Pharm 3 review questions from book

To maximize the prevention of an incisional infection, when will the nurse administer the prophylactic antibiotic therapy prescribed for a surgical client?

1 hour prior to the first planned skin incision

A client has been diagnosed with an infected postoperative wound, and cultures reveal methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The client is currently receiving intravenous cefarolin because in vitro testing indicates susceptibility. When considering the effectiveness of this client's treatment, what is the nurse's best action?

Administer the medication as ordered and monitor for expected outcomes

The nurse will maximize the efficacy of gentamicin by implementing which interventions?

Administering the medication once daily

A client being treated with an oral penicillin should be encouraged to administer the medication on which schedule to best achieve a therapeutic effect? Select all that apply.

At regular intervals and around the clock

A client, receiving the first dose of IV ampicillin, asks the nurse to evaluate a rash on his or her torso. What should be the nurse's initial response to the client's rash?

Attempt to differentiate a hypersensitivity reaction from a nonallergic ampicillin rash

A client, being treated for cellulitis with a cephalosporin, asks what the essential difference is between generations of this medication. The nurse should respond to the client's question based on what fact?

Each successive generation is more effective against gram negative microorganisms

Infections associated with which systems are likely to be treated with ciprofloxacin therapy? Select all that apply

Genitourinary, integumentary, respiratory, gastrointestinal NOT usually used in CNS infections

When discussing nephrotoxicity with an older adults client prescribed gentamicin, the nurse should include what statements?

If nephrotoxicity occurs, it is usually reversible if the drug is stopped

The nurse is justified in suspecting that a client who recently completed a course of ceftaroline may have been treated for what health problem?

MRSA infection

The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug when an older adult is diagnosed with community acquired pneumonia?

Moxifloxacin

Cultures reveal methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus in a client's postoperative wound. What medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client? Select all that apply. vibramycin oxacillin dicloxacillin ampicillin nafcillin

Nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin Penicillinase-resistant (antistaphylococcal) PCNs include these 3 drugs; so they are PCN drugs of choice for MRSA. They are specifically formulated to resist bacterial ability to produce the penicillinases that can inactive other drugs of the class.

A client with a complex medical history is scheduled to begin treatment with an IV cephalosporin. After the initiation of the therapy the nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effects of intravenous cephalosporin therapy? Select all that apply.

Nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea

What route of administration is most commonly used for the administration of ciprofloxacin when prescribed to an older adult?

Oral (PO)

Gentamicin therapy is indicated in the treatment of what medical diagnosis?

Osteomyelitis

When administering aminoglycosides, the nurse should focus assessments on what adverse reactions? Select all that apply.

Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

A client diagnosed with streptococcal pharyngitis should be educated concerning which drug? Select all that apply.

Penicillin V and Penicillin G These are drugs of choice for streptococcal pharyngitis.

What event triggers the development of a superinfection?

Proliferation of antibiotic-resistant microorganisms

Aminoglycosides are used in the treatment of infections caused by what *gram-negative* microorganisms? Select all that apply. S. pneumoniae Klebsiella S. aureus E. coli Pseudomonas (aeruginosa)

Pseudomonas, E. coli, Klebsiella other gram negs include Proteus, Enterobacter, Serratia

What medical diagnosis is often treated with sulfasalazine therapy? Select all that apply.

Rheumatoid arthritis, ulcerative colitis

Your client is a teenager taking tetracycline for acne. A client asks how tetracycline works on acne. What is the nurse's best response?

Tetracycline interferes with the growth of the bacteria causing pimples

Successful treatment with bacteriostatic antibiotics depends upon what factor? Select all that apply

The ability of the host's immune system to eliminate the inhibited bacteria. Providing an adequate duration of appropriate drug therapy.

How will a client's diagnosis of liver cirrhosis affect the potential use of appropriate ampicillin therapy to treat an infected pressure ulcer?

The client can safely be treated with ampicillin

What assessment data would confirm that a client is demonstrating the presence of effective major defense mechanisms? Select all that apply a ) an elevated temperature b) redness and heat at the site of a cut c) intact skin and mucous membranes d) an increased platelet cell e) an elevated white blood cell count

a ) an elevated temperature b) redness and heat at the site of a cut c) intact skin and mucous membranes e) an elevated white blood cell count

What assessment question should the nurse ask before administering linezolid to a client? a) "Are you taking any drugs for depression right now?" b) "Do you take iron supplements on a regular basis?" c) "Have you ever had your bone density tested?" d) "Do you suffer from heartburn or acid reflux?"

a) "Are you taking any drugs for depression right now?" The FDA has issued a black box warning stating that linezolid should not be administered to clients who are currently taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, or monoamine oxidase inhibitors. It is thought that linezolid inhibits the action of monoamine oxidase A, an enzyme responsible for breaking down serotonin in the brain. Thus, high levels of serotonin build up in the brain, causing toxicity.

A sputum sample of a postsurgical client with coarse crackles audible in his or her lungs has been sent for culture and sensitivity testing. What response should the nurse provide when asked why the sample needed to be analyzed? a) "It will identify what drug will best kill this microorganism." b) "It will help us to stop the infection from spreading to others." c) "It will identity what microorganism is causing your infection." d) "It will help in determining where the microorganism came from."

a) "It will identify what drug will best kill this microorganism." Once a specific microorganism is identified by laboratory culture, it is important to determine susceptibility, which is the vulnerability of the bacteria to the effects of an antibiotic.

How long should an infusion of vancomycin is programmed to run to minimize the client's risk of developing symptoms associated with excessive histamine release? a) 1 to 2 hours b) 30 minutes c) 3 to 4 hours d) 2 to 4 hours

a) 1 to 2 hours For systemic infections, vancomycin is given IV and reaches therapeutic plasma levels within 1 hour after infusion. It is very important to give IV infusions slowly, over 1 to 2 hours, to avoid an adverse reaction characterized by hypotension, flushing, and skin rash. This reaction, sometimes called "red man syndrome," is attributed to histamine release.

What situation is an indication for combination antimicrobial drug therapy? Select all that apply.

a) The infection is considered nosocomial in its nature. b) The likely emergence of drug-resistant organisms if a single drug is used. c) The infection is caused by several different organisms e) A fever is present in a client whose immune system is suppressed.

What antibiotic is contraindicated for the treatment of intermittent colitis? a) clindamycin b) doxycycline c) erythromycin d) telithromycin

a) clindamycin The FDA has issued a black box warning for clindamycin reporting the development of severe colitis with its use that can be life threatening. None of the other antibiotics have that associated risk.

A client reports having had a "bad reaction" the last time receiving penicillin. Prior to scheduled dental procedure, the client is likely to be prescribed what drug? a) erythromycin b) vancomycin c) clindamycin d) metronidazole

a) erythromycin Prophylactically, erythromycin is administered to prevent alpha- hemolytic streptococcal endocarditis before dental or other procedures in clients who have valvular heart disease and are allergic to penicillin.

What is the expected outcome when phenylephrine is administered? Select all that apply. a) increased diastolic blood pressure b) decreased renal perfusion c) increased systolic blood pressure d) decreased peripheral vascular resistance e) increased cardiac output

a) increased diastolic blood pressure b) decreased renal perfusion c) increased systolic blood pressure Phenylephrine is a synthetic adrenergic drug that stimulates alpha- adrenergic receptors to produce vasoconstriction. As a result, it constricts arterioles and raises systolic and diastolic blood pressures. Vasoconstriction decreases cardiac output and renal perfusion and increases peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure

What medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for a client diagnosed with trichomoniasis? a) metronidazole b) rifaximin c) penicillin d) clindamycin

a) metronidazole Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria, including gram negative bacilli such as Bacteroides, gram-positive bacilli such as Clostridia, and some gram-positive cocci. It is also effective against protozoa that cause amebiasis, giardiasis, and trichomoniasis.

What second-line vasopressor is likely to be prescribed when norepinephrine proves ineffective at treating hypotension? Select all that apply. a) vasopressin b ) phenylephrine c) phentolamine d) epinephrine e) dopamine

a) vasopressin b) phenylephrine d) epinephrine If hypotension persists despite maximal doses of norepinephrine (or dopamine), second-line vasopressors are epinephrine, phenylephrine and vasopressin.

Successful treatment with bacteriostatic antibiotics depends (extra info)

ability of the host's immune system to eliminate the inhibited bacteria and an adequate duration of drug therapy. Stopping an antibiotic prematurely can result in rapid resumption of bacterial growth. Minimum, rather than maximum, doses are used.

What response should the nurse provide to explain to a parent why chloramphenicol was likely not the drug of choice for the treatment of their child diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis? a) "Chloramphenicol is never used to treat this disease." b) "Chloramphenicol isn't used unless there is no adequate substitute drug available." c) "Chloramphenicol is rarely used to treat infections in children." d) "Chloramphenicol is not an antibiotic."

b) "Chloramphenicol isn't used unless there is no adequate substitute drug available." Chloramphenicol is rarely used now to treat infections because of the effectiveness and low toxicity of alternative drugs. It is used in serious infections for which no adequate substitute drug is available. This drug is a broad-spectrum, bacteriostatic antibiotic.

What information about antibiotic therapy should the nurse should include in a client's medication education?

b) Maintenance of normal bacterial flora is essential to health during the therapy.

How will a client's diagnosis of liver cirrhosis affect the potential use of appropriate ampicillin therapy to treat an infected pressure ulcer? a) The frequency of the doses is needed to reduce the risk of hepatotoxicity. b) The client can safely be treated with ampiciin. c) Cephalosporin rather than ampicillin should be prescribed. d) The client should be treated with approximately half of the normal dose of ampicillin

b) The client can safely be treated with ampicillin Ampicillin can be used in clients experiencing hepatic impairment, as can almost al the penicillins. No specific dosing requires are needed.

What assessment finding may be attributable to an adverse effect of erythromycin? a) The client's systolic blood pressure is approximately 20 mm Hg below the norm. b) The client is uncharacteristically euphoric c) The client slept poorly due to a dry cough d) The client was incontinent of urine during the night.

b) The client is uncharacteristically euphoric. It is important to assess the client's psychosocial responses that are adverse effects of erythromycin, such as crying, laughing, and thought processes.

An acutely ill client requires the administration of intravenous (IV) epinephrine. How does the fact that the client also takes propranolol affect dosing? a) The epinephrine should be administered in only a small amount of IV fluid b) The client may require a higher dose of epinephrine. c) The use of epinephrine is contraindicated. d) The use of propranolol does not influence the use of epinephrine.

b) The client may require a higher dose of epinephrine. Victims of anaphylaxis who have been taking beta-adrenergic blocking drugs (e.g., propranolol) do not respond as readily to epinephrine as those not taking beta-blockers. Larger doses of epinephrine and large amounts of IV fluids may be required

When discussing viruses with a client, the nurse should include what information?

b) Viruses are often described by the disorders and symptoms they produce. Viruses are intracellular parasites that survive only in living tissues. They are officially classified according to their structure but are more commonly described according to origin and the disorders or symptoms they produce. They are treated differently from bacteria. Many viral illnesses are serious and/or chronic.

When discussing viruses with a client, the nurse should include what information? a) Viral infections are seldom serious because of their self-limiting nature. b) Viruses are often described by the disorders and symptoms they produce. c) Viruses and bacterial infections are generally treated similarly. d) Viruses have their origin in an inflammatory process that causes cellular mutation.

b) Viruses are often described by the disorders and symptoms they produce. Viruses are intracellular parasites that survive only in living tissues. They are officially classified according to their structure but are more commonly described according to origin and the disorders or symptoms they produce. They are treated differently from bacteria. Many viral illnesses are serious and/or chronic.

What medication could be prescribed orally to treat a sinus infection in a client needing an abbreviated therapy plan? a) clarithromycin b) azithromycin c) tetracycline d) erythromycin

b) azithromycin For acute bacterial sinusitis, azithromycin is approved for an abbreviated 3-day treatment duration. None of the other options are approved for such treatment.

Adrenergic drugs mimic the effects of stimulating what part of the nervous system? a) parasympathetic b) sympathetic c) central d) autonomic

b) sympathetic

When administering vancomycin intravenous (IV), why should the nurse dilute the medication into 0.9 % NaCl ? a) to prevent a decrease in serum levels of the drug b) to minimize the adverse reactions related to histamine release c) to manage the pain at the IV insertion site d) to minimize an allergic reaction to vancomycin

b) to minimize the adverse reactions related to histamine release It is very important to give IV vancomycin infusions slowly, over 1 to 2 hours, to avoid an adverse is attributed to histamine release. Diphenhydramine can potentially mitigate the effects of this histamine release. When administering IV vancomycin, the nurse dilutes 500-mg doses in 100 mL and 1 - g doses in 200 mL of 0.9 % NaCl or 5 % dextrose injection and infuses it over at least 60 minutes

An older adult client is prescribed intravenous ciprofloxacin for the treatment of a urinary tract infection. What nursing assessment should the nurse prioritize to identify potential adverse effects?

blood glucose monitoring hyper and hypoglycemia associated with older adults taking cipro

The nurse caring for a 2-year-old child diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis should question the prescription of what antibiotic to treat this infection? a) streptomycin b) chloramphenicol c) clindamycin d) penicillin

c clindamycin Clindamycin does not reach therapeutic concentrations in the central nervous system (CNS) and cannot be used for treating meningitis. This medication prescription should be questioned. The remaining options are appropriate for treatment of the infection.

Which client is most at risk for the development of an opportunistic infection? a) a woman who has just given birth vaginally to a premature infant b) a 70-year-old who is being treated for ischemic heart disease c) a young adult who is being treated for electrical burns to his lower body d) a 51-year-old being treated for the exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis

c) a young adult who is being treated for electrical burns to his lower body Opportunistic infections are likely to occur in people with severe burns, cancer, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, indwelling intravenous or urinary catheters, and antibiotic or corticosteroid drug therapy.

A client diagnosed with Chlamydia is allergic to penicillin. What medication could be used as a substitute for penicillin in this situation? a) doxycycline b) tetracycline c) erythromycin d) chloramphenicol

c) erythromycin Erythromycin is used as a penicillin substitute in clients who are allergic to penicillin and for prevention of rheumatic fever, gonorrhea, syphilis, pertussis, and chlamydial conjunctivitis in genitourinary infections caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and intestinal amebiasis caused by Entamoeba histolytica.

An adrenergic drug would be prescribed to produce what physiological effect? a) urine concentration b) decreased respiratory rate c) increased heart rate d) decreased blood pH

c) increased heart rate Adrenergic drugs cause an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate.

A client develops a pressure area on the hip that has become infected. If the wound culture reveals vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE), which medication will the nurse expect to be ordered? a) quinupristin-dalfopristin b) clindamycin c) linezolid d) chloramphenicol

c) linezolid Linezolid belongs to the oxazolidinone class of antibiotics. It is effective against MRSA and VRE. Chloramphenicol, which is effective against some strains of VRE, is rarely used because of possible blood dyscrasias Quinupristin-dalfopristin requires further clinical studies to verify the clinical benefits of drug related to VREF infections.

Which cells participate in this effort to control tissue injury associated with the second stage of the inflammation process? a) monocytes b) B cells c ) neutrophils d) natural killer cells

c) neutrophils The second stage of acute inflammation is also known as the cellular stage. At this time, there is an influx of leukocytes, primarily neutrophils, to the injury site. As the leukocytes invade, there is a slowing of the blood flow and margination, which is the adhesion of the leukocytes to the wall of the blood vessels. B cells, monocytes, and NK cells are not central to this aspect of inflammation.

Epinephrine promotes oxygenation of the heart and brain by what means? a) simultaneously slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of contraction b) promoting the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin c) redirecting blood flow away from the peripheral circulation d) promoting vasodilation both in the myocardium in the brairn

c) redirecting blood flow away from the peripheral circulation The most important action of epinephrine is the constriction of peripheral blood vessels, which shunts blood to the central circulation and increases blood flow to the heart and brain.

A client develops a pressure area on the hip that has become infected. If the wound culture reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered? a) metronidazole b) erythromycin C) vancomycin d) penicillin

c) vancomycin

A client, being prepared for surgery has been prescribed prophylactic antibiotics. What medication should the nurse anticipate being ordered?

cefazolin

Infections are often categorized as

community-acquired or nosocomial

When reviewing an older client's most recent laboratory values, which finding may contraindicate the use of tetracyclines?

creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL (high)

Adrenergic drugs increase the potential risk for what adverse effect? a) hypoglycemia b) stupor c) intestinal wall muscle spasm d ) cardiac dysrhythmias

d ) cardiac dysrhythmias Adrenergic drugs can cause possible irritable cardiac dysrhythmias due to beta1 activity. They have no appreciable effect on intestinal wall muscles and do not cause decreased level of consciousness. Adrenergic drugs can cause an increase, in blood sugar levels.

The nurse has emphasized the importance of not exceeding the recommended frequency of administration for a prescription for a metered-dose inhaler of epinephrine. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the possibility of adverse effects? a) "I'd be at a greater risk for developing upper respiratory infections." b) "A dangerous heart block can result from overuse of this medication." c) "I'm told it could cause something called rebound bronchoconstriction." d) "I could develop a tolerance to the drug."

d) "I could develop a tolerance to the drug." Excessive use of epinephrine inhalers does not increase therapeutic effects. Instead, it causes tolerance and decreased benefit from usual doses and increases the incidence and severity of adverse reactions.

Why do clients with impaired renal function require cautious use of epinephrine? a) Epinephrine is fully resorbed in the proximate tubules and can accumulate to toxic levels. b) Epinephrine increases the pH of urine and constitutes a risk for urosepsis. c) Epinephrine can cause lysis of Bowman's capsules, further reducing renal function. d) Metabolites may accumulate and increase the risk of adverse effects.

d) Metabolites may accumulate and increase the risk of adverse effects. The renal system eliminates many adrenergic drugs and their metabolites. In the presence of renal disease, these compounds may accumulate and cause increased adverse effects.

How can the nurse minimize the risk for extravasation when administering norepinephrine? a) In older adults, administer medication into a large vein in a lower extremity b) Warm the medication before administration. c) Administer phentolamine just prior to the induction of the medication. d) Use a central line to administer the medication.

d) Use a central line to administer the medication

A nurse is asked to explain the difference between community-acquired infections and nosocomial infections. What response best describes the difference?

d) Usually, community-acquired infections are less severe and easier to treat since nosocomial infections often occur in people whose immunity is impaired.

Epinephrine typically demonstrates the potential to promote relaxation of muscles in what structure? a) superficial blood vessel b) gastrointestinal sphincter c) intestinal wall d) bronchiole

d) bronchiole Epinephrine is the adrenergic drug of choiceforrelieving the acute bronchospasm and laryngeal edema of anaphylactic shock.

A client prescribed rifaximin for diarrhea has developed frank bleeding in his/her stool. What intervention should the nurse anticipate being implemented to best ensure client safety? a) supplementing the antibiotic with vitamin K b) changing to parenteral administration of rifaximin c) increasing the dose of rifaximin d) changing to a different antibiotic

d) changing to a different antibiotic Because of its very limited systemic absorption ( 97 % eliminated in feces), health care providers cannot use rifaximin to treat systemic infections, including infections due to invasive strains of E. coi Therefore, diarrhea occurring with fever or bloody stools requires treatment with alternative agents.

Anaphylaxis kits for clients allergic to bee stings would contain which medication? a) dopamine b) norepinephrine c) aspirin d) epinephrine

d) epinephrine Epinephrine is the adrenergic drug of choice for relieving the acute bronchospasm and laryngeal edema of anaphylactic shock, the most serious allergic reaction.

Penicillins are most effective when used to treat what type of microorganisms?

d) gram-positive bacteria

What intervention is necessary for the nurse to perform prior to initiating prescribed antibiotic therapy? a) increasing the client's fluid intake b) administer an antidiarrheal to prevent gastrointestinal (GI) upset c) educating the client about adverse effects d) obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity

d) obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity It is good practice to collect specimens (e.g., sputum, urine) for culture and Gram's stain before giving the first dose of an antibiotic. Fluid intake and medication education may take place after the therapy is initiated, while antidiarrheal medication is administered in the client demonstrates signs/symptoms of GI distress.

A need for additional education on the administration of epinephrine is needed when a new nursing graduate indicates that epinephrine can be effectively administered by what route? a) topical b) intravenous c) subcutaneous d) oral

d) oral Administration of epinephrine is by inhalation, injection, or topical application. Oral administration of the drug is not effective because enzymes in the GI tract and liver destroy it.

What time frame should the nurse use to safely administer 500 mg of clindamycin intravenously (IV)? a) over at least 1 hour b) as a bolus c) over 5 to 10 minutes d) over 10 to 20 minutes

d) over 10 to 20 minutes When administering clindamycin intravenously, the nurse dilutes 300 to 600 mg of the drug in 50 mL of IV fluid and gives it over 10 to 20 minutes or he or she dilutes 900 mg in 50 to 100 mL and administers it over 20 minutes. The client is at risk for cardiac arrest if the medication is administered as a bolus.

Adrenergic drugs may be used to treat which medical diagnoses? Select all that apply. a) hypertension b) seizures c) asthma d) shock e) sinus congestion

d) shock, c) asthma, e) sinus congestion

What is a major factor is whether an individual will acquire an infection? a) the number of effective drugs available to an antibiotic-resistant infections b) the infection's tendency to recur and involve simple organisms c) implementation of continuous antimicrobial treatment of the infection d) the person's ability to defend against the would-be invaders

d) the person's ability to defend against the would-be invaders

A nurse demonstrates a need for further education when he or she identifies what as a desired consequence associated with the appropriate use of antibiotics?

decreased time needed to perform culture testing Antimicrobials are among the most frequently used drugs worldwide. Their success in saving lives and decreasing severity and duration of infectious diseases has encouraged their extensive use. Appropriate use of antibiotics decreases adverse drug effects, infections with drug resistant microorganisms, and health care costs. It is not noted to decrease the time needed to perform culture testing.

norepinephrine, if extravasation occurs?

diluted phentolamine should be injected into the area with a smal gauge hypodermic needle as soon as possible to prevent sloughing and necrosis of the tissue

What physical characteristic observed in an adult suggests that they were prescribed tetracycline as a child?

discoloration of the teeth

In the event of bioterrorism attack with anthrax, the health care team should anticipate the use of which tetracycline?

doxycycline

The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia should prepare medication information on what medication?

doxycycline

A client diagnosed with malaria has been prescribed treatment with sulfadiazine. The nurse should encourage the client to increase consumption of what dietary component?

fluids

Penicillins are most effective when used to treat what type of microorganisms?

gram-postive bacteria

A night nurse administered a PRN dose of aluminum hydroxide with magnesium hydroxide to a client at 0640. What action should the dayshift nurse take when preparing to administer the client's scheduled 0800 dose of oral tetracycline?

hold the tetracycline until 0840

What preexisting condition would cause the nurse to question a prescription for the administration of intramuscular (IM) imipenem-cilastatin?

hx of atrioventricular block or severe shock and allergy to lidocaine b/c this is included with the preparation for IM injection to reduce pain from administration.

What fetal risks exists if tetracycline is given during pregnancy? Select all apply

hyperbilirubinemia, impaired tooth development, impaired bone development

What statement should the nurse include in the medication instructions for an older adult prescribed tetracyclines?

increase your fluids to 2L or more per day to prevent renal crystals

Indications for combination therapy

infections caused by multiple microorganisms; nosocomial infections, which may be caused by many different organisms; serious infections in which a combination is synergistic; or likely emergence of drug-resistant organisms if a single drug is used (e.g., in tuberculosis). Although drug combinations are widely used to prevent resistance, the only clearly effective use of combination therapy is for treatment of tuberculosis or fever or other signs of infection in clients whose immune system is suppressed Combinations of antibacterial plus antiviral and/or antifungal drugs may be needed. Nonadherence is not a justification for combination therapy.

When considering known adverse reactions to gentamicin therapy, the nurse should focus assessment on what body structure?

inner ear

Generally, community-acquired infections are strains

less severe and easier to treat, although antibiotic-resistant strains are increasing

The nurse recognizes that what drug classification increases the risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity when prescribed with gentamicin?

loop diuretics

Normal flora protects the human host in a variety of ways. For example,

normal bowel flora synthesizes vitamin K and vitamin B complex. The intestinal flora also plays a role in digestion. Furthermore, by competing with potential pathogens for nutrients and by preventing adhesion and growth of pathogens, beneficial microorganisms interfere with the ability of potential pathogens to cause infections.

The nurse has encouraged a client prescribed oral amoxicillin to take this medication with fluids but with the exception of what beverage?

orange juice (or any acidic beverage b/c they destroy the drug)

Tetracycline is often a viable treatment option when a client has an allergy to what antibiotics?

penicillins

The client tells the nurse that she is taking an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. A client cannot recall the name of the medication prescribed to help manage the pain associated with a urinary tract infection. What medication was likely prescribed?

phenazopyridine hydrochloride

Federal Drug Administration (FDA) has issued a black box warning regarding norepinephrine.

potential risk of tissue damage with extravasation drug should be infused into a large vein or central line if possible. The use of leg veins should be avoided in older adults and in those with occlusive disorders.

Nosocomial infections may be more

severe and difficult to manage because they often result from drug-resistant microorganisms and occur in people whose immunity is impaired

What is the treatment goal for a preoperative prescription for neomycin?

suppression of intestinal bacteria

A client newly diagnosed with syphilis states that he or she is allergic to penicillin. What medication should this client be prescribed?

tetracycline

An adult client prescribed the trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole should receive what information concerning potential adverse effects?

this drug might make your stomach a bit upset

Clinical indications for the use of adrenergic drugs

treatment of acute cardiovascular, respiratory, and allergic disorders. In cardiac arrest, they may be used as cardiac stimulants. In hypotension and shock, they may be used to increase blood pressure. In hemorrhagic or hypovolemic shock, they may be used if adequate fluid volume replacement does not restore sufficient blood pressure and circulation to maintain organ perfusion. In bronchial asthma and other obstructive pulmonary diseases, the drugs are used as bronchodilators to relieve bronchoconstriction and bronchospasm. In upper respiratory infections, including the common cold and sinusitis, they may be given orally or applied topically to the nasal mucosa to reduce nasal congestion.

A client with a deep wound producing large amounts of purulent drainage is prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should express concern about the potential effectiveness of the treatment if which medication is prescribed?

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole