the status of the urine output. Potassium chloride should never be administered in the presence of oliguria or anuria. If the urine output is less than 1 to 2 mL/kg/hr, potassium chloride should not be administered. Although options 1, 2, and 3 are appropriate assessments for a child with dehydration, these assessments are not related specifically to the IV administration of potassium chloride.

The nurse reviews the record of a newborn infant and notes that a diagnosis of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is suspected. The nurse expects to note which most likely sign of this condition documented in the record? 1.Incessant crying 2.Coughing at nighttime 3.Choking with feedings 4.Severe projectile vomiting

answer 3 In esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, the esophagus terminates before it reaches the stomach, ending in a blind pouch, and a fistula is present that forms an unnatural connection with the trachea. Any child who exhibits the "3 Cs"—coughing and choking with feedings and unexplained cyanosis—should be suspected to have tracheoesophageal fistula. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not specifically associated with tracheoesophageal fistula.

The nurse is preparing to care for a child after a tonsillectomy. The nurse documents on the plan of care to place the child in which position? Supine 2. Side-lying 3. High-Fowler's 4. Trendelenburg's

Answer 2 A tonsillectomy is the surgical removal of the tonsils. The child should be placed in a prone or side-lying position after the surgical procedure to facilitate drainage. Options 1, 3, and 4 would not achieve this goal.

The nurse analyzes the laboratory results of a child with hemophilia. The nurse understands that which result will most likely be abnormal in this child? 1. Platelet count 2. Hematocrit level 3. Hemoglobin level 4. Partial thromboplastin time

Answer 4 Hemophilia refers to a group of bleeding disorders resulting from a deficiency of specific coagulation proteins. Results of tests that measure platelet function are normal; results of tests that measure clotting factor function may be abnormal. Abnormal laboratory results in hemophilia indicate a prolonged partial thromboplastin time. The platelet count, hemoglobin level, and hematocrit level are normal in hemophilia.

The nurse is monitoring a child for bleeding after surgery for removal of a brain tumor. The nurse checks the head dressing for the presence of blood and notes a colorless drainage on the back of the dressing. Which action should the nurse perform immediately? Notify the surgeon. 2. Reinforce the dressing. 3. Document the findings and continue to monitor. 4. Circle the area of drainage and continue to monitor.

Answer 1 Colorless drainage on the dressing in a child after craniotomy indicates the presence of cerebrospinal fluid and should be reported to the surgeon immediately. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not the immediate nursing action because they do not address the need for immediate intervention to prevent complications.