pharm unit 4 prep

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

A client asks the nurse how long to use oxymetazoline (Afrin) nasal spray for nasal congestion. What is the nurse's best response? "Consult with your primary care provider." "Use the medication until your symptoms are completely relieved." "Over-the-counter medications are safe for long-term use." "Afrin can be used as long as nasal burning and stinging do not occur."

"Consult with your primary care provider."

A client, taking metronidazole for the past 4 days, reports to the nurse that the most recent dose caused the client to feel "flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach." What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon? A. "Do you know if you've ever had an allergic reaction to penicillin?" B. "Did you drink any alcoholic beverages around the time of taking the drug?" C. "Did you take this dose on an empty stomach?" D. "Are you taking any over-the-counter antihistamines?" -

"Did you drink any alcoholic beverages around the time of taking the drug?"

A client has expressed frustration stating, "I've been taking an over-the-counter (OTC) decongestant for several days and it still hasn't really cured my cold." What teaching point should the nurse convey to the client? "Sometimes a decongestant can sometimes mask the effects of your cold, essentially prolonging it." "It usually takes between 8 and 10 days for a decongestant to cure affect cold symptoms." "Most people find that cold medications are essentially ineffective." "Drugs like this can often relieve some of the symptoms of a cold, but they won't cure it."

"Drugs like this can often relieve some of the symptoms of a cold, but they won't cure it."

The nurse is admitting a 12-year-old girl to the acute care facility and notices discolored secondary teeth. The mother says she doesn't know why the teeth are discolored because the child is very good about brushing and flossing and sees the dentist regularly. What question should the nurse ask? A. "Has she ever received tetracycline?" B. "Has she ever received gentamicin?" C. "Has she ever received ampicillin?" D. "Has she ever received cephalexin?" -

"Has she ever received tetracycline?"

The nurse is educating an older adult client diagnosed with rhinosinusitis in an outpatient clinic about the prescribed topical oxymetazoline. The client has a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification? "I will rinse the spray tip off after each use." "I will blow my nose before using the nasal spray." "I can take over-the-counter pseudoephedrine, too." "The drug is used no longer than 3 days."

"I can take over-the-counter pseudoephedrine, too."

The nurse has finished teaching a 15-year-old client how to use an inhaler to treat asthma. What statement by the client suggests an understanding of the teaching?

"I need to shake the inhaler well before taking the medication."

The nurse is educating an adult client diagnosed with a nonproductive cough about the prescribed dextromethorphan. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification? "If I raise mucous, I will stop taking the drug and call my prescriber." "I will not eat or drink for 30 minutes after taking a dose." "I will dilute the drug syrup with an equal amount of water." "The drug should only be taken as directed on the package."

"I will dilute the drug syrup with an equal amount of water."

Which statement by a client taking a sulfonamide requires further instruction? A. "I will be sure to drink a full glass of water every time I take my medicine." B. "I will make sure to use extra sunscreen when I go to the tanning booth." C. "I will take all of my medicine even if my symptoms go away." D. "I will take my medicine with my meals like it says on the prescription bottle." -

"I will make sure to use extra sunscreen when I go to the tanning booth."

The nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with asthma about triggers. Which statement by the client indicates the client understands the teaching plan?

"I will use my air conditioner."

After teaching a client who is receiving an antitussive about the drug, which statement indicates the need for additional teaching? "I'll keep the room warm and toasty." "I can use some lozenges for comfort." "I need to increase the amount of fluids I drink." "I'll get a humidifier for my bedroom."

"I'll keep the room warm and toasty." Explanation: Measures to assist with cough control when using antitussives include cool temperatures, humidification, lozenges, and increased fluids.

Which client statement suggests a need for additional education on the second-generation antihistamine prescribed for the client? "I'm really hoping that these pills will cure my allergies before summer starts." "I know these can be a bit expensive, but hopefully it will be worth it for me." "I'll check with my health care provider to make sure that the diet supplements I'm taking are okay to take at the same time as these pills." "It's handy that I don't necessarily have to take these pills at bedtime."

"I'm really hoping that these pills will cure my allergies before summer starts." not cure

What statement made by a client suggests a need for further teaching on the risk factors associated with drug allergies? "All drugs have the potential to cause an allergic reaction." "Virtually any drug may induce an immunologic response in a susceptible person." "The additives that are in drugs can also cause allergic reactions." "If you didn't have allergies as a child, you won't develop allergies later in life."

"If you didn't have allergies as a child, you won't develop allergies later in life."

Which statement made by a nurse providing care to a newborn prescribed surfactin therapy indicates a need for additional instructions to ensure the medication's effectiveness?

"The baby requires suctioning every 1 hour for 4 hours after the instillation of surfactant."

The nurse admits a client with septicemia (infection in the bloodstream). The client denies any allergies and the provider has ordered cefuroxime based on blood culture and sensitivity testing. The client states, "I'd prefer vancomycin because I've been reading about drug-resistant bacteria and I don't want to take any chances." What is the nurse's best response? A. "Vancomycin is a powerful drug with many adverse effects and it is generally reserved for when no other drug will work." B. "There are some resistant infections that require vancomycin so you are right to prefer a stronger antibiotic." C. "I appreciate your concern but you can certainly rest assured that the health care provider ordered the right medication for your needs." D. "You can't believe anything you read on the Internet because most of it is just someone's opinion and not fact." -

"Vancomycin is a powerful drug with many adverse effects and it is generally reserved for when no other drug will work."

After teaching a group of parents about the use of over-the-counter cough and cold products with their children, which statement indicates the need for additional teaching? "We can use the adult brand, but we just have to decrease the amount." "We can use over-the-counter products for our 5-year-old but not for our 18-monthold." "We need to read the label carefully to see how often and how much to give." "We should use the cup that comes with the drug to measure it out."

"We can use the adult brand, but we just have to decrease the amount." Parents should use the children's, pediatric, or infant formulations of the drug. Over-the-counter cough and cold preparations should not be used in children under the age of 2 years. The parents need to read the label carefully to determine the dosage and frequency, and they need to use the device that comes with the drug to ensure a proper dosage

When evaluating an asthmatic client's knowledge of self-care, the nurse recognizes that additional instructions are needed when the client makes which of the following statements?

"When I am short of breath, I will increase the use of my fluticasone."

The client has been taking a fluoroquinolone and now reports that he has a white patch in his mouth. What is the best response of the nurse? A. "You are allergic to the medication. Stop taking it immediately." B. "That is the medication working. Continue to take as directed." C. "You are experiencing an adverse affect of the medication. Those symptoms will decrease over time." D. "You may be experiencing an additional infection. I will discuss this with your health care provider." -

"You may be experiencing an additional infection. I will discuss this with your health care provider."

A male college student has presented to the campus medical clinic reporting cold symptoms that he has been experiencing for the past 2 weeks. He tells the nurse that he has been taking OTC decongestants twice daily since the onset of the cold. What teaching point should the nurse provide to this student? "Over-the-counter decongestants don't normally work; you'll likely need to get a prescription for something more effective." "You can probably expect to get relief within the next few days or a week at the longest." "You might find yourself more congested than ever as your body compensates for your use of these drugs." "It's best to take small doses of decongestants several times daily rather than two larger doses each day."

"You might find yourself more congested than ever as your body compensates for your use of these drugs."

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local elementary school parent group about over-the-counter cold medications and their use in children. Which would be most appropriate to include? (Select all that apply.) Using household measuring devices for dosage measurements Avoidance of use in children under age 2 Importance of reading the label for ingredients and dosage Need to follow the directions for how often to give the drug Using adult formulation with smaller doses

-Need to follow the directions for how often to give the drug -Avoidance of use in children under age 2 -Importance of reading the label for ingredients and dosage

The health care provider suggests that a client use guaifenesin to help his cough. The nurse instructs the client to call the health care provider if he continues to have a productive cough after which amount of time? 1 week 2 weeks 3 weeks 5 days

1 week

A client has been on sulfonamide therapy for the last six weeks. What client report may cause the health care provider to discontinue the sulfonamide? A. 10 lb weight loss B. Loose stools for the last two days C. Unable to eat spicy foods D. Decreased appetite -

10 lb weight loss

A client is receiving ipratropium as maintenance therapy for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse would caution the client that up to how many inhalations may be used in 24 hours if needed?

The nurse assesses the serum theophylline of a client. Which finding would the nurse identify as being therapeutic?

15 mcg/mL

The nurse assesses the serum theophylline of a client. Which finding would the nurse identify as being therapeutic?

15 mcg/ml

The nurse instructs a patient who is using albuterol for exercise-induced bronchospasm to use the inhaler at which time?

15 min prior to exercising

The pediatric nurse is caring for a 9-year-old client who has been diagnosed with amebiasis. The client weighs 82.5 lbs. and has been prescribed metronidazole 40 mg/kg/day in three divided doses for 10 days. How many 250-mg tablets should the nurse administer for each dose? A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4 -

A client who is experiencing anaphylaxis with severe wheezing receives a dose of epinephrine intravenously. The nurse would expect the drug to exert it full effects within which time frame?

20 minutes

A client is caring for an 8-year-old child who weighs 30 kg. The health care provider orders gentamicin IM for the client. The recommended dosage range is 2-2.5 mg/kg q8h. What is the maximum amount of gentamicin the client will receive in a day? A. 180 mg B. 225 mg C. 36 mg D. 600 mg -

225 mg

A patient receives dextromethorphan. The nurse would expect this drug to begin acting within which time frame? 25 to 30 minutes 10 to 15 minutes 20 to 25 minutes 15 to 20 minutes

25 to 30 minutes

A patient receives guaifenesin. The nurse would expect the drug to begin acting within which time frame? 60 minutes 45 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes

30 minutes

A client has been admitted to a health care facility with asthma. The nurse is to administer theophylline to the client. To which clients can the nurse safely administer theophylline?

A 65-year-old male with asthma

The nurse is caring for several medical clients who have infections. For which client would the administration of a broad spectrum antibiotic be most appropriate? A. A client with signs of infection who is awaiting the results of laboratory testing B. A client with pneumonia who has a confirmed allergy to penicillins C. A client who is being treated for a urinary tract infection for the third time this year D. A client with an infected surgical wound -

A client with signs of infection who is awaiting the results of laboratory testing

A nurse administers an antitussive agent cautiously to a client with asthma for which reason? The client may experience increased sedation. A loss of respiratory reserve can occur. The drug can lead to addiction. The airway needs to be maintained.

A loss of respiratory reserve can occur.

A male client presents to the emergency department in bronchospasm. He has a history of smoking two packs per day for 20 years and is prescribed phenytoin to control a seizure disorder that developed after a head injury 3 years ago. Based on the client's history, what would the nurse expect the health care provider to order?

A modified dose of aminophylline

A client asks, "What is the difference between antitussive medications and expectorants?" What information should the nurse's response be based upon? A. Antitussives suppress coughing while expectorants loosen bronchial secretions. B. Antitussives liquefy bronchial secretions while expectorants assist in the expectoration of those secretions. C. Both drug types loosen bronchial secretions for ease of removal. D. Antitussives kill cold viruses while expectorants liquefy bronchial secretions.

A. Antitussives suppress coughing, and expectorants loosen bronchial secretions.

A client has been prescribed pyrimethamine 25 mg PO weekly for antimalarial prophylaxis. When reviewing the client's health history, the nurse reads that the client has type 2 diabetes that is controlled with gliclazide, a sulfonamide. What is the nurse's best action? A. Monitor the client's complete blood count results closely. B. Encourage the client to check blood glucose levels more frequently than usual. C. Monitor the client for signs and symptoms of decreased renal function. D. Confirm with the care provider that the antimalarial treatment will be effective. -

A. Monitor the client's complete blood count results closely.

The client states that he/she once needed medication to liquefy secretions in the respiratory tract. However, the client cannot recall the name of the medication but states that the medication is added to a nebulizer. The nurse suspects the client is taking which medication? prednisone acetylcysteine guaifenesin pseudoephedrine

Acetylcysteine Mucolytics are administered by inhalation to liquefy mucus in the respiratory tract. Solutions of mucolytic drugs may be nebulized into a face mask or mouthpiece or instilled directly into the respiratory tract through a tracheostomy. Sodium chloride solution and acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) are the only agents recommended for use as mucolytics

A child prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid agent to decrease respiratory inflammation is now receiving high doses of the drug after only 2 days of treatment. What adverse reaction is the client at risk for developing?

Adrenal insufficency

Tom, age 42, is prescribed ipratropium bromide as an anticholinergic agent for treating asthma. The nurse caring for Tom needs to develop a plan of care. What must be included in the plan? Select all that apply.

Advise the patient to avoid using ipratropium if allergic to soybeans, legumes, or soya lecithin. Remind the patient that ipratropium must be taken daily, despite the absence of symptoms of asthma.

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the ED with an asthma exacerbation, including wheezing (a high-pitched, whistling sound caused by turbulent airflow through an obstructed airway). Those who have asthma chronically present with what signs, even when they may appear symptom free? (Select all that apply.)

Airway inflammation Damaged airway mucosa

The parents of a 7-year-old client who has been diagnosed with allergic asthma are being taught about their son's medication regimen. The nurse is teaching about the appropriate use of a "rescue drug" for acute exacerbations. What drug should the nurse suggests the parents to use in these situations?

Albuetrol

A male client presents with symptoms of bronchospasm that occurred during a birthday party for his grandson. What medication would the nurse expect the health care provider to give the client?

Albuterol

During the summer, a female client experiences increased periods of acute symptoms of her asthma. The health care provider increases the dose frequency of which of her medications?

Albuterol

Mr. Ashum is prescribed an albuterol inhaler as part of his treatment regimen for asthma. What is the mechanism of action for this medication?

Albuterol causes relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscles

Mr. Ashum is prescribed an albuterol inhaler as part of his treatment regimen for asthma. What is the mechanism of action for this medication?

Albuterol causes relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscles.

The client has been diagnosed with asthma and is being treated with two inhalers, albuterol and flunisolide. The nurse teaches the client that the two medications should be administered in what order?

Albuterol first, wait five minutes and then follow with flunisolide

Acetylcysteine may be used as a mucolytic agent. What is an additional indication for the drug? Antidote for acetaminophen poisoning Treatment of bronchospasm Treatment of peptic ulcer disease Conversion of cardiac dysrhythmias

Antidote for acetaminophen poisoning Oral acetylcysteine is widely used in the treatment of acetaminophen overdosage.

A client reports a hacking cough. The client asks if taking an antihistamine would be helpful. The nurse's best response is: Antihistamines are recommended for extended use, as long as you monitor for adverse effects. Antihistamines are not recommended for this issue; only antibiotics are useful. Antihistamines are not recommended because they can dry lower respiratory secretions and worsen secretion retention and cough. Antihistamines are not used for this issue.

Antihistamines are not recommended because they can dry lower respiratory secretions and worsen secretion retention and cough.

An adult client has asked the nurse to recommend an OTC cold remedy. Before making a recommendation, the nurse should implement which intervention? Consult with a pharmacist or pharmacy technician. Ensure that the client has tried some of the more common herbal and natural remedies. Assess the client's understanding of the epidemiology of the common cold and upper respiratory infections. Assess the client for health problems that may contraindicate the use of a particular remedy.

Assess the client for health problems that may contraindicate the use of a particular remedy.

A client is prescribed a leukotriene receptor antagonist. The nurse should evaluate the effectiveness of the medication therapy based on the long term management of symptoms associated with which respiratory condition?

Asthma

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) encompasses which of the following? Select all that apply:

Asthma Chronic bronchitis

A client recently began taking theophylline for treatment of asthma. Which changes in the client's lifestyle would suggest that the client understands proper use of the drug and management of the disease?

Avoidinf caffine

Avoiding caffine

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is prescribed tetracycline. Which drug, if found being used by the client, would alert the nurse to the need for a decreased dosage of that drug? A. vancomycin B. warfarin C. atorvastatin D. losartan

A client is prescribed metronidazole for the treatment of trichomoniasis. What is the most important information for the nurse to teach the client about proper administration of this medication? A. "Increase your fluid intake while taking this medication." B. "Do not drink alcohol while taking this medication." C. "Take the medication with meals if you have GI irritation." D. "Suck on sugar-free hard candy if you have a dry mouth." -

B. "Do not drink alcohol while taking this medication."

The client has just begun taking metronidazole and calls the clinic to report that her urine has turned very dark. What is the nurse's best response to this client? A. "Please come to the clinic as soon as possible for a urinalysis." B. "This is an expected side effect. Your urine color will return to normal after you stop taking this drug." C. "Go immediately to the emergency department because the medication is causing bleeding from your bladder." D. "If you drink more fluid, your urine will get light in color again." -

B. "This is an expected side effect. Your urine color will return to normal after you stop taking this drug."

What is one method that the nurse can teach community members to prevent many parasitic infections? A. Avoidance of campgrounds B. Personal and public hygiene practices C. Avoidance of specific vacation spots D. Avoidance of nonbottled water -

B. Personal and public hygiene practices

A 43-year-old man is traveling to an area where malaria is endemic and is being treated prophylactically. The nurse will explain which regimens of chloroquine prescribed by the health care provider? A. Taking the medication for a total of 1 week before and for 2 weeks after the trip B. Taking the medication for 2 weeks before the trip and for 4 to 6 weeks after the trip C. Taking the medication for 2 weeks before the trip and continue for 2 months after the trip D. Taking the medication for 4 to 6 weeks before the trip and continue for 2 weeks after the trip -

B. Taking the medication for 2 weeks before the trip and for 4 to 6 weeks after the trip

A client is receiving chloroquine for a diagnosis of extraintestinal amebiasis. The nurse should provide information on which medication that is likely to be administered with chloroquine? A. iodoquinol B. metronidazole C. metyrosine D. carbamazepine -

B. metronidazole

Which of the following would a nurse identify as a surfactant?

Beractant

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed a nasal decongestant. Which of the following factors should the nurse assess before administering the drug? Vision Auditory tests Blood pressure Motor coordination

Blood pressure As a pre-administration assessment before giving a nasal decongestant, the nurse should assess the patient's blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rates. Assessments for disturbed coordination, blurred vision, or auditory tests may be done as an ongoing assessment to check for signs of adverse effects

Which statement best reflects the use of antimalarial agents for treatment of the protozoan? A. Typically, a single drug is sufficient to destroy the sporozoites in the early stages. B. Quinine is considered the current mainstay of treatment for malaria. C. Combination therapy is used to attack the parasite at various life cycle stages. D. The development of resistant strains of the parasite against antimalarial agents is rare. -

C. Combination therapy is used to attack the parasite at various life cycle stages.

A client has been diagnosed with an amebiasis infection, and the primary health care provider has prescribed metronidazole. The client is also taking warfarin for blood clotting. Which is a possible interaction associated with taking metronidazole with warfarin? A. Increases absorption of metronidazole B. Increases metabolism of metronidazole C. Increases the risk of bleeding D. Increases the risk of heart attack -

C. Increases the risk of bleeding

A client receiving which agent should be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption? A. Pentamidine B. Atovaquone C. Metronidazole D. Nitazoxanide -

C. Metronidazole

When providing health education to an adult who is taking an over-the-counter (OTC) combination cold and cough remedy, the nurse should encourage the client to implement what intervention to best assure medication safety? Start with a low dose and gradually increase it until symptoms are relieved. Withhold the medication until a prescription is obtained from a care provider. Carefully read the label and adhere to the guidelines for use. Administer the medication with an additional dose of acetaminophen to potentiate therapeutic effects.

Carefully read the label and adhere to the guidelines for use.

The nurse should complete which of the following during acute breathing distress before initiation of a broncodilator? Select all that apply:

Check blood pressure. Check pulse. Check respiratory rate

A client is given theophylline to treat acute asthma symptoms. Which food should the client avoid?

Chocolate

A nurse would expect to increase the dosage of theophylline if the client has a current history of which of the following?

Cigarette smoking

How should the nurse adapt the plan of care when caring for an older adult receiving an antiprotozoal agent? A. Clients should be monitored more closely for toxic adverse effects. B. The drug dosage should be lowered for all older adults. C. Antiprotozoal agents should not be administered to older adults. D. Female clients of appropriate age should be advised to use barrier contraceptives to prevent genitourinary infections. -

Clients should be monitored more closely for toxic adverse effects.

Which agent acts directly on the medullary cough center? Ephedrine Benzonatate Codeine Tetrahydrozoline

Codeine- Medulla (antitussive) benxonatate also antitussive but works directly on respiratory tract

A client prescribed antiasthmatic drugs should be encouraged to avoid excessive intake of what beverage?

Coffee

A nurse is providing discharge planning for a 45-year-old woman who has a prescription for oral albuterol. The nurse will question the patient about her intake of which of the following?

Coffee

Infections caused by protozoa are relatively rare in the United States, but with people moving throughout the world in increasing numbers, it is not unusual to find a person who returns home from travel with a fully developed protozoal infection. Which of the following areas are where protozoa infections are most prevalent? Select all that apply. A. Columbia B. Canada C. Thailand D. Egypt E. Ireland -

Columbia Thailand Egypt

A client is started on trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract infection. The client reports nausea, anorexia, and abdominal pain. What intervention does the nurse discuss with the client? A. Drink frequent sips of water. B. Consume the medication with food. C. Call the prescriber for pain medication. D. Avoid driving and performing tasks that require alertness. -

Consume the medication with food

The nurse is reviewing a client's morning blood work and notes a theophylline level of 22.2 mcg/mL (123.21 µmol/L). What action should the nurse take?

Contact the care provider and inform him or her that the client has toxic theophylline levels.

A group of students are reviewing the various drugs that affect inflammation. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which agent as a mast cell stabilizer?

Cromolyn

Which of the following effects would result from the action of montelukast?

Decreased eosinophil migration

Ms. Thompson, age 45, is being seen in the physician's office today for complaints of a dry, hacking cough that is keeping her up at night. The physician prescribes dextromethorphan for the cough. Which statement is true about dextromethorphan? Dextromethorphan works on the receptors in the throat to prevent a cough. Dextromethorphan works in the medulla to suppress the cough reflex. Dextromethorphan works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the bronchioles. Dextromethorphan works by inhibiting allergen response.

Dextromethorphan works in the medulla to suppress the cough reflex. Dextromethorphan is related chemically to the opiate agonists and can suppress coughing as effectively as narcotics. Cough suppression occurs by several mechanisms, but mainly the drug directly affects the cough center in the medulla. Therapeutic doses do not affect ciliary activity

A client calls the clinic and reports symptoms of a cold. The client is most concerned because the cold symptoms are preventing him from sleeping. The nurse would inform the client that what medication relieves cold symptoms and aids sleep? Phenergan Diphenhydramine Epinephrine Antihistamine

Diphenhydramine

A nurse is describing the action of a prescribed antihistamine to a client. The nurse is describing which medication, by explaining that the drug elicits its antihistamine effects by nonselectively binding to central and peripheral H1 receptors? Loratadine Diphenhydramine Fexofenadine Cetirizine

Diphenhydramine all other are 2nd generation antihistamines

A 76-year-old client has been prescribed an oral antihistamine. What adverse effect presents a priority safety concern for older adult clients? Drowsiness Nonproductive cough Dry mouth Nasal burning

Drowsiness

A client is admitted to the emergency department with inspiratory stridor and air hunger. When anticipating treatment, the nurse will prepare which medication for administration?

Epinephrine

The first step in treating obstructive pulmonary disorders involves medication therapy.

False

After teaching a group of students about leukotriene receptor antagonists, the instructor determines a need for additional teaching when the students identify which agent as an example?

Fluticasone

An 8-year-old client reports shortness of breath, cough, and chest tightness when participating in gym class. The client is diagnosed with exercise-induced asthma. What inhaled drug therapy is the health care provider most likely to prescribe?

Formoterol (Foradil), a highly selective beta-2 agonist

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about expectorants. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which medication as an example? Acetylcysteine Benzonatate Guaifenesin Dextromethorphan

Guaifenesin

A female client presents at the clinic with a dry, nonproductive cough. The client is diagnosed with bronchitis, and it is determined that she will need help thinning sputum so that the cough can become productive. What does the nurse expect will be prescribed for the client? Aspirin Codeine Guaifenesin Dextromethophan

Guaifenesin Expectorants, such as guaifenesin, are agents given orally to liquefy respiratory secretions and allow for easier removal. Dextromethorphan and codeine are antitussives used to suppress coughing

A nurse is providing education to a 56-year-old man who is admitted to the emergency department with an acute asthma attack. The nurse's initial assessment reveals that the patient has a history of pneumonia, drinks large quantities of coffee, and eats a high-calorie diet. Albuterol is prescribed for him. The important consideration when the nurse is preparing a teaching plan will be that the patient

Has a high coffee intake

A nurse is required to educate a patient prescribed albuterol on the adverse effects associated with the drug. Which of the following symptoms, if experienced, should the nurse instruct the patient to report to the health care provider?

Headache and flushing

When teaching a patient to use a dry powder inhaler, which of the following is true? Select all that apply:

Hold breath for 10 seconds. Inhale quickly.

A nurse is providing health education to a client recently diagnosed with asthma and prescribed albuterol and ipratropium. Which of the client's statements suggests a need for clarification by the nurse?

I'll keep taking my medications until I'm not experiencing any more symptoms."

A client with asthma is administered zileuton along with theophylline. The nurse should be especially alert for which of the following?

Increased serum theophylline

The triage nurse in the emergency department has a 42-year-old client with asthma present for treatment. The client's respiratory rate is 40 breaths per minute. Based on this objective data, what is the correct nursing diagnosis for this client?

Ineffective breathing pattern

A client is prescribed salmeterol. The nurse would expect this drug to be administered by which route?

Inhalation

A nurse is administering levalbuterol to a client. The nurse would administer this drug by which route?

Inhalation

How do inhaled corticosteroid agents assist in the treatment of asthma?

Inhaled corticosteroid agents will reduce airway inflammation.

Daptomycin belongs to the lipopeptide class of antibiotics that kills gram-positive bacteria. What is the mechanism of action for this antibiotic? A. Inhibition of synthesis of bacterial proteins B. Inhibition of synthesis of DNA only C. Inhibition of mitochondrial reproduction D. Inhibition of cell wall osmosis -

Inhibition of synthesis of bacterial proteins

A client, diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginalis, is being treated with metronidazole orally. What instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client to minimize the spread of this infection? A. Instruct her on safe sex. B. Instruct her to drink red wine. C. Instruct her to take two tablets if a dose is missed. D. Instruct her to have her partner treated. -

Instruct her to have her partner treated.

A neonate is receiving beractant. The nurse understands that this agent is administered by which route?

Intratracheal

What effect is associated with a first-generation H1 receptor antagonist? It raises the seizure threshold by impairing vitamin D. It depletes norepinephrine and serotonin. It catalyzes the enzymatic oxidation of uric acid. It decreases capillary permeability.

It decreases capillary permeability.

Which agents would the nurse identify as selectively and competitively blocking the receptors for the production of two substances that are components of SRSA?

Leukotriene receptor antagonists

When teaching a client about his prescribed asthma therapy, the nurse understands that which medications may increase the risk of asthma-related death?

Long-acting beta-2 agonists

A male client is prescribed montelukast and uses it successfully to manage his asthma. He develops hepatitis C. What would the nurse expect the health care provider to do?

Maintain the same dose of the montelukast

What information about antibiotic therapy should the nurse include in a client's medication education? A. Bacteria can remain in the body for up to 48 to 72 hours after the completion of antibiotic therapy. B. Maintenance of normal bacterial flora is essential to health during the therapy. C. The healthy human body hosts dozens of minor infections at any given time. D. An aseptic internal environment only exists in young adults. -

Maintenance of normal bacterial flora is essential to health during the therapy.

Which medication is used to treat acute airflow obstruction?

Metaproterenol

A female client calls the pediatrician's office for a suggestion regarding the best over-the-counter cough and cold medicine for her 6-month-old child. The pediatrician advises against the medication for what reason? The medication is contraindicated for viral infections. The medication is not effective for croup. Misuse could result in overdose. The medication is contraindicated for the child's symptoms.

Misuse could result in overdose. Several OTC cough and cold medicines for use in infants have been recalled voluntarily due to concerns about possible misuse that could result in overdoses.

A client with cystic fibrosis may use which type of medication to reduce the viscosity of respiratory secretions? Expectorant Antihistamine Mucolytic Centrally acting antitussive Peripherally acting antitussive

Mucolytic

After teaching a group of students about zafirlukast, the students demonstrate understanding when they identify which as possible adverse effects? (Select all that apply.)

Myalgia Dizziness Vomiting

Which would contraindicate the use of a topical nasal decongestant? Glaucoma Hypertension Diabetes Nasal ulceration

Nasal ulceration all others are cautionary

The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effects of erythromycin therapy? A. Headache and fever B. Urticaria and opthalmic drainage C. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea D. Shortness of breath and sore throat -

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

The client uses his sympathomimetic inhaler frequently. The nurse evaluates the client for which of the following symptoms related to frequent use of the sympathomimetic inhaler?

Nervousness

A client with COPD takes theophylline. The nurse identifies that the client is still experiencing severe dyspnea. Upon review of labs, the theophylline level remains nontherapeutic. The nurse evaluates the client for which of the following drugs that may cause decreased theophylline levels?

Nicotine

What route of administration is most commonly used for the administration of ciprofloxacin when prescribed to an older adult client? A. oral (PO) B. intravenous (IV) C. subcutaneous (SQ) D. intramuscular (IM) -

While reviewing a client's history, an allergy to which of the following would alert the nurse to a possible problem with the use of ipratropium?

Peanuts

A 27-year-old athlete with newly diagnosed asthma presents for patient education regarding situations that could precipitate an asthma attack. The nurse teaches that acute episodes of asthma may last minutes to hours. In this teaching, which precipitants would the nurse state may cause the asthma? (Select all that apply.)

Pollutants Allergens Exercise

A client reports anxiety, restlessness, nausea, and vomiting after using a nasal decongestant. Which drug should the nurse consider as the cause for these side effects? Phenylephrine Pseudoephedrine Ephedrine Epinephrine

Pseudoephedrine

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse infuses the medication at the prescribed rate to prevent what from occurring? A. Gray syndrome B. Red man syndrome C. Serotonin syndrome D. Cushing's syndrome -

Red man syndrome

A client has been taking vancomycin 750 mg PO q6h for the past four days to treat Clostridium difficile-related diarrhea. The nurse learns that the client's 24-hour urine output was 550 mL yesterday and that is has been 125 mL over the past 12 hours. What is the nurse's best action? A. Report the findings promptly to the client's care provider. B. Encourage oral fluid intake and monitor closely. C. Recognize and document the expected adverse effects of vancomycin. D. Ask about the client's pre-illness levels of urine output. -

Report the findings promptly to the client's care provider.

A male client is diagnosed with chronic bronchitis. What would the nurse expect to be one of his physical reports? Rhinitis Rhinorrhea Retention of secretions Chronic nasal swelling

Retention of secretions

The client with asthma has been ordered an inhaler and the nurse is teaching how to prevent Candida infections. Which would the nurse include in the instructions?

Rinse mouth with water after each use.

A gerontological nurse has encouraged a group of caregivers who work with older adults to avoid administering first-generation H1 receptor antagonists to their clients. The nurse's cautionary message is an acknowledgment of what possible nursing diagnosis? Risk for infection related to adverse effects of antihistamines Risk for deficient fluid volume related to diuresis Risk for falls related to sedation Risk for impaired skin integrity related to urticaria

Risk for falls related to sedation

The nurse is evaluating the education of a client that uses albuterol for an acute asthma attack. The nurse knows that the lesson has been effective when the client states that albuterol is which of the following types of medication?

SABA

A female client presents to the emergency department with acutely deteriorating asthma. Her husband tells the nurse that his wife takes salmeterol. He then tells the nurse that he gave her three extra puffs when she became ill. What statement is correct in this situation?

Salmeterol is contraindicated based on his wife's condition.

The nurse is providing care for a newborn who has received an instillation of surfactin. What assessment data indicates the infant is experiencing adequate oxygen perfusion? Select all that apply.

Skin is pink over entire body Skin warm to the touch

A history of an allergy to which would be a contraindication to the use of anticholinergics? (Select all that apply

Soy and peanuts

What home remedies are effective for mouth dryness and cough? (Select all that apply.) Administration of over-the-counter antihistamine Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges Humidification of the environment Swishing the mouth with astringent mouthwash. Adequate fluid intake

Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges Humidification of the environment Adequate fluid intake

A group of students demonstrate understanding of topical decongestants, identifying them as: Parasympathomimetics Sympathomimetics Parasympatholytics Sympatholytics

Sympathomimetic

The client is admitted to the acute care facility with acute septicemia and has orders to receive gentamicin and ampicillin IV. The nurse is performing an admission assessment that includes a complete nursing history. What information provided by the client would indicate the need to consult the health care provider before administering the ordered medication? A. Takes high-dose furosemide (Lasix) daily B. Had prostate surgery 3 months ago C. History of hypothyroidism D. Allergy to peanuts and peanut products -

Take high-dose furosemide (Lasix) daily

A 62-year-old client has been prescribed an antihistamine to alleviate vasomotor rhinitis. The client reports gastric irritation after taking the tablet. Which instructions should the nurse provide to help alleviate the client's condition? Take the tablet with food. Take an antacid before the tablet. Take the tablet one hour before food. Drink ample water before taking the tablet.

Take the tablet with food

After teaching a group of students about topical nasal steroid decongestants, the instructor determines the need for additional teaching when the students identify which as an example? Fluticasone Triamcinolone Tetrahydrozoline Flunisolide

Tetrahydrozoline- topical nasal decongestant

The nurse is providing care for an older adult who has a urinary tract infection. What aspect of this client's current health status should the nurse focus on when ensuring safe and effective antibiotic therapy? A. The client has a history of cirrhosis. B. The client has type 2 diabetes controlled with diet. C. The client uses bronchodilators for the treatment of asthma. D. The client had a hip fracture 8 months ago. -

The client has a history of cirrhosis

What assessment finding would signal the nurse to the possibility that the client's infusion of vancomycin is running too quickly? A. The client is flushed and has a visible skin rash. B. The client's apical heart rate is irregular. C. The client is reporting nausea. D. The client reports pain at the intravenous access site. -

The client is flushed and has a visible skin rash.

A man who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily has been diagnosed with chronic bronchitis. He has been prescribed theophylline by his family provider. What effect will the client's smoking status have on the therapeutic use of theophylline?

The client may require higher doses of theophylline than a nonsmoker

A client has been prescribed a inhaled steroid for the treatment of asthma. What information should the nurse include when providing medication education to the client? Select all that apply.

The medication is not intended to treat an acute asthma attack Abruptly stopping any previously prescribed systemic steroid could cause an adrenal insufficiency Rebound nasal congestion is a adverse effect of this form of medication Promptly report a fever or any other indication of infection to your health provider

A hospital client's medication administration record specifies concurrent doses of nebulized ipratropium and albuterol at 08:00 and 20:00. When administering these drugs, the nurse should base the intervention on which fact?

The two drugs can be mixed in the nebulizer immediately before administration.

The nursing instructor is discussing the use of nasal decongestants and shares what reason for their effectiveness? They treat multiple symptoms in a cost-effective manner. They come into direct contact with nasal mucosa. They are absorbed systemically. Their effects last for 48 to 72 hours.

They come into direct contact with nasal mucosa.

A client is asking how fluoroquinolones work. What is the nurse's best response? A. They inhibit the growth of the bacteria. B. They disrupt the cell membrane of the bacteria. C. They interfere with the DNA of the bacteria. D. They promote WBC development from the bone marrow. -

They interfere with the DNA of the bacteria.

A 21-year-old patient reports a mild stinging sensation on using a nasal spray containing a nasal decongestant. Which information should the nurse provide the patient? Consult the physician immediately. Dose of the medication needs reduction. Medication needs to be stopped immediately. This sensation usually disappears with continued use.

This sensation usually disappears with continued use.

A young pregnant patient with intestinal amebiasis is prescribed a tetracycline. Which can be an adverse effect of the drug? A. Yellow-gray-brown discoloration of the teeth B. Toxic effects to the developing fetus C. Increase in the blood pressure D. Bacterial overgrowth of nonsusceptible organisms -

Toxic effects to the developing fetus

A premenopausal woman has been bothered with recurrent urinary tract infections. What antibiotic after sexual intercourse would assist in preventing the recurrence of infection? A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) C. Pyridium (phenazopyridine hydrochloride) D. Anaspaz (hyoscyamine sulfate) -

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

Cromolyn should not be used during an acute asthmatic attack.

True

Leukotriene receptor antagonists are administered orally.

True

True/False: Mucolytics are often used for patients with cystic fibrosis, COPD, or tuberculosis.

True; add pneumonia

Fluoroquinolones, such as norfloxacin (Noroxin), are commonly prescribed antibiotics given to treat which of the following? A. Yeast infections B. Respiratory infections C. Severe skin infections D. Urinary tract infections -

Urinary tract infections

When developing the teaching plan for a client receiving an antihistamine, which would the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) Using sugarless candies or lozenges to combat dry mouth Advising the client to avoid alcohol consumption Encouraging the client to engage in usual activities such as driving Stopping the drug after 3 days if no relief is obtained

Using sugarless candies or lozenges to combat dry mouth Advising the client to avoid alcohol consumption

When describing the action of decongestants, a nurse integrates knowledge of this class of drugs, identifying which mechanism? Nonselectively binding to central and peripheral H1 receptors Vasoconstriction of small blood vessels of the nasal membranes Selectively binding to peripheral H1 receptors Anesthetizing stretch receptors in the respiratory passages

Vasoconstriction of small blood vessels of the nasal membranes

A client has been treated several times for a recurring ear infection with ofloxacin. The nurse instructs the client to look for side effects from the prolonged use of the antibiotic and informs the client that this is known as; a. superinfection. B. allergy. C. allergic reaction. D. skin rash. E. analphylactic reaction.

A client is being treated for a urinary tract infection with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. What assessment should the nurse make prior to the administration of the medication? a. assessing for renal insufficiency B. assessing for the presence of asthma C. assessing for hypertension D. assessing for diabetes mellitus

A client is being treated with saquinavir for AIDS. The client history includes a BMI of 37.98%, hyperlipidemia, and sleep apnea. Based on the client history, why would caution be used when the client is started on saquinavir? A. There are potential adverse effects associated with hyperlipidemia. B. Saquinavir has a possible association with cardiovascular events. C. It may cause an exacerbation requiring a dosage change. D. The drug is largely metabolized by the liver.

A client is diagnosed with cytomegalovirus infection and is to receive foscarnet. The nurse would expect to administer this drug by which route? A. Intravenous B. Topical C. Oral D. Intramuscular

A client is receiving a cephalosporin and an aminoglycoside as combination therapy. What assessment should the nurse prioritize? a. Serum BUN and creatinine levels B. Coagulation studies C. Complete blood count D. Signs of disulfiram-like reaction

A client is receiving rifampin and isoniazid in combination for treatment of tuberculosis. What would the nurse need to monitor closely? A. Liver function studies B. Audiometric studies C. Pulmonary function studies D. Urine culture

A client is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for active TB. The nurse should stress that what may be caused by the use of this drug? a. body fluids such as urine, saliva, tears, and sputum may become discolored. B. the drug usually causes cardiac arrhythmias. C. facial flushing may appear but will go away once therapy is concluded. D. the drug frequently causes seizure activity.

A client prescribed rifaximin for diarrhea has developed frank bleeding in the stool. What intervention should the nurse anticipate being implemented to best ensure client safety? a. changing to a different antibiotic B. changing to parenteral administration of rifaximin C. supplementing the antibiotic with vitamin K D. increasing the dose of rifaximin

A client with HIV is frustrated by the size and complexity of the current medication regimen. What should the nurse teach the client about combination therapy for the treatment of HIV? A. Use of combination therapy attacks the virus at different stages of the life cycle. B. One drug combats the virus while the others are prescribed to diminish the adverse effects. C. Use of multiple drugs ensures sensitivity to various viral forms. D. The client's immune response is enhanced with multiple drugs.

A client with a diagnosis of rhinosinusitis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin 250 mg SC b.i.d. When contacting the prescriber, the nurse should question the A. route. B. choice of drug. C. frequency. D. dose.

A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse will instruct the patient to A. complete the entire course of drug therapy. B. take the drug only in safe and secure home settings. C. reduce the dosage of ciprofloxacin gradually. D. take the drug through subcutaneous injection if it tastes bad.

A nurse is explaining the rationale for the use of combination therapy in the treatment of HIV infections. Which would the nurse include as the primary reason? A. The use of multiple drugs allows attack on the virus at different points in its life cycle. B. More than one drug is needed to ensure sensitivity to the different forms of the virus. C. One drug helps to control the virus, while the other drugs help to alleviate the adverse effects. D. Using several drugs at once helps to improve the client's immune response.

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group after media reports about cases of avian influenza in the surrounding region. When explaining the treatment options for avian flu, the nurse should reference what drug? A. Oseltamivir B. Ribavirin C. Zanamivir D. Rimantadine

A nurse is preparing to administer IV acyclovir to a client diagnosed with a herpes simplex viral infection. The health care provider has ordered 5 mg/kg every 8h. The client weighs 60 kg. How much medication will the nurse administer per dose? A. 300 mg B. 600 mg C. 1200 mg D. 900 mg

A patient with AIDS is being prepared for discharge. The nurse caring for the patient with AIDS knows the patient receives Agenerase. What dietary counseling will the nurse provide based upon the patient's medication regimen? A. Avoid high-fat meals while taking this medication B. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day. C. Limit fluid intake to 2 liters a day D. Avoid meals high in protein while taking this medication

A patient with a throat infection has been recommended penicillin therapy by the primary health care provider. Before administering the first dose of penicillin to the patient, which interventions should the nurse perform as part of the pre-administration assessment? a. Obtain patient's general health history. B. Evaluate the patient's lifestyle and diet. C. Perform renal and hepatic function tests. D. Inspect patient's stools.

A patient with chronic hepatitis B (HBV) infection is scheduled to begin a new treatment regimen that will include adefovir dipivoxil (Hepsera). What assessments should be prioritized before the initiation of this drug treatment? A. Liver function testing and HIV testing B. Pulmonary function testing and echocardiogram C. Cardiac stress test and blood cultures D. Complete blood count and prothrombin time (PT)

After teaching a client who is receiving doxycycline about the drug, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the client makes what statement? a. "I need to wear protective clothing when I'm out in the sun." B. "I will take the drug with an antacid to prevent an upset stomach." C. "I should limit the amount of fluids that I drink." D. "I should chew gum and chocolate if my mouth gets sore."

In which clients are the use of cidofovir contraindicated? A. clients with renal impairment B. clients with low blood cell counts C. clients with history of epilepsy D. clients with cardiac disease

The health care provider is selecting an antibiotic for a client with a known penicillin allergy. The provider knows that cephalosporins are a poor choice for this client because cephalosporins A. can cause allergic reactions in clients who are allergic to penicillins. B. can cause kidney damage in clients who are allergic to penicillins. C. are derived from penicillin. D. are ineffective in clients who are allergic to penicillins.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse infuses the medication at the prescribed rate to prevent what from occurring? a. Red man syndrome B. Gray syndrome C. Cushing's syndrome D. Serotonin syndrome

The nurse is reviewing the medication instruction for the client taking acyclovir. Which statement by the client would indicate the need for additional teaching? A. "This medication will maintain the symptoms and cure my disease." B. "I need to complete the full course of therapy as prescribed." C. "I need to report any rash or itching while taking the medication." D. "I need to contact my health care provider if the lesion turns red."

The nurse should advise the client to avoid taking which medication at the same time as a fluoroquinolone? a. antacids B. antidiabetic agents C. oral contraceptives D. antihypertensives

There are many antiviral medications on the market. What is the clinical reason for this? A. Each medication is only effective against a small number of specific viral infections. B. The client can help in the decision of which medication based on his or her insurance plan's coverage. C. Each medication is effective against a large number of viral infections. D. It gives the provider many choices as to which medication can be prescribed.

What antibiotic is contraindicated for the treatment of intermittent colitis? A. clindamycin B. doxycycline C. telithromycin D. erythromycin

What can the nurse do to maximize a patient's adherence to the medication regimen? A. As an advocate of the patient, discuss benefits and risks of antiretroviral therapy as well as administration. B. Teach that patients who do not take the medication could have poor outcomes. C. Inform patients to research other options to antiretroviral therapy. D. Inform patients that they have to be compliant with the approved treatment regimen to receive care.

What event triggers the development of a superinfection? a. proliferation of antibiotic-resistant microorganisms B. the infection is well established before antibiotic treatment begins C. bone marrow suppression triggered by antibiotic treatment D. unforeseen interactions between the antibiotic and other prescribed medications

Which would be considered a penicillinase-resistant antibiotic? A. Ticarcillin B. Amoxicillin C. Carbenicillin D. Nafcillin

Nasal decongestants would be contraindicated for which client? a client with a history of coronary artery disease a client with a history of diet-controlled diabetes mellitus a client with a pulse rate of 58 beats per minute a client with a history of controlled hypertension

a client with a history of coronary artery disease

Which client would be at risk of developing an infection? Select all that apply. A. a client with an impaired immune system B. a client who performs daily hygiene care C. a client experiencing diarrhea chronically D. an elderly client who has one chronic disease E. a client who takes nutritional supplements -

a client with an impaired immune system a client experiencing diarrhea chronically an elderly client who has one chronic disease

What type of cough is best treated with dextromethorphan? a dry, nonproductive cough a cough that is associated with an allergy to ragweed a cough that occurs when the client is exposed to airborne irritants an occasional, productive cough

a dry, nonproductive cough

When focusing on the lifestyle of the patient with HIV, what are important teaching considerations? (Select all that apply.) A. Take drug therapy as prescribed. B. Advise the patient about the adverse effect of granulocytopenia. C. Transmission can occur while on medication. D. No blood test will need to be done while on therapy.

a,b,c

If a fetus or young infant receives a sulfonamide by placental transfer, in breast milk, or by direct administration, the drug displaces bilirubin from binding sites on albumin. As a result, what may the fetus experience? a. Hyperbilirubinemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Kernicterus D. Hypernatremia

a,c

A client who has recently had a transplant is worried about contracting CMV (cytomegalovirus). The treatment of choice to prevent this infection is which? Select all that apply. A. valganciclovir B. acyclovir C. adefovir D. amantadine E. ganciclovir

a,e

What are classified as anti-infectives? (Select all that apply.) A. antihelmintics B. antifungals C. antiprotozoals D. anticonvulsants E. antimetabolites -

antihelmintics antifungals antiprotozoals

A client, scheduled to receive one unit of packed red blood cells, has a history of an allergic reaction to a transfusion in the past. What class of medication will assist in preventing a reaction to the packed red blood cell transfusion? antianginals antipyretics antihistamines antimicrobials

antihistamine

Which of the following would a nurse identify as being classified as a macrolide? A. Azithromycin B. Gentamicin C. Doxycycline D. Cephalexin -

azithromycin

A 58-year-old with HIV is starting treatment with Combivir. He currently has a CD4+ cell count of less than 200 cells/mL and a viral load greater than 45,000 copies/mL. The nurse treating the client knows that what is a sign of effective drug therapy? A. Decreased CD4+ cell counts B. Increased CD4+ cell counts C. Decreased creatinine clearance D. Increased red blood cell count

A client asks how tetracycline works on acne. What is the nurse's best response? A. "Tetracycline changes the chemical structure of your skin so it's less hospitable to bacteria." B. "Tetracycline interferes with the growth of the bacteria causing the pimples." C. "Tetracycline interferes with components of bacterial protein synthesis." D. "Tetracycline reduces the number of bacteria in the blood running through your skin."

A client asks why three medications are prescribed to treat his tuberculosis. The nurse informs the client of which reasons? a. To prevent adverse reactions B. To prevent resistance C. To decrease allergic response of medications D. To decrease length of drug therapy

A client has been on an antibiotic for two weeks for treatment of an infection. The client asks the nurse why a superinfection has been caused by this medication. What is the nurse's best response? A. "The antibiotics are only effective against some types of bacteria." B. "Antibiotics can disrupt the normal bacteria in your body, causing another infection to occur." C. "The antibiotics are only effective in killing off some of the bacteria in the body." D. "Antibiotics can disrupt the normal bacteria in your body and cause them to grow out of control."

A client has been treated with abacavir for the past 6 weeks. The client contacts the physician's office with reports of diarrhea, abdominal pain, sore throat, cough, and shortness of breath. Which is the appropriate action to take for this situation? A. Discontinue the therapy and then reintroduce it. B. Discontinue the therapy. C. Reduce the dose. D. Administer the drug at bedtime.

A client is prescribed isoniazid (INH) for a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). Which adverse effect will result in discontinuation of the medication? a. weight gain B. jaundice C. fever D. arthralgia

A client is taking penicillin for an upper respiratory infection. The client calls the office after 2 days of therapy reporting nausea and abdominal pain. Which would be the best instruction for the nurse to give the client? a. Stop the medication and the health care provider will order you a different antibiotic. B. These are normal side effects, but if they increase in severity or frequency, you need to contact the office again. C. Continue to take the medication as prescribed; these are expected side effects from the medication. D. Stop the medication immediately and go to the emergency room; these could be signs of a life-threatening reaction.

A client with a complex medical history is showing signs and symptoms of sepsis. What aspect of this client's health history would rule out the safe and effective use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic? a. The client has a history of not adhering to treatment B. The client has chronic renal failure C. The client has type 2 diabetes, controlled with oral antihyperglycemics D. The client has a known latex allergy

A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with AIDS. The family comes to visit and a family member asks the nurse about safety when visiting a client with AIDS. What is the best response for addressing the family member's fears? A. "The client should be isolated and have limited visitation." B. "AIDS is commonly transmitted by contact with blood and body fluids." C. "Don't worry, you will not contract the disease from the client." D. "Why do you think you are at risk?"

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking acyclovir. What is likely to be a priority nursing diagnoses for this client? A. Disturbed Body Image related to adverse drug effects B. Imbalanced Nutrition; Less than body requirements related to drug adverse effects C. Imbalanced Nutrition; More than body requirements related to drug adverse effects D. Disturbed Sleep Pattern related to adverse drug effects

A nurse is caring for a patient, who has been prescribed the antiviral drug amantadine. Which of the following adverse reactions specific to amantadine should the nurse monitor for? A. anorexia and dyspnea B. hypotension and insomnia C. asthenia and abdominal pain D. fever and dizziness

A nurse is caring for an adult client diagnosed with bacterial sinusitis. The nurse has cautioned the client against taking prescribed oral erythromycin together with antacids. What is the basis of this instruction? A. Antacids delay metabolism of the drug. B. Antacids decrease the absorption of the drug. C. Antacids can exacerbate nausea and reflux. D. Antacids cause a dangerous rise in gastric pH.

A nurse, reviewing a newly admitted client's previous health records, notes that the client is currently prescribed acyclovir. The nurse should assess the client for signs and symptoms associated with what medical diagnosis? A. hepatitis A B. herpes simplex virus C. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) D. hepatitis B

A patient diagnosed with acute primary HIV infection is in the clinic. What treatment should be initiated for this patient? A. Monotherapy protease inhibitor therapy B. Combination antiretroviral therapy C. Didanosine therapy once daily D. Zidovudine therapy once daily

A patient diagnosed with acute primary HIV infection is in the clinic. What treatment should be initiated for this patient? A. Monotherapy protease inhibitor therapy B. Combination antiretroviral therapy C. Zidovudine therapy once daily D. Didanosine therapy once daily

A young lifeguard has been prescribed moxifloxacin (Avelox). The nurse understands that the focus on education would be which adverse reaction? a. Fatigue B. Photosensitivity C. Weakness D. Muscle cramping

An immigrant and his wife are both HIV positive. The physician prescribes antiretroviral medications. However, the client, tell the nurse he is concerned about his ability to afford the treatment. What advice can the nurse provide to the client to help begin the treatment? A. The client should consider a second opinion from another medical expert B. The client can approach social agencies and pharmaceutical companies that provide antiretroviral drugs on compassionate grounds C. The client can choose an alternative, less expensive medication and later shift to taking antiretroviral medications D. It is not the responsibility of the nurse to advise clients on the financial aspect of a treatment

Children younger than the age of 12 years should not receive indinavir. A. False B. True

In which of the following patients is the use of cidofovir contraindicated? A. Patients with history of epilepsy B. Patients with renal impairment C. Patients with low blood cell counts D. Patients with cardiac disease

The nurse is caring for a client who is HIV positive. What laboratory test is used to determine this client's ability to fight against viral infections? A. BUN B. CD4 C. RBCs D. AST

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is prescribed ceftriaxone. What should the nurse identify as common adverse effects associated with this drug? A. Headache and dizziness B. Diarrhea and nausea C. Lethargy and paresthesias D. Superinfections and phlebitis

What statement made by the patient indicates to the nurse that the patient does not understand the transmission of HIV? A. "I may transmit the virus to someone if I have unprotected sex." B. "As long as I am taking the HAART therapy, I cannot transmit the virus to anyone else." C. "If I have unprotected sex with someone with HIV, I may be re-infected with another strain." D. "I should not breast feed because I can transmit the virus to the baby this way."

Which of the following drugs would be classified as an aminoglycoside? a. Cefaclor B. Gentamicin C. Levofloxacin D. Clarithromycin

Which of the following should a nurse carefully monitor in a patient who has been administered cephalosporin as well as aminoglycosides for a wound infection? a. Respiratory difficulty B. Nephrotoxicity C. Increased bleeding D. Nausea

Which statement by a client taking a sulfonamide requires further instruction? a. "I will be sure to drink a full glass of water every time I take my medicine." B. "I will make sure to use extra sunscreen when I go to the tanning booth." C. "I will take all of my medicine even if my symptoms go away." D. "I will take my medicine with my meals like it says on the prescription bottle."

Which statement regarding antiviral medications is true? A. Antivirals present relatively low risk for toxicity. B. Antivirals do not eliminate existing viruses from tissues. C. Once antivirals are used, protection lasts for 3 weeks after the last dose. D. Most antivirals temporarily increase viral replication.

A 30-year-old woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has presented to her primary care provider with a 4-day history of a reddened, itchy left eye that is crusted with purulent exudate. The clinician suspects a bacterial, rather than viral, etiology. How will the client's pregnancy affect the potential use of ciprofloxacin to treat her conjunctivitis? A. Ciprofloxacin is safe to use in pregnancy and the client may use to same dose and route as a nonpregnant client. B. The use of ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in pregnancy. C. It is safe for the client to use topical ciprofloxacin but the oral route is potential teratogenic. D. The client will require a lower dose and longer course of ciprofloxacin than a nonpregnant, adult client. -

b The use of ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in pregnancy.

Which of the following are examples of fluoroquinolones? Select all that apply. A. Spectinomycin (Trobicin) B. Levofloxacin (Levaquin) C. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) D. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) E. Cephalexin (Keflex)

b,d

A nurse is preparing to administer a fluoroquinolone. Which infections are treated with fluoroquinolones? Select all that apply. a. upper respiratory infections B. urinary tract infections C. ear infections D. skin infections E. sexually transmitted disease

b,d,e

A client is experiencing allergy symptoms after being exposed to environmental dust. This reaction involves the action of histamine, which is released by what cells? basophils lymphocytes platelets CD4 T cells

basophils and mast cells

What is the most common first-line therapy for relief of an acute asthma attack?

beta2-adrenergic agonist

Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to suspect that the resident is experiencing an anticholinergic effect of diphenhydramine? urticaria wheezing on expiration blurry vision tinnitus

blurry vision

A 23-year-old client is prescribed zidovudine for treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement indicates that the client has understood the client teaching regarding the action of this medication? A. "Zidovudine inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease." B. "Zidovudine therapy may result in the development of resistant strains." C. "Zidovudine slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it." D. "Zidovudine prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections."

A 45-year-old client is prescribed acyclovir for the treatment of genital herpes. Which is an expected outcome for this client? A. The client will no longer be able to transmit the infection to others. B. The client will be cured of the viral infection. C. The client will experience fewer recurrences. D. The client will experience recurrences but milder symptoms.

A 7-year-old child has tonsillitis and is prescribed penicillin V, which is to be administered at home. The nurse will instruct the parents to administer the drug a. intravenously with the assistance of a home health nurse. B. with a sip of water 1 hour before mealtime. C. with a glass of water 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. D. immediately before or with a meal.

A client has been prescribed 4 g of sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim tablets per day. The available drug is in the form of 500 mg. The nurse would administer how many tablets each day? a. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 4

A client has presented to the campus medical clinic reporting vaginal itching and burning accompanied by yellowish discharge. The client is diagnosed with trichomoniasis and prescribed metronidazole 250 mg PO t.i.d. What health education should the nurse provide? A. Avoid sunlight, or wear effective sunscreen, during treatment. B. Avoid grapefruit juice until at least 48 hours after treatment is complete. C. Avoid drinking alcohol until treatment is complete. D. Limit intake of high-potassium foods while taking metronidazole.

A client is diagnosed with an infection attributable to the gram-negative microorganism Pseudomonas. Which anti-infective agent is most reliable in treating this microorganism? a. GABA analog B. aminopenicillin C. aminoglycoside D. antifungal

A client is receiving tenofovir as part of a therapy regimen for HIV infection. The nurse should provide what teaching related to what the client may experience? A. "There's a high likelihood of severe hypersensitivity reactions, so take your temperature regularly." B. "Avoid high carbohydrate foods, since your body might have difficulty digesting them." C. "It's possible you might have changes in body fat distribution." D. "Occasional pockets of mucus in your stool are expected at the beginning of treatment."

A client is started on sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim) for a urinary infection. What adverse effect should the nurse assess with this client? a. Bone marrow depression B. Congestive heart failure C. Renal damage D. Liver toxicity

A client with active AIDS is infected with a retrovirus. This virus is better known as which? A. CMV B. DSV C. HIV D. HSV

A nurse is administering a drug that blocks the protease enzyme so new viral particles cannot mature. Which category of drugs is the nurse most likely administering? A. integrase inhibitors B. reverse transcriptase inhibitors C. protease inhibitors D. entry inhibitors

A nurse is explaining the use of acyclovir therapy to a 72-year-old man. Nephrotoxicity is discussed as a major adverse effect in older patients. To minimize the risk of the patient developing this adverse effect, the nurse will advise him to A. eat light meals every day. B. decrease the drug dosage if initial symptoms of nephrotoxicity appear. C. stay well hydrated by drinking at least eight 8-oz glasses of water daily. D. take the tablets on an empty stomach.

A nurse works in a community setting and follows clients who have TB. Which clients would likely require the most follow-up from rifampin therapy? a. A cancer client B. An obese 45-year-old man C. An HIV-positive client D. A new mother who is nursing

After teaching a client who is prescribed oral erythromycin, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the client states which of the following? A. "I only need to take one pill every day for this medicine to work." B. "I need to take the medicine with a meal so I don't get an upset stomach." C. "I should drink a full 8-oz glass of water when I take the medicine." D. "I might have some bloody diarrhea after using this medicine."

After teaching a group of nursing students about the different classes of drugs, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify drugs that slow or retard the multiplication of bacteria as which types of medication? a. bacteriophage B. bacteriostationary C. bacteriostatic D. bacteriocidal

An adult client is being treated for genital herpes with acyclovir. Which client statement indicates a need for further health education? A. "I know that this medication doesn't guarantee the infection won't return." B. "I was happy to learn that there aren't that many side effects of this drug." C. "It's a relief to know that this drug will stop me from spreading the infection." D. "I'm glad that there something I can take that will help to heal my lesions."

Antiretroviral drugs have different mechanisms of action. Which action below is NOT a common antiretrovirial mechanism? A. Blocking the protease enzyme sot that new viral particles cannot mature. B. Entry inhibitors, which prevent the attachment or fusion of HVI to a host cell for initial entry into the cell. C. Exit facilitators which remove the HIV from the cell D. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors, which block the reverse transcriptase enzyme so the HIV material cannot change into new DNA in the new cell, preventing new copies from being created.

Drugs that destroy bacteria are known as which type of drug? a. bacteriostationary B. bacteriophage C. bacteriocidal D. bacteriostatic

Nursing students are studying antiviral drug therapy in a pharmacology class. A student asks the instructor to explain why multi-drug regimens are used to treat HIV infections. The instructor responds that drug combinations are often prescribed because they A. decrease the length of illness. B. increase compliance. C. are more effective than single-drug therapy. D. decrease the risk of opportunistic infection.

The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old with HIV. The nurse knows that, when administering antiviral drug therapy in young children with HIV, dosage calculations are typically based on A. the client's body surface area. B. the severity of the client's condition. C. the client's weight. D. dosage recommendations for adults.

The nurse is caring for a client receiving antiviral medications to treat HIV. What laboratory study should the nurse monitor most closely to determine the effectiveness of the medications? A. Liver function studies B. P24 antigen test C. CD4 count D. CBC with differential

The nurse is caring for a patient who has HIV and is taking saquinavir therapy. What should the nurse include in the dietary education for this patient? A. The patient is not restricted to a specific diet while taking this medication. B. The patient should limit proteins while taking this medication. C. The patient should not take this medication with grapefruit or pomegranate juice. D. The patient should limit carbohydrates when taking this medication.

The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effects of erythromycin therapy? a. Urticaria and opthalmic drainage B. Headache and fever C. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea D. Shortness of breath and sore throat

The nurse understands that which is the highest priority when teaching about antitubercular medications? a. Staying hydrated B. Monitoring sputum C. Taking medications as prescribed D. Eating a well balanced diet

When providing care to a client with a viral infection, the nurse knows that ribavirin (Virazole) for inhalation is used to treat which virus? A. AIDS B. HIV C. RSV D. RVS

The nurse's assessment should prioritize what system when caring for a client who has just been admitted for an overdose of pseudoephedrine? renal cardiovascular gastrointestinal neurological

cardiovascular

The client's theophylline levels are increased when the lab results are added to the electronic health record. The nurse questions the client about his intake of which?

coffee

A client, having an allergic reaction to mold, describes chest tightness and difficulty breathing. Which body effect is occurring? contraction of smooth muscle in the bronchi suppression of the vagus nerve endings producing tachycardia decreased permeability of the veins and capillaries decreased secretion of the mucous glands

contraction of smooth muscle in the bronchi

A client has endocarditis and is taking gentamicin. The nurse will be sure to monitor the client's A. potassium level. B. creatinine clearance. C. serum albumin level. D. prothrombin time. -

creatinine clearance.

A 25-year-old female client who presents at the clinic with vaginal discharge and discomfort is diagnosed with chlamydia. The nurse knows that the drug of choice to treat this infection is doxycycline. What would be a priority assessment for this client before beginning the medication? A. Asking the client if she has had an allergic reaction to a penicillin B. Measuring the client's blood pressure C. Asking the client if she is allergic to sulfonamides D. Asking the client if she is pregnant

A 70-year-old man is being treated for herpes zoster virus. He has been prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax). The clinic nurse should prioritize assessments of which of the following? A. Respiratory function B. Cardiac function C. Neurologic function D. Renal function

A 75-year-old patient with a history of renal impairment is admitted to the primary health care center with a UTI and has been prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following interventions is most important for the nurse to perform when caring for this patient? a. Monitoring fluid intake. B. Testing for occult blood. C. Testing for increased glucose levels. D. Monitoring blood creatinine levels.

A HIV-positive patient is being treated with didanosine as part of the antiretroviral therapy. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse monitor for and immediately report to the care provider? A. Headache B. Taste alteration C. Excoriation D. Peripheral neuropathy

A child has been diagnosed with acute otitis media. Before the child begins antibiotic treatment, what assessment should the nurse perform? a. Assess the child for allergies to salicylates. B. Assess whether the child has ever had tuberculosis skin test. C. Assess the child's immunization status. D. Assess the child for allergies to penicillins.

A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) has begun multi-drug therapy. The client has asked the nurse why it is necessary to take several different drugs. How should the nurse respond to the client's question? a. "Multiple drugs are used to speed up the course of treatment." B. "Multiple drugs are prescribed because the final testing results for TB can take up to 3 months." C. "Multiple drugs are used because health care providers aren't sure which drug will kill a particular TB strain." D. "The use of multiple drugs prevents the development of drug-resistant TB."

A client is prescribed isoniazid (INH) for a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). Which adverse effect will result in discontinuation of the medication? A. weight gain B. arthralgia C. fever D. jaundice

A client is to receive rifampin. Which would be most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan for this client? a. "Call your health care provider if you experience headache or dizziness." B. "You might experience some nausea or stomach upset." C. "The drug can cause an allergic reaction." D. "Your urine or sweat may become orange in color."

A client with a positive sputum culture for TB has been started on streptomycin antitubercular therapy. Upon review of the laboratory results, the nurse notes that the client may be experiencing toxicity if which of the following results is abnormal? a. Red blood cells and white blood cells B. Sodium and potassium C. Amylase and lipase D. BUN and creatinine

A client with amebiasis is to receive metronidazole. The client also takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The nurse would instruct the client to immediately report which symptom? A. Abdominal cramps B. Paresthesias C. Ataxia D. Increased bleeding

A client's health care provider is considering the addition of efavirenz to the client's drug regimen for the treatment of recently diagnosed HIV. Which aspects of the client's medical history should prompt the nurse to question the use of this drug? A. The client's body mass index at the time of diagnosis was 27 (overweight). B. The client has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and did not consistently monitor blood glucose levels prior to diagnosis with HIV. C. The client experienced an adverse reaction to an influenza immunization several years ago. D. The client has hepatitis C and a history of heavy alcohol use.

A nursing student is reading a journal article about highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The nurse would expect to find which condition as being treated with this therapy? A. herpes simplex virus (HSV) B. rotavirus C. cytomegalovirus (CMV) D. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

A patient has been prescribed oral tetracycline for the treatment of acne. Which of the following must the nurse include in the patient teaching plan? A. Take the drug along with a meal. B. Take the drug immediately after meals. C. Take the drug along with milk or fruit juice. D. Take the drug on an empty stomach.

A patient with TB is admitted to a health care facility. The nurse is required to administer an antitubercular drug through the parenteral route to this patient. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take when administering frequent parenteral injections? a. Monitor signs of liver dysfunction weekly. B. Monitor patient's vital signs each morning. C. Administer streptomycin to promote nutrition. D. Rotate injection sites for frequent parenteral injections.

After reviewing information about the drugs used to treat herpes virus and CMV infections, a group of students demonstrate understanding about these drugs when they identify which of the following as being available only for intravenous administration? A. Acyclovir B. Famciclovir C. Ganciclovir D. Foscarnet

For which clients would treatment with acyclovir be most clearly indicated? A. A 2-month-old infant brought to the emergency department with signs of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) B. A 44-year-old intravenous drug user who has been diagnosed with hepatitis C virus (HCV) C. A man who contracted hepatitis A virus (HAV) while on a tropical vacation D. A 77-year-old whose recent debilitating pain has been attributed to a herpes zoster infection

Michael, 25 years old, has had mitral valve regurgitation since age four, after having rheumatic fever. Michael is planning to go to his dentist to have his teeth cleaned. Because of Michael's history he will need to take antibiotics in conjunction with this procedure to prevent bacteremia. Which class of antibiotics will Michael most likely receive if he has no allergies? a. Cephalosporin B. Tetracycline C. Vancomycin D. Penicillin

The nurse is assisting in the admission of a client with a suspected urinary tract infection and an oral temperature of 100.9 degrees ferenheit. The health care provider has written the following orders; acetaminophen 500 mg PO for elevated temperature; urinalysis for culture and sensitivity; sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) 500 mg PO four times daily; and force fluids to 3 L/day. Which order will the nurse complete first? a. Provide client with eight ounces of fluid. B. Administer acetaminophen for temperature. C. Administer sulfasalazine (Azulfidine). D. Obtain urine for culture and sensitivity.

The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child who has pyelonephritis. The use of what group of antibiotics would be contraindicated due to the client's age? A. Penicillins B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Tetracyclines

The nurse is caring for a child with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which drug should the nurse expect the pediatrician to order? A. Oseltamivir B. Zanamivir C. Rimantadine D. Ribavirin

The nurse is conducting discharge teaching to the caregiver of a 6-month-old child diagnosed with acute otitis media prescribed amoxicillin and alternating acetaminophen and ibuprofen for fever. Which statement by the caregiver establishes a need for additional teaching by the nurse? A. "I should see an improvement in my baby in 24 hours from the time the drugs are started." B. "Sudden development of a rash, shortness of breath, or wheezing should be reported immediately." C. "The entire course of the amoxicillin should be taken as directed on the bottle and completed." D. "If the fever increases after alternating acetaminophen and ibuprofen, baby aspirin may be used."

The nurse is preparing to administer nafcillin intravenously (IV) to a client. What is the most common reaction related to this method of administration? a. Nausea B. Thrombocytopenia C. Pain during administration D. Phlebitis

To prevent viral infections, what precaution should the general public take? A. Wear masks. B. Use intermittent hand hygiene. C. Wear personal protective equipment. D. Become vaccinated against prevalent virus infections.

What organ system is responsible for the excretion of cefotaxime sodium from the body? a. gastrointestinal B. hepatic C. respiratory D. renal

What potential adverse reaction is most likely to develop during cefazolin therapy? a. dry skin and pruritus B. orthostatic hypotension C. drowsiness D. gastrointestinal upset

When administering the fusion protein inhibitor enfuvirtide, the nurse should include which technique to assure the medication's continued effectiveness? A. Have the client gargle with normal saline immediately after taking the drug. B. Flush the client's central venous catheter with 100 Unit/mL heparin prior to administration. C. Inject the drug into the client's ventrogluteal site using the Z-track method. d.Regularly rotate the subcutaneous injection sites that are used.

A nurse is preparing to administer a client's first scheduled dose of tetracycline. The nurse should first ensure that the client has not recently eaten what type of foods? A. dairy products B. leafy green vegetables C. any high-fat foods D. acidic foods -

dairy products

A patient has been prescribed a tetracycline drug for Rocky Mountain spotted fever. The patient also takes antacids. Which of the following effects is likely to occur due to an interaction between the two drugs? A. Increased risk of bleeding B. Increased action of neuromuscular-blocking drugs C. Increased profound respiratory depression D. Decreased absorption of tetracycline -

decreased absorption of tetracycline

A female client administers diphenhydramine to her 9-year-old male child, who experiences seasonal allergies, before his first baseball game. What may the child experience if he has a paradoxical effect to the medication? Poor reflexes Exacerbation of allergic symptoms Decreased mental alertness Hyperactivity

decreased mental alertness

What intervention should be included in the care plan of a client experiencing excessive respiratory tract secretions? deep breathing and coughing exercises administration of guaifenesin supplemental oxygen by nasal prongs administration of pseudoephedrine

deep breathing and coughing exercises With excessive respiratory tract secretions, mechanical measures (e.g., coughing, deep breathing, ambulation, chest physiotherapy, forcing fluids) are more likely to be effective than expectorant drug therapy. Research studies do not support guaifenesin's overall effectiveness, and many authorities do not recommend its use. Pseudoephedrine is not an expectorant, and supplemental oxygen will not loosen secretions.

Before administering a mucolytic drug to a client with an upper respiratory infection, which would the nurse need to assess? Degree of dyspnea Evidence of productive cough Therapeutic effectiveness Frequency of coughing

degree of dyspnea

A client prescribed codeine for a persistent, debilitating cough tells the nurse, "I was sure that codeine was a narcotic that people take for pain." The nurse should cite what mechanism of action when describing this use of codeine? vasodilation of the alveolar capillaries stimulation of the reticular activating system (RAS) desensitization of the cough receptors in the sinuses and trachea depression of the cough center in the medulla oblongata

depression of the cough center in the medulla oblongata

A client diagnosed with asthma is being prescribed a leukotriene receptor antagonist as part of their mediation therapy. The nurse should encourage the client to report incidence of what events as possible adverse effects of the new medication? Select all that apply.

diarrhea headache fever muscle aches

An adult client has reported experiencing a dry mouth and urinary retention after several nights of taking an over-the-counter (OTC) sleep aid. The nurse should suspect that this medication contains what antihistamine? promethazine diphenhydramine loratadine olopatadine

diphenhydramine

What medication should be prescribed to minimize the risk associated with a blood transfusion for a client with a history of a previous transfusion reaction? diphenhydramine cetirizine epinephrine clemastine

diphenhydramine

A client with an upper respiratory infection has been prescribed macrolides. Which changes during an ongoing assessment would lead the nurse to notify the health care provider? Select all that apply. A. drop in blood pressure B. increase in respiratory rate C. sudden increase in temperature D. regular urine output E. pulse rate within usual parameters -

drop in blood pressure increase in RR sudden increase in temperature

A client is allergic to penicillin and has been diagnosed with a genitourinary infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Which medication will most likely be administered? A. acamprosate calcium B. atazanavir C. erythromycin D. flumazenil -

erythromycin

Which medication is the drug of choice for Legionnaires disease? A. erythromycin B. loxapine hydrochloride C. meclizine D. pravastatin -

erythromycin

The pharmacology instructor is discussing the adverse effects of diphenhydramine. Which is not one of these effects? Dry mouth Excessive salivation Blurred vision Drowsiness

excessive salivation

What is considered a possible trigger for an asthma attack? Select all that apply.

exercise allergens pollutants cigarette smoke

What is the chemical mediator released in immune and inflammatory response to allergic reactions? mast cells norepinephrine histamine epinephrine

histamine

Adrenergics are a category of bronchodilators used in the treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In what conditions is cautious use of these drugs recommended? Select all that apply.

hypertension seizure disorders diabetes mellitus

A client is admitted to the unit. The nurse knows that the client is at high risk for infection. What factors predispose the client to infection? (Mark all that apply.) A. Impaired blood supply B. Hypertension C. Suppression of immune system D. Advanced age E. Decreased amalyse levels -

impaired blood supply suppression of immune system advanced age

To help liquefy cold-related secretions, the nurse should encourage the client to implement which measure? reducing salt intake deep breathing and exercises gargling with normal saline increasing fluid intake

increase fluid intake

Which nursing diagnosis would provide the clearest indication for the administration of inhaled acetylcysteine? impaired tissue perfusion risk for infection ineffective breathing pattern ineffective airway clearance

ineffective airway clearance Acetylcysteine reduces the viscosity of mucous secretions with the ultimate goal of allowing the client to establish and maintain a clear airway. This drug does not directly influence the pattern of breathing

When describing how tetracyclines treat infection, the nurse would incorporate which information into the description? A. inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis B. inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis C. inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase D. depolarizing the bacterial cell wall -

inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is primarily administered by which route when being used to thin secretion? (Select all that apply.) Instilled into a tracheostomy Rectally Inhalation Orally Parenterally

instilled into a tracheostomy inhalation

A 78-year-old female, who lives alone and is forgetful, is being seen by her home health nurse. In reviewing the patient's medication the nurse discovers that the patient is taking azithromycin (Zithromax) for urethritis. Why would this be a good choice of antibiotics for this patient? A. The half-life of the drug is 3 to 7 hours. B. It is taken only once a day. C. It has very few adverse effects. D. It can be given without consideration to drug-drug- interactions. -

it is taken only once a day

In which condition present in the client should macrolides be used with caution? A. Glaucoma B. Liver dysfunction C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypertension -

liver dysfunction

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about fluoroquinolones. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they identify which as an example? A. metronidazole B. ciprofloxacin C. levofloxacin D. gemifloxacin -

metronidazole

Which nursing action is most important in achieving successful antimicrobial therapy with vancomycin? A. Provide maximum physical comfort to the client. B. Monitor serum drug level. C. Taper down the drug dosage gradually. D. Promote adequate intake of fluids and nutrients. -

monitor serum drug level

A nurse has administered demeclocycline to a patient. Which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse closely monitor the patient for? A. Photosensitivity B. Abdominal pain C. Cramping D. Blood dyscrasias -

photosensitivity

Aminoglycosides fight infection by interfering with what process within the causative bacterium? A. Protein synthesis B. DNA synthesis C. Cell wall synthesis D. Drainage -

protein synthesis

A male client presents to the health care provider's office with reports of inability to breathe freely. When the nurse reviews his use of over-the-counter medications, it is discovered that the client routinely uses nasal spray three times a day for 1 year. The nurse knows that what may be causing this client's continuous nasal congestion? Rebound nasal swelling Damage of the nasal concha Chronic nasal polyps Burning of the nares secondary to chronic use of nasal sprays

rebound nasal swelling

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV aminoglycosides for an intractable infection in one leg. What would it be important for the nurse to monitor for? A. Visual disturbances B. Liver dysfunction C. Serum glucose levels D. Renal dysfunction -

renal dysfunction

A nurse is speaking to a 62-year-old female client who has been started on sulfisoxazole, a sulfonamide antibiotic. The nurse should teach this client to contact the health care provider if the client experiences what adverse effect associated with the drug? A. polydipsia B. tachycardia C. skin rash or itching D. dizziness -

skin rash or itching

A client has been diagnosed with osteomyelitis and has been prescribed clindamycin, a narrow spectrum antibiotic. When planning this client's care, the nurse should understand that A. the microorganism causing the infection is likely known. B. the client likely has compromised immune function. C. broad spectrum antibiotics were likely administered without success. D. the care team wished to reduce the client's risk of adverse effects. -

the microorganism causing the infection is likely known.

Expectorants elicit their effect by which mechanism? Breaking down thick mucus in the lower lungs Thinning respiratory secretions Depressing the cough center in the brain Anesthetizing stretch receptors in the respiratory passages

thin respiratory secretions

An older adult client is assessed in the clinic for signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis related to pneumococci. Which sulfonamides will most likely be prescribed? A. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole B. tetracycline C. doxycycline D. demeclocycline -

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

A client's risk for ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neurotoxicity increases dramatically if he or she receives an aminoglycoside in conjunction with a potent diuretic. True False -

true

According to the National Asthma Education and Prevention Program (NAEPP) Expert Panel Guidelines, a client prescribed a short-acting beta2 agonist may take this medication how often during an acute exacerbation of asthmatic symptoms?

up to three treatments at 20-minute intervals

A patient has been diagnosed with trichomoniasis. Before the client begins tinidazole therapy, the nurse should learn about the client's A. working conditions. B. use of alcohol. C. recent visit to a beach or desert. D. possibly having AIDS. -

use of alcohol

When the use of antihistamines result in dryness of the mouth, the nurse should recommend which to relieve the dryness? Select all that apply. Suck on sugarless hard candy. Offer ice chips. Take frequent sips of water. Administer intravenous fluid bolus. Use a dehumidifier in the home.

• Offer ice chips. • Take frequent sips of water. • Suck on sugarless hard candy

pharm unit 4 prep

Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Accounting Chapter 2

Headache

BADM 460

finance ch.15

Ch. 21

Section 9: Purchase and Sale Agreements - quiz

Neuro 3 Final

USF Genetics Exam 2

MGT. Chp.4

Marketing Chapter 4

Fundamental 1

PUCH64 PARTI

Econ Ch. 1 Quiz

ART 383: Final Exam

Microsoft Office/Word

9-2-2018 Roula Zochiou

Supersize Me

Module 6/7: Chapter 38 Quiz D2L

Lab 43

Chapter 6-Prejudice, Stereotyping, and Discrimination