PHA 332 - Chapter 19 - Blood

Which go the following is the LEAST abundant type of plasma proteins?

Hormones

In which pregnancy are an Rh-positive mom and an Rh-positive child at risk of developing erythroblastosis fetalis?

No pregnancy

What type of blood is considered to be the "universal donor"?

Type O negative

In which phase of hemostasis does local contraction of an injured blood vessel occur?

Vascular phase

How much blood does an adult male normally have?

5-6 liters

What portion of a person's body weight does the blood represent?

7%

What is the normal coagulation time for blood placed in a glass test tube?

8-18 minutes

What is jaundice?

A yellowing of the skin and eyes

If a person has type A blood, Rh surface antigens on the blood cells, and anti-B antibodies in the plasma, what is that person's blood type?

A-positive

Which group of white blood cells are classified as granulocytes? A. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils B. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes C. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes D. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and platelets

A. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

Which of the following is a compound that stimulates platelet aggregation?

ADP

Which type of plasma protein serves as a carrier for hormones T3 and T4?

Albumins

Circulating mature RBCs lack __________.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following is not a function of the blood?

All of the listed responses are correct.

Why is there a difference in the hematocrit between males and females?

Androgens stimulate red blood cell production and estrogens do not.

Which type of protein is responsible for transporting triglycerides in the blood?

Apolipoproteins

Lymphoid stem cells develop into ________________.

B cells and T cells

What of the following types of blood would cause a cross-reaction when given to a person with type A-positive blood?

B-positive

Which of the following statements is false concerning T cells and B cells? A. T cells complete their maturation process in the thymus. B. B cells differentiate into T cells and produce antibodies against foreign antigens. C. B cells and T cells are both types of lymphocytes. D. B and T cells are involved in a specific immune response.

B. B cells differentiate into T cells and produce antibodies against foreign antigens

A runny nose is one of the symptoms of allergy or a cold. Which cell is responsible for causing the runny nose?

Basophils

Which of the following is NOT a good reason why venipuncture is a common technique for obtaining a blood sample?

Blood does not clot as easily coming from veins as it does from arteries.

Which of the following statements about blood is false?

Blood is slightly acidic, with a pH of 6.5.

Leucocytes or white blood cells fight infection. They have the ability to leave the bloodstream and enter a damaged or infected area. What is the name of this process of leaving the bloodstream?

Emigration or diapedesis

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the unusual shape of the red blood cell?

Greater hemoglobin carrying capacity

Patients on "blood thinners" such as Coumadin, are cautioned to restrain from eating green leafy vegetables. What is the reason behind such prescription.

Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which is needed to synthesize some of the clotting factors.

A patient developed an obstruction in his renal arteries that restricted blood flow to his kidneys. What change would occur to the formed elements?

Hematocrit would increase.

Where are most plasma proteins produced?

Liver

Which type of white blood cell includes the B and T cells, which are responsible for humoral and cell-mediated immunity?

Lymphocyte

Nonspecific defenses do not discriminate between one type of threat or another. The specific immune response will provide a counterattack against specific types of invading pathogens. What cell type is responsible for specific defense?

Lymphocytes

Which type of white blood cell circulates in the blood for about 24 hours before entering the tissues and differentiating into a macrophage?

Monocyte

Which blood cell is responsible for carrying out immune surveillance?

Natural killer cells

What type of white blood cell would you find in the greatest numbers in an infected cut?

Neutrophil

If agglutinogen B meets with agglutinin anti-A, what is the result?

No agglutination occurs.

How do basophils respond to an injury?

They release histamine and heparin.

A person who was faithfully avoiding eating any fats could have problems with blood clotting. Why would blood clotting be affected?

They would be deficient in vitamin K.

Which two enzymes are needed to convert plasminogen to plasmin?

Thrombin and tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as aspirin, prevent clotting by inhibiting formation of what substance by the platelets?

Thromboxane A2

What would be the effect on your body if for some reason your liver was damaged and stopped producing albumins?

Tissue swelling

The primary function of a mature red blood cell is which of the following?

Transport of respiratory gases

Which blood type can safely be transfused into a person with type O blood?

Type O

What are the "patrol agents" in the blood that defend the body against toxins and pathogens?

White blood cells and antibodies

A blood clot attached to the luminal (inner) surface of a blood vessel is called ______________.

a thrombus

Clot destruction involves a process that begins with __________.

activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which initiates the production of plasmin

Agglutinogens are contained on the __________, whereas the agglutinins are found in the __________.

cell membrane of the RBC; plasma

Signs of iron-deficiency anemia include __________.

decrease in hematocrit, hemoglobin content, and O2-carrying capacity

Which of the following types of white blood cells are involved in fighting off parasitic infections, such as flukes and roundworms?

eosinophils

Reticulocytes are nucleated immature cells that develop into mature __________.

erythrocytes

Thrombin is required to convert _________________.

fibrinogen to fibrin

A deficiency in production of Protein C results in problems with __________________.

fibrinolysis

Megakaryocytes are specialized cells of the bone marrow that are responsible for __________.

formation of platelets

Jessica has just moved from Orlando, Florida, to Denver, Colorado. What condition is she now experiencing that is stimulating the production of erythropoietin and, consequently, more red blood cells?

hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level

Erythropoietin appears in the plasma when peripheral tissues, especially the kidneys, are exposed to __________.

low oxygen concentrations

Myeloid stem cells develop into __________________.

megakaryocytes

Platelets are formed from large cells called __________.

megakaryocytes

Which type of granular leukocyte can engulf up to two dozen bacteria and also produces a respiratory burst that creates harsh chemical agents such as hydrogen peroxide?

neutrophil

Upon analyzing components of pus, one would typically find _________________.

neutrophils and cellular debris

Protein synthesis in a mature RBC occurs primarily __________.

nowhere; mature red blood cells cannot synthesize proteins

What does the term thrombocytopoiesis mean?

platelet production

Platelets promote vessel repair by releasing ________.

platelet-derived growth factor

What is the term for the characteristic of white blood cells in which they are attracted to a specific chemical stimulus?

positive chemotaxis

In order to produce a massive amount of fibrin molecules, thrombin needs to be present. To ensure abundance of thrombin production, thrombin stimulates its own production by stimulating the formation of tissue factor and PF-3, which activates further platelet aggregation. This pattern of stimulation is known as a ____________________.

positive feedback loop

What is hematocrit?

The percentage of formed elements in whole blood.

What is the primary site of erythropoiesis in an adult?

Bone marrow

Which of the following is NOT a surface antigen that is used in determining blood type?

C

Which of the following affect almost every aspect of the clotting process?

Calcium ions and vitamin K

A decreased number of megakaryocytes would interfere with what process?

Clot formation

In which phase of hemostasis is fibrin deposited, creating a solid blood clot?

Coagulation phase

Which of the following is NOT a function of platelets? A. They initiate blood clotting. B. They patch damaged vessels. C. They reduce the size of a break in a vessel. D. They release chemicals to destroy bacteria

D. They release chemicals to destroy bacteria

Which of the following are not components of plasma?

Elastic fibers

In addition to water and proteins, what else make up plasma?

Electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes

Which component makes up the largest proportion of the formed elements?

Erythrocytes

What is the specific term for the production of red blood cells?

Erythropoiesis

Which of the following is a notable feature of leukemia?

Excessive numbers of white blood cells

In the process of hemostasis, what triggers the Extrinsic Pathway of the coagulation phase?

Factor III (Tissue Factor or TF)

Which of the plasma proteins functions in blood clotting?

Fibrinogen

What kind of tissue is blood?

Fluid connective tissue

Which category of plasma proteins includes antibodies?

Globulins

What type of molecules are the antigens found on our blood cells?

Glycoproteins and glycolipids

Which part of hemoglobin binds oxygen?

Heme

Which of the following is a substance released from basophils to prevent blood from clotting?

Heparin

Which plasma protein would you expect to be elevated if you were suffering from strep throat?

Immunoglobulins

Placing blood in a test tube initiates which pathway in the clotting process?

Intrinsic pathway

How does heparin prevent clot formation?

It accelerates the activation of antithrombin-III.

Because the concentration of dissolved gases differs between the plasma and the tissue fluid, __________.

O2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and CO2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction

Which of the following is/are not (a) formed element(s)?

Plasma

What is serum?

Plasma with the clotting factors removed

Proportionately, what is the largest component of the plasma, other than water?

Proteins

Where are red blood cells produced in an adult?

Red bone marrow

Even if blood is carefully collected into a tube that has not been treated with an anticoagulant, it will clot. Which part of hemostasis is triggered by the activation of clotting factor XII?

The intrinsic pathway

Red blood cells have a limited lifespan and then are phagocytized by macrophages in the liver, spleen and red bone marrow. What happens to the iron in the heme group of RBCs?

The iron will be either stored in the liver or transported back to the red bone marrow to be incorporated into new hemoglobin.

How is it that liver disorders can alter the composition and the functional properties of blood?

The liver is the primary source of plasma proteins.

The number of eosinophils increases dramatically during __________.

an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection

During RBC recycling, each heme unit is stripped of its iron and converted to __________.

biliverdin

What are the major components of the cardiovascular system?

blood, heart, and blood vessels

When clots are formed in deep veins (deep vein thrombosis), one of the dangers is that the clot can travel to the lungs. This condition is known as ___________________.

pulmonary embolism

The formed elements of the blood consist of __________.

red and white blood cells and platelets

A condition in which platelet counts are low is known as _________________.

thrombocytopenia

An abnormally low platelet count is called __________.

thrombocytopenia

One of the major substances that stimulates platelet formation is ________.

thrombopoietin

Bedridden patients, due to inactivity, may end up with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The treatment of choice is administration of ______ to dissolve any formed clots

tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)