pharm midterm practice test
What should a nurse include in the education for a patient taking cholestyramine? A. "Mix the powder with water or juice." B. "Take the medication on an empty stomach." C. "Avoid increasing fluid intake." D. "Do not take other medications while on cholestyramine."
Answer: A. "Mix the powder with water or juice." Rationale: Mixing cholestyramine powder with water or juice ensures proper dispersion and easier ingestion.
What should the nurse emphasize when educating a patient about albuterol inhaler use? A. "Shake the inhaler well before each use." B. "Use the inhaler only when you feel short of breath." C. "Do not rinse your mouth after use." D. "Take the inhaler with food."
Answer: A. "Shake the inhaler well before each use." Rationale: Shaking the inhaler helps to ensure proper medication delivery and effectiveness.
A patient with diabetes and hypercholesterolemia is prescribed colesevelam. What should the nurse include in the patient education? A. "Take the medication with meals." B. "Take the medication on an empty stomach." C. "Avoid drinking water with this medication." D. "Take this medication before bedtime."
Answer: A. "Take the medication with meals." Rationale: Taking colesevelam with meals improves its effectiveness and helps prevent gastrointestinal side effects.
A patient is prescribed furosemide for edema. What is an important patient education point? A. "Take this medication in the morning." B. "Avoid eating potassium-rich foods." C. "Limit fluid intake." D. "Take this medication with food."
Answer: A. "Take this medication in the morning." Rationale: Taking furosemide in the morning helps prevent nighttime urination and disturbances in sleep.
A patient taking verapamil reports dizziness and a severe headache. What should the nurse assess first? A. Blood pressure B. Respiratory rate C. Blood glucose levels D. Bowel sounds
Answer: A. Blood pressure Rationale: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause severe hypotension, leading to dizziness and headache. Assessing blood pressure is crucial.
A patient with hypertension is started on lisinopril. What is a common side effect the nurse should educate the patient about? A. Dry cough B. Weight gain C. Insomnia D. Increased appetite
Answer: A. Dry cough Rationale: A dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.
What is a major adverse effect of lisinopril that the patient should be aware of? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: A. Hyperkalemia Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which normally promotes potassium excretion.
Which side effect is most commonly associated with hydrochlorothiazide? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypoglycemia D. Hyponatremia
Answer: A. Hypokalemia Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion.
What is the mechanism of action of acetaminophen? A. Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in the central nervous system B. Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase C. Blocks calcium ion influx D. Enhances the effects of GABA
Answer: A. Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in the central nervous system Rationale: Acetaminophen reduces pain and fever by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the CNS.
Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy? A. Lisinopril B. Furosemide C. Atorvastatin D. Simvastatin
Answer: A. Lisinopril Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of fetal toxicity.
What is a major adverse effect of atorvastatin that the patient should be aware of? A. Liver damage B. Kidney damage C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: A. Liver damage Rationale: Atorvastatin can cause liver damage, and patients should be monitored for liver function.
A patient is prescribed gemfibrozil for hypertriglyceridemia. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for? A. Liver toxicity B. Hyperglycemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypertension
Answer: A. Liver toxicity Rationale: Gemfibrozil can cause liver toxicity; monitoring liver function tests is necessary.
Which of the following side effects should a patient report immediately when taking atorvastatin? A. Muscle pain B. Constipation C. Nausea D. Diarrhea
Answer: A. Muscle pain Rationale: Muscle pain can be an early sign of rhabdomyolysis, a serious adverse effect of atorvastatin that requires immediate medical attention.
A patient taking atorvastatin should be educated to report which of the following symptoms? A. Muscle pain B. Diarrhea C. Nausea D. Headache
Answer: A. Muscle pain Rationale: Muscle pain can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious adverse effect of atorvastatin.
What is the primary action of propranolol? A. Reduces blood pressure B. Increases heart rate C. Lowers blood glucose D. Increases cholesterol levels
Answer: A. Reduces blood pressure Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that reduces blood pressure by decreasing heart rate and cardiac output.
What should a nurse include in the patient education for lorazepam? A. "Take with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset." B. "Avoid alcohol and other CNS depressants." C. "Increase your fluid intake." D. "Take in the morning."
Answer: B. "Avoid alcohol and other CNS depressants." Rationale: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can cause CNS depression. Combining it with other CNS depressants, such as alcohol, can be dangerous.
A patient taking lorazepam for anxiety reports feeling drowsy during the day. What should the nurse suggest? A. "Take the medication with alcohol to enhance its effects." B. "Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery." C. "Double the dose at night." D. "Stop taking the medication immediately."
Answer: B. "Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery." Rationale: Lorazepam can cause drowsiness, and patients should avoid activities that require alertness to prevent accidents.
A patient is prescribed acetaminophen for fever reduction. What is a critical piece of patient education to prevent toxicity? A. "Take the medication with grapefruit juice." B. "Do not exceed the recommended dose." C. "Take the medication on an empty stomach." D. "You can take other medications containing acetaminophen without concern."
Answer: B. "Do not exceed the recommended dose." Rationale: Exceeding the recommended dose of acetaminophen can lead to severe liver damage. Patients should be advised to adhere strictly to the prescribed dosage.
A nurse is educating a patient on the use of propranolol. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I should take my medication with food." B. "I can stop taking this medication once I feel better." C. "I should monitor my blood pressure regularly." D. "I should not stop taking the medication abruptly."
Answer: B. "I can stop taking this medication once I feel better." Rationale: Propranolol should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues.
What instruction should a nurse give to a patient taking furosemide? A. "Take this medication at bedtime." B. "Increase your potassium intake." C. "Restrict your fluid intake." D. "Avoid taking this medication with food."
Answer: B. "Increase your potassium intake." Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, so increasing potassium intake helps to prevent this side effect.
A patient with hypertension is started on propranolol. Which condition is a contraindication for this medication? A. Hypertension B. Asthma C. Migraine prevention D. Angina
Answer: B. Asthma Rationale: Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, can cause bronchospasm, making it contraindicated in patients with asthma.
A patient taking metoprolol should be advised to monitor which of the following? A. Blood glucose levels B. Blood pressure and heart rate C. Body temperature D. Respiratory rate
Answer: B. Blood pressure and heart rate Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, affects heart rate and blood pressure. Monitoring these parameters is crucial to ensure safe and effective treatment.
A patient is taking tamsulosin for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse advise to avoid? A. Taking the medication with meals B. Driving immediately after taking the medication C. Drinking plenty of fluids D. Monitoring urine output
Answer: B. Driving immediately after taking the medication Rationale: Tamsulosin can cause dizziness and fainting, particularly after the first dose, which can impair the ability to drive or operate machinery.
What is a common side effect of benadryl that the patient should be aware of? A. Insomnia B. Dry mouth C. Weight gain D. Diarrhea
Answer: B. Dry mouth Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of benadryl (diphenhydramine) due to its anticholinergic effects.
A patient taking verapamil is advised to avoid consuming which of the following? A. Dairy products B. Grapefruit juice C. High-protein diet D. Caffeine
Answer: B. Grapefruit juice Rationale: Grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of verapamil, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects.
A patient taking atorvastatin should avoid which of the following to prevent an adverse interaction? A. Dairy products B. Grapefruit juice C. Potassium supplements D. High-protein diet
Answer: B. Grapefruit juice Rationale: Grapefruit juice can increase the levels of atorvastatin in the blood, leading to a higher risk of adverse effects.
Which side effect should be closely monitored in a patient taking spironolactone? A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: B. Hyperkalemia Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and can lead to hyperkalemia.
Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of albuterol? A. Hypertension B. Hypersensitivity to albuterol C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B. Hypersensitivity to albuterol Rationale: Albuterol should not be used in patients with a known hypersensitivity to the medication or its components.
A patient taking levothyroxine reports palpitations and nervousness. What might these symptoms indicate? A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. An allergic reaction D. Gastrointestinal upset
Answer: B. Hyperthyroidism Rationale: Palpitations and nervousness can be symptoms of hyperthyroidism, indicating a possible overdose of levothyroxine.
A patient is prescribed bumetanide for edema. What electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia Rationale: Bumetanide, a loop diuretic, can cause hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
Which side effect should be closely monitored in a patient taking bumetanide? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia Rationale: Bumetanide, a loop diuretic, can cause hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
What is a common side effect of hydrochlorothiazide? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
What is the mechanism of action of gemfibrozil? A. Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase B. Increases lipolysis and elimination of triglyceride-rich particles C. Inhibits cyclooxygenase enzymes D. Blocks calcium ion influx
Answer: B. Increases lipolysis and elimination of triglyceride-rich particles Rationale: Gemfibrozil increases lipolysis and elimination of triglyceride-rich particles, reducing triglyceride levels.
What is the mechanism of action of ibuprofen? A. Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase B. Inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2) enzymes C. Blocks calcium ion influx D. Enhances the effects of GABA
Answer: B. Inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2) enzymes Rationale: Ibuprofen inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, reducing the synthesis of prostaglandins responsible for inflammation, pain, and fever.
Question: Which medication is used to treat hypothyroidism? A. Simvastatin B. Levothyroxine C. Metoprolol D. Atorvastatin
Answer: B. Levothyroxine Rationale: Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism.
What is the primary action of olmesartan? A. Reduces blood glucose B. Lowers blood pressure C. Increases cholesterol levels D. Reduces fever
Answer: B. Lowers blood pressure Rationale: Olmesartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that lowers blood pressure by inhibiting vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion.
What is the mechanism of action of propranolol? A. Selective beta-1 blocker B. Non-selective beta-blocker C. Calcium channel blocker D. Angiotensin II receptor blocker
Answer: B. Non-selective beta-blocker Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors.
What is the primary therapeutic effect of cholestyramine? A. Lowers blood pressure B. Reduces LDL cholesterol C. Increases HDL cholesterol D. Lowers blood glucose levels
Answer: B. Reduces LDL cholesterol Rationale: Cholestyramine binds bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption and leading to a reduction in LDL cholesterol levels.
What is the therapeutic effect of lisinopril? A. Increases heart rate B. Reduces blood pressure C. Increases cholesterol levels D. Reduces blood glucose levels
Answer: B. Reduces blood pressure Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that lowers blood pressure by preventing the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
What should a nurse monitor in a patient taking olmesartan? A. Blood glucose B. Serum potassium levels C. Liver enzymes D. Urine output
Answer: B. Serum potassium levels Rationale: Olmesartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, can cause hyperkalemia, so monitoring potassium levels is essential.
What should a nurse monitor in a patient taking olmesartan? A. Blood glucose levels B. Serum potassium levels C. Liver enzymes D. Urine output
Answer: B. Serum potassium levels Rationale: Olmesartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, can cause hyperkalemia, so monitoring potassium levels is essential.
Which of the following is a contraindication for taking metoprolol? A. Hypertension B. Severe bradycardia C. Angina D. Heart failure
Answer: B. Severe bradycardia Rationale: Metoprolol is contraindicated in patients with severe bradycardia due to its heart rate-lowering effects.
What dietary instruction should be given to a patient taking simvastatin? A. "Avoid foods high in potassium." B. "Take the medication with grapefruit juice." C. "Follow a cholesterol-lowering diet." D. "Increase salt intake."
Answer: C. "Follow a cholesterol-lowering diet." Rationale: Adhering to a cholesterol-lowering diet enhances the effectiveness of simvastatin in reducing LDL cholesterol levels.
What instruction should a nurse give to a patient taking furosemide? A. "Take this medication in the evening." B. "Avoid potassium-rich foods." C. "Monitor your weight daily." D. "Restrict fluid intake."
Answer: C. "Monitor your weight daily." Rationale: Monitoring weight daily helps to track fluid status and detect potential fluid retention or loss, which is essential for patients taking diuretics like furosemide.
A patient with a history of stomach ulcers is prescribed ibuprofen for pain relief. What should the nurse include in the patient education? A. "Take the medication on an empty stomach." B. "You can consume alcohol while taking this medication." C. "Take the medication with food or milk." D. "Do not take this medication if you have a headache."
Answer: C. "Take the medication with food or milk." Rationale: Taking ibuprofen with food or milk helps to reduce gastrointestinal upset and potential gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in patients with a history of stomach ulcers.
A patient prescribed atenolol should be educated to monitor which of the following? A. Body temperature B. Respiratory rate C. Blood pressure and heart rate D. Blood glucose levels
Answer: C. Blood pressure and heart rate Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, affects heart rate and blood pressure. Monitoring these parameters is crucial to ensure safe and effective treatment.
What is a potential adverse effect of albuterol? A. Bradycardia B. Hypotension C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: C. Hypokalemia Rationale: Albuterol can cause hypokalemia due to its beta-2 adrenergic agonist activity, which promotes potassium uptake into cells.
A patient with hypercholesterolemia is prescribed simvastatin. When should the patient take this medication? A. In the morning B. At lunchtime C. In the evening D. At bedtime
Answer: C. In the evening Rationale: Simvastatin is more effective when taken in the evening because cholesterol synthesis in the liver is higher at night.
What is the primary therapeutic effect of amlodipine? A. Reduces blood glucose B. Increases heart rate C. Lowers blood pressure D. Increases cholesterol levels
Answer: C. Lowers blood pressure Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that lowers blood pressure by inhibiting calcium ion influx into vascular smooth muscle.
A patient taking tamsulosin should be advised to avoid what activity until they know how the medication affects them? A. Eating dairy products B. Consuming alcohol C. Operating heavy machinery D. Exercising
Answer: C. Operating heavy machinery Rationale: Tamsulosin can cause dizziness and hypotension, which can impair the ability to operate heavy machinery safely.
A patient taking spironolactone should be advised to monitor which of the following? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Chloride
Answer: C. Potassium Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and it can cause hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential.
What is the primary therapeutic effect of Synthroid (levothyroxine)? A. Lowers blood pressure B. Treats hypercholesterolemia C. Restores normal thyroid function D. Reduces inflammation
Answer: C. Restores normal thyroid function Rationale: Synthroid (levothyroxine) is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism by restoring normal thyroid levels.
A patient is prescribed albuterol for asthma. What is a common side effect of this medication? A. Weight gain B. Drowsiness C. Tremors D. Constipation
Answer: C. Tremors Rationale: Albuterol can cause tremors as a side effect due to its stimulation of beta-2 adrenergic receptors.
A patient taking simvastatin should report which symptom immediately? A. Headache B. Constipation C. Unexplained muscle pain D. Fatigue
Answer: C. Unexplained muscle pain Rationale: Unexplained muscle pain can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious adverse effect of simvastatin.
A patient is prescribed cholestyramine for hypercholesterolemia. Which vitamin deficiencies should the nurse monitor for? A. Vitamin B12 and folate B. Vitamin C and B6 C. Vitamins A, D, E, and K D. Vitamin B1 and B2
Answer: C. Vitamins A, D, E, and K Rationale: Cholestyramine can bind fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K), leading to potential deficiencies.
A patient with hypertension is prescribed captopril. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the patient to report immediately? A. Rash B. Altered taste C. Dry cough D. Angioedema
Answer: D. Angioedema Rationale: Angioedema is a serious adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like captopril and requires immediate medical attention.
A patient taking levothyroxine should be instructed to take the medication at what time? A. With breakfast B. With lunch C. At bedtime D. On an empty stomach 30 minutes before breakfast
Answer: D. On an empty stomach 30 minutes before breakfast Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before breakfast.
What is the primary use of benadryl? A. Reduces fever B. Treats nausea C. Suppresses cough D. Reduces allergy symptoms
Answer: D. Reduces allergy symptoms Rationale: Benadryl (diphenhydramine) is an antihistamine used primarily to reduce allergy symptoms.
