Pharm exam 1 questions
A client has a bacterial infection and is ordered to receive Zithromax. Based on its half-life, the nurse anticipates giving this drug _____ per day. a. once b. twice c. three times d. four times
A
A client is diagnosed with an infection and is ordered to receive a sulfonamide. What would the nurse evaluate as a positive response to the treatment? a. Temperature within normal limits b. A decrease in urine output c. Increase in dysuria d. A rising white blood cell count
A
A client is ordered to receive a cephalosporin to treat a bacterial infection. Regarding monitoring of the client, the highest priority action on the part of the nurse includes assessing the client for which side effects? a. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea b. Photophobia and phototoxicity c. Pain with urination and blood in the urine d. High fevers and sweating
A
A client is ordered to receive co-trimoxazole (Bactrim, Septra). The nurse assesses for side effects. What causes the nurse the greatest concern? a. Neutropenia and agranulocytosis b. Nausea and vomiting c. Headache and vertigo d. Fatigue and anorexia
A
A client is suffering from end-stage renal disease. Because of this condition, the nurse monitors drug levels to assess for which phenomenon? a. Toxicity b. Subtherapeutic levels c. Drug ineffectiveness d. Poor compliance
A
A client with otitis media is ordered to receive amoxicillin (Amoxil). The client discloses to the nurse that she is allergic to penicillin. What is the highest priority action on the part of the nurse? a. Notify the healthcare provider that the client is allergic to penicillin. b. Encourage the client to take the dose under close monitoring. c. Administer half of the amoxicillin dose under supervision. d. Report the amoxicillin order to the supervisor.
A
A nurse is ordered to draw blood levels for a person receiving an antibiotic. The nurse is aware that peaks and troughs of serum antibiotic levels are monitored for drugs with a: a. narrow therapeutic index. b. large therapeutic index. c. long half-life. d. short half-life.
A
A young child is diagnosed with meningitis and is prescribed an aminoglycoside. Based on the potentially toxic effects of the medication, what is the highest priority nursing intervention? a. Schedule hearing tests and assess of urine output. b. Assess urine output and bone marrow function. c. Assess renal and hepatic function. d. Assess visual acuity and color discrimination.
A
Biotransformation is affected by many factors. What happens to the client's drug metabolism when liver function is decreased? a. The client can develop toxicity. b. The client will have an enhanced therapeutic response. c. The client may require a larger than normal dose of the medication. d. The client will experience a decreased therapeutic response.
A
The client has been ordered Cefazolin. The nurse anticipates an increase in the client's _____ from this medication? a. BUN and serum creatinine b. serum potassium c. serum calcium d. serum white blood cells
A
The client has been ordered to be treated with tetracycline. He is also being treated with digoxin. The nurse anticipates that, based on the interaction of the two drugs, the client will experience _____ effects of the _____. a. increased; digoxin b. increased; tetracycline c. decreased; digoxin d. decreased; tetracycline
A
The client has been ordered treatment with oral Zovirax at 9:00 AM. The nurse should expect the client's serum level of the medication to peak at which time? a. 10:45 AM b. 12:30 PM c. 9:30 AM d. 2:00 PM
A
The client is being treated with an antiviral drug. He complains to the nurse of experiencing red, swollen gums. The highest priority action on the part of the nurse is to advise the client to: a. perform oral hygiene several times daily. b. rinse his mouth with hydrogen peroxide. c. avoid using dental floss during hygiene. d. rinse his mouth with alcohol-based mouthwash.
A
The client is being treated with isoniazid (INH). The highest priority nursing intervention is to frequently monitor: a. liver enzymes. b. red blood cell count. c. serum creatinine level. d. blood urea nitrogen level.
A
The client is being treated with minocycline. The nurse anticipates what dosage schedule for the medication? a. Coordinated with meals b. Given once daily c. Given on an empty stomach d. Coordinated with bedtime
A
The highest priority nursing intervention for the client receiving azithromycin (Zithromax) is to: a. assess liver enzymes on a regular basis. b. instruct the client to take the drug on an empty stomach. c. administer a laxative daily to prevent constipation. d. administer each dose of medication with antacids.
A
The nurse is instructing the client on the proper way to self-administer nystatin. The client tells the nurse that he has been simply drinking a small amount of the medication from the bottle. The nurse explain to the client that the medication dosage should consist of 1 to 2: a. teaspoons, swished and then swallowed. b. teaspoons, swished and then expelled. c. ounces, swallowed twice daily. d. ounces, used to swab the oral cavity.
A
Which client would be highest priority to receive prophylactic antitubercular therapy? a. Client who has been in close contact with a person having tuberculosis (TB) b. Client with longstanding chronic liver disease c. Healthcare professionals employed in health institutions d. Family members of a client with TB, regardless of the type of contact
A
Which nursing instruction related to photosensitivity is highest priority for the client receiving a sulfonamide? a. "Use a high SPF sunblock when out in the sun." b. "Avoid driving during daylight hours." c. "Take vitamin D to prevent photosensitivity." d. "Apply a moisturizer before going outside."
A
A client is being given two highly protein-bound drugs concurrently. What is most likely to be the result of this administration? a. More free drug in circulation b. Less free drug in circulation c. More drug bound to protein d. More drug excreted in the urine
A When two highly protein-bound drugs are given concurrently, they compete for protein-binding sites, causing more free drug to be released into the circulation. Drug accumulation and possible drug toxicity can result.
The client is receiving frequent daily drug dosing of a drug that has a long duration of action. What should the nurse expect to be the result of this administration? a. Drug accumulation and possible drug toxicity b. Increased drug excretion c. Enhanced therapeutic response d. Increased drug half-life
A When the drug level exceeds the therapeutic range, toxic effects are likely to occur from overdosing or drug accumulation. Medications with a long half-life and frequent dosing may build up in the system or accumulate and lead to toxic effects.
Isoproterenol (Isuprel) is an example of a medication that enhances the beta receptors in the body. What is the term for drugs that stimulate a response? a. Antagonists b. Agonists c. Depressants d. Therapeutic effect
ANS: B An agonist is a drug that produces a response.
2. The client asks the nurse why more than one drug is needed to treat his TB. The most accurate response from the nurse is that single-drug therapy to treat tuberculosis: a. is effective with fewer side effects. b. is ineffective because of possible drug resistance. c. requires a short period to achieve effectiveness. d. is useful for clients with many allergies.
B
5. A client with type 2 diabetes is treated with a sulfonylurea agent. The client is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and is ordered to receive co-trimoxazole (Bactrim, Septra). The nurse should evaluate for a(n): a. increased hyperglycemic response. b. increased hypoglycemic response. c. decreased action of the sulfonamide drug. d. prolonged action of the sulfonamide drug.
B
A 7-year-old client is being evaluated for treatment with tetracycline. Which knowledge is most important for the nurse to share with the client and parents about tetracycline? a. Tetracycline is safe if taken during pregnancy. b. Tetracycline may cause permanent discoloration to the teeth if taken before age 8 years. c. Tetracycline causes bone marrow suppression in clients of all ages. d. Tetracycline should be taken with milk or milk products and antacids to avoid gastrointestinal side effects.
B
A client asks the purpose for using isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) in combination to treat his tuberculosis. The nurse informs him that both agents are given: a. to prevent side effects. b. to prevent drug resistance. c. to lengthen drug therapy. d. for clients who are allergic to one of the antitubercular drugs.
B
A client asks why the oral dose of her pain medication is higher than the intravenous dose. The nurse explains that with the oral dose, only 20% to 40% of the drug may actually enter systemic circulation. This reduces the amount of active drug. What is the term for this effect? a. Protein binding b. Bioavailability c. Hepatic first pass d. Pinocytosis
B
A client is being treated with multidrug therapy for acute tuberculosis. The drug regimen includes streptomycin. What will be the highest priority nursing intervention while the client is being treated with streptomycin? a. Assess urine output and kidney function. b. Assess hearing acuity. c. Monitor hepatic function. d. Conduct an ECG to watch for changes.
B
A client is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and is ordered to receive 160 mg trimethoprim/200 mg sulfamethoxazole. Based on the physician's order, what is the highest priority nursing intervention? a. Call the pharmacist to clarify the order. b. Call the physician to clarify the order. c. Give the medication as ordered. d. Hold the dosage to prevent anaphylaxis.
B
A client is ordered to receive tetracycline. The client reports that she is using oral contraceptives. The nurse's recommendations are based on the fact that when tetracycline is taken with an oral contraceptive, the desired action of the oral contraceptive is: a. increased. b. decreased. c. affected in an unpredictable way. d. nullified.
B
A client is ordered to take the anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin) with co-trimoxazole (Bactrim, Septra). Based on the interaction of the drugs, the client's warfarin level should be monitored and the dose may need to be adjusted in which way? a. Increased b. Decreased c. Taken every other day d. Discontinued
B
A client is taking a high dose of azithromycin (Zithromax). The client should be monitored for which adverse reaction? a. Nephrotoxicity b. Hepatotoxicity c. Neurotoxicity d. Blood dyscrasias
B
A client is to receive erythromycin intravenously. What is the highest priority nursing intervention? a. Call the physician; the drug should not be given IV. b. Administer the solution slowly to avoid pain. c. Administer the solution quickly to prevent infection. d. Call the pharmacist to verify the correct route.
B
A client taking isoniazid (INH) complains of "pins and needles" in her fingertips. The nurse would recommend vitamin _____ to treat this neuropathy. a. C b. B6 c. D d. B12
B
A client who reports an allergy to penicillin is ordered to receive cephalexin (Keflex). The correct action for the nurse is to: a. administer the medication as ordered with additional fluids. b. administer the medication and carefully observe for allergic reaction. c. call the physician to change the order because of the allergy history. d. administer another antibiotic after consulting the pharmacist.
B
A nurse instructs a client that gastrointestinal (GI) upset is a common side effect of anthelmintics. To avoid GI distress, the client should take the anthelmintic: a. between meals. b. immediately after meals. c. before breakfast and at bedtime. d. before lunch without milk products.
B
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is taking an antiviral agent. Client teaching associated with antiviral drug therapy includes: a. reporting an increase in urine output. b. maintaining adequate fluid intake. c. decreasing sexual relations with or without the use of a condom. d. reporting any side effects such as sexual dysfunction, dyspnea, and flushing.
B
A nurse is providing instruction to a client who asked about ways to prevent drug-resistant malaria from occurring. The nurse should suggest: a. the newest and most potent antimalarial drug. b. a combination of antimalarial drugs. c. the tetracycline group of antibiotics. d. the antimalarial drug early after diagnosis of malaria.
B
A patient with a seizure disorder is exposed to a person with tuberculosis. The patient is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) and prophylactic isoniazid (INH). Based on the interaction of the medications, the nurse anticipates that the effect of phenytoin will be: a. significantly increased. b. significantly decreased. c. slightly increased. d. negated completely.
B
Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) has a half-life of 8 to 12 hours. Based on this information, the nurse decides to administer the drug at which time(s) each day? a. 9:00 AM b. 8:00 AM and 8:00 PM c. 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, 4:00 PM, and 8:00 PM d. 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, 4:00 PM, 8:00 PM, and 12:00 AM
B
Drug concentration is important for the eradication of bacterial infection. It is desired to keep the drug dose: a. below minimum effective concentration. b. above minimum effective concentration. c. below minimum toxic level. d. above minimum toxic level.
B
The client has been ordered to be treated with Vibramycin. What effect should the nurse anticipate seeing in the client's laboratory values? a. Increased serum potassium b. Decreased serum potassium c. Increased serum calcium d. Decreased serum calcium
B
The client has been ordered treatment with Cefaclor as well as erythromycin. The nurse anticipates what effect from the interaction of the medications? a. Increased action of the Cefaclor b. Decreased action of the Cefaclor c. Anaphylactic reaction to the Cefaclor d. Toxic action of the Cefaclor
B
The client is scheduled to receive a dose of IV tetracycline at 9 PM. At what time should the nurse schedule her peak drug level to be drawn? a. 9:15 PM b. 9:45 PM c. 11:00 PM d. 11:45 PM
B
The nurse notes that the client has been placed on amphotericin B (Fungizone). Based on the medication being used, the nurse recognizes that the client has been diagnosed with a _____ infection. a. mild fungal b. severe fungal c. mild bacterial d. severe bacterial
B
When antibacterials are prescribed for the treatment of an infection and a culture is ordered, what should happen next? a. The initial dose of the antibiotic should be given before the culture is taken. b. The culture should be taken before the initial dose of the antibiotic is given. c. The culture should be taken any time after the antibiotic therapy begins. d. The culture may be taken at any time before or during antibiotic therapy.
B
When providing a medication, which route should the nurse select to ensure the maximum amount of bioavailability? a. Oral b. Intravenous c. Intramuscular d. Subcutaneous
B
Which assessment is most important when a client begins to receive an infusion of Amphotericin B (Fungizone)? a. Count apical heart rate for 1 full minute. b. Assess blood pressure for hypotension. c. Assess lower extremity motor function. d. Determine a change in pulse pressure.
B
A client is to receive a drug that has a half-life of 36 hours. The drug would probably be administered on which dose schedule? a. Once a week b. Once a day c. Twice a day d. Three times a day
B Since the medication requires 36 hours to be eliminated from the body, a once-daily dosing pattern would allow therapeutic drug levels to be maintained.
The nurse teaches the client that undesired effects are frequently associated with a client stopping a medication before completion of the full course. The nurse should also instruct the client that physiologic effects not related to the desired effect, which can be predicted or associated with the use of the drug, may also occur. What should the client recognize about these physiologic effects? a. They are severe adverse reactions. b. They are side effects. c. They are synergistic effects. d. They are toxic effects.
B Some side effects are expected as part of drug therapy. The occurrence of these expected but undesirable side effects is not a reason to discontinue therapy. The nurse's role includes teaching clients to report any side effects. It is important to know that the occurrence of side effects is one of the primary reasons clients stop taking the prescribed medication.
The nurse notes that the client is rapidly developing a decreased response to a medication. This decreased response is known as: a. pharmacogenetics. b. tachyphylaxis. c. drug accumulation. d. drug toxicity.
B Tachyphylaxis refers to a rapid decrease in response to the drug.
8. A nurse is determining whether a medication is ordered to be given at the appropriate intervals. This is done by assessing the half-life of the medication. The serum half-life (t) of a drug is the time required: a. for half of a drug dose to be absorbed. b. after absorption for half of the drug to be eliminated. c. for a drug to be achieve maximum effectiveness. d. for half of the drug dose to be completely distributed.
B The half-life (t) of a drug is the time it takes for one half of the drug concentration to be eliminated.
The nurse receives the results of laboratory testing and sees that the level of valproic acid in the client's blood is 78 mcg/mL. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? a. The nurse must call the physician immediately; this is a toxic level of medication. b. He or she must do nothing; this is a therapeutic level of medication. c. He or she must call the physician; this is a dangerously high level of medication. d. The nurse must do nothing; this is a subnormal level of medication.
B The therapeutic range for valproic acid is 50 to 100 mcg/mL.
A client is diagnosed with the flu. The nurse is aware that in order to be effective, neuraminidase inhibitors should be taken within how many hours of onset of flu symptoms? a. 24 b. 48 c. 72 d. 96
B 48 hrs
A 5-year-old client is being treated for parasitic worms. What should be included in the client's care? (Select all that apply.) a. Take baths, not showers. b. Wash hands frequently. c. Change sheets daily. d. Take medication until worms are no longer noted in the feces. e. Be alert for drowsiness. f. Watch for side effects of agitation.
B, C, D, E
A client asks why she needs to take a medication on an empty stomach. The nurse explains that food generally has which effect on drug dissolution and absorption? a. Enhances b. Increases c. Decreases d. Does not have an effect
C
A client at an outpatient clinic is ordered to receive ampicillin (Omnipen) for an infection. Which nursing intervention related to penicillins would the nurse question? a. Verify that the client is not allergic to penicillin. b. Obtain culture before administering the first dose of medication. c. Instruct client to discontinue penicillin when temperature is normal. d. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
C
A client has been receiving a cephalosporin for 20 days to treat a severe bacterial infection. The client complains of mouth pain, and the nurse assesses white patches in the client's mouth. What is the highest priority action on the part of the nurse? a. Provide mouth care with glycerin swabs. b. Encourage the client to drink more fluids. c. Notify the physician and describe symptoms. d. Administer analgesia for the mouth pain.
C
A client is diagnosed with tuberculosis. The nurse practitioner plans to treat the client's family. The nurse anticipates that which drug will be ordered? a. Streptomycin b. Rifampin (Rifadin) c. Isoniazid (INH) d. Colistin
C
A client is ordered to receive acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse is aware that acyclovir is effective against various viruses and has a short half-life. The medication dose should be taken _____ day. a. once a b. twice a c. three or more times a d. once every other
C
A client is to receive amphotericin B (Fungizone). The nurse is planning care for the client based on the fact that this medication is administered via which route? a. Oral b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Subcutaneous
C
A client with a UTI is ordered to receive trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, also known as co-trimoxazole (Bactrim, Septra). The nurse is aware that Bactrim is a combination of two drugs. What is the purpose of this combination? a. It decreases the response against disease-producing organisms. b. The two drugs have an antagonistic drug effect. c. Trimethoprim prevents bacterial resistance to sulfamethoxazole. d. It prevents toxic drug effects.
C
A client with tuberculosis is being monitored via periodic sputum testing. To obtain acid-fast bacilli, the nurse should plan to obtain the sputum specimen: a. in the evening after dinner. b. before sleep. c. in the morning before breakfast. d. before lunch and before the evening meal.
C
The client has a hypersensitivity to penicillin. The nurse anticipates that the drug of choice for this client will be: a. cefuroxime (Ceftin, Zinacef). b. clindamycin (Cleocin). c. erythromycin (E-mycin, Ilotycin). d. gentamicin SO4 (Garamycin).
C
The client has been ordered treatment with Amoxil. The client reports to the nurse that she has developed symptoms of vaginitis. The highest priority action on the part of the nurse is to recognize this as: a. an expected side effect of the medication. b. a life-threatening reaction to the drug. c. evidence of development of a superinfection. d. evidence of an anaphylactic reaction.
C
The client has been started on Garamycin. She complains to the nurse of changes in her level of hearing. What is the highest priority nursing intervention on the part of the nurse? a. Restrict fluid intake. b. Assess for paralytic ileus. c. Hold the next dose of medication and notify the physician. d. Monitor urine for sugar.
C
The client is being treated with Bactrim. The nurse should anticipate seeing an increase in the client's serum: a. glucose. b. potassium. c. BUN and creatinine. d. calcium.
C
The client is being treated with ketoconazole. He tells the nurse that he frequently self-medicates with echinacea. The highest priority instruction that the nurse should give the client is that the combination of the two medications: a. should enhance the action of the ketoconazole. b. should diminish the action of the ketoconazole. c. may result in hepatotoxicity developing. d. may result in nephrotoxicity developing.
C
The client is being treated with one of the sulfonamides. She complains to the nurse of experiencing a sore throat. What is the highest priority action on the part of the nurse? a. Administer the medication; this is an expected side effect of the medication. b. Call the physician; this is symptomatic of development of a superinfection. c. Call the physician; this is symptomatic of a life-threatening anemia. d. Hold the medication and call the pharmacist for clarification.
C
The client will be prescribed Achromycin. The nurse anticipates that this medication will be given: a. with each meal. b. with extra water. c. on an empty stomach. d. one half-hour after meals.
C
The nurse assesses that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction to acyclovir (Zovirax) when the client exhibits which reaction? a. Paralytic ileus b. Liver failure c. Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia d. Gastric ulceration
C
With continuous use of antibiotics, antibiotic resistance result because: a. bacteria are producing fewer mutations. b. the immune system has enhanced ability to fight infection. c. mutant bacteria are surviving antibiotic use. d. fewer new antibiotics have been produced.
C
A client is taking a drug that is moderately highly protein bound. Several days later, the client takes a second drug that is 90% protein bound. What is most likely to have occurred as a result of this administration? a. The first drug remains protein bound. b. The first drug becomes increasingly inactive. c. The first drug is released from the protein and becomes more pharmacologically active. d. The second drug becomes more active.
C Only drugs not bound to protein are active and can cause a pharmacologic response. As the free drug in the circulation decreases, more bound drug is released from the protein to maintain the balance of free drug.
A nursing role is to teach clients to watch for adverse medication reactions. The client should be able to recognize what about adverse reactions? a. They are mild, easily treatable side effects. b. They are therapeutic, expected effects. c. They are undesired effects that may be severe. d. They are the desired therapeutic effects.
C Adverse reactions are a range of untoward effects (unintended and occurring at normal doses) of drugs that cause mild-to-severe side effects, including anaphylaxis (cardiovascular collapse). Adverse reactions are always undesirable and must always be reported and documented because they represent variances from planned therapy.
A client is receiving chemotherapy to treat a solid organ tumor. The client admits to the nurse that he has been drinking Chinese teas to treat the disease. What is the appropriate response from the nurse? a. "You have the right to use any nonmedicinal treatments you want." b. "You should not take any alternative medications while on chemotherapy." c. "We must be sure that your teas do not interact with the chemotherapy." d. "Traditional medicines and herbal therapy should not be used together."
C Clients have the right to use complementary treatments, but it is the responsibility of nurses to ensure that no unsafe interactions exist.
The nurse is monitoring a patient prescribed an aminoglycoside antibiotic for toxicity. Which nursing intervention is indicated when administering this medication? a. Ensure that the client voids before administration. b. Have emergency airway equipment at the bedside. c. Monitor blood levels of the medication. d. Determine liver function before each dose.
C For those drugs with a narrow therapeutic index, such as aminoglycoside antibiotics and anticonvulsants, the therapeutic ranges are closely monitored.
Because of hereditary influence, drug action may vary from a predicted drug response. This variance is known as: a. biotransformation. b. tachyphylaxis. c. pharmacogenetics. d. transcription factors.
C Pharmacogenetics is the effect of a drug action that varies from a predicted drug response because of genetic factors or hereditary influence.
The nurse is caring for a client who needs to have a peak drug level drawn. He was given the oral medication 30 minutes ago. What is the best action on the part of the nurse? a. Call the lab to have the medication level drawn immediately. b. Arrange for the level to be drawn tomorrow since the peak time has passed. c. Wait for at least another 30 minutes before calling to have the level drawn. d. Schedule the level to be drawn in 8 hours.
C The peak drug level for an oral drug can be 1 to 3 hours after drug administration.
A nurse is learning how to draw peak and trough levels of a medication. In order to draw them correctly, the nurse should know what the trough level is. The trough level is the __________ of a drug. a. minimum effective concentration b. highest plasma concentration c. lowest plasma concentration d. rate of absorption
C The trough drug level is the lowest plasma concentration of a drug, and it measures the rate at which the drug is eliminated.
A client's creatinine clearance level is 105 mL/min. Based on this information, what type of change in his medication should the nurse anticipate? a. Increased dosage b. Decreased dosage c. Unchanged dosage d. Dosage withheld
C This is a normal creatinine clearance level (normal level is 85 to 135 mL/min); therefore the dose would be unchanged.
The client will need a prophylactic agent for herpes simplex. The nurse anticipates that the client will be ordered: a. ciprofloxacin (Cipro). b. fluconazole (Diflucan). c. oral acyclovir (Zovirax). d. pentazocine (Talwin).
C Acyclovir
A client has relayed instructions from a physician regarding an allergy to a type of antibiotic therapy. The nurse would question which instruction? a. Wear a Medic Alert bracelet that indicates the allergy. b. Avoid all penicillin-type drugs. c. Inform all healthcare providers of the allergy. d. Restrict fluids when taking the antibiotic.
D
A client who takes oral hypoglycemics for type 2 diabetes mellitus is diagnosed with a severe infection and is ordered to receive levofloxacin (Levaquin). Based on the interaction of the medications, the highest priority nursing intervention is to frequently assess: a. complete blood count. b. BUN and creatinine levels. c. liver enzymes. d. serum blood glucose level.
D
A client's medication warrants peak and trough levels to be drawn. The nurse is aware that if the peak level of the drug is too high, what could occur? a. Mild side effects b. Inadequate drug action c. Slow onset of drug action d. Drug toxicity
D
A nurse is aware that crystalluria is a common problem with sulfonamides. What is a nursing intervention to prevent this problem? a. Intravenous therapy b. Giving the medication in the morning c. Increasing intake of calcium d. Increasing fluid intake
D
A nurse is monitoring for the side effects of acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse anticipates that the client may experience what side effect? a. Hepatotoxicity b. High blood pressure c. Increased intracranial pressure d. Rash and pruritus
D
A nurse is providing an oral medication for pain relief to a client. To attain the fastest pain relief, the nurse administers the medication so that it is most rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Which mode of delivery has the fastest absorption? a. Tablet b. Enteric-coated pill c. Capsule d. Liquid suspension
D
Nystatin (Mycostatin), a polyene antifungal drug, is frequently administered as an oral suspension for Candida infection in the mouth. Client instruction regarding the administration of nystatin is to: a. dilute the oral suspension with water and then swallow the solution. b. drink the oral suspension and follow with 4 ounces of water. c. drink the oral suspension but do not follow with fluid or food. d. swish the liquid in the mouth and then swallow or expel the suspension.
D
The client has been diagnosed with candidiasis (thrush). The nurse anticipates that the client will be treated with: a. co-trimoxazole. b. pyrimethamine. c. sulfamethoxazole. d. fluconazole.
D
The client has been ordered to be treated with amoxicillin. The highest priority instruction that the nurse should give the client related to diet while on the medication is to avoid: a. green leafy vegetables. b. beef and other red meat. c. coffee, tea, and colas. d. acidic fruits and juices.
D
The client has been ordered treatment with Zovirax. The nurse should expect to see increased _____ in the client's laboratory levels. a. liver enzymes b. Potassium c. magnesium d. blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D
The client has been prescribed Garamycin. The highest priority nursing intervention related to a life-threatening side effect of the medication is to monitor for: a. blood pressure changes. b. decrease in pulse rate. c. nausea and vomiting. d. decreased urinary output.
D
The client is being treated with Metronidazole. She complains to the nurse of experiencing reddish brown urine. The nurse interprets this finding as a(n): a. potentially life-threatening reaction to the medication. b. symptom of an anaphylactic reaction to the medication. c. sign that the medication dosage needs to be increased. d. expected side effect of a high dose of the medication.
D
The client is being treated with rifapentine. The nurse plans to administer the medication every _____ hours.
D
What is the highest priority nursing intervention for clients taking anthelmintics? a. Instruct the client that daily stool specimens must be collected. b. Inform the client that the pathogens are spread via blood. c. Instruct the client to take baths and not showers. d. Alert the client to avoid operating a car or machinery due to drowsiness.
D
The client has been prescribed digoxin. Before administering the drug on a routine basis to the client, the nurse should recognize that the client should receive a _____ dose. a. therapeutic b. peak c. trough d. loading
D Digoxin requires a loading dose when first prescribed.
The client has been placed on an enteric-coated medication. An appropriate action on the part of the nurse is to instruct the client to __________ the medication. a. weigh herself at the same time every day while on b. drink at least eight glasses of water daily while on c. adhere to a low-sodium diet while on d. avoid eating fatty food before taking
D Fatty foods decrease the absorption rate of enteric-coated tablets.
A nurse is instructing a client about safe use of herbal supplements. Which client could use herbal therapy most safely? a. 5-year-old boy b. 25-year-old pregnant woman c. 72-year-old man d. 42-year-old woman
D Herbal supplements should not be used with children, pregnant or nursing women, or older adults.
The nurse sees that the client has been prescribed a loading dose of medication. What effect should the nurse expect to result from the client receiving a loading dose? a. A rapid maximum effective concentration b. Maintenance dose the lowest plasma concentration of the drug c. Therapeutic dose the highest plasma concentration of the drug d. A rapid minimum effective concentration
D When immediate drug response is desired, a large initial dose, known as the loading dose, of drug is given to achieve a rapid minimum effective concentration in the plasma. After a large initial dose, a prescribed dosage per day is ordered.
Which herbal preparation is a client most likely to select as a laxative? a. Lemon balm b. Capsicum c. Hops d. Aloe vera
D Aloe
