Pharm ATI Review - PME Review

A patient is to receive 30 mg of ketorolac (Toradol) IM every 6 hr for 48 hr. The medication is available in a 60 mg/2 mL vial. How many mL should the nurse administer for each dose?

1 mL

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (NaCl) 1,500 mL to infuse over 8 hr to a client who is postoperative. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero)

188 mL/hr

A primary care provider should use caution when prescribing bisacodyl (Dulcolax) for a patient who has: A) Anorexia nervosa. B) Myelosuppression. C) Hypomagnesemia. D) Diabetes mellitus

A

With which route of drug administration are there no barriers to absorption? A) Intravenous. B) Intramuscular. C) Subcutaneous. D) Oral

A

A healthcare professional should monitor an older patient who is taking alprazolam (Xanax) for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply): A) Tolerance; B) Anxiety; C) Sedation; D) Respiratory depression; E) Constipation

A, B, C, D

Infants are at risk for drug toxicity due to which of the following? (Select all that apply): A) Decreased liver enzymes; B) Reduced kidney perfusion; C) Increased stomach acid; D) Reduced percentage of body water; E) Reduced liver perfusion

A, B, E

A health care professional is about to administer enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) to a patient. The health care professional should perform which of the following actions? (Select all that apply). A) Administer the drug subcutaneously. B) Discard unused portion. C) Roll the vial gently to reconstitute the solution. D) Inject the solution at room temperature. E) Expect a cloudy solution

A, C, D

A healthcare professional is about to administer IV paclitaxel (Taxol) to a patient who has ovarian cancer. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take? (Select all that apply). A) Give the patient an antihistamine. B) Infuse the drug over 1 hr. C) Administer the drug through non-PVC tubing. D) Use an in-line filter. E) Add heparin to the paclitaxel solution

A, C, D

A healthcare professional should tell a patient who is taking alendronate (Fosamax) to monitor for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply): A) Jaw pain. B) Drowsiness. C) Blurred vision. D) Tinnitus. E) Muscle pain

A, C, E

A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions of a client wh ohas tuberculosis. The nurse should identify that which of the following medications are used to treat tuberculosis? (Select all that apply). A) Rifampin. B) Mirtazapine. C) Temazepam. D) Infliximab. E) Isoniazid.

A, E

When caring for a patient who is taking flutamide to treat prostate cancer, the healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects of the drug? A) Dehydration. B) Gynecomastia. C) Constipation. D) Tachycardia

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient wh ois taking ipratropium (Atrovent). The healthcare professional should explain which of the following adverse effects to the patient? (Select all that apply). A) Muscle tremors. B) Urinary retention. C) Dry mouth. D) Insomnia. E) Tachycardia

B, C

A health care professional is talking to a patient who is about to begin taking valproic acid (Depakote) for a newly diagnosed seizure disorder. He should tell the patient to wath for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply): A) Hirsutism; B) Drowsiness; C) Headache; D) Ataxia; E) Rash

B, C, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking raloxifene (Evista). Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply): A) Increase self-breast examinations to two times per month. B) Increase activity, such as walking. C) Use a contraceptive if there is any risk of pregnancy. D) Take the drug on an empty stomach. E) Increase intake of calcium and vitamin D.

B, C, E

When administering sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) to a patient, the healthcare professional should check which of the following to help identify an adverse effect of the drug? (Select all that apply). A) Level of consciousness. B) Skin integrity. C) Temperature. D) Urine output. E) CBC

B, C, E

A healthcare professional should question the use of celecoxib (Celebrex) for a patient who has which of the following? A) Rheumatoid arthritis. B) Ankylosing spondylitis. C) An allergy to sulfonamides. D) Adrenocortical insufficiency

C

A healthcare professional should question the use of misoprostol (Cytotec) for a patient who has which of the following? A) A seizure disorder. B) Rheumatoid arthritis. C) A positive pregnancy test. D) Heart failure

C

A healthcare professional should question the use of nifedipine (Procardia) for a patient who has a history of which of the following? A) Bradycardia. B) Liver disease. C) Unstable angina pectoris. D) Second-degree AV block)

C

A healthcare professional should tell a patient who is taking methotrexate to monitor for which of the following? A) Muscle pain. B) Peripheral edema. C) Black, tarry stools. D) Redness in the calf

C

A healthcare professional should understand that enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) is an appropriate choice for patients who have which of the following? A) Advanced prostate cancer. B) Primary brain tumors. C) Advanced HIV disease. D) Metastatic ovarian cancer.

C

A healthcare professional should understand that naloxone can reverse the effects of an excessive dosage of which of the following drugs? A) Aspirin. B) Acetaminophen (Tylenol). C) Morphine. D) Prednisone

C

A healthcare professional who is advising a patient about the use of a mucolytic to treat a cough should explain that this type of drug is effective because it performs which of the following actions? A) Suppresses the cough stimulus. B) Reduces inflammation. C) Thins and loosens mucus. D) Dries secretions

C

A nurse is administering aspirin 81 mg PO daily as prescribed. The medication is scheduled for 0800 hours. Which of the following demonstrates proper use of one of the six rights of medication administration? A) The nurse performs the first check of the correct dosage at the patient's bedside. B) The nurse identifies the patient by stating the patient's name as written on the medication administration record. C) The nurse documents that the aspirin was given at 0825. D) The nurse opens the 81 mg aspirin unit dose package prior to entering the patient's room

C

A nurse is assessing a client after administering a second dose of cefazolin IV. The nurse notes the client has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspnea. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first? A) Diphenhydramine. B) Albuterol inhaler. C) Epinephrine. D) Prednisone.

C

A nurse is assessing a client who has received atropine eye drops during an eye examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Difficulty seeing in the dark. B) Pinpoint pupils. C) Blurred vision. D) Excessive tearing.

C

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amitriptyline for depression. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Tinnitus. B) Urinary frequency. C) Dry mouth. D) Diarrhea.

C

A nurse is assessing a patient receiving IV normal saline at 125 mL/hr. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a possible complication related to the intravenous therapy? A) Petechiae over the IV site. B) The skin is cool over the IV site. C) Patient reports cough and shortness of breath. D) Patient's blood pressure is lower than normal.

C

A nurse is caring for a patient receiving 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) at 75 mL/hr through a triple lumen central venous catheter. The pump is alarming that there is an occlusion. Which of the following is the first thing the nurse should do? A) Call the provider who inserted the catheter. B) Flush the line with a 10-mL syringe of heparin. C) Check the line at or above the hub for kinked tubing that is creating a resistance to flow. D) Reposition the patient.

C

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for phenytoin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A) "I should take my medication with antacids to minimize gastric upset." B) "This type of medication does not require blood monitoring." C) "I should let my dentist know I'm taking this medication." D) "I should expect to experience some unusual eye movement when taking this medication."

C

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A) Take the medication with food. B) Expect a fine, red rash as a transient effect. C) Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water daily. D) Store the medication in the refrigerator.

C

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is to start a new prescription for sucralfate. Which of the following actions of sucralfate should the nurse include in the teaching? A) Decreases stomach acid secretion. B) Neutralizes acids in the stomach. C) Forms a protective barrier over ulcers. D) Treats ulcers by eradicating H. pylori.

C

A nurse is teaching a client about cyclobenzaprine. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective? A) "I will have increased saliva production." B) "I will continue taking the medication until the rash disappears." C) "I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it." D) "I will report any urinary incontinence."

C

A nurse is teaching a client who has tuberculosis about the adverse effects of isoniazid. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Reddish-orange urine. B) Photosensitivity. C) Yellowish skin tones. D) Headache

C

A nurse is teaching a client who is starting to take amitriptyline. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the teaching as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Diarrhea. B) Cough. C) Urinary retention. D) Increased libido.

C

A nurse is teaching a client who is taking allopurinol for the treatment of gout. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A) Plan to increase the dosage each week by 200 mg increments. B) Prolonged use of the medication can cause glaucoma. C) Drink 2 L of water daily. D) A fine red rash is transient and can be treated with antihistaines.

C

A nurse is teaching a group of unit nurses about medication reconciliation. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A) The client's provider is required to complete medication reconciliation. B) Medication reconciliation at discharge is limited to the medication ordered at the time of discharge. C) A transition in care requires the nurse to conduct medication reconciliation. D) Medical reconciliation is limited to the name of the medications that the client is currently taking.

C

A nurse is teaching about a new prescription for ciprofloxacin to an older adult client who has a urinary tract infection. The nurse should identify which of the following statements as an indication that the client understands the teaching? A) "I will take this medication with an antacid to prevent gastrointestinal upset." B) "I will stop taking this medication when I no longer have pain upon urination." C) "I will report any signs of tendon pain or swelling." D) "I will take this medication with milk."

C

When talking with a patient about taking eplerenone (Inspra) to treat hypertension, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Avoid drinking grapefruit juice. B) Use sunscreen and protective clothing. C) Avoid the use of salt substitutes. D) Stop taking the drug if dizziness occurs.

C

When talking with a patient about taking loperamide (Imodium), the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Dissolve the powder thoroughly in 8 oz of water. B) Have diphenhydramine available. C) Avoid activities that require alertness. D) Take 30 min before activities that trigger nausea

C

Which of the following is your highest priority action for ensuring overall safety during medication administration? A) Have another nurse check the dose you will give. B) Teach the patient about possible adverse effects. C) Identify the patient by two acceptable methods. D) Confirm that the patient can swallow adequately.

C

Which of the following should a nurse assess before administering medications through a nasogastric tube? A) Correct tube placement by inserting air into tube while auscultating at gastric fundus. B) Areas of tympany and dullness by percussing abdomen. C) Amount of residual volume left in stomach. D) Ability of patient to cooperate with instructions

C

Which of the followng represents the correct administration of the prescribed medication? A) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO prescribed; 5 tsp of 326 mg/10 mL liquid given; B) Levothyroxine 100 mcg PO prescribed; three 0.025 mg tablets given; C) Amoxicillin 1 g PO prescribed; two 500-mg tablets given; D) Diphenhydramine 40 mg IM prescribed; 1.25 mL of 50 mg/1 mL for injection given

C

While assessing a patient who is receiving interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A) to treat Kaposi's sarcoma, the health care professional should check for which of the following possible indications of an adverse reaction? A) Bradycardia. B) Dilated pupils. C) Fever. D) Constipation

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking somatatropin (Genotropin). The health care professional should explain the need to monitor which of the following laboratory tests? (Select all that apply). A) Blood amylase. B) Creatinine clearance. C) Urine calcium. D) Blood glucose. E) CBC

C, D

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer amphotericin B IV to a patient who has a sytsemic fungal infection. Which of the following drugs should the healthcare professional administer prior to the infusion to prevent or minimize adverse reactions during amphotericin B administration? (Select all that apply). A) Aspirin (Ecotrin). B) Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef). C) Acetaminophen (Tylenol). D) Diphenhydramine. E) Ibuprofen (Advil)

C, D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin intrathecal cytarabine (DepoCyt) therapy to treat meningeal leukemia. The healthcare professional should explain that the patient should also receive which of the following drugs to reduce the risk of neurotoxicity? A) Diphenhydramine. B) Leucovorin. C) Folic acid. D) Dexamethasone

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking alteplase (Activase) to treat acute myocardial infarction. The healthcare professional should understand the drug is most effective when the patient recieves is: A) 24 hr after clot formation. B) After initiation of anticoagulation. C) Prior to clot formation. D) Within 3 hr of symptom onset

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking aspirin (Ecotrin) to reduce the risk of a cardiovascular event. The healthcare professional should understand that the drug inhibits platelet aggregation by which of the following mechanisms? A) Activating thromboxane A2. B) Blocking adenosine diphosphate receptor agonists. C) Suppressing specific clotting factors. D) Inhibiting cyclooxygenase action in platelets

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking cabergolline to treat infertility. The healthcare professional should explain to the patient the need to monitor which of the following laboratory tests? A) Potassium. B) Glucose. C) BUN and creatinine. D) Prolactin level

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking propranolol (Inderal) to treat a tachydysrhythmia. The healthcare professional should caution the patient about taking which of the following types of over-the-counter drugs? A) Antihistamines. B) Potassium supplements. C) NSAIDs. D) Antacids.

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to start ritonavir (Norvir) and zidovudine (Retrovir) therapy to treat HIV-1. The healthcare professional should explain that the patient will receive ritonavir along with at least one reverse transcriptase inhibitor to A) Prevent an infusion reaction. B) Increase platelet production. C) Protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of ritonavir. D) Prevent drug resistance

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is postoperative and who demonstrates weakness and needs mechanical ventilation. The patient received pancuronium during the surgery. The healthcare professional should suspect prolonged parlysis from a drug interaction with which of the following? A) Neostigmine (Prostigmin). B) Atropine (AtroPen). C) Dantrolene (Dantrium). D) Gentamicin

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is receiving IV carmustine (BiCNU) to treat multiple myeloma. The healthcare professional should recognize that the patient is at the greatest risk for infection for which of the following lengths of time after the infusion? A) 24 hr. B) 1 week. C) 2 weeks. D) 4 to 6 weeks

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) to treat a urinary tract infection and has rheumatoid arthritis, for which he takes prednisolone (Prelone). Recognizing the adverse effects of ciprofloxacin, the healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following? A) Tachycardia. B) Hair loss. C) Insomnia. D) Tendon pain

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who takes pheytoin (Dilantin) for a seizure disorder and is about to begin sucralfate (Carafate) therapy to treat a duodenal ulcer. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to take the drugs at least 2 hr apart because: A) Phenytoin increases the metabolism of sucralfate. B) Phenytoin reduces the effectiveness of sucralfate. C) Sucralfate increases the risk for phenytoin toxicity. D) Sucralfate interferes with the absorption of phenytoin

D

A healthcare professional is collecting data from a patient who is taking bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) to treat depression. The healthcare professional notes that the patient has a recent history of a head injury. She hould recognize that the drug is inappropriate for the patient because of the increased risk for which of the following? A) Ischemic stroke; B) Drowsiness; C) Respiratory depression; D) Seizure activity

D

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer alendronate (Fosamax) to a patient who has osteoporosis. The healthcare professional should recognize which of the following as an adverse effect of alendronate? A) Venous thromboemboli. B) Ventricular dysrhythmias. C) Breast cancer. D) Joint pain

D

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer neostigmine (Prostigmin) to a patient. Which of the following information in the patient's health history should alert her to use caution when administering neostigmine? A) Glaucoma. B) Thrombocytopenia. C) Hepatitis. D) Asthma

D

A healthcare professional should question the use of morphine for a patient who is recovering from which of the following procedures? A) Mastectomy. B) Knee arthroplasty. C) Cystoscopy. D) Cholecystectomy

D

A healthcare professional should recognize that using pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) to treat allergic rhinitis requires cautious use with patients who have which of the following? A) Peptic ulcer disease. B) A seizure disorder. C) Anemia. D) Coronary artery disease

D

A healthcare professional should understand that raltegrair (Isentress) treats patients who have which of the following? A) Hairy cell leukemia. B) Thyroid cancer. C) Kaposi's sarcoma. D) Resistant HIV disease

D

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is taking aspirin for the treatment of arthritis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication that the client is beginning to exhibit salicylis? A) Gastric distress. B) Oliguria. C) Excessive bruising. D) Tinnitus.

D

A nurse is administering donepezil to a client who has Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately? A) Dyspepsia. B) Diarrhea. C) Dizziness. D) Dyspnea.

D

A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking hydrocodone with acetaminophen tablets for pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A) The medication should be taken 1 hr prior to eating. B) It takes 48 hr for therapeutic effects to occur. C) Tablets should not be crushed or chewed. D) Decreased respirations might occur

D

A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking temazepam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A) Limit continuous use to 7 to 10 weeks. B) Schedule doses for early morning before breakfast. C) Expect that it will take 4 nights before benefits are noticed. D) Plan to withdraw from the medication gradually.

D

Anesthetists often administer midazolam (Versed) during induction of anesthesia because of which of the following pharmacological actions? A) Produces analgesia; B) Induces muscle paralysis; C) Dries secretions; D) Causes amnesia

D

A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 400 mL IV to infuse over 1 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

100 gtt/min

A patient is to receive 12.5 mg of prednisone (Deltasone) by mouth daily. The medication is available in 5 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer for each dose?

2.5 tablets

A nurse is preparing to administer ciprofloxacin 15 mg/kg PO every 12 hr to a child who weighs 44 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero).

300 mg

A nurse is preparing to administer to a client 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL IV over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero).

31 gtt/min

A patient is to receive 1 g of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) in 100 mL over 30 min. The tubing drip rate is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should adjust the flow rate to what infusion rate?

33 gtt/min

A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 250 mg PO to a school-age child. The amount available is amoxicillin oral suspension 200 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero)

6.3 mL

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is hospitalized with chest pain. Patient instruction about drugs and discharge planning should begin: A) As soon as possible; B) On the day of discharge; C) When family members are present; D) After the patient has a definitive diagnosis

A

A health care professional is explaining the adverse effects of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient. Which of the following is an adverse effect of the drug? A) Cardiac dysrhythmias; B) Increased cardiac output; C) Increased urine output; D) Reduced edema

A

A health care professional is talking to a patient about beginning sumatriptan (Imitrex) therapy to treat migraine headaches. The health care professional should advise the patient to watch for which of the following adverse effects? A) Chest pain; B) Polyuria; C) Joint pain D) Insomnia

A

A health care professional is talking to a patient about giving the correct dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol) to the patient's infant. The health care professional explains that infants can absorb certain drugs at different rates than adults. Which of the following is a physiologic characteristic of infants that can alter drug absorption? A) Delayed gastric emptying; B) Increased gastric acidity; C) Increased first-pass effect; D) Greater protein-binding capacity

A

A healthcare professional administers epoetin alfa (Epogen) subcutaneously to a patient who has renal failure. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects? A) Hypertension. B) Muscle pain. C) Edema. D) Dry mouth

A

A healthcare professional administers pramlintide (Symlin) at 0800 to a patient who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. At which of the following times should the patient expect the drug to exert its peak action? A) 0820. B) 0900. C) 1000. D) 1100.

A

A healthcare professional cautions a patient who is taking guaifenesin (Mucinex) about using combination over-the-counter cold products because A) They can also contain guaifenesin. B) Serious interactions are possible. C) Rebound congestion is likely. D) Drug tolerance is likely

A

A healthcare professional is assessing a client who was administered ondansetron (Zofran) IV 1 hr ago. Which of the following is an adverse effect of this drug? A) Dizziness. B) Rash. C) Tardive dyskinesia. D) Abdominal cramping

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin acarbose (Precose) therapy to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include when talking with the patient about the drug? A) Eat more iron-rich foods. B) Avoid drinking grapefruit juice. C) Increase fiber intake. D) Avoid drinking green tea

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin delavirdine (Rescriptor) therapy to treat HIV-1. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse reactions to the drug? A) Rash. B) Insomnia. C) Rhinitis. D) Alopecia.

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin factor VIII (Advate) therapy to treat hemophilia A. When administering factor VIII, which of the following actions should the health care professional take? A) Have emergency equipment ready. B) Premedicate with aspirin (Ecotrin). C) Administer via rapid IV bolus. D) Administer the powdered form orally.

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking allopurinol (Zyloprim) to treat gout. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for hypersensitivity syndrome, which causes which of the following clinical manifestations? A) Fever. B) Muscle pain. C) Anxiety. D) Tremors

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking celecoxib (Celebrex) to treat rheumatoid arhtritis. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse reactions? A) Chest pain. B) Tinnitus. C) Constipation. D) Diaphoresis

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking clopidogrel (Plavix) to prevent stent stenosis. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse reactions? A) Thrombocytopenia. B) Hyponatremia. C) Lymphocytopenia. D) Uricemia

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking echothiphate (Phospholine lodie) to treat glaucoma. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for the development of which of the following adverse effects? A) Cataracts; B) Tachycardia; C) Farsightedness; D) Urinary retention

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy. The healthcare professional should explain to the patient the need to monitor which of the following laboratory tests? A) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). B) BUN. C) Creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). D) ALT

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking losartan (Cozaar) to treat hypertension. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following indications of an adverse reaction to the drug? A) Facial edema. B) Sleepiness. C) Peripheral edema. D) Constipation

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking metronidazole (Flagyl) to treat an anaerobic intra-abdominal bacterial infection The healthcare professional should recognize that cautious use of the drug is indicated if the patient also has which of the following? A) Seizure disorder. B) Hearing loss. C) Asthma. D) Anemia

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking tamoxifen (Soltamox) to treat breast cancer. The healthcare professional should recognize the need for cautious use of the drug if the patient also has which of the following? A) Cataracts. B) COPD. C) Diabetes mellitus. D) Alcohol use disorder

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin using nystatin (Mycostatin) to treat oral Candida albicans that resulted from tetracycline therapy. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include about using the antifungal preparation? A) Swish the suspension in the mouth before swallowing it. B) Rinse the mouth immediately with water. C) Drink the suspension with a straw. D) Use a cotton-tipped applicator to dab the mouth lesions with the suspension

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to receive gentamicin to treat a systemic infection. The healthcare professional should question the use of the drug for a patient who is also taking which of the following drugs? A) Furosemide (Lasix). B) Diphenhydramine. C) Acetaminophen (Tylenol). D) Levothyroxine (Synthroid)

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is receiving human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) (Pregnyl) to stimulate ovulation. The healthcare professional should advise the patient against taking which of the following herbal preparatoins? A) Black cohosh. B) St. John's wort. C) Saw palmetto. D) Gingko biloba

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking a calcium supplement and reports flank pain. The healthcare professional should suspect the patient has which of the following? A) Renal calculi. B) Pancreatitis. C) Liver disease. D) Hip fracture

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking alendronate (Fosamax) to treat postmenopausal osteoporosis. The healthcare professional should explain to the patient that alendronate increases bone mass by which of the following actions? A) Decreases activity of osteoclasts. B) Increases calcium excretion. C) Promotes intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus. D) Reduces action of osteoblasts

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) and is about to begin taking trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) to treat a urinary tract infection.The healthcare professional should question the drug regimen because taking these two drugs concurrently can increase the patient's risk for which of the following? A) Bleeding. B) Thrombosis C) ECG changes. D) Ototoxicity

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who was given succinylcholine (Anectine), a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, during a surgical procedure. The patient develops rigid muscles, tachycardia, and a sudden spike in temperature. The healthcare professional should immediately suspect which of the following? A) Malignant hyperthermia. B) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome. C) Toxic epidermal necrolysis. D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

A healthcare professional is caring for a young adult patient who is taking fluoxetine (Prozac) to treat depression. The health care professional should tell the patient and the patient's family to report which of the following? A) Suicidal thoughts; B) Excessive salivation; C) Double vision; D) Fever

A

A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult patient who is about to begin taking cimetidine (Tagamet) to treat a duodenal ulcer. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse reactions? A) Lethargy. B) Cellulitis. C) Dry mouth. D) Myalgia

A

A healthcare professional is monitoring plasma drug levels in a patient who is taking theophylline (Theo-24). Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional expect to see if the patient's level indicates toxicity? A) Seizures. B) Constipation. C) VOmiting. D) Restlessness

A

A healthcare professional is obtaining a patient's drug history when he finds that the patient is taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid) for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings in the patient's drug history should alert the healthcare professional to monitor for lithium toxicity? A) Furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension; B) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches; C) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for a urinary tract infection; D) Montelukast (Singulair) for asthma

A

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer neostigmine (Prostigmin) to a patient who has myasthenia gravis. Knowing the adverse effects of neostigmine, which of the following drugs should the healthcare professional have ready to administer? A) Atropine (AtroPen). B) Lidocaine (Xylocaine). C) Epinephrine (Adrenalin). D) Nalaxone

A

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer the prescribed dose of filgrastim (Neupogen) to a patient. The patient's laboratory results indicate that the patient has a WBC count of 12,000/mm^3. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take? A) Clarify the prescription with the provider. B) Administer the drug with an analgesic. C) Limit venipunctures. D) Assess breath sounds

A

A healthcare professional is reviewing the history of a patient who is about to begin furosemide (Lasix) therapy to treat hypertension. Which of the following drugs that the patient takes should alert the healthcare professional to take further action? A) Lithium (Lithobid) for bipolar disorder. B) Phenytoin (Dilantin) for a seizure disorder. C) Erythromycin (Erythrocin) for bronchitis. D) Warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent blood clots

A

A healthcare professional is talking to a patient about the adverse effects of interferon beta-1a (Avonex). To help minimize these effects, she should tell the patient to: A) Premedicate with acetaminophen (Tylenol); B) Take the drug with food; C) Increase his fluid intake; D) Take the drug in the morning

A

A healthcare professional is talking to a patient who is prescribed albuterol (Proventil) via inhaler and fluticasone (Advair) vai inhaler for asthma management. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to use the albuterol inhaler before using the fluticasone inhaler for which of the following reasons? A) Albuterol will increase the absorption of fluticasone. B) Albuterol will decrease inflammation. C) Albuterol will reduce nasal secretions. D) Fluticasone will reduce the adverse effects of albuteronl

A

A healthcare professional should assess a patient who has megaloblastic anemia for indications of which of the following vitamin deficiencies? A) Vitamin B12. B) Vitamin K. C) Vitamin C. D) Vitamin D

A

A healthcare professional should conclude that alosetron (Lotronex) therapy is effective when a patient who is taking it reports which of the following? A) One formed stool per day. B) Urination without burning. C) No nausea or vomiting. D) Less GI reflux

A

A healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions when talking with a patient about taking levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) to treat Parkinson's disease? A) Change position slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension; B) Eat a protein snack to increase absorption; C) Take the drug at bedtime to avoid daytime drowsiness; D) Expect eye twitching to develop with long-term therapy

A

A healthcare professional should question the huse of diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil) for a patient who has which of the following disorders? A) Inflammatory bowel disease. B) Thrombophlebitis. C) Agranulocytosis. D) Immunization with a live virus

A

A healthcare professional should question the use of ethinyl estradiol and drospirenone (Yasmin) by women who have renal disease for risk of which of the following? A) Hyperkalemia. B) Hyponatremia. C) Hypoglycemia. D) Respiratory alkalosis

A

A healthcare professional should question the use of metoclopramide (Reglan) for a patient who is taking which of the following drugs? A) Digoxin (Lanoxin). B) Warfarin (Coumadin). C) Fluvoxamine (Luvox). D) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

A

A healthcare professional should question the use of milrinone (Primacor) for a patient who currently has which of the following? A) Acute myocardial infarction. B) Peripheral vascular disease. C) Ulcerative colitsi. D) Ventricular tachycardia

A

A healthcare professional should question the use of morphine for a patient who is taking which of the following drugs? A) Phenobarbital (Luminal) for a seizure disorder. B) Warfarin (Coumadin) for anticoagulation. C) Glipizide (Glucotrol) for diabetes mellitus. D) Alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis

A

A healthcare professional should question the use of timolol (Timoptic) for a patient who has which of the following disorders? A) Asthma; B) Seizure disorder; C) Diabetes mellitus; D) Rheumatoid arthritis

A

A healthcare professional should question the use of tramadol (Ultram) for patients who have which of the following? A) Seizure disorder. B) Hyperthyroidism. C) Rheumatoid arthritis. D) Urinary incontinence

A

A healthcare professional should tell a patient who is taking etanercept (Enbrel) for rheumatoid arthritis to report which of the following? A) Skin rash. B) Tinnitus. C) Diarrhea. D) Dysphagia

A

A nrse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A) Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2-in) radius of the umbilicus. B) Aspirate for blood return before injecting. C) Rub vigorously after the injection to promote absorption. D) Place a pressure dressing on the injection site to prevent bleeding.

A

A nurse administers ceftazidime to a client who has a severe penicillin allergy. The nurse should identify which of the following client findings as an indication that she should complete an incident report? A) The client reports shortness of breath. B) The client is also taking lisinopril. C) The client's pulse rate is 60/min. D) The client's WBC count is 14,000/mm^3

A

A nurse at an urgent care clinic is collecting a history from a female client who has a urinary tract infection. The nurse anticipates a prescription for ciprofloxacin. The nurse should identify that which of the following client statements indicates a contraindication for administering this medication? A) "I have tendonitis, so I haven't been able to exercise." B) "I take a stool softener for chronic constipation." C) "I take medicine for my thyroid." D) "I am allergic to sulfa."

A

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has been taking aspirin daily for the past year. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider immediately? A) Hyperventilation. B) Heartburn. C) Anorexia. D) Swollen ankles.

A

A nurse is about to administer an intravenous medication directly into the vein. The nurse should understand that a disadvantage of parenterally administered medications is that they A) Are irreversible. B) Have slow onset. C) Bypass the liver. D) Have less bioavailability.

A

A nurse is caring for a client wh ois taking acetazolamide for chronic open-angle glaucoma. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report? A) Tingling of fingers. B) Constipation. C) Weight gain. D) Oliguria

A

A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is taking oral morphine and docusate sodium. The nurse should instruct the client that taking the docusate sodium on a daily basis can minimize which of the following adverse effects of morphine? A) Constipation. B) Drowsiness. C) Facial flushing. D) Itching.

A

A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking glyburide. The client reports feeling confused and anxious. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A) Perform a capillary blood glucose test. B) Provide the client with a protein-rich snack. C) Give the client 120 mL (4 oz) of orange juice). D) Schedule an early meal tray.

A

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor. The client is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion with a maintenance IV solution. The external FHR monitor indicates late decelerations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A) Turn the client to a side-lying position. B) Disconnect the client's oxytocin from the maintenance IV. C) Apply oxygen to the client by face mask. D) Increase the client's maintenance IV infusion rate.

A

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving haloperidol. The nurse should observe for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Akathisia. B) Paresthesia. C) Excess tear production. D) Anxiety.

A

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oprelvekin. Which of the following findings should the nurse document to indicate the effectiveness of the therapy? A) Increased platelet count. B) Increased RBC count. C) Decreased prothrombin time. D) Decreased triglycerides

A

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. Which of the following client laboratory values should the nurse monitor? A) Creatinine kinase. B) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. C) International normalized ratio. D) Potassium.

A

A nurse is caring for a client who recently began taking oral amoxicillin/clavulanate and reports urticaria. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A) Request a change in the type of the antibiotic. B) Ask for a change in the route of the administration. C) Check for pitting edema. D) Check the client's WBC count.

A

A nurse is planning to teach about inhalant medications to a client who has a new diagnosis of exercise-induced asthma. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to instruct the client to use prior to physical activity? A) Cromolyn. B) Beclomethasone. C) Budesonide. D) Tiotropium

A

A nurse is planning to teach about the use of a spacer to a child who has a new prescription for a fluticasone inhaler to treat chronic asthma. The nurse should include that the spacer decreases the risk for which of the following adverse effects of the medication? A) Oral candidiasis. B) Headache. C) Joint pain. D) Adrenal suppression

A

A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is caring for four clients. The nurse should complete an incident report for which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse? A) Administers isosorbide mononitrate to a client who has BP 82/60 mm Hg. B) Administers digoxin to a client who has a heart rate of 92/min. C) Administers regular insulin to a client who has a blood glucose of 250 mg/dL. D) Administers heparin to a client who has an aPTT of 70 seconds.

A

A nurse is preparing to administer an insulin injection to a patient. Which of the following is appropriate? A) Rotate injection sites to avoid tissue injury. B) Administer no more than 2 mL per injection. C) Use the nondominant hand to displace the skin and subcutaneous tissue at the site about 1 to 1 1/2 inches. D) Inject the medication after aspirating the syringe.

A

A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client who has gout. The nurse discovers that an error was made during the previous shift and the client received atenolol instead of allopurinol. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A) Obtain the client's blood pressure. B) Contact the client's provider. C) Inform the charge nurse. D) Complete an incident report.

A

A nurse is providing care for a client who is postoperative following cholecystectomy with the placement of a closed suction drain and is receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia for pain. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority? A) Respiratory rate. B) Bowel sounds. C) Drainage amounts. D) Wound appearance.

A

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for a MAOI inhibitor. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking this medication? A) Smoked sausage. B) Cottage cheese. C) Green beans. D) Apple pie.

A

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start taking sumatriptan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for and report to the provider? A) Chest pressure. B) White patches on the tongue. C) Bruising. D) Insomnia.

A

A nurse is reviewing the health history of a client who has diabetes mellitus and will begin taking insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a factor that might cause the client to have difficulty safely self-administering insulin? A) Macular degeneration. B) Right-sided heart failure. C) Hyperlipidemia. D) Stage II chronic kidney disease.

A

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who wants to begin taking oral contraceptives. The nurse should identify that which of the following client medications will interfere with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives? A) Carbamazepine. B) Sumatriptan. C) Atenolol. D) Glipizide

A

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for docusate sodium about the medications's mechanism of action. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A) Docusate sodium reduces the surface tension of the stools to change their consistency. B) Docusate sodium causes rectal contractions. C) Docusate sodium acts as a fiber agent, increasing bulk in the intestines. D) Docusate sodium stimulates the motility of the intestines.

A

A nurse is teaching a client who is starting to take ketorolac. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A) "Check for bruising while taking this medication." B) "Take the medication on an empty stomach." C) "The medication can cause anxiety." D) "Increase iron intake with this medication."

A

A nurse is teaching a client who is to begin taking tamoxifen for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? A) Hot flashes. B) Urinary retention. C) Constipation. D) Bradycardia

A

A nurse is teaching about neural tube defects to a client who is planning a pregnancy. Which of the following vitamins should the nurse instruct the client to start taking before becoming pregnant? A) Folic acid. B) Thiamine. C) Pyridoxine. D) Riboflavin.

A

A patient is to receive his daily isoniazid (INH) dosage for tuberculosis. He states he is feeling nauseated with this medication and refuses to take it. The nurse knows that the correct way to indicate this refusal is to: A) Document the reason for refusa along with the date and time in the patient's medical record. B) Circle the scheduled time of medication administration on the medication record. C) Initial the scheduled time of medication administration on the medication record. D) Notify the primary care provider that the patient refused to take the medication.

A

A patient who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) to treat a respiratory tract infection contacts the healthcare professional to report dyspepsia. The healthcare professional should recommend which of the following instructions? A) Take an antacid at least 2 hr after taking the drug. B) Take the drug with a cup of coffee. C) Take an iron supplement with the drug. D) Drink 8 oz of milk with the drug

A

A patient who is taking metformin (Glucophage) to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus contacts the healthcare professional to report muscle pain. The healthcare professional should suspect which of the following adverse reactions? A) Lactic acidosis. B) Anticholinergic effects. C) Extrapyramidal symptomos. D) Hypophosphatemia

A

A patient who reports chronic pain states that his fentanyl (Duragesic) topical patch is no longer effective for pain relief. The health care professional should suspect which of the following? A) Tolerance to the drug; B) Dependence on the drug; C) Drug toxicity; D) Drug interaction

A

An uncommon, unexpected or individual drug response thought to result from a genetic predisposition is called: A) An indiosyncratic effect. B) An allergic response. C) A toxic effect. D) A synergistic effect.

A

Because of the potential for adverse effects, which of the following should a health care professional recommend for patients who begin taking carbamazepine (Tegretol)? A) Begin taking the drug at a low dosage; B) Discontinue the drug immediately if diarrhea occurs; C) Have serum glucose levels checked regularly; D) Take the drug on an empty stomach

A

For which of the following inhalation medication delivery methods is it important for the nurse to assess the patient's ability to inhale deeply before adminstering the medication? A) Dry powder inhaler (DPI). B) Nasal spray. C) Metered dose inhaler (MDI) with attached spacer. D) Use of a nebulizer via a mask.

A

For which of the following reasons should a patient attach a spacer to a metered-dose inhaler? A) To increase the amount of drug delivered to the lungs. B) To increase the amount of drug delivered to the oropharynx. C) To increase the amount of drug delivered on exhalation. D) To increase the speed of drug delivery

A

When advising a patient about taking prednisone for chronic asthma, a healthcare professional should include which of the following information? A) Avoid taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NDAIDs). B) Rinse your mouth after taking the drug to prevent a yeast infection. C) Stop taking the drug if you become nauseated. D) Change position slowly when standing up

A

When caring for a patient who is receiving vincristine to treat lung cancer, the health care professional should monitor for which of the following findings that indicates an adverse effect? A) Weak hand grasps. B) Constricted pupils. C) Bradycardia. D) Crackles

A

When caring for a patient who is taking risperidone (Risperdol) for schizophrenia, the healthcare professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of the drug? A) Polyuria; B) Seizures; C) Chest pain; D) Paresthesias

A

When considering drug therapy options for a patient who has metastatic breast cancer that is positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), the healthcare professional should choose which of the following drugs? A) Trastuzumab (Herceptin). B) matinib (Gleevec). C) Leuprolide (Lupron). D) Flutamide

A

When talking to a patient about taking modafinil (Provigil) to treat narcolepsy, which of the following instructions should the health care professional include? A) Take the drug in the morning; B) Take the drug 30 min before bedtime; C) Anticipate daytime drowsiness; D) Expect urinary frequency

A

When talking to a patient who is about ot begin vincristine therapy to treat lymphoma, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Increase fiber intake. B) Report tinnitus or vertigo. C) Take the drug with 8 oz of water. D) Allow 4 hr before taking an antacid

A

When talking to a patient who is about to begin glipizide (Glucotrol) therapy to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Avoid drinking alcohol. B) Sit or stand for 30 min after taking the drug. C)Urinate every 4 hr. D) Take the drug 2 hr after a meal

A

When talking with a patient about taking amiodarone (Cordarone) to treat atrial fibrillation, which of the following should the healthcare professional tell the patient to avoid? A) Grapefruit juice. B) Milk. C) Foods high in vitamin K. D) NSAIDs

A

When talking with a patient about using leuprolide (Lupron) to treat endometriosis, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Perform weight-bearing activities. B) Wear sunscreen or protective clothing. C) Take the drug with food to increase absorption. D) Avoid drinking grapefruit juice

A

When talking with a patient who is about to begin repaglinide (Prandin) therapy to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Do not drink more than 1 L of grapefruit juice per day. B) Carry a high-protein snack at all times. C) Drink 16 oz of water after taking the drug. D) Use ginseng to reduce nausea.

A

When talking with a patient who is receiving leuprolide (Lupron) to treat endometriosis, the healthcare professional should advise the patient to expect which of the following side effects? A) Vaginal dryness. B) Hypertension. C) Blurred vision. D) Orthostatic hypotension

A

Which of the following demonstrates the correct use of one of the Six Rights of Medication Administration? A) Administering a patient's medication by the route the provider has prescribed. B) Adhering as closely as possible to the medication schedule the patient follows at home. C) Gathering a medication history from the patient before administering any drugs. D) Respecting a patient's refusal to take a new medication the provider has prescribed.

A

Which of the following information should a healthcare professional include when talking to a patient about taking baclofen (Lioresal)? A) Avoid driving until the drug's effects are evident; B) Stop taking the drug immediately if headache occurs; C) Take the drug as needed for spasticity; D) Take the drug with antacids to reduce gastric effects

A

While talking about drug therapy options for hypertension, the provider notes that the patient also has some manifestations of depression that require treatment. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is inappropriate for the patient? A) Reserpine. B) Captopril (Capoten). C) Hydralazine. D) Eplerenone (Inspra)

A

A health care professional obtaining a patient's health history discovers that the patient takes loratadine (Claritin), an OTC drug. Which of the following information about OTC drugs is correct? (Select all that apply): A) They do not require supervision of a health care professional; B) They can interact with other drugs; C) They should be included in the drug history assessment; D) They are less effective than prescription drugs; E) They do not cause toxicity

A, B, C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking isoniazid (INH) to treat tuberculosis. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse effects of the drug? (Select all that apply). A) Jaundice. B) Numbness of the hand. C) Dizziness. D) Hearing loss. E) Oral ulcers

A, B, C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin takng transdermal conjugated estrogen and edroxyprogesterone (CombiPatch) to treat postmenopausal symptoms. The healthcare professional should explain to the patient that the drug combination includes which of the following therapeutic effects? (Select all that apply). A) Reduces the risk of ovarian cancer. B) Relieves hot flashes. C) Prevents osteoporosis. D) Reduces the risk of breast cancer. E) Reduces the risk of thromboembolism

A, B, C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is receiving IV methylergonovine (Methergine) to stop postpartum hemorrhage. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply). A) Seizure activity. B) Hypertension. C) Bradycardia. D) Water intoxication. E) Bronchospasm

A, B, C

When talking to a patient about taking vancomycin (Vancocin), the health care professional explains the need to check p eriodic blood levels of the drug to monitor serum peak and trough. Peak and trough drug levels help monitor for which of the following (Select all that apply)? A) Drug toxicity; B) Minimum effective dose; C) Constant therapeutic level; D) Biotransormation; E) First-pass effect

A, B, C

When talking with a patient about taking fludrocortisone to treat adrenocortical insufficiency, the healthcare professional should tell the patient to do which of the following to reduce the risk of adverse reactions? (Select all that apply). A) Weigh yourself daily. B) Report weakness or palpitations. C) Have your blood pressure checked regularly. D) Eat more iron-rich foods. E) Avoid drinking grapefruit juice

A, B, C

When talking with a patient who is about to begin exenatide (Byetta) therapy to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? (Select all that apply). A) Inject the drug subcutaneously. B) Expect the peak effect in 2 hr. C) Use the drug as a supplement to an oral hypoglycemic. D) Inject the drug 1 hr after a meal. E) Discard used pens 10 days after the first use

A, B, C

A healthcare professional is assessing a patient following a trastuzumab (Herceptin) infusion to treat metastatic breast cancer. Which of the following findings indicates an adverse reaction to the drug? (Select all that apply). A) Wheezing. B) Dysrhythmias. C) Hypotension. D) Fever. E) Ascities

A, B, C, D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin receiving cisplatin to treat testicular cancer. The healthcare professional should tell t he patient to report which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply). A) Paresthesias. B) Sore throat. C) Flank pain. D) Tinnitus. E) Conjunctivitis

A, B, C, D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking tramadol (Ultram) to treat moderate acute pain from a shoulder injury. When talking with the patient about the drug, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? (Select all that apply). A) Increase fiber and fluid intake. B) Take the drug with food. C) Avoid driving after taking the drug. D) Change positions gradually. E) Reduce exercise level temporarily

A, B, C, D

A patient who has a peanut allergy comes to the emergency department with suspected anaphylactic shock. Which of the following actions should you anticipate taking? (Select all that apply): A) Initiate oxygen therapy to support respiratory function; B) Administer epinephrine to increase blood pressure; C) Give diphenhydramine to stop histamine release; D) Establish and maintain an open airway to ensure oxygenation; E) Administer a drug agonist to neutralize the allergic reaction

A, B, C, D

A patient who is postpartum and is breastfeeding asks a health care professional about what effects taking over-the-counterdrugs will have on her newborn. Which of the following should the health care professional consider when recommending a drug for the patient? (Select all that apply): A) The newborn's weight; B) How much breast milk the newborn consumes each day; C) Whether or not the benefits to the mother outweigh the risks to the newborn; D) The properties of the drug; E) The route of administration of the drug

A, B, C, D

A health care professional is p reparing to explain how t o take care of a newly created colostomy to a patient. The health care professional should recognize that which of the following can decrease the patient's ability to learn? (Select all that apply): A) Cognitive level; B) Language; C) Comfort level; D) Mild anxiety; E) Readiness to learn

A, B, C, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has osteoarthritis and is about to begin taking aspirin. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following possible indications of salicylism? (Select all that apply). A) Fever. B) Tinnitis. C) Diaphoresis. D) THrombophlebitis. E) Dizziness

A, B, C, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin captopril (Capoten) therapy to treat hypertension. When talking with the patient about taking the drug, the healthcare professional should tell her to report which of the following adverseeffects because they can indicate a need to stop drug therapy? (Select all that apply). A) Rash. B) Distorted taste. C) Swelling of the tongue. D) Photosensitivity . E) Dry cough

A, B, C, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking ferrous sulfate (Feosol) to treat iron-deficiency anemia. When talking with the patient about the drug, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? (Select all that apply). A) Eat iron-enriched foods. B) Spread the dosage across each day. C) Take the drug on an empty stomach. D) Report dark great or black stools. E) Increase dietary fiber intake

A, B, C, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking iron dextran (INFeD) therapy. When administering the drug IM, the healthcare professional should take which of the following actions? (Select all that apply). A) Administer a test dose. B) Monitor blood pressure. C) Have epinephrine available. D) Premedicate with atropine. E) Use the Z-track technique

A, B, C, E

A primary care provider has prescribed a dinoprostone (Cervidil) vaginal insert to promote cervical ripening in a patient who is at 40 weeks of gestation. When administering dinoprostone, which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take? (Select all that apply). A) Have the patient urinate prior to insertion. B) Remove the pouch when active labor begins. C) Monitor for uterine hyperstimulation. D) Encourage the patient to walk after insertion. E) Monitor the patient's temperature

A, B, C, E

Primary care providers prescribe drug dosages for children using which of the following information (Select all that apply)? A) Body surface area; B) Age; C) Weight; D) Developmental level; E) Drug properties

A, B, C, E

A health care professional is talking about drugs that have a small margin of safety to a patient who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin). The health care professional should include which of the following information? (Select all that apply): A) Periodic laboratory tests are essential to measure serum drug levels; B) Monitoring for indications of toxicity is important; C) Effects can decrease over an extended period of time; D) Taking the smallest effective dose is crucial; E) Increasing fluid intake is recommended to avoid toxicity

A, B, D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin aliskiren (Tekturna) therapy to treat hypertension. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects of the drug? (Select all that apply). A) Hyperkalemia. B) Throat swelling. C) Constipation. D) Cough. E) Joint pain.

A, B, D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking bethanechol (Urecholine) for urinary retention. When advising the patient about taking the drug. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply). A) Avoid driving and activities that require alertness. B) Increase fluid intake. C) Take the drug with food. D) Stay close to a bathroom after taking the drug. E) Increase weight-bearing activities

A, B, D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin maraviroc (Selzentry) therapy. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse effects of the drug? (Select all that apply). A) Paresthesias. B) Cough. C) TInnitus. D) Jaundice. E) Fever

A, B, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid) to treat bipolar disorder. The healthcare professional should caution the patient to watch for which of the following indications of lithium toxicity? (Select all that apply). A) Tremors; B) Confusion; C) Bronchospasm; D) Nausea; E) Muscle weakness

A, B, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking mercaptopurine (Purinethol) to treat leukemia. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include when talking with the patient about the drug? (Select all that apply). A) Use contraception if pregnancy is a risk. B) Perform oral hygiene frequently. C) Avoid actibities that require mental alertness. D) Perform hand hygiene frequently. E) Avoid activities that can cause injury

A, B, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking propulthiouracil (PTU) to treat hyperthyroidism. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply). A) Sore throat. B) Muscle pain. C) Insomnia. D) Bradycardia. E) Rash

A, B, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking naloxone to treat a morphine overdose. The health care professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply). A) Tachypnea. B) Increased pain. C) Thrombophlebitis. D) Tachycardia. E) Hypertension

A, B, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for apatient who is about to begin amitriptyline therapy to treat major depression. The healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions when talking with the patient about taking the drug? (Select all that apply) A) Change position slowly from sitting or lying to standing; B) Do not stop taking the drug abruptly; C) Wear sunscreen and protective clothing; D) Take the drug at bedtime to prevent daytime drowsiness; E) Increase the fiber and fluid intake

A, B, D, E

A health care professional is caring for a patient who arrived at an urgent care center following a bee sting. Which of the following findings indicates an anaphylactic reaction? (Select all that apply). A) Low blood pressure; B) Wheezing; C) Bradycardia; D) Peripheral edema; E) Swallowing difficulty

A, B, E

A healthcare professional should recognize that depolarizing muscle relaxants, such as succinylcholine (Anectine), require cautious use with patients who have which of the following? (Select all that apply) A) Hyperkalemia. B) Myasthenia gravis. C) Renal calculi. D) Bowel obstruction. E) Respiratory depression

A, B, E

A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who has a new prescription for simvistatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply). A) Report muscle pain to the provider. B) Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice. C) Take the medication in the early morning. D) Expect a flushing of the skin as a reaction to the medication. E) Expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong.

A, B, E

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for methylprednisolone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply). A) Blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy. B) Avoid contact with people who have known infections. C) Take the medication 1 hr before breakfast. D) Decrease dietary intake of foods containing potassium. E) Grapefruit juice can increase the effects of the medication.

A, B, E

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for methylprednisoone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply). A) 'Blood glucose levels will need to be monitored during therapy." B) "Avoid contact with persons who have known infections. C) "Take the medication 1 hour before a meal." D) "Decrease intake of foods containing potassium." E) "Grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of the medication."

A, B, E

Which of the following instructions should a healthcare professional include when advising a patient about instilling pilocarpine (Isopto Carpine) for managing open-angle glaucoma? (Select all that apply). A) Apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 1 min after instilling the drops; B) DO not touch the tip of the dropper; C) Wash hands after instilling the drops; D) Rub eyes gently after instilling the drops; E) Remove contact lenses prior to instilling the drops

A, B, E

A healthcare professional should advise patients to take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for which of the following? (Select all that apply). A) To reduce fever. B) To decrease inflammation. C) To relieve mild pain. D) To promote sedation. E) To alleviate anxiety

A, C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is to begin taking calcitonin-salmon (Miacalcin) intranasal spray to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply). A) Report rash or itching. B) Deliver two sprays to each nostril. C) Prime the pump. D) Report nasal irritation. E) Hold the pump horizontally

A, C, D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking imatinib (Gleevec) to treat chronic myeloid leukemia. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include when talking to the patient about taking the drug? (Select all that apply). A) Clean fruits and vegetables thoroughly. B) Increase calcium intake. C) Weigh yourself daily. D) Perform hand hygiene frequently. E) Avoid herbal supplements.

A, C, D, E

A healthcare professional is about to administer ondansetron (Zofran) to a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take? (Select all that apply): A) Infuse the drug 30 min prior to chemotherapy. B) Administer the drug when the patient reports nausea. C) Infuse the drug slowly over 15 min. D) Administer the drug immediately following chemotherapy. E) Repeat the dose 4 hr after chemotherapy

A, C, E

A healthcare professional is advising a patient about the adverse effects of pseudoephedrine (Sudafed). Which of the following should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply). A) Restlessness. B) Bradycardia. C) Insomnia. D) Muscle pain. E) Anxiety

A, C, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking chloroquine (Aralen) to prevent malaria. When talking with the patient about taking the drug, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? (Select all that apply). A) Wear sunglasses outdoors. B) Take the drug with an antacid. C) Avoid driving. D) Take the drug with lemonade. E) Take the drug with food.

A, C, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking oprelvekin (Neumega) to treat thrombocytopenia. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following indications of an adverse reaction? (Select all that apply). A) Conjunctivits. B) Tinnitis. C) Swollen ankles. D) Jaundice. E) Palptations

A, C, E

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking oxybutynin for urinary incontinence. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply). A) Dry mouth. B) Tinnitus. C) Blurred vision. D) Bradycardia. E) Dry eyes.

A, C, E

A nurse is caring for a client who has sickle cell anemia and is taking hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply). A) Hemoglobin 7.0 g/dL. B) Creatinine 1 mg/dL. C) RBC 4.7 million/mm^3. D) Platelets 75,000/mm^3. E) Potassium 5.2 mEq/L

A, D, E

A patient recovering from a total knee arthroplasty has been prescribed acetaminophen (Tylenol) for mild discomfort that does not require an opioid. The health care professional should tell the patient to report which of the following early indications of acetaminophen overdose? (Select all that apply) A) Diaphoresis. B) Palpitations. C) Shortness of breath. D) Nausea. E) Diarrhea

A, D, E

A health care professional is caring for a p atient who is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol), a nonopioid analgesic, and codeine, an opioid agonist, for pain relief. These drugs interact together causing an additive effect. Which of the following characteristics of additive drug interactions? (Select all that apply): A) Patients can achieve desired effects with the use of lower dosages; B) Taking two drugs together can reduce the effects of one or both drugs; C) Taking two drugs together can potentiate the effects of one or both drugs; D) The two drugs produce an action neither would have produced alone; E) Both drugs have similar actions

A, E

A circulating nurse is planning care for a client who is scheduled for surgery and has a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A) Schedule the client for the last surgery of the day. B) Place monitoring cords and tubes in a stockinet. C) Choose rubber injection ports for fluid administration. D) Ensure phenytoin IV is readily available.

B

A drug's generic name is the: A) Chemical name for the medication. B) Same as its nonproprietary name. C) Name under which the drug is marketed. D) Formal name of the particular drug

B

A healh care professional is caring for a patient who has a history of renal insufficiency and is taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid). The health care professional should monitor for which of the following? A) Tolerance to the drug; B) Drug toxicity; C) Drug interaction; D) Dependence on the drug

B

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking dantrolene (Dantrium) for skeletal muscle spasms. The health care professional should recognize that which of the following laboratory tests requires monitoring? A) Serum potassium; B) Liver function; C) Serum sodium; D) Thyroid function

B

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is receiving nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) IV and is changing to the oral form of the drug. The health care professional should recognize that the oral dose will be higher than the IV dose because of which of the following? A) The IV dose crossing the blood-brain barrier; B) Decreased bioavailability because of the first-pass effect; C) Decreased half-life of the oral dose; D) Increased rate of excretion of the oral dose

B

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is taking zolpidem (Ambien). The patient has a history of benzodiazepine abuse and reports insomnia. The health care professional should caution the patient that the drug can cause; A) Hearing loss; B) Memory impairment; C) Join pain; D) Constipation

B

A health care professional is reviewing the medical record of a patient who has a newly diagnosed seizure disorder. The patient is to begin taking both valproic acid (Depakote) and phenytoin (Dilantin). The health care professional should recognize that which of the following can occur as a result of a drug interactoin between valproic acid and phenytoin. A) Hyperammonemia; B) Phenytoin toxicity; C) Hypertension; D) Peptic ulcer disease

B

A health care professional is talking with a female patient who is taking captopril (Capoten), an ACE inhibitor, for hypertension. The health care professional informs the patient that captopril isa teratogenic drug. Teratogenic drugs can cause which of the following? A) Maternal bleeding; B) Fetal malformation; C) Gestational diabetes; D) Maternal blood clots

B

A healthcare professional I s caring for a male patient who has hyperthyroidism that has not responded to treatment. The healthcare professional should recognize that this thyroid disorder is a contraindication for which of the following genitourinary-system drugs? A) Sildenafil (Viagra). B) Bethanechol (Urecholine). C) Tamsulosin (Flomax). D) Finasteride (Proscar)

B

A healthcare professional is administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) subcutaneously to a patient who has renal failure. The healthcare professional should take which of the following actions? A) Shake the vial before using. B) Insert the needle into the vial once. C) Dilute the drug first with normal saline. D) Save the used vial for the next dose.

B

A healthcare professional is administering succinylcholine (Anectine) to a patient. Which of the following information is correct regarding depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents? A) Reverses with a cholinesterase inhibitor, such as neostigmine (Prostigmin). B) Causes muscle paralysis by binding with cholinergic receptors at the neuromuscular junction. C) Prevents the nerve from depolarizing and the skeletal muscle from contracting. D) Blocks acetylcholine from binding with cholinergic receptors at hte motr endplate

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has benign prostatic hypertrophy and is taking tamsulosin (Flomax). The healthcare professional should question the use of the drug if the patient also has which of the following? A) A seizure disorder for which he takes carbamazepine (Tegretol). B) Erectile dysfunction for which he takes sildenafil (Viagra). C) Diabetes mellitus for which he takes glyburide (DiaBeta). D) Angle-closure glaucoma for which he takes pilocarpine

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has mild hemophila A and is about to begin taking desmopressin (DDAVP) to prevent bleeding. The healthcare professional should monitor for which of the following adverse reactions? A) Weight loss. B) Edema. C) Polyuria. D) Tachycardia

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has myasthenia gravis and has been prescribed neostigmine (Prostigmin) to increase muscle strength. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to watch for which of the following as an indication of a serious adverse reaction to the drug? A) Constipation. B) Bradycardia. C) Edema. D) Fever

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about ot begin taking folic acid to treat megaloblastic anemia. The healthcare professional should monitor which of the folowing laboratory values? A) Amylase level. B) Reticulocyte count. D) C-reactive protein. E) Creatinine clearance

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin alteplase (Activase) therapy to treat pulmonary embolism. Which of the following drugs should the healthcare professional have available in the event of a severe adverse reaction? A) Vitamin K. B) Aminocaproic acid (Amicar). C) Protamine. D) Deferoxamine (Desferal)

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin alteplase (Activase) therapy. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following indications of a possible adverse effect? A) Hives. B) Headache. C) Edema. D) Hypertension.

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin pramlintide (Symlin) therapy to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include when talking with the patient about using the drug? A) Mix pramlintide with insulin. B) Inject pramlintide before meals. C) Take pramlintide at bedtime. D) Inject pramlintide into the upper arm.

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV to treat a viral infection. The healthcare professional should recognize that cautious use of the drug is essential if the patient also has which of the following? A) Heart failure. B) Dehydration. C) Asthma. D) Tinnitus

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking cephalexin (Keflex) to treat bacterial meningitis. The healthcare professional should explain to the patient the need to monitor which of the following laboratory tests? A) Prothrombin time. B) Creatinine. C) Aspartate aminotransferase. D) Potassium

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking clopidogrel (Plavix) to prevent thrombus formation. The healthcare professional should question the use of clopidogrel by a patient who has which of the following? A) Myocardial infarction. B) Peptic ulcer disease. C) Pancreatitis. D) Myasthenia gravis

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking ethacrynic acid (Edecrin) to treat heart failure. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following indications of a potentially serious adverse reaciton? A) Shortness of breath. B) Hearing loss. C) Swelling in the legs. D) Blurred vision

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking pramipexole (Mirapex) to treat Parkinson's disease. The healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following laboratory tests require monitoring? A) C-reactive protein; B) Creatinine phosphokinase (CPK); C) Thyroid function; D) CBC

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking simvastatin (Zocor) to treat hypercholesterolemia. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following indications of a serious adverse reaction that could warrant stopping drug therapy? A) Bronchoconstriction. B) Muscle pain. C) Lip numbness. D) Somnolence.

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin using betaxolol (Betoptic) eye drops to treat open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare professional should advise the patient to expect which of the following reactions? A) Diaphoresis; B) Ocular stinging; C) Eyelid twitching; D) Nasal discharge

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is receiving thiopental (Pentothal). For which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor? A) Cardiac excitability; B) Respiratory depression; C) Hyperthermia; D) Hypotension

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat hypertension. Which of the following laboratory values should alert the healthcare professional to take further action? A) Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L. B) Serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. C) Serum chloride level of 100 mEq/L. D) Serum magnesium level of 1.9 mEq/L.

B

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer butorphanol (Stadol) to a patient for pain control. During administration, the healthcare professional should take which of the following actions? A) Caution the patient about the drug's potential for abuse. B) Withhold the drug for respiratory rates below 12/min. C) Administer one nasal spray into each nostril. D) Give the drug with an opioid agonist for maximal effects

B

A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a patient who is to begin taking ranitidine (Zantac). Which of the following medications interacts with ranitidine? A) Phenobarbital sodium (Luminal). B) Ketoconazole. C) Lisinopril (Prinivil). D) Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)

B

A healthcare professional should advise a patient who has which of the folowing to stop taking ibuprofen (Advil) to treat an occasional headache or muscle strain? A) Penicillin allergy. B) Peptic ulcer disease. C) Dysmenorrhea. D) Hyperthyroidism

B

A healthcare professional should advise a patient who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) to avoid tyramine-enriched foods because of an increased risk for which of the following adverse reactoins? A) Respiratory depression; B) Hypertensive crisis; C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; D) Serotonin syndrome

B

A healthcare professional should explain to a patient who is prescribed diphenhydramine tha the most common side effect associated with the drug is A) Muscle tremors. B) Sedation. C) Anxiety. D) Insomnia

B

A healthcare professional should question the use of alprazolam (Xanax) for a patient who: A) Takes valproic acid (Depakote) for a seizure disorder; B) Drinks two 8-oz glasses of wine each evening; C) Has a history of thromboembolism; D) Takes prednisolone (Prelone) for rheumatoid arthritis

B

A healthcare professional should question the use of anastrazole (Arimidex) for a patient who is A) Allergic to salicylates. B) Premenopausal. C) Hearing impaired. D) Immunocompromised

B

A healthcare professional should question the use of cyclophosphamide for a patient who has which of the following? A) Raynaud's syndrome. B) Dehydration. C) Jaundice. D) Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome

B

A healthcare professional should question the use of dimenhydrinate for a patient who has which of the following disorders? A) Hyperthyroidism. B) Angle-closure glaucoma. C) Hypertension. D) Diabetes mellitus

B

A healthcare professional should question the use of etanercept (Enbrel) for a patient who has a history of diabetes mellitus because of which of the following risks? A) Kidney toxicity. B) Infection. C) Gout. D) Deep-vein thrombosis

B

A healthcare professional should question the use of the combination oral contraceptive ethinyl estradiol and drospirenone (Yasmin) by a patient who A) Has a glass of wine each night. B) Smokes half a pack of cigarettes a day. C) Is a marathon runner. D) Drives a school bus.

B

A healthcare professional who is advising a patient about the use of an expectorant to treat a cough should explain that this type of drug is effective because it performs which of the following actions? A) Suppresses the cough stimulus. B) Reduces the surface tension. C) Reduces inflammation. D) Dries mucous membranes

B

A nruse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and a prescription for clozapine. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review before administering the medication? A) Troponin. B) Total cholesterol. C) Creatinine. D) Thyroid stimulating hormone.

B

A nurse administers the first dose of a patient's prescribed antibiotic via IV piggyback. During the first 10 to 15 min of administration of the medication, the nurse gives priority to which of the following assessments? A) IV site for redness or swelling. B) Patient for systemic allergic reaction. C) IV dressing for signs of leakage. D) Limb for signs of discomfort

B

A nurse at a clinic is providing follow-up care to a client who is taking fluoxetine for depression. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Tingling toes. B) Sexual dysfunction. C) Absence of dreams. D) Pica.

B

A nurse has administered 2 doses of betamethasone to a client in preterm labor. After delivery of the newborn, the nurse understands the medication was effective when she observes which of the following? A) The newborn is free of infection. B) The newborn has normal respiratory patterns. C) Mother's blood pressure is within the expected reference range. D) Mother's postpartum bleeding is minimal

B

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has heroin toxicity. The client is unresponsive with pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6/min. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? A) Methadone. B) Naloxone. C) Diazepam. D) Bupropion.

B

A nurse is administering a subcutaneous injection to a patient. Which of the following data should the nurse recognize as the highest priority to prevent potential complications? A) Identify the patient's level of knowledge about the medication. B) Identify if the patient has allergies to the medication. C) Identify a specific site for the injection. D) Identify the rationale for the patient receiving the medication.

B

A nurse is administering baclofen for a client who has a spinal cord injury. Which of the following should the nurse document as a therapeutic outcome? A) Increase in seizure threshold. B) Decrease in flexor and extensor spasticity. C) Increase in cognitive function. D) Decrease in paralysis of the extremities.

B

A nurse is administering cefotetan via intermittent IV bolus to a client who suddenly develops dyspnea and widespread hives. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A) Administer epinephrine 0.5 mL via IV bolus. B) Discontinue the medication IV infusion. C) Elevate the client's legs above the level of the heart. D) Collect a blood specimen for ABGs.

B

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor? A) Paresthesia. B) Increased blood pressure. C) Fever. D) Respiratory depression.

B

A nurse is caring for a 20-year-old female client who has a prescription for isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne vulgaris. Before the client can obtain a refill, the nurse should advise the client that which of the following tests is required? A) Serum calcium. B) Pregnancy test. C) 24 hr urine collection for protein. D) Aspartate aminotransferase level.

B

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute acetaminophen toxicity. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications? A) Vitamin K. B) Acetylcysteine. C) Benztrophine. D) Physostigmine

B

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Bradycardia. B) Hyperkalemia. C) Loss of smell. D) Hypoglycemia.

B

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy via continuous IV infusion to treat a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication and report to the provider? A) Vomiting. B) Blood in the urine. C) Positive Chvostek's sign. D) Ringing in the ear

B

A nurse is caring for a mother of a newborn. The mother asks the nurse when her newborn should receive his first diphteria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine (DTaP). The nurse should instruct the mother that her newborn should receive the immunization at which of the following ages? A) Birth. B) 2 months. C) 6 months. D) 15 months.

B

A nurse is collecting a medication history from a client who has a new prescription for lithium. The nurse should identify that the client should discontinue which of the following over-the counter medications? A) Aspirin. B) Ibuprofen. C) Ranitidine. D) Bisacodyl

B

A nurse is instructing a client on the application of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A) "I should apply a patch every 5 minutes if I develop chest pain." B) "I will take the patch off right after my evening meal." C) "I will leave the patch off at least 1 day each week." D) "I should discard the used patch by flushing it down the toilet."

B

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving amphotericin B intermittent IV bolus for the treatment of histoplasmosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse reaction to the medication? A) Tachycardia. B) Oliguria. C) Hyperkalemia. D) Weight gain

B

A nurse is monitoring for adverse effects of hydrochlorothiazide after administering the medication to an older adult client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Hypoglycemia. B) Orthostatic hypotension. C) Bradycardia. D) Xanthopsia.

B

A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypertension and is to start taking metoprolol. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A) Weigh the client weekly. B) Determine apical pulse prior to administering. C) Administer the medication 30 min prior to breakfast. D) Monitor the client for jaundice.

B

A nurse is planning care for a client who is prescribed metoclopramide following bowel surgery. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? A) Muscle weakness. B) Sedation. C) Tinnitus. D) Peripheral edema.

B

A nurse is preparing to instill antibiotic ear drops into a toddler's ear. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use when administering ear drops to this patient? A) Have the patient maintain side-lying position for 30 min after administration of ear drops; B) Pull the patient's auricle down and back to open the canal when administering ear drops. C) The nurse should don sterile gloves prior to administration of ear drops; D) Insert the tip of the dropper into the ear canal when administering ear drops

B

A nurse is providing teaching about adverse effects of clindamycin to a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider? A) Orange urine. B) Watery diarrhea. C) Weight gain. D) Headache.

B

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication with which of the following to promote absorption? A) Vitamin E. B) Orange juice. C) Milk. D) Antacids.

B

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for ergotamine sublingual to treat migraine headaches. Which of the following information should the nurse include in her instructions? A) "Take one tablet three times a day before meals." B) "Take one tablet at onset of migraine." C) "Take up to eight tablets as needed within a 24-hour period." D) "Take one tablet every 15 minutes until migraine subsides."

B

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to receiving propranolol? A) Cholelithiasis. B) Asthma. C) Angina pectoris. D) Tachycardia.

B

A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. The client asks if she can take aspirin while taking the warfarin. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A) "It is safe to take an enteric-coated aspirin." B) "Aspirin will increase the risk of bleeding." C) "Acetaminophen may be substituted for aspirin." D) "The INR lab work must be monitored more frequently if aspirin is taken."

B

A nurse is teaching a client who has an upper respiratory infection about guaifenesin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A) "Constipation is an expected adverse effect of this medication.". B) "Increase your fluid intake to at least 2 liters each day while taking this medication." C) "Store your medication in the refrigerator." D) "You can expect to experience insomnia while taking this medication."

B

A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking diltiazem. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Blurred vision. B) Shortness of breath. C) Muscle twitching. D) Dry cough

B

A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking ranitidine for peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as understanding the teaching? A) "I will stop taking ranitidine when my stomach pain is gone." B) "I know smoking makes ranitidine less effective." C) "I will take ranitidine anytime my stomach hurts." D) "I know that ranitidine will turn my stools black."

B

A nurse is teaching about zolpidem with a client who has insomnia. The nurse should identify that which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? A) "I will need to get laboratory testing prior to a refill of this medication." B) "I will use this medication for a short period of time." C) "I will need to take this medication for 1 week before results are seen." D) "I will need to change the medications to prevent building up a tolerance."

B

A nurse on the acute care unit is caring for a client who is receiving gentamicin IV. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Constipation. B) Tinnitus. C) Hypoglycemia. D) Joint pain.

B

A nurse will be administering several medications to ap atient who is receiving enteral feedings through a small bore nasogastric tube. The nurse administers the medications correctly by A) Adding crushed medications to the neteral tube feedings and infusing via an electronic pump. B) Infusing each medication by gravity and flushing with water before and after instillation. C) Administering medications through a large bulb syringe. D) Lowering the syringe to promote instillation of medicaiton.

B

A patient was admitted to the hospital for same day surgery and has orders for continuous intravenous (IV) therapy. Before performing a venipuncture, the nurse should A) Place a cold compress over the vein. B) Inspect the IV solution for fluid color, clarity and epiration date. C) Apply a tourniquet 1 to 2 inc above selected insertion site. D) Secure an armboard to the joint

B

A patient who is taking glipizide (Glucotrol) to treat type 2 diabets mellitus contacts the healthcare professional to report feeling shaky, hungry, and fatigued. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to do which of the following? A) Drink 16 oz of water. B) Perform a fingerstick blood glucose check. C) Take another glipizide tablet. D) Lie down and rest

B

A patient who is taking imipenem (Primaxin) to treat a bacterial infection contacts the healthcare professional t o report an inability to eat because of mouth pain. Recognizing the adverse effects of imipenem, the healthcare professional should suspect which of the following? A) Malabsorption. B) Suprainfection. C) Anorexia. D) Dental caries

B

A patient who is taking propylthiouracil (PTU) contacts the healthcare professional to report weight gain, drowsiness, and depression. The healthcare professional should suspect which of the following adverse reactions to the propylthiouracil? A) THyrotoxicosis. B) Hypothyroidism. C) Lactic acidosis. D) Radiation sickness

B

A patient who is taking tetracycline orally to treat a chlamydia infection contacts the healthcare professional to report severe blood-tinged diarrhea. Recogniznig the adverse effects of tetracycline, the healthcare professional should suspect which of the following? A) Hemorrhoids. B) Pseudomembranous enterocolitis. C) Diverticular disease. D) Small bowel obstruction

B

A patient who takes low-dose aspirin to prevent cardiovascular events asks a health care professional about taking ibuprofen (Advil) to treat rheumatoid arthritis. The healthcare professional should respond with which of the following statements? A) Ibuprofen will increase the risk for salicylism. B) Ibuprofen will reduce the antiplatelet effects of low-dose aspirin. C) Low-dose aspirin will reduce the anti-inflammatory effects of ibuprofen. D) Low-dose aspirin will reduce the analgesic effects of ibuprofen

B

A primary care provider should use caution when prescribing sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) for a patient who has: A) Pancreatitis. B) Aspirin sensitivity. C) Bronchitis. D) GERD.

B

A primary care provider who is considering the various pharmacologic options for a patient who has peptic ulcer disease should understand that which of the following drugs require monitoring of the patient's phosphorus levels? A) Omeprazole (Prilosec). B) Aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel). C) Sucralfate (Carafate). D) Ranitidine (Zantac)

B

A provider is considering the various drug therapy options for treating a patient's cardiac dysrhythmia. He should be aware that which of the following antidysrhythmic drugs is appropriate only for short-term use because of its severe adverse effects with long-term use? A) Quinidine. B) Procainamide. C) Nitroglycerin. D) Verapamil (Calan)

B

An anesthetist is about to administer lidocaine (Xylocaine) as part of the protocol for spinal anesthesia for a patient who is undergoing a surgical procedure. The healthcare professional should be aware that the patient could develop which of the following potentially serious effects? A) Tachycardia; B) Hypotension; C) Hyperthermia; D) Hemoptysis

B

An olderadult patient who has hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec), a drug that is eliminated by the kidneys. Before the patient begins the drug, the health care professional should assess which of the following blood values? A) Total cholesterol; B) Serum creatinine; C) Platelet count; D) C-reactive protein

B

Before prescribing dextromethorphan (Robitussin) to a patient, the primary care provider should know that, when given with an opioid, the drug can result in which of the following? A) Reduced antitussive effect of dextromethorphan. B) Potentiation of the analgesic effect of the opioid. C) Increased renal reabsorption of the dextromethorphan. D) Delayed analgesic effect of the opioid.

B

During and immediately following IV administration of chlorpromazine to a patient who has shizoaffective disorder, the healthcare professional should monitor which of the following? A) Cardiac output; B) Blood pressure; C) Urine specific gravity; D) Oxygen saturation

B

Legal restrictions apply to the purchase of pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) because of which of the following risks? A) Respiratory depression. B) Drug abuse. C) Drug tolerance. D) Rebound congestion

B

To determine the effectiveness of desmopressin (DDAVP), a healthcare professional should monitor a patient's: A) Peripheral pulses. B) Urine output. C) Skin integrity. D) Blood glucose

B

When considering replacement therapy options for a patient who has chronic adrenocortical insufficiency, the primary care provider should choose which of the following drugs? A) Somatropin (Genotropin). B) Hydrocortisone (Cortef). C) Glucagon (GlucaGen). D) Desmopressin (DDAVP).

B

When explaining how a patient should use ipratropium (Atrovent), a healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Do not drink anything for 30 min after using the drug. B) Wait 5 min between using the drug and another inhaled drug. C) This drug is used to thin respiratory secretions. D) Check pulse rate after inhaling the drug

B

When talking with a patient about taking clonidine (Catapres) to treat hypertension, the healthcare professional should explain that discontinuing clonidine therapy abruptly can result in which of the following adverse effects? A) Constipation. B) Hypertension. C) Drowsiness. D) Dry mouth.

B

When talking with a patient about taking lubiprostone (Amitiza), the healthcare professional should tell the patient not to take the drug if he has which of the following? A) Nausea. B) Diarrhea. C) Urinary retention. D) Sore throat

B

When talking with a patient about taking omeprazole (Prilosec) to treat a duodenal ulcer, the healthcare professsional should include which of the following instructions? A) Take the drug with food. B) Swallow the capsules whole. C) Dissolve the tablets in water. D) Take the drug at bedtime.

B

When talking with a patient about taking sildenafil (Viagra) to treat erectile dysfunction, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Take the drug with a glass of grapefruit juice. B) Do not take the drug with high-fat foods. C) Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin K. D) Avoid aged cheeses and red wine

B

When talking with a patient who is about to begin methotrexate (Trexall) therapy to treat non-Hodgkin lymphoma, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Take echinacea supplements. B) Use a soft-bristled toothbrush. C) Take aspirin to reduce muscle pain. D) Urinate every 4 hr

B

Which of the following drugs should a primary care provider prescribe to induce labor in a woman who is at 42 weeks of gestation? A) Methylergonovine (Methergine). B) Oxytocin (Pitocin). C) Leuprolide (Lupron). D) Terbutaline (Brethine)

B

Which of the following drugs should a provider prescribe for a patient who has stretococcal pharyngitis and is allergic to penicillin? A) Nafcillin (Unipen). B) Erythromycin. C) Cephalexin (Keflex). D) Amoxicilin/clavulanic acid (Augmentin)

B

Which of the following is a therapeutic action of raloxifene (Evista)? A) Blocks the effects of estrogen on endometrial tissue. B) Mimics the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. C) Stimulates secretion of parathyroid hormone. D) Stimulates menstruation

B

Which of the following patients is exhibiting drug tolerance? A) A patient continues to take a medication despite harmful effects. B) A patient requires an increased dose of a medication to achieve continued therapeutic benefit. C) A patient ehibits signs of withdrawal when a medication is discontinued. D) A patient develops an intense craving for a drug

B

While talking with a patient about taking chlorpromazine, which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include? A) Stop taking the drug immediately with the first sign of a sore throat; B) Wear sunscreen when exposed to sunlight; C) Take the drug with food to reduce GI distress; D) Take the drug in the morning to prevent nocturia

B

You have a handwritten medication order that is difficult to read. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take to avoid an error in medication administration? A) Ask another nurse to decipher the medication order. B) Call the medical provider for clarification of the order. C) Rely on your knowledge of the patient to get this order right. D) Inquire at the hospital pharmacy about the order

B

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking pioglitazone (Actos) to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. The healthcare professional should explain to the patient the need to monitor which of the following laboratory tests? (Select all that apply). A) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). B) ALanine aminotransferase (ALT). C) LDL. D) CBC. E) Creatinine clearance

B, C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking gemfibrozil (Lopid) to treat hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include when talking with the patient about the drug? (Select all that apply). A) Take the drug with food. B) Report any new intolerance to friend foods. C) Report muscle tenderness. D) Expect periodic liver function testing. E) Take the drug once a day.

B, C, D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin using transdermal testosterone gel (AndroGel) to treat delayed puberty. When talking with the patient, which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply). A) Apply the gel to the scrotum. B) Cover the area of application with clothing. C) Wash your hands after applying the gel. D) Do not shower for several hours after applying the gel. E) Apply the gel to the gums above an upper incisor

B, C, D

When treating a patient who has malignant hyperthermia, the healthcare professional should do which of the following? (Select all that apply). A) Administer a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent. B) Provide cooling measures. C) Administer dantrolene (Dantrium). D) Discontinue anestheisa. E) Reduce the IV fluid infusion rate

B, C, D

A halthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking prednisone to treat systemic lupus erythematosus. When talking with the patient about the drug, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instrutions? (Select all that apply). A) Reduce the dose during periods of stress. B) Discontinue the drug gradually. C) Report illness or infection. D) Increase intake of calcium and vitamin D. E) Monitor for signs of gastric bleeding

B, C, D, E

A healthcare professional administers oxybutynin (Ditropan) to a patient to treat neurogenic bladder. Which of the following assessment findings should the healthcare professional recognize as an adverse effect? (Select all that apply) A) Diaphoresis. B) Dilated puils. C) DIzziness. D) Distended bladder. E) Fever

B, C, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about o begin taking azathioprine (Imuran) to treat inflammatory bowel disease. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply): A) Impotence. B) Bruising. C) Jaundice. D) Sore throat. E) Nausea

B, C, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking allopurinol (Zyloprim) to prevent hyperuricemia. The health care professional should advise the patient to report which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply) A) Palpitations. B) Sore throat. C) Vertigo. D) Bruising. E) Vision changes

B, C, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is receiving morphine to relieve severe pain. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply). A) Diarrhea. B) Urinary retention. C) Respiratory suppression. D) Sedation. E) Orthostatic hypotension

B, C, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking prednisone and also takes 1500 mg/day of calcium carbonate (Tums) to reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply). A) Take the calcium tablets with food. B) Drink 8 oz of water with the calcium tablets. C) Chew calcium tablets before swallowing them. D) Take the drugs 1 hr apart. E) Divide the daily dose into three 500 mg doses.

B, C, D, E

A healthcare professional should question the use of dobutamine for a patient who is receivig which of the following types of drugs? (Select all that apply). A) ACE inhibitor. B) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors. C) General anesthetic. D)Tricyclic antidepressant. E) Beta blocker

B, C, D, E

Which of the following describes drugs that are in pregnancy risk category D? (Select all that apply): A) Are safe to take during the first trimester of pregnancy; B) Require the use of contraception by women of childbearing age; C) Can cause fetal malformation; D) Can pass through the umbilical cord or the placenta to the fetus; E) Require weighing potential benefits against possible risks

B, C, D,E

A patient asks you about the difference between a generic drug and a trade- or brand-name drug. You explain that a generic drug (select all that apply): A) Has the potential for abuse and dependence; B) Has the same chemical composition as the brand-name drug; C) May have several brand names; D) May have several generic names; E) Is usually less expensive than a brand-name drug

B, C, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking butorphanol for pain control. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply). A) Infecition. B) Nausea. C) Tachycardia. D) Dizziness. E) Headache

B, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is opioid-dependent and is about to begin taking butorphanol (Stadol). The healthcare professional should recognize the patient is at risk for developing a syndrome that causes which of the following? (Select all that apply). A) Bronchospasm. B) Vomiting. C) Peripheral edema. D) Abdominal cramps. E) Hypertension

B, D, E

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide twice daily. The nurse should include which of the following instructions in the teaching? (Select all that apply). A) "Take the second dose at bedtime." B) "Increase intake of potassium-rich foods." C) "Obtain your weight weekly." D) "Monitor for muscle weakness." E) "Dangle your legs from the side of the bed before standing."

B, D, E

When reviewing the indications for various antidepressants, a healthcare professional should understand that bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) is an appropriate choice for patients who have which of the following? (Select all that apply). A) Motion sickness; B) Seasonal affective disorder; C) Insomnia; D) Nicotine addiction; E) Depression

B, D, E

When talking with a patient about taking temazepam (Restoril), which of the following instructions should the health care professional include? (Select all that apply) A) Wear sunscreen and protective clothing; B) Avoid alcohol and other depressants; C) Increase fiber and fluid intake; D) Take the drug 30 min before bedtime; E) Taper the drug slowly to prevent withdrawal symptoms

B, D, E

A health care professional administers 2 units of Regular insulin (Humulin R) to a patient by subcutaneous injection at 0700. The package insert included with the Regular insulin bottle states that the onset of action is 30 to 60 minutes, the peak effect is 1 to 5 hr., and the duration of action is 6 to 10 hr. The health care professional should advise the patient to expect the lowest blood glucose level at which of the following times? A) 0700; B) 0730; C) 0900; D) 1300

C

A health care professional is obtaining a patient's health history. The patient states that he has no allergies but developed some mild itching while taking amoxicillin (Amoxil). Which of the following information should the health care professional explain to the patient? A) Itching is an expected side effect of amoxicillin; B) Itching can indicate amoxicillin toxicity; C) Itching can indicate a hypersensitivity to amoxicillin; D) Itching can result from the dry skin often caused by amoxicillin

C

A health care professional is preparing to administer a parenteral drug to a patient. Which of the following drugs is he preparing to give? A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) via rectal suppository; B) Albuterol (Proventil) via inhaler; C) Heparin via subcutaneous injection; D) Betaxolol (Betoptic) via eye drops

C

A healthcare professional I s caring for a patient who is about to begin clomiphene (Clomid) therapy to treat infertility. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects? A) Breast cancer. B) Deep-vein thrombosis. C) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome. D) Restless leg syndrome

C

A healthcare professional administers fentanyl (Sublimaze) to a patient to reduce pain. Which of the following drugs should she have available to reverse the effects of fentanyl? A) Neostigmine (Bloxiverz); B) Succinylcholine (Anectine); C) Naloxone; D) Dantrolene (Dantrium)

C

A healthcare professional is advising a patient about the use of beclomethasone (Beconase AQ) to treat asthma. The healthcare professional should explain that the drug treats asthma because it performs which of the following actions? A) Thins mucus. B) Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle. C) Decreases inflammation. D) Increases the cough threshold

C

A healthcare professional is advising a patient about the use of cromolyn sodium. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include? A) Report signs of jaundice. B) Anticipate difficulty sleeping. C) Expect a bitter aftertaste. D) Increase calcium and vitamin D intake.

C

A healthcare professional is assessing a patient following the administration of nifedipine (Procardia). Recognizing the adverse effects of nifedipine, the healthcare professional should be prepared to administer which of the following drugs? A) Prazosin (Minipress). B) Doxazosin (Carudra). C) Propranolol (Interal). D) Enalapril (Vasotec)

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has a known sensitivity to Escherichia coli-derived proteins. This sensitivity is a contraindication for which of the following drugs? A) Epoetin alfa (Erythropoietin). B) Oprelvekin (Neumega). C) Filgrastim (Neupogen). D) Alteplase (Activase).

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has moderate to severe hypertension and is about to begin hydralazine therapy. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse reactions to the drug? A) A flu-like syndrome. B) Extrapyramidal symptoms. C) A lupus-like syndrome. D) Hypertensive crisis

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about ot begin taking oprelvekin (Neumega). The healthcare professional should explain to the patient that the drug has which of the following effects? A) Stimulates leukocyte maturation. B) Causes myelosuppression. C) Increases platelet production. D) Destroys blood clots

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin gentamicin therapy to treat an infection. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following? A) Bowel function. B) Peripheral pulses. C) Urine output. D) Level of consciousness.

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin insulin glargine (Lantus) therapy. The healthcare professional should recognize the need for additional precautioins because the patient also takes which of the following types of drugs? A) Oral contraceptives. B) Calcium supplements. C) Beta blockers. D) Iron supplements

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin levothyroxine (Synthroid) therapy to treat hypothyroidism. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include when talking with the patient about taking the drug? A) Take levothyroxine with food to increase absorption. B) Take levothyroxine with an antacid to reduce GI effects. C) Expect life-long therapy with the drug. D) Carry a carbohydrate snack at all times.

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking acyclovir (Zovirax) to treat a herpes simplex infection. The healthcare professional should monitor which of the following laboratory values for the patient? A) Prothrombin time. B) Hct. C) BUN. D) Aspartate aminotransferase

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking alosetron (Lotronex) to treat irritable bowel syndrome. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse effects? A) Headache. B) Drowsiness. C) Abdominal pain. D) Sore throat

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking amphetamine sulfate (Adderall). The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects? A) Hypotension; B) Tinnitus; C) Tachycardia; D) Bronchospasm

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking conjugated equine estrogen (Premarin). The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following indications of a serious adverse reaction? A) Hot flashes. B) Urinary tract infection. C) Vaginal bleeding. D) Bone pain

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking dantrolene (Dantrium) for skeletal muscle spasms. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse effects? A) Slow pulse rate; B) Cough; C) Diarrhea; D) Hearing loss

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which of the following laboratory values should increase with effective therapy? A) PT. B) WBC. C) Hgb. D) Platelets

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking filgrastim (Neupogen) to treat neutropenia. The healthcare professional should assess the patient for which of the following adverse effects? A) Dusky nail beds. B) Petechiae. C) Enlarged spleen. D) Swollen calf.

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking ketoconazole to treat a fungal infection. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse effects of the drug? A) Tingling in the hands and feet. B) Joint pain. C) Gynecomastia. D) Excessive sweating.

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) to treat a urinary tract infection. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the followinig adverse effects of the drug? A) Constipation. B) Dark brown urine. C) Cough. D) Tremors

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin topotecan (Hycamtin) therapy to treat resitsant, small-cell lung cancer. The healthcare professional should caution the patient about taking which of the following types of over-the-counter drugs while receiving the therapy? A) Folic acid. B) St. John's wort. C) Ibuprofen (Advil). D) Aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel)

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is beginning raloxifene (Evista) therapy to prevent osteoporosis. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to monitor for which of the following as an indicaiton of a serious adverse reaction to the drug? A) Loss of hair. B) Numbness of the fingertips. C) Calf pain. D) Blisters on mucous membranes.

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is having difficulty mobilizing thick respiratory secretions. Which of the following drugs should the healthcare professional expect to administer? A) Ipratropium (Atrovent). B) Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ). C) Acetylcysteine (Acetadote. D) Azelastine (Astelin)

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking codeine. Which of the following is the most important assessment following administration of the drug? A) Blood pressure. B) Apical heart rate. C) Respirations. D) Level of consciousness

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid) to treat bipolar disorder. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the healthcare professiona recommend periodically for the patient? A) Chest x-ray; B) Tonometry; C) Thyroid function tests; D) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking pioglitazone (Actos) to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. The healthcare professional should monitor for which of the following findings that indicates an adverse effect? A) Joint pain. B) Constipation. C) Weight gain. D) Dilated pupils

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking repaglinide (Prandin) 15 to 30 min before each meal to teat type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient asks the healthcare professional what to do if he skips a meal. Which of the following is the appropriate response? A) Double the dose before the next meal. B) Take half the dose. C) Skip the dose. D) Take the usual dose

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking venlafaxine to treat major depression. The healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following drugs can cause serotonin syndrome when patients take it concurrently with venlafaxine? A) Alprazolam (Xanax); B) Phenytoin (Dilantin); C) Phenelzine (Nardil); D) Pilocarpine (Isopto Carpine)

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is undergoing bone marrow transplantation following high-dose chemotherapy. Which of the following drugs should the healthcare professional expect the primary care provider to prescribe to reduce the patient's risk of infection? A) Epoetin alfa (Erythropoietin). B) Oprelvekin (Neumega). C) Filgrastim (Neupogen). D) Alteplase (Activase).

C

A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult patient who is about to begin taking aspirin to treat an ankle sprain. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse reactoins? A) Polyuria. B) Bone pain. C) Weight gain. D) Infection

C

A healthcare professional is caring for an older patient who is about to begin taking prednisone for long-term treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The health care professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects? A) Pulmonary embolism. B) Hepatitis. C) Bone loss. D) Breast cancer.

C

A healthcare professional is talking about self-administering methotrexate to a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to: A) Use a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) to reduce toxicity. B) Take it with food to reduce gastric irritation. C) Drink 2 to 3 L of water per day to promote the drug's excretion. D) Take it in the morning to prevent insomnia

C

A healthcare professional is talking to a patient and her family about how methylphenidate (Ritalin) will help manage attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which of the following therapeutic effects should they expect? A) Reduced panic; B) Improved mood; C) Increased focus; D) Decreased anxiety

C

A healthcare professional is talking to a patient who is taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid). Which of the following instructions should be included to reduce the risk of lithium toxicity? A) Consume a low-sodium diet; B) Reduce fluid intake; C) Avoid taking NSAIDs; D) Take the drug with food

C

A healthcare professional is talking with a patient who is to begin taking valproic acid (Depakote) to treat a seizure disorder. He should advise the patient to monitor for which of the following adverse effects? A) Hirsutism; B) Depression; C) Jaundice; D) Gum irritation

C

A healthcare professional who is advising a patient about the use of antihistamines to treat allergic rhinitis should explain that these drugs are effective because they perform which of the following actions? A) Decreases viscosity of nasal secretions. B) Blocks H2 receptors. C) Prevents histamine from binding to receptors. D) Reduces nasal congestion

C

A healthcare professional who is advising a patient about using intranasal glucocorticoids should include which of the following instructions? A) Start a low dose and gradually increase it. B) Take the drug as needed for nasal congestion. C) Allow at least 2 weeks for the full therapeutic effect. D) Use the drug prior to exercise

C

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client whose family reports the client has taken large amounts of diazepam. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering? A) Ondansetron. B) Magnesium sulfate. C) Flumazenil. D) Protamine sulfate.

C

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has myasthenia gravis and is in acholinergic crisis. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? A) Potassium iodide. B) Glucagon. C) Atropine. D) Protamine.

C

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving an IV infusion of dopamine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective? A) Decreased blood pressure. B) Increased heart rate. C) Increased cardiac output. D) Decreased serum potassium.

C

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking atenolol. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective? A) The client has an increase in urinary output. B) The client reports an improvement in memory. C) The client has a decrease in blood pressure. D) The client reports having an increase in libido.

C

A nurse is caring for a client who reports lethargy and myalgia after taking clozapine for 6 months. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A) Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL IV fluid bolus. B) Schedule the client for an electroencephalogram. C) Obtain WBC with absolute neutrophil count. D) Place the client on a tyramine-free diet.

C

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving D5W with 20 mEq of KCL at 75 mL/hr. The provider has prescribed 1 g ceftriaxone (Rocephin) IV. When preparing to administer this medicaiton by IV piggyback, which of the following data is the highest priority for the nurse to collect? A) The patient's vital signs. B) The patient's level of consciousness. C) The medication's compatibility with the primary IV solution. D) The amount of IV solution in the primary bag.

C

A nurse is caring for a patient with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line). Which of the following is true about this type of intravenous route? A) A PICC line is a short catheter inserted into the jugular vein. B) A PICC line is a catheter that allows for infusion of intraenous fluids without an infusion pump. C) A PICC Line is a long catheter inserted through the veins of the antecubital fossa. D) A PICC line is a catheter that is used for emergent or trauma situations

C

A nurse is preparing to administer a new prescription of amoxicillin/clavulanic to a client. The client tells the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A) Update the client's medical record. B) Notify the provider. C) Withhold the medication. D) Inform the pharmacist of the client's allergy to penicillin.

C

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled antibiotic at 0800 to a client and discovers the antibiotic is not present in the client's medication drawer. The nurse should identify that administration of the medication can occur at which of the following time periods without requiring an incident report? A) 1000. B) 0900. C) 0830. D) 1200.

C

A nurse is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. Which of the following should the nurse do to ensure proper technique? A) Rub the injection site after withdrawing the needle. B) Pinch 1/2 inch of skin and administer the injection at a 45 degree angle. C) Use a tuberculin syringe with a 3/8 to 5/8 inch, 25 to 27 gauge needle. D) Choose a site at least 2 inches from the umbilicus.

C

A nurse is preparing to give an intramuscular injection into the left ventrogluteal muscle. Which of the following should the nurse do to locate the appropriate site? A) Measure two fingerbreadths below the acromion process. B) Measure a handbreadth above the knee and a handbreadth below the greater trochanter. C) With the heel of the hand on the greater trochanter, point the index finger up toward the anterior superior iliac spine, extending the other fingers back along the iliac crest. D) Divide the butock into four quadrants and give the injection in the upper, outer quadrant.

C

A nurse is providing discharge instruction to a client who is to self-administer insulin at home. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective? A) "I should avoid getting rid of the air bubble in the syringe." B) "I should inject the insulin into my thigh for the fastest absorption." C) "I will store my unopened bottles of insulin in the refrigerator." D) "I need to shake the insulin before using it to make sure it is well mixed."

C

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? A) "I should take the medication with food." B) "I should take naproxen if I develop joint pain." C) "I should tell my provider if I develop a sore throat." D) "I should expect the medication to cause my urine to look orange."

C

A nurse is providing follow-up care to a client who is taking lisinopril. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse instruct the client to report as an adverse effect of lisinopril? A) Drowsiness. B) Hallucinations. C) Persistent cough. D) Weight gain.

C

A nurse is providing teaching about insulin glargine to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions? A) Observe for hypoglycemia when the insulin peaks. B) Administer the insulin immediately before meals. C) Do not mix this medicaiton in a syringe with other insulin. D) Rotate the bottle gently prior to drawing up the insulin.

C

A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the use of ethinul estradiol/norelgestromin. The nurse should identify that which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A) "I will apply the patch once a week for 2 weeks." B) "I will leave the existing patch on for 4 hours after applying the new patch." C) "I will fold the sticky sides of the old patch together before disposing it." D) "I will apply the patch within 14 days of menses."

C

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a gastric ulcer and a new prescription for ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A) "Take the medication on an empty stomach for full effectiveness." B) "You may discontinue this medication when stomach discomfort subsides." C) "Report yellowing of the skin." D) "Store the medication in the refrigerator."

C

A nurse is teaching about self-administration of transdermal medication with a male client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. The nurse should identify that which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A) "I can apply the patch to a chest area that has hair." B) "I can take this medication if using an erectile dysfunction product." C) "I will remove the patch after 14 hours." D) "I need to apply a new patch to the same area every day."

C

A patient is about ot begin therapy with recombinat factor IX (BeneFix) to treat hemophilia B. The patient asks the health care professional about the risk of disease transmission with recombinant factor IX, as compared with plasma-derived factor IX. The healthcare professional should explain that recombinant factor IX eliminates the risk for which of the following? A) HIV. B) Cytomegalovirus. C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. D) Anaphylaxis

C

A patient is having difficulty remembering to take a prescribed drub three times a day. Which of the following forms of the drug should the health care professional recommend to increase adherence? A) Liquid suspension; B) Immediate-release capsule; C) Extended-release tablet; D) Powder form

C

A patient taking oral contraceptives calls her healthcare professional because she forgot ot take one of her pills. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional provide? A) Take a pregnancy test. B) Avoid vaginal intercourse until after your next period. C) Take the missed dose along with the next dose. D) Stop the oral contraceptive and use a different contraceptive

C

A patient who is taking amoxicillin (Amoxil) to treat a respiratory infection contacts the healthcare professional to report a rash and wheezing. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional provide? A) Wait 1 hr and contact the provider if there is no improvment. B) Skip today's dose of amoxicillin and resume taking the drug tomorrow. C) Call emergency services immediately. D) Take an NSAID to reduce the skin and airway inflammation

C

A patient who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) develops ECG changes and other manifestations that indicate severe digoxin toxicity. Which of the following drugs should the healthcare professional have available to treat this complication? A) Acetylcysteine (Acetadote). B) Flumazenil (Mazicon). C) Fab antibody fragments (Digibind). D) Deferoxamine (Desferal).

C

A patient who is taking metformin (Glucophage) to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus plans to undergo angiography using iodine-containing contrast dye. The healthcare professional should recognize that an interaction between metformin and the IV contrast dye can increase the patient's risk for which of the following? A) Hypokalemia. B) Hyperglycemia. C) Acute renal failure. D) Acute pancreatitis.

C

Alendronate (Fosamax) is contraindicated for patients who A) Have heart failure. B) Are allergic to fish protein. C) Should remain flat on bed rest. D) Have tuberculosis

C

For which of the following should a health care professional monitor a patient who is taking donepezil (Aricept) for Alzheimer's disease? A) Confusion; B) Dry mouth; C) Nausea; D) Double vision

C

Prior to administering calcitonin-salmon (Miacalcin) for the first time to a patient who is diagnosed with postmenopausal osteoporosi, the health care professional should perform which of the following tasks? A) Check urine for sedimentation. B) Assess liver function. C) Check for allergies usingn skin testing. D) Evaluate breath sounds.

C

Prior to administering human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) (Pregnyl) to a patient to stimulate ovulation, the healthcare professional should give her menotropins, or hMG (Repronex), to promote: A) Prolactin secretion. B) Estrogen release. C) Follicular maturation. D) Oxytocin secretion

C

The proper needle length when giving an intramuscular injection in the ventrogluteal area to an average sized adult is which of the following? A) 1/2 inch. B) 1 inch. C) 1 1/2 inches. D) 2 inches.

C

Unless there are any specific contraindications, which of the following immunizations should adults receive once each year? A) Varicella. B) Tetanus. C) Influenza. D) Hepatitis B.

C

When reviewing the adverse effects of drug therapy with a patient, a health care professional should explain that orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse reaction of which of the following drugs? A) Venlafaxine; B) Bupropioni (Wellbutrin); C) Imipramine (Tofranil); D) Valproic acid (Depakote)

C

When talking to a patient about taking buspirone, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Take the drug with grapefruit juice to increase absorption; B) Use the drug only as needed for anxiety; C) Allow 2 to 4 weeks before expecting to feel better; D) Take the drug on an empty stomach

C

When talking with a patient abot taking metoclopramide (Reglan) to treat GERD, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Take the drug once a day in the morning. B) Stop taking the drug if drowsiness develops. C) Chew gum or suck on hard candy. D) Take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches.

C

When talking with a patient about taking conjucated estrogen and medroxyprogesterone (Prempro), the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Watch for rectal bleeding. B) Avoid drinking alcoholic beverages. C) Have blood pressure checked regularly. D) Sit up for 30 min after taking the drug.

C

You are giving a patient several PO medications to take. The patient tells you that she can only take one pill at a time. It is appropriate to: A) Place all of the medications in a cup and let the patient decide the order in which to take them. B) Crush the pills and mix them in applesauce. C) Remain at the bedside until you are sure the patient has taken all of the medicaitons. D) Leave the pills at the bedside for the patient to take.

C

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin using dimenhydrinate to prevent motion sickness. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include when talking with the patient about taking the drug? (Select all that apply). A) Sit upright for 30 min. after taking the drug. B) Avoid antacids when taking the drug. C) Take the drug 30 to 60 min before activities that trigger nausea. D) Avoid activities that require alertness. E) Increase fluid and fiber intake

C, D, E

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin using trasdermal nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) to treat angina pectoris. When talking with the patient about the drug, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? (Select all that apply). A) Apply a new patch at the onset of anginal pain. B) Apply the patch to dry skin and cover the area with plastic wrap. C) Apply the patch to a hairless area and rotate sites. D) Apply a new patch each morning. E) Remove patches for 10 to 12 hr daily.

C, D, E

When talking with a patient about taking psyllium (Metamucil) to treat constipation, the healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? (Select all that apply). A) Expect results in 6 to 12 hr. B) Urinate every 4 hr. C) Take the drug with at least 8 oz of fluid. D) Avoid activities that require alertness. E) Increase fluid and fiber intake

C, E

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is having cardiac dysrhythmias and is taking digoxin (anoxin). The health care professional should recognize that which of the following routes of administration has the fastest rate of absorption? A) Subcutaneous; B) IM; C) Oral; D) IV

D

A health care professional is speaking to a patient who is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) and who reports drinking grapefruit juice. The health care professional explains that grapefruit juice inhibits an enzyme in the liver that is used to metabolize certain drugs such as carbamazepine. The health care should recognize the patient's risk for which of the following? A) Reduced drug absorption; B) Drug dependence; C) Altered drug distribution; D) Drug toxicity

D

A health care professional is talking to a patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease about how levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) will help control her symptoms. With which of the following mechanisms is the drug effective in treating the disorder? A) Increases available acetylcholine in the brain; B) Inhibits norepinephrine metabolism in the brain; C) Inhibits serotonin metabolism in the brain; D) Increases available dopamine in the brain

D

A healthare professional should tell a patient who is taking albuterol (Proventil) to report which of the following possible indications of a serious adverse effect? A) Fever. B) Bruising. C) Polyuria. D) Palpitations

D

A healthcare professional is about to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a patient who has hypertension. Which of the following assessments should the healthcare professional perform prior to giving the patient the drug? A) Respiratory rate. B) Level of consciousness. C) Serum glucose. D) Apical pulse.

D

A healthcare professional is advising a patient about the use of cromlyn sodium to prevent bronchospasm. The healthcare professional should explain that the drug prevents bronchospasm because it performs which of the following actions? A) Increases leukocyte activity. B) Blocks muscarinic recptors. C) Causes bronchodilation. D) Reduces inflammation

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has a glomerular filtration rate of 10 mL/min and a reduced urine output. The healthcare professional should question the use of hydrochlorothiazide for the patient because of which of the following characteristics of the drug? A) The drug can cause hypoglycemia in patients who have a low urine output. B) The drug does not reduce blood pressure for patients who have a low urine output. C) The drug can increase the risk of pulmonary edema for patients who have renal insufficiency. D) The drug does not promote diuresis for patients who have renal insufficiency

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for an extended period of time to treat anxiety. The healthcare professional should recognize that stopping alprazolam therapy suddenly can result in which of the following? A) Anterograde amnesia; B) Respiratory depression; C) Paradoxical reaction; D) WIthdrawal syndrome

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has recently had a myocardial infarction and is about to begin taking docusate sodium (Colace). The healthcare professional should explain that docusate sodium will have which of the following therapeutic effects? A) Reduces inflammation. B) Reduces gastric acid. C) Prevents diarrhea. D) Prevents straining

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking radioactive iodine-131 (Iodotope) to treat Graves' disease. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include when talking with the patient about the drug? A) Take the drug once daily for 5 days. B) Expect a bitter, acid-like taste. C) Restrict fluid intake after taking the drug. D) Expect full effects in 2 to 3 months

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking ranitidine (Zantac) to treat GERD. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to take certain precautions when taking which of the following over-the-counter drugs? A) Ginkgo biloba. B) Antidiarrheals. C) St. John's wort. D) Antacids

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking verapamil (Calan) to treat atrial fibrillation. The healthcare professional should tell the patient to avoid grapefruit juice while taking verapamil because it can cause A) Tachycardia. B) Dehydration. C) Diarrhea. D) Hypotension.

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional should caution the patient about atking which of the following over-the-counter drugs? A) Diphenhydramine. B) Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine). C) Calcium carbonate (Tums). D) Ibuprofen (Motrin)

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking combination oral contraceptive ethinyl estradiol and drospirenone (Yasmin) and is about to begin taking rifampin (Rifadin) to treat tuberculosis. Because of a likely drug interaction, the healthcare professional should tell the patient to: A) Increase the rifampin dose. B) Increase the oral contraceptive dose. C) Allow 2 hr between taking each drug. D) Use additional birth control

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who is taking etanercept (Enbrel), a DMARD II that treats rheumatoid arthritis. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following indications of a serious adverse reaction to the drug? A) Excessive salivation. B) Increased thirst. C) Blood in the urine. D) Shortness of breath

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who takes an oral contraceptive and is about to begin rifampin (Rifadin) therapy to treat tuberculosis. The healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Increase the rifampin dose. B) Increase the oral contraceptive dose. C) Allow 2 hr between taking the two drugs. D) Use additional contraception

D

A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who takes furosemide (Lasix) and is about to begin taking prednisone to treat inflammatory bowel disease. The healthcare professional should monitor the patient for which of the following results of concurrent use of the two drugs? A) Hypercalcemia. B) Hypoglycemia. C) Hypothermia. D) Hypokalemia.

D

A healthcare professional is talking to a patient about self-injecting Regular insulin (Humulin). The healthcare professional should tell the patient to rotate injection sites to prevent which of the following? A) Rapid absorption. B) Intradermal injection. C) Injection pain. D) Lipohypertrophy

D

A healthcare professional should expect which of the following adverse effects for a patient who is taking betaxolol (Betoptic) eye drops to treat glaucoma? A) Constricted pupils; B) Discoloration of the iris; C) Hypertension; D) Bradycardia

D

A healthcare professional should question the use of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for patients who have which of the following? A) Asthma. B) Diabetes mellitus. C) Heart failure. D) Alcohol disorder

D

A healthcare professional should question the use of conjugated equine estrogen (Vagifem) by a patient who has a history of which of the following? A) Osteoporosis. B) Peptic ulcer disease. C) Rheumatoid arthritis. D) Blood clots

D

A healthcare professional should question the use of levothyroxine (Synthroid) for a patient who has: A) Bacterial skin infections. B) Diabetes insipdus. C) Immunosuppression. D) A myocardial infarction.

D

A healthcare professional should question the use of maraviroc (Selzentry) for a patient who has which of the following? A) Diabetes mellitus. B) Meningeal infection. C) Pancreatitis. D) Non-chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5)-tropic HIV-1

D

A nurse is assessing a client 1 hr after administering morphine for pain. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as the best indication the morphine has been effective? A) The client's vital signs are within normal limits. B) The client has not requested additional medication. C) The client is resting comfortably with eyes closed. D) The client rates the pain at a 3 on a scale from 0 to 10.

D

A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis and is taking neostigmine. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the client is experiencing an adverse effect? A) Tachycardia. B) Oliguria. C) Xerostomia. D) Miosis.

D

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking propylthiouracil for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication has been effective? A) Decrease in WBC count. B) Decrease in amount of time sleeping. C) Increase in appetite. D) Increase in ability to focus.

D

A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department following a diazepam overdose. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to the client? A) Naloxone. B) Leucovorin. C) Neostigmine. D) Flumazenil.

D

A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. The client tells the nurse she is pregnant and that she has not told her provider yet. The nurse should identify that pregnancy is a contraindication to receiving which of the following medications? A) Acetaminophen. B) Ipratropium. C) Benzonatate. D) Doxycycline

D

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. For which of the following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide? A) Minimize diaphoresis. B) Maintain abstinence. C) Lessen craving. D) Prevent delirium trements

D

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving cefazolin IV. The nurse should identify which of the following medications can potentiate nephrotoxicity if administered concurrently? A) Famotidine. B) Levofloxacin. C) Metoclopramide. D) Gentamicin.

D

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving end-of-life care and has a prescription for fentanyl patches. Which of the following information regarding the adverse effects of fentanyl should the nurse plan to give to the client and family? A) The provider will prescribe naloxone at home for respiratory depression. B) Remove the patch to reverse the adverse effects immediately. C) Expect an increase in urinary output. D) Take a stool softener on a daily basis.

D

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving long-term treatment for systemic lupus erythematosus with prednisone. The nurse should inform the client to expect to undergo which of the following diagnostic tests to monitor for long-term complications of prednisone? A) Pulmonary function tests. B) Electrocardiograms. C) Liver function studies. D) Bone density scans.

D

A nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from a deep vein thrombosis and is to start taking warfarin. For which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of warfarin? A) Hypertension. B) Low INR. C) Constipation. D) Bleeding gums.

D

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed a fluticasone propinate (Flovent HFA) inhaler with a spacer. The patient asks the nurse why a spacer is needed with the inhaler. Which of the following responses by the nurse is correct? A) "By using a spacer, you can take the medicatoin correctly without any spills." B) "You can inhale five or more puffs in 1 min when using a spacer." C) "By using a spacer, you eliminate the need for mouth rinsing after administration." D) "More medication is delivered to the lungs when you use a spacer."

D

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving mannitol via continuous IV infusion. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? A) Weight loss. B) increased intraocular pressure. C) Auditory hallucinations. D) Bibasilar crackles.

D

A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should plan to include which of the following statements in the teaching? A) "This medication increases your risk for hypertension. B) "Avoid potassium-rich foods in your diet." C) "Take each dose of medication in the evening before bed." D) "Drink a glass of milk with each dose of medication."

D

A nurse is preparing to mix and administer dantrolene via IV bolus to a client who has developed malignant hyperthermia during surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A) Administer the reconstituted medication slowly over 5 min. B) Store the reconstituted medication in the refrigerator. C) Use the reconstituted medication within 12 hr. D) Reconstitute the initial dose with 60 mL of sterile water without abacteriostatic agent.

D

A nurse is preparing to teach a client who is to start a new prescription for extended release verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include? A) Take the medication on an empty stomach. B) Avoid crowds. C) Discontinue the medication if palpitations occur. D) Change positions slowly.

D

A nurse is providing discharge teaching about handling medication to a client who is to continue taking transmucosal fentanyl raspberry-flavored lozenges on a stick. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A) Chew on the medication stick to release the medication. B) Leave the medication stick in one location of the mouth until melted. C) Allow the medication 1 hr for analgesia effects to begin. D) Store unused medication sticks in a storage container.

D

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has depression and has a new prescription for fluoxetine. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A) "I should start to feel better within 24 hours of starting this medication." B) "I will be sure to follow a strict diet to avoid foods with tyramine." C) "I will continue to take St. John's Wort to increase the effects of the medication." D) "I should take acetaminophen instead of ibuprofen for my headaches while taking this medication."

D

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking bupropion as an aid to quit smoking. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication? A) Cough. B) Joint pain. C) Alopecia. D) Insomnia.

D

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect that the nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider? A) Hair loss. B) Ringing in the ears. C) Facial flushing. D) Dry cough.

D

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start therapy with digoxin. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider? A) Dry cough. B) Pedal edema. C) Bruising. D) Yellow-tinged vision.

D

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start treatment for asthma with beclomethasone and albuterol inhalers. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A) "Take beclomethasone to avoid an acute attack." B) "Use beclomethasone 5 minutes before using albuterol." C) "Limit your calcium and vitamin D intake when taking beclomethasone." D) "Rinse your mouth after inhaling the beclomethasone."

D

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion for deep-vein thrombosis. The nurse should discontinue the medication infusion for which of the following client findings? A) Potassium 5.0 mEq/L. B) aPTT 2 times the control. C) Hemoglobin 15 g/dL. D) Platelets 96,000/mm^3

D

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is to receive a dose of ceftazadime via intermittent IV bolus. Which of the following laboratory findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider before administering the medication. A) Total bilirubin 0.4 mg/dL. B) Alanine aminotransferse 26 units/L. C) Platelet count 360,000/mm^3. D) Creatinine 2.6 mg/dL

D

A nurse is teaching a client about the use of risedronate for the treatment of osteoporosis. The nurse should identify which of the following statements as an indication that the client understands the teaching? A) "I will drink a glass of milk when I take the risedonate." B) "I will take the risedronate 15 minutes after my evening meal." C) "I should take an antacid with the risendronate to avoid nausea." D) "I should sit up for 30 minutes after taking the risedronate."

D

A nurse is teaching a client who is starting to take diltiazem. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the teaching? A) "I will stop taking the medication if I get dizzy." B) "I should not drink orange juice while taking this medication." C) "I should expect to gain weight while taking this medication." D) "I will check my heart rate before I take the medication."

D

A nurse is teaching the daughter of an older adult patient how to instill eye drops in the patient's right eye. Which of the following statements indicates that the daughter has understood the directions? A) "I will have my mother look down while dropping the medication into her eye." B) "I will instruct my mother to tightly close her eye for 30 to 60 seconds after the medication has been given." C) "I should apply the medication using a thin stream from the inner canthus to the outer canthus." D) "I will pull down her lower eyelid and drop the medication inside."

D

A patient drinks 8 oz. of water. Which of the following is a correct conversion of the patient's intake? A) 1 pint. B) 4 tablespoons. C) 2 cups. D) 240 mL.

D

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with spasms of his face and back. He has recently begun taking chlorpromazine to treat schizophrenia. Which of the following adverse reactions should the healthcare proessional suspect? A) Cholinergic crisis; B) Serotonin syndrome; C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome; D) Actue dystonia

D

A patient is taking selegiline (Eldepryl) to treat Parkinson's disease. The provider is considering the use of analgesics for the patient but should be aware that a drug interaction between selegiline and meperidine (Demerol) can result in which of the following? A) Frequent urination; B) Jaundice; C) Cellulitis; D) Muscle rigidity

D

A patient who is taking ferrous sulfate (Feosol) to treat iron-deficiency anemia develops severe nausea and vomiting due to iron toxicity. Which of the following drugs should the healthcare professional use to treat this complicatoin? A) Flumazenil (Mazicon). B) Acetylcysteine (Acetadote). C) Naloxone. D) Deferoxamine (Desferal).

D

A patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) arrives at the emergency department and reports rectal bleeding. Which of the following drugs should the healthcare professional have available? A) Filgrastim (Neupogen). B) Deferoxamine (Desferal). C) Protamine. D) Vitamin K

D

A patient who takes carvedilol (Coreg) for hypertension is about to begin taking an oral antidiabetes drug to manage newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus. The healthcare professional should make sure the primary care provider is aware that the patient is at increased risk for which of the following if she takes both drugs? A) Hyperglycemia. B) Bradycardia. C) Hypotension. D) Hypoglycemia

D

A primary care provider is prescribing drug therapy for a patient whose sputum culture results indicate methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following drugs should be administered? A) Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). B) Tetracycline. C) Cephalexin (Kefle). D) Vancoycin (Vancocin)

D

A primary care provider should prescribe a lower dose of aztreonam (Azactam) for a patient who has a respiratory tract infection and also has which of the following? A) Glaucoma. B) Closed-head injury. C) Heart failure. D) Renal impairment

D

A primary care provider should prescribe a lower dose of sitagliptin (Januvia) for a patient who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and who also has which of the following? A) Thyroid disease. B) Bronchitis. C) Heart failure. D) Renal impairment

D

After administering terbutaline (Brethine) to a patient to inhibit preterm labor, the healthcare professional should assess which of the following? A) Peripheral pulses. B) Temperature. C) Vision. D) Heart rate

D

Soon after beginning fluoxetine (Prozac), a patient is admitted to the emergency department with agitation and confusion. The health care professional should suspect which of the following? A) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome; C) Extrapyramidal symptoms; D) Serotonin syndrome

D

When administering erythromycin to a patient who has pneumococcal pneumonia, the healthcare professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of the drug? A) Hypothermia. B) Blurred vision. C) Constipation. D) Cardiac dystrhythmias

D

When advising a patient about using zileuton (Zyflo), a healthcare professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Check the apical pulse before taking the drug. B) Take the drug prior to exercising. C) Rinse the mouth after using the drug. D) Have laboratory tests performed at regular intervals

D

When advising a patient who is beginning fluticasone propionate/salmeterol (Advair) therapy, which of the following instructions should a healthcare professional include? A) Take the drug as needed for acute asthma. B) Follow a low-sodium diet. C) Use an alternate-day dosing schedule. D) Increase weight-bearing activity

D

When talking to a patient about taking naproxen (EC-Naprosyn), enteric-coated tablets, which of the following information should the health care professional include? A) Expect drug absorption in the stomach; B) Expect immediate drug absorption; C) Allow the drug to dissolve in your mouth; D) Do not crush or chew the tablet

D

Which of the following drugs can increase the risk of Reye's syndrome in children who have viral infections? A) Butorphanol (Stadol). B) Acetaminophen (Tylenol). C) Tramadol (Ultram). D) Aspirin

D

Which of the following drugs has protocols that require patients to meet specific risk-management criteria and sign a treatment agreement before the healthcare professional can administer the drug? A) Lubiprostone (Amitiza). B) Azathioprine (Imuran). C) Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine). D) Alosetron (Lotronex)

D

Which of the following drugs should a healthcare professional have available for a patient who is experiencing an insulin overdose? A) Naloxone. B) Diphenhydramine. C) Acetylcysteine (Acetadote). D) Glucagon (GlucaGen).

D

Which of the following findings should alert a healthcare professional that a patient is developing a potentially serious adverse reaction to interferon beta-1b (Betaseron)? A) Tinnitus; B) Twitching eyelids; C) Blue-green skin discoloration; D) Fatigue

D

Which of the following information should health care professionals consider when calculating drug dosages for infants and children compared with adults? A) Percent of body fat is greater in children than in adults; B) Infants have a smaller body surface area than adults; C) Urine is more concentrated in infants than in adults; D) Older children can have a faster metabolic rate than adults

D

Which of the following is the most appropriate documentation of a patient's response to a pain medication? A) The patient states, "I feel better" 10 minutes after medication administration. B) The patient is sleeping 1 hour after administration. C) The patient is up and walking in the hall 2 hours after administration. D) The patient reports pain decreased to 3/10, 30 minutes after medication administration.

D

Which of the following should a healthcare professional include when advising a patient about the use of montelukast (Singulair)? A) Use a spacer to improve inhalation. B) Take the drug at the onset of bronchospasm. C) Rinse the mouth to prevent an oral fungal infection. D) Take the drug once a day in the evening

D

Which of the following terms indicates a medication is given by injection? A) Enteral. B) Sublingual. C) Transdermal. D) Parenteral

D

While administering IV cefotetan to a patient to treat bacterial meningitis, the healthcare professional finds the IV insertion site warm and reddened. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take? A) Slow the cefotetan infusion. B) Administer diphenhydramine. C) Request a prescription for another antibiotic. D) Stop the cefotetan infusion

D

While talking with a patient and his family about taking memantine (Namenda) for Alzheimer's disease, the health care professional should include which of the following instructions? A) Increase fluids to improve renal excretion; B) Report memory loss or confusion; C) Watch for signs of liver impairment, such as jaundice and abdominal pain; D) Notify the health care professional before taking over-the-counter antacids

D

You are reading the physician's orders and note date and time of the prescriptions, as well as the physician's signature. Which of the following prescriptions is complete? A) Aspirin PO 1 tablet daily. B) Ferrous sulfate 624 mg PO. C) Hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Vicodin) 5/325 mg PRN. D) Digoxin (Lanoxin) 1.25 mg PO daily.

D

A primary care provider is considering the various pharmacological options for a patient who has a gynecologic infection and a history of alcohol use disorder. Which of the following medications can cause a reaction similar to disulfiram (Antabuse) if the patient drinks alcohol while taking it? (Select all that apply). A) Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin). B) Amoxicillin (Amoxil). C) Aztreonam (Azctam). D) Cefotetan. E) Metronidazole (Flagyl)

D, E