pharm
2. B-blockers should be avoided in the following conditions? A. Brochoconstriction B. HPN C. Angina D. MI
Answer: A. Brochoconstriction
2. Which of the following is a contraindication for digoxin administration? A. BP 140/90 B. HR above 80 C. Heart rate below 60 D. RR is above 20
Answer: C. Heart rate below 60
26. The interaction of one drug increase by the presence of a second drug is known as: A. synergism B. Additive effects C. Antagonism D. Potentiation
Answer: D. Potentiation
6. When nitrates are administered early to the acute MI client, the effect is: A. Hypotension B. Bradycardia C. reduced mortality D. reduced morbidity
Answer: C. reduced mortality
9. Norepinephrine (Levophed) is contraindicated in which of the following conditions? A. hypovolemic shock B. Neurogenic Shock C. Blood pressures above 80-100 mmHg (systolic) D. Decreased renal perfusion
Answer: A. hypovolemic shock
63. Histamine H antagonists have two major subgroups or "generations". The first generation agents include all of the fo EXCEPT: A. diphenhydramine BDoxylamine C. Chlorpheniramine D. Loratadine
Answer: B
11. These drugs are develop for diseases in which the expected number of patient is small. A. Generic drugs B. Orphan Drugs C. Over the counter drugs D. Placebo
Answer: B. Orphan Drugs
31. Which of the following statements about sulfonamides is false? A. Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase B. Dysfunction of the basal ganglia may occur in the newborn if sulfonamides are administered in the late pregnancy C. Cross-allergenicity may occur between sulfonamides and thiazides D. None of the above
Answer: A. Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
6. Which of the following statements about sulfonamides is false? A. Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase B. Dysfunction of the basal ganglia may occur in the newborn if sulfonamides are administered C. Cross-allergenicity may occur between sulfonamides and thiazides D. None of the above
Answer: A. Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
1. The action of a medication is inotropic when it: A. decrease after load B. Increase heart rate C. increase the force of contraction D. it is used to treat CHF
Answer: C. increase the force of contraction
37. Tetracycline has been ordered for a 2-year-old child. What intervention by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Teach the child to drink liquid tetracycline to avoid discoloration of the teeth B. Collaborate with the prescriber about appropriateness of the order. C. Evaluate renal function prior to initiation of therapy D. Administer with 6 to 8 ounces of water
Answer: A. Teach the child to drink liquid tetracycline to avoid discoloration of the teeth
53. The chemotherapy undertaken by this patient caused acute hemorrhagic cystitis. The drug that is responsible to this tox A. cyclophosphamide B. Doxurubicin C. 5-FU (fluorouracil) D. Vincristine
Answer: A. cyclophosphamide
5. The result of nitrate administration is: - a. decreased myocardial oxygen demand b. increased myocardial oxygen demand c. increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume d. increased atrial pressure
Answer: A. decreased myocardial oxygen demand
64. Phenylephrine causes A. Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosa B. Increased gastric secretion and motility C. Increased temperature D. All of the above C. Antitussives
Answer: A
65. A drug that reduces nasal or oropharyngeal mucosal swelling, usually by constricting blood vessels in the submucosa A. Antihistamines B. Decongestants D. Expectorants
Answer: A
6. Which of the following terms best describes a drug that blocks the action of epinephrine and its receptors without activating them? A. Pharmacologic antagonist B. Partial agonist C. Physiologic Agonist D. Chemical Antagonist
Answer: A Pharmacologic antagonist
33. The nurse determines the client understands an important principle in self-administration of an oral antibiotic when the client which of the following statements? A. "I will continue to take the antibiotic as it is ordered, even though I no longer have a cough with yellow sputum." B. "When I missed a dose of my antibiotic this morning, I made up by taking two doses when it was time to take the next C. "I am careful to take the antibiotic every day at breakfast, lunch, and dinner." D. "Even though the doctor prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) chewable tablet, I have no problem swallowing it whole."
Answer: A. "I will continue to take the antibiotic as it is ordered, even though I no longer have a cough with yellow sputum."
14. A client has developed neprogenic diabetes insipidus. Which of the ff drugs would likely be prescribed for this client? A. hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril) B. spironolactone (Aldactone) C. Mannitol (Osmitrol) D. bumetanide (Bumex
Answer: A. hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
9. The nurse determines the client understands an important principle in self-administration of an oral antibiotic when the client makes which of the following statements? A. "I will continue to take the antibiotic as it is ordered, even though I no longer have a cough with yellow sputum." B. "When I missed a dose of my antibiotic this morning, I made up by taking two doses when it was time to take the next dose." C. "I am careful to take the antibiotic every day at breakfast, lunch, and dinner." D. "Even though the doctor prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) chewable tablet, I have no problem swallowing it whole."
Answer: A. "I will continue to take the antibiotic as it is ordered, even though I no longer have a cough with yellow sputum."
15. A clinic nurse is reviewing medication instructions with a client taking cholestyramine resin (Questran) for hypercholesterolemia. Which statement made by the client indicates further need for teaching by the clinic nurse? A. "I will eat a low-fiber diet to prevent diarrhea." B. "I will start a walking program." C. "I will take my other medication at least 1 hour before taking cholestyramine." D. "I will mix cholestyramine with water, fruit juice or milk."
Answer: A. "I will eat a low-fiber diet to prevent diarrhea."
3. The therapeutic blood levels of digoxin ranges from: A. 0.5-2.0 ng/ml B. 2.5-3.5 ng/ml C. 3.5-5.0 ng/ml D. less than 0.5 ng/ml
Answer: A. 0.5-2.0 ng/ml
6. The therapeutic blood levels of digoxin ranges from: A. 0.5-2.0 ng/ml B. 2.5-3.5 ng/ml C. 3.5-5.0 ng/ml D. less than 0.5 ng/ml
Answer: A. 0.5-2.0 ng/ml
4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving epinephrine (Adrenalin). The nurse plans to monitor which of the following during treatment? A. BP and pulse B. Auditory function C. C-reactive protein levels D. BUN and creatine levels
Answer: A. BP and pulse
59. A client with which of the following conditions may experience a dangerous or fatal side effect of theophylline? A. Cardiac disorder B. Diabetes C. Renal disease D. hepatic disease
Answer: A. Cardiac disorder
1. Competitive antagonism of which of the following occurs at B-receptor sites? A. Catecholamines B. Adrenergic sites C. Acetylcholine D. Norepinephrine
Answer: A. Catecholamines
25. The nurse in a senior care clinic is concerned about Mrs. B, age 82, who does not seem to be responding to her new medication, the nurse suspects an absorption difficulty. The nurse should: A. Change to a liquid form of the drug B. Administer the medication before meals C. Administer the drug in a suppository dosage form D. Call the doctor and suggest a different frequency
Answer: A. Change to a liquid form of the drug
8. A client is taking quinidine (Quinaglute) for treatment of atrial fibrillation. The client calls the home health nurse and is complaining of ringing in the ears, blurred vision, headache, and nausea. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing: A. Cinchonism B. Anaphylaxis C. Salicylic poisoning D. Steven-Johnson syndrome
Answer: A. Cinchonism
30. A 45 year old woman was suspected of having Cushing's syndrome. To confirm the diagnosis, the patient was given an oral medication late in the evening and had blood drawn the following morning for laboratory testing. The oral medication was: A. Dexamethasone B. Glucose C. Ketoconazole D. Fludrocortisone
Answer: A. Dexamethasone
45. Aminoglycosides should not be administered concomitantly with: A. Diuretics B. Penicillins C. Cardiac glycosides D. Rifampin
Answer: A. Diuretics
3. A client diagnosed with hypertension is to begin taking doxazosin mesylate (Cardura) today. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention? (1 Point) A. Give the first dose at bedtime B. Administer with orange juice C. Monitor for signs of bleeding D. Monitor for signs of hypothermia
Answer: A. Give the first dose at bedtime
11. A client receiving penicillin (PCN) for several days complains of weakness, numbness, tingling in the extremities, and nausea. The nurse palpates a weak pulse and auscultates an irregular heart rate and decreased bowel sounds. The nurse further monitors the client for specific signs of which of the following imbalances? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypochloremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypophosphatemia
Answer: A. Hypokalemia
35. A client receiving penicillin (PCN) for several days complains of weakness, numbness, tingling in the extremities, and nausea: nurse palpates a weak pulse and auscultates an irregular heart rate and decreased bowel sounds. The nurse further monitors the cl specific signs of which of the following imbalances? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypochloremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypophosphatemia
Answer: A. Hypokalemia
3. A client is brought to the ER department after taking penicillin. Which of the following diagnoses is the highest priority in this client who is demonstrating anaphylaxis? A. Ineffective airway clearance B. Decreased cardiac output C. Risk for injury D. Anxiety
Answer: A. Ineffective airway clearance
27. Corticosteroids therapy is indicated in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Acute spinal cord injury
Answer: A. Osteoarthritis
3. Nursing assessment of a client taking ß-blockers should include all of the ff. Except: A. Pulmonary function test B. Baseline ECG C. Glucose level D. blood pressure
Answer: A. Pulmonary function test
10. Vasodilators are agent that A. Relax smooth muscle B. Are used to treat hypotention C. stimulate the adrenergic receptors of peripheral sympathetic nerves D. cause respiratory depression
Answer: A. Relax smooth muscle
11. A client diagnosed with angina is to be discharged home with a prescription of diltiazem (Cardizem). Which of the following instructions would the nurse include in a medication teaching plan? A. Rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position B. If diarrhea occurs, discontinue taking diltiazem C. Take diltiazem with food to enhance absorption D. Take hot showers to enhance vasodilation effects of diltiazem
Answer: A. Rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position
14. Ecstasy is an example of: A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule IV D. Schedule III
Answer: A. Schedule I
55. An oncology nurse is caring for a client undergoing chemotherapy. The client is to receive IV metoclopramide (Reglan), therapeutic effects, the nurse plans to administer this medication: A. 20 minutes after chemotherapy has started B. 30 minutes before chemotherapy C. The evening before chemotherapy has started. D. When the client request the medication.
Answer: B. 30 minutes before chemotherapy
10. A client with a history of angina is prescribed sublingual (SL) nitroglycerin (Nitro-bid, Nitrostat, others). The client is experiencing chest pain and has taken one SL tablet of nitroglycerin 5 minutes ago. The nurse takes the client's vital signs and finds they are stable. Which priority action should the nurse take next? A. Contact the client's physician B. Administer another nitroglycerine tablet C. Call for help or 911 D. Place the client in a supine position
Answer: B. Administer another nitroglycerine tablet
1. An unexpected effect of the drug is known as: A. Side effect B. Adverse effect C. Toxic reaction D. Allergic reaction
Answer: B. Adverse effect
17. When performing an assessment to determine which medication can be used, which of the following elements is most important? A. Physical examination B. Allergies C. Presence of illnesses D. Weight
Answer: B. Allergies
3. Which of the following is not a general mechanism of drug permeation? A. Aqueous Diffusion B. Aqueous hydrolysis C. Lipid diffusion D. Pinocytosis or endocytosis
Answer: B. Aqueous hydrolysis
2. A client is taking propranolol (Inderal) for hypertension. The nurse is reviewing the client's history and would contact the health care provider if the client has which condition? A. Glaucoma B. Asthma C. Migraine headache D. Neutropenia
Answer: B. Asthma
12. Epinephrine is used to treat cardiac arrest and status asthmaticus because of which of the ff. Actions? A. Increased speed of conduction and gluconeogenesis B. Bronchodilation and increase HR, contractility and conduction C. Increase vasodilation and enhanced myocardial contractility D. bronchoconstriction and increased HR
Answer: B. Bronchodilation and increase HR, contractility and conduction
15. The __________ has numerous provisions that affect how nurses should perform their duties when it comes to administering medications. A Harrison Narcotic Act B. Code of Ethics C. Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act D. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment
Answer: B. Code of Ethics
14. Tetracycline has been ordered for a 2-year-old child. What intervention by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Teach the child to drink liquid tetracycline to avoid discoloration of the teeth B. Collaborate with the prescriber about appropriateness of the order. C. Evaluate renal function prior to initiation of therapy D. Administer with 6 to 8 ounces of water
Answer: B. Collaborate with the prescriber about appropriateness of the order.
61. Which of the following is a prophylactic agent that appears to stabilize mast cells? A. Aminophylline B. Cromolyn C. Metoprolol D. Prednisone
Answer: B. Cromolyn
13. Which of the following effects of calcium channel blockers causes a reduction in the BP? A. Increased CO B. Decrease peripheral vascular resistance C. decreased renal blood flow D. Calcium influx to the cardiac muscle
Answer: B. Decrease peripheral vascular resistance
9. In addition to less efficient renal excretion, what other physical change in aging may lead to a need to reduce medication dosage in an elderly? A. Increased rate of drug absorption B. Decreased total body fluid proportionate to body mass C. Decreased efficiency in drug distribution D. Increased rate of drug metabolism by the liver.
Answer: B. Decreased total body fluid proportionate to body mass
18. Which of the following determine nursing interventions for a client on medication? A. Assessment B. Diagnoses C. Implementation D. Evaluation
Answer: B. Diagnoses
4. Blurred vision or halos are signs of : A. Sub-therapeutic digoxin level B. Digoxin toxicity C. Nothing related to digoxin D. Corneal side effects of digoxin
Answer: B. Digoxin toxicity
2. A 55-year old woman with heart failure is to be treated with a diuretic drug. Drug X and Y have the same mechanism of diuretic action. Drug X in a dose of 5 mg produces the same magnitude of diuresis as 500 mg of drug Y. This suggest that: A. Drug Y is less efficacious than drug X B. Drug X is about 100 time more potent than Drug Y C. Toxicity of Drug X is less than Drug Y D. Drug X is safer than Drug Y
Answer: B. Drug X is about 100 time more potent than Drug Y
19. The client's ability to take oral medications will be hindered by: A. Dental caries B. Dysphagia C. Age D. Lifestyle
Answer: B. Dysphagia
10. The most general term for the process by which the amount of active drug in the body is reduced after absorption into the systemic circulation is: A. Distribution B. Elimination C. Excretion D. First order elimination
Answer: B. Elimination
5. The process by which the amount of drug in the body is reduced after administration but before entering the systemic circulation is called? A. Excretion B. First pass effect C. First-order elimination D. Metabolism
Answer: B. First pass effect
11. Vasodilators are used to treat: A. DM B. HPN C. Atrial fibrillation D. Hypotension
Answer: B. HPN
15. Aldosterone antagonists: A. create an osmotic agent B. Inhibit the exchange of sodium for potassium C. Cause metabolic acidosis D. Work poorly in the presence of endogenous aldosterone
Answer: B. Inhibit the exchange of sodium for potassium ENDOCRINE SYSTEM AND PAIN
7. A 24 year old woman has returned from a vacation abroad suffering from traveller's diarrhea, and her problem was not responded to antidiarrheal drugs. A pathogenic gram negative bacillus is suspected. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be effective in the treatment of this patient? A. Ampicillin B. Levofloxacin C. Trimethoprim D. All of these
Answer: B. Levofloxacin
1. A nurse is reviewing instructions for a client receiving oral erythromycin (E-mycin) for treatment of Legionnaires' disease. The nurse reminds the client that erythromycin should be given: A. With meals B. On an empty stomach C. With an antacid D. 15-20 minutes before meals
Answer: B. On an empty stomach
7. Which variable will decrease the absorption of an oral drug? A. Increased surface area of the small intestine B. Reduced surface area of the small intestine C. Reduced stress D. Increased splanchnic blood flow
Answer: B. Reduced surface area of the small intestine
6. Class IA antiarrhythmics have a little effect on: A. AV node B. SA node C. Purkinje fibers D. Bundle of His
Answer: B. SA node
8. A patient with a history of episodic attacks of coughing, wheezing and shortness of breath is being evaluated in the asthma clinic. Several drug treatments with different routes of administration are under concentration. Which of the following statements about routes of administration is most correct? A. Blood levels often rise more slowly after intramuscular injection than after oral dosing B. The first-pass effect is the result of elimination of a drug after administration and before it enters the systemic circulation C. Administration of antiasthmatic drugs by inhaled aerosol is usually associated with more adverse effects (e.g. tachycardia, tremor) than is administration of these drugs by mouth D. Administration of a drug by transdermal patch is often faster but is associated with more first-pass metabolism than oral administration
Answer: B. The first-pass effect is the result of elimination of a drug after administration and before it enters the systemic circulation
38. The nurse teaches a client taking a tetracycline or a sulfonamide to do which of the following? A. Have regular evaluation of the prothrombin time (PT) and international rationalized ratio (INR). B. Wear long sleeves and long-legged pants, hat, and sunglasses when in the sunlight. C. Take with milk or food to minimize gastrointestinal disturbances. D. Change position slowly to avoid orthostatic hypotension.
Answer: B. Wear long sleeves and long-legged pants, hat, and sunglasses when in the sunlight.
39. The physician has written a medication order for a client. The nurse believes the dose to be above the usual dosage range. Which of the following actions is best for the nurse to take? A. Ask another nurse about the dosage order. B. Withhold the drug and question the physician about the dose. C. Administer the drug as ordered and question the physician later that day at rounds. D. Document the concern in the client's record
Answer: B. Withhold the drug and question the physician about the dose.
10. Following Norepinephrine (Levophed) administration, it is important for the nurse to assess: A. electrolytes status B. color and temperatures of toes and fingers C. Capillary refill D. ventricular arrhythmias
Answer: B. color and temperatures of toes and fingers
58. The nurse should instruct a client who is taking an expectorant to: A. restrict fluids B. increase fluids C. avoid vaporizers D. take antihistamine
Answer: B. increase fluids
13. Hypokalemia induced by so many diuretic agents may: A. decreased the action of digitalis B. increase the risk of digitalis toxicity C. reduce the effectiveness of uricosuric drugs D. decrease absorption of tricyclic antidepressant agents
Answer: B. increase the risk of digitalis toxicity
14. Which of the following calcium channel blockers is used to counteract or prevent cerebral vasospasm? A. verapamil B. nimodipine C. nifedipine D. felodipine
Answer: B. nimodipine
12. A xanthine derivative frequently used to treat intermittent claudication is: A. nifedipine (Adalat) B. pentoxyfylline (Trental) C. Hydralazine ( Apresoline) D. Captopril (Capoten)
Answer: B. pentoxyfylline (Trental)
2. The nurse has provided instructions on the use of penicillin V (Beepen-VK). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I will complete the prescription even if my symptoms go away before I finish B. "I will contact my health care provider if I develop a fever and diarrhea." C. "I am taking this drug because I am allergic to cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)". D. "I will small, frequent meals while taking this drug."
Answer: C. "I am taking this drug because I am allergic to cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)".
4. A nurse has provided instructions to a 31-year-old female client taking tetracycline (Sumycin) for treatment of Lyme disease. Which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that the client understands the instructions? A. "I will take this drug with an antacid to prevent an upset stomach." B. "I will take this drug with meals to enhance absorption of the drug." C. "I take oral contraceptives and will use an additional form of contraception." D. "Since I tan easily, I will not need to use sunscreen while in the sun."
Answer: C. "I take oral contraceptives and will use an additional form of contraception."
16. Despite your careful adherence to basic pharmacokinetic principles, your patient in digoxin therapy has develop digitalis toxicity. The plasma digoxin level is 4ng/ml. Renal function is normal, and the plasma half-life (t1⁄2) for this patient is 1.6 days. How long should you withhold digoxin in order to reach a safer yet probably therapeutic level of 1 ng/ml? A. 1.6 days B. 2.4 days C. 3.2 days D. 4.8 days
Answer: C. 3.2 days
8. The most toxic antiarrhythmic agents A. Digoxin (Lanoxin) B. Lidocaine (xylocaine) C. Amiodarone (Cordarone) D. Quinidine (Cardioquin)
Answer: C. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
11. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) improves CO and is indicated for all of the following conditions, except: A. septic shock B. CHF C. Arrhythmias D. pulmonary congestion
Answer: C. Arrhythmias
49. The nurse prepares to initiate therapy with acyclovir (Zovirax) to a client with AIDS. What intervention is most appropriate f nurse to perform? A. Assess bilirubin B. Assess for hypokalemia C. Assess for other nephrotoxic drugs being taken D. Assess the number of stools in the past 24 hours and their consistency
Answer: C. Assess for other nephrotoxic drugs being taken 50 - 51. A 32 year old woman underwent segmental mastectomy for a breast tumor of 3cm diameter. Lymph node sampling rev involved nodes. Because chemotherapy is established value in her situation, she underwent post-operative treatment with antineo drugs. The FAC-V (consist of fluorouracil, doxorubicin (Adriamycin), cyclophosphamide and vincristine). Six cycles 1 month af this chemotherapy regimen were planned. Adjunctive drugs included tamoxifen because the tumor cells were hormone receptes F
15. Which of the following calcium channel blockers has the most potent peripheral smooth muscle effect? A. verapamil 1 B. diltiazem C. nifedipine D. felodipine
Answer: C. nifedipine
15. A 27-year old pregnant patient with a history of pyelonephritis has developed a severe upper respiratory tract infection that appears to be due to a bacteria pathogen. The woman is hospitalized and an antibacterial agent is to be selected for treatment. Assuming that the physician is concerned about the effects of renal impairment on drug dosage in this patient, which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to require dosage reduction? A. Amikacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Clindamycin D. Vancomycin
Answer: C. Clindamycin
12. A client diagnosed with hypertension is prescribed captopril (Capoten). Which of the following side effects will the nurse monitor the client for? A. Bradycardia B. Blurred vision C. Cough D. Esophagitis
Answer: C. Cough
52. The mechanism of anticancer action of fluorouracil is: A. Arrest in the G2 phase of the cell because of the interference with the normal function of topoisomerase enzyme B. Cross-linking of double-sided DNA and the resulting inhibition of DNA replication and transcription C. Cytotoxicity resulting from a metabolite that interferes with the production of dTMP (deoxythymidylate) D. Selective inhibition of DNA polymerase
Answer: C. Cytotoxicity resulting from a metabolite that interferes with the production of dTMP (deoxythymidylate)
9. Adenosine (Adenocard) is ordered for a client with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. The nurse anticipates that which of the following laboratory tests will be ordered for this client? A. C-reactive protein B. Alkaline phosphate C. Electrolytes D. Homocysteine levels
Answer: C. Electrolytes
42. A client is to start on sulfamethoxazole (Gantanol) for a urinary tract infection (UTI). What priority nursing intervention prec administration of the first dose? A. Check the bilirubin level. B. Have client empty bladder C. Ensure a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (C & S) has been obtained. D. Analyze results of random voided urine specimen for culture and sensitivity
Answer: C. Ensure a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (C & S) has been obtained.
23. A client with abdominal pain reports to the emergency department. A brief history reveals an allergy to the analgesic morphine sulfate. The nurse should follow through by first asking which of the following questions? A. What other analgesics are you allergic to? B. Have you had this allergy long? C. Exactly what does the morphine do to you? D. Does the morphine make you nauseated?
Answer: C. Exactly what does the morphine do to you?
24. The nurse would be most concerned about metabolism of drugs in which of the following situations? A. Sally, 6 years old, going to surgery for a tonsillectomy B. Bobby, 43 years old experiencing myocardial infarction C. Fred, 65 years old admitted with cirrhosis of the liver and diabetes D. Morgan. 16 years old, recovering from hip surgery following a motor vehicle accident
Answer: C. Fred, 65 years old admitted with cirrhosis of the liver and diabetes
29. A client is prescribed prednisolone (Delta-Cortef) for an inflammatory disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan? A. Encourage client to be vaccinated for smallpox B. Discontinue taking drug if insomnia or heartburn occurs C. Increased sodium intake D. Report symptoms of sore throat or fever to the physician.
Answer: C. Increased sodium intake
48. After a backpacking adventure in the mountain, a 24-year old Peter develops diarrhea. He admits that he drank stream water purification and you suspect he is showing symptoms of giardiasis. Your knowledge tells you that it is difficult to detect cysts or trophozoites in the feces, you anticipated that the patient will be treated empirically with. A. Chloroquine B. Emetine C. Metronidazole D. Pentamidine
Answer: C. Metronidazole
22. The nurse must monitor factors affecting drug action. Which of the following clients has physiologic factors that most significantly determine and modify drug activity? A. Mr. C age 45, an alcoholic with an ulcer B. John, age 18, a large boy who fractured his leg and wrist in an accident C. Mr. D, who is weak, underweight man with high blood pressure and heart disease D. Susie, age 12 who has just diagnosed with leukemia
Answer: C. Mr. D, who is weak, underweight man with high blood pressure and heart disease
46. When giving aminoglycosides and vancomycin, the nurse must monitor: A. Hearing B. Urine volume C. Serum creatinine D. ECG
Answer: C. Serum creatinine
4. Which of the ff indicate an action of nitrates? A. smooth muscle contraction B. Vasoconstriction C. Smooth muscle relaxation D. Increased preload
Answer: C. Smooth muscle relaxation
43. A client is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). To intervene appropriately, the nurse utilizes which of the following information about medication? A. Ciprofloxacin is eliminated in the bile, so dosages do not need to be adjusted for clients with renal impairment. B. Ciprofloxacin is one of the few antibiotics demonstrating efficacy against methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). C. Sunscreen or sunblock applications may not prevent sunburn in clients receiving Ciprofloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin is effective in treating urinary tract infections but not systemic infections
Answer: C. Sunscreen or sunblock applications may not prevent sunburn in clients receiving Ciprofloxacin
40. A client with advanced liver disease is being treated with antibiotics for a respiratory infection. The nurse should assess the client which of the following? A. High risk for allergy to drugs B. Teratogenic effects of antibiotics C. Symptoms of drug toxicity D. Drug dependence
Answer: C. Symptoms of drug toxicity
21. A client is currently maintained on a medication that is protein bound. A second drug that is more highly protein bound has b prescribed. What is likely to be the effect if these medications are administered? A. The second drug will produce a greater effect than the first B. The first medication will be inactivated C. Toxic effect may be occur from the first drug D. The second drug will have a synergistic effect on the first
Answer: C. Toxic effect may be occur from the first drug
44. A client placed on tetracycline for her bronchitis asks the nurse about continuing with her birth control pills. She is in college and does not want to become pregnant. What should the nurse tell her? A. Continue taking the birth control pill prescribed B. Take the double dose for it to be effective C. Use an additional form of protection such as spermicide D. Continue the birth control pills because they will remain effective
Answer: C. Use an additional form of protection such as spermicide
28. When administering methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) to a client with IDDM (insulin dependent diabetes mellitus) the nurse expect the client's insulin requirement to: A. increase B. decrease C. remain stable D. fluctuate widely
Answer: C. remain stable
62. Many antihistamines (H, blockers) have additional non-histamine-related effects these are likely to include all of the EXCEPT: A. Local anesthetic effects if the drug is injected B. Anti-motion sickness effect C. Increased in total peripheral resistance D. Sedation
Answer: D.
20. When performing assessment about medication, the drug history should include: A. Complete vital signs B. Client's goal of therapy C. Reason for medication D. Administration of OTC medication
Answer: D. Administration of OTC medication
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an amrinone lactate (Inocor) for short-term management of congestive heart failure (CHF). The nurse monitors the client and is aware that which of the following is a therapeutic effect of amrinone lactate? A. A decrease in cardiac output B. A decrease in cardiac index C. An increase in pulmonary wedge pressure D. Diuresis
Answer: D. Diuresis
7. Which of the following findings ECG findings alerts the nurse that the client needs an antiarrhythmic? A. Normal sinus rhythm B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Frequent ventricular ectopy
Answer: D. Frequent ventricular ectopy
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) for a respiratory tract infection. Which nursing action would not be included in the client's care plan? A. Monitor BP B. Monitor peak and trough levels C. Obtain baseline acuity D. Give parenteral doses periodically
Answer: D. Give parenteral doses periodically
41. The nurse suspects hepatotoxicity evolving in a dark-skinned client who is on an antibiotic. In what area of the body should the nurse assess for jaundice? A. Palms B. Sclera C. Conjunctivae D. Hard palate of oral cavity
Answer: D. Hard palate of oral cavity
12. The prescriber has ordered cefdinir (Omnicef), a third generation cephalosporin for a client with a staphylococcal infection. The nurse collaborates with the prescriber about which of the following data related to the client? A. BUN 14 mg/dL B. Elevated granulocyte count C. Culture and sensitivity (C & S) results not yet available D. History of Type I hypersensitivity to penicillin
Answer: D. History of Type I hypersensitivity to penicillin
36. The prescriber has ordered cefdinir (Omnicef), a third generation cephalosporin for a client with a staphylococcal infection. T collaborates with the prescriber about which of the following data related to the client? A. BUN 14 mg/dL B. Elevated granulocyte count C. Culture and sensitivity (C & S) results not yet available D. History of Type I hypersensitivity to penicillin
Answer: D. History of Type I hypersensitivity to penicillin
8. Before ambulating a client for the first time after administering an (ACE) Inhibitors, the nurse monitors the client for: A. Hypokalemia B. Irregular heartbeat C. edema D. Hypotension
Answer: D. Hypotension
9. The action of ACE inhibitors interrupts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system mechanism, thereby producing which of the ff? A. reduced renal blood flow B. reduced sodium and water retention C. Increased peripheral resistance D. Increased sodium excretion and potassium reabsorption
Answer: D. Increased sodium excretion and potassium reabsorption
5. Which of the following drugs is the first line used to treat ventricular ectopy: A. Quinidine (Cardioquin) B. Digoxin (Lanoxin) C. Procainamide (pronestyl) D. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
Answer: D. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
14. A nurse is administering furosemide (Lasix) IV push to a client with congestive heart failure (CHF). Which of the following nursing considerations will the nurse include in the client's plan of care? A. Administer if drug solution is yellow B. Administer each 40 mg IV push over 20-30 seconds C. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia D. Monitor for signs of hypotension
Answer: D. Monitor for signs of hypotension
14. A nurse is administering furosemide (Lasix) IV push to a client with congestive heart failure (CHF). Which of the following nursing considerations will the nurse include in the client's plan of care? A. Administer if drug solution is yellow B. Administer each 40 mg IV push over 20-30 seconds C. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia D. Monitor for signs of hypotension
Answer: D. Monitor for signs of hypotension
1. A nurse is administering IV dopamine hydrochloride (Intropin) to a client with shock. The client develops extravasation. The nurse anticipates that the client will be treated with which medication? A. Hyaluronidase (Wydase) B. Isotonic sodium thiosulfate C. 50 mg ascorbic acids injection D. Phentolamine mesylate (Regitine)
Answer: D. Phentolamine mesylate (Regitine)
12. This is a kind of medicine or preparation with no inherent pertinent pharmacologic activity which is effective only by virtue of the factor of suggestion attendant upon its administration. A. Generic drugs B. Orphan Drugs C. Over the counter drugs D. Placebo
Answer: D. Placebo
4. A physical process by which a weak acid becomes less water soluble and more lipid soluble at low ph is? A. Distribution B. Elimination C. First-pass effect D. Protonation
Answer: D. Protonation
13. The nurse assesses the client receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) for what two most specific toxicities? A. Hepatotoxicity and neurotoxicity B. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity C. Leukocytosis and thrombocytopenia D. Pseudomembranous colitis and crystalluria
Answer: D. Pseudomembranous colitis and crystalluria
10. The client with pneumonia is being treated with amoxicillin (Amoxil). The nurse monitors for therapeutic effectiveness by noting which of the following? A. Normalization of fever beginning 96 hours after therapy starts B. No clinical manifestations of hypersensitivity C. Resolution of orthostatic hypotension D. Pulse oximetry of 98%
Answer: D. Pulse oximetry of 98%
34. The client with pneumonia is being treated with amoxicillin (Amoxil). The nurse monitors for therapeutic effectiveness by nc which of the following? A. Normalization of fever beginning 96 hours after therapy starts B. No clinical manifestations of hypersensitivity C. Resolution of orthostatic hypotension D. Pulse oximetry of 98%
Answer: D. Pulse oximetry of 98%
47. Which of the following statements about the biodisposition of penicillin and cephalosporins is not accurate? A. Oral bioavailability is affected by lability in gastric acids B. Most third-generation cephalosporins cross the blood-brain barrier C. Procaine penicillin G is used via intramuscular injection D. Renal tubular reabsorption of beta-lactam is inhibited by probenecid
Answer: D. Renal tubular reabsorption of beta-lactam is inhibited by probenecid
13. Drugs are classified according to the degree of potential abuse. These drugs are classified as moderate potential for abuse and dependence. A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule IV D. Schedule III
Answer: D. Schedule III
32. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to occur with sulfonamides? A. Neurologic effects, including headache, dizziness and lethargy B. Hematuria C. Kernicterus in newborn D. Skin reactions
Answer: D. Skin reactions
8. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to occur with sulfonamides? A. Neurologic effects, including headache, dizziness and lethargy B. Hematuria C. Kernicterus in newborn D. Skin reactions
Answer: D. Skin reactions
7. (ACE) Inhibitors participate in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to have which of the following physiologic effects? A. Inhibit conversion of angiotension II to angiotensin 1 B. Vasoconstriction and sodium depletion C. Promote sodium and water retention D. Stimulate vasodilation and inhibit sodium depletion
Answer: D. Stimulate vasodilation and inhibit sodium depletion
60. Which of the following is a direct bronchodilator that is most often used in asthma by the oral route? A. Cromolyn B. Epinephrine C. Metaproterenol D. Theophylline
Answer: D. Theophylline
54.The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client receiving methotrexate sodium (Folex, Rheumatrex) for treatment o Which of the following instructions will the nurse include in the client's teaching plan? A. Sit in the sun to treat dermatitis B. Encourage the client to receive a flu vaccine C. Take aspirin for headache D. Use a soft toothbrush to brush teeth
Answer: D. Use a soft toothbrush to brush teeth
56. The oncology nurse is preparing to administer interleukin-2 (Aldesleukin, Proleukin) intravenously for a client with r cell carcinoma. The oncology nurse is preparing the medication for administration. The oncology nurse plans to administer ... by: A. Infusing the medication over 15 minutes. B. Diluting the dose in 100 ml of 0.9% NaCl. C. Reconstituting the medication vial with a bacteriostatic D. Using an in-line filter to infuse the medication.
Answer: D. Using an in-line filter to infuse the medication.
13. A nurse is preparing to administer nitroprusside (Nipride) to a client diagnosed with hypertensive crisis. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in preparing this medication? A. Check to make sure that the nitroprusside solution is green before administering B. Administer nitroprusside by IV push C. Reconstitute nitroprusside with 0.9 normal saline with preservatives D. Wrap infusion bottle in aluminum foil
Answer: D. Wrap infusion bottle in aluminum foil
5. A home health nurse is caring for a client taking digoxin (Lanoxin) for treatment of congestive heart failure (CHF). Which assessment finding will indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing digoxin toxicity? A. Increased appetite B. Hemoptysis and tachypnea C. Insomnia D. Yellow-halo around objects
Answer: D. Yellow-halo around objects
57. An antitussive is indicated to: A. encourage removal of secretion through coughing B. relieve rhinitis C. control a productive cough D. relieve a dry cough
Answer: D. relieve a dry cough
5. What is the normal range of serum potassium? a. 3.5-5.1 mEq/L b. 135-145 mEq/L c. 98-107 mEq/L d. 1.5-2.5 mEq/L
Answer: a. 3.5-5.1 mEq/L
11. A client developed nephrogenic diabetic insipidus. Which of the following drugs would likely be prescribed? a. Hydrochlothiazide b. Spironolactone c. Mannitol d. Furosemide
Answer: a. Hydrochlothiazide
15. Which of the following is not associated with the use of thiazide diuretics? a. Hypercalciuria b. Hyponatremia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperurecemia
Answer: a. Hypercalciuria
12. A client is brought to the ER department after taking penicillin. Which of the following diagnoses is the highest priority in this client who is demonstrating anaphylaxis? a. Ineffective airway clearance b. Decreased cardiac output c. Risk for injury d. Anxiety
Answer: a. Ineffective airway clearance
8. Which of the following is true about osmotic diuretics? a. It pulls water into the vascular space through high concentration, thereby, the water is then excreted in the urine. b. It reduce sodium absorption by binding to carbonic anhydrase c. It increase blood flow to the renal medulla, which appears to be related to increased production of vasodilatory prostaglandin. d. None of the above
Answer: a. It pulls water into the vascular space through high concentration, thereby, the water is then excreted in the urine.
3. . Which of the following drug will decrease the effects of vasopressin? a. Lithium b. Digoxin c. Penicillin d. Azithromycin
Answer: a. Lithium
3. Which of the following is considered as high ceiling diuretics? a. Loop diuretics b. Osmotic diuretics c. Potassium sparing diuretic d. All of the above
Answer: a. Loop diuretics
11. Which of the following drugs should be present at the nurse station when a patient is receiving morphine IV injections in cases of toxicity? a. Morphine b. Flumazenil c. Atropine d. Acetylcysteine
Answer: a. Morphine
9. Drugs classified as centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are most effective in relieving: a. Spasm due to trauma or inflammation b. Chronic spasm due to old injury c. Pain from arthritis d. Surgical complications
Answer: a. Spasm due to trauma or inflammation
8. A client tells the mental health nurse that she can no longer tolerate her medication's side effects and has quit taking the medicine.The nurse's best response would be: a. "That's your right. You don't have to take the medicine." b. "Tell me more about the medicine's side effects and how you're feeling now." c. "You have to take your medicine. It's the law." d. "It must not have been the best medicine for you, so it is a good decision."
Answer: b. "Tell me more about the medicine's side effects and how you're feeling now."
1. A seven-year-old has varicella zoster. A community health nurse teaches the child's parent about over-the-counter medications that can be used to comfort the child. Which of the following medications, if selected by the parent, would require further instruction? a. Grape-flavored diphenhydramine (Benadryl) elixir to reduce itching b. Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) tablets to reduce fever c. Orange-flavored ibuprofen (Pediaprofen) elixir to minimize discomfort d. A topical paste of baking soda and water to relieve itching
Answer: b. Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) tablets to reduce fever
6. It is necessary for a nurse in the long term care facility to take telephone orders from a physician. Which of the following nursing actions would be considered incorrect in this situation? a. Repeating the full order back to the physician b. Calling the pharmacy to question a dosage the physician has ordered c. Asking the physician to repeat an order that is not clear d. Using full words when writing the order instead of abbreviations
Answer: b. Calling the pharmacy to question a dosage the physician has ordered.
9. A client taking indomethacin (Indocin SR) for rheumatoid arthritis is cautioned to report which of the following side effects of the medication? a. Depression b. Gastrointestinal disturbances c. Joint swelling d. Floaters in the field of vision
Answer: b. Gastrointestinal disturbances
10. Aldosterone antagonists: a. Create an osmotic agent b. Inhibit the exchange of sodium for potassium c. Cause metabolic acidosis d. Work poorly in the presence of endogenous aldosterone
Answer: b. Inhibit the exchange of sodium for potassium
10. A nurse is reviewing instructions for a client receiving oral erythromycin (E-mycin) for treatment of Legionnaires' disease. The nurse reminds the client that erythromycin should be given: a. With meals b. On an empty stomach c. With an antacid d. 15-20 minutes before meals
Answer: b. On an empty stomach
6. Hypokalemia induced by many diuretic agents may: a. decrease the action of digitalis b. increase the risk of digitalis toxicity c. reduce the effectiveness of uricosuric drugs d. decrease absorption of tricyclic antidepressants
Answer: b. increase the risk of digitalis toxicity
15. A client who has been taking steroids for rheumatoid arthritis over several years presents with a compression fracture. This fracture is due to: a. an entirely separate condition b. the osteoporotic effect of long-term steroid use c. deterioration in rheumatoid arthritis d. an excessively high dose of steroids
Answer: b. the osteoporotic effect of long-term steroid use
11. The nurse has provided instructions on the use of penicillin V (Beepen-VK). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will complete the prescription even if my symptoms go away before I finish the prescription." b. "I will contact my health care provider if I develop a fever and diarrhea." c. "I am taking this drug because I am allergic to cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)". d. "I will small, frequent meals while taking this drug."
Answer: c. "I am taking this drug because I am allergic to cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)".
14. A nurse has provided instructions to a 31-year-old female client taking tetracycline (Sumycin) for treatment of Lyme disease. Which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that the client understands the instructions? a. "I will take this drug with an antacid to prevent an upset stomach." b. "I will take this drug with meals to enhance absorption of the drug." c. "I take oral contraceptives and will use an additional form of contraception." d. "Since I tan easily, I will not need to use sunscreen while in the sun."
Answer: c. "I take oral contraceptives and will use an additional form of contraception."
2. Vasopressin is which of the following hormones? a. Oxytocin b. ACTH c. Antidiuretic hormone d. Desmopressin acetate
Answer: c. Antidiuretic hormone
12. A drug that increases the formation of dilute urine in water-loaded subjects and is used to treat (SIADH) Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone? a. Aldactone b. Amiloride (Midamor) c. Demeclocycline or lithium d. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: c. Demeclocycline or lithium
5. An important effect of insulin is: a. Increased conversion of amino acids into glucose b. Increase gluconeogenesis c. Increase glucose transport into cells d. Stimulation of glycogenolysis
Answer: c. Increase glucose transport into cells
4. Which of the following is not a potent diuretics when used alone? a. Loop diuretics b. Osmotic diuretics c. Potassium sparing diuretics d. All of the above
Answer: c. Potassium sparing diuretics
2. A client is taking acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) four times daily. To minimize possible complications of this therapy, the nurse should give the client which of these instructions? a. Avoid taking the aspirin with dairy products. b. Drink a glass of water with the aspirin. c. Take the aspirin one hour before meals. d. Take the aspirin with food.
Answer: c. Take the aspirin one hour before meals
3. A client is scheduled for large bowel surgery. Preoperatively, neomycin sulfate (Mycifradin) is ordered for which of these purposes? a. To stimulate production of antibodies b. To prevent respiratory infection c. To reduce bacteria in the colon d. To promote wound healing
Answer: c. To reduce bacteria in the colon
12. The parent of a 12-year-old child, who is on acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) therapy for juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, tells a nurse, "I just read an article that said Aspirin should not be given to children." Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Stop the Aspirin only if your child is diagnosed with a viral illness." b. "Your child can take a different anti-inflammatory instead of aspirin." c. "Because the Aspirin dose your child receives is so small, the risk is minimal." d. "The benefits of Aspirin for your child outweigh the risks."
Answer: d. "The benefits of Aspirin for your child outweigh the risks."
5. The parent of a 12-year-old child, who is on acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) therapy for juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, tells a nurse, "I just read an article that said Aspirin should not be given to children." Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Stop the Aspirin only if your child is diagnosed with a viral illness." b. "Your child can take a different anti-inflammatory instead of aspirin." c. "Because the Aspirin dose your child receives is so small, the risk is minimal." d. "The benefits of Aspirin for your child outweigh the risks."
Answer: d. "The benefits of Aspirin for your child outweigh the risks."
7. Which of the following clients is more likely to experience adverse effects from treatment with diuretics? a. A 21 year old client b. A 40 year old client c. A 60 year old client d. A 75 year old client
Answer: d. A 75 year old client
13. A client with long-term substance abuse requests pain medication immediately following surgery. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be most appropriate? a. Reposition the client, provide a back rub and dim the lights b. Administer the non-narcotic pain reliever as ordered c. Administer the benzodiazepine to decrease symptoms d. Administer narcotic pain reliever as ordered
Answer: d. Administer narcotic pain reliever as ordered
7. A client with long-term substance abuse requests pain medication immediately following surgery. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be most appropriate? a. Reposition the client, provide a back rub and dim the lights b. Administer the non-narcotic pain reliever as ordered c. Administer the benzodiazepine to decrease symptoms d. Administer narcotic pain reliever as ordered
Answer: d. Administer narcotic pain reliever as ordered.
10. Peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are used: a. To treat neuromuscular diseases b. To treat spinal trauma c. To relieve spasms from trauma d. As adjuncts to general anesthesia
Answer: d. As adjuncts to general anesthesia
15. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) for a respiratory tract infection. Which nursing action would not be included in the client's care plan? a. Monitor BP b. Monitor peak and trough levels c. Obtain baseline acuity d. Give parenteral doses periodically
Answer: d. Give parenteral doses periodically
1. Which of the following is the potential side effect of IV furosemide? a. Drowsiness b. Diarrhea c. Cystitis d. Hearing loss
Answer: d. Hearing loss
9. Which of the following is not a potassium-sparing diuretics? a. Aldactone b. Amiloride (Midamor) c. Triamterene d. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: d. Hydrochlorothiazide
4. Which of the fluid and electrolyte imbalance may occur with administration of vasopressin? a. Hypernatremia/hypervolemia b. Water intoxication/hypercalcemia c. Hyponatremia/water intoxication d. Hypercalcemia/hypernatremia
Answer: d. Hypercalcemia/hypernatremia
1. A side effect of growth hormone is: a. Hyperthyroidism b. Soft tissue hypertrophy c. Dwarfism d. Increased tumor growth
Answer: d. Increased tumor growth
13. A client is receiving ketorolac tromethamine (Toradol) for moderate pain. The nurse understands that this drug works by: a. Blocking interleukin-1 b. Altering cellular mechanisms and collagen biosynthesis c. Inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase d. Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
Answer: d. Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
14. Which of the following diuretics would be most useful in a comatose patient with cerebral edema? a. Acetazolamide b. Amiloride c. Furosemide d. Mannitol
Answer: d. Mannitol
13. When used chronically, thiazide diuretics have all of the following properties or effects, Except: a. Elevation of blood cholesterol b. elevation of blood glucose c. elevation of plasma uric acid d. Ototoxicity
Answer: d. Ototoxicity
6. When initiating T4 therapy for an elderly patient with long standing hypothyroidism, it is important to begin with small doses to avoid: a. A flare of exopthalmus b. Acute renal failure c. Hemolysis d. Overstimulation of the heart
Answer: d. Overstimulation of the heart
14. A client is prescribed prednisolone (Delta-Cortef) for an inflammatory disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan? a. Encourage client to be vaccinated for smallpox b. Discontinue taking drug if insomnia or heartburn occurs c. Increased sodium intake d. Report symptoms of sore throat or fever to the physician
Answer: d. Report symptoms of sore throat or fever to the physician
8. It is produced in the peripheral tissues when T4 is administered. a. I 131 b. Propranolol c. Prophylthiouracil d. T3
Answer: d. T3
7. A symptom that would be expected to occur in the event of chronic overdose with exogenous T4 is: a. Bradycardia b. Dry, puffy skin c. Lethargy, sleepiness d. Weight loss
Answer: d. Weight loss
2. All potassium-sparing diuretics: a. Are required supplements during blood transfusions b. Enhance aldosterone action c. Cause hypokalemia d. are weak diuretics
Answer: d. are weak diuretics
4. A newborn receives erythromycin (Ilotycin) to: a. boost the immune response. b. stimulate growth of gastrointestinal flora. c. prevent bleeding problems. d. prevent eye infections.
Answer: d. prevent eye infections.