Pharm 1 Final

A client enters the emergency clinic with the following symptoms: difficulty walking, pain in his toes, and aches in his feet. The nurse would anticipate giving which of the following medications to treat his acute gout episode? A. Colchicine. B. Allopurinol. C. Tylenol. D. Ibuprofen.

A. Colchicine.

The nurse is administering the combination medication hydrochlorothiazide and metoprolol to a client diagnosed with chronic hypertension. Which interventions should the nurse implement? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. Do not administer if the client's BP is less than 90/60 mmHg. B. Do not administer if the client's apical pulse is less than 60 bpm. C. Teach the client how to prevent orthostatic hypotension. D. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods. E. Monitor the client's oral intake and urinary output.

A. Do not administer if the client's BP is less than 90/60 mmHg. B. Do not administer if the client's apical pulse is less than 60 bpm. C. Teach the client how to prevent orthostatic hypotension. D. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods. E. Monitor the client's oral intake and urinary output.

The prescription, distribution, storage, and use of Schedule drugs are closely monitored by the: A. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA). B. Federal Drug Administration (FDA). C. Pharmaceutical companies. D. American DA.

A. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA).

A client who is experiencing acute asthma exacerbations after having a recent upper respiratory infection is prescribed a short-term beclomethasone inhaler. Which is the expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma? A. Have an anti-inflammatory effect. B. Promote bronchodilation. C. Prevent development of respiratory infections. D. Act as an expectorant.

A. Have an anti-inflammatory effect. They do not have a bronchodilation effect, act as an expectorant, or prevent infections.

Enzyme that metabolizes drugs in the liver as well as nutrients and other endogenous substances: A. Hepatic microsomal enzyme system (P450). B. Drug-protein complexes. C. Affinity. D. First-pass effect.

A. Hepatic microsomal enzyme system (P450).

The client with renal calculi was prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for uric acid stone calculi. Which medication teaching should the nurse discuss with the client? A. Inform the client to report chills, fever, muscle aches, and any skin rashes/blisters to the healthcare provider. B. Instruct the client to avoid driving or other activities that require alertness. C. Explain the importance of not eating breads, cereals, and fruits. D. Tell the client that the medication must be taken on an empty stomach.

A. Inform the client to report chills, fever, muscle aches, and any skin rashes/blisters to the healthcare provider.

The nurse is planning care for an immobile patient receiving morphine sulfate by means of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which intervention may be required because of a potential adverse effect of this drug? A. Insert a Foley catheter. B. Administer antidiarrheal agent. C. Administer a cough suppressant. D. Administer vitamin K.

A. Insert a Foley catheter.

Legal documentation of all pharmacotherapies received by the patient: A. Medication administration record (MAR). B. Medication reconciliation. C. Five rights. D. Loading dose.

A. Medication administration record (MAR).

The process of keeping track of a patient's medications as the patient's care proceeds from one health care provider to another: A. Medication reconciliation. B. Medication administration record (MAR). C. Five rights. D. Loading dose.

A. Medication reconciliation.

A patient with multiple partial-thickness burns is ordered tramadol as needed. The nurse assesses the effectiveness of this medication by monitoring the client's: A. Numeric pain rating. B. Oxygen saturation. C. Wound healing. D. Anxiety and restlessness.

A. Numeric pain rating.

The process of drug movement to achieve drug action. The four processes are absorption, distribution, metabolism (biotransformation), and excretion (elimination). A. Pharmacokinetics. B. Pharmacodynamics. C. Onset of action. D. Duration of action.

A. Pharmacokinetics.

The strength of a drug at a specified concentration or dose: A. Potency. B. Efficacy. C. Maintenance dose. D. Therapeutic dose.

A. Potency.

Naloxone (Narcan) is administered to a client with severe respiratory depression and suspected drug overdose. After 20 minutes, the client remains unresponsive. The most likely explanation for this is: A. The client did not use an opioid drug. B. The drug overdose is irreversible. C. The client is resistant to this drug. D. The dose of naloxone was inadequate.

A. The client did not use an opioid drug. If opioid antagonists (Naloxone) fail to reverse symptoms of respiratory depression quickly, the overdose was likely due to a non-opioid substance.

The nurse working in the postanesthesisa care unit (PACU) is recovering a male client after an exploratory laproscopic procedure and administers the prescribed morphine sulfate intravenously. Five minutes later the nurse assess the client's respiratory rate and it is 8 breaths per minute. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate admnistering? A. The prn naloxone (Narcan). B. Asking another nurse to come and assess the client. C. Re-assessing the client's respiratory status in 30 minutes. D. Administering the client's albuterol inhaler.

A. The prn naloxone (Narcan).

The half-life (t 1/2) of a drug is? A. The time it takes for one half of the drug concentration to be eliminated. B. The level of drug that results in serious adverse effects. C. Monitoring of drugs that have a low safety margin. D. Substances in bile that are reabsorbed and circulated back to the liver.

A. The time it takes for one half of the drug concentration to be eliminated.

The client diagnosed with congestive heart failure is prescribed the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor lisinopril. Which statement explains scientific rationale for administering this medication? A. ACE inhibitors increase the levels of angiotensin II in the blood vessels. B. ACE inhibitors block the intervention of the glomerulus filtration rate in the kidney. C. ACE inhibitors reduce the levels of angiotensin II, dilate arteries, and reduce blood volume, which reduces the workload of the heart. D. ACE inhibitors decrease the effects of bradykinin in the body.

ACE inhibitors reduce the levels of angiotensin II, dilate arteries, and reduce blood volume, which reduces the workload of the heart.

A client who was admitted for a pulmonary embolism requires emergency surgery. The client has been receiving intravenous heparin and has a current aPTT level of >150 seconds. What nursing intervention will the nurse anticipate as a priority before surgery? A. Administer protamine sulfate. B. Teach the client about the phenytoin. C. Administer vitamin K. D. Assess the INR before surgery.

Administer protamine sulfate

The nurse is interpreting a client's serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L prior to administering an ordered AM dose of lisinopril. Which action should the nurse take: A. Hold the dose of lisinopril. B. Call the laboratory to have repeat labs drawn. C. Administer the ordered dose of lisinopril. D. Call the healthcare provider to have the lisinopril changed to a different medication.

Administer the ordered dose of lisinopril.

The client who had a synthetic valve replacement a year ago is hospitalized with unstable angina. An IV heparin infusion was started. The healthcare provider is preparing the patient for discharge within a few days and also prescribes to start oral warfarin 5 mg at 7:00pm. Which is the nurse's best action? A. Administer the warfarin as prescribed. B. Hold warfarin until the heparin is discontinued. C. Call the healthcare provider to question starting the warfarin. D. Discontinue the heparin and then give warfarin.

Administer the warfarin as prescribed.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory work for a patient who is taking atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory value is most useful for monitoring this drug? A. C-reactive protein (CRP). B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). C. Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) and Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST). D. International normalized ratio (INR).

Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) and Aspartate aminotransferase (AST).

The nurse is preparing to administer a calcium channel blocker, loop diuretic, and a beta blocker to a client who is diagnosed with uncontrolled hypertension. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Administer the medications as prescribed. B. Contact the pharmacist to discuss the medications. C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. D. Assess the client's blood pressure and notify the healthcare provider if the BP is hypotensive.

Assess the client's blood pressure and notify the healthcare provider if the BP is hypotensive. (These medications all work in different parts of the body to help decrease the client's blood pressure. The nurse should realize the healthcare provider is having difficulty controlling the client's blood pressure and should monitor the client's blood pressure prior to administering.)

The client who had surgery for a hip fracture is complaining of severe pain 45 minutes after the nurse administered morphine sulfate intravenously. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Notify the health-care provider of the problem. B. Assess the client's affected leg for alignment and for any changes since surgery. C. Administer another dose of morphine. D. Turn on the television to distract the client.

B. Assess the client's affected leg for alignment and for any changes since surgery.

The client diagnosed with low back pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Tell the client that it is okay to get out of bed without assistance. B. Discuss with the healthcare provider to start the client on a stool softener. C. Inform the client to rise quickly from a supine position. D. Administer anticonvulsant medication around the clock.

B. Discuss with the healthcare provider to start the client on a stool softener.

The maximal response that can be produced from a particular drug: A. Potency. B. Efficacy. C. Maintenance dose. D. Therapeutic dose.

B. Efficacy.

Drugs delivered to the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, either orally (PO) or through nasogastric or gastrostomy tubes: A. Parenteral route. B. Enteral route. C. Rectal route. D. Intramuscular route.

B. Enteral route.

When reviewing the patient's medication regimen, the nurse understands that the interval of drug dosage is related to what? A. Bioavailability. B. Half-life (t 1/2). C. Therapeutic response. D. Maintenance dose.

B. Half-life (t 1/2)

When teaching the client who is receiving allopurinol, what should the nurse encourage the client to do? A. Take medication 2 hours before meals. B. Have routine eye exams every 6 months to 1 year. C. Eat more meat. D. Increase Vitamin C intake.

B. Have routine eye exams every 6 months to 1 year.

The client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed morphine sulfate. Which statement is the scientific rationale for prescribing this medication to a client with COPD? A. Morphine will depress the respiratory drive. B. Morphine causes mild dilation of the bronchi and improves breathing in clients who have COPD. C. Morphine causes bronchoconstriction and decreased sputum. D. Morphine is not addicting, so it can be given routinely intravenously.

B. Morphine causes mild dilation of the bronchi and improves breathing in clients who have COPD.

The nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which medication should the nurse question administering? A. Vasopressin (DDAVP) to a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. B. Morphine sulfate to a client diagnosed with urinary retention. C. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) to a client with type 2 diabetes. D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to a client with an allergic reaction.

B. Morphine sulfate to a client diagnosed with urinary retention.

The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with gout. The nurse instructs the client about allopurinol (Zyloprim). Which statement by the client indicates to the nurse the need for further instruction? A. "I should take the medication with large meals to decrease upset stomach." B. "It will be necessary for me to decrease my fluid intake." C. "This medication decreases the excretion of uric acid through the liver." D. "It will take at least 2 to 3 weeks for my gout symptoms to improve."

B. Needs more teaching. They should INCREASE fluid intake (>2L/day) to flush the uric acid, not decrease. This helps to prevent kidney stones o 2 to 3 weeks for serum uric acid levels to improve after allopurinol therapy is initiated. o Allopurinol should be TAKEN WITH MEALS or immediately after meals to decrease gastric irritation. o Allopurinol decreases the formation of uric acid by blocking the enzyme necessary for uric acid formation. Allopurinol is used to treat chronic gout and will decrease the size of tophi and prevents formation of new tophi.

The nurse is teaching a client about safe drug administration when using topical permethrin for the treatment of scabies. The nurse determines that instruction has been effective when the client states: A. "I need to sign a consent for this medication." B. "I should cover the area with a clean cloth when applying the medication." C. "I must promptly report any irritation, broken skin, erythema, rashes, or edema when using this lotion." D. "I need to rinse off the topical medication after it has been on my skin for a few days."

C. "I must promptly report any irritation, broken skin, erythema, rashes, or edema when using this lotion."

Mr. Gray calls the nurses' station and requests his prn break-through pain relief of fentanyl (Sublimaze) for his chronic lower back pain. Which intervention should the nurse perform prior to administering fentanyl to the client? A. Administer the client's prescribed pain medication. B. If visitors are present, wait until the visitors leave to administer the medication. C. Assess the client's perception of pain on a 1-10 pain scale. D. Check the MAR to see if there is an non-narcotic medication ordered.

C. Assess the client's perception of pain on a 1-10 pain scale. The first action is always to assess the pain.

Mechanism whereby drugs are absorbed, enter into the hepatic portal circulation, and are inactivated by the liver before they reach the general circulation: A. Bioavailability. B. Half-life (t 1/2). C. First-pass effect. D. Pro-drug.

C. First-pass effect.

A patient takes morphine sulfate 40 mg PO twice daily, for the management of chronic pain. Which intervention should be added to the plan of care to minimize the gastrointestinal adverse effects? A. Take an antacid with each dose. B. Take the medication on an empty stomach. C. Increase fluid and fiber in the diet. D. Eat foods high in lactobacilli.

C. Increase fluid and fiber in the diet.

Which information should the nurse teach the client who is prescribed a beclomethasone inhaler? A. Teach the client to check his or her forced expiratory volume daily. B. Instruct the client to use the inhaler on a as needed (PRN) basis. C. Encourage the client not to use a spacer when using the inhaler. D. Advise the client to gargle with water after each administration.

D. Advise the client to gargle with water after each administration.

The client should be aware of potential side effects of prostaglandins latanoprost (Xalatan) used in the treatment of glaucoma. The nurse should include which of the following in the teaching plan: A. Hypertension. B. Loss of eyelashes. C. Dilation of pupils. D. Brown pigmentation of the treated eye.

D. Brown pigmentation of the treated eye.

After a nurse provided instructions about timolol (Timoptic) to a client with a history of chronic heart disease, the client asks, "How can these eye drops affect my heart?" The nurse's best response includes which of the following information? A. This medication does not have any effects on the cardiac system. B. Clients are only at risk if the prescribed ophthalmic medication is pulmonary-selective. C. Clients are at risk if timolol is given at the same time as the oral medications taken for cardiac disease. D. If this ophthalmic medication is systemically absorbed, it can have the same systemic effects as other beta-blocking agents.

D. If this ophthalmic medication is systemically absorbed, it can have the same systemic effects as other beta-blocking agents.

The nurse helps a client establish goals to control asthma with medications. The nurse emphasizes that the preferred drugs for long-term "control" of asthma are: A. Antihistamines. B. Anticholinergics. C. Inhaled Beta-2 adrenergic agonist. D. Inhaled corticosteroids.

D. Inhaled corticosteroid, the drugs of choice for the prevention of asthmatic attacks and for the management of chronic asthma. Although symptoms will improve in the first 1 to 2 weeks of therapy, 4 to 8 weeks may be required for maximum benefit

A client with chronic pain reports to you, the charge nurse, that the previous nurses have not been responding to requests for pain medication. What is your initial action? A. Have a conference with the nurses responsible for the care of this client. B. Check the MARs and nurses' notes for the past several days. C. Ask the nurse educator to give an in-service about pain management. D. Perform a complete pain assessment and history on the client.

D. Perform a complete pain assessment and history on the client.

The postmenopausal client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) to help prevent osteoporosis. Which information should the nurse discuss with the client? A. Eat a meal prior to taking the medication. B. Drink half a glass of water when taking the medication. C. Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing the medication. D. Remain upright 30 minutes after taking the medication.

D. Remain upright 30 minutes after taking the medication.

The client is prescribed albuterol (Ventolin). Which behavior indicates that the teaching concerning the inhaler has been effective? A. The client holds his or her breath for 5 seconds and then exhales forcefully. B. The client connects the oxygen tubing to the inhaler before administering the dose. C. The client states the canister is full when it is lying on top of the water. D. The client exhales and then squeezes the canister through a spacer as the next inspiration occurs.

D. The client exhales and then squeezes the canister through a spacer as the next inspiration occurs.

Which client should the nurse administer the H1 receptor antagonist fexofenadine (Allegra)? A. The client diagnosed with an antibiotic allergy. B. The athlete who runs 2 miles every day. C. The client who smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. D. The client experiencing nasal congestion and sneezing.

D. The client experiencing nasal congestion and sneezing.

When a client asks how nicotinic acid (niacin) will help to treat high lipid levels, the nurse explains that it should: A. Increase triglyceride levels. B. Increase VLDL levels. C. Decrease HDL levels. D. Decrease LDL levels.

Decrease LDL levels. (The primary effect of nicotinic acid is to lower VLDL levels. Since LDL is synthesized from VLDL, the client experiences a decrease in LDL levels. It also decreases triglycerides, and increases HDL.)

The nurse would question an order for cholestyramine (Questran) if the client has which condition? A. Hepatic Disease. B. Glaucoma. C. Decreased Gastric Motility. D. Renal Disease

Decreased Gastric Motility. (Cholestyramine (Questran) binds with bile in the intestinal tract to form an insoluble complex. It can also bind to other substances and lead to intestinal obstruction)

A nurse is administering IV furosemide (Lasix) to a patient admitted with congestive heart failure. After the infusion, which of the following symptom is NOT an expected use of the drug? A. Decreased pain. B. Decreased blood pressure. C. Increased urinary output. D. Decreased edema.

Decreased pain.

The client with essential hypertension is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor). Which assessment data should make the nurse question administering this medication? A. The client's blood pressure is 112/90 mmHg. B. The client is complaining of a yellow haze. C. The client's apical pulse is 56 bpm. D. The client has an occipital headache

The client's apical pulse is 56 bpm.

What is the primary site of metabolism? A. Lung. B. Kidney. C. Liver. D. None of the above.

C. Liver.

The nurse is initiating client education about taking the medication metformin (Glucophage). Which of the following questions is most important to ask the client prior to beginning therapy on metformin? A. "Are you able to limit your fluid intake to avoid bloating?" B. "Do you have any known liver function abnormalities?" C. "Do you have a way to crush your pills prior to mixing them with food?" D. "Will you have difficulty eating only 3 main meals a day?"

"Do you have any known liver function abnormalities?"

The home health nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure who has been prescribed the cardiac glycoside digoxin (Lanoxin) and the loop diuretic furosemide (Lasix). Which statements by the client indicate the medications are effective? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. "I am able to walk next door now without being short of breath." B. "I keep my feet propped up as much as I can during the day." C. "I have not gained any weight since my last doctor's visit." D. "My blood pressure has been high over the past week." E. "I am staying on my diet, and I don't salt my foods anymore."

"I am able to walk next door now without being short of breath." "I have not gained any weight since my last doctor's visit."

The client with liver dysfunction experiences toxicity to a drug following administration of several doses. This adverse reaction may have been prevented if the nurse had followed which phase of the nursing process? A. Assessment of liver enzyme labs. B. Evaluation for toxic effects of the drug. D. Planning of when to draw liver enzyme labs. D. Implementation of the antidote of the drug.

A. Assessment of liver enzyme labs.

The nurse instructs the client in mixing and administering regular (Humulin R) and NPH (Humulin N) insulin. Which of the following statements indicates that the client needs additional instruction? A. "I draw up the regular (Humulin R) first." B. "I administer the insulin into the Subcutaneous tissue." C. "I shake the bottle of NPH (Humulin N) insulin vigorously before drawing up." D. "I store the insulin in a cool place."

"I shake the bottle of NPH (Humulin N) insulin vigorously before drawing up."

The client diagnosed with high blood pressure is ordered the ACE inhibitor, lisinopril. Which statements by the client indicate to the nurse the discharge teaching has been effective? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. "If if get leg cramps, I should increase my potassium supplements without needing to ask my healthcare provider." B. "I should get up slowly when I am getting out of my bed." C. "I should check and record my blood pressure once a day." D. "I can eat anything I want as long as I take my medication every day." E. "If I forget to take my medication, I will take two doses the next day."

"I should get up slowly when I am getting out of my bed." "I should check and record my blood pressure once a day."

Which statement indicates that the client needs ADDITIONAL instruction about antihypertensive treatment? A. "I will include rest periods during the day to help me tolerate the fatigue my medicine may cause." B. "I will change my position slowly to prevent feeling dizzy." C. "I will not mow my lawn until I see how this medication makes me feel." D. "I will check my blood pressure daily and take my medication when it is over 140/90."

"I will check my blood pressure daily and take my medication when it is over 140/90."

When a client complains of pain accompanying a peptic ulcer, why should an antacid be given? A. Antacids neutralize hydrochloric acid (HCl) and reduce pepsin activity. B. Antacids decrease GI motility. C. Aluminum Hydroxide is a systemic antacid. D. Antacids decrease gastric acid secretion and inhibit proton pumps.

A. Antacids neutralize hydrochloric acid (HCl) and reduce pepsin activity. C. Aluminum Hydroxide is a systemic antacid. (A is correct, C was given credit after the test)

A teaching plan for a patient who is taking insulin Lispro (Humalog) should include which of these instructions by the nurse? A. "Inject the insulin with your first bite of food or during your meal because it is very fast acting." B. "To achieve a tight glycemic control, this is the only type of insulin you'll need." C. "The duration of action for this insulin is about 8 to 10 hours, so you'll need a snack." D. "This insulin needs to be mixed with regular insulin to enhance the effects."

"Inject the insulin with your first bite of food or during your meal because it is very fast acting."

What is the best information for the nurse to provide to the client who is receiving spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) therapy? A. "Moderate doses of two different diuretics are more effective than a large dose of one." B. "This combination prevents dehydration and hypovolemia." C. "Using two drugs increases the osmolality of plasma and the glomerular filtration rate." D. "This combination promotes diuresis but decreases the risk of hypokalemia."

"This combination promotes diuresis but decreases the risk of hypokalemia."

The rate and extent to which the active ingredient is absorbed from a drug product and becomes available at the site of drug action to produce its effect: A. Bioavailability. B. Half-life (t 1/2). C. First-pass effect. D. Pro-drug.

A. Bioavailability.

A client is receiving morphine sulfate intravenously for acute pain and tells the nurse, "I get dizzy when I stand up." Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse? A. "This is an expected side effect of the drug, and you should use caution and move slowly when standing up." B. "Episodes of dizziness when moving are common symptoms of acute pain. C."You may be experiencing a toxic effect of the drug and I will notify the physician." D. "Dizziness is not related to the drug, but I will need to ask you a few more questions."

A. "This is an expected side effect of the drug, and you should use caution and move slowly when standing up."

The client with allergies is prescribed fexofenadine (Allegra). Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching concerning this medication? A. "I will not get as drowsy when I take this medication like I do when I take the first generation antihistamine." B. "I will have to taper off the medication when I quit taking them." C. "It is not uncommon to get a buffalo hump or moon face." D. "If I get any ringing in my ears, I should notify my healthcare provider."

A. "I will not get as drowsy when I take this medication like I do when I take the first generation antihistamine."

Which statement indicates the postmenopausal client with osteoporosis understands the medication teaching concerning alendronate (Fosamax)? A. "I take the medication with 6-8 ounces of tap water." B. "I may experience some heartburn when taking this medication." C. "I do not use sunscreen when working outside in my yard." D. "I drink orange juice when I take the medication at breakfast."

A. "I take the medication with 6-8 ounces of tap water."

An unexpected effect of the drug is known as a(n): A. Adverse effect. B. Toxic reaction. C. Allergic reaction. D. Drug-drug interaction

A. Adverse effect.

Timolol (Timoptic), beta-adrenergic agent, may be used to treat glaucoma. The nurse should teach the clients and family to: A. Monitor urine output. B. Monitor temperature. C. Monitor pulse and blood pressure. D. Monitor respiratory rate.

C. Monitor pulse and blood pressure.

What should the nurse include when teaching a client who is receiving insulin therapy? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. Carry a readily available supply of glucose. B. Wear a medic alert bracelet that explains that you have Diabetes Mellitus. C. Rotate subcutaneous injection sites. D. Recognize the signs of hypoglycemia (cold/clammy skin, mental confusion, irritability, slurred speech, sleepiness). E. Keep the insulin stored in the freezer.

A. Carry a readily available supply of glucose. B. Wear a medic alert bracelet that explains that you have Diabetes Mellitus. C. Rotate subcutaneous injection sites. D. Recognize the signs of hypoglycemia (cold/clammy skin, mental confusion, irritability, slurred speech, sleepiness).

A client is prescribed Colchicine. After taking three doses, the client complains of nausea, vomiting, and loose bowel stools. Which of the following should the client do? A. Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. B. Skip the next dose and then continue taking the medication the next day. C. Continue taking the medication as these symptoms will go away. D. Cut the next dose in half.

A. Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.

The nurse collects the following assessment data on the client with a history of hypertension and Type 2 diabetes: BP 124/80 mmHG; BMI 23; waist circumference 34 inches; serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL; serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L; LDL cholesterol 250 mg/dL; HDL cholesterol 25 mg/dL; and triglycerides 280 mg/dL. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate? A. Administer a thiazide diuretic medication. B. Administer a statin antilipidemic medication. C. Ordering a regular diet. D. Encouraging a high potassium diet.

Administer a statin antilipidemic medication.

The nurse is planning to administer omperazole (Prilosec). What is a primary intervention regarding the administration of this medication? A. Administer the medication at least 1 hour before the client's largest meal of the day. B. Administer every 6 hours around the clock. C. Give with a full glass of water at bedtime. D. Administer 30 minutes before meals and at bedtime once a week.

Administer the medication at least 1 hour before the client's largest meal of the day.

Colchicine is prescribed for a client with gout. The nurse reviews the client's record, knowing that this medication would be used in caution in which of the following medical condition? A. Amyloidosis. B. Scarlet Fever. C. Aplastic anemia. D. Behcet disease.

Aplastic anemia. Colchicine is contraindicated in patients with a known hypersensitivity to the drug, in those with serious gastrointestinal, renal, hepatic, or cardiac disorders, and in those with blood dyscrasias such as aplastic anemia.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) in the recent months. The nurse tells the client to visit which of the following providers while receiving treatment? A. Pulmonolgist. B. Dentist. C. Ophthalmologist. D. Allergist.

C. Ophthalmologist.

The nurse instructs a client with diarrhea on the antidiarrheal medication diphenoxylate with atropine ​(Lomotil). Which client statement indicates that teaching about this medication has been​ effective? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. "A dry mouth and rapid heartbeat are expected reactions to this medication." B. "I should not drink any alcohol when I am taking this medication." C. "I should not drive while taking this medication." D. "I am to take this medication for several weeks after my diarrhea has stopped." E. "If this medication does not work within 10 minutes, I am to take another dose."

B. "I should not drink any alcohol when I am taking this medication." C. "I should not drive while taking this medication."

Tremor and tachycardia in a COPD client could be a side effect of which of these drugs? A. Fexofenadine (Allegra). B. Albuterol. C. Beclomethasone. D. Morphine sulfate.

B. Albuterol.

A client is admitted to the hospital with an acute gout attack. The nurse expects that which medication will be ordered to treat acute gout? A. Sulfinpyrazone. B. Colchicine. C. Probenecid. D. Allopurinol.

B. Colchicine

Administration of drugs by routes other than enteral or topical: A. Enteral route. B. Parenteral route. C. Gastrostomy route. D. Nasogastric route.

B. Parenteral route.

A 25-year-old client taking hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) for rheumatoid arthritis reports difficulty seeing out of her left eye. Correct interpretation of this assessment finding indicates which of the following? A. Part of the disease process. B. Possible retinal degeneration. C. Development of a cataract. D. An incidental finding.

B. Possible retinal degeneration. Difficulty seeing out of one eye, when evaluated in conjunction with the client's medication therapy regimen, leads to the suspicion of possible retinal degeneration.

The client diagnosed with Cushing's disease is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) to prevent osteoporosis. Which information should the clinic nurse teach the client? A. Take the medication with an antacid to alleviate gastric disturbances. B. Take the medication at least 30 minutes before breakfast. C. Take the medication with a few sips of water. D. Take the medication just before going to bed.

B. Take the medication at least 30 minutes before breakfast.

A patient is scheduled to start taking insulin glargine (Lantus). On the care plan a nurse should include which of these outcomes related to the therapeutic effects of the medication? A. Mealtime coverage of blood glucose. B. Less frequent blood glucose monitoring. C. Blood glucose control for 24 hours. D. Peak effect achieved in 2 to 4 hours.

Blood glucose control for 24 hours.

A nurse is teaching a client who has Type 2 Diabetes and is taking a beta adrenergic blocker 50 mg/day. The teaching should include the importance of monitoring which levels? A. Blood glucose. B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). C. Arterial blood gases. D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Blood glucose.

After listening to the nurse explain the use of the PO version of tretinoin (isotretinoin - Accutane) to a 19 year-old female client, the client demonstrates understanding of the most important point by making which statement at the end of the teaching session: A. "Apply thick layer of isotretinoin twice a day." B. "Increase exposure to sun for added benefit." C. "Have a pregnancy test prior to beginning therapy and use two forms of contraception." D. "Keep lips moist and lubricated to prevent inflammation."

C. "Have a pregnancy test prior to beginning therapy and use two forms of contraception."

The client with renal calculi (stones) was prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for uric acid stone calculi. Which statement warrants intervention by the nurse? A. "I had to take two Tylenol because of my headache." B. "I do not drink wine or any type of alcoholic drinks." C. "I drink at least one glass of water per day." D. "My joints ache, but I make sure I avoid taking aspirin when I have renal stones."

C. "I drink at least one glass of water per day."

The client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed hydroxychloroquine sulfate (Plaquenil). Which statement indicates the client needs more teaching concerning the medication? A. "I should not drink alcohol while taking this drug." B. "It is okay for me to take this medication with milk." C. "It is common to have a loss of balance and experience frequent falls while taking Plaquenil." D. "I will get my eyes checked every 6 months."

C. "It is common to have a loss of balance and experience frequent falls while taking Plaquenil."

Which agent below is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction? A. Hydrocodone. B. Pentazocine. C. Fentanyl. D. Nalmefene.

C. Fentanyl.

Most important organ for unchanged drug/drug metabolite elimination. A. Liver. B. Lung. C. Kidney. D. None of the above.

C. Kidney.

The nurse administers morphine sulfate 4 mg intravenously to a client for the treatment of severe back pain. Which of the following assessments requires immediate nursing interventions? A. Pain is unrelieved in 15 minutes. B. The client is drowsy. C. Respiratory rate 7 breaths per minute. D. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg

C. Respiratory rate 7 breaths per minute.

The client with an acute exacerbation of asthma is being treated with albuterol and beclomethasone. Which assessment data indicates the medication is effective? A. The client has bilateral wheezing. B. The client has increased shortness of breath. C. The client's lungs are clear. D. The client has peripheral clubbing.

C. The client's lungs are clear.

The nurse is preparing to administer spironolactone (Aldactone). Which priority intervention should the nurse implement? A. Give the medication with food. B. Encourage consumption of potassium-rich foods. C. Check the client's potassium level. D. Monitor the client's bowel movements.

Check the client's potassium level. (When preparing to administer a potassium-sparing diuretic, the nurse should check the potassium level because both hyperkalemia and hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias that are life threatening. Therefore, checking potassium level is the priority intervention.)

A patient newly diagnosed with Type I Diabetes Mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The patient's orders include: 1200 calorie ADA diet, 15 units Isophane NPH insulin before breakfast, and to check blood sugars four times a day. When the nurse visits the patient at 5 pm, the nurse observes the patient's blood sugar log and notices the recent recorded result is 40 mg/dL. The nurse would anticipate the patient to be: A. Lethargic with hot dry skin and rapid deep respirations. B. Short of breath, distended neck veins, and bounding pulse of 96 beats/minute. C. Confused with cool, clammy skin and HR of 110. D. Alert and cooperative with BP of 130/80 mmHg and RR 12 breaths/minute.

Confused with cool, clammy skin and HR of 110.

Lisinopril has been ordered for a client. The nurse teaches the client that this medication can have which side effect that the client should report? A. Nausea and vomiting. B. Constant, dry cough. C. Upset stomach. D. Constipation.

Constant, dry cough.

The 28 year-old female client with chronic reactive airway disease is taking zafirlukast (Accolate). Which statement by the client indicates the client teaching is effective? A. "I will not drink coffee, tea, or any type of cola drinks," B. "I will take this medication at the beginning of an asthma attack." C. "It is all right to take this medication if I am trying to get pregnant." D. "I should not decrease the dose or suddenly stop taking the medication."

D. "I should not decrease the dose or suddenly stop taking the medication."

A mother tells the nurse that head lice has been discovered in her child's hair. What is the best instruction by the nurse? A. "Purchase a lotion and apply it to your child's scalp. Leave it on for 12 hours." B. "Purchase a lotion and apply it to your child's head three times a day for 2 weeks." C. "Purchase a lotion, apply it to your child's head and body, and leave it on for 24 hours." D. "Purchase the over-the-counter permethrin (Nix) shampoo and apply it to your child's rinsed scalp and leave the shampoo on the scalp for 10 minutes prior to rinsing."

D. "Purchase the over-the-counter permethrin (Nix) shampoo and apply it to your child's rinsed scalp and leave the shampoo on the scalp for 10 minutes prior to rinsing."

Miss Batten is prescribed topical retinoids - tretinoin for her moderate acne. She returns to the office 1 week later, disappointed because she does not see improvement in her condition. You explain to the client that improvement may not be seen for up to how many weeks? A. 1 week. B. 2-3 days. C. 5 days. D. 2-8 weeks.

D. 2-8 weeks.

Which of the following is the part of the Nursing Process that has the nurse assess the effectiveness of the medication? A. Assessment. B. Diagnosis. C. Planning. D. Evaluation.

D. Evaluation.

The nurse is teaching a client about the beta2-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil) prescribed for exercise induced asthma. Which instruction would reduce the onset of a bronchospasm during exercise? A. After taking the medication, drink a cup of hot tea. B. Inhale a dose of the medication immediately after physical activity. C. Clean the mouthpiece at least once a week. D. Inhale a dose of the medication 15 to 30 minutes prior to physical activity.

D. Inhaling a dose of the beta2-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil) 15-30 minutes prior to physical activity will reduce onset of exervise-induced bronchospasm

Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is prescribed for a client for the treatment of gout. The nurse is providing medication instructions and the nurse teaches the client: A. Take the medication on an empty stomach. B. A rash is a normal side effect of the medication. C. The effect of the medication will happen immediately. D. Limit the use of Vitamin C.

D. Limit the use of Vitamin C. Larger Vit C increases chances of kidney stones

The client being discharged after sustaining an acute myocardial infarction is prescribed the ACE inhibitor lisinopril (Zestril). Which instruction should the nurse include when teaching about this medication? A. Discuss the need to rise slowly from lying to a standing position. B. Instruct the client to monitor their blood pressure weekly. C. Encourage the client to take the medication on an empty stomach. D. Teach the client to take the medication at night only.

Discuss the need to rise slowly from lying to a standing position.

The nurse should caution the client with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus who is taking glyburide, a sulfonylurea, that alcoholic beverages should be avoided while taking these drugs because they can cause which of the following? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Disulfiram (Antabuse) - like symptoms

Disulfiram (Antabuse) - like symptoms (flushing, throbbing in head and neck, throbbing headache, respiratory difficulty, nausea, copious vomiting, sweating, thirst, chest pain, palpitation, dyspnea, hyperventilation, tachycardia, hypotension, syncope, marked uneasiness, weakness, vertigo, blurred vision, and confusion. In severe reactions there may be respiratory depression, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, myocardial infarction, acute congestive heart failure, unconsciousness, convulsions, and death)

A client is taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to control her hypertension. Her serum potassium level is elevated at 6 mEq/L. For this client, the nurse's priority should be to assess her: A. Neuromuscular function. B. EKG (12 lead cardiac rhythm test) C. Respiratory rate. D. Bowel sounds.

EKG (12 lead cardiac rhythm test)

The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client prescribed the thiazide diuretic hydrocholorthiazide (Diuril). Which instruction should the nurse include? A. Try to sleep in an upright position. B. Eat bananas or oranges regularly. C. Drink at least 8-10 glasses of water a day. D. Weigh monthly and report the weight to the healthcare provider.

Eat bananas or oranges regularly. (Loop and thiazide diuretics cause the body to excrete potassium in the urine. The client should attempt to replace the potassium by eating potassium-rich foods such as bananas and orange juice)

A client is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg and furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg. When the nurse enters the room, the client states, "There are yellow halos around the lights." Which action will the nurse take? A. Evaluate digoxin levels. B. Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour. C. Administer potassium. D. Withhold the furosemide.

Evaluate digoxin levels.

The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom? A. Diarrhea. B. Constipation. C. Flatulence. D. Heartburn.

Heartburn.

The type 1 diabetic patient has an insulin order for Isophane NPH insulin, 35 Units, to be given at 0700 AM. The patient is also NPO for a surgical procedure that will not be performed until 1000 AM. The nurse should: A. Give the insulin as ordered. B. Inform the charge nurse. C. Hold the insulin and notify the healthcare provider for a pre-surgery insulin order. D. Give the insulin with a small snack.

Hold the insulin and notify the healthcare provider for a pre-surgery insulin order.

A client is taking hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg/day and digoxin 0.25 mg/day. What type of electrolyte imbalance does the nurse expect to occur? A. Hypocalcemia. B. Hypokalemia. C. Hypermagnesemia. D. Hyperkalemia.

Hypokalemia.

The client's serum digoxin level is 3.0 ng/mL. What does the nurse know about this serum digoxin level? A. It is within the normal range. B. It is in the decreased (low) range. C. It is in the low average range. D. It is in the elevated (high) range.

It is in the elevated (high) range.

Which of the following adverse effects is specific to the biguanide diabetic drug metformin (Glucophage) therapy? A. Lactic acidosis. B. GI distress. C. Somulence. D. Hypoglycemia.

Lactic acidosis.

The nurse collects the following information on the postoperative client: serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L; weight gain of 3 lbs in 24 hours; crackles in bilateral lung bases; BP 154/70 mm/Hg; 1+ pitting edema at the ankles. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering? A. Loop diuretic. B. Beta adrenergic blocker. C. Calcium channel blocker. D. Ace inhibitor.

Loop diuretic.

The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client? A. Paralytic ileus. B. Urinary retention. C. Nausea and vomiting. D. Incisional pain.

Nausea and vomiting.

The healthcare provider prescribed lisinopril for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which instruction should the nurse provide? A. A dry cough is expected early in the morning on arising. B. Eat a banana or drink orange juice at least twice a day. C. The symptoms of congestive heart failure improve rapidly. D. Notify the healthcare provider or go to the emergency room if you develop localized edematous oral mucosa membranes.

Notify the healthcare provider or go to the emergency room if you develop localized edematous oral mucosa membranes.

The nurse receives the patient's lab values throughout warfarin drug therapy. The expected therapeutic level is: A. aPTT one to two times the patient's baseline level. B. PT/INR one and a half to two times the control value. C. PT one to two times the patient's last result. D. aPTT of three to four times the normal control value.

PT/INR one and a half to two times the control value. (PT/INR is the coagulation study that monitors oral anticoagulant use, such as warfarin. As a result of one and half to two times the control value indicates adequate anticoagulation. aPTT is the coagulation study that monitors heparin use. PT level of one would indicate a less than therapeutic level of anticoagulation.)

A nurse is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus for signs of complications. Which of the following, if exhibited in the client, would indicate hyperglycemia and warrant physician notification? A. Diaphoresis B. Hypertension C. Increase pulse rate D. Polyuria

Polyuria.

A patient who is newly diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus asks the nurse, "How does insulin normally work in my body?" The nurse explains that normal insulin has which of these actions in the body? A. Promotes synthesis of amino acids into glucose. B. Stimulates the liver to convert glycogen to glucose. C. Stimulates the pancreas to reabsorb glucose. D. Promotes the passage of glucose into the cells for energy.

Promotes the passage of glucose into the cells for energy.

Nifedipine (Procardia) 30 mg PO is prescribed for a client. The nurse teaches the client about possible side effects of this medication and instructs the client to immediately report: A. Pulmonary edema. B. Dizziness when changing positions. C. Blood pressure 110/70-114/78 for two successive readings. D. Weight loss of two pounds per week.

Pulmonary edema (shortness of breath, orthopnea). (Nifedipine (Procardia) is a calcium channel blocker. Calcium channel blockers decrease myocardial contractility, increasing the risk of heart failure. Dizziness can occur, especially when the medication is started. The BP is a desired reading.)

The nurse is assessing the client for possible evidence of digitalis toxicity. The nurse acknowledges that which is included in the signs and symptoms for digitalis toxicity? A. Pulse (heart) rate of 98 beats/min. B. Pulse of 72 with an irregular rate. C. Pulse below 60 beats/min and irregular rate. D. Pulse greater than 60 beats/min and irregular rate.

Pulse below 60 beats/min and irregular rate.

A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medication is a H2-receptor antagonists? A. Omeprazole (Prilosec). B. Iansoprazole (Prevacid). C. Esomeprazole (Nexium). D. Ranitidine (Zantac).

Ranitidine (Zantac).

A client is prescribed a non-selective beta adrenergic blocker who has a history of asthma. Which nursing assessment is a priority for this client? A. Assessment of blood glucose levels. B. Respiratory assessment. C. Assessment for potential tachycardia. D. Orthostatic blood pressure assessment.

Respiratory assessment.

A client is taking ranitidine (Zantac), a H2 antagonist. The nurse who is teaching the client about this drug should include which information? A. Drug-induced impotence is irreversible. B. Foods high in vitamin E should always be increased in the client's diet. C. Smoking should be avoided while taking this drug. D. The drug must always be administered with magnesium hydroxide.

Smoking should be avoided while taking this drug.

The nurse is reviewing a medication history on a client taking an ACE inhibitor. The nurse plans to contact the healthcare provider if the client is also taking which medication? A. Furosemide (Lasix). B. Docusate sodium (Colace). C. Spironolactone (Aldactone). D. Morphine sulfate.

Spironolactone (Aldactone). (ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia; therefore, it is imperative to monitor a client who is also prescribed a potassium-sparing diuretic.)

The health care provider is planning to discontinue a client's beta blocker. What instruction should the nurse give the client regarding the beta blocker? A. The beta blocker should be abruptly stopped when another cardiac drug is prescribed. B. The beta blocker should NOT be abruptly stopped; the dose should be tapered down. C. The beta blocker dose should be maintained while taking another antianginal drug. D. Half the beta blocker dose should be taken for the next several weeks.

The beta blocker should NOT be abruptly stopped; the dose should be tapered down.

When a newly diagnosed Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus patient asks the nurse why she has to take a pill instead of insulin, you reply that in Type 2 Diabetes, the body makes insulin but: A. The cells become resistant to the action of insulin. Pills are given to increase the sensitivity. B. Overweight and underactive people simply cannot use the insulin produced. C. Sometimes the autoimmune system works against the action of insulin. D. Metabolism is slowed in some people so they have to take the pill to speed up their metabolism.

The cells become resistant to the action of insulin. Pills are given to increase the sensitivity.

The nurse is administering 9:00 AM medications to the following clients. Which client should the nurse question administering the medication? A. The client receiving a nitroglycerin patch who has a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg. B. The client receiving a calcium channel blocker who drank a glass of grapefruit juice. C. The client receiving an antiplatelet medication who has a platelet count of 150,000. D. The client receiving a beta blocker who has an apical pulse of 77 bpm.

The client receiving a calcium channel blocker who drank a glass of grapefruit juice.

The client diagnosed with arterial hypertension is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which data indicates the medication is effective? A. The client reports occasional light-headedness and dizziness. B. The client's 8-hour intake is 1800mL and the output is 2300mL. C. The client has had a weight loss of 1.3 kg in 7 days. D. The client's blood pressure went from 144/88 mmHg to 154/96 mmHg.

The client's 8-hour intake is 1800mL and the output is 2300mL.

The client diagnosed with congestive heart failure is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which data indicates the medication is effective? A. The client's radial pulse rate is regular. B. The client's potassium level is 5.3 mEq/L. C. The client's blood pressure is 110/68 mmHg. D. The client's lungs are clear bilaterally.

The client's lungs are clear bilaterally. (Signs and symptoms of heart failure are crackles in the lungs, jugular vein distention, and pitting edema. Therefore, if the client has clear lung sounds, the nurse can assume the medication is effective)

The client taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a serum digoxin level of 4.2 ng/mL. Which medication should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider prescribing? A. The loop diuretic furosemide (Lasix). B. The digitalis binder Fab antibody fragments (Digibind). C. The cardiac glycoside digoxin (Lanoxin). D. The healthcare provider will not prescribe any medications.

The digitalis binder Fab antibody fragments (Digibind).

The nurse is preparing to administer the following medications. Which medication should the nurse question administering? A. The loop diuretic furosemide (Lasix) to the client with a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. B. The calcium channel blocker diltiazem to the client with a glucose level of 280 mg/dL. C. The alpha blocker prazosin to the client with a serum sodium level of 137 mEq/L. D. The vasodilator hydralazine to the client with a blood pressure of 168/94 mmHg.

The loop diuretic furosemide (Lasix) to the client with a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. (The serum potassium level is low (normal is 3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L). Therefore, because a loop diuretic will cause further potassium loss, the nurse should question administering this medication and obtain a potassium supplement for the client.)

A patient's wife asks the nurse why her husband did not receive the clot busting medication alteplase (tPA) she has been reading about. Her husband is diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke. How should the nurse respond? A. He didn't arrive within the time frame for that therapy. B. You should discuss the treatment of your husband with your doctor. C. Not everyone is eligible for this drug. Has he had surgery lately? D. The medication you are talking about dissolves clots and could cause more bleeding in your husband's head.

The medication you are talking about dissolves clots and could cause more bleeding in your husband's head.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client regarding how to mix Humulin Regular insulin and IsophaneNPH insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching? A. Rolls the vial of Isophane NPH between the palms of the client's hands. B. Withdraws the Isophane NPH insulin first. C. Withdraws the Humulin Regular insulin first. D. Injects an amount of air that is equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial.

Withdraws the Isophane NPH insulin first.

Before administering digoxin orally, the nurse determines that the client's serum digoxin level is 2.6 ng/mL. Which actions should be taken by the nurse? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Notify the healthcare provider of the laboratory results. B. Administer the oral dose as prescribed. C. Withhold the prescribed dose of digoxin. D. Notify the healthcare provider to have the medication changed to an intravenous route.

Withhold the prescribed dose of digoxin. Notify the healthcare provider of the laboratory results.

The newly admitted client with uncontrolled Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is scheduled for a CT scan of the abdomen with IV contrast dye. The client has been prescribed metformin (Glucophage) and Humulin NPH insulin 24 units at 7:00am and 4:00pm. Which instruction should the nurse discuss with the client? A. It is okay to take your metformin (Glucophage) medication as prescribed because it will not affect the CT. B. Your metformin (Glucophage) will be on hold before and after the procedure until the healthcare provider approves to restart it. C. You will receive half the dose of the morning Humulin NPH insulin on the day of the test. D. It is okay to administer the Humulin NPH insulin the morning of the test.

Your metformin (Glucophage) will be on hold before and after the procedure until the healthcare provider approves to restart it.