Pharmacology Prep U: Exam 1

A client has been prescribed 2 tablets of 150 mg isoniazid every day. The available drug is in the form of a 100-mg tablet. To meet the recommended dose, the nurse will administer _______ tablets each time. a) 3 b) 4 c) 1 d) 2

a) 3

Penicillins may trigger an anaphylactic reaction in some clients. Within what period following injection of a penicillin is anaphylaxis most likely to occur? a) 30 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 45 minutes d) 10 minutes

a) 30 minutes

The nurse is preparing to administer medications to some clients. The nurse should question orders for anthelmintics for which clients? a) Pregnant b) With myasthenia gravis c) With clinical depression d) Preadolescents

a) Pregnant

The client is diagnosed with a Candida infection of the mouth. How will the nurse document this finding? a) Thrush b) Ringworm c) Dermatophytes d) Tinea cruris

a) Thrush

The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed mebendazole for a helminth infection. What diagnostic test would the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness the medication? a) stool sample b) blood culture c) anorectal swab d) urine sample

a) stool sample

A client asks why three medications are prescribed to treat his tuberculosis. The nurse informs the client of which reasons? a) To prevent adverse reactions b) To prevent resistance c) To decrease length of drug therapy d) To decrease allergic response of medications

b) To prevent resistance

What would be most important for the nurse to monitor in a client receiving amphotericin B? a) coagulation studies b) complete blood count c) bowel sounds d) respiratory status

b) complete blood count

Viral infections commonly occur in what age group? a) Young children b) Older adults c) All age groups d) Infants

c) All age groups

A 3-year-old child is diagnosed with pinworms. The nurse plans to educate the child's parent about the use of what drug? a) pyrantel b) ivermectin c) mebendazole d) albendazole

c) mebendazole

A client is ordered to receive vancomycin IV. When administering the drug, the nurse would infuse the drug over which time frame? a) 15 minutes b) 30 minutes c) 45 minutes e) 60 minutes

e) 60 minutes

do aminoglycosides treat gram negative or gram positive infections?

gram negative infections

A nursing instructor determines a teaching session about aminoglycosides is successful when the students correctly choose which drugs belonging in this class of drugs? Select all that apply. a) Amikacin b) Amoxicillin c) Vancomycin d) Kanamycin e) Azithromycin

a) Amikacin d) Kanamycin

The client is taking isoniazid (INH). The nurses is teaching the client the importance of understanding that INH can affect which vitamin? a) B6 b) B9 c) B1 d) B2

a) B6

After teaching a group of students about antitubercular therapy, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify which drug as an antitubercular agent? a) dapsone b) rifampin c) isoniazid d) ethambutol

a) dapsone

The pharmacology instructor is discussing drug interactions involving itraconazole. According to the instructor, itraconazole may increase serum levels of a) digoxin. b) rifampin. c) carbamazepine. d) phenytoin.

a) digoxin.

Which of the following drugs are considered to be macrolides? Choose all that apply. a) erythromycin b) azithromycin (Zithromax) c) clarithromycin (Biaxin) d) linezolid (Zyvox) e) metronidazole (Flagyl)

a) erythromycin b) azithromycin (Zithromax) c) clarithromycin (Biaxin)

An adult client who is homeless and has a history of poor adherence to prescribed medical treatment has been diagnosed with a helminthic infection. What drug would best meet this client's medical needs and psychosocial circumstances? a) pyrantel b) mebendazole c) albendazole d) metronidazole

a) pyrantel

Which of the following represents the categories of drugs used to treat viral infection? (Select all that apply.) a) Anti-attachment b) Antiretroviral c) Anti-transcription d) Antireplication e) Antiviral

b) Antiretroviral e) Antiviral

The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with trichomoniasis. What medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed? a) clindamycin b) metronidazole c) rifaximin d) penicillin

b) metronidazole

A 35-year-old man being treated with isoniazid (INH) for exposure to TB has this medical history: diabetes mellitus type 2, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and coronary artery disease. He drinks one to two glasses of wine on the weekend and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. Which adverse reaction should the nurse alert the client to report to his health care provider right away? a) changes in his bowel elimination pattern b) numbness and tingling in his feet c) a slight decrease in his blood glucose levels d) a persistent cough since starting the medication

b) numbness and tingling in his feet

A 32-year-old female client has a urinary tract infection. Her record reveals that she has recently been treated for anemia. The health care provider has indicated that drug therapy for the urinary tract infection will last more than 2 weeks. The most important nursing action will be to: a) measure the urine pH and check if it is acidic. b) obtain a complete blood count to establish baseline values. c) determine whether the client should be given medication orally or parenterally. d) measure the client's blood pressure and heart rate.

b) obtain a complete blood count to establish baseline values.

Several children from a day care have developed pinworms, and the nurse has been brought in to consult. The nurse should tell parents to watch for what sign of possible infection? a) hard stools with visible worms b) perianal itching c) anorexia and upset stomach d) Blood-streaked diarrhea

b) perianal itching

The nurse is teaching a client taking isoniazid. The client also suffers from occasional acid reflux. What should the nurse teach this client about? a) Decreased effectiveness of the antacids b) Increased effectiveness of antacids c) Decreased absorption of isoniazid d) Increased absorption of isoniazid

c) Decreased absorption of isoniazid

Which activity would be appropriate for a nurse to include when teaching a community group about measures to prevent trichinosis? a) Washing hands thoroughly after working with the soil b) Avoiding swimming in bodies of water that may be contaminated c) Ensuring that any pork products are thoroughly cooked d) Protecting oneself from possible insect bites

c) Ensuring that any pork products are thoroughly cooked

A nurse is conducting an in-service presentation for a group of nurses about UTIs and hospitalized clients. When discussing preventive measures, the nurse would prioritize which action as the primary nursing intervention for prevention of UTIs? a) Proper perineal hygiene b) Use of urinary acidifiers c) Hand hygiene d) Routine urinalysis

c) Hand hygiene

A nurse is teaching a client how to properly administer fosfomycin. The nurse determines the session is successful when the client correctly points out they will administer the drug in which manner? a) Administer the drug every 3 hours. b) Dissolve the drug in 90-120 mL of hot water. c) Ingest the drug immediately after mixing with water. d) Administer the drug on an empty stomach.

c) Ingest the drug immediately after mixing with water.

The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effects of erythromycin therapy? a) Headache and fever b) Urticaria and ophthalmic drainage c) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea d) Shortness of breath and sore throat

c) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

The nurse is caring for a client being treated for urosepsis. The client's medication regimen includes phenazopyridine. What outcome best indicates therapeutic effects of this medication? a) The client has two consecutive urine cultures that are negative. b) The client's urine remains free of blood. c) The client reports an absence of urinary burning and pain. d) The client's urine output is ≥ 1,250 mL/24 hours.

c) The client reports an absence of urinary burning and pain.

A nurse works in a community setting and follows clients who have TB. Which clients would likely require the most follow-up from rifampin therapy? a) A new mother who is nursing b) An obese 45-year-old man c) A cancer client d) An HIV-positive client

d) An HIV-positive client

A male client is traveling to a country where malaria is endemic. The nurse suggests that he visit his health care provider and receive a prescription for what medication? a) Tinidazole b) Metronidazole c) Iodoquinol d) Chloroquine

d) Chloroquine

A 13-year-old male patient has been prescribed oral cefuroxime. The patient's parents should ensure that he takes the medication a) immediately upon awakening. b) on an empty stomach. c) between meals. d) with food.

d) with food.

The health care provider is preparing to order rifampin and pyrazinamide for a female client with active tuberculosis. What question should the provider ask this client before confirming this order? a) "Are you pregnant?" b) "Have you ever experienced a miscarriage?" c) "Do you have a family history of diabetes?" d) "Are you allergic to penicillin?"

a) "Are you pregnant?"

Rifaximin (Xifaxan) is effective to treat traveler's diarrhea from which of the following organisms? a) Escherichia coli b) Shigella c) Salmonella d) Campylobacter jejuni

a) Escherichia coli

A client is ordered to receive an antiretroviral agent that is categorized as a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Which drugs would the nurse expect to administer? a) Indinavir b) Nevirapine c) Saquinavir d) Ritonavir

b) Nevirapine

The nurse is assessing a client who has been prescribed treatment with isoniazid. What assessment finding would most likely necessitate contacting the health care provider to recommend discontinuing treatment? a) persistent nausea b) jaundice c) pruritus d) alopecia

b) jaundice

For which clients would treatment with acyclovir be most clearly indicated? a) A 2-month-old infant brought to the emergency department with signs of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) b) A man who contracted hepatitis A virus (HAV) while on a tropical vacation c) A 44-year-old intravenous drug user who has been diagnosed with hepatitis C virus (HCV) d) A 77-year-old whose recent debilitating pain has been attributed to a herpes zoster infection

d) A 77-year-old whose recent debilitating pain has been attributed to a herpes zoster infection

A nurse is preparing to administer phenazopyridine to a client. To help promote maximum effectiveness, the nurse should prioritize which time to administer this drug? a) Before meals b) At bedtime c) Around the clock d) After meals

d) After meals

A parent has informed the nurse that she has been applying an OTC antifungal to her infant's buttocks and perineal region. What question related to safety should the nurse ask the parent? a) "Are there any open wounds on the areas where you're putting the ointment?" b) "Did you take any antifungal medications while you were pregnant?" c) "Did you explore any herbal or alternative remedies before starting to use this ointment?" d) "Does your infant have any food allergies that you're aware of yet?"

a) "Are there any open wounds on the areas where you're putting the ointment?"

A client has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and been prescribed a topical antifungal medication. What assessment question should the nurse ask when addressing the possible etiology of the fungal infection? a) "Have you been prescribed any antibiotics in the recent past?" b) "Have you received any vaccinations in the past few weeks?" c) "When was the last time you visited a hospital or clinic?" d) "Were you prone to acne when you were younger?"

a) "Have you been prescribed any antibiotics in the recent past?"

A client has been prescribed tinidazole for the treatment of a protozoal infection. What statement by the client indicates to the nurse that further teaching is warranted? a) "I like to have a small glass of white wine each evening to unwind." b) "Even though I'm not feeling well, I'll likely have to work long hours for the next couple of weeks." c) "I got an allergic reaction to penicillin when I was given it as a child." d) "I've taken a thyroid supplement every day for years."

a) "I like to have a small glass of white wine each evening to unwind."

The nurse is providing health education for a client who has been prescribed atovaquone (Malarone) prior to leaving on a tropical vacation. The nurse should state: a) "You'll have to take this drug each day, starting before you leave on your trip." b) "It's a good idea to create an alert on your phone so you remember to take it each week." c) "Make sure to stop taking the drug immediately if you experience any side effects." d) "This won't prevent you from getting malaria, but if you do get infected you'll recover much quicker."

a) "You'll have to take this drug each day, starting before you leave on your trip."

The nurse at an overseas military base supervises the care of hundreds of clients who are service members receiving antimalarial prophylaxis. Which client should the nurse prioritize for referral to the provider? a) A client who reports feeling dizzy several times per day while taking the medication b) A client who says that the medication causes him to lose his appetite c) A client who describes pruritis since beginning prophylaxis d) A client who expresses skepticism about the effectiveness of prophylaxis

a) A client who reports feeling dizzy several times per day while taking the medication

A pediatric nurse is caring for a 4 year-old child who has been diagnosed with the most common childhood helminthic disease in the United States. The nurse should anticipate what intervention? a) A three-day course of mebendazole b) A single dose of ivermectin c) A single dose of metronidazole d) Watchful waiting, with a focus on monitoring liver function

a) A three-day course of mebendazole

The nurse is completing a preadministration assessment on a client with tuberculosis who is to start pyrazinamide. The nurse should question giving this drug after discovering which factor in the client's medical record? a) Acute gout b) Age younger than 13 years c) Diabetic retinopathy d) Cataracts

a) Acute gout

A client has been diagnosed with malaria and will begin treatment promptly. How can the nurse best attack the Plasmodium protozoa at the different stages of its life cycle? a) Administer combination therapy as prescribed b) Supplement chloroquine with antifungal medications as prescribed c) Vary administration times throughout the course of treatment d) Administer larger doses in the morning and smaller ones in the evening, as prescribed

a) Administer combination therapy as prescribed

A patient is required to be administered vancomycin for treatment of an abdominal abscess. What should the nurse ensure when monitoring the IV infusion of vancomycin in the patient when caring for him? a) Administer each dose over 60 minutes. b) Report an increase in blood pressure. c) Report increase in the urinary output. d) Observe for signs of headache.

a) Administer each dose over 60 minutes.

The nurse examines the medication history of a client scheduled to receive moxifloxacin. The nurse should contact the health care provider before giving this drug if the client is already taking which drug? Select all that apply. a) Amiodarone b) Glyburide c) Sotalol d) Procainamide e) Ibuprofen

a) Amiodarone c) Sotalol d) Procainamide

A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the penicillin which has just been prescribed. With which drugs will the nurse explain that penicillin can be taken without regard to meals? Select all that apply. a) Amoxicillin b) Ampicillin c) Penicillin V d) Amoxicillin/clavulanate e) Carbenicillin indanyl

a) Amoxicillin c) Penicillin V

A nursing instructor is preparing a class about cephalosporins for a group of nursing students. When describing progression from first-generation to fourth-generation cephalosporins, which of the following would the instructor include as the result? Select all that apply. a) An increase in the sensitivity of gram-negative microorganisms b) A decrease in the sensitivity of gram-negative microorganisms c) An increase in the sensitivity of gram-positive microorganisms d) A decrease in the sensitivity of gram-positive microorganisms e) An increase in the sensitivity of viral microorganisms

a) An increase in the sensitivity of gram-negative microorganisms d) A decrease in the sensitivity of gram-positive microorganisms

A client has presented to the campus medical clinic reporting vaginal itching and burning accompanied by yellowish discharge. The client is diagnosed with trichomoniasis and prescribed metronidazole 250 mg PO t.i.d. What health education should the nurse provide? a) Avoid drinking alcohol until treatment is complete. b) Avoid sunlight, or wear effective sunscreen, during treatment. c) Avoid grapefruit juice until at least 48 hours after treatment is complete. d) Limit intake of high-potassium foods while taking metronidazole.

a) Avoid drinking alcohol until treatment is complete

Tetracyclines are generally contraindicated in pregnant women because of what effects? (Select all that apply.) a) Cause fatal hepatic necrosis in the mother. b) Cause renal impairment in the mother. c) Cause renal impairment in the fetus. d) Interfere with bone and tooth development in the fetus. e) Decrease brain development in the fetus.

a) Cause fatal hepatic necrosis in the mother. d) Interfere with bone and tooth development in the fetus.

The nurse is preparing to administer an antiviral drug to a client. Which factors would the nurse include in the preadministration assessment? Select all that apply. a) Client's general state of health b) Blood glucose levels c) Resistance to infection d) Electrocardiogram findings e) Vital signs

a) Client's general state of health c) Resistance to infection e) Vital signs

The nurse is assessing a client who is in the military and who will leave in two weeks for a tour in an area where malaria is endemic. The client has been given a prescription by the provider reading "Chloroquine 300 mg PO weekly starting now and until four weeks after returning home." What is the nurse's best action? a) Confirm the client's knowledge of the medication regimen. b) Contact the provider to question the frequency of administration. c) Contact the provider to question the dose. d) Assess the client for signs and symptoms of latent malaria.

a) Confirm the client's knowledge of the medication regimen.

A client who takes zinc daily is diagnosed with a severe infection and is ordered levofloxacin (Levaquin). The nurse is aware that taking these two drugs may have what affect on the antibiotic? a) Decreased absorption b) Increased absorption c) Increased elimination d) Decreased elimination

a) Decreased absorption

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is prescribed ceftriaxone. What should the nurse identify as common adverse effects associated with this drug? a) Diarrhea and nausea b) Headache and dizziness c) Lethargy and paresthesias d) Superinfections and phlebitis

a) Diarrhea and nausea

A 49-year-old farmer who normally enjoys good health has become seriously ill in recent days and the results of an extensive diagnostic work up have resulted in a diagnosis of histoplasmosis. The patient has been admitted to the hospital and has begun treatment with amphotericin B. The nurse who is providing care for the patient should prioritize which of the following diagnostic results during his course of treatment? a) Electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen, and creatinine b) Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cells c) PT, PTT, and platelets d) C-reactive protein

a) Electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen, and creatinine

A client with a fungal infection has been prescribed ketoconazole 250 mg PO daily. The client reports nausea and anorexia the day after starting the medication. What is the nurse's best action? a) Encourage the client to try eating small, frequent meals rather than three larger meals b) Have the client withhold the next scheduled dose and come be assessed by the provider c) Collaborate with the care provider to obtain a prescription for ondansetron d) Educate the client about the fact that this adverse effect usually resolves within 72 hours

a) Encourage the client to try eating small, frequent meals rather than three larger meals

A client has been diagnosed with candidemia and has just been prescribed anidulafungin. What is the nurse's best action? a) Establish reliable intravenous access b) Teach the client that urine will by cytotoxic during treatment c) Implement strategies for preventing diarrhea d) Assess the client's baseline level of cognition

a) Establish reliable intravenous access

Which of the following classes of antibiotics is a direct inhibitor of DNA synthesis in bacteria? a) Fluoroquinolones b) Penicillins c) Macrolides d) Ketolides

a) Fluoroquinolones

Penicillins are more effective when used on infections caused by what organism? a) Gram-positive bacteria b) Gram-negative viruses c) Gram-negative bacteria d) Fungi

a) Gram-positive bacteria

Jeff's mother tells you that she finds it difficult to give ritonavir solution to him. Jeff is an 8-year-old boy suffering from HIV infection. Your advice is to combine the drug with chocolate milk, which will mask its bitter taste. Which of the following actions is important for Jeff's mother to learn? a) Have Jeff drink the milk with the drug within 1 hour of mixing. b) Keep the milk with the drug at room temperature. c) Refrigerate the milk and the drug. d) Drink the milk with the drug before bedtime.

a) Have Jeff drink the milk with the drug within 1 hour of mixing.

Retroviruses are often treated with a regiment of multiple antiretroviral drugs. What is this therapy called? a) Highly active antiretroviral therapy b) Highly effective antiretroviral therapy c) Multi-viral drug therapy for retroviruses d) Multiple medication antiviral treatment plan

a) Highly active antiretroviral therapy

A pharmacology student is learning about amphotericin B. This drug can be administered via which route? a) IV b) IM c) SQ d) IF

a) IV

The patient receiving IV acyclovir should be monitored for which adverse reaction? a) Increased BUN and creatinine levels b) Decrease in white blood cell count c) Decrease in platelet count d) Decrease in magnesium level

a) Increased BUN and creatinine levels

A 58-year-old with HIV is starting treatment with Combivir. He currently has a CD4+ cell count of less than 200 cells/mL and a viral load greater than 45,000 copies/mL. The nurse treating the client knows that what is a sign of effective drug therapy? a) Increased CD4+ cell counts b) Decreased CD4+ cell counts c) Increased red blood cell count d) Decreased creatinine clearance

a) Increased CD4+ cell counts

The nurse is administering penicillin to a client who has strep throat. Which of the following statements accurately describe the action of penicillin? a) It is effective against gram-positive organisms b) It is not effective against gram-negative organisms c) It has many side effects, especially in large doses d) It is metabolized in the liver

a) It is effective against gram-positive organisms

Which of the following are examples of fluoroquinolones? Select all that apply. a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) b) Amoxicillin (Amoxil) c) Cephalexin (Keflex) d) Spectinomycin (Trobicin) e) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) e) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

A patient with chronic hepatitis B (HBV) infection is scheduled to begin a new treatment regimen that will include adefovir dipivoxil. What assessments should be prioritized before the initiation of this drug treatment? a) Liver function testing and HIV testing b) Complete blood count and prothrombin time (PT) c) Pulmonary function testing and echocardiogram d) Cardiac stress test and blood cultures

a) Liver function testing and HIV testing

What serious adverse effect is most associated with amphotericin B? a) Nephrotoxicity b) Hypovolemia c) Cardiogenic shock d) Septic shock

a) Nephrotoxicity

A nurse is preparing to administer famciclovir to a client with a herpes virus infection. The nurse should expect to administer this drug by which route? a) Oral b) Subcutaneous c) Intramuscular d) Intravenous

a) Oral

A nurse is preparing to administer primaquine therapy to a client. The nurse should anticipate administering the drug by which route? a) Oral b) Subcutaneous c) Inhalation d) Intramuscular

a) Oral

Cephalosporins are structurally and chemically related to which classes of antibiotics? a) Penicillins b) Fluoroquinolones c) Aminoglycosides d) Tetracyclines

a) Penicillins

An HIV-positive client in a continuing phase of TB has shown no positive sputum results for 6 months. The nurse is aware that the second phase can last 4 months or more under which circumstances? a) Positive sputum culture after the completion of initial treatment b) Inclusion of pyrazinamide in the initial treatment c) Following the same eating habits in the continuing phase d) Nausea or vomiting after completing the initial treatment

a) Positive sputum culture after the completion of initial treatment

A client is to receiving levofloxacin. Which should be included in the client's teaching? Select all that apply. a) Report fever to the prescriber. b) Report diarrhea to the prescriber. c) Report changes in vision to the prescriber. d) Report increased appetite to the prescriber. e) Report creamy white, lace like patches on the tongue, mouth, or throat to the prescriber.

a) Report fever to the prescriber. b) Report diarrhea to the prescriber. e) Report creamy white, lace like patches on the tongue, mouth, or throat to the prescriber.

The nurse is caring for a child with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which drug should the nurse expect the pediatrician to order? a) Ribavirin b) Rimantadine c) Zanamivir d) Oseltamivir

a) Ribavirin

A patient has been prescribed oral tetracycline for the treatment of acne. Which of the following must the nurse include in the patient teaching plan? a) Take the drug on an empty stomach. b) Take the drug along with a meal. c) Take the drug along with milk or fruit juice. d) Take the drug immediately after meals.

a) Take the drug on an empty stomach.

A client has made an appointment at a travel clinic seeking antimalarial prophylaxis. What aspect of the client health is most likely to contraindicate the use of antimalarials? a) The client drinks eight to ten alcoholic drinks per day. b) The client has an confirmed allergy to contrast solution. c) The client is morbidly obese. d) The client has poorly controlled type 2 diabetes

a) The client drinks eight to ten alcoholic drinks per day.

An older adult client has been diagnosed with candidiasis and prescribed fluconazole. What aspect of the client's health status should warrant close monitoring by the nurse? a) The client has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin daily b) The client has hypothyroidism and takes levothyroxine daily c) The client adheres strictly to a vegetarian diet d) The client has a low body mass index

a) The client has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin daily

A client tells the nurse that she has taken several doses of over-the-counter fluconazole to treat a "yeast infection." When assessing the client's risk for drug toxicity, what aspect of the client's health status should the nurse prioritize? a) The client has decreased renal function following recent pyelonephritis b) The client has type 2 diabetes and takes oral hypoglycemics c) The client has lost over 30 lbs. in the past four months through diet and exercise d) The client experienced a transfusion reaction to packed red blood cells several years ago

a) The client has decreased renal function following recent pyelonephritis

A client is believed to be in the primary infection phase of tuberculosis (TB) infection. Which clinical manifestations would serve to support this assumption? Select all that apply. a) The client has lost 4 pounds(1.8 kg) in the last 2 weeks. b) The client reports, "I always feel so exhausted." c) The client reports, "I can't sleep unless I'm sitting up in a chair." d) The client's oral temperature is 100.2°F (37.9°C). e) The client reports, "I wake up sweating and have to change my night clothes."

a) The client has lost 4 pounds(1.8 kg) in the last 2 weeks. b) The client reports, "I always feel so exhausted." d) The client's oral temperature is 100.2°F (37.9°C). e) The client reports, "I wake up sweating and have to change my night clothes."

A 9-year-old boy was diagnosed with hookworm infection and will be sent home with a prescription for mebendazole. When providing education, the nurse should teach the mother which measures to avoid reinfection following treatment? a) The importance of vigilant hygiene for the client and the other members of the family b) The need for the client to provide serial stool samples for 6 months following treatment c) The need to supplement the anthelminthic drug with prophylactic antibiotics d) The need to use prescription skin cleansers during treatment and for 6 weeks after

a) The importance of vigilant hygiene for the client and the other members of the family

The nurse is providing health education to a client who has recently been diagnosed with HIV and will soon begin antiretroviral therapy. What teaching point should the nurse prioritize? a) The need to adhere rigidly to the prescribed drug schedule b) The need to report diarrhea or nausea to the provider immediately c) The incidence and prevalence of hypersensitivity reactions d) The pathophysiology of the human immunodeficiency virus and its link to drug treatment

a) The need to adhere rigidly to the prescribed drug schedule

The client is receiving ketoconazole. The nurse should be concerned about a drug-drug interaction on the basis of what other co-morbidity? a) Type 2 diabetes b) Chronic pain c) Venous ulcers d) Penicillin allergy

a) Type 2 diabetes

Sulfonamides are commonly used to treat which of the following types of infections? Select all that apply. a) Ulcerative colitis b) Urinary tract infection c) Acute otitis media d) Upper respiratory tract infection e) Osteomyelitis

a) Ulcerative colitis b) Urinary tract infection c) Acute otitis media

After teaching a group of nursing students about the action of penicillins, the instructor determines that the teaching was effective when the students identify natural penicillins as exerting which type of effect on microorganisms? a) bactericidal b) bacteriostatic c) fungicidal d) fungistatic

a) bactericidal

In which clients are the use of cidofovir contraindicated? a) clients with renal impairment b) clients with cardiac disease c) clients with low blood cell counts d) clients with history of epilepsy

a) clients with renal impairment

A nurse is providing care to a client who is receiving a protease inhibitor with a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image related to a redistribution of fat to the abdomen. Which intervention would the nurse include in the client's plan of care? a) encouraging the client to verbalize feelings about body changes b) informing the client that the change is related to the disease and not the drug c) having the client wear protective clothing to prevent further issues d) telling the client that this change indicates the drug is effective

a) encouraging the client to verbalize feelings about body changes

A client diagnosed with malaria has been prescribed treatment with sulfadiazine. The nurse should encourage the client to increase consumption of what dietary component? a) fluids b) proteins c) calories d) vitamin D

a) fluids

A nursing instructor is preparing a teaching plan for a nursing pharmacology class on the action of fluoroquinolones. Which would the instructor include? a) interfering with DNA synthesis in the bacterial cell b) interfering with protein synthesis c) disrupting the bacterial cell wall d) blocking ribosomal reading of mRNA

a) interfering with DNA synthesis in the bacterial cell

The nurse is justified in suspecting that a client who recently completed a course of ceftaroline may have been treated for what health problem? a) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection b) chlamydial infection c) endocarditis d) encephalitis

a) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection

An adult client has been diagnosed with giardiasis and been prescribed a single dose of tinidazole 2000 mg PO. The client has a complex health history and takes metformin, warfarin, furosemide and bisoprolol. The nurse should: a) monitor the client closely for signs of bleeding. b) confirm with the provider whether the client needs a potassium supplement. c) educate the client about the possibility of orthostatic hypotension. d) assess the client's blood glucose q2h for the next 12 hours.

a) monitor the client closely for signs of bleeding.

A client is prescribed mefloquine for malaria prophylaxis prior to a trip to rural Southeast Asia. When should the nurse instruct the client to begin taking the prescribed mefloquine? a) one week prior to travelling b) 24 to 48 hours prior to travelling c) upon arrival in Southeast Asia d) as soon as mosquitoes are noticed

a) one week prior to travelling

A nurse is caring for an older adult client with tuberculosis. The client has been prescribed ethambutol. Which adverse reactions of ethambutol should the nurse assess for? a) optic neuritis b) hypersensitivity c) epigastric distress d) vertigo

a) optic neuritis

An immunocompromised 3-year-old has been exposed to avian flu. The client is brought to the clinic, and the mother reports that the client has had flu-like symptoms for the past 12 hours. What medication should the nurse expect to administer? a) oseltamivir b) amantadine c) ribavirin d) zanamivir

a) oseltamivir

A client diagnosed with streptococcal pharyngitis should be educated concerning which drug? Select all that apply. a) penicillin G b) penicillin V c) amoxicillin d) dicloxacillin e) cephalexin

a) penicillin G b) penicillin V

The nurse is administering a urinary tract drug that exerts a topical analgesic effect on the lining of the urinary tract. Which drug would the nurse likely administer? a) phenazopyridine b) trimethoprim c) amoxicillin d) methenamine

a) phenazopyridine

A public health nurse is educating school nurses about worm infections. The public health nurse should teach the school nurses to expect to encounter what type of worm infection most often? a) pinworms b) roundworms c) threadworms d) whipworms

a) pinworms

A nurse is administering a drug that blocks the protease enzyme so new viral particles cannot mature. Which category of drugs is the nurse administering? a) protease inhibitors b) reverse transcriptase inhibitors c) entry inhibitors d) integrase inhibitors

a) protease inhibitors

What are the major methods associated with the spreading of viral infections? Select all that apply. a) sexual contact b) breaks in skin and mucous membranes c) secretions from infected people d) ingestion of contaminated food or water e) live attenuated vaccines

a) sexual contact b) breaks in skin and mucous membranes c) secretions from infected people d) ingestion of contaminated food or water

A 38-year-old man is being treated for HIV-1 with nevirapine (Viramune). Signs of severe liver dysfunction have been noted by the health care provider and a change in the drug therapy is necessary. The nurse explains to the client that: a) the therapy will be discontinued. b) the drug will be administered three times daily in divided doses. c) the therapy should be reinitiated at half the previous dosage. d) the dose should be escalated over a 2-week period.

a) the therapy will be discontinued.

A client has been prescribed a topical antifungal ointment to treat a fungal infection between her breasts. When providing education about this medication, the nurse should encourage the client to: a) wash and dry the affected area before applying the ointment. b) ensure the affected area is not exposed to sunlight during treatment. c) avoid the use of soap on the affected area until treatment is complete. d) apply the ointment a maximum of every two hours.

a) wash and dry the affected area before applying the ointment.

A client is prescribed metronidazole for the treatment of trichomoniasis. What is the most important information for the nurse to teach the client about proper administration of this medication? a) "Increase your fluid intake while taking this medication." b) "Do not drink alcohol while taking this medication." c) "Take the medication with meals if you have GI irritation." d) "Suck on sugar-free hard candy if you have a dry mouth."

b) "Do not drink alcohol while taking this medication."

A client has been prescribed INH for the treatment of tuberculosis. The nurse teaches the client about dietary restrictions while taking this medication. What is the most important instruction? a) "Avoid excessive caffeine intake because this could increase the side effects of the medication." b) "Do not drink beer or red wine while taking this medication because a serious adverse reaction can occur." c) "Make sure to limit your protein intake, as increased protein delays absorption of the medication." d) "Take the medication with a full glass of water to prevent the mouth from becoming dry during therapy."

b) "Do not drink beer or red wine while taking this medication because a serious adverse reaction can occur."

A client has been prescribed albendazole on an outpatient basis for an anthelmintic infection. After teaching the client about the therapy, which statement by the client indicates effective teaching? a) "Easy bruising or bleeding is normal and needn't be reported." b) "I need to disinfect the bathtub or shower stall immediately after bathing." c) "I should avoid bathing daily if I have problems with my skin." d) "I need to use oral contraceptives while I'm taking this drug."

b) "I need to disinfect the bathtub or shower stall immediately after bathing."

A client has been prescribed mefloquine before embarking on a scientific survey in a malaria endemic area. What should the nurse teach the client about this prophylactic drug regimen? a) "You'll need to keep taking this for about one month after you return." b) "Most people find they have less stomach upset if they take with breakfast each day." c) "Take your first dose on the evening of the day you leave for your trip." d) "Take the minimum dose needed to prevent malaria."

b) "Most people find they have less stomach upset if they take with breakfast each day."

The nurse is providing education to a client who is being treated for scabies. What statement by the client indicates a need for further information concerning the condition? a) "The scabies egg hatches in 4 to 8 days." b) "Scabies can infect my digestive tract." c) "Scabies is caused by something called the 'itch mite.'" d) "These mites burrow into the skin between my fingers."

b) "Scabies can infect my digestive tract."

The nurse is teaching a client and the family about administering pentamidine at home. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a) "I should protect the solution from direct light." b) "The entire treatment should take no more than 15 minutes." c) "I need to dissolve the drug in the correct amount of sterile water." d) "Only the pentamidine solution should go into the nebulizer's reservoir."

b) "The entire treatment should take no more than 15 minutes."

The client has just begun taking metronidazole and calls the clinic to report that her urine has turned very dark. What is the nurse's best response to this client? a) "Please come to the clinic as soon as possible for a urinalysis." b) "This is an expected side effect. Your urine color will return to normal after you stop taking this drug." c) "Go immediately to the emergency department because the medication is causing bleeding from your bladder." d) "If you drink more fluid, your urine will get light in color again."

b) "This is an expected side effect. Your urine color will return to normal after you stop taking this drug."

A nurse is caring for a patient taking erythromycin (E-mycin). The patient reports having difficulty hearing since beginning the drug. What should the nurse tell the patient concerning this? a) "This is very serious and may be permanent." b) "This will be resolved once we stop the drug." c) "You have most likely developed a sinus infection or super infection." d) "You will need to take a second antibiotic for your ear infection."

b) "This will be resolved once we stop the drug."

A client asks the nurse about drinking cranberry juice to prevent UTIs. The nurse informs the client that it is safe to use, suggesting an intake of which amount daily? a) 1-4 ounces b) 4-8 ounces c) 8-12 ounces d) 12-16 ounces

b) 4-8 ounces

A nurse is discussing helminthic infections with the nursing students. How would the nurse explain the action of anthelmintic drugs? a) Destroy the nervous system of the invading worm. b) Act on metabolic pathways that are present in the invading worm. c) Interfere in the reproductive cycle of the invading worm. d) Cause fatal mutations in the DNA of the invading worm.

b) Act on metabolic pathways that are present in the invading worm.

A nurse is caring for a client who asks why she has been prescribed posaconazole following kidney transplantation. The nurse responds that posaconazole is used as prophylaxis to prevent: a) blastomycosis. b) Aspergillus infection. c) mucormycosis. d) coccidioidomycosis.

b) Aspergillus infection.

A client with intestinal amebiasis is preparing for discharge. The nurse will include which instruction when teaching the client about the prescribed metronidazole? a) Take the drug on an empty stomach. b) Avoid intake of alcohol. c) Guard against effects of photosensitivity. d) Take phenobarbital for impaired sleep.

b) Avoid intake of alcohol.

To prevent viral infections, what precaution should the general public take? a) Use intermittent hand hygiene. b) Become vaccinated against prevalent virus infections. c) Wear masks. d) Wear personal protective equipment.

b) Become vaccinated against prevalent virus infections.

The nurse is caring for a client who is HIV positive. What laboratory test is used to determine this client's ability to fight against viral infections? a) BUN b) CD4 c) AST d) RBCs

b) CD4

Tuberculosis caused by drug-resistant organisms should be considered in which clients? Select all that apply: a) Clients who are HIV positive b) Clients who have no response to therapy c) Clients who have been treated in the past d) Clients who have asthma e) Clients who smoke

b) Clients who have no response to therapy c) Clients who have been treated in the past

A client's signs, symptoms, and recent travel history suggest a helminthic infection. What should the nurse do in order to most accurately determine what type of helminth is infecting the client? a) Collect a stool sample for culture and sensitivity. b) Collect a stool sample for ova and parasite. c) Collect blood cultures. d) Review the results of the client's liver function studies.

b) Collect a stool sample for ova and parasite.

A nurse is required to administer an anti-infective drug to a patient. The nurse knows that which of the following tests need to be conducted before administering the first dose of an anti-infective drug to the patient? a) Urinalysis b) Culture tests c) Ulcer tests d) Stool tests

b) Culture tests

A male patient is taking indinavir (Crixivan) for HIV. To decrease the risk of kidney stones, the nurse's teaching plan will include which of the following? a) Increase physical activity b) Drink 1 to 2 L of water a day c) Avoid taking acetaminophen d) Decrease fatty foods in his diet

b) Drink 1 to 2 L of water a day

The nurse is providing client teaching before discharging a client home. The client is taking ciprofloxacin. What action should the nurse encourage the client to prioritize? a) Eliminate red meat and seafood from the diet. b) Drink at least 2L of fluid per day. c) Avoid all caffeine and alcohol. d) Minimize sodium intake.

b) Drink at least 2L of fluid per day.

A parent brings a child to the clinic where the child is diagnosed with hookworms. The parent asks how the child got hookworms and how to prevent future occurrences. What should the nurse teach the parent to prevent future occurrences? a) Keep the child's immunizations up to date. b) Ensure that the child wears shoes or sandals outdoors. c) Ensure that all food is cooked thoroughly to recommended temperatures. d) Practice vigilant hand hygiene.

b) Ensure that the child wears shoes or sandals outdoors.

After teaching a group of nursing students about antitubercular therapy, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students choose which drug as a primary drug to treat tuberculosis? Select all that apply. a) Levofloxacin b) Ethambutol c) Isoniazid d) Rifampin e) Ciprofloxacin

b) Ethambutol c) Isoniazid d) Rifampin

As a class, penicillins usually are more effective in infections caused by which type of bacteria? a) Gram-negative b) Gram-positive c) Anaerobic d) Aerobic

b) Gram-positive

A client with active AIDS is infected with a retrovirus. This virus is better known as which? a) CMV b) HIV c) HSV d) DSV

b) HIV

After teaching a group of nursing students about antiretroviral drugs, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students point out that these drugs are used to treat which infections? Select all that apply. a) Hepatitis C virus (HCV) b) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) d) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) 1 e) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) 2

b) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

The nurse admits a client for treatment of cytomegalovirus (CMV). The client has been ordered foscarnet, 40 mg/kg q12h given over 2 hours. By what route should the nurse expect to administer this drug? a) Sub q b) IV c) IM d) PO

b) IV

A 21-year-old woman diagnosed with HIV/AIDS 4 years ago now presents with cytomegalovirus (CMV). The nurse explains to the woman that this infection is caused by a common organism that normally does not cause infection in someone who is not what? a) Infected with HIV b) Immunocompromised c) Autoimmune deficient d) Infected with hepatitis B

b) Immunocompromised

When interviewing a client with a suspected worm infection, what would lead the nurse to suspect trichinosis? a) Consumption of unwashed vegetables b) Ingestion of undercooked pork c) Recent insect bite d) Swimming in a contaminated lake

b) Ingestion of undercooked pork

The nurse is educating a client who has just been diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). The nurse informs the client that the drug regimen is extensive. What should the nurse tell this client about the drug therapy related to duration? a) It usually lasts 1 to 2 years. b) It usually lasts 6 to 9 months. c) It usually lasts 3 to 6 months. d) It usually lasts 2 months.

b) It usually lasts 6 to 9 months.

An older adult is to receive a low dose of a cephalosporin for an infection. When realizing that this client has age-related diminished renal function, what intervention should the nurse implement? a) Hold the drug for lab work. b) Monitor blood creatinine levels. c) Notify the prescribing provider. d) Initiate monitoring of intake and output.

b) Monitor blood creatinine levels.

John, 34 years old, is being treated with clindamycin for osteomyelitis of his tibia following an open fracture 3 months ago. The nurse is teaching John how to properly administer the medication at home and the side effects that he needs to report to the health care provider. Which would be the best instruction to give John? a) Call the provider if you have nausea after taking the medication. b) Notify the provider if you have any blood in your stool or diarrhea. c) Contact the provider if you are having headaches or visual changes. d) Contact the provider's office if you have abdominal distention.

b) Notify the provider if you have any blood in your stool or diarrhea.

A nurse knows that promoting an optimal response to drug therapy is a desired outcome for clients on fluoroquinolones. One important action the nurse should include in the plan of care is which? a) Maintain a low sodium diet and monitor input and output closely. b) Observe the client for the first 48 hours for adverse reactions to the drug. c) Keep the client on bedrest for 2 hours after the first dose of the drug. d) Administer the drug when the client is awake.

b) Observe the client for the first 48 hours for adverse reactions to the drug.

What is one method that the nurse can teach community members to prevent many parasitic infections? a) Avoidance of campgrounds b) Personal and public hygiene practices c) Avoidance of specific vacation spots d) Avoidance of nonbottled water

b) Personal and public hygiene practices

A health care provider is deciding what medication to prescribe for a client with an upper respiratory infection. What principles guide the provider's decision? Select all that apply. a) Medication cost b) Resistance of the bacteria c) Other drugs the client is taking daily d) The client's ability to tolerate the drug e) Available in generic formulation

b) Resistance of the bacteria c) Other drugs the client is taking daily d) The client's ability to tolerate the drug

Which recommendations should be made to a client being treated for trichomoniasis to prevent re-infection? A) Meats should be fully cooked before eaten. b) Sexual partners should be treated. c) Wash hands before eating. d) Purify all water when camping.

b) Sexual partners should be treated.

An elderly female client is admitted to the medical floor with pustules on her body that travel along the nerve route in her legs and arms. The health care provider prescribes the drug acyclovir (Zovirax). What disease is this client demonstrating? a) Herpes simplex b) Shingles c) Influenza d) CMV

b) Shingles

A nurse is administering methenamine to a client with a UTI. Which drug would the nurse instruct the client to avoid? a) Ascorbic acid b) Sodium bicarbonate c) Acetaminophen d) Ibuprofen

b) Sodium bicarbonate

Cefazolin, a cephalosporin, is used for which of these conditions? (Choose all that apply.) a) Neisseria infection b) Streptococcus pneumoniae infection c) Otitis media d) Perioperative prophylaxis e) Septicemia

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae infection c) Otitis media d) Perioperative prophylaxis e) Septicemia

A 43-year-old man is traveling to an area where malaria is endemic and is being treated prophylactically. The nurse will explain which regimens of chloroquine prescribed by the health care provider? a) Taking the medication for a total of 1 week before and continue for 2 weeks after the trip b) Taking the medication for 2 weeks before the trip and continue for 4 to 6 weeks after the trip c) Taking the medication for 2 weeks before the trip and continue for 2 months after the trip d) Taking the medication for 4 to 6 weeks before the trip and continue for 2 weeks after the trip

b) Taking the medication for 2 weeks before the trip and continue for 4 to 6 weeks after the trip

A client who has been diagnosed with syphilis reports an allergy to penicillin. The nurse would anticipate that which drug will be prescribed for the treatment? a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole b) Tetracycline c) Amoxicillin d) Phenazopyridine hydrochloride

b) Tetracycline

A patient on your unit has bacterial colitis and is being treated with oral vancomycin. Why is vancomycin given orally, rather than intravenously, in the treatment of bacterial colitis? a) Fewer pathogens are resistant to the oral version of the drug than to the IV version. b) The oral version of the drug acts within the bowel lumen. c) The oral version of the drug is easier to administer. d) The oral version of the drug limits the release of histamines.

b) The oral version of the drug acts within the bowel lumen.

Ms. Jones, 64 years old, is placed on IV amphotericin B for a systemic fungal infection. Part of your care involves the development of a nursing plan of care. You identify the following nursing problem: ineffective protection related to drug-induced leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. What would be the most appropriate goal for this patient? a) The patient will not have a fever during therapy. b) The patient will remain free from nosocomial infections during the hospital stay. c) The patient will show no signs of dehydration. d) The patient will maintain a patent airway during therapy.

b) The patient will remain free from nosocomial infections during the hospital stay.

A nurse is teaching a client who has been diagnosed with trichinosis. The nurse should teach the client what aspect of this infection? a) This roundworm disrupts the host's normal cellular functions, causing cell death and resulting in disease. b) Trichinosis invades body tissues and seriously damages lymphatic tissue, lungs, the central nervous system, heart, and liver. c) Trichinosis roundworms are exposed to the delicate mucous membranes of the anus and colon, producing local irritation. d) Trichinosis is easily passed from one individual to another resulting in rapid spreading within a work place.

b) Trichinosis invades body tissues and seriously damages lymphatic tissue, lungs, the central nervous system, heart, and liver.

A client is to be discharged with a prescription for both zanamivir and a bronchodilator. Which instruction would the nurse include in the teaching plan for the client? a) Zanamivir should be taken every 6 hours. b) Use the bronchodilator before taking zanamivir. c) Zanamivir used with a bronchodilator causes orthostatic hypotension. d) Risk of disease transmission is minimal during therapy.

b) Use the bronchodilator before taking zanamivir.

The nursing student asks the instructor why it is more difficult to develop antiviral drugs than anti-infectives. The nursing instructor's best reply would be which? a) Viruses are large, and it is hard to keep them contained. b) Viruses are tiny and replicate inside cells. c) Viruses are large and normally reproduce outside of the cell. d) Viruses are tiny and it is hard to keep them contained.

b) Viruses are tiny and replicate inside cells.

A client prescribed rifaximin for diarrhea has developed frank bleeding in the stool. What intervention should the nurse anticipate being implemented to best ensure client safety? a) increasing the dose of rifaximin b) changing to a different antibiotic c) supplementing the antibiotic with vitamin K d) changing to parenteral administration of rifaximin

b) changing to a different antibiotic

A nursing student is learning about the tuberculosis (TB) drug isoniazid. The student has learned to instruct clients taking this drug to refrain from drinking alcohol while taking isoniazid, for which reason? a) reduced absorption of isoniazid b) higher incidence of drug-related hepatitis c) increased blood levels of phenytoin d) increased risk for bleeding

b) higher incidence of drug-related hepatitis

While reviewing a client's medication history, the nurse notices that the client was prescribed quinine. The nurse suspects that the client may have been receiving drug therapy for what condition? a) lupus b) malaria c) diarrhea d) menstrual cramps

b) malaria

The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman diagnosed with HIV on prenatal drug screening. What medication should the nurse expect to administer to reduce the risk of maternal to fetal transmission of the virus? a) lamivudine b) zidovudine c) stavudine d) tenofovir

b) zidovudine

A client has just been diagnosed with TB. The client is extremely upset and is asking questions concerning the medications. What is an appropriate response by the nurse? a) "Oh, please don't worry. Your health care provider will explain everything to you." b) "You will take one drug for 1 month." c) "You will have multidrug therapy for 6 to 24 months." d) "We will discuss this when you are calmer."

c) "You will have multidrug therapy for 6 to 24 months."

The pediatric nurse is caring for a 9-year-old client who has been diagnosed with amebiasis. The client weighs 82.5 lbs. and has been prescribed metronidazole 40 mg/kg/day in three divided doses for 10 days. How many 250-mg tablets should the nurse administer for each dose? a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

c) 2

A client comes to the health care facility reporting flulike symptoms. After a thorough assessment, the client is diagnosed with influenza and is to receive oseltamivir. The nurse understands that this drug has been prescribed because the client been symptomatic for less than: a) 4 days. b) 6 days. c) 2 days. d) 8 days.

c) 2 days.

A primary health care provider has prescribed 6000 mg of foscarnet per day to be administered intravenously. In the pharmacy, foscarnet is available in a 500 mL IV piggyback. The strength of the drug in the solution is 24 mg/mL. How many mL of the solution should the nurse administer to the client in a day? a) 750 mL b) 1000 mL c) 250 mL d) 500 mL

c) 250 mL

The nurse is caring for four clients on a medical floor. For which client would the nurse suspect the health care provider might order a sulfonamide? a) A 65-year-old woman admitted with a urinary tract infection and history of chronic renal failure b) A 26-year-old man with an ear infection and a history of bronchial asthma c) A 35-year-old woman with a urinary tract infection and a history of ulcerative colitis d) A 48-year-old man with pneumonia and a history of liver disease

c) A 35-year-old woman with a urinary tract infection and a history of ulcerative colitis

A client is diagnosed with giardiasis and prescribed oral metronidazole. The client self-administered this therapy for 3 weeks and returns for a scheduled checkup. What is the most important follow-up examination or testing that needs to be completed? a) Monitor for thrombophlebitis. b) Test for visual acuity. c) Arrange for testing of three stool specimens. d) Monitor for edema or CHF.

c) Arrange for testing of three stool specimens.

A 79-year-old nursing home resident has been prescribed clindamycin. When the resident develops persistent diarrhea, the nurse will include what intervention to help rule out the presence of pseudomembranous colitis? a) Increase the resident's daily fluid intake. b) Eliminate dairy from the resident's diet. c) Assess the stool for the presence of blood and mucus. d) Request a prescription for an antidiarrheal medication.

c) Assess the stool for the presence of blood and mucus.

Which statement best reflects the use of antimalarial agents for treatment of the protozoan? a) Typically, a single drug is sufficient to destroy the sporozoites in the early stages. b) Quinine is considered the current mainstay of treatment for malaria. c) Combination therapy is used to attack the parasite at various life cycle stages. d) The development of resistant strains of the parasite against antimalarial agents is rare.

c) Combination therapy is used to attack the parasite at various life cycle stages.

The nurse is educating an 82-year-old client regarding amphotericin B (Fungizone). The nurse knows the client understand when the client states that he could develop which adverse effect? a) Diabetes b) Liver necrosis c) Damage to his kidneys d) Pancreatitis

c) Damage to his kidneys

A female client is admitted to the critical care unit with sepsis related to a contaminated central line. The health care provider orders intravenous beta-lactam antimicrobials. The client's current laboratory report reflects renal impairment. What would the nurse expect the provider to do? a) Maintain the drug dose. b) Increase the drug dose. c) Decrease the drug dose. d) Administer the drug via an intramuscular route.

c) Decrease the drug dose.

The nurse notes a 25-year-old female client who is to begin antiretroviral therapy is currently taking oral contraceptives. The nurse should point out the combination can result in which interaction? a) Decreased effectiveness of antiviral therapy b) Increased risk of vaginal bleeding c) Decreased effectiveness of birth control pills d) Increased serum level of the antiretroviral

c) Decreased effectiveness of birth control pills

The nurse understands that bacterial resistance can result when certain bacteria produce penicillinase. What does penicillinase do? a) Triggers the release of penicillin-binding proteins b) Activates penicillin c) Inactivates penicillin d) Prevents the release of penicillin-binding proteins

c) Inactivates penicillin

The nurse learns that a 7-year-old child has been prescribed tetracyclines several times in recent years. What assessment should the nurse prioritize? a) Assess the client for signs of ototoxicity. b) Assess the client's deep tendon reflexes. c) Inspect the client's teeth. d) Inspect the client's skin and sclerae for jaundice.

c) Inspect the client's teeth.

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client taking entecavir. What is an important teaching point the nurse should provide about taking entecavir? a) It should be taken before bed each night. b) It should be taken immediately after eating a large meal. c) It should be taken on an empty stomach. d) It should be taken with a small snack before bed.

c) It should be taken on an empty stomach.

Your client has a history of supraventricular tachycardia, for which she is taking a calcium channel blocker. Recently, she was diagnosed with blastomycosis. She has mild to moderate disease, so she is being treated with itraconazole for 6 to 12 months. As part of your client's education, you would include which of the following instructions? a) Itraconazole can decrease the effects and risks of toxicity of your calcium channel blocker. You should see your health care provider on a regular basis to have this evaluated while taking itraconazole. b) Itraconazole has no effect on your calcium channel blocker. c) Itraconazole can increase the effects and risks of toxicity of your calcium channel blocker. You should see your health care provider on a regular basis to have this evaluated while taking itraconazole. d) As long as itraconazole and the calcium channel blocker are taken together, there are no increased health risks.

c) Itraconazole can increase the effects and risks of toxicity of your calcium channel blocker. You should see your health care provider on a regular basis to have this evaluated while taking itraconazole.

The nurse administers ethambutol to a client in the initial phase of tuberculosis. The nurse will monitor the client for which potential adverse reaction? a) Hypersensitivity b) Skin eruptions c) Joint pain d) Myalgia

c) Joint pain

A client presents to the health care provider's office with a skin infection on the forearm. The infection is resistant to over-the-counter antibiotics. After receiving the culture and sensitivity results, the provider orders tigecycline. The nurse knows that this client has what illness? a) Clostridium difficile b) VRE c) MRSA d) VREF

c) MRSA

A major concern among public health authorities is an increase in drug-resistant tuberculosis (TB) infections. What new evidence suggests a possible cause for this resistant tendency? a) Client adherence is the primary cause of drug-resistant TB infections. b) The clear majority of TB infections are now drug-resistant. c) Many drug-resistant infections are new infections, especially in those who are immunosuppressed. d) Only drug-resistant strains are actively infecting clients.

c) Many drug-resistant infections are new infections, especially in those who are immunosuppressed.

A client develops antibiotic-induced colitis. The symptoms have worsened within the past 72 hours. The nurse expects the health care provider to order what medication, which is considered the initial drug of choice? a) Loperamide b) Bismuth subsalicylate c) Metronidazole d) Psyllium

c) Metronidazole

When providing care to a client with a viral infection, the nurse knows that ribavirin (Virazole) for inhalation is used to treat which virus? a) HIV b) AIDS c) RSV d) RVS

c) RSV

A nurse is caring for a patient undergoing the second phase of standard TB treatment. The nurse knows that which of the following combinations of drugs need to be administered to the client? a) Pyrazinamide and dapsone b) Rifampin and Pyrazinamide c) Rifampin and isoniazid d) Dapsone and isoniazid

c) Rifampin and isoniazid

A client is taking penicillin for an upper respiratory infection. The client calls the office after 2 days of therapy reporting nausea and abdominal pain. Which would be the best instruction for the nurse to give the client? a) Continue to take the medication as prescribed; these are expected side effects from the medication. b) Stop the medication immediately and go to the emergency room; these could be signs of a life-threatening reaction. c) These are normal side effects, but if they increase in severity or frequency, you need to contact the office again. d) Stop the medication and the health care provider will order you a different antibiotic.

c) These are normal side effects, but if they increase in severity or frequency, you need to contact the office again.

A client is being treated for a herpes outbreak, and the healthcare provider has prescribed acyclovir. In order to screen for potential problems with the client's excretion of the drug, which assessment data should the nurse review? a) nutritional status b) GGT, AST, ALT and bilirubin levels c) blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels d) complete blood count and WBC differential

c) blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels

A client with a tapeworm has been prescribed albendazole. What aspect of this client's health history would cause delayed excretion? a) peripheral edema b) hepatitis A c) chronic renal failure d) viral pneumonia

c) chronic renal failure

A nurse is caring for a 52-year-old client who has been diagnosed with a latent tuberculosis infection. The health care provider is considering ordering isoniazid (INH). The preexistence of what condition would require cautious use of INH in this client? a) hypertension b) folic acid deficiency c) cirrhosis of the liver d) glaucoma

c) cirrhosis of the liver

A patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit with signs and symptoms of sepsis and preliminary results of the patient's initial blood cultures reveal the presence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). This finding is an indication for treatment with a) ciprofloxacin. b) levofloxacin. c) daptomycin. d) polymyxin B.

c) daptomycin.

When discussing the use of phenazopyridine the nurse will tell the patient that a) she must come to the outpatient clinic each day for intravenous administration. b) the drug is available only by prescription. c) the drug relieves burning during urination d) the drug carries a high risk of photosensitivity.

c) the drug relieves burning during urination

A client is admitted to hospice with the diagnosis of extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB). Knowing some of the contributing factors to this disease, the nurse understands this disease is a major indication of what treatment failure? a) to adequately treat immunosuppressive diseases b) to promptly contact health authorities with diagnosis c) to adequately diagnose, prevent, and treat MDR-TB d) to implement community-based and hospital-based treatment in a timely manner

c) to adequately diagnose, prevent, and treat MDR-TB

The nurse is caring for a client who is taking a urinary anti-infective. What assessment should the nurse prioritize to identify the effectiveness and appropriateness of the client's drug therapy? a) 24-hour urine quantity b) oral temperature c) urine culture and sensitivity results d) assessment for dysuria or flank pain

c) urine culture and sensitivity results

A client with a gram-negative infection is being treated with an aminoglycoside. What assessment should the nurse prioritize during treatment? a) breath sounds and oxygen saturation b) visual acuity c) urine output and BUN and creatinine levels d) muscle strength and coordination

c) urine output and BUN and creatinine levels

A client developed a pressure area on the hip that has become infected. If the wound culture reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, which medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed? a) metronidazole b) penicillin c) vancomycin d) erythromycin

c) vancomycin

A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking cyclosporine following a heart transplant. The patient is subsequently found to have a systemic Aspergillus infection. Which of the following antifungals, if administered to treat the infection, can increase serum levels of cyclosporine? a) Ketoconazole b) Fluconazole c) Itraconazole d) All the above

d) All the above

Tuberculosis typically affects the lungs but can also involve other parts of the body. Which of the following can be affected by the disease? a) Kidneys b) Lymph nodes c) GI/GU tract d) All the above

d) All the above

A patient with TB has been admitted to a health care facility. When providing instructions for the patient teaching related to antitubercular drugs, which instructions should the nurse provide in order to avoid complications in the patient's GI tract? a) Double the dose if earlier dose is missed. b) Take prescribed Pyrazinamide without regard to food. c) Take prescribed Ethambutol with food. d) Avoid the consumption of alcohol.

d) Avoid the consumption of alcohol.

The nurse is preparing to teach a client about the proper way to take the various antitubercular drugs. Which action should the nurse point out as the best way to minimize GI complications? a) Double the dose if earlier dose is missed. b) Take prescribed pyrazinamide without regard to food. c) Take prescribed ethambutol with food. d) Avoid the consumption of alcohol.

d) Avoid the consumption of alcohol.

The nurse is caring for an obese female client who is also HIV positive. The nurse takes special care to dry all skin folds in the client after her bath to prevent which fungal infection? a) Histoplasmosis b) Cryptococcosis c) Sporotrichosis d) Candidiasis

d) Candidiasis

Which of the following drugs is likely to be administered as a first-line treatment for anthrax exposure? a) Tobramycin b) Norfloxacin c) Gentamicin d) Ciprofloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

A client who will soon leave on a trip to a tropical rainforest is prescribed chloroquine 300 mg PO daily for prophylaxis of malaria. What is the nurse's best action when receiving this prescription? a) Review the client's BUN and creatinine levels, if available. b) Review the client's liver enzyme levels, if available. c) Confirm the route with the prescriber. d) Confirm the frequency with the prescriber.

d) Confirm the frequency with the prescriber.

A client who is HIV positive is being treated for recurrent fungal infections. Clients whose immune systems are suppressed are at risk for what complication? a) Failure to thrive and therefore increased fungal infections b) Recurrent bacterial infections c) Impaired healing d) Development of serious fungal infections

d) Development of serious fungal infections

Antivirals are used to treat infections caused by viruses. In particular, acyclovir is useful to treat which infection? a) RSV b) Influenza c) Hepatitis A d) Herpes zoster

d) Herpes zoster

The azole antifungals are contraindicated in clients with what condition? a) Hypovolemia b) Pancreatitis c) HIV d) Increased liver enzymes

d) Increased liver enzymes

A client has returned to the clinic for follow-up of an infection which is being treated with an aminoglycoside and reports ringing in the ears and dizziness. When developing this client's plan of care, which nursing diagnosis would be the priority? a) Impaired Comfort b) Altered Thought Process c) Diarrhea d) Injury Risk

d) Injury Risk

A male client is placed on an IV regimen of aztreonam. The nurse would expect the health care provider to order which laboratory test? a) CBC b) Hematocrit c) Serum albumin d) Liver function

d) Liver function

A nurse is caring for a client with severe and life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis caused by C. difficile. Which drug would the nurse expect the client's provider to order? a) Linezolid b) Tigecycline c) Daptomycin d) Oral vancomycin

d) Oral vancomycin

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with amebiasis. When developing the care plan, the nurse will include which activity? a) Take vital signs every 8 hours. b) Freeze any stool samples for testing. c) Avoid foods that acidify the urine. d) Provide the client with small, frequent meals.

d) Provide the client with small, frequent meals.

A client with roundworms is prescribed pyrantel. The nurse determines the client teaching is successful after the client correctly chooses which adverse reactions to immediately report to the health care provider? a) Abdominal cramping b) Headache c) Nausea d) Rashes

d) Rashes

A nurse is required to administer a parenteral form of penicillin to a client. Which intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to do when preparing penicillin in parenteral form? a) Extract penicillin from vial and then reconstitute. b) Save excess antibiotic after reconstitution for later use. c) Use any available diluent for reconstitution. d) Shake the vial well to distribute the drug evenly.

d) Shake the vial well to distribute the drug evenly.

A client has been diagnosed with a helminthic infection and has begun treatment with mebendazole. What should the nurse include in client education? a) Any person who was recently exposed to the client should receive prophylactic. b) The drug should be taken on an empty stomach to maximize therapeutic effect. c) The client should remain isolated until the course of mebendazole is complete. d) Strict hygiene measures are important in eradicating the infection.

d) Strict hygiene measures are important in eradicating the infection.

A client's health care provider is considering the addition of efavirenz to the client's drug regimen for the treatment of recently diagnosed HIV. Which aspects of the client's medical history should prompt the nurse to question the use of this drug? a) The client has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and did not consistently monitor blood glucose levels prior to diagnosis with HIV. b) The client experienced an adverse reaction to an influenza immunization several years ago. c) The client's body mass index at the time of diagnosis was 27 (overweight). d) The client has hepatitis C and a history of heavy alcohol use.

d) The client has hepatitis C and a history of heavy alcohol use.

A 7-year-old is treated for oropharyngeal candidiasis. As the nurse preparing for discharge, you teach the mother about the proper administration of nystatin. Which instruction will you emphasize? a) Chewing and then swallowing the solution b) Taking the solution with lots of water c) Mixing the solution with fruit jam d) Using the "swish and swallow" drug method

d) Using the "swish and swallow" drug method

A client is admitted to the hospital for the treatment of malaria. The health care provider has ordered chloroquine. Which symptoms would indicate a serious adverse reaction? a) increasing abdominal pain b) blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg c) vomiting and diarrhea d) blurred vision

d) blurred vision

The nurse admitted a client diagnosed with a systemic fungal infection. Before administering ketoconazole as prescribed, what should the nurse confirm? a) complete blood count (CBC) and white cell differential b) blood type c) height and weight d) hepatic function

d) hepatic function

While reviewing a newly admitted client's previous health records, the nurse notes that the client is currently prescribed acyclovir. The nurse should assess the client for signs and symptoms associated with what medical diagnosis? a) human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) b) hepatitis A c) hepatitis B d) herpes simplex virus

d) herpes simplex virus

The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old with HIV. The nurse knows that, when administering antiviral drug therapy in young children with HIV, dosage calculations are typically based on: a) the severity of the client's condition. b) dosage recommendations for adults. c) the client's body surface area. d) the client's weight.

d) the client's weight.

A client reports vaginal itching and burning which the provider believes to be caused by a candida infection. What medication may offer the client relief after a single dose? a) caspofungin b) terbinafine c) ketoconazole d) tioconazole

d) tioconazole