Pharmacology Hesi #1

Uses: treats TB No: alcohol, oral contraceptives are less effective Side effects: orange stool, urine, liver functions

Rifampin

Common side effects: electrolyte imbalances, orthostatic hypotension High risk patients: kidney failure, patients taking digoxin

Furosemide, Torsemide Loop Diuretics

Bismuth subsalicylate

A client experiencing diarrhea asks the nurse about over-the-counter (OTC) antidiarrheals. Which OTC should not be taken with aspirin?

a. take 2 pills a day for 2 days and use an alternate method of contraception for 7 days

A client calls the clinic and states that she forgot to take her oral contraceptives for the past two days. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide to this client? a. Take 2 pills a day for 2 days and use an alternate method of contraception for 7 days. b. Quit the pills for this cycle, use an alternate method of contraception, and resume pills on the fifth day of menstruation. c. Take one extra pill per day for the rest of this cycle, then resume taking pills as usual next cycle. d. Take 4 pills now and use an alternate method of contraception for the rest of this cycle.

a. high dose methylprednisolone intravenously

A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is experiencing profound weakness, blurry vision, and shooting pains in both legs. Which medication is considered the best course of treatment for the nurse to administer? a. High dose methylprednisolone intravenously. b. Baclofen three times a day. c. Broad spectrum antibiotic coverage orally. d. Immunomodulatory drug therapy periodically.

d. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland

A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that the action of this drug is to: A. decrease the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood. B. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood. C. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid. D. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland

a. serum liver enzymes Concomminent use of gemfibrozil and statins can cause muscle weakness and wasting known as myopathy, which is reflected in serum liver function enzymes, such as elevated serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST or SGOT) that is also found in skeletal muscle.

A client prescribed a statin and gemfibrozil (Lopid) for hyperlipidemia reports an onset of muscle pain and weakness. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to evaluate? a. Serum liver enzymes. b. T3 and T4 blood levels. c. Bowel function. d. Peripheral sensation.

c. creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL

A client prescribed cyclosporine for the past nine months to prevent renal allograft rejection has a blood urea nitrogen level of 36 mg/dL. Which additional finding should the nurse notify the healthcare provider? a. Hemoglobin level of 16.8 g/dL. b. White blood cell count level of 10,000. c. Creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL. d. Potassium of 4.2 mEq/L.

c. proceed to the closest emergency room A dark, swollen, and painful leg is consistent with deep vein thrombosis (DVT), an adverse effect of danazol, so the client should be instructed to seek immediate emergency care.

A client prescribed danazol (Danocrine) for endometriosis calls the clinic nurse and reports having a dark, swollen, and painful leg. Which instructions should the nurse provide the client? a. Wear support stockings. b. Elevate both legs and apply heat. c. Proceed to the closest emergency room. d. Walk for 20 to 30 minutes to reduce the pain and edema.

c. potassium The client's serum potassium levels should be evaluated before administered digoxin because furosemide can cause hypokalemia which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity and cardiac arrhythmias.

A client prescribed furosemide for the past six months is scheduled to receive digoxin for heart failure. Which laboratory serum levels should the nurse review before administering the digoxin? a. Calcium. b. Magnesium. c. Potassium. d. Furosemide.

a. withhold medication and report symptoms and vital signs to healthcare provider

A client prescribed ipratropium reports nausea, blurred vision, headaches, and insomnia after using the inhaler. Which action should the nurse implement first? a. Withhold medication and report symptoms and vital signs to healthcare provider. b. Give PRN medication for nausea and vomiting and evaluate client in 30 minutes. c. Reassure client that the ipratropium given will alleviate the symptoms. d. Delay administration of ipratropium until next maintenance medication is scheduled.

c. tremors and muscle twitching

A client prescribed risperidone 10 mg/day for the past three months is being admitted to the hospital. Which physical assessment findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? a. Anorexia. b. Drowsiness and lethargy. c. Tremors and muscle twitching. d. Dry mouth, and constipation.

a. rash Side effects of sulfisoxazole include possible allergic response manifested by skin rash and itching that can progress to Stevens-Johnson syndrome, erythema multiforme, a severe hypersensitivity reaction.

A client prescribed sulfisoxazole for a urinary tract infection (UTI) reports nausea and gastric upset since starting the medication. Which additional assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately? a. Rash. b. Diarrhea. c. Hematuria. d. Muscle cramping.

c. renal artery stenosis

A client receives a new prescription for an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which client history contraindicates its use? a. Asthma. b. Heart failure. c. Renal artery stenosis. d. Coronary artery disease.

c. avoid dairy products for 2 hours after taking the medication

A client receives a prescription for tetracycline (Sumycin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching? a. Take the medication with a glass of orange juice. b. Avoid over-the-counter medications containing alcohol. c. Avoid diary products for 2 hours after taking the medication. d. Do not use teeth whitening agents during the treatment regimen

a. whisper test The most serious adverse effect of vancomycin is ototoxicity, which often causes irreversible, permanent impairment. So, a whisper test determines the presence of early hearing impairment.

A client who is diagnosed with methillicin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus receives a prescription for vancomycin (Vancocin). Which assessment should the nurse perform to identify a potential adverse effect? a. Whisper test. b. Romberg test. c. Tactile discrimination. d. Skin turgor.

d. take the medication when consuming food

A client with chronic pancreatitis receives a new prescription for pancrelipase (Pancrease). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in this client's teaching? a. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight. b. Stay away from products containing alcohol. c. Ingest 8 oz of grapefruit juice with the medication. d. Take the medication when consuming food

b. refrain from eating foods high in potassium

A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications? A) Do not add salt to foods during preparation. B) Refrain from eating foods high in potassium. C) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day. D) Increase intake of milk and milk products.

a. loss of balance and dizziness Minocycline (Minocin), a tetracycline antibiotic, is used to treat mild cases of rheumatoid arthritis and can cause damage to the vestibular part of the inner ear, so the client should report dizziness or difficulty maintaining balance.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving a prescription for minocycline (Minocin). Which side effect is most important for the nurse to instruct the client to report? a. Loss of balance and dizziness. b. Nausea and vomiting. c. Headache and mouth sores. d. Abdominal pain and diarrhea.

Salicylate toxicity

A patient enters the emergency room with reports of visual changes, drowsiness, and tinnitus. The patient is confused and hyperventilating. These symptoms may be attributable to:

d. report symptoms of hypothyroidism such as fatigue and constipation

A resident of a long-term care facility is taking lithium carbonate (Eskalith) to treat bipolar disorder. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client's caregivers? a. Offer the morning dose of the medicine before breakfast. b. Have the client chew the pill if it is difficult to swallow. c. Encourage high energy fluid intake by providing sports drinks or sodas. d. Report symptoms of hypothyroidism such as fatigue and constipation

a. titrate the morphine dose upward until the client has adequate pain relief Tolerance can occur in a client who requires large doses of opioids for intractable pain management, and an increased titration of the analgesic or an additional drug in the same or a different classification may provide more effective pain management. The client's basic need for comfort during the last stages of a terminal malignancy is the main priority for this hospice client.

An end-stage terminally ill client being cared for at home is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled pump for intractable cancer pain. When the hospice nurse visits, the client awakens, moans in severe pain, and asks for an increase in the morphine dosage. The client's heart rate is 80 beats/minute, respirations are 10 breaths/minute, and the blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg. Which is the best action for the nurse to implement? a. Titrate the morphine dose upward until the client has adequate pain relief. b. Suggest to the family that they can also give the client ibuprofen, a non-narcotic analgesic. c. Hold additional morphine until the client's respirations are at least 16 per minute. d. Inform the client that an increased dose of morphine increases side effects without additional pain control.

b. administer the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic as soon as possible Based on the blood culture and sensitivity results, the prescribed aminoglycoside antibiotic is the most effective in treating the client's infection, so it should be administered as soon as possible.

Based on the blood culture and sensitivity results, the healthcare provider prescribes an IV aminoglycoside antibiotic and discontinues the current prescription for another broad spectrum antibiotic. The medication administration record indicates that the client received the broad spectrum antibiotic two hours ago. Which action should the nurse implement? a. Obtain peak and trough serum levels so the aminoglycoside antibiotic can be initiated. b. Administer the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic as soon as possible. c. Withhold antibiotic administration until the healthcare provider clarifies the prescriptions. d. Schedule the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic for the following day.

a. bacteria that synthesize vitamin k are not present in the newborn's intestinal tract

The mother of a newborn refuses to have her newborn administer the vitamin K injection. Which information should the nurse provide the mother? a. Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in the newborn's intestinal tract. b. Oral vitamin K impedes the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. c. The maternal diet is often deficient in vitamin K, so the newborn is deficient in the vitamin K. d. The synthesis of vitamin K is inadequate for 3 to 4 months in the newborn.

a. a decrease in blood ammonia levels Colonic bacteria digest lactulose to create a drug-induced acidic and hyperosmotic environment that draws water and blood ammonia into the colon. The physiologic action of lactulose for the client with hepatic encephalopathy is to lower the pH of the colon which inhibits diffusion of ammonia into the bloodstream.

The nurse administers 30 mL of lactulose for a client with stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment finding would indicate the medication is being therapeutic? a. A decrease in blood ammonia levels. b. A softening in the stools. c. An increase in glucose absorption. d. A suppression of gut acidification.

b. dystonia

The nurse is administering haloperidol 0.5 mg IM PRN to a client for the first time. What side effects should the nurse assess the client for during the initial dose? a. Bradykinesia. b. Dystonia. c. Somatization. d. Akathisia.

Glaucoma

The nurse is reviewing the history of a patient who is to receive midodrine. Which would alert the nurse to a contraindication for the drug?

a. it facilitates the transport of glucose to the cells

The nurse is teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes about neutral protamine Hagedor (NPH) insulin. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of how the medication works? a. It facilitates the transport of glucose into the cells. b. It stimulates the function of beta cells in the pancreas. c. It increases the intracellular receptor site sensitivity. d. It delays the carbohydrate digestion and absorption.

a. consumption of any alcohol or tyramine-rich foods

The nurse reviews the new prescription, phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), for a client with depression on the psychiatric unit. Which information is most important for the nurse to assess? a. Consumption of any alcohol or tyramine-rich foods. b. Reports of nausea or vomiting. c. Therapeutic serum drug levels. d. Blood pressure and pulse prior to taking each dose.

c. take within 30 to 60 min of sexual stimulation d. report rebound priapism that occurs for 4 hours or more e. can cause facial flushing and headache

What teaching should the nurse provide a client who has received a new prescription for sildenafil (Viagra)? (Select all that apply.) a. Frequent use can lead to the development of hypertension. b. Most effective if taken after at least 6 hours of REM sleep. c. Take within 30 to 60 minutes of sexual stimulation. d. Report rebound priapism that occurs for 4 hours or more. e. Can cause facial flushing and headache.

c. irregular apical pulse with a rate of 87

When assessing a client prior to the administration of digoxin (Lanoxin, APO-Digoxin), which data is most important for the nurse to consider? a. Presence of a grade 2 murmur. b. Nailbed capillary refill of 5 seconds. c. Irregular apical pulse with a rate of 87. d. Bilateral lower extremity dependent rubor.

a. tinnitus and hearing loss

Which findings should the nurse identify in an adult client with possible chronic salicylate intoxication? a. Tinnitus and hearing loss. b. Photosensitivity and nervousness. c. Acute gastrointestinal bleeding and anorexia. d. Hyperventilation and central nervous system effects

a. mood swings c. increased weight gain e. delayed incisional wound healing f. serum hemoglobin level of 9mg/dl

Which side effects should the nurse monitor for a client who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) following neurosurgery? (Select all that apply.) a. Mood swings. b. Decreased appetite. c. Increased weight gain. d. Serum glucose level of 65 mg/dl. e. Delayed incisional wound healing. f. Serum hemoglobin level of 9 mg/dl.

b. closed angle glaucoma c. chronic hypertension

While reviewing the client's electronic medical record (EMR), the nurse assesses a client who is at risk for a possible interaction with an over-the-counter (OTC) decongestant. Which client health history should the nurse report to the healthcare provider concerning the OTC medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Type I diabetes mellitus (DM). b. Closed angle glaucoma. c. Chronic hypertension. d. Rheumatoid arthritis. e. Crohn's disease.

b. the medication stimulates fetal surfactant production

A client at 30-weeks gestation in labor receives two 12 mg doses of betamethasone intramuscularly 12 hours apart. The client asks the nurse why she is receiving the betamethasone. Which explanation should the nurse give the client? a. The medication suppresses uterine contractions. b. The medication stimulates fetal surfactant production. c. The medication reduces maternal and fetal tachycardia. d. The medication maintains adequate maternal respiratory effort.

c. vaginal bleeding or spotting

A client is administered an injection of medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera). Which physical finding should the nurse instruct the client is an expected side effect of the medication? a. Leg or calf pain. b. Headaches or visual changes. c. Vaginal bleeding or spotting. d. Jaundice or angioedema.

d. take at same time each day one hour before eating a meal

A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and receives a prescription for esomeprazole (Nexium) 20 mg capsule daily. When providing this client with discharge teaching, the nurse should include which instruction? a. Drink fluids between meals to relieve gastric distress. b. Monitor for an increase in blood pressure during therapy. c. Dissolve capsule contents in fruit juice for easier ingestion. d. Take at same time each day one hour before eating a meal.

a. clarithromycin d. omeprazole e. metronidazole

A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease caused by Helicobacter pylori. Which medications should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe for the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Clarithromycin (Biaxin). b. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin). c. Misoprostol (Cytotec). d. Omeprazole (Prilosec). e. Metronidazole (Flagyl). f. Sucralfate (Carafate).

a. serum glucose

A client is receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 40 mg IV daily. The nurse anticipates an increase in which laboratory value as the result of this medication? A) Serum glucose. B) Serum calcium. C) Red blood cells. D) Serum potassium.

d. works twenty hours a week as a lifeguard at the local pool Cipro can cause both dizziness and photosensitivity. Since the client works as a lifeguard outdoors, measures related to these adverse effects should be addressed.

A client receives a new prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro), a synthetic quinolone. When teaching about this drug, which information in the client's history requires special emphasis by the nurse? a. Snacks on dairy products such as yogurt or ice cream. b. Previously had a mild allergic reaction to a cephalosporin. c. Consumes alcoholic drinks occasionally on the weekends. d. Works twenty hours a week as a lifeguard at the local pool.

b. drink at least 8 glasses of water a day

A client receives a prescription for sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Septra) for a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which instruction should the nurse provide the client? a. Ingest food prior to taking the antibiotic. b. Drink at least 8 glasses of water a day. c. Take the medication with grapefruit juice. d. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.

c. take the medication at least 30 min before eating meals

A client who is recently diagnosised with myasthenia gravis receives a prescription for pyridostigmine (Mestinon), a cholinergic agent. Which information should the nurse instruct the client to implement when taking this medication? a. Always take with meals to avoid gastrointestinal distress. b. Plan the doses close together for maximal therapeutic effect. c. Take the medication at least 30 minutes before eating meals. d. Avoid dairy products two hours before and after taking medications.

d. observe the client for signs of hypersensitivity

A client with Paget's disease is started on calcitonin (Calcimar) 500 mcg subcutaneously daily. During the initial treatment, what is the priority nursing action? a. Assess the injection site for inflammation. b. Evaluate the client's level of pain. c. Monitor the client's alkaline phosphatase levels. d. Observe the client for signs of hypersensitivity.

c. it reduces the inflammation at the affected site

A client with chronic gouty arthritis prescribed allopurinol is experiencing an acute attack of gouty arthritis. The healthcare provider prescribes concurrent low-dose colchicine. Which information should the nurse provide the client that best explains the action of the colchicine? a. It acts like aspirin to relieve pain. b. It facilitates the excretion of uric acid. c. It reduces the inflammation at the affected site. d. It prevents the formation of uric acid crystals.

d. cefotaxime (claforan) provides therapeutic CNS concentrations According to research studies, only third generation cephalosporins such as cefotaxime (Claforan), and ceftazidime have been shown effective in treating bacterial meningitis with the exception of cefuroxime, the only second generation cephalosporin shown to be effective. First generation cephalosporins have not been successful in the treatment of bacterial meningitis. IV administration of these antibiotics are preferred route of administration due to oral administration medication levels tend to be too low to be effective in comparison to parental administration.

A male client with meningitis is prescribed cefotaxime (Claforan) IV and asks the nurse why he cannot receive an oral drug, such as cefaclor (Ceclor) or cefadroxil (Duricef), that he has taken before for infections. How should the nurse respond when considering the actions of cephalosporins? a. Cefazolin (Ancef) is another IV antibiotic that can be prescribed. b. Cefaclor (Ceclor) is a good alternative to suggest to the healthcare provider. c. Cefadroxil (Duricef) is usually prescribed when the IV is discontinued. d. Cefotaxime (Claforan) provides therapeutic CNS concentrations.

increase blood pressure

A nurse in the intensive care unit is caring for a client in shock and has started IV administration of dopamine (Intropin). For a client in shock, dopamine helps to:

allergy to sulfonamides.

A nurse is assigned to care for a patient with arthritis in a health care facility. The patient has been prescribed celecoxib. Celecoxib is contraindicated in clients with:

a. it inhibits the aqueous humor production

A nurse is providing medication education for a client prescribed a beta-blocking agents for treatment of glaucoma. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the mechanism of the medication? a. It inhibits the aqueous humor production. b. It enhances the aqueous humor outflow. c. It increases the intraocular pressure. d. It prevents extraocular infection.

Used: Heart failure & A-fib/flutter Effects: Dysrhythmias, hypotension, AV block, blurred/yellow vision Therapeutic level: 0.5-2 ng/mL

Digoxin use and effects?

Side effects: bradycardia, drowsiness, ventricular dysrhythmias, CHF, exfoliative dermatitis NO ABRUPT DISCONTINUED USE No MAOI's, no NSAID's

Labetalol Class: anti-hypertensive, anit-anginal

celcoxib

The client is concerned about taking NSAIDs for pain due to possible GI upset. The nurse identifies which medication causes the least gastrointestinal distress?

b. eszopiclone (lunesta) 10 miligrams orally at bedtime

The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes a medication for an older adult client who is reporting insomnia, and the HCP instructs the client to return in two weeks. The nurse should question which prescription? a. Zolpidem (Ambien) 10 milligrams orally at bedtime. b. Eszopiclone (Lunesta) 10 milligrams orally at bedtime. c. Temazepam (Restoril) 7.5 milligrams orally at bedtime. d. Ramelteon (Rozerem) 8 milligrams orally at bedtime.

b. the infection is difficult to eradicate and requires prolonged therapy for 3 to 6 months

The healthcare provider prescribes oral antifungal therapy for a client with onychomycosis. Which information should the nurse provide the client? a. A single dose of the oral antifungal agent is usually sufficient to treat the infection. b. The infection is difficult to eradicate and requires prolonged therapy for 3 to 6 months. c. Complete eradicate is important because of the risk of a systemic infection. d. Prolonged therapy provides no benefit and increases the risk of adverse effects

b. rise slowly from a lying position

The nurse is providing medication teaching for a client who recently received a prescription for clozapine (Clozaril). Which instruction should be included in this client's teaching plan? a. Avoid prolonged sun exposure. b. Rise slowly from a lying position. c. Do not eat any aged cheese. d. Take as needed for anxiety.

Wheezing, AV block, hypotension beta 1- heart beta 2- lungs

What are adverse effects of non-selective beta blockers?

Children & pt with chicken pox or the flu. Children can develop Reye's syndrome (swelling of the liver & brain)

Which patients should never be given Aspirin?

a. it will promote rapid tissue healing Esomeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that inhibits gastric acid secretion and promotes the rapid healing of esophageal tissue.

A client newly prescribed esomeprazole for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) asks the nurse how the medication will help. Which is the best explanation to provide the client? a. It will promote rapid tissue healing. b. It will increase gastric emptying. c. It will improve esophageal peristalsis. d. It will neutralize gastric secretions.

c. decreases transmission of pain impulses by altering serotonin and norepinephrine activity at nerve synapses

A client being treated with imipramine, an anti-depressant for chronic cancer pain asks the the nurse, "What is the reason for the antidepressant medication?" Which explanation should the nurse provide the client? a. Increases pain threshold by stimulating opiate receptors in the CNS to release of endogenous enkephalins. b. Decreases perception of pain by blocking opiate receptors in the brain and descending inhibitory nerves. c. Decreases transmission of pain impulses by altering serotonin and norepinephrine activity at nerve synapses. d. Increases pain tolerance through relief of depression by increasing the amounts of norepinephrine in the brain.

c. daily weight gain of 2 pounds

A client is admitted for atrial fibrillation, and the healthcare provider prescribes disopyramide (Norpace). After explaining the action of this antidysrhythmic agent, which complaint should the nurse instruct the client to report? a. Joint pain. b. Dizziness or muscle weakness. c. Daily weight gain of 2 pounds. d. Dry mouth.

a. do not crush the tablet prior to administration

A pediatric client diagnosed with partial seizures receives a prescription for topiramate. Which information should the nurse provide to the child's parents? a. Do not crush the tablet prior to administration. b. Give the medication with 8 oz of orange juice. c. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight. d. Administer the tablet an hour before meals.

hypotension, tinnitus, dysrhythmias, tachycardia, NON PRODUCTIVE COUGH

ACE inhibitor side effects?

Drugs ending in -PRIL (benazopril, enalapril, lisinopril) Uses: hypertension, HF, left ventricular dysfunction

ACE inhibitors and what are they used for?

• Salicylates • Ranitidine • Metronidazole • Cefoxitin

After teaching a group of students about anticoagulants, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following agents as interacting with warfarin that increases the risk of bleeding? Select all that apply.

a. INR of 2 to 3 Recommended INR ranges for clients on warfarin therapy is 2 to 3. Therapeutic anticoagulation using Coumadin should prolong the prothrombin time (PT) by 1.5 to 2 times the control value (a normal value is 10-20 seconds), (or 20% to 30% of the normal value, if percentages are used).

An older client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) PO 2.5 mg twice a day. Which laboratory value should the nurse identify as a therapeutic response of the medication? a. INR of 2 to 3. b. PT of 4 seconds. c. PTT of 20 seconds. d. aPTT of 3 times normal.

Uses: seizures Side effects: Suicidal thoughts, ataxia, diplopia, hypotension, gingival hyperplasia, necrolysis, hepatitis Toxicity s/s: Nystagmus, ataxia, confusion, nauseam slurred speech, dizziness Therapeutic level: 7.5-20 mcg/mL

Phenytoin Drug Class: Antiarrhythimics, Anticonvulsant

Doxycycline, minocycline May cause gray of teeth in children < 8 Do not take if pregnant Take on empty stomach Do not give with milk; photosensitivity

Tetracyclines antibiotic

a. Colchicine

The nurse should withhold which medication if a client reports nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea? a. Colchicine (Mitigare, Colcrys). b. Erythromycin (E-Mycin). c. Naproxen (Aleve, Naprosyn). d. Labetolol (Normodyne).

Uses: High cholesterol Side effects: Abdominal cramps, constipation, heartburn, pancreatitis, Rhabdomyolysis

Uses and side effects of HMG-CoA (statin) drugs?

Very Nice Drugs (verapamil, nifedipine, diltiazem). used for hypertension, angina pectoris, and cardiac dysrhythmias rest are -dipine (amlodipine, nicardipine) Do not take with Grapefruit juice

What are calcium channel blockers used for and what are the common ones?