Pharmocology final quizlet

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8. A child with hemophilia A who weighs 30 kg receives factor VIII on an ongoing basis as prophylaxis. The provider orders desmopressin [Stimate] to be used for nosebleeds. The nurse will instruct the child's parents to give the medication as ____ nostril as needed. a. 1 spray in each b. 1 spray in one c. 2 sprays in each d. 2 sprays in one

9. A patient who travels frequently for business reports occasional instances of being unable to fall asleep. The patient tells the nurse that job demands require staying up late and then getting up early for meetings. The nurse expects that the provider will prescribe which medication for this patient? a. Flurazepam b. Trazodone [Desyrel] c. Zaleplon [Sonata] d. Zolpidem [Ambien]

9. An adolescent male patient is beginning androgen therapy for delayed puberty. His parents ask the nurse when this treatment may be stopped. The nurse will offer which response? a. After 3 to 4 years of therapy b. If acne and facial hair develop c. When complete sexual maturation has occurred d. When testicular enlargement occurs

8. A patient with multiple sclerosis needs pharmacologic treatment for spasticity to begin strengthening exercises to improve walking ability. The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for spasticity? a. Baclofen [Lioresal] b. Dantrolene [Dantrium] c. Diazepam [Valium] d. Metaxalone [Skelaxin]

9. A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks about medications to treat this disorder, but tells the nurse he doesn't want to have to plan sexual activity several hours in advance. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Avanafil [Stendra] b. Sildenafil [Viagra] c. Tadalafil [Cialis] d. Vardenafil [Levitra]

9. A patient will receive buprenorphine [Butrans] as a transdermal patch for pain. What is important to teach this patient about the use of this drug? a. Avoid prolonged exposure to the sun. b. Cleanse the site with soap or alcohol. c. Remove the patch daily at bedtime. d. Remove hair by shaving before applying the patch.

9. A patient with acromegaly asks the nurse about treatments for this condition. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Drugs are generally used after surgical and radiation therapies have been tried. b. Drug therapy is easy to administer. c. Drug therapy is inexpensive. d. Drug therapy is generally short term.

12. A patient who has been taking a glucocorticoid for several months arrives in the clinic. The nurse notes that the patient's cheeks appear full and that a prominent hump of fat is present on the upper back. The nurse will ask the provider to order which test(s)? a. Liver function tests b. Serum electrolytes c. Tuberculin skin test d. Vitamin D levels

7. A nurse is caring for a patient in the intensive care unit who is receiving intravenous lidocaine. The patient is drowsy and confused and reports numbness of the fingers and toes. Which standing order will the nurse initiate at this time? a. Administer diazepam. b. Reduce the rate of infusion. c. Discontinue the infusion. d. Prepare for mechanical ventilation.

9. A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent as an adjunct to inhalation anesthesia. When caring for this patient, it is important for the nurse to remember that neuromuscular blocking agents: a. cause vagal slowing of the heart. b. increase the required dose of inhalation anesthetics. c. increase the depth of unconsciousness. d. prevent contraction of the diaphragm.

3. A child will begin taking methylphenidate [Ritalin] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Important baseline information about this patient will include: a. results of an electrocardiogram (ECG). b. family history of psychosis. c. height and weight. d. renal function.

6. The spouse of a patient with Alzheimer's disease asks a nurse for more information about the rivastigmine [Exelon] transdermal patch that is being used. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further explanation? a. "Doses are lower but more steady with the transdermal patch." b. "Reduced side effects occur with the transdermal patch." c. "We only need to change the patch every 2 weeks." d. "We should remove the old patch before applying the new one."

3. A patient is being treated for a systemic fungal infection with amphotericin B [Abelcet] and will be discharged home from the hospital to complete every other day infusions of the medication for 6 to 8 weeks. The nurse provides discharge teaching before dismissal. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may experience headaches and pain in my lower back, legs, and abdomen." b. "I may need to take potassium supplements while taking this drug." c. "I should take acetaminophen and diphenhydramine before each infusion." d. "I will need to have blood drawn for serum creatinine and BUN levels every 3 to 4 days."

3. A patient is receiving intravenous vincristine [Oncovin]. The patient complains of pain at the IV insertion site. The nurse examines the site and notes an area of erythema and edema. What will the nurse do? a. Change the IV site and notify the provider of the extravasation. b. Contact the provider to suggest using a different chemotherapeutic agent. c. Obtain an order for a topical anesthetic to minimize discomfort. d. Slow the rate of infusion to reduce the patient's discomfort.

3. A patient who uses an inhaled glucocorticoid for chronic asthma calls the nurse to report hoarseness. What will the nurse do? a. Ask whether the patient is rinsing the mouth after each dose. b. Request an order for an antifungal medication. c. Suggest that the patient be tested for a bronchial infection. d. Tell the patient to discontinue use of the glucocorticoid.

3. A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ [Bactrim]. When providing teaching for this patient, the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to: a. drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day. b. eat foods that are high in potassium. c. take the medication with food. d. take folic acid supplements.

3. A surgical patient is receiving succinylcholine [Anectine] with an inhalation anesthetic. The patient is intubated, has an indwelling urinary catheter, and has ongoing monitoring of vital signs. Which symptom during the perioperative period is cause for concern? a. Elevated temperature b. Increased urine output c. Muscle paralysis d. No response to painful stimuli

3. An adolescent patient comes to the clinic complaining of a burning sensation upon urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis. The nurse is correct to suspect that the patient has which disorder? a. Gonorrhea b. Herpes simplex c. Nongonococcal urethritis d. Syphilis

3. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous acyclovir [Zovirax]. To prevent nephrotoxicity associated with intravenous acyclovir, the nurse will: a. hydrate the patient during the infusion and for 2 hours after the infusion. b. increase the patient's intake of foods rich in vitamin C. c. monitor urinary output every 30 minutes. d. provide a low-protein diet for 1 day before and 2 days after the acyclovir infusion.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and has a previous history of drug and alcohol abuse. The patient is being treated with combination therapies, including didanosine [Videx]. Which laboratory findings would most concern the nurse? a. Increased serum amylase and triglycerides and decreased serum calcium b. Decreased serum amylase and serum triglycerides and increased serum calcium c. Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit d. Increased serum amylase, decreased triglycerides, and increased platelets

3.A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about antihistamines. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of the mechanism of action of the antihistamines? a. "Antihistamines block H1 receptors to prevent actions of histamine at these sites." b. "Antihistamines block release of histamine from mast cells and basophils." c. "H1 antagonists can bind to H1 receptors, H2 receptors, and muscarinic receptors." d. "First-generation antihistamines are more selective than second-generation antihistamines."

4. A 14-year-old male patient has not begun puberty. His parents tell the nurse that their son does not want to go to school, because he gets teased. The nurse learns that the boy's father did not begin puberty until age 16 years. Laboratory tests on this child do not reveal true hypogonadism. What will the nurse tell these parents when they ask what can be done for their son? a. "A limited course of androgen therapy may be prescribed, but it is not necessary." b. "He will eventually begin puberty, so this is nothing to worry about." c. "He will probably have to receive injections of androgens for 3 to 4 years." d. "The risk of accelerated growth plate closure is too great to warrant androgen therapy."

4. A child has been taking SD methylphenidate [Ritalin], 10 mg at 0800 and 1200 and 5 mg at 1600, for 2 months. The parents tell the nurse that the child sometimes misses the noon dose while at school. The child's appetite is normal. The teacher has reported a slight improvement in hyperactivity and impulsivity. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the prescriber whether this child could be given methylphenidate [Concerta]. b. Contact the prescriber to suggest using a nonstimulant medication. c. Reinforce the need to take all doses as prescribed. d. Suggest drug holidays for the child on weekends.

4. A nurse is assisting the physician during a procedure in which a local anesthetic is administered. Within a few minutes of administration of the anesthetic, the patient has a pulse of 54 beats per minute, respirations of 18 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/42 mm Hg. The nurse should monitor the patient for further signs of: a. heart block. b. anaphylaxis. c. central nervous system excitation. d. respiratory depression.

4. A nurse is caring for a child who has hemophilia. While reviewing this child's immunization records, the nurse notes that the child needs the tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine and the hepatitis A vaccine. The nurse should notify the provider and obtain an order to give: a. both vaccines intramuscularly. b. both vaccines subcutaneously. c. the hepatitis A vaccine only subcutaneously. d. the Tdap vaccine only intramuscularly.

4. A nurse is discussing the care of a patient with cancer with a nursing student. The patient is about to begin chemotherapy with a bifunctional alkylating agent. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of this chemotherapeutic agent? a. "Alkylating agents are toxic to tissues that have rapidly dividing cells." b. "Bifunctional alkylating agents cannot form cross-links in DNA." c. "Resistance to alkylating agents is rare." d. "This drug needs to be given as a prolonged infusion."

4. A nurse is preparing to administer IV calcium chloride to a patient with a low serum calcium level. Which drug on the patient's medication record, administered concurrently, would require additional patient monitoring by the nurse? a. Digoxin [Lanoxin] b. Furosemide [Lasix] c. Lorazepam [Ativan] d. Pantoprazole [Protonix]

4. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about antidysrhythmic medications. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Antidysrhythmic drugs can cause new dysrhythmias or worsen existing ones." b. "Adverse effects of these drugs are mainly noncardiac in nature." c. "For most antidysrhythmic drugs, there is evidence of reduced mortality." d. "Use of these drugs may be necessary even if the benefits are unknown."

4. A nurse provides teaching for a patient with a newly diagnosed partial complex seizure disorder who is about to begin therapy with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs). Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Even with an accurate diagnosis of my seizures, it may be difficult to find an effective drug." b. "I will soon know that the drugs are effective by being seizure free for several months." c. "Serious side effects may occur, and if they do, I should stop taking the medication." d. "When drug levels are maintained at therapeutic levels, I can expect to be seizure free."

4. A patient is being treated with interferon beta-1a [Avonex] for relapsing-remitting MS. The patient calls the clinic to report headache, fever, chills, and muscle aches after administering a dose. What will the nurse recommend? a. Acetaminophen or ibuprofen b. Asking the provider to order a complete blood count (CBC) c. Coming to the clinic for evaluation for leukoencephalopathy d. Discontinuing the drug immediately

4. A patient is diagnosed with a lung infection caused by P. aeruginosa. The culture and sensitivity report shows sensitivity to all aminoglycosides. The nurse knows that the rate of resistance to gentamicin is common in this hospital. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication? a. Amikacin [Amikin] b. Gentamicin c. Paromomycin d. Tobramycin

4. A patient newly diagnosed with heart failure is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes a pulse of 90 beats per minute. The nurse will observe this patient closely for: a. decreased urine output. b. increased blood pressure. c. jugular vein distension. d. shortness of breath.

4. A patient recently was diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The patient, who has a history of seasonal allergies, is an athlete who participates in track. The nurse is teaching the patient about lithium [Lithobid], which the prescriber has just ordered. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching? a. "I can continue to use ibuprofen as needed for muscle pain." b. "I should drink extra fluids before and during exercise." c. "I should not use antihistamines while taking lithium." d. "I should report muscle weakness and tremors to my provider."

4. A patient who has chronic allergies takes loratadine [Claritin] and develops a severe reaction to bee stings. The patient asks the nurse why the antihistamine did not prevent the reaction. What will the nurse say? a. "Allergy symptoms that are severe are caused by mediators other than histamine." b. "H1 blockers do not prevent the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils." c. "Second-generation H1 blockers contain less active drug and do not work in severe reactions." d. "Severe allergic reactions occur through actions on muscarinic receptors."

4. A patient will begin taking hydroxychloroquine [Plaquenil] for rheumatoid arthritis. The patient is currently taking high-dose NSAIDs and methotrexate. What will the nurse teach the patient? a. That an eye exam is necessary at the beginning of therapy with this drug b. That the dose of NSAIDs may be decreased when beginning hydroxychloroquine c. To obtain tests of renal and hepatic function while taking this drug d. To stop taking methotrexate when starting hydroxychloroquine

4. A patient with a history of lung transplantation is admitted for treatment for a respiratory infection. The patient has been taking cyclosporine [Sandimmune], prednisone, and azathioprine [Imuran] for 8 months. The provider has ordered azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat the infection and acetaminophen [Tylenol] as needed for fever. The nurse will contact the provider to: a. ask whether a different antibiotic can be used. b. ask that the prednisone be discontinued until the infection clears. c. suggest increasing the dose of cyclosporine. d. suggest using ibuprofen instead of acetaminophen.

4. A patient with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse notes that the patient's INR is 2.7. Before giving the next dose of warfarin, the nurse will notify the provider and: a. administer the dose as ordered. b. request an order to decrease the dose. c. request an order to give vitamin K (phytonadione). d. request an order to increase the dose.

4. A prescriber has ordered filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor) for a patient undergoing myelosuppressive chemotherapy. The nurse will prepare the patient for which potential side effect? a. Bone pain b. Fatigue c. Headache d. Hemorrhage

4. An older adult patient has confusion, memory loss, and disorientation in familiar surroundings. The patient has been taking donepezil [Aricept] 10 mg once daily for 6 months. The patient's symptoms have begun to worsen, and the patient's spouse asks if the medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell the spouse? a. The dose can be increased, because the patient has been taking the drug for longer than 3 months. b. The dose can be increased to twice daily dosing instead of once dailydosing. c. The increase in symptoms is the result of hepatotoxicity from the medication's side effects. d. The patient must take the drug for longer than 1 year before the dose can be increased.

4. The nurse assesses a newly diagnosed patient for short-term complications of diabetes. What does this assessment include? a. Evaluation for hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, and ketoacidosis b. Cranial nerve testing for peripheral neuropathy c. Pedal pulse palpation for arterial insufficiency d. Auscultation of the carotids for bruits associated with atherosclerosis

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a vasodilator that dilates capacitance vessels. The nurse will expect which effect in this patient? a. Decrease in cardiac work b. Increase in cardiac output c. Increase in tissue perfusion d. Increase in venous return

4.A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] and reports occasional periods of loss of drug effect lasting from minutes to several hours. The nurse questions the patient further and discovers that these episodes occur at different times related to the medication administration. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a.administering a catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor, such as entacapone. b. adding the DA-releasing agent amantadine to the regimen. c.giving a direct-acting dopamine agonist. d. shortening the dosing interval of levodopa/carbidopa.

5. A nurse is assessing a patient who has heart failure. The patient complains of shortness of breath, and the nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of: a. decreased force of ventricular contraction. b. increased force of ventricular contraction. c. decreased ventricular filling. d. increased ventricular filling.

5. A nurse is discussing the role of vitamin D in calcium regulation with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Adequate amounts of vitamin D occur naturally in the diet." b. "Vitamin D 3 is preferred over vitamin D 2 ." c. "Vitamin D can promote bone decalcification." d. "Vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestine."

5. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about how cytotoxic anticancer drugs affect normal cells. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of this teaching? a. "Cytotoxic drugs lack tissue specificity." b. "Cytotoxic drugs have a high degree of selective toxicity." c. "Differences between cancer cells and normal cells are qualitative." d. "Neoplastic cells and normal tissue cells are very different."

5. A parent asks a nurse about growth suppression resulting from the use of an inhaled glucocorticoid in children. What will the nurse tell the parent? a. Growth may be slowed, but eventual adult height will not be reduced. b. The growth rate is not impaired, but overall height will be reduced. c. The growth rate slows while the drug is used and only resumes when the drug is stopped. d. Long-term use of the drug results in a decrease in adult height.

5. A patient describes feelings of anxiety and fear when speaking in front of an audience and is having difficulty at work because of an inability to present information at meetings three or four times each year. The patient is reluctant to take long-term medications. The nurse will expect the provider to order which treatment? a. Alprazolam [Xanax] as needed b. Cognitive behavioral therapy c. Paroxetine [Paxil] d. Psychotherapy

5. A patient has received two doses of dinoprostone [Prepidil] to initiate labor. It has been 6 hours since the last dose. The nurse assesses the patient and notes that the cervix is ripe and dilated to 4 cm, but contractions are diminishing in intensity and frequency. What will the nurse expect to do? a. Administer oxytocin. b. Monitor urine output. c. Prepare for a cesarean section. d. Watch closely for fetal distress.

5. A patient is hospitalized with head trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse caring for the patient notes a marked increase in the output of pale, dilute urine. The nurse suspects which condition? a. Diabetes insipidus b. Diabetes mellitus c. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) d. Water intoxication

5. A patient is recovering from a myocardial infarction but does not have symptoms of heart failure. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about: a. ACE inhibitors and beta blockers. b. biventricular pacemakers. c. dietary supplements and exercise. d. diuretics and digoxin.

5. A patient who is an active alcoholic is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The nurse reviewing orders for this patient would be correct to question which postoperative medication for this patient? a. Acetaminophen b. Diazepam c. Morphine d. Thiamine

5. A patient who took an overdose of verapamil has been treated with gastric lavage and a cathartic. The emergency department nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 50 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate: a. administering intravenous norepinephrine (NE) and atropine and glucagon. b. assisting with direct-current (DC) cardioversion. c. placing the patient in an upright position. d. preparing to administer a beta blocker.

5. A patient with HIV and mucocutaneous HSV is being treated with foscarnet after failing treatment with acyclovir. After 2 weeks, the patient's dose is increased to 90 mg/kg over 2 hours from 40 mg/kg over 1 hour. The patient reports numbness in the extremities and perioral tingling. What will the nurse do? a. Notify the provider and request an order for a serum calcium level. b. Notify the provider of potential foscarnet overdose. c. Request an order for a creatinine clearance level. d. Request an order of IV saline to be given before the next dose.

5. A patient with HIV who takes protease inhibitors develops tuberculosis and will begin treatment. Which drug regimen will be used for this patient? a. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol + rifabutin b. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol c. Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol d. Isoniazid + rifabutin

5. A patient with a history of renal calculi has fever, flank pain, and bacteriuria. The nurse caring for this patient understands that it is important for the provider to: a. begin antibiotic therapy after urine culture and sensitivity results are available. b. give prophylactic antibiotics for 6 weeks after the acute infection has cleared. c. initiate immediate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics. d. refer the patient for intravenous antibiotics and hospitalization.

5. A patient with arthritis is admitted to the hospital. The patient's serum glucose level is 350 gm/dL, and the blood pressure is 182/98 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient's face appears rounded and puffy. The patient complains of feeling weak. What will the nurse do? a. Ask which drugs the patient takes for arthritis. b. Contact the provider to discuss whether the patient has a pituitary carcinoma. c. Request an order for ketoconazole [Nizoral]. d. Suspect that this patient has Addison's disease.

5. A patient with multiple sclerosis is to begin treatment with interferon beta. The patient comes to the clinic to have pretreatment laboratory tests. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about these tests? a. "After the first year of treatment, I will need once yearly blood work." b. "I will need to have lab tests done every 3 months for the first year." c. "If my liver function tests are abnormal, I will need to stop using this drug." d. "These lab tests will measure liver and bone marrow function."

5. An older adult patient who has cancer and Alzheimer's disease is crying but shakes her head no" when asked about pain. The prescriber has ordered morphine sulfate 2 to 4 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. It has been 4 hours since a dose has been given. What will the nurse do? a. Administer 4 mg of morphine and monitor this patient's verbal and nonverbal responses. b. Give 2 mg of morphine for pain to avoid increasing this patient's level of confusion. c. Request an order for a nonopioid analgesic or an antidepressant adjuvant analgesic. d. Withhold any analgesic at this time and reassess the patient in 30 to 60 minutes.

5.A male patient tells the nurse he awakens once or twice each night to void and has difficulty starting his stream of urine. He describes these symptoms as "annoying." The patient's provider examines him and notes that the prostate is moderately enlarged. The patient is sexually active and tells the nurse that he does not want to take any medication that will interfere with sexual function. The nurse anticipates the provider will order: a. doxazosin [Cardura]. b. finasteride [Proscar]. c. silodosin [Rapaflo]. d. a transurethral prostatectomy.

6. A child with moderate hemophilia A who weighs 20 kg is admitted to the hospital after a knee injury with bleeding into the joint. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication? a. Advate 400 units IV over 10 minutes b. Benefix 800 units slow IV push c. Desmopressin 6 mcg IV over 15 to 30 minutes d. Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron] 200 mg IV

6. A patient is admitted to the unit for treatment for an infection. The patient receives IV amikacin [Amikin] twice a day. When planning for obtaining a peak aminoglycoside level, when should the nurse see that the blood is drawn? a. 30 minutes after the IV infusion is complete b. 1 hour after the IV infusion is complete c. 1 hour before administration of the IV infusion d. A peak level is not indicated with twice-daily dosing.

6. A patient is receiving oral iron for iron deficiency anemia. Which antibiotic drug, taken concurrently with iron, would most concern the nurse? a. Tetracycline b. Cephalosporin c. Metronidazole [Flagyl] d. Penicillin

6. A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis asks the nurse why oral medications must be given in the clinic. The nurse will tell the patient that medications are given in the clinic so that: a. clinic staff can observe adherence to drug regimens. b. nurses can monitor for drug toxicities. c. providers can adjust doses as needed. d. the staff can ensure that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulations are met.

6. A patient receives an epidural anesthetic during labor and delivery. The nurse caring for the newborn in the immediate postpartum period will observe the infant for: a. bradycardia. b. hypoglycemia. c. jitteriness. d. tachypnea.

6. A patient who has migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex] 5 mg unit-dose nasal spray. The patient has administered two sprays at 1400, 1600, and 1800 and calls to report little relief from headache pain. What will the nurse instruct the patient to do? a. Administer 2 sprays at 2000 and call the provider if no relief. b. Continue using 2 sprays every 2 hours as needed to relieve discomfort. c. Contact the provider to ask about using an ergot alkaloid medication. d. Use 3 sprays at the next dose to increase the dose.

6. A patient who is receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin for pneumonia develops diarrhea. A stool culture is positive for Clostridium difficile. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. add metronidazole [Flagyl]. b. increase the dose of ciprofloxacin. c. restrict dairy products. d. switch to gemifloxacin.

6. A patient who was in a motor vehicle accident sustained a severe head injury and is brought into the emergency department. The provider orders intravenous mannitol [Osmitrol]. The nurse knows that this is given to: a. reduce intracranial pressure. b. reduce renal perfusion. c. reduce peripheral edema. d. restore extracellular fluid.

6. A patient with chronic gout is admitted to the hospital for treatment for an infection. The patient is receiving allopurinol and ampicillin. The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that the patient has a temperature of 101°F and a rash. What will the nurse do? a. Withhold the allopurinol and notify the prescriber of the drug reaction. b. Withhold the ampicillin and contact the provider to request a different antibiotic. c. Request an order for an antihistamine to minimize the drug side effects. d. Suggest giving a lower dose of the allopurinol while giving ampicillin.

6. A patient with volume overload begins taking a thiazide diuretic. The nurse will tell the patient to expect which outcome when taking this drug? a. Improved exercise tolerance b. Increased cardiac output c. Prevention of cardiac remodeling d. Prolonged survival

6. An adolescent is brought to the emergency department by a parent who reports that the patient took a whole bottle of extended-release acetaminophen tablets somewhere between 8 and 10 hours ago. The nurse will anticipate administering which of the following? a. Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst] b. Activated charcoal c. Hemodialysis d. Respiratory support

6. An infant who receives a drug that does not produce CNS side effects in adults exhibits drowsiness and sedation. The nurse understands that this is because of differences in which physiologic system in infants and adults? a. Blood-brain barrier b. First-pass effect c. Gastrointestinal absorption d. Renal filtration

6. The prescriber orders 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally once each day. The nurse will make sure the drug is scheduled to be administered at what time? a. 8:00 AM b. 12:00 PM c. 4:00 PM d. 9:00 PM

6.A nurse is discussing motor symptoms with a patient with Parkinson's disease who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] for 9 months and who is now having regular tics. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this symptom? a. "I may need to try a lower dose of Sinemet to reduce my tics." b. "My provider may order clozapine to treat these tics." c."These tics are an indication that my dose of Sinemet is too low." d. "This means I will have to have surgery to stop the symptoms."

7. A 7-year-old child with asthma uses a daily inhaled glucocorticoid and an albuterol MDI as needed. The provider has added montelukast [Singulair] to the child's regimen. Which statement by the child's parent indicates understanding of this medication? a. "I may notice mood changes in my child." b. "I should give this medication twice daily." c. "I will give my child one 4-mg chewable tablet daily." d. "This drug can alleviate symptoms during an acute attack."

7. A nurse is giving aspirin to a patient during acute management of STEMI. The patient asks why a chewable tablet is given. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Aspirin is absorbed more quickly when it is chewed." b. "Chewing aspirin prevents it from being metabolized by the liver." c. "Chewing aspirin prevents stomach irritation." d. "More of the drug is absorbed when aspirin is chewed."

7. A patient who will begin combination estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT) for menopause asks the nurse why she can't take an estrogen-only preparation. The patient has not had a hysterectomy, has a slightly increased risk of cardiovascular disease, and has mild osteopenia. The nurse will tell her that the progestin is necessary to: a. decrease her risk of endometrial cancer. b. increase bone resorption to prevent fractures. c. lower her risk of myocardial infarction (MI). d. prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

7. A patient with allergic rhinitis is taking a compound product of loratadine/pseudoephedrine [Claritin-D] every 12 hours. The patient complains of insomnia. The nurse notes that the patient is restless and anxious. The patient's heart rate is 90 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to: a. discuss using an intranasal glucocorticoid and loratadine [Claritin]. b. report acute toxicity caused by pseudoephedrine. c. suggest using an agent with a sympathomimetic drug only. d. suggest using a topical decongestant to minimize systemic symptoms.

7. A patient with angina who uses sublingual nitroglycerin tells the nurse that the episodes are increasing in frequency and usually occur when the patient walks the dog. The patient reports needing almost daily doses of the nitroglycerin and states that one tablet usually provides complete relief. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to suggest ordering a transdermal patch for this patient. b. Question the patient about consumption of grapefruit juice. c. Suggest that the patient limit walking the dog to shorter distances less frequently. d. Suggest that the patient take two tablets of nitroglycerin each time, because the symptoms are increasing in frequency.

7. A patient with cerebral palsy has severe muscle spasticity and muscle weakness. The patient is unable to take anything by mouth. The nurse is correct to anticipate that which medication will be ordered for home therapy? a. Baclofen [Lioresal] b. Dantrolene [Dantrium] c. Diazepam [Valium] d. Metaxalone [Skelaxin]

7. A patient with hemophilia A is undergoing a tooth extraction at the dentist's office. As an adjunct to factor VIII, what other drug should the nurse anticipate being ordered for this patient? a. Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron] b. Acetaminophen [Tylenol] c. Desmopressin [Stimate] d. Vitamin K

7. A postpartum patient is receiving methylergonovine to prevent hemorrhage. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 76 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The patient's uterus is firm. The patient complains of mild to moderate cramping. Bleeding is minimal. What will the nurse do? a. Continue to monitor and tell the patient to report increased cramping. b. Notify the provider of possible uterine hypertonicity. c. Notify the provider of the patient's blood pressure. d. Request an order to administer the methylergonovine intravenously.

7. A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is: a. abstinence from the drug. b. decreasing episodes of relapse. c. minimizing drug cravings. d. reduction of drug use.

8. A nurse counsels a patient who is to begin taking phenytoin [Dilantin] for epilepsy. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I should brush and floss my teeth regularly." b. "Once therapeutic blood levels are reached, they are easy to maintain." c. "I can consume alcohol in moderation while taking this drug." d. "Rashes are a common side effect but are not serious."

8. A patient with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years. The patient has developed a goiter, and serum tests reveal hypothyroidism. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Administration of levothyroxine b. Increasing the lithium dose c. Iodine supplements d. Referral to an endocrinologist

8. A patient with vitamin B 12 deficiency is admitted with symptoms of hypoxia, anemia, numbness of hands and feet, and oral stomatitis. The nurse expects the prescriber to order which of the following therapies? a. IM cyanocobalamin and folic acid b. IM cyanocobalamin and antibiotics c. PO cyanocobalamin and folic acid d. PO cyanocobalamin and blood transfusions

8. An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication, the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern? a. Elevated creatinine clearance b. Elevated serum potassium level c. Normal blood glucose level d. Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

9. A male patient with hepatitis C will begin triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa 2a [Pegasys], ribavirin [Ribasphere], and boceprevir [Victrelis]. The patient tells the nurse that his wife is pregnant. What will the nurse tell him? a. Boceprevir is contraindicated in males whose partners are pregnant. b. He should use a barrier contraceptive when having sex. c. He should use dual drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin only. d. This combination drug therapy is safe for him to use.

9. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking low-dose aspirin for several days. The nurse notes that the patient has copious amounts of watery nasal secretions and an urticarial rash. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. administering epinephrine. b. changing to a first-generation NSAID. c. reducing the dose of aspirin. d. giving an antihistamine.

9. A patient taking high doses of a glucocorticoid develops weakness in the muscles of the upper arms and in the legs. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to ask about reducing the dose. b. Encourage the patient to restrict sodium intake. c. Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect. d. Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.

9. A patient with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy develops a fever. The patient's chest radiograph is normal. The patient's neutrophil count is 750/mm3. The nurse expects the provider to: a. begin empiric therapy with intravenous antibiotics. b. obtain cultures and wait for results before prescribing antibiotics. c. order colony-stimulating factor to minimize neutrophilia. d. reassure the patient that serious infection is unlikely.

9. A patient with stable exertional angina has been receiving a beta blocker. Before giving the drug, the nurse notes a resting heart rate of 55 beats per minute. Which is an appropriate nursing action? a. Administer the drug as ordered, because this is a desired effect. b. Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the heart rate. c. Request an order for a lower dose of the medication. d. Request an order to change to another antianginal medication.

9.A nurse is teaching a group of nurses about Parkinson's medications. The nurse is correct to state that one side effect associated with pramipexole [Mirapex] that is less likely to occur with other dopamine agonists is: a.sleep attacks. b.dizziness. c.hallucinations. d.dyskinesias.

A nurse is teaching parents how to use an Epi-Pen for their child, who has a peanut allergy. Which statement by the parents indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "After using the Epi-Pen, we must go to the emergency department." b. "The Epi-Pen should be stored in the refrigerator, because epinephrine is sensitive to heat." c. "The teacher should call us when symptoms start so that we can bring the Epi-Pen to school." d. "We should jab the device into the thigh until it is empty of solution."

A nurse learns about a drug that interferes with transmitter storage in the PNS. The transmitter affected by this drug causes an increased heart rate. What response will the nurse expect to see when this drug is administered? a. Bradycardia b. Positive inotropic effects c. Prolonged receptor activation d. Tachycardia

A nursing student asks a nurse about pharmaceutical research and wants to know the purpose of randomization in drug trials. The nurse explains that randomization is used to do what? A. To ensure that differences in outcomes are the result of treatment and not differences in subjects B. To compare the outcome caused by the treatment to the outcome caused by no treatment C. To make sure that researchers are unaware of which subjects are in which group D. To prevent subjects from knowing which group they are in and prevent preconception bias

A nursing student asks the nurse why more is not known about the teratogenic effects of maternal medication ingestion during pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Clinical trials to assess this risk would put the fetus at risk." b. "It is safer to recommend that pregnant women avoid medications while pregnant." c. "Most women are reluctant to admit taking medications while they are pregnant." d. "The relatively new MEPREP study will allow testing of medications during pregnancy in the future."

A nursing student asks why albuterol, which is selective for beta2 receptors, causes an increased heart rate in some patients. How should the nurse respond? a. "Adrenergic agonists can lose their selectivity when given at higher doses." b. "Bronchodilation lowers blood pressure, which causes a reflex tachycardia." c. "Some patients metabolize the drug differently and have unusual side effects." d. "Systemic effects are intensified with inhaled doses."

A patient is given a prescription for azithromycin and asks the nurse why the dose on the first day is twice the amount of the dose on the next 4 days. Which reply by the nurse is correct? A: A large initial dose helps to get the drug to optimal levels in the body faster B. The first dose is larger to minimize the first pass effect of the liver C. The four smaller doses help the body taper the amount of drug more gradually D. Tubular reabsorption is faster with initial doses, so more is needed at first

A patient is receiving digoxin twice daily. When assessing the patient before giving a dose, the nurse counts a pulse of 60 beats per minute and learns that the patient is experiencing nausea. The nurse consults a drug manual and verifies that the ordered dose is correct. What should the nurse do? a. Contact the prescriber to report the symptoms. b. Delay the dose so the drug can clear from receptor sites. c. Give the medication as ordered, because the dose is correct. d. Request an antinausea medication from the prescriber

A patient is taking sertraline [Zoloft] for depression, and the provider orders azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat an infection. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to discuss an alternative to azithromycin. b. Request an order for a different antidepressant medication. c. Request an order to reduce the dose of sertraline. d. Withhold the sertraline while giving the azithromycin.

A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes is to be discharged from the hospital. The nurse teaching this patient about home management should begin by doing what? A. Asking the patient to demonstrate how to measure and administer insulin B. Discussing methods of storing insulin and discarding syringes C. Giving information about how diet and exercise affect requirements D. Teaching the patient about the long-term consequences of poor diabetes control

A patient receiving botulinum toxin injections to control muscle spasticity asks how the drug works. The nurse knows that this drug affects the transmitter acetylcholine by: a. inhibiting its release. b. interfering with its storage. c. preventing its reuptake. d. promoting its synthesis.

A patient shows loss of consciousness, jaw clenching, contraction and relaxation of muscle groups, and periods of cyanosis. The nurse correctly identifies this as which type of seizure? a. Tonic-clonic b. Petit mal c. Myoclonic d. Atonic

A patient who has been taking clonidine [Catapres] for several weeks complains of drowsiness and constipation. What will the nurse do? a. Recommend that the patient take most of the daily dose at bedtime. b. Suggest asking the provider for a transdermal preparation of the drug. c. Suspect that the patient is overusing the medication. d. Tell the patient to stop taking the drug and call the provider.

1. A nurse is discussing the use of benzodiazepines as sedative-hypnotic agents with a group of nursing students. A student asks about the actions of these drugs in the central nervous system. The nurse makes which correct statement? a. "Benzodiazepines affect the hippocampus and the cerebral cortex to cause anterograde amnesia." b. "Benzodiazepines depress neuronal functions by acting at a single site in the brain." c. "Benzodiazepines induce muscle relaxation by acting on sites outside the central nervous system." d. "Benzodiazepines promote sleep through effects on the limbic system."

10. A patient with a new-onset seizure disorder receives a prescription for phenobarbital. The patient reports being concerned about the sedative side effects of this drug. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Phenobarbital doses for seizures are nonsedating." b. "This is a short-acting barbiturate, so sedation wears off quickly." c. "Tolerance to the sedative effects will develop in a few weeks." d. "You may actually experience paradoxical effects of euphoria."

10. A postoperative patient complains of abdominal bloating and discomfort. The nurse caring for this patient will contact the provider to request which medication? a. Bethanechol b. Droperidol c. Promethazine d. Ondansetron

10. A pregnant patient with fever, flank pain, and chills has a history of two previous bladder infections before getting pregnant. She is allergic to several antibiotics. She reports having taken methenamine successfully in the past. What will the nurse tell her? a. "This agent is not effective against infections of the upper urinary tract." b. "This antiseptic agent is safe for use during pregnancy and has no drug resistance." c. "This drug is linked to many serious birth defects and is not recommended during pregnancy." d. "You will need to take this medication with meals to avoid gastric upset."

11. A patient who is taking nelfinavir [Viracept] calls the nurse to report moderate to severe diarrhea. What will the nurse expect the provider to recommend? a. An over-the-counter antidiarrheal drug b. Immediate discontinuation of the nelfinavir c. Reducing the dose of nelfinavir by half d. Taking the nelfinavir with food to avoid side effects

11. A patient who is taking oral contraceptives begins taking valproic acid [Depakote] for seizures. After a week of therapy with valproic acid, the patient tells the nurse that she is experiencing nausea. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient if she is taking the valproic acid with food, because taking the drug on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal side effects. b. Contact the provider to request an order for a blood ammonia level, because hyperammonemia can occur with valproic acid therapy. c. Suggest that the patient perform a home pregnancy test, because valproic acid can reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives. d. Suspect that hepatotoxicity has occurred, because this is a common adverse effect of valproic acid.

11. The patient with which of the following is most at risk for folic acid deficiency? a. Alcoholism b. Sprue c. Gastrectomy d. Peptic ulcer disease

12. A hospitalized patient has a blood pressure of 145/96 mm Hg. The nurse caring for this patient notes that the blood pressure the day before was 132/98 mm Hg. The patient reports ambulatory blood pressure readings of 136/98 and 138/92 mm Hg. The patient has a history of a previous myocardial infarction and has adopted a lifestyle that includes use of the DASH diet and regular exercise. What will the nurse do? a. Notify the provider and discuss ordering a beta blocker for this patient. b. Notify the provider and suggest a thiazide diuretic as initial therapy. c. Order a diet low in sodium and high in potassium for this patient. d. Recheck the patient's blood pressure in 4 hours to verify the result.

12. A nurse is explaining to nursing students why a cephalosporin is used in conjunction with an aminoglycoside for a patient with an infection. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Cephalosporins enhance the actions of aminoglycosides by weakening bacterial cell walls." b. "Cephalosporins prevent neuromuscular blockade associated with aminoglycosides." c. "Cephalosporins prolong the postantibiotic effects of the aminoglycosides so doses can be decreased." d. "Cephalosporins reduce bacterial resistance to aminoglycosides."

12. A patient calls a family planning clinic and tells the nurse that her vaginal ring, which has been in place for 2 weeks, came out sometime during the night while she was sleeping. The nurse will instruct her to: a. clean the ring with warm water, reinsert it, and use condoms for 7 days. b. discard the ring and insert a new ring after 1 week has passed. c. discard the ring and insert a new one to begin a new cycle. d. wash the ring in hot, soapy water and reinsert it.

12. A patient comes to the clinic and receives valacyclovir [Valtrex] for a herpes-zoster virus. The nurse instructs the patient to take the medication: a. without regard to meals. b. without any dairy products. c. each morning. d. on an empty stomach.

12. A patient has begun taking dimethyl fumarate [Tecfidera] to treat relapsing MS and calls the clinic to report flushing of the skin with itching and burning sensations. What will the nurse recommend to this patient? a. "Take a non-enteric-coated aspirin 30 minutes before each dose." b. "The provider will order an antihistamine to treat this symptom." c. "Try taking the medication on an empty stomach." d. "You should notify the provider immediately."

12. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is admitted to the hospital, and the provider orders oxycodone [OxyContin] every 4 to 6 hours PRN pain. The patient requests pain medication whenever he reports pain as a 7 or 8 on a scale of 1 to 10 (10 being the worst pain), but he tells the nurse the medication is not working well. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. a fixed dosing schedule for the oxycodone. b. intramuscular meperidine [Demerol]. c. intravenous morphine sulfate. d. transdermal fentanyl.

12. A patient who has developed opioid tolerance will experience which effect? a. Decreased analgesic effect b. Decreased constipation c. Increased euphoria d. Increased respiratory depression

12. A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) begins treatment with imatinib [Gleevec]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication? a. "Resistance to this drug may develop over time." b. "The intensity of side effects is dose dependent." c. "This drug does not have significant drug interactions." d. "This drug must be given intravenously."

13. A nurse is reviewing the medications of a patient with diabetes before discharge. The nurse realizes that the patient will be going home on colesevelam, a bile acid sequestrant, and insulin. What patient education should the nurse provide in the discharge teaching for this patient? a. The patient needs to monitor the blood sugar carefully, because colesevelam can cause hypoglycemia. b. The patient needs to monitor the blood sugar carefully, because colesevelam can cause hyperglycemia. c. The patient needs to take the insulin at least 3 hours before the colesevelam. d. The patient needs to use an oral antidiabetic agent or agents, not insulin, with colesevelam.

13. A nurse is teaching a patient who has taken glucocorticoids for over a year about glucocorticoid withdrawal. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should reduce the dose by half each day until I stop taking the drug." b. "I will need to have cortisol levels monitored during the withdrawal process." c. "The withdrawal schedule may take several months." d. "If I have surgery, I may need to take the drug for a while, even after I have stopped."

13. A nursing student asks a nurse to discuss alcoholism and alcohol use disorder. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Alcohol use disorder can occur without the development of tolerance or physical dependence." b. "Individuals with alcohol use disorder develop cross-tolerance with opioid analgesics." c. "Initial symptoms of abstinence syndrome occur within 1 to 2 hours after withdrawal of alcohol." d. "With severe alcoholism, most alcoholics have delirium tremens when alcohol is withdrawn."

13. A patient who has a viral upper respiratory infection reports having a runny nose and a cough that prevents sleep and asks the nurse to recommend an over-the-counter medication. Which medication will the nurse recommend? a. Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] b. Fexofenadine/pseudoephedrine [Allegra-D] c. Guaifenesin [Mucinex] d. Phenylephrine drops

13. A patient who has recently immigrated to the United States from an impoverished country appears malnourished. The patient's folic acid levels are low, and the vitamin B 12 levels are normal. The nurse expects this patient's treatment to include: a. a diet high in folic acid. b. intramuscular folic acid. c. oral folic acid and vitamin B 12 . d. oral folic acid supplements.

13. A patient with high-risk factors for tuberculosis will begin therapy for latent TB with isoniazid and rifampin. The nurse learns that this patient takes oral contraceptives. The nurse will counsel this patient to discuss ____ with her provider. a. another birth control method b. reducing the rifampin dose c. reducing the isoniazid dose d. increasing the oral contraceptive dose

13. A woman has been taking a progestin-only oral contraceptive and will begin using a vaginal ring. The nurse will teach the patient to insert the ring: a. the day the last pill is taken and use backup contraception for 7 days. b. 1 week before taking the last pill. c. 1 to 5 days after taking the last pill and use backup contraception for 2 days. d. within 7 days after taking the last pill.

13. Which statement is correct about the contrast between acarbose and miglitol? a. Miglitol has not been associated with hepatic dysfunction. b. With miglitol, sucrose can be used to treat hypoglycemia. c. Miglitol is less effective in African Americans. d. Miglitol has no gastrointestinal side effects.

13. Which two-drug regimen would be appropriate for a patient with hypertension who does not have other compelling conditions? a. Hydrochlorothiazide and nadolol b. Hydralazine and minoxidil c. Spironolactone and amiloride d. Trichlormethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide

14. A nurse is obtaining an admission history on a patient who reports daily drinking for several years. When the nurse questions the patient further, the patient reports drinking up to five or six drinks each day. The patient expresses worry about liver damage. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the patient's provider to request liver function studies. b. Explain that hepatitis, progressing to severe liver impairment, is likely. c. Inform the patient that the history indicates that cirrhosis is likely to occur. d. Tell the patient that stopping drinking will reverse any effects on the liver.

14. A patient has been receiving intravenous ketorolac 30 mg every 6 hours for postoperative pain for 4 days. The patient will begin taking oral ketorolac 10 mg every 4 to 6 hours to prepare for discharge in 1 or 2 days. The patient asks the nurse whether this drug will be prescribed for management of pain after discharge. The nurse will respond by telling the patient that the provider will prescribe a(n): a. different nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug for home management of pain. b. fixed-dose opioid analgesic/nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication. c. lower dose of the oral ketorolac for long-term pain management. d. intranasal preparation of ketorolac for pain management at home.

14. A patient who has arthritis has been taking ibuprofen [Motrin] and a glucocorticoid medication. The patient reports having tarry stools but denies gastric pain. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Contact the provider to discuss ordering an antiulcer medication. b. Counsel the patient to use over-the-counter antacids. c. Reassure the patient not to worry unless there is gastric pain. d. Tell the patient to stop taking the glucocorticoid immediately.

14. A patient with heart failure who has been given digoxin [Lanoxin] daily for a week complains of nausea. Before giving the next dose, the nurse will: a. assess the heart rate (HR) and give the dose if the HR is greater than 60 beats per minute. b. contact the provider to report digoxin toxicity. c. request an order for a decreased dose of digoxin. d. review the serum electrolyte values and withhold the dose if the potassium level is greater than 3.5 mEq/L.

15. A first-time parent of a 6-week-old infant tells the nurse that she feels anxious and sad, cries a lot, and has difficulty sleeping. What will the nurse do? a. Ask her to complete the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale. b. Reassure her that the "baby blues" are normal after childbirth. c. Suggest that she get more sleep and try to increase her activity. d. Suggest that she talk to her provider about using an SSRI.

15. A nurse is teaching a patient who will undergo chemotherapy with fluorouracil [Adrucil] to treat a solid tumor. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this chemotherapeutic agent's actions? a. "Fluorouracil acts to deprive cancer cells of thymidylate needed to make DNA." b. "Fluorouracil causes accumulation of adenosine, which inhibits DNA synthesis." c. "Fluorouracil disrupts the biosynthesis of nucleic acids." d. "Fluorouracil inhibits DNA polymerase in cancer cells."

15. A patient who has been newly diagnosed with asthma is referred to an asthma clinic. The patient reports daily symptoms requiring short-acting beta2-agonist treatments for relief. The patient has used oral glucocorticoids three times in the past 3 months and reports awakening at night with symptoms about once a week. The patient's forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) is 75% of predicted values. The nurse will expect this patient to be started on which regimen? a. Daily low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid/LABA with a SABA as needed b. Daily low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid and a SABA as needed c. Daily medium-dose inhaled glucocorticoid/LABA combination d. No daily medications just a SABA as needed

15. A patient who is being treated for HIV infection has a 5-mm area of induration after a routine TST. The patient's chest radiograph is normal, and there are no other physical findings. The nurse will expect this patient to begin treatment with which drugs? a. Isoniazid and rifabutin b. Isoniazid and rifampin c. Isoniazid and rifapentine d. Isoniazid and pyrazinamide

15. A patient who reports regular consumption of two or three alcoholic beverages per day asks about taking acetaminophen when needed for occasional recurrent pain. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. "Do not take more than 2 gm of acetaminophen a day." b. "Do not take more than 3 gm of acetaminophen a day." c. "Do not take more than 4 gm of acetaminophen a day." d. "Do not take a fixed-dose preparation with opioid analgesics."

15. A patient with a recent onset of nephrosclerosis has been taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic. The patient's initial blood pressure was 148/100 mm Hg. After 1 month of drug therapy, the patient's blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. adding a calcium channel blocker to this patient's drug regimen. b. lowering doses of the antihypertensive medications. c. ordering a high-potassium diet. d. adding spironolactone to the drug regimen.

15. A woman who is breastfeeding is prescribed a low pharmacologic dose of a glucocorticoid and asks the nurse about potential effects on her infant. What will the nurse tell her about this medication? a. "At this dose, the concentration in your breast milk is safe." b. "Contact your provider to discuss lowering the dose." c. "There will be reversible side effects for your baby." d. "This drug is likely to cause growth retardation in your baby."

15. The nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B intravenously. The nurse will expect to pretreat the patient with which medications? a. Acetaminophen [Tylenol], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol] b. Aspirin, diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol] c. Ibuprofen [Motrin], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol] d. Morphine sulphate [Morphine] and acetaminophen ]Tylenol]

16. A 5-year-old patient seen in an outpatient clinic is noted to have hypertension on three separate visits. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring confirms that the child has hypertension. As an initial intervention with the child's parents, the nurse will expect to: a. perform a detailed health history on the child. b. provide teaching about antihypertensive medications. c. reassure the parents that their child may outgrow this condition. d. teach the parents about lifestyle changes and a special diet.

16. A college student is brought to the emergency department by a group of friends who report that they had been dancing at a nightclub when their friend collapsed. The patient has a temperature of 105°F and shows jaw clenching and confusion. The nurse will expect to administer which medication? a. Dantrolene [Dantrium] b. Haloperidol [Haldol] c. Methadone d. Naloxone [Narcan]

16. A hospitalized patient is being treated for tuberculosis with a drug regimen that includes pyrazinamide. The patient complains of pain in the knee and shoulder joints. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for: a. ibuprofen. b. renal function tests. c. discontinuation of the pyrazinamide. d. measurement of uric acid levels.

16. A patient who has renal impairment will begin taking ranolazine [Ranexa] as an adjunct to nitroglycerine to treat angina. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient? a. "You will need to monitor your blood pressure closely while taking this drug." b. "You should take this drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal." c. "You may experience rapid heart rate while taking this medication." d. "You do not need to worry about drug interactions with this medication."

16. A patient with metastatic cancer has had several fractures secondary to bone metastases. The provider orders denosumab [Xgeva]. What will the nurse teach this patient? a. Denosumab may delay healing of these fractures. b. Denosumab should be given subcutaneously every 12 months. c. Denosumab will improve hypocalcemia. d. Unlike bisphosphonates, denosumab does not increase osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ).

17. A patient has begun taking phenobarbital after experiencing several seizures and is currently receiving 60 mg PO twice daily. After two weeks of therapy, the patient has a serum drug level of 30 mcg/mL and reports feeling drowsy much of the day. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. "I will contact your provider to discuss changing your dosing to once daily to minimize the drowsiness." b. "The drug level is low and you may need a higher dose, but taking it three times daily will reduce the drowsiness." c. "This side effect is expected and should decrease over time. You should avoid driving in the meantime." d. "Your lab work shows a higher than normal level of the drug and your provider will probably lower your dose."

17. A patient is about to begin therapy with ethambutol. The nurse knows that, before initiating treatment with this drug, it is important to obtain which test(s)? a. Color vision and visual acuity b. Complete blood cell (CBC) count c. Hearing testing and a tympanogram d. Hepatic function tests

17. A patient is receiving tobramycin three times daily. A tobramycin peak level is 4.5 and the trough is 1.2. What will the nurse do? a. Give the next dose as ordered. b. Hold the next dose and notify the provider. c. Monitor the patient for signs of nephrotoxicity. d. Tell the patient to report tinnitus.

17. A patient who is taking warfarin [Coumadin] has just vomited blood. The nurse notifies the provider, who orders lab work revealing a PT of 42 seconds and an INR of 3.5. The nurse will expect to administer: a. phytonadione (vitamin K 1 ) 1 mg IV over 1 hour. b. phytonadione (vitamin K 1 ) 2.5 mg PO. c. protamine sulfate 20 mg PO. d. protamine sulfate 20 mg slow IV push.

17. A postmenopausal woman will begin taking atorvastatin [Lipitor] to treat hypercholesterolemia. The woman reports a history of osteopenia with a family risk of osteoporosis. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient? a. The need to discuss taking a bisphosphonate medication with her provider b. That statins are known to reduce the risk of osteoporosis c. That she should avoid foods high in calcium d. To discuss vitamin D supplements with her provider since statins deplete calcium

17. In discussing the rationale for using methadone to ease opioid withdrawal, the nurse would explain that it has which pharmacologic properties or characteristics? a. Methadone can prevent abstinence syndrome. b. Methadone has a shorter duration of action than other opioids. c. Methadone is a nonopioid agent. d. Methadone lacks cross-tolerance with other opioids.

18. A patient has been taking digoxin [Lanoxin] 0.25 mg, and furosemide [Lasix] 40 mg, daily. Upon routine assessment by the nurse, the patient states, "I see yellow halos around the lights." The nurse should perform which action based on this assessment? a. Check the patient for other symptoms of digitalis toxicity. b. Withhold the next dose of furosemide. c. Continue to monitor the patient for heart failure. d. Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour.

18. A patient who is taking drugs to treat HIV has tuberculosis and has been on a four-drug regimen for 3 months without improvement in symptoms. Which drug will the nurse anticipate that the provider will add to this patient's regimen? a. bedaquiline [Sirturo] b. capreomycin [Capastat Sulfate] c. ethionamide [Trecator] d. pyridoxine

18. A patient with severe, chronic COPD uses an inhaled LABA/glucocorticoid but continues to have frequent exacerbations of symptoms. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. adding roflumilast [Daliresp] once daily. b. changing to oral theophylline twice daily. c. prescribing oral steroids once daily. d. Using an ipratropium/albuterol combination twice daily.

18. The nurse has just received an order for tenecteplase [TNKase] for a patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction. The nurse should administer this drug: a. by bolus injection. b. by infusion pump over 24 hours. c. slowly over 90 minutes. d. via monitored, prolonged infusion.

18. Which superficial mycosis is generally treated with oral antifungal agents? a. Tinea capitis b. Tinea corporis c. Tinea cruris d. Tinea pedis

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a drug that causes constriction of arterioles. The nurse expects to observe which effect from this drug? a. Decreased stroke volume b. Increased stroke volume c. Decreased myocardial contractility d. Increased myocardial contractility

2. A nurse is providing education to a patient who will begin taking alendronate [Fosamax]. Which complication should the patient be instructed to report immediately? a. Difficulty swallowing b. Dizziness c. Drowsiness d. Pallor

2. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about cancer treatment. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of the characteristics of cancer cells? a. "Cancer cells are characterized by unrestrained growth and division." b. "Division of cancer cells is characteristically rapid." c. "Malignant cells of solid tumors do not invade other tissues." d. "Telomerase is an enzyme produced by cancer cells that promotes metastases."

2. A patient with bone cancer has recently undergone chemotherapy and radiation therapy toreduce the size of the tumor. The patient is taking a large dose of an opioid analgesic, along with acetaminophen and an antidepressant. The nursing student caring for this patient is concerned that the patient is showing drug-seeking behaviors, because the individual requested an increased dose of the opioid. The student discusses this concern with the nurse. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "It would probably help this patient more to give a larger antidepressant dose." b. "Patients often need more drug to achieve the same effect." c. "Radiation and chemotherapy can damage bone tissue and cause increased pain." d. "The patient's description of pain is the most important part of the assessment of pain."

2. A patient with diabetes develops hypertension. The nurse will anticipate administering which type of medication to treat hypertension in this patient? a. ACE inhibitors b. Beta blockers c. Direct-acting vasodilators d. Thiazide diuretics

2. An infertile patient has received two 5-day courses of clomiphene [Clomid] to help her conceive. An ultrasound 1 week after the last dose reveals that follicular maturation has occurred without ovulation. The nurse expects the next step for this patient to be: a. administration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). b. an order for cabergoline to be given twice weekly. c. evaluation of ovarian and pituitary function. d. repeating clomiphene once daily for 5 days.

2. The spouse of a patient who is newly diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease asks the nurse if medications will prevent the need for nursing home care. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Drugs to treat Alzheimer's diseasemay slow the progression of memoryloss." b. "Drugs may be effective to stop the progression of the disease if they are initiated early in the disease." c. "Medications to treat Alzheimer's disease are effective for treating core symptoms of the disease." d. "Medications for Alzheimer's disease are effective in reducing cognitive impairment."

2. The spouse of a patient with bipolar disorder (BPD) tells the nurse that the patient will not stay on the lithium ordered by the provider longer than 1 or 2 months at a time. The nurse understands that adherence to medication regimens in patients with BPD is problematic and will tell the spouse: a. "During manic episodes, many patients don't see the benefit of prophylactic medications." b. "Increased gastrointestinal side effects occur over time and reduce compliance." c. "Long-term use of lithium causes memory impairment, causing patients to forget to take their medications." d. "Patients who are depressed do not want to take their medications."

2.A nurse provides teaching for a patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the drug therapy for this disease? a. "A levodopa/carbidopa combination is used to improve motor function." b. "There are several drugs available to treat dyskinesias." c. "When 'off' times occur, I may need to increase my dose of levodopa." d."With adequate drug therapy, the disease progression may be slowed."

3. A 20-year-old female patient has suprapubic discomfort, pyuria, dysuria, and bacteriuria greater than 100,000/mL of urine. Which are the most likely diagnosis and treatment? a. Uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with short-course therapy b. Complicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with single-dose therapy c. Uncomplicated upper urinary tract infection requiring 14 days of oral antibiotics d. Complicated upper urinary tract infection requiring parenteral antibiotics

3. A group of nursing students asks a nurse to explain the blood-brain barrier. The nurse would be correct to say that the blood-brain barrier: a. prevents some potentially toxic substances from crossing into the central nervous system. b. causes infants to be less sensitive to CNS drugs and thus require larger doses. c. allows only ionized or protein-bound drugs to cross into the central nervous system. d. prevents lipid-soluble drugs from entering the central nervous system.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. The patient is unresponsive. After asking a coworker to contact the provider, the nurse anticipates performing which intervention? a. Preparing to support respirations b. Administering an antidote to baclofen c. Administering diazepam to prevent seizures d. Obtaining an electrocardiogram

3. A nurse is discussing partial versus generalized seizures with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Febrile seizures are a type of generalized tonic-clonic seizure." b. "Generalized seizures are characterized by convulsive activity." c. "Partial seizures do not last as long as generalized seizures." d. "Patients having partial seizures do not lose consciousness."

3. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a hospitalized patient who has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for 3 days. The patient is complaining of mild nausea and abdominal bloating. The patient's lithium level is 0.8 mEq/L. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the dose and tell the patient that the side effects are temporary. b. Contact the prescriber to request an order for serum electrolytes. c. Hold the dose and notify the prescriber of the patient's lithium level. d. Request an order for amiloride [Midamor].

3. A nurse is teaching a patient who is about to undergo direct-current (DC) cardioversion to treat atrial flutter. The patient has been taking verapamil and warfarin for 6 months. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may need long-term therapy with another cardiac medication after the procedure." b. "I should stop taking warfarin a few days before the procedure." c. "I will need to take a beta blocker after the procedure to prevent recurrence of atrial flutter." d. "I will not have to take antidysrhythmia medications after the procedure."

18. A nurse has provided education for a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension who is just beginning therapy with antihypertensive medications. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may experience serious long-term problems even if I am not having symptoms." b. "I should report side effects to the provider since other drugs may be substituted." c. "I will need to take medications on a long-term basis." d. "When my symptoms subside, I may discontinue the medications."

18. A patient who has traveler's diarrhea asks the nurse about using loperamide to stop the symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient about this drug? a. "Loperamide is used for moderate to severe symptoms only." b. "This drug is useful as prophylaxis to prevent symptoms." c. "This drug is only effective to treat certain infectious agents." d. "Use of this drug may prolong symptoms by slowing peristalsis."

2. A nurse is discussing the difference between stable and variant angina with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching? a. "Beta blockers are effective in stable angina but not in variant angina." b. "In both types of angina, prophylactic treatment is possible." c. "Variant angina is primarily treated with vasodilators to increase oxygen supply." d. "Variant angina is the result of increased oxygen demand by the heart."

2. A nurse is teaching a group of adolescent students about sexually transmitted diseases. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of infections caused by C. trachomatis? a. "C. trachomatis conjunctivitis in newborns can result in blindness." b. "The CDC recommends screening for chlamydial infections in all sexually active men." c. "Treatment for C. trachomatis should be initiated when infections are symptomatic." d. "Women with asymptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis infections can become sterile."

2. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use." b. "Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs." c. "Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop." d. "Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."

2. A nurse is teaching nursing students about inhalation anesthesia and asks, "What is balanced anesthesia?" Which response by a student is correct? a. "An anesthesia that has a brief induction period with a rapid emergence from its effects." b. "An inhalation anesthesia that produces both muscle relaxation and unconsciousness." c. "An anesthesia that provides maximum analgesia with minimal respiratory side effects." d. "An anesthesia that combines other drugs with inhalation anesthesia to produce the desired effects."

2. A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia], along with metoprolol, to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to: a. reduce flushing. b. minimize gingival hyperplasia. c. prevent constipation. d. prevent reflex tachycardia.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) for 10 years and has a history of 3 periods of neurologic dysfunction lasting several weeks separated by long periods of full recovery. In the past 6 months, the patient has had a prolonged period of neurologic dysfunction without remission. The nurse understands that the patient may have which MS subtype? a. Primary progressive MS b. Progressive-relapsing MS c. Relapsing-remitting MS d. Secondary progressive MS

2. A patient is in preterm labor, and the prescriber orders magnesium sulfate for its neuroprotective effect on the fetus. The order calls for 4 gm given as an intravenous bolus over 20 minutes, followed by a maintenance infusion of 2 gm/hr. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the drug as ordered. b. Question the bolus amount. c. Question the bolus rate. d. Question the maintenance amount.

2. A patient is ready for discharge home from a lengthy hospital stay after a motor vehicle accident. The patient suffered multiple fractures and required large doses of morphine for several weeks. The nurse preparing the patient for discharge notes that the patient requests the maximum dose of the oral opioid analgesic at the exact intervals it is prescribed. The nurse is correct to suspect that what has occurred? a. Addiction b. Compulsive drug seeking c. Cross-tolerance d. Drug tolerance

2. A patient is receiving heparin postoperatively to prevent deep vein thrombosis. The nurse notes that the patient has a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 98 beats per minute. The patient's most recent aPTT is greater than 90 seconds. The patient reports lumbar pain. The nurse will request an order for: a. a repeat aPTT to be drawn immediately. b. analgesic medication. c. changing heparin to aspirin. d. protamine sulfate.

2. A patient on an oncology unit has been receiving ifosfamide [Ifex] for a few days. Before administering the next dose, the nurse reviews the patient's laboratory test results. Which finding would cause the nurse to hold the dose? a. Elevated white blood cell count b. Low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels c. Low levels of ketones in the urine d. Microscopic hematuria

2. A patient who has been newly diagnosed with adrenal hormone deficiency will begin taking hydrocortisone. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may take all of my daily dose in the morning or divide it in half and take it twice daily." b. "I will need to take this medication until my symptoms completely clear, and then I may stop." c. "Side effects are common with hydrocortisone, even with therapeutic doses." d. "When I am sick, I should take three times the normal dose for 3 days in a row."

2. A patient who has been using secobarbital for several months to treat insomnia tells the nurse that the prescriber has said the prescription will be changed to temazepam [Restoril] because it is safer. The patient asks why this agent is safer. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that temazepam: a. does not depress the central nervous system. b.shows no respiratory depression, even in toxic doses. c. mimics the actions of a central nervous system inhibitory neurotransmitter. d. potentiates endogenous gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) producing a finite CNS depression.

2. A patient who has drug-sensitive tuberculosis has completed 2 months of the standard four-drug therapy and asks the nurse how long he will have to take medication. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "As long as you remain symptomatic, you will not have to take more medication." b. "The four-drug regimen will continue for 3 more months." c. "You will have to take maintenance drugs indefinitely." d. "You will need to take only two drugs for the next 4 months."

2. A patient who has had abdominal surgery has been receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse assesses the patient and notes that the patient's pupils are dilated and that the patient is drowsy and lethargic. The patient's heart rate is 84 beats per minute, the respiratory rate is 10 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. What will the nurse do? a. Discuss possible opiate dependence with the patient's provider. b. Encourage the patient to turn over and cough and take deep breaths. c. Note the effectiveness of the analgesia in the patient's chart. d. Prepare to administer naloxone and possibly ventilatory support.

2. A patient with a liver transplant has been receiving cyclosporine [Sandimmune] for 6 months. The nurse reviews this patient's laboratory results and notes a sharp increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine. Vital signs are normal, and the patient reports no discomfort. What does the nurse suspect? a. Hepatotoxicity b. Infection c. Organ rejection d. Nephrotoxicity

2. A patient with gout who has increasingly frequent acute gouty attacks will begin receiving allopurinol [Zyloprim] and colchicine. The nurse will include which statement when teaching the patient about this drug regimen? a. "Allopurinol helps reduce the gastrointestinal side effects of colchicine." b. "Allopurinol reduces the likelihood of gouty episodes that usually occur with initial colchicine therapy." c. "The colchicine is given to enhance the effects of the allopurinol." d. "You will take both drugs initially and then stop taking the colchicine."

2. A patient with stable COPD receives prescriptions for an inhaled glucocorticoid and an inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication regimen? a. "I should use the glucocorticoid as needed when symptoms flare." b. "I will need to use the beta2-adrenergic agonist drug daily." c. "The beta2-adrenergic agonist suppresses the synthesis of inflammatory mediators." d. "The glucocorticoid is used as prophylaxis to prevent exacerbations."

2. A patient with type 1 diabetes is eating breakfast at 7:30 AM. Blood sugars are on a sliding scale and are ordered before a meal and at bedtime. The patient's blood sugar level is 317 mg/dL. Which formulation of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer? a. No insulin should be administered. b. NPH c. 70/30 mix d. Lispro [Humalog]

2. An older male patient comes to the clinic with complaints of chills, malaise, myalgia, localized pain, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention. The nurse would most likely suspect that the patient has: a. acute cystitis. b. urinary tract infection. c. pyelonephritis. d. prostatitis.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and is taking zidovudine [Retrovir]. Before administering the medication, the nurse should monitor which laboratory values? a. Ketones in the urine and blood b. Serum immunoglobulin levels c. Serum lactate dehydrogenase d. Complete blood count (CBC)

2.A patient who is at risk for osteoporosis will begin taking the selective estrogen receptor modulator raloxifene [Evista]. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching this patient about the medication? a. Raloxifene reduces the risk of thromboembolism. b. The drug is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. c. Use of this drug increases the risk of endometrial carcinoma. d. Vasomotor symptoms are a common side effect of this drug.

21. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a superficial fungal infection and notes that the provider has ordered 200 mg of ketoconazole [Nizoral] 200 mg PO once daily. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Administer the drug as ordered. b. Contact the provider to discuss twice daily dosing. c. Discuss a 400-mg daily drug regimen with the provider. d. Request an order for a different antifungal medication.

3. A 7-year-old child who is otherwise healthy is receiving mecasermin [Increlex] replacement therapy to treat severe primary deficiency of insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1). The child develops tonsillar hypertrophy. The nurse anticipates that the provider will recommend: a. antibiotics. b. reducing the dose of mecasermin. c. discontinuing the mecasermin. d. tonsillectomy.

3. A hospitalized patient who is given one dose of flurazepam continues to show drowsiness the next day. A nursing student asks the nurse the reason for this, because the drug's half-life is only 2 to 3 hours. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Benzodiazepines commonly cause residual effects lasting into the day after the dose is given." b. "The patient is having a paradoxical reaction to this medication." c. "This patient must have developed a previous tolerance to benzodiazepines." d. "When this drug is metabolized, the resulting compound has longer-lasting effects."

3. A nurse is assisting a physician who is preparing to suture a superficial laceration on a patient's leg. The physician asks the nurse to draw up lidocaine with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is used with the lidocaine to: a. allow more systemic absorption to speed up metabolism of the lidocaine. b. increase the rate of absorption of the lidocaine. c. improve perfusion by increasing blood flow to the area. d. prolong anesthetic effects and reduce the risk of systemic toxicity from lidocaine.

3. A nurse is preparing a patient who will stop taking lorazepam [Ativan] for anxiety and begin taking buspirone [Buspar]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice." b. "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia." c. "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks." d. "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."

3. A nurse reads a tuberculin skin test on a patient and notes a 6- to 7-mm area of induration. The patient is a young adult who has recently immigrated from a country with a high prevalence of tuberculosis. The patient has no other risk factors. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. begin treating this patient with a two-drug regimen of isoniazid and rifampin. b. order a chest radiograph and a sputum culture to assess for active tuberculosis. c. order a nucleic acid amplification test of the patient's sputum. d. reassure the patient that this is not considered a positive test result.

3. A patient is diagnosed with major depression with severe symptoms and begins taking an antidepressant medication. Three weeks after beginning therapy, the patient tells the nurse that the drug is not working. The nurse will counsel this patient to ask the provider about: a. adding a second medication to complement this drug. b. changing the medication to one in a different drug class. c. increasing the dose of this medication. d. using nondrug therapies to augment the medication.

3. A patient taking an FGA medication develops severe parkinsonism and is treated with amantadine [Symmetrel]. The amantadine is withdrawn 2 months later, and the parkinsonism returns. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. give anticholinergic medications. b. make a diagnosis of idiopathic parkinsonism. c. resume the amantadine indefinitely. d. try a second-generation antipsychotic (SGA).

3. A patient was given a 30-day supply of Feosol and has been taking the drug for 4 weeks for iron deficiency anemia. The patient's initial hemoglobin was 8.9 gm/dL. The nurse notes that the hemoglobin has risen to 9.7 gm/dL. What will the nurse ask the patient about? a. Dietary iron intake b. Gastrointestinal (GI) upset c. Whether stools have been tarry or black d. Whether the prescription needs to be refilled

3. A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to: a. addiction. b. psychologic dependence. c. tolerance. d. withdrawal syndrome.

3. A patient who has endometriosis has been unable to conceive. She asks the nurse about medications to treat the condition. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Combination oral contraceptives are effective for improving fertility. b. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists are used for long-term treatment. c. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are second-line agents for treating pain. d. Pharmacologic agents used to treat endometriosis do not enhance fertility.

3. A patient who has seasonal allergies in the spring and fall asks the nurse about oral antihistamines. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Anticholinergic effects are more common with second-generation antihistamines." b. "First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine [Benadryl], are more effective." c. "Make sure you take antihistamines only when you have symptoms to minimize side effects." d. "You should take oral antihistamines daily during each allergy season to get maximum effects."

3. An older adult patient with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to the hospital. The patient's spouse reports that the patient is often confused and gets lost walking to the store, which is three blocks from their home. That evening, the nurse observes the patient pacing the hall and screaming. What will the nurse do? a. Notify the provider of this patient's worsening symptoms. b. Prepare the patient's spouse for impending death from Alzheimer's disease. c. Request an increase in the medication dose to treat the exacerbation in symptoms. d. Tell the spouse that this is an expected progression of the disease.

3. What is the primary reason for opioid abuse? a. Ease of access b. Initial "rush" similar to orgasm c. Peer pressure d. Prolonged sense of euphoria

3.A patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease (PD) and begins treatment with levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. After several months of therapy, the patient reports no change in symptoms. The nurse will expect the provider to: a.add a dopamine agonist. b.discuss the "on-off" phenomenon. c.increase the dose of Sinemet. d.re-evaluate the diagnosis.

4. A nurse is caring for four patients. The nurse would be concerned about which patient developing a substance use disorder? a. A college student who reports having experimented with marijuana in the past year b. An older adult patient with terminal cancer who requires twice the normal dose of morphine for pain relief c. A patient in moderate to severe pain after a total hip replacement who asks for pain medication an hour before the next dose is due d. A patient whose history indicates the use of prescription narcotic analgesics for back and headache pain

4. A nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who will receive tadalafil [Cialis] for erectile dysfunction. The patient reports that he expects to have sexual activity three or four times a week. What should the nurse tell the patient? a. Adverse effects of tadalafil resolve more quickly than those of sildenafil. b. There is an increased risk of priapism with frequent sexual activity. c. He should take tadalafil 30 to 60 minutes before sexual activity. d. He should talk to his provider about daily dosing of tadalafil.

4. A nurse is teaching a group of students about how CNS drugs are developed. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Central nervous system drug development relies on observations of their effects on human behavior." b. "Studies of new central nervous system drugs in healthy subjects can produce paradoxical effects." c. "Our knowledge of the neurochemical and physiologic changes that underlie mental illness is incomplete." d. "These drugs are developed based on scientific knowledge of CNS transmitters and receptors."

4. A nurse preparing to administer morning medications notes that a patient with a history of hypertension has been prescribed spironolactone [Aldactone]. The nurse assesses the patient and notes dyspnea, bilateral crackles, and pitting edema in both feet. Which intervention is appropriate? a. Administer the medications as ordered. b. Ask the patient about the use of salt substitutes. c. Contact the provider to request an order for serum electrolytes. d. Request an order for furosemide [Lasix].

4. A nurse provides teaching to a group of nursing students about the risks and benefits of hormone therapy (HT), including estrogen therapy (ET) and combination estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT). Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "ET can provide protection against coronary heart disease and reverse osteoporosis." b. "EPT is generally safer than ET, especially in women who have undergone hysterectomies." c. "In women with established coronary heart disease, EPT can protect against myocardial infarction." d. "Principle benefits of ET are suppression of menopausal symptoms and prevention of bone loss."

4. A nurse teaches a patient about sulfonamides. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I need to drink extra fluids while taking this medication." b. "I need to use sunscreen when taking this drug." c. "I should call my provider if I develop a rash while taking this drug." d. "I should stop taking this drug when my symptoms are gone."

4. A patient asks a nurse how nitroglycerin works to relieve anginal pain. The nurse correctly states, "Nitroglycerin: a. dilates coronary arteries to increase blood flow to the heart." b. increases the oxygen supply to the cardiac muscle." c. increases ventricular filling to improve cardiac output." d. promotes vasodilation, which reduces preload and oxygen demand."

4. A patient diagnosed with STEMI is about to undergo a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Which combination of pharmacotherapeutic agents will be given to augment this procedure? a. Beta blocker and nitroglycerin b. Abciximab and a fibrinolytic drug c. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and aspirin d. Heparin, aspirin, and clopidogrel

4. A patient is beginning treatment for active tuberculosis (TB) in a region with little drug-resistant TB. Which treatment regimen will be used initially? a. Isoniazid and pyrazinamide b. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol c. Rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol d. Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

4. A patient tells a nurse that she drinks wine for its cardioprotective effects. She wants to know how much is safe. The nurse is correct in telling her that: a. "A couple of glasses of wine 1 or 2 days a week will help prevent heart disease." b. "Abstaining from alcohol completely is the best way to prevent heart disease." c. "If you drink only on weekends, you will minimize your risk of developing heart disease." d. "Cardioprotective effects are greatest in people who live an unhealthy lifestyle."

4. A patient who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal is given a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that this drug is effective because: a. the alcohol does not interact with the benzodiazepine. b. the benzodiazepine potentiates alcohol withdrawal symptoms. c. the benzodiazepine relieves muscle spasms and spasticity. d. the patient has a cross-dependence to the benzodiazepine.

4. A patient who is taking calcium supplements receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a urinary tract infection. The nurse will teach this patient to: a. consume extra fluids while taking the ciprofloxacin to prevent hypercalciuria. b. stop taking the calcium supplements while taking the ciprofloxacin. c. take the two medications together to increase the absorption of both. d. take the calcium either 6 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin.

4. A patient with cancer has a tumor composed mostly of G0 cells. When teaching this patient about the disease, the nurse will make which statement? a. "Cells in this patient's type of tumor will proliferate rapidly." b. "Chemotherapeutic agents that are not toxic to other tissues may be used." c. "This type of tumor is especially sensitive to chemotherapy." d. "This tumor will be managed primarily with surgery."

4. A premenopausal woman has ER-positive breast cancer, and her prescriber has ordered tamoxifen [Nolvadex]. She asks the nurse if anastrozole [Arimidex] would work better for her. What will the nurse tell her? a. Anastrozole is more likely to cause hot flushes than tamoxifen. b. Anastrozole is more likely to promote endometrial carcinoma. c. Cancer recurrence is higher with anastrozole. d. Until she is postmenopausal, anastrozole will not be effective.

4. A young, nonpregnant female patient with a history of a previous urinary tract infection is experiencing dysuria, urinary urgency and frequency, and suprapubic pain of 3 days' duration. She is afebrile. A urine culture is positive for more than 100,000/mL of urine. The nurse caring for this patient knows that which treatment is most effective? a. A 14-day course of amoxicillin with clavulanic acid [Augmentin] b. A 7-day course of ciprofloxacin [Cipro] c. A single dose of fosfomycin [Monurol] d. A 3-day course of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]

4. The parent of a child with cerebral palsy reports that the child has pebble-like stools most of the time and seems uncomfortable if several days have passed between stools. The nurse will suggest that the parent discuss which medication with the child's provider? a. Bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppositories b. Magnesium citrate c. Methylcellulose [Citrucel] d. Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]

5. A nurse is preparing to administer oral ofloxacin to a patient. While taking the patient's medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin and theophylline. The correct action by the nurse is to request an order to: a. reduce the dose of ofloxacin. b. increase the dose of ofloxacin. c. increase the dose of theophylline. d. monitor coagulation levels.

5. A nurse is providing education to a patient who is beginning therapy with AndroGel testosterone gel. What statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching? a. "I should not shower or swim for at least 5 to 6 hours after application." b. "I should avoid direct skin-to-skin contact with my spouse where the medication was applied." c. "I should have my blood drawn for laboratory tests in 14 days." d. "I should apply the medication to my genitals for best results."

5. A nurse preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to a patient notes that the dose is half the usual dose for an adult. The nurse suspects that this is because this patient has a history of: a. antibiotic resistance. b. interpatient variation. c. liver disease. d. renal disease.

5. A nursing student is caring for a patient who is addicted to several drugs. The student tells the nurse that the patient "got this way on purpose." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Peer pressure and social factors determine individual choices." b. "Physical dependence is necessary for addiction to occur." c. "Preexisting psychopathology underlies most drug abuse." d. "Some individuals are more vulnerable to drug abuse than others."

5. A parent asks a nurse about giving diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to a child to relieve cold symptoms. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Benadryl must be given in higher doses to provide relief for cold symptoms." b. "Intranasal glucocorticoids are more effective for treating cold symptoms." c. "Nasal antihistamines are more effective for treating cold symptoms." d. "Because histamine doesn't cause cold symptoms, Benadryl would not be effective."

5. A patient in the emergency department has severe chest pain. The nurse administers morphine intravenously. The patient asks the nurse why morphine is given. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Morphine helps by reducing anxiety and relieving pain." b. "Morphine helps by reducing pain and dissolving clots." c. "Morphine helps by relieving pain and lowering blood pressure." d. "Morphine helps by relieving pain and reducing the cardiac oxygen demand."

5. A patient is being treated with warfarin [Coumadin] to prevent thrombus. The patient develops hyperuricemia, and the provider orders allopurinol [Zyloprim]. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose. a. increasing, allopurinol b. increasing, warfarin c. reducing, allopurinol d. reducing, warfarin

5. A patient is taking an FGA for schizophrenia. The nurse notes that the patient has trouble speaking and chewing and observes slow, wormlike movements of the patient's tongue. The nurse recognizes which adverse effect in this patient? a. Acute dystonia b. Akathisia c. Parkinsonism d. Tardive dyskinesia

5. A patient is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and quinidine to treat sustained ventricular tachycardia. Before giving medications, the nurse reviews the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) and notes a QRS complex that has widened by 50% from the baseline ECG. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the medications as ordered, because this indicates improvement. b. Contact the provider to discuss reducing the digoxin dose. c. Contact the provider to request an increase in the quinidine dose. d. Withhold the quinidine and contact the provider to report the ECG finding.

5. A patient taking gemfibrozil [Lopid] and rosuvastatin [Crestor] concurrently begins to complain of muscle aches, fatigue, and weakness. What should the nurse monitor? a. For tendon tenderness b. For a lupus-like syndrome c. The patient's liver function test results d. The patient's creatinine kinase levels

5. A patient who is taking didanosine [Videx] reports nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. What will the nurse recommend to this patient? a. "Take the drug with food to minimize these side effects." b. "Stop taking the drug immediately and resume taking it once your symptoms subside." c. "Take the medication in the evening to avoid experiencing these kinds of symptoms." d. "You will need laboratory tests to determine if these are serious effects of the drug."

5. A patient who takes aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the hospital complaining of headache and ringing in the ears. The plasma salicylate level is 300 mcg/mL, and the urine pH is 6.0. What will the nurse do? a. Increase the aspirin dose to treat the patient's headache. b. Notify the provider of possible renal toxicity. c. Prepare to provide respiratory support, because the patient shows signs of overdose. d. Withhold the aspirin until the patient's symptoms have subsided.

5. A patient who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation undergoes hip replacement surgery. On the second postoperative day, the nurse assesses the patient and notes an oxygen saturation of 83%, pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The nurse will contact the provider to report possible ____ and request an order for ____. a. congestive heart failure furosemide [Lasix] b. hemorrhage vitamin K (phytonadione) c. myocardial infarction tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) d. pulmonary embolism heparin

5. A patient will begin taking a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer's disease. The nurse is teaching the patient's spouse about the medication. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Gastrointestinal symptoms are common with this medication." b. "People taking this drug should not take antihistamines." c. "This drug helps neurons that aren't already damaged to function better." d. "This drug significantly slows the progression of the disease."

5. A patient with hypertension is taking furosemide [Lasix] for congestive heart failure. The prescriber orders digoxin to help increase cardiac output. What other medication will the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient? a. Bumetanide [Bumex] b. Chlorothiazide [Diuril] c. Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] d. Spironolactone [Aldactone]

5. A patient with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) asks the nurse what she can do to improve her chances of getting pregnant. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Clomiphene will help induce ovulation but will not treat the other symptoms of polycystic ovarian disease." b. "If I lose weight, my infertility and irregular periods could resolve without medications." c. "Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces male hormone levels." d. "Spironolactone, which reduces androgens and facial hair, is helpful if I'm trying to conceive."

5. A postmenopausal patient who has had a hysterectomy and who has a family history of coronary heart disease reports experiencing vaginal dryness and pain with intercourse but tells the nurse that she doesn't want to take hormones because she is afraid of adverse effects. The nurse will suggest that the woman ask her provider about: a. Depo Provera. b. Estraderm. c. low-dose estrogens. d. Premarin vaginal.

5. Which statement is accurate about the long-term complications of diabetes? a. Long-term complications are almost always the result of hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. b. The complication rates for patients with optimally controlled type 2 diabetes are the same as for those whose disease is not optimally controlled. c. Optimal control of type 1 diabetes produces excessive episodes of life-threatening hypoglycemia. d. Optimal control of both types of diabetes reduces the risk of eye, kidney, and nerve damage.

6. A nurse is obtaining a history and reviewing the chart of an adult male patient who has been taking oral androgens. Which assessment would warrant notifying the provider? a. Acne and increased facial hair b. Breast enlargement c. Increased libido d. Nausea, anorexia, and fatigue

6. A nurse is teaching a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism about levothyroxine [Synthroid]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should not take heartburn medication without consulting my provider." b. "I should report insomnia, tremors, and an increased heart rate to my provider." c. "If I take a multivitamin with iron, I should take it 4 hours after the Synthroid." d. "If I take calcium supplements, I may need to decrease my dose of Synthroid."

6. A nurse is teaching the parent of a child with spastic quadriplegia about intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I can expect my child to be more drowsy when receiving this medication." b. "I should not notice any change in my child's muscle strength." c. "I will contact the provider if my child is constipated or cannot urinate." d. "If my child has a seizure, I should stop giving the medication immediately."

6. A patient about to begin therapy with etanercept has a positive tuberculin skin test. A chest radiograph is negative. The nurse will expect this patient to: a. begin taking antituberculosis drugs at the beginning of treatment with etanercept. b. have periodic chest radiographs during treatment with etanercept. c. have regular monitoring of symptoms to detect active tuberculosis. d. undergo tuberculosis treatment prior to beginning etanercept treatment.

6. A patient administers interferon beta-1a SQ [Rebif] 22 mcg/0.5 mL three times each week. The patient calls the nurse to report unrelieved itching and erythema at the injection site, despite the use of topical hydrocortisone for several weeks. What will the nurse tell this patient to do? a. Apply ice to the injection site before and after the injection. b. Ask the provider to reduce the dose of interferon beta to 8.8 mcg/0.2 mL. c. Discuss using a prescription-strength hydrocortisone product with the provider. d. Take oral diphenhydramine [Benadryl].

6. A patient has been taking psyllium [Metamucil] two to three times daily for several days. The patient complains of stomach pain but has not had a stool. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water. b. Give another dose of the psyllium. c. Request an order for a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository. d. Palpate the patient's abdomen and auscultate for bowel sounds.

6. A patient has come to the clinic with tinea corporis, and the prescriber has ordered clotrimazole. When educating the patient about this medication, the nurse will include which statement? a. "Apply the medication over the entire body twice daily for 2 weeks." b. "Sun exposure will minimize the drug's effects." c. "This drug is effective after a single application." d. "Use the medication for at least 1 week after the symptoms have cleared."

6. A patient in the postanesthesia recovery unit received ketamine [Ketalar] for right open reduction internal fixation surgery. What drug would be beneficial as a premedication to help minimize adverse reactions? a. Methohexital [Brevital] b. Sevoflurane [Ultane] c. Atropine [Sal-Tropine] d. Diazepam [Valium]

6. A patient reports experiencing weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and nocturia. Total serum calcium is 10.5 mg/dL. A dipstick urinalysis shows a positive result for protein. When questioned, the patient reports taking vitamin D and calcium supplements. The nurse will counsel the patient to: a. reduce the amount of vitamin D and stop taking the calcium. b. discuss taking calcitonin-salmon [Fortical] with the provider. c. stop both supplements and discuss the use of a diuretic with the provider. d. stop taking vitamin D, reduce the amount of calcium, and increase the fluid intake.

6. A patient who has begun using transdermal nitroglycerin for angina reports occasional periods of tachycardia. The nurse will expect the prescriber to order: a. digoxin [Lanoxin] to slow the heart rate. b. immediate discontinuation of the nitroglycerin. c. periods of rest when the heart rate increases. d. verapamil as an adjunct to nitroglycerin therapy.

6. A patient who takes warfarin [Coumadin] is brought to the emergency department after accidentally taking too much warfarin. The patient's heart rate is 78 beats per minute and the blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. A dipstick urinalysis is normal. The patient does not have any obvious hematoma or petechiae and does not complain of pain. The nurse will anticipate an order for: a. vitamin K (phytonadione). b. protamine sulfate. c. a PTT. d. a PT and an INR.

6. A patient with osteopenia asks a nurse about the benefits of hormone therapy in preventing osteoporosis. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Estrogen can help reverse bone loss." b. "Hormone therapy increases bone resorption." c. "Hormone therapy does not decrease fracture risk." d. "When hormone therapy is discontinued, bone mass is quickly lost."

6. An adult patient will begin taking atomoxetine [Strattera] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. What will the nurse teach this patient? a. Appetite suppression does not occur, because this drug is not a stimulant. b. Stopping the drug abruptly will cause an abstinence syndrome. c. Suicidal thoughts may occur and should be reported to the provider. d. Therapeutic effects may not be felt for 1 to 3 weeks after beginning therapy.

6. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving desmopressin [Stimate]. The nurse is performing a physical assessment and notes that the patient is drowsy and listless and complains of a recent onset of headache. Which finding would be most consistent with these symptoms? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypertension d. Water intoxication

7. A nurse is discussing microbial resistance among sulfonamides and trimethoprim with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Bacterial resistance to trimethoprim is relatively uncommon." b. "Resistance among gonococci, streptococci, and meningococci to sulfonamides is high." c. "Resistance to both agents can occur by spontaneous mutation of organisms." d. "Resistance to sulfonamides is less than resistance to trimethoprim."

7. A nurse working the night shift begins taking modafinil [Alertec]. The nurse is telling a coworker about the medication. Which statement is correct? a. "I can take it during pregnancy." b. "It doesn't have cardiovascular side effects." c. "It is safe and has no serious adverse effects." d. "It will not interfere with my normal sleep."

7. A patient has received an initial dose of glatiramer acetate [Copaxone] for relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. The nurse notes that the patient appears flushed and anxious and has urticaria. The patient reports palpitations, chest pain, and a feeling of laryngeal constriction. What will the nurse do? a. Obtain an order for epinephrine to treat a hypersensitivity reaction. b. Prepare to provide cardiorespiratory support. c. Report a possible cardiotoxic episode to the provider. d. Stay with the patient until this self-limiting episode passes.

7. A patient is about to receive prednisone for tendonitis. The nurse reviewing the chart would be concerned about which of the following in the patient's medical history? a. Asthma and allergic rhinitis b. Gouty arthritis c. Seborrheic dermatitis d. Systemic fungal infection

7. A patient is brought to the emergency department by friends, who report finding the patient difficult to awaken. The friends report removing two fentanyl transdermal patches from the patient's arm. On admission to the emergency department, the patient has pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. A few minutes after administration of naloxone, therespiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute and the patient's pupils are dilated. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as signs of: a. a mild opioid overdose. b. decreased opioid drug levels. c. improved ventilation. d. worsening hypoxia.

7. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer reports having pain at a level of 7 to 8 on a scale of 10. Which type of pain management will be used initially to treat pain in this patient? a. Acetaminophen [Tylenol] b. Ibuprofen [Motrin] c. Nonpharmacologic measures d. Opioid analgesics

7. A patient starting therapy with efavirenz [Sustiva] asks about the timing of the medication with regard to meals. What patient education about the administration of this medication should the nurse provide? a. The drug must be taken within 30 minutes after a meal. b. The drug is best taken with a high-fat meal. c. The drug can be taken anytime without regard to meals. d. The drug should be taken once daily on an empty stomach.

7. A patient who has been taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for depression for several months tells the provider that the medication has not helped with symptoms. The provider plans to switch the patient to an SSRI. The nurse will teach this patient to: a. start taking the SSRI and stop the MAOI when symptoms improve. b. start taking the SSRI and then gradually withdraw the MAOI. c. stop taking the MAOI and wait 5 weeks before starting the SSRI. d. stop taking the MAOI 2 weeks before starting the SSRI.

7. A patient who is a heroin addict is admitted to a methadone substitution program. After administering the first dose of methadone, the nurse notes that the patient shows signs of euphoria and complains of nausea. What will the nurse do? a. Administer nalmefene [Revex]. b. Contact the provider to obtain an order for naloxone [Narcan]. c. Question the patient about heroin use that day. d. Suspect that the patient exaggerated the amount of heroin used.

7. A patient with antidiuretic hormone deficiency is receiving desmopressin (DDAVP). The nurse will teach this patient to: a. avoid grapefruit juice. b. increase sodium intake. c. monitor blood pressure. d. reduce fluid intake.

7. A patient with chronic gout has an acute gouty episode and is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for several months. The prescriber plans to begin therapy with probenecid. What will the nurse do? a. Give the medication as ordered and observe the patient closely for gastrointestinal side effects. b. Request an order to lower the dose of the nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug. c. Restrict the patient's fluid intake to minimize the risk of renal injury. d. Suggest delaying the probenecid therapy until the acute episode has subsided.

7. A patient with heart failure who has been taking an ACE inhibitor, a thiazide diuretic, and a beta blocker for several months comes to the clinic for evaluation. As part of the ongoing assessment of this patient, the nurse will expect the provider to evaluate: a. complete blood count. b. ejection fraction. c. maximal exercise capacity. d. serum electrolyte levels.

1. A nursing student asks the nurse what differentiates antiestrogen drugs from aromatase inhibitors in the treatment of breast cancer. What is the correct response by the nurse? a. Antiestrogen drugs decrease the risk for thromboembolic events. b. Antiestrogen drugs increase the risk for endometrial cancer. c. Aromatase inhibitors block the production of estrogen by the ovaries. d. Aromatase inhibitors can be used for tumor cells that lack estrogen receptors.

7. A patient with infertility will begin taking menotropins [Repronex]. The nurse will evaluate this patient's history to determine whether the: a. patient has a history of hyperinsulinemia. b. patient has excessive prolactin secretion. c. patient's pituitary can produce LH and FSH. d. patient's ovaries are capable of responding to gonadotropins.

7. A provider orders intravenous moxifloxacin [Avelox] for a patient who has sinusitis. Before administering the drug, the nurse will review this patient's chart for: a. a history of asthma. b. concurrent use of digoxin. c. concurrent use of warfarin. d. recent serum electrolyte levels.

1. A patient is taking oral ketoconazole [Nizoral] for a systemic fungal infection. The nurse reviews the medication administration record and notes that the patient is also taking omeprazole [Prilosec] for reflux disease. What action should the nurse take? a. Administer the omeprazole 1 hour before the ketoconazole. b. Administer the omeprazole at least 2 hours after the ketoconazole. c. Confer with the prescriber about a potential hazardous interaction. d. The nurse should not administer omeprazole to a patient receiving ketoconazole.

1. A patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) for 1 month and has generalized symptoms is taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and an oral glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks the nurse why methotrexate is necessary since pain and swelling have been well controlled with the other medications. The nurse will tell the patient that: a. a methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs and side effects of treatment. b. starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration. c. starting methotrexate now will help increase life expectancy. d. with methotrexate, doses of NSAIDs can be reduced to less toxic levels.

1. A patient who is hospitalized for an acute gout attack has received several doses of hourly oral colchicine but still reports moderate to severe pain. As the nurse prepares to administer the next dose, the patient begins vomiting. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to discuss giving a lower dose of colchicine. b. Hold the medication and notify the prescriber. c. Explain that this is a common side effect that will soon stop. d. Request an order for an antiemetic so that the next dose of colchicine may be given.

1. A patient with HIV contracts herpes simplex virus (HSV), and the prescriber orders acyclovir [Zovirax] 400 mg PO twice daily for 10 days. After 7 days of therapy, the patient reports having an increased number of lesions. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. extend this patient's drug therapy to twice daily for 12 months. b. give intravenous foscarnet every 8 hours for 2 to 3 weeks. c. increase the acyclovir dose to 800 mg PO 5 times daily. d. order intravenous valacyclovir [Valtrex] 1 gm PO twice daily for 10 days.

1. A patient with bipolar disorder has frequent manic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The prescriber orders risperidone [Risperdal] in addition to the lithium [Lithobid] that the patient is already taking. The patient asks the nurse why another drug is needed. The nurse will tell the patient that the risperidone is used to: a. elevate mood during depressive episodes. b. help control symptoms during manic episodes. c. manage tremors associated with lithium use. d. prevent recurrence of depressive episodes.

10. A patient arrives in the emergency department acutely intoxicated and difficult to arouse. The patient's friends tell the nurse that the patient took a handful of diazepam [Valium] pills while at a party several hours ago. The nurse will expect to administer which drug? a. Buprenorphine [Subutex] b. Flumazenil [Romazicon] c. Nalmefene [Revex] d. Naloxone [Narcan]

10. A patient in whom drug therapy has failed several times in the past is readmitted to a hospital to begin therapy for schizophrenia. What will the nurse do to help improve adherence? a. Encourage the patient to take responsibility for medication management. b. Teach the patient about drug side effects and how to manage them. c. Tell the patient that an abstinence syndrome will occur if the drug is stopped. d. Tell the patient that the drug may be taken as needed to control symptoms.

10. A patient is about to begin treatment for latent tuberculosis. The patient is an alcoholic, has difficulty complying with drug regimens, and has mild liver damage. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. "You must stop drinking before adequate treatment can begin." b. "You must take isoniazid with close monitoring of hepatic function." c. "You must take rifampin daily for 4 months." d. "You will begin a regimen of isoniazid and rifampin."

10. A patient is receiving an intraperitoneal aminoglycoside during surgery. To reverse a serious side effect of this drug, the nurse may expect to administer which agent? a. Amphotericin B b. Calcium gluconate c. Neuromuscular blocker d. Vancomycin

10. A patient is taking hydrocodone and ibuprofen for cancer pain and is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will ____ ibuprofen. a. reduce the dose of b. discontinue the c. increase the dose of d. order aspirin (ASA) instead of

10. A patient who takes oral theophylline [Theochron] twice daily for chronic stable asthma develops an infection and will take ciprofloxacin. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. changing to a different antibiotic. b. reducing the theophylline dose. c. giving theophylline once daily. d. switching from theophylline to a LABA.

10. A patient with a cough has been advised to use guaifenesin. The patient asks the nurse to explain the purpose of the drug. The nurse will explain that guaifenesin: a. dries secretions to help suppress coughing so patients can rest. b. helps stimulate the flow of secretions to increase cough productivity. c. helps to relieve chest pain associated with a cough. d. stimulates the body's natural immune responses.

10. A patient with hepatitis B begins treatment with adefovir [Hepsera] and asks the nurse how long the drug therapy will last. The nurse will tell the patient that the medication will need to be taken for: a. a lifetime. b. an indefinite, prolonged period of time. c. 48 weeks. d. until nephrotoxicity occurs.

10. A postoperative patient will begin anticoagulant therapy with rivaroxaban [Xarelto] after knee replacement surgery. The nurse performs a history and learns that the patient is taking erythromycin. The patient's creatinine clearance is 50 mL/min. The nurse will: a. administer the first dose of rivaroxaban as ordered. b. notify the provider to discuss changing the patient's antibiotic. c. request an order for a different anticoagulant medication. d. request an order to increase the dose of rivaroxaban.

10. During a health history, the nurse asks a male patient about alcohol use. The patient tells the nurse that he and his wife are trying to conceive a pregnancy and he is using alcohol to lower his inhibitions. What will the nurse counsel this patient? a. "Alcohol causes increased masculinization." b. "Alcohol may cause testicular atrophy and sterility." c. "Alcohol will improve your chances of conceiving." d. "Alcohol will also help you to ejaculate."

10. The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of epoetin alfa to a patient and notes that the patient has a hemoglobin level of 11.7 gm/dL. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Administer the dose as ordered. b. Hold the dose and notify the provider. c. Request an order for a reduced dose. d. Suggest that the provider increase the dose.

10. The nurse is providing patient education about glucocorticoid therapy to a patient preparing to be discharged home. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of glucocorticoid therapy? a. "I will take the entire dose early with breakfast." b. "I may take two-thirds of the dose in the morning and one-third in the afternoon." c. "I will divide the dose in half and take half in the morning and half in the evening." d. "I will take a dose with each meal."

10. The nurse would be correct to state that the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors is to: a. kill existing cancer cells directly. b. suppress the formation of new blood vessels in tumors. c. enhance the size of collateral vessels. d. enhance red cell development in the bone marrow.

10.A nursing student wants to know how carbidopa can be effective for treating Parkinson's disease if it prevents the conversion of levodopa to dopamine. The nurse explains that carbidopa: a.can be taken with high-protein meals. b.does not cross the blood-brain barrier. c.has dopamine-like effects of its own. d.reduces abrupt loss of effect.

11. A child is to begin long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The parents ask the nurse about the effects of this drug on the child's growth. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "A smaller dose may be indicated for your child." b. "Ask your provider about every other day dosing." c. "Long-acting glucocorticoid preparations should prevent growth suppression." d. "Oral glucocorticoids rarely cause growth suppression."

11. A child who has perennial allergic rhinitis has been using an intranasal glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered montelukast [Singulair] to replace the glucocorticoid, because the child has frequent nosebleeds. When teaching this child's parents about montelukast, the nurse will include which statement? a. "Montelukast is also effective for treating infectious rhinitis." b. "Montelukast may cause behavior changes in your child." c. "Montelukast will treat both congestion and rhinitis." d. "Montelukast works best when combined with a topical decongestant."

11. A nurse and a nursing student are reviewing the care of a 30-kg patient who will receive intravenous aminophylline. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the administration of this medication? a. "After the loading dose has been given, the patient will receive 6 mg/kg/hr." b. "Dosing is titrated based on the serum theophylline levels." c. "If the patient's serum theophylline level is less than 15 mcg/mL, the rate should be reduced." d. "The patient will receive a loading dose of 180 mg over 5 minutes."

11. A patient has seasonal allergies and needs an antihistamine to control symptoms. The patient likes to have wine with dinner occasionally and wants to know which antihistamine will be the safest to take. The nurse will tell the patient to discuss which medication with the provider? a. Cetirizine [Zyrtec] b. Fexofenadine [Allegra] c. Levocetirizine [Xyzal] d. Loratadine [Claritin]

11. A patient who has diabetes mellitus is diagnosed with schizophrenia and the provider orders thioridazine. The patient asks the nurse why the provider hasn't ordered olanzapine [Zyprexa], which the patient has seen advertised on television. Which response by the nurse is the most important reason that this patient is not receiving olanzapine? a. "Olanzapine is more expensive than thioridazine." b. "Olanzapine causes more metabolic side effects than thioridazine." c. "Thioridazine has fewer side effects than olanzapine." d. "Thioridazine has a faster onset of action than olanzapine."

11. A patient who is agitated and profoundly anxious is brought to the emergency department. The patient acts paranoid and keeps describing things in the room that do not exist. A cardiac monitor shows an irregular ventricular tachycardia. Which medication will the nurse expect to administer? a. Anticocaine vaccine b. Diazepam [Valium] c. Disulfiram [Antabuse] d. Vigabatrin [Sabril]

11. A patient who is receiving reperfusion therapy has a history of heparin-induced thrombosis (HIT). The patient has a creatinine clearance of 28 mL/min. In addition to the fibrinolytic agent, which medication will the nurse expect to administer to this patient? a. Aspirin b. Bivalirudin [Angiomax] c. Clopidogrel [Plavix] d. Fondaparinux [Arixtra]

11. A patient with variant angina wants to know why a beta blocker cannot be used to treat the angina. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "A beta 1 -selective beta blocker could be used for variant angina." b. "Beta blockers do not help relax coronary artery spasm." c. "Beta blockers do not help to improve the cardiac oxygen supply." d. "Beta blockers promote constriction of arterial smooth muscle."

12. A 7-year-old child has a cough, runny nose, congestion, and fever, and the parents ask the nurse to recommend an over-the-counter product. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Any product will be effective when combined with vitamin C and zinc." b. "It is best to use single-agent medications to treat individual symptoms." c. "The fever indicates that your child may need an antibiotic you should call your provider." d. "You should ask your provider to prescribe a combination product that will treat multiple symptoms."

12. A hospitalized patient with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and reports oral pain. Inspection of this patient's oral mucosa reveals erythema and inflammation without denudation or ulceration. The nurse understands that: a. chemotherapy will have to be stopped until healing of the oral mucosa occurs. b. the patient can use a mouthwash with a topical anesthetic to control pain. c. the patient will need an antifungal agent to treat Candida albicans. d. the patient will need systemic opioids to control discomfort.

12. A nurse is obtaining a health history from an older adult patient in an outpatient clinic. The patient reports chronic difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. The nurse knows that the best treatment for this patient will be: a. alternative medications. b. improved sleep hygiene. c. short-term barbiturates. d. triazolam [Halcion].

12. A patient asks a nurse why he cannot use digoxin [Lanoxin] for his heart failure, because both of his parents used it for HF. The nurse will explain that digoxin is not the first-line therapy for which reason? a. It causes tachycardia and increases the cardiac workload. b. It does not correct the underlying pathology of heart failure. c. It has a wide therapeutic range that makes dosing difficult. d. It may actually shorten the patient's life expectancy.

12. A patient is receiving intravenous voriconazole [Vfend]. Shortly after the infusion starts, the patient tells the nurse, "Colors look different, and the light hurts my eyes." What will the nurse do? a. Observe the patient closely for the development of hallucinations. b. Reassure the patient that these effects will subside in about 30 minutes. c. Stop the infusion and notify the provider of CNS toxicity. d. Tell the patient that this is an irreversible effect of the drug.

12. The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with HIV who will continue to take enfuvirtide [Fuzeon] at home. The nurse is providing patient education about the medication. What information about the administration of enfuvirtide is most appropriate for the patient? a. The importance of injecting the drug into two alternating sites daily b. How to reconstitute and self-administer a subcutaneous injection c. The importance of taking the drug with high doses of vitamin E d. Likely drug interactions between enfuvirtide and other antiretroviral drugs

12. The nurse prepares a patient with Graves' disease for radioactive iodine (131I) therapy. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of 131I therapy? a. "I will have to isolate myself from my family for 1 week so that I don't expose them to radiation." b. "This drug will be taken up by the thyroid gland and will destroy the cells to reduce my hyperthyroidism." c. "This drug will help reduce my cold intolerance and weight gain." d. "I will need to take this drug on a daily basis for at least 1 year."

13. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin [Lanoxin] to a patient. The patient's heart rate is 62 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 120/60 mm Hg. The last serum electrolyte value showed a potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to request an increased dose of digoxin. b. Give the dose of digoxin and notify the provider of the potassium level. c. Request an order for a diuretic. d. Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the heart rate.

13. A nurse is providing medication teaching for a patient who will begin taking diclofenac [Voltaren] gel for osteoarthritis in both knees and elbows. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Because this is a topical drug, liver toxicity will not occur." b. "I should cover areas where the gel is applied to protect them from sunlight." c. "I will apply equal amounts of gel to all affected areas." d. "The topical formulation has the same toxicity as the oral formulation."

13. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about influenza prevention. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may develop a mild case of influenza if I receive the vaccine by injection." b. "I should receive the vaccine every year in October or November." c. "If I have a cold I should postpone getting the vaccine." d. "The antiviral medications are as effective as the flu vaccine for preventing the flu."

13. A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking methimazole [Tapazole] for Graves' disease about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Because of the risk for liver toxicity, I will need frequent liver function tests." b. "I should report a sore throat or fever to my provider if either occurs." c. "I will need a complete blood count every few months." d. "It is safe to get pregnant while taking this medication."

13. A patient complains of chronic insomnia and reports being tired of being tired all the time. The patient is reluctant to try pharmacologic remedies and asks the nurse what to do. What will the nurse suggest? a. "Eat a large meal in the evening to induce drowsiness." b. "Get out of bed for a while if you can't fall asleep." c. "Have a glass of wine at bedtime to relax." d. "Take a short nap early in the afternoon every day."

13. A patient is admitted to the hospital with unstable angina and will undergo a percutaneous coronary intervention. Which drug regimen will the nurse expect to administer to prevent thrombosis in this patient? a. Aspirin, clopidogrel, omeprazole b. Aspirin, heparin, abciximab [ReoPro] c. Enoxaparin [Lovenox], prasugrel [Effient], warfarin [Coumadin] d. Heparin, alteplase, abciximab [ReoPro]

13. A patient who has been taking phenobarbital for epilepsy begins taking valproic acid [Depakote] as adjunct therapy. The nurse notes that the patient is very drowsy. What will the nurse do? a. Explain to the patient that tolerance to sedation eventually will develop. b. Notify the prescriber, and request an order to reduce the dose of phenobarbital. c. Notify the prescriber of the need to increase the dose of valproic acid. d. Request an order for liver function tests to monitor for hepatotoxicity.

13. A patient with angina who is taking ranolazine [Ranexa] has developed a respiratory infection and a dysrhythmia. The provider has ordered azithromycin [Zithromax] for the infection and amlodipine for the dysrhythmia. A nursing student caring for this patient tells the nurse that the patient's heart rate is 70 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 128/80 mm Hg. The nurse asks the student to discuss the plan for this patient's care. Which action is correct? a. Observe the patient closely for signs of respiratory toxicity. b. Question the order for azithromycin [Zithromax]. c. Report the patient's increase in blood pressure to the provider. d. Request an order for a different calcium channel blocker.

13. A school nurse is teaching a high school health class about the effects of marijuana use. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Chronic use of marijuana can result in irreversible brain changes." b. "Higher doses of marijuana are likely to produce increased euphoria." c. "Marijuana is unique in that it produces euphoria, sedation, and hallucinations." d. "Marijuana has more prolonged effects when it is ingested than when it is smoked."

13. The nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving vinorelbine [Navelbine] for about 5 days. Which assessment finding in this patient would cause the nurse to withhold the next dose and notify the prescriber? a. Alopecia b. Dyspnea and cough c. Neutrophil count of 1200/mm3 d. Peripheral neuropathy

13.The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old patient who has undergone a liver transplant. Which provider order will the nurse question? a. Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and ketoconazole [Nizoral] b. Everolimus [Zortress] 1 mg twice daily c. Prednisone 60 mg daily d. Tacrolimus [Prograf] 50 mcg/kg twice daily the day after surgery

14. A nurse is discussing adenosine with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Adenosine acts by suppressing action potentials in the SA and AV nodes." b. "Adenosine can be used to prevent paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome." c. "Adenosine has a half-life that lasts only a few seconds and must be given intravenously." d. "Adenosine is not effective for treating atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or ventricular dysrhythmias."

14. A nurse provides teaching to a patient with angina who also has type 2 diabetes mellitus, asthma, and hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "An ACE inhibitor, in addition to nitroglycerin, will lower my risk of cardiovascular death." b. "Beta blockers can help me control hypertension." c. "I should begin regular aerobic exercise." d. "Long-acting, slow-release calcium channel blockers can help with anginal pain."

14. A patient has a positive test for influenza type A and tells the nurse that symptoms began 5 days before being tested. The prescriber has ordered oseltamivir [Tamiflu]. The nurse will tell the patient that oseltamivir: a. may decrease symptom duration by 2 or 3 days. b. may not be effective because of the delay in starting treatment. c. may reduce the severity but not the duration of symptoms. d. will alleviate symptoms within 24 hours of the start of therapy.

14. A patient is about to begin treatment for latent tuberculosis with a short course of daily rifampin. The patient asks why rifapentine [Priftin] cannot be used, because it can be given twice weekly. What will the nurse tell this patient about rifapentine? a. It is more toxic than rifampin. b. It is not approved for treatment of latent TB. c. It is not well absorbed and thus not as effective. d. It will stain contact lenses orange.

14. A patient who has leukemia is receiving chemotherapy and develops severe anemia. The provider has ordered hospitalization and blood transfusions. The patient asks the nurse about using erythropoietin (epoetin alfa) instead. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. "Ask your provider about ordering erythropoietin instead of a transfusion." b. "Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa) can make your leukemia worse." c. "Erythropoietin is used to prolong life in patients with myeloid malignancies." d. "You will probably receive erythropoietin along with the transfusion."

14. A patient who is taking azathioprine [Imuran] to prevent rejection of a renal transplant develops gout and the provider orders allopurinol. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. decreasing the allopurinol dose. b. decreasing the azathioprine dose. c. increasing the allopurinol dose. d. increasing the azathioprine dose.

14. A patient who is taking ketoconazole tells the nurse that her periods have become irregular. What will the nurse tell her? a. This indicates that she should begin taking oral contraceptives. b. This is caused by a reversible effect on estradiol synthesis. c. This is a serious side effect that warrants discontinuation of the drug. d. This is a sign of hepatic toxicity, and the drug dose should be lowered.

15. A college student admits frequent use of LSD to a nurse and reports plans to stop using it. What will the nurse tell this student? a. Flashback episodes and episodic visual disturbances are common. b. Tolerance to the effects of LSD will fade quickly once use of the drug has stopped. c. Withdrawal symptoms can be mitigated with haloperidol [Haldol]. d. Withdrawal from LSD is associated with a severe abstinence syndrome.

15. A nurse caring for a patient receiving heparin therapy notes that the patient has a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The patient's fingertips are purplish in color. A stat CBC shows a platelet count of less than 100,000 mm 3 . The nurse will: a. administer oxygen and notify the provider. b. discontinue the heparin and notify the provider. c. request an order for protamine sulfate. d. request an order for vitamin K (phytonadione).

15. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of gentamicin to a patient who is receiving the drug 3 times daily. The nurse will monitor ____ levels. a. peak b. peak and trough c. serum drug d. trough

15. A patient is taking a combination oral contraceptive (OC) and tells the nurse that she is planning to undergo knee replacement surgery in 2 months. What will the nurse recommend for this patient? a. The patient should ask her provider about an OC with less progestin. b. The patient should discuss an alternate method of birth control prior to surgery. c. The patient should request an OC containing less estrogen after surgery. d. The patient should take the OC at bedtime after her surgery to reduce side effects.

15. A patient who has cancer asks the nurse about using acupuncture to manage cancer pain. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. "Acupuncture is not an effective treatment for cancer pain and should not be used." b. "Studies to date do not clearly indicate effectiveness of acupuncture for alleviating cancer pain." c. "Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) has been shown to be more effective than acupuncture." d. "There is good evidence to suggest that acupuncture is an effective adjunct treatment for cancer pain."

15. A patient who takes teriparatide [Forteo] administers it subcutaneously with a prefilled pen injector. The patient asks why she must use a new pen every 28 days when there are doses left in the syringe. Which is the correct response by the nurse? a. "Go ahead and use the remaining drug I know it is so expensive." b. "The drug may not be stable after 28 days." c. "You are probably not giving the drug accurately." d. "You should be giving the drug more frequently.

15.The nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking rotigotine [Neupro] to treat Parkinson's disease. What will the nurse include in teaching? a."If you develop nausea and vomiting, you should stop taking the medication." b. "If you need to stop this drug, your provider will order a gradual withdrawal." c."You will start this drug regimen with a higher than usual loading dose." d."You will take this medication by mouth with food."

16. A patient has been taking a progestin-only, or "minipill," OC for 3 months and reports spotting and irregular menstrual cycles. The nurse will: a. question the patient about any possible missed doses of the pill. b. reassure the patient that this is normal with this form of contraception. c. recommend that she take a pregnancy test to rule out pregnancy. d. suggest that she use a backup form of contraception until these symptoms resolve.

16. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain. An electrocardiogram shows changes consistent with an evolving myocardial infarction. The patient's cardiac enzymes are pending. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to: a. administer aspirin when cardiac enzymes are completed. b. give alteplase [Activase] within 2 hours. c. give tenecteplase [TNKase] immediately. d. obtain an order for an INR.

16. A patient who is an alcoholic is prescribed disulfiram [Antabuse] to help prevent relapse and the nurse provides teaching about the use of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may use alcohol in cooking since heating foods destroys the alcohol." b. "I should avoid shaving lotion and mouthwashes that contain even small amounts of alcohol." c. "If I decide to drink, I should stop taking the disulfiram at least one week prior to consuming alcohol." d. "If I use alcohol, the effects will be uncomfortable but are not dangerous."

17. A 65-year-old female patient tells a nurse that she has begun taking calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products and takes 1200 mg in calcium supplements each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 11.1 mg/dL. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. She should increase her dietary calcium in addition to the supplements b. The amount of calcium she takes increases her risk for heart attack and stroke c. To continue taking 1200 mg of calcium supplement since she is over age 50 d. To supplement her calcium with 10,000 units of vitamin D each day

17. A patient is receiving fluorouracil [Adrucil] as a continuous intravenous dose to treat a solid tumor. The patient reports soreness and blisters in the mouth, loose stools, and tingling of the hands and feet. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to discuss bolus dosing instead of continuous dosing. b. Discontinue the medication and contact the provider to report these symptoms. c. Reassure the patient that these are expected, uncomfortable side effects. d. Request an order for dexamethasone to treat these side effects.

17. An 88-year-old patient with heart failure has progressed to Stage D and is hospitalized for the third time in a month. The nurse will expect to discuss which topic with the patient's family? a. Antidysrhythmic medications b. End-of-life care c. Heart transplantation d. Implantable mechanical assist devices

17. The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is in labor. The woman reports having had mild preeclampsia with a previous pregnancy. The nurse notes that the woman has a blood pressure of 168/102 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which drug? a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor b. Hydralazine (Apresoline) c. Magnesium sulfate d. Sodium nitroprusside

18. A college student tells the nurse that several friends have been using synthetic marijuana to get high. What will the nurse tell this patient about this type of substance? a. "These substances are fairly safe because they are derived from herbs." b. "They can cause hypertension, nausea, vomiting, and hallucinations." c. "These substances do not have mind-altering affects." d. "These substances produce a high and they are not illegal."

18. A patient who has urinary bladder cancer will begin receiving the chemotherapeutic agent valrubicin [Valstar]. What will the nurse do when administering this drug? a. Administer the drug intravenously using a large bore needle and tubing. b. Ensure that the tubing used to administer the drug does not contain polyvinyl chloride. c. Monitor the patient closely for a variety of systemic drug adverse effects. d. Use a normal saline or sterile water diluent to dilute the medication.

2. A child with seasonal rhinitis has used budesonide [Rhinocort Aqua] for several years. The parents are concerned that the child's rate of growth has slowed. What will the nurse do? a. Reassure the parents that this is an expected side effect. b. Suggest that the parents discuss using fluticasone [Flonase] with the provider. c. Tell the parents to administer the drug only when symptoms are severe. d. Tell the parents that antihistamines work as well as intranasal glucocorticoids.

2. A nurse is assessing a patient who becomes motionless and seems to stare at the wall and then experiences about 60 seconds of lip smacking and hand wringing. What should the nurse do? a. Ask the patient about a history of absence seizures. b. Contact the provider to report symptoms of a complex partial seizure. c. Notify the provider that the patient has had a grand mal seizure. d. Request an order for intravenous diazepam [Valium] to treat status epilepticus.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving amphotericin B [Abelcet] for a systemic fungal infection. In spite of receiving diphenhydramine and acetaminophen before initiation of treatment, the patient has fever and chills with rigors. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss the addition of which drug? a. Aspirin b. Dantrolene c. Hydrocortisone d. Omeprazole

2. A nurse is teaching a patient who has chronic renal failure who will begin receiving epoetin alfa [Epogen] about this drug therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "If I have to start dialysis, I will have to stop taking this drug." b. "Taking this drug will not eliminate my need for blood transfusions." c. "Taking this medication will prevent the need for dialysis in the future." d. "When I take this, my serum ferritin levels will increase."

2. A patient who is morbidly obese is admitted for treatment. The prescriber orders lisdexamfetamine [Vyvanse]. The nurse will be concerned if this patient shows signs of: a. anorexia. b. dyspnea. c. insomnia. d. loquaciousness.

2. A patient who is taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) drug for schizophrenia comes to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait and mild tremors. The nurse will ask the patient's provider about which course of action? a. Administering a direct dopamine antagonist b. Giving an anticholinergic medication c. Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug d. Switching to a second-generation antipsychotic drug

2. A patient with atrial fibrillation is taking verapamil [Calan]. The patient has read about the drug on the Internet and wants to know why a drug that affects the rate of ventricular contraction is used to treat an abnormal atrial contraction. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. "Drugs that treat ventricular dysrhythmias help to restore normal sinus rhythm." b. "Atrial dysrhythmias can have life-threatening effects on ventricular function." c. "Treating ventricular dysrhythmias helps prevent the likelihood of stroke." d. "When ventricular contraction slows, atrial contraction is also slowed."

2. A woman with moderate migraine headaches asks a nurse why the provider has ordered metoclopramide [Reglan] as an adjunct to aspirin therapy, because she does not usually experience nausea and vomiting with her migraines. The nurse will tell her that the metoclopramide is used to: a. help induce sleep. b. improve absorption of the aspirin. c. prevent gastric irritation caused by the aspirin. d. prolong the effects of the aspirin.

2. An alcoholic patient's spouse asks a nurse about recovery from chronic alcoholism. The patient is confused and has abnormal eye movements and nystagmus. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "The symptoms your spouse shows are partly reversible in most people." b. "These symptoms can be reversed with vitamin therapy and good nutrition." c. "Your spouse has symptoms of an irreversible encephalopathy." d. "Your spouse will probably recover completely after detoxification."

2. The spouse of a patient who smokes wonders why anyone would want to engage in "such a disgusting habit." What will the nurse tell the spouse? a. Nicotine causes relaxation and helps with sleep. b. Nicotine increases alertness and promotes dopamine release. c. Nicotine lowers blood pressure. d. Nicotine settles the stomach and reduces nausea and vomiting.

2.A family is preparing for travel and the parents report that their 5-year-old child has frequent motion sickness. The nurse will tell the parents to ask the provider about which antihistamine to help prevent symptoms? a. Desloratadine [Clarinex] b. Dimenhydrinate [Dramamine] c. Hydroxyzine [Vistaril] d. Promethazine [Phenergan]

2.An adolescent female patient with multiple sexual partners asks a nurse about birth control methods. The patient tells the nurse she tried oral contraceptives once but often forgot to take her pills. The nurse will recommend discussing which contraception with the provider? a. An intrauterine device with a spermicide b. DMPA (Depo-Provera) and condoms c. Tubal ligation and condoms d. Progestin-only oral contraceptives

3. A 45-year-old patient with a family history of breast cancer is considering using tamoxifen [Nolvadex] for cancer prevention. The nurse performs a health history and learns that the woman had a child when she was 35 years old, that she has not had a hysterectomy, and that she experienced DVT when she was pregnant. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Because of her family risk and late childbearing, this drug is a good choice for her. b. Her history of DVT outweighs any possible benefits she may have with this drug. c. Since she has not had a hysterectomy, the risk of endometrial cancer is too great. d. When she turns 50 years old, this drug will carry fewer risks for her.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient who will begin taking hydralazine to treat hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching about this drug? a. "I will need to ask for assistance when getting up out of a chair." b. "I will also take a beta blocker medication with this drug to prevent rapid heart rate." c. "I may develop joint pain, but this side effect will decrease over time." d. "This drug may cause excessive hair growth on my face, arms, and back."

3. A nurse is educating the staff nurses about ketoacidosis. To evaluate the group's understanding, the nurse asks, "Which sign or symptom would not be consistent with ketoacidosis?" The group gives which correct answer? a. Blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL b. Blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL c. Acidosis d. Ketones in the urine

3. A nurse provides teaching for a woman who will begin taking supplemental calcium. Which statement by the woman indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Chewable calcium tablets are not absorbed well and are not recommended." b. "I should not take more than 600 mg of calcium at one time." c. "I should take enough supplemental calcium to provide my total daily requirements." d. "If I take calcium with green, leafy vegetables, it will increase absorption."

3. A patient has been diagnosed with primary progressive multiple sclerosis for 1 year and reports a recent brief period of being symptom free. The nurse will tell the patient that this indicates what? a. Hope for long-term remission b. Temporary improvement c. Development of relapsing-remitting MS d. Development of secondary progressive MS

3. A patient is receiving chemotherapy. Seven days after a dose, the patient's neutrophil count is 1000 cells/mm3. The nurse will tell this patient: a. that hospitalization is necessary to provide infection prophylaxis. b. that the provider will probably repeat the lab work in 3 to 5 days. c. to ask the provider about skipping the next dose of chemotherapy. d. to report any symptoms such as pus, abscesses, or cough.

3. A patient who has recurrent migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex]. Which aspect of this patient's history is of concern when taking this drug? a. Asthma b. Coronary artery disease c. Diabetes d. Renal disease

3. A patient who is having her sixth child has gone beyond term, and her labor is being induced with oxytocin [Pitocin]. The patient is having increased frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions. The nurse will interrupt the oxytocin infusion if what occurs? a. Contractions occur every 2 to 3 minutes. b. Individual contractions last 2 minutes. c. Mild to moderate pain occurs with uterine contractions. d. Resting intrauterine pressure is greater than 10 to 15 mm Hg.

3. A patient who is taking acetaminophen for pain wants to know why it does not cause gastrointestinal upset, as do other over-the-counter pain medications. The nurse will explain that this is most likely because of which property of acetaminophen? a. It does not inhibit cyclooxygenase. b. It has minimal effects at peripheral sites. c. It is more similar to opioids than to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). d. It is selective for cyclooxygenase-2.

3. A patient will receive oral ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat a urinary tract infection. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may have abdominal pain and nausea, but these are usually mild." b. "I should take this medication with food or milk to improve absorption." c. "I should stop taking the medication immediately if I experience heel pain." d. "I will need to use sunscreen every time I go outdoors."

3. A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see? a. Decreased heart rate b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased blood pressure d. Syncope

3. A patient with moderate to severe chronic pain has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] 60mg every 6 hours PRN for several months and tells the nurse that the medication is not as effective as before. The patient asks if something stronger can be taken. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. administering a combination opioid analgesic/acetaminophen preparation. b. changing the medication to a continued-release preparation. c. confronting the patient about drug-seeking behaviors. d. withdrawing the medication, because physical dependence has occurred.

3. A patient with new-onset exertional angina has taken three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets at 5-minute intervals, but the pain has intensified. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 76 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram is normal. The patient's lips and nail beds are pink, and there is no respiratory distress. The nurse will anticipate providing: a. an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. b. intravenous nitroglycerin and a beta blocker. c. ranolazine (Ranexa) and quinidine. d. supplemental oxygen and intravenous morphine.

3. A woman complains of burning on urination and increased frequency. The patient has a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and is going out of town in 2 days. To treat the infection quickly, the nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order: a. aztreonam [Azactam]. b. fosfomycin [Monurol]. c. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]. d. vancomycin [Vancocin].

3. An adult male patient will begin androgen therapy for testicular failure. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the treatment regimen? a. "I will need to have x-rays of my hands and feet every 6 months." b. "My libido may improve while I am taking this medication." c. "Taking this drug may lead to the development of prostate cancer." d. "This will restore fertility, so I can have a child."

3. The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The patient tells the nurse she does not want to take medications while she is pregnant. What will the nurse explain to this patient? a. Hypothyroidism is a normal effect of pregnancy and usually is of no consequence. b. Neuropsychologic deficits in the fetus can occur if the condition is not treated. c. No danger to the fetus exists until the third trimester. d. Treatment is required only if the patient is experiencing symptoms.

3.A 68-year-old male patient receives a prescription for 25-mg tablets of sildenafil [Viagra] for erectile dysfunction. When he asks the nurse how to take the medication, the nurse will tell him to: a. begin taking one tablet twice daily, 12 hours apart. b. start with one tablet about 1 hour before anticipated sexual activity. c. take 25 to 100 mg per dose 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity. d. take two tablets 1 hour before sexual activity with a high-fat meal.

4. A nurse and a nursing student are discussing the plan of care for a patient with schizophrenia. The patient, who has been taking a high-potency FGA for 2 months, has become restless and constantly needs to be in motion. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education? a. "Anticholinergic medications may help control these symptoms." b. "Because this may be an exacerbation of psychosis, the provider may increase the dose of the FGA." c. "The provider may try a low-potency FGA instead of the high-potency FGA." d. "This patient may need to take a benzodiazepine or a beta blocker."

4. A nurse caring for a patient notes that the patient has a temperature of 104°F and a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. The patient's skin is warm and moist, and the patient complains that the room is too warm. The patient appears nervous and has protuberant eyes. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. cretinism. b. Graves' disease. c. myxedema. d. Plummer's disease.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient after hip replacement surgery. The patient has been receiving iron replacement therapy for 2 days. The nurse notes that the patient's stools appear black. The patient is pale and complains of feeling tired. The patient's heart rate is 98 beats per minute, respirations are 20 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to: a. report possible gastrointestinal hemorrhage. b. request a hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&ampH). c. request an order for a stool guaiac. d. suggest giving a hypertonic fluid bolus.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of growth hormone and reconstitutes the medication. After adding the diluent, the nurse notices that the preparation is cloudy. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the drug as ordered. b. Discard the drug and prepare another dose. c. Notify the prescriber. d. Shake the drug to dissipate the particles.

4. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students why glucocorticoids are preferred over nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in the treatment of inflammation. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Glucocorticoids act by multiple mechanisms and have more anti-inflammatory effects than NSAIDs." b. "Glucocorticoids have fewer side effects than nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs." c. "Glucocorticoids help avert damage to tissues from lysosomal enzymes." d. "Glucocorticoids reduce the immune component of inflammation."

4. A nurse is teaching a nursing student what is meant by "generations" of cephalosporins. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer." b. "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each generation." c. "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid." d. "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."

4. A patient asks the nurse what type of medications would be most effective for treating seasonal and perennial rhinitis. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. Pseudoephedrine [Sudafed] b. Fluticasone propionate [Fluticasone] c. Loratadine [Claritin] d. Intranasal cromolyn sodium [Atrovent]

4. A patient has been experiencing side effects with a combination oral contraceptive, and her provider has ordered a different combination product. The nurse will instruct the patient to do what? a. Begin taking the new product immediately. b. Change products at the beginning of her next cycle. c. Stop taking the old OC 1 week before starting the new OC. d. Use an alternate method of contraception for 1 month before starting the new OC.

4. A patient has localized muscle spasms after an injury. The prescriber has ordered tizanidine [Zanaflex] to alleviate the spasms. When obtaining the patient's health history, the nurse should be concerned about which possible reason for considering another drug? a. Concomitant use of aspirin b. A history of hepatitis c. A history of malignant hyperthermia d. Occasional use of alcohol

4. A patient is diagnosed with periodontal disease, and the provider orders oral doxycycline [Periostat]. The patient asks the purpose of the drug. What is the nurse's response? a. "It is used because of its anti-inflammatory effects." b. "It inhibits collagenase to protect connective tissue in the gums." c. "It reduces bleeding and the pocket depth of oral lesions." d. "It suppresses bacterial growth in the oral mucosa."

4. A patient reports a desire to stop smoking and asks what is available without a prescription to help with smoking cessation. The nurse tells the patient that which method is best? a. Abrupt discontinuation to shorten withdrawal effects b. Nicotine replacement and 1-800-QUITNOW c. Nicotine replacement products tapered over a year d. Support groups without the use of medications

4. A patient taking stavudine [Zerit] telephones the clinic and reports numbness and tingling in the hands and feet. What should the nurse tell the patient? a. The numbness is an expected side effect of the medication and will diminish once the drug is withdrawn. b. The medication will probably be stopped, and the patient should come into the clinic for further evaluation. c. The dose may be too high, and the patient should cut the tablet in half. d. The patient should take the medication on a full stomach to reduce absorption of the drug.

4. A patient who has experienced preterm births with her previous two pregnancies will begin receiving hydroxyprogesterone caproate [Makena] to prevent preterm delivery with her current pregnancy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about this drug? a. "I should report any calf pain immediately." b. "I will eventually learn to administer the injections of this drug myself." c. "This drug may cause fluid retention and glucose intolerance." d. "This medication must be given once a week until 37 weeks' gestation."

4. A patient who recently started therapy with an HMG-COA reductase inhibitor asks the nurse, "How long will it take until I see an effect on my LDL cholesterol?" The nurse gives which correct answer? a. "It will take 6 months to see a change." b. "A reduction usually is seen within 2 weeks." c. "Blood levels normalize immediately after the drug is started." d. "Cholesterol will not be affected, but triglycerides will fall within the first week."

4. A patient who will begin taking colchicine for gout reports taking nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs, simvastatin, amoxicillin, and digoxin. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic while this patient is taking colchicine. b. Notify the provider about the potential risk of muscle injury when simvastatin is taken with colchicine. c. Request an order for cardiorespiratory monitoring, because the patient is taking digoxin. d. Suggest that the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) be withdrawn during colchicine therapy.

4. An 8-year-old child with advanced cancer has an order for oxycodone [OxyContin] PO, PRN for moderate to severe pain. The nurse notes that the child is constantly playing computer games and repeatedly denies having pain. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the oxycodone at regular intervals around the clock. b. Contact the provider to discuss using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). c. Reassure the child's parent that the child will ask for pain medication as needed. d. Tell the child to notify the nurse when pain is present.

5. A 12-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital before sinus surgery. The nurse preparing to care for this patient notes that the admission hemoglobin is 10.2 gm/dL, and the hematocrit is 32%. The nurse will ask the child's parents which question about their daughter? a. "Does she eat green, leafy vegetables?" b. "Has she begun menstruating?" c. "Is she a vegetarian?" d. "Is there a chance she might be pregnant?"

5. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking an antiepileptic drug for several weeks. The nurse asks the patient if the therapy is effective. The patient reports little change in seizure frequency. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient to complete a seizure frequency chart for the past few weeks. b. Contact the provider to request an order for serum drug levels. c. Reinforce the need to take the medications as prescribed. d. Request an order to increase the dose of the antiepileptic drug.

5. A nurse is reviewing the phenomenon of reflex tachycardia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this phenomenon? a. "Baroreceptors in the aortic arch stimulate the heart to beat faster." b. "Reflex tachycardia can negate the desired effects of vasodilators." c. "Reflex tachycardia is more likely to occur when beta blockers are given." d. "Venous dilation must occur for reflex tachycardia to occur."

5. A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder about methylphenidate [Concerta]. Which statement by the child's parents indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "The effects of this drug will wear off in 4 to 6 hours." b. "The tablet needs to be swallowed whole, not crushed or chewed." c. "This medication has fewer side effects than amphetamines." d. "We should call the provider if we see parts of the medicine in our child's stools."

5. A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking oral cyclophosphamide to treat non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding about how to minimize side effects while taking this drug? a. "I don't need to worry about bone marrow suppression with this drug." b. "I should drink plenty of fluids while taking this drug." c. "I should take this drug on an empty stomach." d. "If I shampoo less often, I can prevent hair loss."

5. A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of numbness in the extremities. The nurse notes that the patient's hands and feet are cool and pale. When conducting a health history, the nurse learns that the patient has a history of migraine headaches. The nurse recognizes this patient's symptoms as: a. ergotamine withdrawal. b. ergotism. c. severe migraine symptoms. d. sumatriptan side effects.

5. A patient asks a nurse to explain what drug tolerance means. The nurse responds by telling the patient that when tolerance occurs, it means the patient: a. has developed a psychologic dependence on the drug. b. may need increased amounts of the drug over time. c. will cause an abstinence syndrome if the drug is discontinued abruptly. d. will have increased sensitivity to drug side effects.

5. A patient has been taking fluoxetine [Prozac] for 2 years and reports feeling cured of depression. The nurse learns that the patient is sleeping well, participates in usual activities, and feels upbeat and energetic most of the time. The patient's weight has returned to normal. The patient reports last having symptoms of depression at least 9 months ago. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. Indefinite drug therapy is necessary to maintain remission. b. Discuss gradual withdrawal of the medication with the provider. c. Stop the drug while remaining alert for the return of symptoms. d. Take a drug holiday to see whether symptoms recur.

5. A patient is taking cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and prednisone to prevent organ rejection after right renal transplantation. The patient is febrile and complains of right-sided flank pain. The nurse reviews the patient's chart and finds that the patient's BUN and serum creatinine are elevated. The cyclosporine trough is 150 ng/mL. What will the nurse do? a. Be concerned that the left kidney is failing. b. Expect the provider to order intravenous methylprednisolone. c. Request an order for a urine culture. d. Suspect nephrotoxicity secondary to an elevated cyclosporine level.

5. A patient who does not consume alcohol or nicotine products reports a strong family history of hypertension and cardiovascular disease. The patient has a blood pressure of 126/82 and a normal weight and body mass index for height and age. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about: a. ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blocker medications. b. the DASH diet, sodium restriction, and exercise. c. increased calcium and potassium supplements. d. thiazide diuretics and lifestyle changes.

5. A patient who is a long-distance runner has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis in both knees and will begin glucocorticoid therapy. When teaching the patient about the medication, the nurse will include what information? a. "By reducing inflammation, this drug will slow the progression of your disease." b. "Glucocorticoids are used as adjunctive therapy during acute flare-ups." c. "Oral glucocorticoids cause less toxicity than intra-articular injections." d. "You may resume running when the pain and swelling improve."

5. A patient with CRF who will begin receiving an erythropoiesis stimulating agent (ESA) is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient's heart rate is 82 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg. A complete blood count reveals a hemoglobin of 8 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 29%. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the ESA and request an order for a blood transfusion. b. Withhold the ESA and request an order for an antihypertensive medication. c. Request an order to increase the dose of ESA to raise the hemoglobin more quickly. d. Suggest initiating dialysis while giving the ESA.

5. A patient with a desire to stop smoking asks a nurse about nicotine chewing gum [Nicorette]. The patient currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Stop using the gum 6 months after you stop using cigarettes." b. "Use the 4-mg strength gum and chew one piece every 2 to 3 hours." c. "Use the gum whenever you feel a craving for a cigarette." d. "You should start with 30 pieces of the 2-mg strength gum per day."

5. A patient with bipolar disorder who is taking divalproex sodium [Valproate] has just been admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment, the patient tells the nurse about recent suicidal ideation. The nurse observes several areas of bruising over soft tissue areas and notes a weight gain of 10 pounds since the last admission 1 year ago. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient whether the bruises are self-inflicted. b. Contact the provider to report these findings. c. Give the patient information about weight loss. d. Request an order for an increased dose to help with depressive symptoms.

5. An adolescent patient with mild cervicitis is diagnosed with gonorrhea. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug(s)? a. Azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once, and doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 7 days b. Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 250 mg IM once, and azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once c. Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 125 mg IM once d. Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg IV twice daily for 12 days

5. The nurse is caring for a patient in the oncology unit who was recently diagnosed with advanced renal carcinoma. The nurse prepares to administer aldesleukin [Proleukin] as part of the treatment regimen. What is the primary adverse effect of this drug? a. Hypertension b. Capillary leakage syndrome c. Hyperglycemia d. Hyperuricemia

5.A patient tells a nurse that antihistamines help relieve cold symptoms and wants to know why they are not recommended or prescribed for this purpose. The nurse tells the patient that antihistamines provide only mild relief from some cold symptoms by: a. anticholinergic properties that decrease rhinorrhea. b. blocking H1 receptors in nasal passages. c. reducing secretions at H2 receptor sites. d. having sedative effects, which help patients rest and sleep.

6. A nurse is explaining to a nursing student how clomiphene [Clomid] works to improve fertility. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Clomiphene blocks estrogen receptors to cause increased secretion of gonadotropins." b. "Clomiphene directly stimulates the ovary, causing follicular maturation and ovulation." c. "If follicular maturation is the only result of clomiphene therapy, human chorionic gonadotropin may be given." d. "If the pituitary gland cannot produce LH and FSH, clomiphene will not be effective."

6. A nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking procainamide [Procanbid] for long-term suppression of a dysrhythmia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I need to take this drug at evenly spaced intervals around the clock." b. "I may have increased bruising, but this is a temporary side effect." c. "I should report pain and swelling in my joints when taking this drug." d. "I will need to have blood tests at regular intervals while taking this drug."

6. A nursing student caring for a patient with cancer tells the nurse that the patient seems to be exaggerating when reporting the degree of pain. Which statement by the nurse is an appropriate response to this concern? a. "Evaluation of the patient's vital signs can help you tell if this patient is exaggerating." b. "It is important to give pain medication as ordered for the degree of pain the patient reports." c. "We may need to evaluate the patient for the development of metastasis or infection." d. "You should monitor this patient's behavior and facial expressions for a more accurate assessment."

6. A patient admitted to the hospital has been using phenylephrine nasal spray [Neo-Synephrine], 2 sprays every 4 hours, for a week. The patient complains that the medication is not working, because the nasal congestion has increased. What will the nurse do? a. Request an order for an oral decongestant to replace the intranasal phenylephrine. b. Request an order for an intranasal glucocorticoid to be used while the phenylephrine is withdrawn. c. Tell the patient to increase the dose of phenylephrine to 4 sprays every 4 hours. d. Tell the patient to stop using the phenylephrine and begin using an intranasal antihistamine.

6. A patient asks about nicotine patches for smoking cessation and wants to know the difference between the 24-hour patch and the 16-hour patch. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "The 16-hour patch is for patients who have trouble sleeping." b. "The 16-hour patch simulates usual nicotine ingestion patterns." c. "The 24-hour patch is for persons weighing more than 100 pounds." d. "The 24-hour patch is recommended for heavier smokers."

6. A patient has a positive test for hepatitis C and is admitted to the hospital. The admission laboratory tests reveal a normal ALT, and a liver biopsy is negative for hepatic fibrosis and inflammation. The nurse will prepare this patient for: a. dual therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin. b. no medication therapy at this time. c. pegylated interferon alfa only until ALT levels are elevated. d. triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa, ribavirin, and boceprevir.

6. A patient is admitted to the coronary care unit from the emergency department after initial management of STEMI. A primary percutaneous coronary intervention has been performed. The nurse notes an initial heart rate of 56 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The patient has a history of stroke and a previous myocardial infarction. Which order will the nurse question? a. Aspirin b. Beta blocker c. Clopidogrel d. Heparin

6. A patient is started on immunosuppressant drugs after kidney transplantation and will be taking azathioprine [Imuran] as part of the drug regimen. The patient asks the nurse why it is necessary to have a specimen for a complete blood count drawn at the beginning of therapy and then periodically thereafter. The nurse explains that azathioprine can alter blood cells and tells the patient to report: a. alopecia. b. easy bruising. c. fatigue. d. gastrointestinal (GI) upset.

6. A patient will begin taking atorvastatin [Lipitor] to treat elevated LDL levels. The patient asks the nurse what to do to minimize the risk of myositis associated with taking this drug. What will the nurse counsel this patient? a. "Consume an increased amount of citrus fruits while taking this drug." b. "Take vitamin D and coenzyme Q supplements." c. "Ask your provider about adding a fibrate medication to your regimen." d. "Have your creatine kinase levels checked every 4 weeks."

6. A patient will begin taking tamoxifen [Nolvadex] to treat breast cancer. The nurse performs a medication history and learns that the patient is taking sertraline [Zoloft] for depression. The nurse will tell the patient to contact her provider to ask about: a. increasing her dose of sertraline. b. changing from sertraline to escitalopram [Lexapro]. c. switching from sertraline to fluoxetine [Prozac]. d. decreasing her dose of tamoxifen.

6. A pregnant patient is being induced with oxytocin, which has been infusing for 1 hour. The initial rate was 6 milliunits/min, and the rate now is 18 milliunits/min. The nurse notes regular contractions occurring every 3 minutes, each lasting 35 seconds. The nurse will: a. increase the rate of infusion by 1 to 2 milliunits/min every 15 to 40 minutes. b. increase the rate of infusion by 3 to 6 milliunits/min every 15 to 40 minutes. c. interrupt the infusion and continue to monitor the patient before restarting. d. interrupt the infusion and notify the provider of potential oxytocin toxicity.

6. A young adult woman will begin using an inhaled glucocorticoid to treat asthma. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of which action? a. Lowering her calcium intake and increasing her vitamin D intake b. Participating in weight-bearing exercises on a regular basis c. Taking oral glucocorticoids during times of acute stress d. Using two reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy

7. An older male patient with an increased risk of MI is taking furosemide [Lasix] and low-dose aspirin. The patient is admitted to the hospital, and the nurse notes an initial blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. The patient has had a 10-pound weight gain since a previous admission 3 months earlier. The patient has voided only a small amount of concentrated urine. The serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are elevated. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. adding an antihypertensive medication. b. obtaining serum electrolytes. c. ordering a potassium-sparing diuretic. d. withdrawing the aspirin.

6. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a patient who is receiving treatment with abacavir, zidovudine, and lamivudine [Trizivir]. The patient complains of fatigue. Upon further assessment, the nurse finds a rash and notes that the patient has a temperature of 101.1°F. What is the nurse's best course of action? a. Tell the patient that this is an expected response to these medications and to continue the agents as prescribed. b. Have the patient hold the medications and arrange for an immediate evaluation by the prescriber. c. Have the patient continue the abacavir but discontinue the other two agents for 3 weeks. d. Instruct the patient to continue all three medications and administer an antihistamine for the symptoms.

6.A patient will begin taking fexofenadine [Allegra] for hay fever. The nurse teaching this patient will tell the patient that: a. fexofenadine should be taken with food to prevent gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. b. the medication may be taken once or twice daily. c. tolerance to sedation will occur in a few weeks. d. with renal impairment, this drug should be taken every other day.

7. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the use of memantine [Namenda] for Alzheimer's disease. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Memantine is indicated for patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer'sdisease." b. "Memantine modulates the effects ofglutamate to alter calcium influx intoneurons." c. "Memantine prevents calcium from leaving neurons, which improves theirfunction." d. "Memantine and donepezil combined may stop progression of Alzheimer'sdisease."

7. A nurse is teaching a patient who is about to undergo allograft transplantation of the liver. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the post-transplant medications? a. "Immunosuppressants help reduce the risk of postoperative infection." b. "I will need to have periodic laboratory work to assess for toxicity." c. "I will need to take immunosuppressants until all signs of organ rejection are gone." d. "These drugs will prevent organ rejection."

7. A patient comes to a clinic for tuberculosis medications 2 weeks after beginning treatment with a four-drug induction phase. The patient's sputum culture remains positive, and no drug resistance is noted. At this point, the nurse will expect the provider to: a. change the regimen to a two-drug continuation phase. b. continue the four-drug regimen and recheck the sputum in 2 weeks. c. obtain a chest radiograph and consider adding another drug to the regimen. d. question the patient about adherence to the drug regimen.

7. A patient has begun taking an HMG-COA reductase inhibitor. Which statement about this class of drugs made by the nurse during patient education would be inappropriate? a. "Statins reduce the risk of morbidity from influenza." b. "You should come into the clinic for liver enzymes in 1 month." c. "Statins reduce the risk of coronary events in people with normal LDL levels." d. "You should maintain a healthy lifestyle and avoid high-fat foods."

7. A patient who has taken warfarin [Coumadin] for a year begins taking carbamazepine. The nurse will anticipate an order to: a. decrease the dose of carbamazepine. b. increase the dose of warfarin. c. perform more frequent aPTT monitoring. d. provide extra dietary vitamin K.

7. A preoperative patient receives atropine before induction of anesthesia. The nurse caring for this patient understands that this agent is used to prevent: a. anxiety. b. bradycardia. c. dry mouth. d. hypertension.

8. A 60-year-old female patient is about to begin long-term therapy with a glucocorticoid. Which of the following will be important for minimizing the risk of osteoporosis? a. Baseline vitamin D level b. Calcium and vitamin D supplements c. Estrogen therapy d. Skeletal x-rays before treatment

8. A nurse is explaining congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) to a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "CAH is caused by a deficiency of ACTH production." b. "CAH is the result of an inability to synthesize glucocorticoids." c. "Newborn screening provides a definitive diagnosis for CAH" d. "The enzyme 21-alpha-hydroxylase increases the production of androgens."

7.A patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia is admitted to the unit. The patient is taking multiple medications, including terazosin [Hytrin]. During the evening rounds, the patient begins to complain of dizziness and nasal congestion. Upon assessment, the patient is somnolent and has a blood pressure of 101/42 mm Hg. The nurse is correct to suspect: a. priapism. b. sinus infection. c. allergic reaction. d. adverse effects.

8. A patient has undergone a primary percutaneous coronary intervention with a stent placement. The provider has ordered a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin and clopidogrel. The patient asks the nurse how long the medications must be taken. What will the nurse tell this patient about the medication regimen? a. This drug regimen will continue indefinitely. b. The clopidogrel will be discontinued in one year and the aspirin will be given indefinitely. c. The aspirin will be discontinued in one year and the clopidogrel will be given indefinitely. d. Both drugs will be discontinued in one year.

8. A patient receiving menotropins [Repronex] for infertility comes to the clinic for evaluation on the ninth day of treatment. Her serum estrogen level is 200 pg/mL per maturing follicle. An ultrasound reveals that follicles have enlarged to 22 mm. The patient complains of left lower abdominal pain. What will the nurse do? a. Administer human chorionic gonadotropin, because the ovary has ripened. b. Assess for abdominal fullness and distension and auscultate lung sounds. c. Inform the patient that the pain is associated with ovulation. d. Recommend ibuprofen for pain and administer the next dose of menotropins.

8. A patient who has been taking gentamicin for 5 days reports a headache and dizziness. What will the nurse do? a. Request an order for a gentamicin peak level. b. Suspect ototoxicity and notify the prescriber. c. Tell the patient to ask for help with ambulation. d. Tell the patient to report any tinnitus.

8. A patient with a history of congestive heart failure and renal impairment has esophageal candidiasis. Which antifungal agent would the nurse anticipate giving to this patient? a. Amphotericin B [Abelcet] b. Fluconazole [Diflucan] c. Itraconazole [Sporanox] d. Voriconazole [Vfend]

8. A pregnant patient in her third trimester asks the nurse whether she can take aspirin for headaches. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Aspirin is safe during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy." b. "Aspirin may cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in your baby." c. "Aspirin may induce premature labor and should be avoided in the third trimester." d. "You should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication."

8. A female patient who has hepatitis C is being treated with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin [Ribasphere]. It will be important for the nurse to teach this patient that: a. if she gets pregnant, she should use the inhaled form of ribavirin [Virazole]. b. if she is taking oral contraceptives, she should also take a protease inhibitor. c. she should use a hormonal contraceptive to avoid pregnancy. d. she will need a monthly pregnancy test during her treatment.

8. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about management of controlled substances in medication administration. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "If there is a difference between state and federal laws governing a scheduled drug, the federal law takes precedence." b. "Prescriptions for drugs in Schedules III and IV may be written to include up to 5 refills." c. "Schedule I drugs may only be given to hospitalized patients." d. "To reduce the possibility of abuse of a drug that is Schedule II, the prescriber should call the prescription to the pharmacy."

8. Which patient should begin treatment for tuberculosis? a. A patient with HIV and a tuberculin skin test result of a 4-mm region of induration b. A recent immigrant from a country with a high prevalence of TB with a 10-mm region of induration c. A patient with no known risk factors who has a job-related tuberculin skin test result of a 12-mm area of induration d. An intravenous drug abuser with a tuberculin skin test result of a 5-mm region of induration

8.The nurse knows that which immunosuppressants are among the most effective? a. Azathioprine [Imuran] and everolimus [Zortress] b. Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and tacrolimus [Prograf] c. Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] and muromonab-CD3 [Orthoclone OKT3] d. Sirolimus [Rapamune] and methylprednisolone

9. A nurse is caring for a patient who is addicted to barbiturates and who will begin receiving phenobarbital. The nurse discusses the care of this patient with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Phenobarbital acts as an antagonist to barbiturates and prevents toxicity." b. "Phenobarbital has a long half-life and can be tapered gradually to minimize abstinence symptoms." c. "Phenobarbital can be administered on an as-needed basis to treat withdrawal symptoms." d. "Phenobarbital prevents respiratory depression associated with barbiturate withdrawal."

9. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching? a. "Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first." b. "Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves." c. "Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception." d. "Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects."

9. A patient admitted to the hospital is using metronidazole [Flagyl] 0.75% gel. The nurse understands that this agent is used to treat which condition? a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Gardnerella vaginalis c. Haemophilus ducreyi d. Trichomonas vaginalis

9. A patient is to begin taking phenytoin [Dilantin] for seizures. The patient tells the nurse that she is taking oral contraceptives. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. She may need to increase her dose of phenytoin while taking oral contraceptives. b. She should consider a different form of birth control while taking phenytoin. c. She should remain on oral contraceptives, because phenytoin causes birth defects. d. She should stop taking oral contraceptives, because they reduce the effectiveness of phenytoin.

9. A patient receives an injection of human chorionic gonadotropin after follicular maturation has been induced with another agent. The patient comes to the clinic 2 days later complaining of headache, irritability, and fatigue. What will the nurse do? a. Perform a urine pregnancy test. b. Reassure the patient that these are known adverse effects. c. Request an order for a serum estrogen level. d. Review the patient's abdominal ultrasound.

9. A patient who takes the loop diuretic ethacrynic acid is given intravenous gentamicin for an infection. After several days of treatment with gentamicin, the nurse reviews the patient's most recent laboratory results and notes a gentamicin trough of 2.1 mcg/mL and normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels. The nurse will question the patient about: a. gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. b. headache, dizziness, or vertigo. c. presence of rash. d. urine output.

9. A patient will begin taking dabigatran etexilate [Pradaxa] to prevent stroke. The nurse will include which statement when teaching this patient? a. Dabigatran should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. b. It is important not to crush, chew, or open capsules of dabigatran. c. The risk of bleeding with dabigatran is less than that with warfarin [Coumadin]. d. To remember to take dabigatran twice daily, a pill organizer can be useful.

9. A patient with advanced prostate cancer will begin treatment with leuprolide [Lupron]. The provider has ordered flutamide to be given as adjunct therapy. The patient asks the nurse why both drugs are necessary. The nurse will tell the patient that: a. flutamide reduces the side effects, such as hot flushes, caused by leuprolide. b. flutamide suppresses initial tumor flare caused by leuprolide. c. leuprolide helps to reduce the toxicity of flutamide. d. the combination of both drugs increases cancer survival.

9. A patient with cancer is admitted to the hospital. The nurse obtains an admission history and learns that the patient has been taking oxycodone and a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for a year. The patient reports a recent increase in the intensity of pain, along with a new pain described as "burning" and "shooting." The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will order: a. a combination opioid/NSAID and an adjunctive analgesic. b. a fentanyl transdermal patch, acetaminophen, and an adjunctive analgesic. c. an increase in the oxycodone and NSAID doses. d. intramuscular morphine sulfate and acetaminophen.

A nurse is helping a nursing student who is administering a medication to a patient with myasthenia gravis. Which statement by the student indicates the need for further teaching? a. "I will ask the patient to sip some water before giving the medication." b. "I will let the patient sleep after giving the medication, because rest is important." c. "I will record muscle strength assessments before and after I give the medication." d. "I will report excessive salivation to the patient's prescriber."

A nurse is obtaining a drug history from an older adult patient who is taking multiple medications prescribed by different providers. Which two medications taken together create a reason for concern? a. Acetaminophen [Tylenol] and oxycodone b. Amitriptyline [Elavil] and diphenhydramine [Benadryl] c. Fexofenadine [Allegra] and an over-the-counter laxative d. Zolpidem [Ambien] and sertraline [Zoloft]

A nurse is preparing to administer a drug. Upon reading the medication guide, the nurse notes that the drug has been linked to symptoms of Parkinson's disease in some patients. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient to report these symptoms, which are known to be teratogenic effects. b. Observe the patient closely for such symptoms and prepare to treat them if needed. c. Request an order to evaluate the patient's genetic predisposition to this effect. d. Warn the patient about these effects and provide reassurance that this is expected.

1. A nursing student is caring for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) who also has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) skin infection. The prescriber has ordered daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse encourages the student to approach the provider to request a different antibiotic because of which facts about daptomycin? (Select all that apply.) a. It causes significant renal impairment. b. It is approved only for bloodstream and skin infections. c. It increases the risk of serious cardiorespiratory events. d. It is more likely to produce resistant strains of bacteria. e. It is not effective against MRSA infections.

B, C

1. The nurse asks a graduate nurse, "When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed, which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions? (Select all that apply.) a. Respiratory distress b. Fever c. Myalgia d. Lymphadenopathy e. Insomnia

B, C, D

8. A nurse is assisting a physician who is performing a circumcision on a newborn. The physician asks the nurse to prepare lidocaine and epinephrine for injection to provide anesthesia. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the provider why an injectable anesthetic is being used for this procedure. b. Draw up the medication as ordered and prepare the infant for theprocedure. c. Make sure that seizure precautions are in place. d. Question the use of the epinephrinefor this procedure.

8. A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has Alzheimer's disease. The patient is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor drug. Which side effects would concern the nurse? a. Confusion and memory impairment b. Dizziness and headache c. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea d. Slowed heart rate and lightheadedness

8. A nurse is instructing a patient receiving a cholesterol-lowering agent. Which information should the nurse include in the patient education? a. "This medication will replace other interventions you have been trying." b. "It is important for you to double your dose if you miss one to maintain therapeutic blood levels." c. "Stop taking the medication if you experience constipation." d. "You should continue your exercise program to increase your HDL serum levels."

8. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the different formulations of beta2- adrenergic agonist medications. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Beta2-adrenergic agonists provide quick relief via any formulation." b. "Long-acting beta2 agonists may be used alone to prevent attacks." c. "Short-acting beta2 agonists are usually given by nebulizer." d. "Oral beta2 agonists are not useful for short-term treatment."

8. A nurse provides dietary counseling for a patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Which instruction should be included? a. "You may eat any foods you want and cover the glucose increase with sliding scale, regular insulin." b. "Most of the calories you eat should be in the form of protein to promote fat breakdown and preserve muscle mass." c. "Your total caloric intake should not exceed 1800 calories in a 24-hour period." d. "You should use a carbohydrate counting approach to maintain glycemic control."

1. A 55-year-old female patient asks a nurse about calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 9.5 mg/dL. The serum vitamin D level is 18 ng/mL. The nurse will recommend adding ____ daily and ____ IU of vitamin D 3 each day. a. 1200 mg of calcium once, 10,000 b. 1500 mg of calcium twice, 1000 c. 600 mg of calcium once, 10,000 d. 600 mg of calcium twice, 2000

8. A nursing student asks a nurse how beta blockers increase the oxygen supply to the heart in the treatment of anginal pain. The nurse tells the student that beta blockers: a. dilate arterioles to improve myocardial circulation. b. improve cardiac contractility, which makes the heart more efficient. c. increase arterial pressure to improve cardiac afterload. d. increase the time the heart is in diastole.

1. A nurse caring for a patient who is undergoing a third round of chemotherapy is preparing to administer ondansetron [Zofran] 30 minutes before initiation of the chemotherapy. The patient tells the nurse that the ondansetron did not work as well the last time as it had the first time. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the ondansetron at the same time as the chemotherapy. b. Contact the provider to suggest using high-dose intravenous dolasetron [Anzemet]. c. Request an order to administer dexamethasone with the ondansetron. d. Suggest to the provider that loperamide [Lomotil] be given with the ondansetron.

1. A nurse is administering a vasodilator that dilates resistance vessels. The nurse understands that this drug will have which effect on the patient? a. Decreased cardiac preload b. Decreased cardiac output c. Increased tissue perfusion d. Increased ventricular contraction

1. A nurse is providing teaching for a patient with stable angina who will begin taking nitroglycerin. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I should not participate in aerobic exercise while taking this drug." b. "I should take aspirin daily to reduce my need for nitroglycerin." c. "If I take nitroglycerin before exertion, I can reduce the chance of an anginal attack." d. "I take nitroglycerin to increase the amount of oxygen to my heart."

1. A nurse is teaching a drug prevention class to a group of parents of adolescents. Which statement by a parent indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Compared with alcohol, marijuana has little or no long-term adverse effects." b. "Ecstasy causes reversible damage to serotonergic neurons." c. "LSD does not cause an abstinence syndrome when it is withdrawn." d. "Most individuals who abuse opioids began using them therapeutically."

1. A nursing student asks a nurse why patients with chronic renal failure (CRF) have low erythrocyte counts. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Damage to the renal tubules increases serum blood loss." b. "Dialysis accelerates the breakdown of red blood cells." c. "Erythropoietin is no longer produced by cells in the kidneys." d. "Patients with CRF are deficient in iron, folic acid, and vitamin B 12 ."

1. A nursing student who is preparing to care for a postoperative patient with deep vein thrombosis asks the nurse why the patient must take heparin rather than warfarin. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Heparin has a longer half-life." b. "Heparin has fewer adverse effects." c. "The onset of warfarin is delayed." d. "Warfarin prevents platelet aggregation."

1. A patient asks a nurse about the effects of chronic alcohol use on the heart. The nurse's best response would be which statement? a. "Chronic alcohol use affects the liver more adversely than it does the heart." b. "Drinking more than two drinks a day protects the heart from atherosclerosis." c. "Long-term alcohol use can damage the heart and cause heart failure." d. "Over time, alcohol use can lower your blood pressure."

1. A patient has had blood pressures of 150/95 mm Hg and 148/90 mm Hg on two separate office visits. The patient reports a blood pressure of 145/92 mm Hg taken in an ambulatory setting. The patient's diagnostic tests are all normal. The nurse will expect this patient's provider to order: a. a beta blocker. b. a loop diuretic and spironolactone. c. a thiazide diuretic. d. counseling on lifestyle changes.

1. A patient is taking a beta 1 -adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing: a. cardiac afterload. b. cardiac preload. c. myocardial contractility. d. venous return.

1. A patient is taking enalapril [Vasotec]. The nurse understands that patients taking this type of drug for heart failure need to be monitored carefully for: a. hypernatremia. b. hypertension. c. hyperkalemia. d. hypokalemia.

1. A patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of chills, severe flank pain, dysuria, and urinary frequency. The patient has a temperature of 102.9°F, a pulse of 92 beats per minute, respirations of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 119/58 mm Hg. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient shows signs and symptoms of: a. acute cystitis. b. urinary tract infection. c. pyelonephritis. d. prostatitis.

1. A patient taking fluoxetine [Prozac] complains of decreased sexual interest. A prescriber orders a "drug holiday." What teaching by the nurse would best describe a drug holiday? a. "Cut the tablet in half anytime to reduce the dosage." b. "Discontinue the drug for 1 week." c. "Don't take the medication on Friday and Saturday." d. "Take the drug every other day."

1. A patient who has chronic adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the hospital for an open cholecystectomy. The nurse obtaining the admission history learns that the patient takes hydrocortisone 25 mg PO daily in the morning. The patient's surgery is scheduled for the next morning. The nurse will expect an order to: a. administer the usual morning dose of hydrocortisone 25 mg PO. b. administer hydrocortisone 50 mg PO in the morning. c. administer hydrocortisone 50 mg IV before surgery. d. withhold the morning dose of hydrocortisone and give it after surgery.

1. A patient with schizophrenia has been taking an antipsychotic drug forcfrv several days. The nurse enters the patient's room to administer a dose of haloperidol [Haldol] and finds the patient having facial spasms. The patient's head is thrust back, and the patient is unable to speak. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the haloperidol as ordered. b. Discuss increasing the haloperidol dose with the provider. c. Request an order to give diphenhydramine d. Request an order to give levodopa.

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and is taking high doses of zidovudine [Retrovir]. The nurse is providing patient education about the adverse effects of the medication. Which statement by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching? a. "I may experience fatigue from anemia." b. "I may be more susceptible to infection from neutropenia." c. "I may have a deficiency of vitamin B6." d. "I may have a deficiency of folic acid."

1.A nurse working in a family planning clinic is teaching a class on intrauterine devices (IUDs). Which patient should be advised against using an IUD for contraception? a. A 45-year-old married woman with four children b. A 30-year-old monogamous married woman c. An 18-year-old woman with multiple sexual partners d. A 35-year-old woman with a history of rosacea

1.A patient is admitted to the obstetric unit in preterm labor at 36 weeks' gestation. The prescriber orders a tocolytic agent. When teaching the patient about this medication, the nurse will tell her that tocolytics: a. are given until term to reduce fetal mortality. b. are used to help the fetal lungs mature. c. help delay delivery while glucocorticoids are given. d. help treat the infections that cause preterm labor.

10. A 14-year-old male patient who plays football is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient has short stature for his age according to a standard growth chart. The patient is muscular, has a deep voice, and needs to shave. The nurse notifies the provider of these findings. Which test will the nurse expect the provider to order? a. Coagulation studies b. Complete blood count (CBC) with differential c. Liver function tests and serum cholesterol d. Serum glucose and hemoglobin A1c

10. A clinic patient who has cirrhosis of the liver develops hypervolemic hypernatremia. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order? a. Conivaptan [Vaprisol] b. Desmopressin [DDAVP] c. Tolvaptan [Samsca] d. Vasopressin [Pitressin]

10. A healthy male patient who does not have erectile dysfunction asks about medications to improve sexual stamina. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. "Medications for ED can improve the duration of erection in healthy men." b. "Medications for ED can improve the quality of erection in healthy men." c. "Medications for ED have no effect on erections in healthy men." d. "Medications for ED will cause priapism in healthy men."

10. A nurse is discussing various ways to obtain a medical abortion with a patient. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of mifepristone (RU 486) [Mifeprex]? "This drug is most effective if I use it: a. before the first missed menstrual period." b. the day after unprotected intercourse." c. within 7 weeks of conception." d. immediately after ovulation."

10. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "TCAs block receptors for histamine, acetylcholine, and norepinephrine." b. "TCAs block the uptake of norepinephrine and 5-HT." c. "TCAs have many side effects, but none of them are serious." d. "TCAs have other uses than for depression."

10. A nurse is teaching a nursing student who wants to know how aspirin and nonaspirin first- generation NSAIDs differ. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Unlike aspirin, first-generation NSAIDs cause reversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase." b. "NSAIDs do not increase the risk of myocardial infarction and stroke however, unlike ASA, they do not provide protective benefits against those conditions." c. "Unlike aspirin, first-generation NSAIDs do not carry a risk of hypersensitivity reactions." d. "Unlike aspirin, first-generation NSAIDs cause little or no suppression of platelet aggregation."

10. A nurse provides teaching for a 25-year-old patient who will receive mitoxantrone [Novantrone] for worsening relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may experience cardiac side effects several years after receiving this drug." b. "I should report fever, chills, cough, and hoarseness immediately." c. "I will need an infusion of this medication once weekly." d. "I will need a liver function test and a pregnancy test before each dose."

10. A patient is taking clonidine for hypertension and reports having dry mouth and drowsiness. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Beta blockers can reverse these side effects. b. Discontinue the medication immediately and notify the provider. c. Drink extra fluids and avoid driving when drowsy. d. Notify the provider if symptoms persist after several weeks.

10. A patient who has migraine headaches has been using sumatriptan [Imitrex] with good results, but reports frequent migraine recurrence 24 hours later. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Aspirin b. Ergotamine [Ergomar] c. Naratriptan [Amerge] d. Zolmitriptan [Zomig]

10. A patient who is receiving a factor VIII concentrate to treat hemophilia A develops hives, a low-grade temperature elevation, and a stuffy nose. The nurse will prepare to: a. administer subcutaneous epinephrine. b. give an antipyretic medication. c. give oral diphenhydramine. d. provide respiratory support.

10. A patient with endometriosis is being treated with the gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist leuprolide [Lupron Depot]. A nurse is teaching the patient about the drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I can continue to take the medication if I get pregnant." b. "I can expect the medication to cure my symptoms." c. "I may have menopausal-like symptoms when taking this medication." d. "I will need to take the medication for several years."

10. A prescriber orders hydroxyzine [Vistaril] for a patient with acute urticaria. The nurse will include which information when teaching the patient about this drug? a. The drug will reduce redness and itching but not edema. b. This antihistamine is not likely to cause sedation. c. The patient should avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug. d. The patient should report shortness of breath while taking the drug.

10. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a protease inhibitor (PI). Upon review of the laboratory test results, the nurse notes that the patient has newly elevated plasma triglycerides and cholesterol. The nurse expects that the prescriber will manage these levels with: a. lovastatin [Mevacor]. b. simvastatin [Zocor]. c. modified diet and exercise. d. Pancrease.

10. The nurse is preparing to administer basiliximab [Simulect] to a patient to prevent acute rejection. By which route will the nurse administer the drug? a. Oral b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Transdermal

11. A female patient who swims competitively admits to using anabolic steroids to increase her muscle mass and improve her performance. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. Anabolic steroids may actually regulate her periods. b. Breast size may increase as a result of this drug use. c. The risk of liver disease will increase. d. Voice changes and facial hair will reverse when she stops the drug.

11. A nurse is providing discharge teaching instructions for a patient taking cholestyramine [Questran]. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching? a. "I will take warfarin [Coumadin] 1 hour before my medicine." b. "I will increase the fluids and fiber in my diet." c. "I can take cholestyramine with my hydrochlorothiazide." d. "I will take digoxin 4 hours after taking the cholestyramine."

11. A nurse is providing teaching for a patient with osteoporosis who has just switched from alendronate [Fosamax] to zoledronate [Reclast]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will need to have blood tests periodically while taking this drug." b. "I will only need a dose of this medication every 1 to 2 years." c. "This drug is less likely to cause osteonecrosis of the jaw." d. "This drug is only given intravenously."

11. A nursing student asks a nurse how cancer cells become resistant to methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The nurse is correct to respond by saying that cancer cells acquire resistance to methotrexate by: a. reduced production of transporter that pumps methotrexate out of cells. b. reduced synthesis of dihydrofolate reductase. c. reduced uptake of methotrexate into cells. d. increased ability to convert the drug to a polyglutamated form.

11. A patient has been taking isoniazid [Nydrazid] for 4 months for latent tuberculosis. The patient reports bilateral tingling and numbness of the hands and feet, as well as feeling clumsy. The nurse expects the provider to: a. discontinue the isoniazid. b. lower the isoniazid dose and add rifampin. c. order pyridoxine 100 mg per day. d. recheck the tuberculin skin test to see whether it worsens.

11. A patient shows signs and symptoms of conjunctivitis. Which aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered? a. Amikacin [Amikin] b. Kanamycin [Kantrex] c. Neomycin [Neomycin] d. Paromomycin [Humatin]

11. A patient with a history of depression and suicidal ideation is taking fluoxetine [Prozac]. The patient reports difficulty maintaining sleep and is prescribed secobarbital [Seconal] as a sedative-hypnotic. The nurse preparing this patient for discharge from the hospital will: a. contact the provider to suggest an order for ramelteon [Rozerem]. b. instruct the patient to use alcohol in moderation. c. request an order to change to trazodone [Desyrel] for sleep. d. suggest that the patient try alternative remedies for sleep.

11. A surgical nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving isoflurane [Forane]. Which is true about this inhalation anesthetic? a. Patients receiving isoflurane will not require mechanical ventilation. b. Postoperative nausea and vomiting are greater with isoflurane than with other inhalation anesthetics. c. Propofol is used for induction to minimize cough prior to administering isoflurane. d. This drug promotes greater relaxation of skeletal muscle than other inhalation anesthetics.

11. Insulin glargine is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who has diabetes. When will the nurse expect to administer this drug? a. Approximately 15 to 30 minutes before each meal b. In the morning and at 4:00 PM c. Once daily at bedtime d. After meals and at bedtime

11. The nurse counseling a couple who cannot conceive learns that female infertility problems have been ruled out. What will the nurse expect to tell this couple? a. "If medication is necessary for male infertility, treatment will last a few months." b. "Male infertility is usually treatable with a combination of medications." c. "Most male infertility is not linked to known endocrine disorders." d. "Treatment with sildenafil [Viagra] will be necessary to improve fertility."

11.The nurse is caring for a patient after recent renal transplantation. The patient is taking sirolimus [Rapamune] to prevent transplant rejection. What other medications would the nurse expect the patient to be taking? a. Rifampin and ketoconazole b. Carbamazepine and phenobarbital c. Cyclosporine and glucocorticoids d. Amphotericin B and erythromycin

12. A child is diagnosed with absence seizures, and the prescriber orders ethosuximide [Zarontin]. When teaching the child's parents about dosage adjustments for this drug, the nurse will stress the importance of: a. frequent serum drug level monitoring. b. learning as much as possible about the disorder and its treatment. c. recording the number of seizures the child has each day. d. reporting dizziness and drowsiness to the provider.

12. A nurse is caring for a patient who takes an ACE inhibitor and an ARB medication who will begin taking TMP/SMZ to treat a urinary tract infection. Which serum electrolyte will the nurse expect to monitor closely? a. Calcium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Sodium

12. A patient who has fibromyalgia is diagnosed with major depression. The provider orders a TCA. The nurse will teach this patient to: a. avoid foods containing tyrosine. b. consume alcohol in moderation. c. sit or lie down when feeling lightheaded. d. take the medication in the morning.

12. A patient who is taking clopidogrel [Plavix] calls the nurse to report black, tarry stools and coffee-ground emesis. The nurse will tell the patient to: a. ask the provider about using aspirin instead of clopidogrel. b. consume a diet high in vitamin K. c. continue taking the clopidogrel until talking to the provider. d. stop taking the clopidogrel immediately.

12. A postmenopausal patient develops osteoporosis. The patient asks the nurse about medications to treat this condition. The nurse learns that the patient has a family history of breast cancer. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider? a. Estrogen estradiol b. Pamidronate [Aredia] c. Raloxifene [Evista] d. Teriparatide [Forteo]

12. The nurse is administering medications to a patient who is receiving cyclosporine [Sandimmune]. Which medication, when administered concurrently with cyclosporine, would warrant a reduction in the dosage of cyclosporine? a. Phenytoin [Dilantin] b. Prednisone c. Ketoconazole [Nizoral] d. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]

13. A nurse is preparing to administer intramuscular penicillin to a patient who is infected with T. pallidum and notes that the order is for sodium penicillin G. Which action is correct? a. Administer the drug as prescribed. b. Contact the provider to discuss administering the drug intravenously. c. Contact the provider to discuss changing the drug to benzathine penicillin G. d. Request an order for piperacillin instead of penicillin G.

13. A patient taking an MAOI is seen in the clinic with a blood pressure of 170/96 mm Hg. What will the nurse ask this patient? a. Whether any antihypertensive medications are used b. Whether the patient drinks grapefruit juice c. To list all foods eaten that day d. Whether SSRIs are taken in addition to the MAOI

13. A patient who has had cancer for 1 year uses a fentanyl transdermal patch for pain relief. The patient reports having three or four episodes of pain (which she rates as 8 or 9 on a scale of 1 to 10) each day, and each episode lasts 15 to 30 minutes. The nurse will contact the provider to: a. discuss the use of an adjuvant analgesic. b. request an order for an NSAID. c. request a strong, short-acting opioid PRN. d. suggest increasing the dose of fentanyl.

13. A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. The prescriber orders bromocriptine [Parlodel] to treat dyskinesias. The nurse notes that the patient is agitated, and the patient reports having frequent nightmares. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a.adding an antipsychotic medication. b.changing from bromocriptine to cabergoline [Dostinex]. c. reducing the dose of bromocriptine. d. reducing the dose of levodopa/carbidopa.

13. The parent of a 5-year-old child who has had four urinary tract infections in the past year asks the nurse why the provider doesn't just order an antibiotic for the child's current symptoms of low-grade fever, flank pain, and dysuria since these are similar symptoms as before. Which is the most important reason given by the nurse? a. "Your child may need to be hospitalized for treatment." b. "Your child may need a urine culture before and after treatment." c. "Your child may need tests to assess for urinary tract abnormalities." d. "Your child may need additional medications, such as urinary tract antiseptics."

14. A nurse is providing teaching to a patient newly diagnosed with partial seizures who will begin taking oxcarbazepine [Trileptal]. The patient also takes furosemide [Lasix] and digoxin [Lanoxin]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may need to increase my dose of Trileptal while taking these medications." b. "I may develop a rash and itching, but these are not considered serious." c. "I should report any nausea, drowsiness, and headache to my provider." d. "I should use salt substitutes instead of real salt while taking these drugs."

14. A nurse is reviewing a patient's medications and realizes that gemfibrozil [Lopid] and warfarin [Coumadin] are to be administered concomitantly. Which effect will the nurse anticipate in this patient? a. Increased levels of gemfibrozil b. Decreased levels of gemfibrozil c. Increased anticoagulant effects d. Reduced anticoagulant effects

14. A postoperative patient reports pain in the left lower extremity. The nurse notes swelling in the lower leg, which feels warm to the touch. The nurse will anticipate giving which medication? a. Aspirin b. Clopidogrel [Plavix] c. Enoxaparin [Lovenox] d. Warfarin [Coumadin]

14. An elderly patient who has type 2 diabetes has a history of severe hypoglycemia. The patient's spouse asks the nurse what the optimum A1c level is for the patient. Which is correct? a. Between 6.5 and 7.0 b. Below 7.0 c. Below 8.0 d. Between 7.0 and 8.5

14. The nurse on an oncology unit prepares to administer the fourth cycle of docetaxel [Taxotere] to a patient with breast cancer. Which clinical finding would cause the nurse to withhold the dose and call the prescriber? a. Alanine transaminase (ALT) 1.2 times the upper limit b. Alkaline phosphatase 2 times the upper limit c. Neutrophil count below 1500/mm3 d. Creatinine clearance of 130 mL/min/1.73 m2

15. A child who receives valproic acid [Depakote] begins taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] because of an increase in the number of seizures. The nurse will observe this child closely for which symptom? a. Angioedema b. Hypohidrosis c. Rash d. Psychosis

15. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic for hypertension and quinidine to treat a dysrhythmia. The prescriber orders digoxin 0.125 mg to improve this patient's cardiac output. The nurse should contact the provider to request: a. adding spironolactone [Aldactone]. b. reducing the dose of digoxin. c. discontinuing the quinidine. d. giving potassium supplements.

15. A patient who has type 2 diabetes will begin taking glipizide [Glucotrol]. Which statement by the patient is concerning to the nurse? a. "I will begin by taking this once daily with breakfast." b. "It is safe to drink grapefruit juice while taking this drug." c. "I may continue to have a glass of wine with dinner." d. "I will need to check my blood sugar once daily or more."

15. A patient who takes nitroglycerine to treat stable angina reports having erectile dysfunction and states that he plans to ask his primary provider for a prescription for tadalafil [Cialis]. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. "You may take these two drugs together safely as long as you take them as directed." b. "You should not take tadalafil and nitroglycerine within 30 to 60 minutes of each other." c. "You should discuss another anti-angina medication with your provider." d. "You should avoid sexual activity since this increases oxygen demands on the heart."

15. An immunocompromised child is exposed to chickenpox and the provider orders valacyclovir [Valtrex] to be given orally three times daily. The nurse will contact the provider to change this order for which reason? a. Valacyclovir is not used as varicella prophylaxis. b. The dosage is too high for this indication. c. The drug may cause serious adverse effects in immunocompromised patients. d. Valacyclovir is not approved for use in children.

15. While giving discharge instructions to a patient who will be taking cholestyramine [Questran], the nurse wants to assess the patient's understanding of the treatment. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will take cholestyramine [Questran] 1 hour before my other medications." b. "I will increase fluids and fiber in my diet." c. "I will weigh myself weekly." d. "I will have my blood pressure checked weekly."

16. A 20-kg child has been taking valproic acid [Depakote] for 1 week to treat a seizure disorder. The child is receiving 200 mg PO twice daily. The child's parents report no improvement in seizure activity. The nurse will anticipate that the provider will order which change in this child's drug regimen? a. Adding another seizure medication to supplement the valproic acid b. Changing to phenytoin [Dilantin] since the valproic acid is not effective c. Increasing the dose of valproic acid to 300 mg PO twice daily d. Increasing the dose of valproic acid to 200 mg three times daily

16. A patient is receiving tobramycin 3 times daily. The provider has ordered a trough level with the 8:00 AM dose. The nurse will ensure that the level is drawn at what time? a. 4:00 AM b. 7:00 AM c. 7:45 AM d. 8:45 AM

16. A patient will begin taking an immunosuppressant medication. The nurse learns that the patient has a history of frequent candidal infections. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug as prophylaxis? a. Fluconazole [Diflucan] b. Ketoconazole c. Posaconazole [Noxafil] d. Voriconazole [Vfend]

16. A patient with heart failure who takes a thiazide diuretic and digoxin [Lanoxin] is admitted for shortness of breath. The patient's heart rate is 66 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 130/88 mm Hg. The serum potassium level is 3.8 mEq/L, and the digoxin level is 0.8 ng/mL. The nurse admitting this patient understands that the patient: a. has digoxin toxicity. b. is showing signs of renal failure. c. is experiencing worsening of the disease. d. needs a potassium-sparing diuretic.

16. A woman who is nursing a newborn develops postpartum depression and her provider orders sertraline [Zoloft] to treat her symptoms. The patient is concerned about the safety of this medication for her infant. What will the nurse tell her about this medication? a. To stop nursing while taking the medication b. To expect symptoms of colic and poor weight gain in the baby c. That sertraline is safer than other antidepressants for nursing mothers d. To ask her provider about switching to fluoxetine [Prozac] instead

17. A nursing student asks a nurse about flucytosine [Ancobon]. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Flucytosine has a broad antifungal spectrum." b. "Irreversible neutropenia and thrombocytopenia may occur with this drug." c. "Resistance is common with this medication." d. "Severe hepatic injury is common and limits this drug's use."

17. The nurse educator is providing patient education about the Cardiac Arrhythmia Suppression Trial (CAST). The nurse correctly explains that the trial demonstrated what effect from the pharmacologic suppression of dysrhythmias? a. It reduced mortality by 50% but increased morbidity. b. It significantly reduced the risk of a second myocardial infarction (MI). c. It doubled the risk of a second MI. d. It should be used in all patients who have had an MI, regardless of rhythm.

18. The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about dofetilide [Tikosyn] to treat dysrhythmias. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Dofetilide is a first-line medication to treat atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation." b. "Dofetilide carries a lower risk of causing torsades de pointes than other drugs." c. "Dofetilide is used for patients with severe symptoms of atrial dysrhythmias." d. "Dofetilide may be safely used as outpatient therapy to treat atrial fibrillation."

19. A 60-year-old African American patient has a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg and reports a family history of hypertension. The patient has a body mass index of 22.3. The patient reports consuming alcohol occasionally. Which therapeutic lifestyle change will the nurse expect to teach this patient? a. Alcohol cessation b. Potassium supplementation c. Sodium restriction d. Weight loss

19. A child has ringworm of the scalp. A culture of the lesion reveals a dermatophytic infection. The nurse teaching the child's parents about how to treat this infection will include which statement? a. "Adverse effects of the medication include itching, burning, and erythema." b. "Apply the topical medication daily until at least 1 week after the rash is gone." c. "Your child will need to take this oral medication for 6 to 8 weeks." d. "You will use an antifungal shampoo to treat this infection."

2. A nurse is discussing fibrinolytic therapy for the acute phase of STEMI management with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this therapy? a. "Fibrinolytics are effective when the first dose is given up to 24 hours after symptom onset." b. "Fibrinolytics should be given once cardiac troponins reveal the presence of STEMI." c. "Fibrinolytics should be used with caution in patients with a history of cerebrovascular accident." d. "Patients should receive either an anticoagulant or an antiplatelet agent with a fibrinolytic drug."

2. A nurse is discussing heart failure with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of how compensatory mechanisms can compound existing problems in patients with heart failure? a. "An increase in arteriolar tone to improve tissue perfusion can decrease resistance." b. "An increase in contractility to increase cardiac output can cause pulmonary edema." c. "When the heart rate increases to increase cardiac output, it can prevent adequate filling of the ventricles." d. "When venous tone increases to increase ventricular filling, an increase in arterial pressure occurs."

2. A nurse is discussing the use of cocaine as a local anesthetic with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this agent? a. "Anesthetic effects develop slowly and persist for several hours." b. "Cocaine is a local anesthetic administered by injection." c. "Vasoconstrictors should not be used as adjunct agents with this drug." d. "When abused, cocaine causes physical dependence."

2. A nurse is providing teaching for a nondiabetic adult who develops growth hormone deficiency and who will begin treatment with somatropin [Humatrope]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Intramuscular dosing is more effective than subcutaneous dosing." b. "I will have increased muscle mass and strength as well as increased height." c. "I will need to monitor my blood pressure frequently while taking this drug." d. "I will need to take insulin while using this, because it causes hyperglycemia."

2. A nurse obtaining an admission history on an adult patient notes that the patient has a heart rate of 62 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 105/62 mm Hg, and a temperature of 96.2°F. The patient appears pale and complains of always feeling cold and tired. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss tests for which condition? a. Cretinism b. Graves' disease c. Hypothyroidism d. Plummer's disease

2. A patient who has a lower back injury exhibits muscle spasms. The provider orders cyclobenzaprine [Flexeril] 10 mg three times a day. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug? a. "This drug carries some risk of developing hallucinations and psychotic symptoms." b. "This medication may cause your urine to turn brown, black, or dark green." c. "You may experience blurred vision, dry mouth, or constipation." d. "You will need to have liver function tests performed while taking this medication."

2. A patient who is pregnant has a history of recurrent genital herpesvirus (HSV). The patient asks the nurse what will be done to suppress an outbreak when she is near term. The nurse will tell the patient that: a. antiviral medications are not safe during pregnancy. b. intravenous antiviral agents will be used if an outbreak occurs. c. oral acyclovir [Zovirax] may be used during pregnancy. d. topical acyclovir [Zovirax] must be used to control outbreaks.

2. A patient who is taking digoxin is admitted to the hospital for treatment of congestive heart failure. The prescriber has ordered furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse notes an irregular heart rate of 86 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern? a. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL b. Oxygen saturation of 90% c. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L d. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L

2. A patient who is taking immunosuppressant medications develops a urinary tract infection. The causative organism is sensitive to sulfonamides and to another, more expensive antibiotic. The prescriber orders the more expensive antibiotic. The nursing student assigned to this patient asks the nurse why the more expensive antibiotic is being used. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Immunosuppressed patients are folate deficient." b. "Patients who are immunosuppressed are more likely to develop resistance." c. "Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and depend on host immunity to work." d. "Sulfonamides intensify the effects of immunosuppression."

2. A patient who takes daily doses of aspirin is scheduled for surgery next week. The nurse should advise the patient to: a. continue to use aspirin as scheduled. b. reduce the aspirin dosage by half until after surgery. c. stop using aspirin immediately. d. stop using aspirin 3 days before surgery.

2. A patient whose spouse has died recently reports feeling down most of each day for the past 2 months. On further questioning, the nurse learns that the patient has quit participating in church and social activities, has difficulty falling asleep, and has lost 5 pounds. The patient reports feeling tired and confused all the time but does not have suicidal thoughts. What does the nurse suspect? a. Grief and sadness b. Hypomania c. Major depression d. Situational depression

2. A provider orders clonidine [Catapres] for a patient withdrawing from opioids. When explaining the rationale for this drug choice, the nurse will tell this patient that clonidine [Catapres] is used to: a. prevent opioid craving. b. reduce somnolence and drowsiness. c. relieve symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. d. stimulate autonomic activity.

2. The parents of a boy with hemophilia A want to know why their son will receive factor replacement on an ongoing basis rather than when needed for bleeding episodes. They tell the nurse that the boy's grandfather, who had the same disease, received the drug only when he had bleeding. The nurse will give the parents which information about ongoing therapy? a. It can reverse progression of the disease. b. It is cheaper, because the amounts of the drug used are less. c. It is used to minimize long-term damage to the joints. d. It prevents the development of inhibitors.

2. Which plasma lipoprotein level is most concerning when considering the risk of coronary atherosclerosis? a. Elevated cholesterol b. Elevated high-density lipoprotein c. Elevated low-density lipoprotein d. Elevated very-low-density lipoprotein

20. A patient will begin treatment with posaconazole [Noxafil] to treat oropharyngeal candidiasis that has not responded to fluconazole. The provider has ordered 200 mg three times daily. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Administer the drug as ordered. b. Contact the provider to discuss decreasing the dose to twice daily. c. Discuss a 400-mg twice daily drug regimen with the provider. d. Suggest to the provider that this dose may be too high for this indication.

3. A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea and vomiting and a weak, thready pulse of 120 beats per minute after ingesting several cigarettes at home. The nurse caring for this child will expect to provide which treatment? a. Gastric lavage b. Hemodialysis c. Respiratory support d. Vasoconstrictors

3. A clinic patient who has been taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis for several months remarks to the nurse, "It's a good thing my symptoms are better, because my mother has been quite ill, and I have to take care of her." The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. The nurse will report this to the provider and ask about: a. reducing the patient's dose. b. using every other day dosing. c. increasing the patient's dose. d. tapering the dose.

3. A nurse is discussing alcohol abuse with a group of nursing students. One student asks whether alcohol consumption has any beneficial effects. The nurse replies that, in moderate amounts, alcohol: a. helps people to sleep well. b. improves sexual responsiveness. c. may protect against dementia. d. prevents hypothermia.

3. A nurse is evaluating a patient admitted to the emergency department with an evolving STEMI for possible administration of thrombolytic therapy. Which information, identified during history taking, would contraindicate this type of therapy? a. The patient just completed her last menstrual cycle. b. The patient states that the chest pain started 1 hour ago. c. The patient has a history of a small cerebral aneurysm. d. The patient has hypertension that is well controlled by diuretic therapy.

3. A nurse is reviewing the culture results of a patient receiving an aminoglycoside. The report reveals an anaerobic organism as the cause of infection. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to discuss an increased risk of aminoglycoside toxicity. b. Continue giving the aminoglycoside as ordered. c. Request an order for a different class of antibiotic. d. Suggest adding a penicillin to the patient's drug regimen.

3. A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has had a hysterectomy and is about to begin hormone therapy to manage menopausal symptoms. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Because I am not at risk for uterine cancer, I can take hormones indefinitely." b. "I can take estrogen to reduce my risk of cardiovascular disease." c. "I should take the lowest effective dose for the shortest time needed." d. "I will need a progestin/estrogen combination since I have had a hysterectomy."

3. A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has undergone kidney transplantation and will begin taking cyclosporine [Sandimmune], a glucocorticoid, and sirolimus [Rapamune]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I should take sirolimus at the same time as the cyclosporine." b. "I will need to have my blood sugar checked regularly." c. "I will need to take an antibiotic to prevent lung infections." d. "Taking this combination of drugs lowers my risk of kidney damage."

3. A patient has 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities bilaterally. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles bilaterally, and the serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which diuretic agent ordered by the prescriber should the nurse question? a. Bumetanide [Bumex] b. Furosemide [Lasix] c. Spironolactone [Aldactone] d. Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]

3. A patient has been receiving heparin while in the hospital to treat deep vein thromboses and will be discharged home with a prescription for enoxaparin [Lovenox]. The nurse provides teaching for the nursing student who asks about the advantages of enoxaparin over heparin. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Enoxaparin does not require coagulation monitoring." b. "Enoxaparin has greater bioavailability than heparin." c. "Enoxaparin is more cost-effective than heparin." d. "Enoxaparin may be given using a fixed dosage."

3. A patient is taking a combination oral contraceptive (OC) and reports breast tenderness, edema, and occasional nausea. What will the nurse recommend? a. The patient should ask her provider about an OC with less progestin. b. The patient should discuss an alternate method of birth control. c. The patient should request an OC containing less estrogen. d. The patient should take the OC at bedtime to reduce side effects.

3. A patient who is taking simvastatin [Zocor] develops an infection and the provider orders azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat the infection. The nurse should be concerned if the patient complains of: a. nausea. b. tiredness. c. muscle pain. d. headache.

3. A patient with cancer who has been receiving an opioid analgesic reports having pain at a new location even though the previous pain is well controlled. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. breakthrough pain. b. drug-seeking behavior. c. infection or metastasis. d. tolerance to drug therapy.

3. A patient with chronic hypertension is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment, the nurse notes a heart rate of 96 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, bibasilar crackles, 2+ pitting edema of the ankles, and distension of the jugular veins. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which medication? a. ACE inhibitor b. Digoxin [Lanoxin] c. Furosemide [Lasix] d. Spironolactone [Aldactone]

3. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking leflunomide [Arava] and an oral contraceptive. She tells the nurse she would like to get pregnant. What will the nurse tell her? a. That leflunomide is not dangerous during the first trimester of pregnancy b. That plasma levels of leflunomide will drop rapidly when she stops taking it c.To ask her provider about an 11-day course of cholestyramine d. To stop taking leflunomide when she stops using contraception

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who begins to complain of shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and notes 3+ pitting edema bilaterally in the lower extremities. Which medication taken by the patient causes the most concern? a. Epoetin alfa b. Filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor) c. Oprelvekin (interleukin-11) d. Sargramostim (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)

4. A newborn infant has been given erythromycin ophthalmic ointment as a routine postpartum medication. The infant's mother learns that she has a C. trachomatis infection and asks the nurse if her baby will need to be treated. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "The erythromycin ointment will prevent your baby from developing conjunctivitis." b. "Without additional treatment, your baby could develop blindness." c. "Your baby will need to be treated with oral erythromycin." d. "Your baby will need to take doxycycline [Vibramycin] for 10 days."

4. A nurse administers atropine to a patient before induction of anesthesia for a surgical procedure. When evaluating the effects of this medication, the nurse will: a. assess for excessive bronchial secretions. b. expect a reduction in the patient's anxiety. c. monitor the patient's heart rate. d. observe for muscle paralysis.

4. A nurse checks a patient's vital signs in the hospital and notes a blood pressure of 146/98 mm Hg. What will the nurse do? a. Instruct the patient to consume a low-sodium diet. b. Prepare the patient for an electrocardiogram and blood tests. c. Recheck the patient's blood pressure in the other arm. d. Request an order for a thiazide diuretic.

4. A nurse is discussing the differences between OxyContin OC and OxyContin OP with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "OxyContin OC cannot be drawn into a syringe for injection." b. "OxyContin OP has greater solubility in water and alcohol." c. "OxyContin OP is not easily crushed into a powder." d. "Patients using OxyContin OP are less likely to overdose."

4. A nurse is preparing to assist a nursing student to administer intravenous verapamil to a patient who also receives a beta blocker. The nurse asks the nursing student to discuss the plan of care for this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will check to see when the last dose of the beta blocker was given." b. "I will monitor vital signs closely to assess for hypotension." c. "I will monitor the heart rate frequently to assess for reflex tachycardia." d. "I will prepare to administer intravenous norepinephrine if necessary."

4. A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure." b. "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart." c. "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood." d. "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."

4. A nurse provides teaching for a patient with cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis who will receive the ganciclovir ocular implant [Vitrasert]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "My vision may be blurred for 2 to 4 weeks after receiving the implant." b. "Surgical placement of the implant is an outpatient procedure." c. "The implant will remain in place permanently." d. "The implant will slow progression of CMV retinitis."

4. A patient is being treated with amphotericin B [Abelcet] for a systemic fungal infection. After several weeks of therapy, the provider orders flucytosine [Ancobon] in addition to the amphotericin. The nurse understands that the rationale for this combination is that it: a. broadens the antifungal spectrum. b. improves the effectiveness of the amphotericin B. c. lowers the dose of amphotericin B and reduces toxicity. d. treats fungal central nervous system (CNS) infection.

4. A patient reports having occasional periods of tremors, palpitations, nausea, and a sense of fear, which usually dissipate within 30 minutes. To treat this condition, the nurse anticipates the provider will prescribe a drug in which drug class? a. Benzodiazepines b. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors d. Tricyclic antidepressants

4. A patient tells the nurse that she takes aspirin for menstrual cramps, but she does not feel that it works well. What will the nurse suggest? a. The patient should avoid any type of COX inhibitor because of the risk of Reye's syndrome. b. The patient should increase the dose to a level that suppresses inflammation. c. The patient should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication instead. d. The patient should use acetaminophen because of its selective effects on uterine smooth muscle.

4. A patient with asthma is admitted to an emergency department with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a prolonged expiratory phase, tight wheezes, and an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. The patient reports using fluticasone [Flovent HFA] 110 mcg twice daily and has used 2 puffs of albuterol [Proventil HFA], 90 mcg/puff, every 4 hours for 2 days. The nurse will expect to administer which drug? a. Four puffs of albuterol, oxygen, and intravenous theophylline b. Intramuscular glucocorticoids and salmeterol by metered-dose inhaler c. Intravenous glucocorticoids, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium, and oxygen d. Intravenous theophylline, oxygen, and fluticasone (Flovent HFA) 220 mcg

4. A patient with cancer has been taking an opioid analgesic four times daily for several months and reports needing increased doses for pain. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. PRN dosing of the drug may be more effective. b. The risk of respiratory depression increases over time. c. The patient should discuss increasing the dose with the provider. d. The patient should request the addition of a benzodiazepine to augment pain relief.

4. A prescriber orders sumatriptan [Imitrex] for a patient for a migraine headache. Before administration of this drug, it would be most important for the nurse to assess whether the patient: a. has a family history of migraines. b. has taken acetaminophen in the past 3 hours. c. has taken ergotamine in the past 24 hours. d. is allergic to sulfa compounds.

4. A young adult patient has been taking an antidepressant medication for several weeks and reports having increased thoughts of suicide. The nurse questions further and learns that the patient has attempted suicide more than once in the past. The patient identifies a concrete plan for committing suicide. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. changing the medication to another drug class. b. discontinuing the medication immediately. c. hospitalizing the patient for closer monitoring. d. requiring more frequent clinic visits for this patient.

5. A hospitalized patient complains of acute chest pain. The nurse administers a 0.3-mg sublingual nitroglycerin tablet, but the patient continues to complain of pain. Vital signs remain stable. What is the nurse's next step? a. Apply a nitroglycerin transdermal patch. b. Continue dosing at 10-minute intervals. c. Give a second dose of nitroglycerin in 5 minutes. d. Request an order for intravenous nitroglycerin.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient in the immediate postoperative period after surgery in which a spinal anesthetic was used. The patient has not voided and complains of headache. The patient has a pulse of 62 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 92/48 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Contact the anesthetist to request an order for ephedrine. b. Have the patient sit up to relieve the headache pain. c. Lower the head of the bed to a 10- to 15-degree head-down position. d. Obtain an order for a urinary catheter for urinary retention.

5. A nurse is discussing intravenous amphotericin B treatment with a nursing student who is about to care for a patient with a systemic fungal infection. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "A test dose of amphotericin B may be given to assess the patient's reaction." b. "If I see any precipitate in the IV solution, I should stop the infusion immediately." c. "Infusions of amphotericin B should be administered over 1 to 2 hours." d. "The IV site should be rotated frequently to reduce the risk of phlebitis."

5. A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of dizziness, lightheadedness, and a pulsating headache. Further assessment reveals a blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg and palpitations. The patient's friends tell the nurse that they were experimenting with "poppers." The nurse will expect to administer which medication? a. Diazepam [Valium] b. Haloperidol [Haldol] c. Methylene blue and supplemental oxygen d. Naloxone [Narcan]

5. A patient in her twenties with Graves' disease who takes methimazole [Tapazole] tells a nurse that she is trying to conceive and asks about disease management during pregnancy. What will the nurse tell her? a. Methimazole is safe to take throughout pregnancy. b. Propylthiouracil should be taken throughout her pregnancy. c. The patient should discuss changing to propylthiouracil from now until her second trimester with her provider. d. The patient should discuss therapy with iodine-131 instead of medications with her provider.

5. A patient will begin taking etanercept [Enbrel] for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks if the etanercept is stronger than the methotrexate. The nurse will tell the patient that etanercept ____ methotrexate. a. has synergistic effects with b. helps reduce adverse effects associated with c. is better at delaying progression of joint damage than d. has fewer adverse effects than

5. A patient with hemophilia is hospitalized for infusion of factor VIII replacement through a venous port. While giving the drug, the nurse notes that the patient's temperature is 101.5°F. The nurse will contact the provider to report which possibility? a. Anaphylactic reaction b. Contamination of factor replacement c. Port infection d. Thrombolytic event

5. A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus takes glipizide. The patient develops a urinary tract infection, and the prescriber orders TMP/SMZ. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Patients with diabetes have an increased risk of an allergic reaction. b. Patients taking TMP/SMZ may need increased doses of glipizide. c. The patient should check the blood glucose level more often while taking TMP/SMZ. d. The patient should stop taking the glipizide while taking the TMP/SMZ.

5. A woman in labor receives meperidine [Demerol] for pain. The nurse caring for the infant will observe the infant closely for: a. congenital anomalies. b. excessive crying and sneezing. c. respiratory depression. d. tremors and hyperreflexia.

5. An anesthesiologist completes preoperative teaching for a patient the night before surgery. The patient asks the nurse to clarify the reason methohexital [Brevital] will be given as an adjunct to the anesthetic. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding? a. "Brevital allows a larger amount of inhaled anesthetic to be used without increased side effects." b. "Brevital is given to enhance the analgesic and muscle relaxation effects of the inhaled anesthetic." c. "Brevital is used to produce rapid unconsciousness before administration of the inhaled anesthetic." d. "Brevital is used to reduce cardiovascular and respiratory depression caused by the inhaled anesthetic."

5. To prevent yellow or brown discoloration of teeth in children, tetracyclines should not be given: a. to children once the permanent teeth have developed. b. to patients taking calcium supplements. c. to pregnant patients after the fourth month of gestation. d. with dairy products or antacids.

5. Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution? a. A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury b. A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia c. A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis d. An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy

5.A patient newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease has been taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] for several weeks and complains of nausea and vomiting. The nurse tells the patient to discuss what with the provider? a. Taking a lower dose on an empty stomach b. Taking an increased dose along with a high-protein snack c. Taking a lower dose with a low-protein snack d. Taking dopamine in addition to levodopa/carbidopa

6. A 30-year-old male patient reports having two to four urinary tract infections a year. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient? a. "Make sure you void after intercourse and drink extra fluids to stay well hydrated." b. "We will treat each infection as a separate infection and treat with short-course therapy." c. "You will need to take a low dose of medication for 6 months to prevent infections." d. "You will need to take antibiotics for 4 to 6 weeks each time you have an infection."

6. A nurse explains to a patient with cancer why it is difficult to achieve 100% cell kill to cure cancer with chemotherapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "It is necessary to continue giving the same dose of chemotherapeutic agents throughout therapy, even if toxicity occurs." b. "Symptoms of cancer often disappear before all malignant cells are eradicated." c. "The immune system attacks chemotherapeutic agents and renders them impotent." d. "The immune system often fails to recognize cancer cells as foreign."

6. A nurse is discussing vesicant chemotherapeutic agents with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching about this type of drug? a. "Extravasation of this type of drug may result in the need for skin grafts." b. "If an IV line used for a vesicant drug infiltrates, it must be discontinued immediately." c. "These drugs may be administered orally as well as intravenously." d. "This type of drug may not be infused at a site of previous irradiation."

6. A nurse is teaching an adolescent female patient about 28-day monophasic combination oral contraceptives. The provider has instructed the patient to begin taking the pills on the first Sunday after the onset of her next period. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. "If breakthrough spotting occurs, you should begin taking a new pack of pills." b. "Protection from pregnancy will begin immediately." c. "Use another form of contraception for the next month." d. "You may take the pills at different times of day."

6. A patient has been taking an SSRI antidepressant for major depression and reports having headaches and jaw pain. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. This represents an irreversible extrapyramidal side effect. b. Discuss discontinuing the antidepressant with the provider. c. Discuss these symptoms with a dentist. d. Try stress-relieving methods and relaxation techniques.

6. A patient has been taking high doses of clorazepate [Tranxene] for several months for an anxiety disorder. The nurse assessing the patient observes that the patient is agitated, euphoric, and anxious. What will the nurse do? a. Double-check the chart to make sure the last dose was given. b. Request an order for a longer-acting benzodiazepine. c. Suspect a possible paradoxical reaction to the clorazepate. d. Withhold the next dose until a drug level can be drawn.

6. A patient is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which treatment regimen is most appropriate for reducing the risk of sterility in this patient? a. Azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once, and cefoxitin, 2 gm IM once in the clinic b. Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 250 mg IM once, with doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days as an outpatient c. Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg IV twice daily, and cefoxitin, 2 gm IV every 6 hours in the hospital d. Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days, and metronidazole [Flagyl], 500 mg PO twice daily for 14 days in the hospital

6. A patient is given 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11:00 PM a plasma cortisol level recorded at 8:00 PM the next day is normal. The nurse knows that this is an indication that the patient has what condition? a. Addison's disease b. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia c. Cushing's syndrome d. Secondary adrenal insufficiency

6. A patient who has a long-term addiction to opioids takes an overdose of barbiturates. The nurse preparing to care for this patient will anticipate: a. a severe abstinence syndrome when the effects of the barbiturates are reversed. b. minimal respiratory depression, because the patient has developed a tolerance to opioids. c. observing pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and possibly coma in this patient. d. using naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the barbiturates, because cross- tolerance is likely.

6. A patient who has been taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension complains of constipation. The patient will begin taking amlodipine [Norvasc] to avoid this side effect. The nurse provides teaching about the difference between the two drugs. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed? a. "I can expect dizziness and facial flushing with nifedipine." b. "I should notify the provider if I have swelling of my hands and feet." c. "I will need to take a beta blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia." d. "I will need to take this drug once a day."

6. A patient who has biliary colic reports a pain level of 8 on a 1 to 10 pain scale with 10 being the most severe pain. The patient has an order for ibuprofen as needed for pain. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Administer the ibuprofen as ordered. b. Contact the provider to discuss nonpharmacologic pain measures. c. Request an order for meperidine [Demerol]. d. Request an order for morphine sulfate.

6. A patient who has recently begun taking carbamazepine [Equetro] for bipolar disorder reports having vertigo and headaches. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Ask the provider whether another medication can be used for this patient, because the patient is showing signs of toxicity. b. Contact the provider to request a complete blood count (CBC) to evaluate for other, more serious side effects. c. Reassure the patient that these effects occur early in treatment and will resolve over time. d. Review the patient's chart for cytochrome P450 enzymes to see whether an increased dose is needed.

6. A patient with a form of epilepsy that may have spontaneous remission has been taking an AED for a year. The patient reports being seizure free for 6 months and asks the nurse when the drug can be discontinued. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. AEDs must be taken for life to maintain remission. b. Another AED will be substituted for the current AED. c. The provider will withdraw the drug over a 6- to 12-week period. d. The patient should stop taking the AED now and restart the drug if seizures recur.

6. A patient with chronic renal failure who is on dialysis receives an ESA. The nurse caring for this patient during dialysis notes that the patient's hemoglobin is 10.9 gm/dL, up from the 10.2 gm/dL recorded 2 weeks ago. The patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest: a. adding an antihypertensive drug. b. discontinuing the ESA. c. giving heparin. d. increasing the dose of the ESA.

6. A patient with second-degree burns is treated with silver sulfadiazine [Silvadene]. A nursing student asks the nurse about the differences between silver sulfadiazine and mafenide [Sulfamylon], because the two are similar products, and both contain sulfonamides. What does the nurse tell the student about silver sulfadiazine? a. It causes increased pain when the medication is applied. b. It has a broader spectrum of antimicrobial sensitivity. c. It has antibacterial effects related to release of free silver. d. It suppresses renal excretion of acid, causing acidosis.

6. A patient with type 1 diabetes recently became pregnant. The nurse plans a blood glucose testing schedule for her. What is the recommended monitoring schedule? a. Before each meal and before bed b. In the morning for a fasting level and at 4:00 PM for the peak level c. Six or seven times a day d. Three times a day, along with urine glucose testing

6A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks a nurse whether sildenafil [Viagra] would be a good medication for him to take. Which aspect of this patient's history would be of most concern? a. Benign prostatic hypertrophy b. Mild hypertension c. Occasional use of nitroglycerin d. Taking finasteride

7. A child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis and who has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex] will begin a course of abatacept [Orencia]. What will the nurse include when teaching the child's family about this drug? a. That abatacept and methotrexate must both be taken to be effective b. To continue getting vaccinations during therapy with abatacept c. That signs of infection may warrant immediate discontinuation of abatacept d. That a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist may be added if this therapy is not effective

7. A nurse is preparing to administer a second infusion of trastuzumab [Herceptin] to a patient who has breast cancer. The patient tells the nurse that she experienced chills, fever, pain, and nausea after her first infusion. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to request a CBC to assess for neutropenia. b. Ensure that oxygen and respiratory support measures are readily available. c. Reassure the patient that these symptoms will diminish with each infusion. d. Request an order for an electrocardiogram.

7. A nurse is providing education to a group of college students about the long-term effects of alcohol. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Chronic alcohol use contributes to the development of osteoporosis." b. "Chronic use of alcohol can actually decrease the risk of cardiomyopathy." c. "Even small amounts of alcohol are related to the development of certain cancers." d. "Pancreatitis is not a common problem among chronic users of alcohol."

7. A nurse is teaching a male adult patient about the use of testosterone gel. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I should apply this to my forearms and neck after showering." b. "I should keep treated areas exposed to the air so that they can dry." c. "I should not let my child touch the gel to prevent behavioral problems." d. "I should not swim or bathe for 3 to 4 hours after applying the gel."

7. A nursing student asks a nurse to explain the differences between amphotericin B [Abelcet] and the azoles group of antifungal agents. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Amphotericin B can be given orally or intravenously." b. "Amphotericin B increases the levels of many other drugs." c. "Azoles have lower toxicity than amphotericin B." d. "Only the azoles are broad-spectrum antifungal agents."

7. A nursing student asks a nurse why pegylated interferon alfa is used instead of regular interferon for a patient with hepatitis C. The nurse will tell the student that pegylated interferon: a. decreases the need for additional medications. b. has fewer adverse effects than interferon. c. is administered less frequently than interferon. d. may be given orally to increase ease of use.

7. A patient has been taking chlorthalidone to treat hypertension. The patient's prescriber has just ordered the addition of spironolactone to the patient's drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should continue following the DASH diet when adding this drug." b. "I should not take an ACE inhibitor when adding this drug." c. "I will need to take potassium supplements when adding this drug." d. "I will not experience a significant increase in diuresis when adding this drug."

7. A patient has severe Paget's disease of the bone. The patient asks the nurse what can be done to alleviate the pain. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss the use of which medication with the provider? a. Alendronate [Fosamax] b. Calcifediol [25-Hydroxy-D3] c. Calcitonin-salmon [Miacalcin] d. Long-acting NSAIDs

7. A patient in the emergency department is given intravenous diazepam [Valium] for seizures. When the seizures stop, the nurse notes that the patient is lethargic and confused and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following? a. Flumazenil [Romazicon] b. Gastric lavage c. Respiratory support d. Toxicology testing

7. A patient is diagnosed with anxiety after describing symptoms of tension, poor concentration, and difficulty sleeping that have persisted for over 6 months. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Alprazolam [Xanax] b. Amitriptyline [Elavil] c. Buspirone [Buspar] d. Paroxetine [Paxil]

7. A patient is diagnosed with moderate vitamin B 12 deficiency. The nurse reviews the laboratory work and notes that the plasma B 12 is low also, a Schilling test reveals B 12 malabsorption. The provider orders oral cyanocobalamin 500 mcg per day. The nurse will contact the provider to: a. discuss IM dosing. b. request an order for folic acid. c. suggest an increased dose. d. suggest platelet transfusion therapy.

7. A patient is taking gentamicin [Garamycin] and furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse should counsel this patient to report which symptom? a. Frequent nocturia b. Headaches c. Ringing in the ears d. Urinary retention

7. A patient with a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital and has a partial convulsive episode shortly after arriving on the unit. The patient has been taking phenytoin [Dilantin] 100 mg three times daily and oxcarbazepine [Trileptal] 300 mg twice daily for several years. The patient's phenytoin level is 8.6 mcg/mL, and the oxcarbazepine level is 22 mcg/mL. The nurse contacts the provider to report these levels and the seizure. What will the nurse expect the provider to order? a. A decreased dose of oxcarbazepine b. Extended-release phenytoin c. An increased dose of phenytoin d. Once-daily dosing of oxcarbazepine

7. A patient with bipolar disorder takes lamotrigine [Lamictal]. Which statement by the patient would prompt the nurse to hold the drug and notify the prescriber for further assessment? a. "I get a little dizzy sometimes." b. "I had a headache last week that lasted for about an hour." c. "I've broken out in a rash on my chest and back." d. "Last night I woke up twice with a bad dream."

7. A patient with schizophrenia shows suicidal behaviors, and the provider orders clozapine [Clozaril]. The nurse teaches the family about the medication and its side effects. Which statement by a family member indicates a need for further teaching about this drug? a. "Blood counts are necessary for several weeks after discontinuation of the drug." b. "Fever, sore throat, and sores in the mouth should be reported immediately." c. "If the ANC is less than 3000, the drug will be discontinued permanently." d. "Use of this drug requires weekly evaluation of blood work."

7. A prescriber has ordered nicotine nasal spray for a patient to assist with smoking cessation. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching the patient about the medication? a. "This will produce a steady level of nicotine to reduce your cravings." b. "You should gradually reduce the dose after 3 months of use." c. "You should use 1 spray in each nostril per dose up to 5 times per hour." d. "You will not develop dependence on the nicotine in the nasal spray."

7. A recent campaign, initiated by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), to delay the emergence of antibiotic resistance in hospitals, has what as one of its objectives? a. Allowing patients to stop antibiotics when symptoms subside b. Allowing prescribers to develop their own prescribing guidelines c. Increased adherence to prescribed antibiotics d. Increased use of antibiotics among parents of young children

7. A young woman with migraine headaches who has recently begun taking sumatriptan [Imitrex] calls the nurse to report a sensation of chest and arm heaviness. The nurse questions the patient and determines that she feels pressure and not pain. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient about any history of hypertension or coronary artery disease. b. Determine whether the patient might be pregnant. c. Reassure the patient that this is a transient, reversible side effect of sumatriptan. d. Tell the patient to stop taking the medication immediately.

7.A patient who has begun taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] reports feeling lightheaded and dizzy, especially when standing up from a sitting position. What will the nurse recommend? a.An alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication b. Discussing amantadine with the prescriber c.Increasing salt and water intake d. Taking a drug holiday

7.An 18-month-old child develops an urticarial reaction after a transfusion. The prescriber orders intravenous promethazine [Phenergan]. What will the nurse do? a. Give the medication as ordered. b. Monitor the child for bronchoconstriction. c. Question the order. d. Request an order to give the drug orally.

8. A 12-year-old male patient diagnosed with hypogonadism will begin testosterone injections. What will the nurse include when teaching the family about this therapy? a. Annual x-rays of the hands and wrists are necessary to monitor epiphyseal closure. b. Gynecomastia may occur and is a common side effect. c. Injections are given every 2 to 4 weeks for 3 to 4 years. d. Use of this drug may lead to prostate cancer later in life.

8. A college student who is unresponsive is brought to the emergency department by friends, who say that their friend drank more than half of a large bottle of whiskey 3 hours ago. Assessment reveals a blood alcohol level of 0.32%. The vital signs are BP, 88/32 mm Hg R, 6/min T, 96.8°F and P, 76/min and weak and thready. The nurse should prepare the patient for which intervention? a. IV fluids and stimulants b. Charcoal administration c. Gastric lavage and dialysis d. Naloxone [Narcan] administration

8. A nurse provides teaching to a woman who is taking tranexamic acid [Lysteda] for menorrhagia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may experience back pain or muscle cramps while taking this drug." b. "I may take two tablets 3 times daily for up to 5 days with each period." c. "I should take an oral contraceptive to prevent pregnancy while taking this drug." d. "I should take this medication with food to improve absorption of the drug."

8. A patient is admitted to the hospital with fever, headache, malaise, joint pain, and enlarged lymph nodes. Blood cultures are positive for Treponema pallidum. The nurse recognizes this as which type of syphilis? a. Congenital b. Primary c. Secondary d. Tertiary

8. A patient is brought to the emergency department by friends, who say that they were at a party where alcohol and a mix of barbiturates and benzodiazepines were all available. They tell the nurse that the patient was among the first to arrive at the party, which started several hours ago. The patient is nonresponsive and has pinpoint pupils and respirations of 6 breaths per minute. After oxygen has been administered, the nurse should prepare the patient for which intervention? a. A central nervous system stimulant and IV fluids b. Activated charcoal and flumazenil [Romazicon] c. Maintaining adequate oxygenation to the brain d. Naloxone [Narcan] and a cathartic

8. A patient who has developed postmenopausal osteoporosis will begin taking alendronate [Fosamax]. The nurse will teach this patient to take the drug: a. at bedtime to minimize adverse effects. b. for a maximum of 1 to 2 years. c. while sitting upright with plenty of water. d. with coffee or orange juice to increase absorption.

8. A patient with diabetes develops ventricular tachycardia and is in the hospital for evaluation of this condition. The nurse reviews the history and learns that the patient takes mexiletine [Mexitil] for pain caused by peripheral neuropathy. What should the nurse do? a. Discuss common side effects associated with taking mexiletine with cardiac agents. b. Understand that this drug will help with both peripheral neuropathy and dysrhythmias. c. Notify the provider to request that another drug be used for peripheral neuropathy pain. d. Request an order for renal function and hepatic function tests.

8. A patient with hypothyroidism begins taking PO levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The nurse assesses the patient at the beginning of the shift and notes a heart rate of 62 beats per minute and a temperature of 97.2°F. The patient is lethargic and difficult to arouse. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which drug? a. Beta blocker b. Increased dose of PO levothyroxine c. Intravenous levothyroxine d. Methimazole [Tapazole]

8. A patient with schizophrenia receives a dose of risperidone [Risperdal Consta] IM. The nurse teaching this patient about this medication will make which statement? a. "You will experience therapeutic levels of this drug in 1 to 2 weeks." b. "You will need injections of this drug every 6 weeks." c. "You will need to take an oral antipsychotic drug for 3 weeks." d. "You probably will not have extrapyramidal symptoms with this drug."

8. A pregnant female patient with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, urinary urgency and frequency, and a low-grade fever is allergic to sulfa, ciprofloxacin, and amoxicillin. The nurse knows that the best alternative for treating this urinary tract infection is with: a. cephalexin [Keflex]. b. fosfomycin [Monurol]. c. methenamine [Hiprex]. d. nitrofurantoin [Macrodantin].

8.A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after ingesting diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. The child is uncoordinated and agitated. The nurse observes that the child's face is flushed, the temperature is 37.1oC, and the heart rate is 110 beats per minute. The nurse will expect to: a. administer atropine to reverse the adverse effects. b. apply ice packs to stop the flushing. c. give activated charcoal to absorb the drug. d. prepare to provide mechanical ventilation.

9. A healthcare worker who is asymptomatic has a screening TST result of 10 mm of induration during a pre-employment physical. What will the nurse reading this test tell the patient? a. "This is a negative test, so you are cleared for employment." b. "You have latent TB and will need to take isoniazid for 6 to 9 months." c. "You need to have a chest radiograph and a sputum culture." d. "You will begin taking a four-drug regimen to treat tuberculosis."

9. A male patient tells a nurse that he drinks a six-pack of beer a day. When the nurse begins to question him further about his alcohol consumption, he says, "You sound like my wife. She's always nagging me to quit. It's only beer!" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Because the alcohol in beer is diluted in a larger volume, it is absorbed more slowly." b. "Have you considered switching to wine? It has chemicals that protect your heart." c. "The amount you drink is equivalent to six shots of whiskey each day." d. "You could try to cut the amount in half to a level that is better for your health."

9. A nurse is caring for an African American patient with severe hemophilia A who has been admitted for bleeding into the knee joint. The prescriber has ordered intravenous factor VIIa [NovoSeven RT]. A nursing student wants to know why this patient is not receiving factor VIII. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Factor VIIa is stronger than factor VIII and will work faster." b. "Factor VIII is used for prophylaxis, and factor VIIa is used for acute episodes." c. "Factor VIIa is used when patients develop antibodies against factor VIII." d. "Factor VIIa provides immune tolerance therapy so that factor VIII will be more effective."

9. A nursing student asks a nurse why a patient in hypertensive crisis is receiving both intravenous sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] and oral hydralazine. The nurse will explain that this is done to prevent: a. cyanide poisoning. b. fluid retention. c. rebound hypertension. d. reflex tachycardia.

9. A parent asks a nurse to recommend an intranasal decongestant for a 6-year-old child. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Decongestants are too sedating for children and should not be used." b. "Decongestants should not be given to children under 7 years old." c. "Decongestant drops are recommended instead of decongestant sprays." d. "Decongestant sprays should be used no longer than 5 to 10 days."

9. A patient has undergone a PCI, and the provider orders clopidogrel to be given for 12 months, along with an ACE inhibitor and heparin. What will the nurse do? a. Question the need for heparin. b. Request an order for a beta blocker. c. Request an order for aspirin. d. Suggest ordering clopidogrel for 14 days.

9. A patient with bronchitis is taking TMP/SMZ, 160/800 mg orally, twice daily. Before administering the third dose, the nurse notes that the patient has a widespread rash, a temperature of 103°F, and a heart rate of 100 beats per minute. The patient looks ill and reports not feeling well. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the dose and request an order for an antipyretic medication. b. Withhold the dose and request an order for an antihistamine to treat the rash. c. Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the symptoms. d. Request an order for intravenous TMP/SMZ, because the patient is getting worse.

8. A patient calls the nurse to report that she forgot to take a combination OC pill during the third week of her cycle. She tells the nurse that she missed another pill earlier that week. The nurse will tell her to: a. continue the pack, skip the inert pills, and use an additional form of contraception for 7 days. b. not to worry, because up to 7 days can be missed without an increased risk of pregnancy. c. take a pill immediately, continue the pack, and use an additional form of contraception for 1 month. d. take a pill now, continue the pack, skip the placebo pills, and start a new pack on week 4.

1. A patient has a free T4 level of 0.6 ng/dL and a free T3 of 220 pg/dL. The patient asks the nurse what these laboratory values mean. How will the nurse respond? a. "These laboratory values indicate that you may have Graves' disease." b. "These results suggest you may have hyperthyroidism." c. "We will need to obtain a total T4 and a total T3 to tell for sure." d. "We will need to obtain a TSH level to better evaluate your diagnosis."

1.A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by another provider but cannot remember which drug he is taking. He comes to the clinic seeking treatment for erectile dysfunction and receives a prescription for sildenafil [Viagra]. What will the nurse teach this patient? a. "Sildenafil is not safe to take in conjunction with finasteride [Proscar]." b. "Sildenafil is safe with any medication for benign prostatic hyperplasia." c. "To be safe, you should have a transurethral resection before starting sildenafil." d. "You should not take sildenafil if you are taking silodosin [Rapaflo]."

10. A nurse is caring for an African American patient who has been admitted to the unit for long-term antibiotic therapy with sulfonamides. The patient develops fever, pallor, and jaundice. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient has developed: a. Stevens-Johnson syndrome. b. kernicterus. c. hepatotoxicity. d. hemolytic anemia.

10. A patient who has a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital after an increase in seizure frequency, and the prescriber orders carbamazepine [Tegretol] 100 mg twice daily to be added to the patient's medication regimen. The nurse reviewing the patient's medical history notes that the patient is already taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] 375 mg twice daily. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which action? a. Reducing the carbamazepine dose to 50 mg twice daily b. Reducing the lamotrigine dose to 225 mg twice daily c. Increasing the carbamazepine dose to 200 mg twice daily d. Increasing the lamotrigine dose to 500 mg twice daily

10. A patient who is recovering from a STEMI 3 months prior is in the clinic for a follow-up evaluation. The patient is taking 81 mg of aspirin, a beta blocker, and an ACE inhibitor daily and uses nitroglycerine as needed for angina. The patient's BMI is 24.5 kg/m 2 , and serum LDL is 150 mg/dL. The patient has a blood pressure of 135/80 mm Hg. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. An antihypertensive medication b. Counseling about a weight loss diet c. Discontinuing the ACE inhibitor d. High-dose statin therapy

10. An older adult patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The initial free T4 level is 0.5 mg/dL, and the TSH level is 8 microunits/mL. The prescriber orders levothyroxine [Levothroid] 100 mcg/day PO. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the medication as ordered. b. Contact the provider to discuss giving the levothyroxine IV. c. Request an order to give desiccated thyroid (Armour Thyroid). d. Suggest that the provider lower the dose.

10. The nurse is preparing to administer medication to a patient receiving cyclophosphamide [Cytoxan]. To protect against the side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis, the nurse would expect to administer which drug? a. Decadron b. Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] c. Leucovorin d. Mesna [Mesnex]

11. A 50-year-old female patient asks a nurse about taking aspirin to prevent heart disease. The patient does not have a history of myocardial infarction. Her cholesterol and blood pressure are normal, and she does not smoke. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Aspirin is useful only for preventing a second myocardial infarction. b. She should ask her provider about using a P2Y 12 ADP receptor antagonist. c. She should take one 81-mg tablet per day to prevent myocardial infarction. d. There is most likely no protective benefit for patients her age.

11. A child with severe hemophilia A receives factor VIII. The nurse expects this drug to be given: a. on demand when bleeding occurs. b. on demand when plasma factor VIII activity is less than 1% above normal. c. prophylactically once weekly to maintain normal factor VIII activity. d. prophylactically three times weekly to maintain factor VIII activity above 1% of normal.

11. A nurse is obtaining a drug history from a patient about to receive sulfadiazine. The nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin, glipizide, and a thiazide diuretic. Based on this assessment, the nurse will expect the provider to: a. change the antibiotic to TMP/SMZ. b. increase the dose of the glipizide. c. monitor the patient's electrolytes closely. d. monitor the patient's coagulation levels.

11. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the differences between pure opioid agonists and agonist-antagonist opioids. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Agonist-antagonist opioids act as agonists at mu receptors only." b. "Agonist-antagonist opioids are effective for treating cancer pain." c. "Agonist-antagonist opioids enhance the effects of pure agonists." d. "Pure agonists act as agonists at both mu receptors and kappa receptors."

11. A nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin. The nurse finds a new laboratory report showing a plasma digoxin level of 0.7 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take? a. Withhold the drug for an hour and reassess the level. b. Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber immediately. c. Administer Digibind to counteract the toxicity. d. Check the patient's apical pulse, and if it is within a safe range, administer the digoxin.

11. A patient has an invasive aspergillosis infection. Which antifungal agent is the drug of choice for this infection? a. Amphotericin B b. Fluconazole [Diflucan] c. Posaconazole [Noxafil] d. Voriconazole [Vfend]

11. A patient is in the intensive care unit after a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the QT interval on this patient's electrocardiogram has been elongating. The nurse is concerned that which cardiac dysrhythmia may occur? a. AV block b. Bradycardia c. Supraventricular tachycardia d. Torsades de pointes

11. A patient takes an ACE inhibitor to treat hypertension and tells the nurse that she wants to become pregnant. She asks whether she should continue taking the medication while she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell her? a. Controlling her blood pressure will decrease her risk of preeclampsia. b. Ask the provider about changing to an ARB during pregnancy. c. Continue taking the ACE inhibitor during her pregnancy. d. Discuss using methyldopa instead while she is pregnant.

12. A child is receiving a combination albuterol/ipratropium [DuoNeb] inhalation treatment. The patient complains of a dry mouth and sore throat. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to report systemic anticholinergic side effects. b. Discontinue the aerosol treatment immediately. c. Notify the provider of a possible allergic reaction. d. Reassure the patient that these are expected side effects.

12. A nurse caring for a patient after a cesarean section learns that the patient received isoflurane [Forane] during the surgery. What will the nurse monitor most closely in this patient? a. Hypertension b. Nausea and vomiting c. Constipation d. Uterine tone

12. A nurse is providing patient education about colesevelam [Welchol], a bile acid sequestrant. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching? a. "Colesevelam will reduce my levels of low-density lipoprotein." b. "Colesevelam will augment my statin drug therapy." c. "I will not have to worry about having as many drug interactions as I did when I took cholestyramine." d. "I will need to take supplements of fat-soluble vitamins."

12. A patient is about to begin treatment with isoniazid. The nurse learns that the patient also takes phenytoin [Dilantin] for seizures. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. increasing the phenytoin dose. b. reducing the isoniazid dose. c. monitoring isoniazid levels. d. monitoring phenytoin levels.

12. A patient is admitted to the hospital. The patient's initial laboratory results reveal megaloblastic anemia. The patient complains of tingling of the hands and appears confused. The nurse suspects what in this patient? a. Celiac disease b. Folic acid deficiency c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Vitamin B 12 deficiency

12. A patient is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient's speech is slurred. The nurse notes the smell of alcohol on the patient's breath and observes hand tremors. The patient's blood alcohol level is 0.4%. The nurse will expect to: a. find that the patient has lost consciousness within a short time. b. administer naltrexone [ReVia] and prepare for gastric lavage. c. give carbamazepine to reduce the risk of seizures. d. provide mechanical ventilation and oxygen.

12. A patient who is taking nitrofurantoin calls the nurse to report several side effects. Which side effect of this drug causes the most concern and would require discontinuation of the medication? a. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting b. Brown-colored urine c. Drowsiness d. Tingling of the fingers

12. A patient will receive intrathecal liposomal cytarabine [DepoCyt] to treat acute myelogenous leukemia. The provider has ordered the concurrent administration of dexamethasone. The nurse understands that this is given to: a. prevent bone marrow suppression. b. prevent hair loss and stomatitis. c. reduce the incidence of pulmonary edema. d. reduce the severity of chemical arachnoiditis.

12. A patient with type 1 diabetes who takes insulin reports taking propranolol for hypertension. Why is the nurse concerned? a. The beta blocker can cause insulin resistance. b. Using the two agents together increases the risk of ketoacidosis. c. Propranolol increases insulin requirements because of receptor blocking. d. The beta blocker can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia.

12. A prescriber is considering prescribing the amiodarone derivative dronedarone [Multaq] for a patient with atrial flutter. The nurse should be concerned about which of the following? a. History of asthma b. History of hypothyroidism c. PR interval of 260 msec d. QT interval of 520 msec

12. A young adult patient is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of severe weight loss. The nurse admitting this patient notes that the patient has missing teeth and severe tooth decay. The patient's blood pressure is 160/98 mm Hg. The patient has difficulty answering questions and has trouble remembering simple details. The nurse suspects abuse of which substance? a. Cocaine b. Ecstasy c. Marijuana d. Methamphetamine

12.A hospitalized patient with Parkinson's disease who is receiving apomorphine to treat "off" episodes develops nausea and vomiting. The nurse will discuss the use of which medication with the patient's provider? a.Levodopa [Dopar] b.Ondansetron [Zofran] c.Prochlorperazine [Compazine] d.Trimethobenzamide [Tigan]

13. A patient has just been diagnosed with cancer and will begin chemotherapy. The patient asks the nurse about the possibility of nausea and vomiting. The nurse will tell the patient that: a. nausea and vomiting can be avoided by having a snack before chemotherapy. b. nausea and vomiting are common side effects and will abate over time. c. nausea and vomiting are common and will be treated with antiemetics when they occur. d. the provider will order drugs to help prevent nausea and vomiting before each dose.

13. A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks a nurse about a long-acting beta2- agonist medication. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. LABAs are safer than short-acting beta2 agonists. b. LABAs can be used on an as-needed basis to treat symptoms. c. LABAs reduce the risk of asthma-related deaths. d. LABAs should be combined with an inhaled glucocorticoid.

13. A provider has ordered oral voriconazole [Vfend] for a patient who has a systemic fungal infection. The nurse obtains a medication history and learns that the patient takes phenobarbital for seizures. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which possibility? a. Administering intravenous voriconazole b. Reducing the dose of phenobarbital c. Reducing the dose of voriconazole d. Using a different antifungal agent

14. A nurse working in a family planning clinic is preparing to administer a first dose of intramuscular DMPA [Depo-Provera] to a young adult patient. The woman tells the nurse she has just finished her period. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the injection today and counsel backup contraception for 7 days. b. Administer the injection today and tell her that protection is immediate. c. Obtain a pregnancy test to rule out pregnancy before administering the drug. d. Schedule an appointment for her to receive the injection in 3 weeks.

14. A nursing student asks the nurse why multi-drug therapy is often used to treat hypertension. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Multi-drug therapy often means that drugs may be given in lower doses." b. "Some agents are used to offset adverse effects of other agents." c. "Treatment of hypertension via different mechanisms increases success." d. "Two or more drugs will lower blood pressure more quickly."

14. A nursing student asks the nurse why the provider has ordered a combination product containing an opioid analgesic and an NSAID for a patient who has cancer. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "There are decreased effects of NSAIDs on the GI tract when a combination product is used." b. "There are fewer adverse effects from both drugs when used in a combination product." c. "There is a decreased likelihood of opioid dependence when it is given in combination with an NSAID." d. "There is increased pain relief with the combination than when either product is used alone."

14. A patient arrives in the emergency department with a heart rate of 128 beats per minute and a temperature of 105°F. The patient's skin feels hot and moist. The free T4 level is 4 ng/dL, the free T3 level is 685 pg/dL, and the TSH level is 0.1 microunits/mL. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to administer: a. intravenous levothyroxine. b. iodine-131 (131I). c. methimazole [Tapazole]. d. propylthiouracil (PTU).

14. A patient who has been prescribed oral ferrous sulfate reports taking extra doses for the past few months. The patient's serum iron level is 560 mcg/dL. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Discontinuing the ferrous sulfate and rechecking the iron level in 1 month b. Gastric lavage and treatment for acidosis and shock c. Giving oral deferasirox [Exjade] d. Giving parenteral deferoxamine [Desferal]

14. A postmenopausal patient is at high risk for developing osteoporosis. The patient's prescriber orders raloxifene [Evista], and the nurse provides teaching about this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may experience breast tenderness while taking this drug." b. "I may experience fewer hot flashes while taking this drug." c. "I should discontinue this drug several weeks before any surgery." d. "I should walk as much as possible during long airline flights."

14. A pregnant patient reports using marijuana during her pregnancy. She asks the nurse whether this will affect the fetus. What should the nurse tell her? a. Children born to patients who use marijuana will have smaller brains. b. Neonates born to patients who use marijuana will have withdrawal syndromes. c. Preschool-aged children born to patients who use marijuana are more likely to be hyperactive. d. School-aged children born to patients who use marijuana often have difficulty with memory.

14. Which medication used for asthma has off-label uses to treat allergic rhinitis? a. Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] b. Fexofenadine/pseudoephedrine [Allegra-D] c. Guaifenesin [Mucinex] d. Omalizumab [Xolair]

14.A patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa [Dopar]. The patient asks the nurse about drugs to prevent disease progression. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. "Levodopa may prevent disease progression in higher doses and is safe to use for this purpose." b. "MAO-B inhibitors and dopamine agonists have both shown neuroprotective effects in human studies." c. "Vitamin E has been shown to delay neuron degeneration and may be used as adjunctive therapy." d. "While some drugs show promise, there are no studies that have proven a neuroprotective effect."

15. A patient who has undergone treatment for alcoholism several times, with relapse occurring shortly after each treatment, has just completed detoxification. The patient requests a medication to help maintain abstinence. Which drug will the nurse expect the provider to prescribe? a. Acamprosate [Campral] b. Chlordiazepoxide [Librium] c. Disulfiram [Antabuse] d. Naltrexone [ReVia]

16. A patient will begin receiving vincristine [Oncovin] to treat Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which side effect(s) will the nurse tell the patient to report immediately? a. Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting b. Hair loss c. Headaches d. Tingling of the extremities

16. The nurse is teaching a class on dysrhythmias and associated therapy. The nurse asks the class, "Which cardiac dysrhythmia would result in the lowest cardiac output, and what treatment would be effective?" The class best demonstrates understanding by responding that ____ results in the lowest cardiac output, and treatment includes ____. a. atrial flutter lidocaine b. tachycardia atropine c. first-degree heart block verapamil [Calan] d. ventricular fibrillation defibrillation

16. Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements? a. A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels b. Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke c. Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients d. Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction

16. Which medication should be used for asthma patients as part of step 1 management? a. Combination inhaled glucocorticoids/long-acting beta2 agonists b. Inhaled low-dose glucocorticoids c. Long-acting beta2 agonists d. Short-acting beta2 agonists

18. A child has been receiving chloramphenicol for a Neisseria meningitidis central nervous system (CNS) infection. The nurse administers the dose and subsequently notes that the child has vomited and appears dusky and gray in color. The child's abdomen is distended. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider for an order to obtain a chloramphenicol level. b. Notify the provider that the child's meningitis is worsening. c. Recognize this as initial signs of a C. difficile infection. d. Stop the infusion immediately and notify the provider.

The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about adherence to medication in older adults. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "An inability to pay for medications contributes to most intentional nonadherence among older adults." b. "Most issues associated with nonadherence among older adults would be resolved with simplified drug regimens." c. "Most nonadherence in older adults results in drug toxicity and adverse drug effects." d. "The majority of older patients who do not adhere to drug regimens do so intentionally."

The nurse is teaching a patient about home administration of insulin to treat diabetes mellitus. As part of the teaching, the patient and nurse identify goals to maintain specific blood glucose ranges. This represent which aspect of the nursing process? A. Assessment B. Evaluation C. Implementation D. Planning

Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last? a. Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication b. Muscles in the lower extremities c. Muscles controlling the glottis d. Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm

Which statement about food and drug interactions is true? a. Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action. b. Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach. c. Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern. d. Some foods can inhibit CYP isoenzymes and alter drug metabolism.

While preparing a patient for a procedure in which a neuromuscular blocking agent will be used, the nurse reviews the patient's preprocedure laboratory values. Which abnormality would cause the most concern? a. Hyponatremia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypomagnesemia d. Hypokalemia

While preparing a patient for a second esophageal dilation procedure, the nurse explains that succinylcholine [Anectine] will be used for muscle relaxation. The patient is anxious and reports not being able to swallow for several hours after the previous procedure. What will the nurse do? a. Be prepared to provide mechanical ventilation after the procedure. b. Have dantrolene available, because this patient is at increased risk for side effects. c. Reassure the patient that this is expected after neuromuscular blockade. d. Request an order for a pseudocholinesterase level.

8. A patient has been taking warfarin [Coumadin] for atrial fibrillation. The provider has ordered dabigatran etexilate [Pradaxa] to replace the warfarin. The nurse teaches the patient about the change in drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may need to adjust the dose of dabigatran after weaning off the warfarin." b. "I should continue to take the warfarin after beginning the dabigatran until my INR is greater than 3." c. "I should stop taking the warfarin 3 days before starting the dabigatran." d. "I will stop taking the warfarin and will start taking the dabigatran when my INR is less than 2."

8. A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication? a. Captopril PO b. Hydralazine [Apresoline] 25 mg PO c. Minoxidil 20 mg PO d. Sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] IV

8. A patient who has a history of asthma experiences three or four migraine headaches each month. The patient uses sumatriptan [Imitrex] as an abortive medication and has developed medication overuse headaches. The patient asks the nurse what can be done to prevent migraines. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss which preventive medication with the provider? a. Botulinum toxin b. Meperidine [Demerol] c. Timolol d. Topiramate [Topamax]

8. A patient who is taking a fixed-dose combination drug with an opioid and acetaminophen for cancer pain reports increased muscular pain. The patient asks the nurse if the pain medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. An adjuvant analgesic medication will probably be used to help with this pain. b. An additional dose of acetaminophen can be used to enhance pain relief. c. Increasing the dose is possible, because there is no ceiling to opioid pain relief. d. The provider will prescribe separate dosing of the opioid and acetaminophen.

8. A patient who wants to quit smoking has a prescription for varenicline [Chantix], which will be used with a nicotine patch. The patient asks the nurse why the varenicline is necessary. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "It helps patients experiencing withdrawal to sleep better." b. "It helps reduce anxiety and other withdrawal symptoms." c. "It will help reduce the likelihood of addiction to the patch." d. "The drug blocks nicotine's access to 'pleasure' receptors."

8. A patient will receive intravenous midazolam [Versed] combined with fentanyl while undergoing an endoscopic procedure. The nurse is explaining the reasons for this to a nursing student before the procedure. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "The patient may appear anxious and restless during the procedure." b. "The patient will be unconscious during the procedure." c. "The patient will not need cardiorespiratory support during the procedure." d. "The patient will not remember the procedure."

8. A patient with chronic pain has been receiving morphine sulfate but now has decreased pain. The prescriber changes the medication to pentazocine [Talwin]. The nurse will monitor the patient for: a. euphoria. b. hypotension. c. respiratory depression. d. yawning and sweating.

8. A university student who is agitated and restless and has tremors is brought to the emergency department. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats per minute, the respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 160/95 mm Hg. The patient reports using concentrated energy drinks to stay awake during finals week. What complication will the nurse monitor for in this patient? a. CNS depression b. Cardiac arrest c. Respiratory failure d. Seizures

8. The nurse is caring for a patient who will begin receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat pyelonephritis. The nurse learns that the patient has a history of myasthenia gravis. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Administer the ciprofloxacin and monitor the patient for signs of muscle weakness. b. Ask the provider whether the ciprofloxacin can be given orally. c. Request an order for concurrent administration of metronidazole [Flagyl]. d. Suggest that the provider order a different antibiotic for this patient.

8. The nurse is providing patient education about the application of transdermal estrogen spray. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the application of this medication? "I should apply this medication to my: a. waistline and shoulders." b. abdomen and arms." c. breasts and abdomen." d. thighs and calves."

8.A nursing student wants to know why a patient who has been taking levodopa [Dopar] for years will now receive levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. The nurse explains the reasons that levodopa as a single agent is no longer available. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education? a. "Carbidopa increases the availability of levodopa in the central nervous system." b."Carbidopa reduces the incidence of nausea and vomiting." c."Combination products reduce peripheral cardiovascular side effects." d."Combination products cause fewer dyskinesias and decreased psychosis."

8.Tadalafil [Cialis] was prescribed 4 weeks ago for a patient with erectile dysfunction. The patient also takes prazosin [Minipress] for hypertension. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the use of tadalafil [Cialis]? a. "I can take this up to 2 times a day, just before intercourse." b. "I have a little renal trouble, so I should take a higher dose." c. "I should take this medication with food." d. "I should take this medication no more than once a day."

9. A nurse is preparing to administer memantine [Nemanda] to a patient and notes a slight elevation in the patient's creatinine clearance level. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Adding sodium bicarbonate to the patient's drug regimen b. Continuing the memantine as ordered c. Discontinuing the memantine d. Reducing the dose of memantine

9. A nurse is teaching a community education class on contraceptives. The nurse tells the class that if spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 are used, the patient should take special precautions, because these spermicides have been linked to: a. human papillomavirus (HPV) infections. b. spontaneous abortions. c. endometrial cancer. d. increased transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

9. A patient is about to begin therapy with fingolimod [Gilenya] to treat multiple sclerosis. The nurse learns that the patient has not had chickenpox or the varicella zoster virus (VZV) vaccine. What will the nurse do? a. Advise the patient to avoid individuals with chickenpox. b. Give the VZV vaccine with the initial dose of fingolimod. c. Give the VZV vaccine and tell the patient to begin using fingolimod in 1 month. d. Obtain an order for a VZV antibody test.

9. A patient is taking alendronate [Fosamax] to treat Paget's disease. The patient asks the nurse why calcium supplements are necessary. The nurse will tell the patient that calcium supplements are necessary to: a. reduce the likelihood of atrial fibrillation. b. maximize bone resorption of calcium. c. minimize the risk of esophageal cancer. d. prevent hyperparathyroidism.

9. A patient who has gout will begin taking febuxostat [Uloric] and colchicine. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug regimen? a. "You are taking both drugs in order to prevent hepatic side effects." b. "You may stop taking the febuxostat after your uric acid levels decrease." c. "You will have to take both drugs indefinitely to treat your symptoms." d. "You will stop taking the colchicine within 6 months after starting therapy."

9. A patient who wants to quit smoking has begun taking varenicline [Chantix]. The patient reports experiencing mood swings and depression and a desire to cause harm to herself. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. "These symptoms are common and will disappear over time." b. "These symptoms may indicate an underlying psychiatric disorder." c. "You may need an increased dose to overcome these symptoms of nicotine withdrawal." d. "You should notify your provider of these symptoms immediately."

9. A patient with asthma comes to a clinic for treatment of an asthma exacerbation. The patient's medication history lists an inhaled glucocorticoid, montelukast [Singulair], and a SABA as needed via MDI. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 96 beats per minute, and an oxygen saturation of 95%. The nurse auscultates mild expiratory wheezes and equal breath sounds bilaterally. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to request a systemic glucocorticoid. b. Contact the provider to suggest using a long-acting beta2 agonist. c. Evaluate the need for teaching about MDI use. d. Question the patient about how much albuterol has been used.

8. Which condition would cause the nurse to withhold a PRN order for magnesium hydroxide? a. Chronic renal failure b. Cirrhosis c. Hemorrhoids d. Prostatitis

A nurse is caring for a woman with breast cancer who is receiving tamoxifen. A review of this patient's chart reveals a deficiency of the CYP2D6 gene. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest: a. a different medication. b. an increased dose. c. a reduced dose. d. serum drug levels.

A nurse is concerned about renal function in an 84-year-old patient who is taking several medications. What will the nurse assess? a. Creatinine clearance b. Sodium levels c. Potassium levels d. Serum creatinine

3. A patient has had three gouty flare-ups in the past year. Which drug class will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Colchicine b. Glucocorticoids c. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs d. Urate-lowering drugs

14. A patient has just received a prescription for fluticasone/salmeterol [Advair Diskus]. What will the nurse include as part of the teaching for this patient about the use of this device? a. "You do not need good hand-lung coordination to use this device." b. "You will begin to inhale before activating the device." c. "You will need to use a spacer to help control the medication." d. "You will take 2 inhalations twice daily."

9. A 6-week-old infant who has not yet received immunizations develops a severe cough. While awaiting nasopharyngeal culture results, the nurse will expect to administer which antibiotic? a. Clindamycin [Cleocin] b. Doxycycline [Vibramycin] c. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate d. Penicillin G

A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent before a procedure. The patient's eyes close. The nurse knows this is a sign that the patient: a. has fallen asleep. b. has received a toxic dose of the medication. c. is beginning to feel the drug's effects. d. may need mechanical ventilation.

14. Which side effect of clindamycin [Cleocin] causes the most concern and may warrant discontinuation of the drug? a. Diarrhea b. Headache c. Nausea d. Vomiting

1. A patient has a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection that is sensitive to aminoglycosides, and the prescriber orders gentamicin. The patient tells the nurse that a friend received amikacin [Amikin] for a similar infection and wonders why amikacin was not ordered. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. "Amikacin is given when infectious agents are resistant to other aminoglycosides." b. "Amikacin is more vulnerable to inactivation by bacterial enzymes." c. "Amikacin is a narrow-spectrum drug and will probably not work for this infection." d. "Gentamicin is less toxic to the ears and the kidneys."

1. A patient has undergone liver transplantation. The provider orders cyclosporine [Sandimmune], prednisone, and sirolimus [Rapamune]. What will the nurse do? a. Question the order for sirolimus. b. Request an order for a serum glucose level. c. Request an order for a macrolide antibiotic. d. Suggest changing the cyclosporine to tacrolimus.

1. A patient is brought to the emergency department with shortness of breath, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, intercostal retractions, and frothy, pink sputum. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to administer which drug? a. Furosemide [Lasix] b. Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] c. Mannitol [Osmitrol] d. Spironolactone [Aldactone]

1. A patient who has just found out she is pregnant tells the nurse she wants to quit smoking. She asks about pharmacologic aids to help her quit. The nurse is correct to tell her what? a. "Nicotine replacement therapy is harmful, but it is safer than smoking, so it can be used." b. "Psychosocial support is the only recommended treatment for smoking cessation during pregnancy." c. "Varenicline [Chantix] is safe to use during pregnancy." d. "You should try to taper off your smoking gradually, because none of the drugs are safe."

1. A patient with renal failure is undergoing chronic hemodialysis. The patient's hemoglobin is 10.6 gm/dL. The provider orders sodium-ferric gluconate complex (SFGC [Ferrlecit]). What will the nurse expect to do? a. Administer the drug intravenously with erythropoietin. b. Give a test dose before each administration of the drug. c. Have epinephrine on hand to treat anaphylaxis if needed. d. Infuse the drug rapidly to achieve maximum effects quickly.

1. During a routine screening, an asymptomatic, pregnant patient at 37 weeks' gestation learns that she has an infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug? a. Azithromycin b. Doxycycline c. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate d. Sulfisoxazole

1. Which two classes of antidysrhythmic drugs have nearly identical cardiac effects? a. Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers b. Beta blockers and potassium channel blockers c. Calcium channel blockers and sodium channel blockers d. Sodium channel blockers and potassium channel blockers

1.A patient is being treated for infertility. An examination reveals cervical mucus that is scant, thick, and sticky. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking which medication? a. Clomiphene [Clomid] b. Estrogen c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) d. Progesterone

1.A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary. b. Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines. c. Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding. d. The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.

1. The nurse has been caring for a patient who has been taking antibiotics for 3 weeks. Upon assessing the patient, the nurse notices the individual has developed oral thrush. What describes the etiology of the thrush? a. Antibiotic resistance b. Community-acquired infection c. Nosocomial infection d. Superinfection

10. A nurse is preparing a pediatric patient for surgery and is teaching the patient and the child's parents about the use of the patient-controlled analgesia pump. The parents voice concern about their child receiving an overdose of morphine. What will the nurse do? a. Instruct the parents not to activate the device when their child is sleeping. b. Reassure the parents that drug overdose is not possible with PCA. c. Suggest that the child use the PCA sparingly. d. Tell the patient that the pump can be programmed for PRN dosing only.

10. A nurse is providing teaching to a patient who is admitted to the hospital for initiation of treatment with amiodarone [Cordarone] for atrial fibrillation that has been refractory to other medications. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may have itching, malaise, and jaundice, but these symptoms will subside." b. "I need to use sunblock to help keep my skin from turning bluish gray." c. "I should not drink grapefruit juice while taking this medication." d. "I should report shortness of breath and cough and stop taking the drug immediately."

10. A nursing student asks a nurse why chemotherapeutic agents are given intermittently instead of continuously. The nurse will tell the student that intermittent dosing: a. allows normal cells to recover and repopulate. b. catches malignant cells in latent phases. c. increases cancer cell kill and speeds up treatment. d. suppresses drug resistance in tumor cells.

10. A patient complains of painful urination. A physical examination reveals vesicles on her labia, vagina, and the foreskin of her clitoris. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about which medication? a. Acyclovir [Zovirax] b. Azithromycin [Zithromax] c. Metronidazole [Flagyl] d. Tinidazole [Tindamax]

10. A patient has a systemic candidal infection, and the provider has ordered oral fluconazole [Diflucan] 400 mg on day 1 and 200 mg once daily thereafter. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the drug as ordered. b. Contact the provider to discuss cutting the dosing in half. c. Contact the provider to discuss giving 400 mg on all days. d. Contact the provider to discuss giving the drug intravenously.

10. A patient is taking a calcium channel blocker (CCB) for stable angina. The patient's spouse asks how calcium channel blockers relieve pain. The nurse will explain that CCBs: a. help relax peripheral arterioles to reduce afterload. b. improve coronary artery perfusion. c. increase the heart rate to improve myocardial contractility. d. increase the QT interval.

10. A patient taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis reports feeling bloated. The nurse notes edema of the patient's hands and feet. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Ask the patient about sodium intake. b. Obtain a blood glucose level. c. Suggest the patient limit potassium intake. d. Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.

10. A patient taking risedronate IR [Actonel] for osteoporosis reports experiencing diarrhea and headaches. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. These are common side effects of this drug. b. These symptoms indicate serious toxicity. c. The patient should discuss taking risedronate DR [Atelvia] with the provider. d. The medication should be taken after a meal to reduce symptoms.

6. A female patient with essential hypertension is being treated with hydralazine 25 mg twice daily. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 96 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The nurse will request an order to: a. administer a beta blocker. b. administer a drug that dilates veins. c. reduce the dose of hydralazine. d. give the patient a diuretic.

11. A male patient reports decreased libido and the nurse notes galactorrhea during a physical assessment. The nurse will report these findings to the provider and will anticipate an order for which medication? a. Cabergoline b. Conivaptan c. Dopamine d. Prolactin

7. A patient who has been receiving intravenous gentamicin for several days reports having had a headache for 2 days. The nurse will request an order to: a. discontinue the gentamicin. b. obtain a gentamicin trough before the next dose is given c. give an analgesic to control headache discomfort. d. obtain renal function tests to evaluate for potential nephrotoxicity.

11. A patient with colorectal cancer is admitted to the hospital oncology unit to receive cetuximab [Erbitux]. The nurse notes that the prescriber has not ordered any other medications. The nurse will contact the prescriber to request an order for which medication in order to minimize cetuximab's side effects? a. Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] b. Epinephrine c. Ondansetron [Zofran] d. Magnesium supplements

11. A pregnant patient in labor tells the nurse that she is afraid she may have harmed her fetus by consuming alcohol. What is an appropriate response by the nurse? a. Ask the patient how much alcohol she consumed, and at which stage of her pregnancy. b. Reassure the patient that the risk is likely to be minimal. c. Tell the patient that no amount of alcohol is considered safe during pregnancy. d. Tell the patient that the full range of outcomes may not be evident for years.

11. An older adult patient who is to begin taking imipramine [Tofranil] asks the nurse when the drug should be taken. The nurse will instruct the patient to: a. divide the daily dose into two equal doses 12 hours apart. b. take the entire dose at bedtime to minimize sedative effects. c. take the medication once daily in the late afternoon. d. take the medication once daily in the morning.

11.A 25-year-old patient has been newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease, and the prescriber is considering using pramipexole [Mirapex]. Before beginning therapy with this drug, the nurse will ask the patient about: a.any history of alcohol abuse or compulsive behaviors. b.any previous history of hypertension. c.difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep. d.whether any family members have experienced psychoses.

12. A 5-year-old child with seasonal allergies has been taking 2.5 mL of cetirizine [Zyrtec] syrup once daily. The parents tell the nurse that the child does not like the syrup, and they do not think that the drug is effective. The nurse will suggest they discuss which drug with their child's healthcare provider? a. Cetirizine [Zyrtec] 5-mg chewable tablet once daily b. Loratadine [Claritin] 10-mg chewable tablet once daily c. Fexofenadine [Allegra] syrup 5 mL twice daily d. Desloratadine [Clarinex] 5-mg rapid-disintegrating tablet once daily

12. A nursing student is helping to care for a patient who takes verapamil for stable angina. The nurse asks the student to explain the purpose of verapamil in the treatment of this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "It relaxes coronary artery spasms." b. "It reduces peripheral resistance to reduce oxygen demands." c "It reduces the heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility." d. "It relaxes the peripheral arterioles to reduce afterload."

1. A nurse is taking a history on a clinic patient who reports being constipated. Upon further questioning, the nurse learns that the patient's last stool was 4 days ago, that it was of normal, soft consistency, and that the patient defecated without straining. The patient's abdomen is not distended, and bowel sounds are present. The patient reports usually having a stool every 1 to 2 days. What will the nurse do? a. Ask about recent food and fluid intake. b. Discuss the use of polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]. c. Recommend a bulk laxative. d. Suggest using a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository.

1. Which infections may be acquired through nonsexual transmission? (Select all that apply.) a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Gardnerella vaginalis c. Herpes simplex d. Neisseria gonorrhea e. Treponema pallidum

A, B, C, D, E

1.What contributes to drug resistance to chemotherapeutic agents? (Select all that apply.) a. Cellular production of P-glycoprotein b. Creation of selection pressure by drugs c. Drug-induced cellular mutation d. Increased drug uptake by tumor cells e. Reduced target molecule sensitivity

A, B, E

3. A patient with hemophilia B is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The patient's history reveals long-term use of factor replacement as prophylaxis for bleeding episodes. The nurse anticipates that the provider will order which medication to prevent excessive perioperative bleeding? a. Desmopressin b. Factor VIII c. Ibuprofen d. Tranexamic acid

19. A patient with COPD is prescribed tiotropium [Spiriva]. After the initial dose, the patient reports only mild relief within 30 minutes. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. "You may have another dose in 4 hours." b. "You may need to take two inhalations instead of one." c. "You should have peak effects in about 6 hours." d. "You should see improved effects within the next week."

1. A patient with asthma will be using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for delivery of an inhaled medication. The provider has ordered 2 puffs to be given twice daily. It is important for the nurse to teach this patient that: a. the patient should inhale suddenly to receive the maximum dose. b. the patient should activate the device and then inhale. c. the patient should store the MDI in the refrigerator between doses. d. the patient should wait 1 minute between puffs.

1. A patient with epistaxis and a history of hemophilia A is admitted to the unit and is scheduled for replacement therapy. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication? a. Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron] b. Aminocaproic acid [Amicar] c. Desmopressin [Stimate] d. Factor VIII

1. A pregnant patient is treated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ) [Bactrim] for a urinary tract infection at 32 weeks' gestation. A week later, the woman delivers her infant prematurely. The nurse will expect to monitor the infant for: a. birth defects. b. hypoglycemia. c. rash. d. kernicterus.

1. A patient with a history of elevated triglycerides and LDL cholesterol begins taking nicotinic acid [Niacin]. The patient reports uncomfortable flushing of the face, neck, and ears when taking the drug. What will the nurse advise the patient? a. "Ask your provider about taking an immediate-release form of the medication." b. "Ask your provider about assessing your serum uric acid levels which may be elevated." c. "You should stop taking the Niacin immediately since this is a serious adverse effect." d. "You should take 325 mg of aspirin a half hour before each dose of Niacin to prevent this effect."

1. A 50-year-old postmenopausal patient who has had a hysterectomy has moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms and is discussing estrogen therapy (ET) with the nurse. The patient is concerned about adverse effects of ET. The nurse will tell her that: a. an estrogen-progesterone product will reduce side effects. b. an intravaginal preparation may be best for her. c. side effects of ET are uncommon among women her age. d. transdermal preparations have fewer side effects.

1. A child with Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) has short stature, and the provider is considering treatment with growth hormone. Which aspect of this child's history should the nurse report to the provider? a. Behavior problems b. Low muscle tone c. Mental impairment d. Sleep apnea

1. A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a patient with tuberculosis who takes rifampin [Rifadin]. What would be an expected finding? a. Crystalluria b. Myopathy c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Red-orange-tinged urine

1. A nurse provides teaching for a female patient with anemia who has had cancer chemotherapy and who will begin treatment with testosterone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Facial hair may develop with this drug but will go away over time." b. "I may experience an increase in breast size while taking this drug." c. "Testosterone may increase my high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol and reduce my low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol." d. "Testosterone treats anemia by stimulating the synthesis of a renal hormone."

what is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer? a) it can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration b) it does not interact significantly with other medications c) it enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen d) it is usually relatively inexpensive to produce

the nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this, the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic a) clinical pharmacology b) drug efficacy c) pharmacokinetics d) pharmacotherapeutics

A patient asks the nurse what can be given to alleviate severe, chronic pain of several months' duration. The patient has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] and states that it is no longer effective. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider? a. Fentanyl [Duragesic] transdermal patch b. Hydrocodone [Vicodin] PO c. Meperidine [Demerol] PO d. Pentazocine [Talwin] PO

A patient complains to the nurse that the clonidine [Catapres] recently prescribed for hypertension is causing drowsiness. Which response by the nurse to this concern is appropriate? a. "Drowsiness is a common side effect initially, but it will lessen with time." b. "You may also experience orthostatic hypotension along with the drowsiness." c. "You may be at risk for addiction if you have central nervous system side effects." d. "You should discontinue the medication and contact your prescriber."

A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse she is worried that a medication she took before knowing she was pregnant might have harmed the fetus. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient what she took and when she learned she was pregnant. b. Contact the patient's provider to request an ultrasound. c. Counsel the patient to consider termination of the pregnancy. d. Suggest to the patient that she go to a high-risk pregnancy center.

1. A nurse is discussing glucocorticoids with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Glucocorticoids have both endocrine and nonendocrine uses." b. "Patients treated for adrenocortical insufficiency receive pharmacologic doses." c. "Pharmacologic effects are achieved with low doses of glucocorticoids." d. "Physiologic doses are used to treat inflammatory disorders."

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order which antibiotic? a. Daptomycin [Cubicin] b. Levofloxacin [Levaquin] c. Norfloxacin [Noroxin] d. Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

1. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about drug abuse. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Patients who experience physical dependence will show compulsive drug-seeking behavior." b. "People who are addicted to a drug do not necessarily have tolerance to that drug." c. "Physical dependence means that abstinence syndrome will occur if a drug is withdrawn." d. "Physical dependence often contributes to addictive behavior but does not cause it."

1. A nurse transcribes a new prescription for potassium penicillin G given intravenously (IV) every 8 hours and gentamicin given IV every 12 hours. Which is the best schedule for administering these drugs? a. Give the penicillin at 0800, 1600, and 2400 give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 1800 and 0600. b. Give the penicillin at 0800, 1600, and 2400 give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 1200 and 2400. c. Give the penicillin at 0600, 1400, and 2200 give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 0600 and 1800. d. Give the penicillin every 8 hours give the gentamicin [Garamycin] simultaneously with two of the penicillin doses.

1. A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of chest pain that has lasted longer than 1 hour and is unrelieved by nitroglycerin. The patient's electrocardiogram reveals elevation of the ST segment. Initial cardiac troponin levels are negative. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. Which drug should be given immediately? a. Aspirin 325 mg chewable b. Beta blocker given IV c. Ibuprofen 400 mg orally d. Morphine intravenously

10. A patient with type 1 diabetes reports mixing NPH and regular insulin to allow for one injection. What should the nurse tell the patient? a. This is an acceptable practice. b. These two forms of insulin are not compatible and cannot be mixed. c. Mixing these two forms of insulin may increase the overall potency of the products. d. NPH insulin should only be mixed with insulin glargine.

10. Lovastatin [Mevacor] is prescribed for a patient for the first time. The nurse should provide the patient with which instruction? a. "Take lovastatin with your evening meal." b. "Take this medicine before breakfast." c. "You may take lovastatin without regard to meals." d. "Take this medicine on an empty stomach."

10. The potassium-sparing diuretic spironolactone [Aldactone] prolongs survival and improves heart failure symptoms by which mechanism? a. Blocking aldosterone receptors b. Increasing diuresis c. Reducing venous pressure d. Reducing afterload

11. A 1-year-old child with cretinism has been receiving 8 mcg/kg/day of levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The child comes to the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. change the dose of levothyroxine to 6 mcg/kg/day. b. discontinue the drug if the child's physical and mental development are normal. c. increase the dose to accommodate the child's increased growth. d. stop the drug for 4 weeks and check the child's TSH level.

11. A nurse is providing teaching for an adult patient with arthritis who has been instructed to take ibuprofen [Motrin] for discomfort. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may experience tinnitus with higher doses of this medication." b. "I may take up to 800 mg 4 times daily for pain." c. "I should limit alcohol intake to fewer than three drinks a day." d. "I will take this medication with meals to help prevent stomach upset."

11. A patient asks a nurse about ways to minimize side effects of chemotherapy. Which response is correct? a. "Avoid contact with people who are ill." b. "Take antiemetics immediately after receiving chemotherapy." c. "Treat fevers immediately with ibuprofen." d. "Use a firm-bristled toothbrush to stimulate gums."

11. A patient at increased risk for thromboembolic disorders will begin taking a progestin-only oral contraceptive. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of how this oral contraceptive works? a. "I will need to use backup contraception if I miss a pill." b. "Irregular bleeding is an indication that I should stop using this drug." c. "The mini-pill is safer than combination OCs and is just as effective." d. "The progestin-only mini-pill will prevent me from ovulating."

11. A patient has been taking methadone [Dolophine] for 5 months to overcome an opioid addiction. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following electrocardiographic changes? a. Prolonged QT interval b. Prolonged P-R interval c. AV block d. An elevated QRS complex

11. A patient has lamivudine-resistant hepatitis B and has been taking entecavir [Baraclude] for 2 years. The patient asks the nurse why the provider has recommended taking the drug for another year. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. "Entecavir can reverse fibrosis and cirrhosis of the liver when taken long term." b. "It is necessary to continue taking entecavir to avoid withdrawal symptoms." c. "The drug will be given until the infection is completely eradicated." d. "You will need to continue taking entecavir to prevent lactic acidosis and hepatotoxicity."

11. A patient who has recently begun taking interferon beta reports feeling depressed. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Notify the provider of these symptoms. b. Reassure the patient that these symptoms will subside. c. Request an order for an antidepressant medication. d. Suggest counseling to discuss the effects of this chronic disease.

11. Before giving methenamine [Hiprex] to a patient, it is important for the nurse to review the patient's history for evidence of which problem? a. Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine b. History of reactions to antibiotic agents c. Possibility of pregnancy d. Previous resistance to antiseptic agents

12. A woman who has arthritis is breast-feeding her infant and asks the nurse if it is safe to take NSAIDs while nursing. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. NSAIDs are safe to take while breast-feeding. b. NSAIDs are not safe, even in small amounts. c. She should take only COX-2 inhibitors while breast-feeding. d. She should request a prescription for narcotic analgesics.

13. A patient who is taking gentamicin and a cephalosporin for a postoperative infection requests medication for mild postsurgical pain. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following medications? a. Acetaminophen b. Aspirin c. Ibuprofen d. Morphine

13. A patient with severe glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis will start therapy with teriparatide [Forteo]. What will the nurse expect to administer? a. 20 mcg once daily subQ b. 20 mcg twice daily subQ c. 10 mcg once daily subQ d. 10 mcg twice daily subQ

13. A prescriber orders verapamil [Covera-HS] for a patient who is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and warfarin. The nurse will expect the prescriber to ____ the dose of ____. a. lower digoxin b. increase digoxin c. lower warfarin d. increase warfarin

14. A patient is receiving gentamicin once daily. A nursing student asks the nurse how the drug can be effective if given only once a day. The nurse explains drug dosing schedules for aminoglycosides. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Gentamicin has a longer half-life than other aminoglycosides." b. "Large doses given once daily yield higher peak levels." c. "The postantibiotic effect lasts for several hours." d. "There is less risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity with large daily doses."

14. A patient who has been taking an SSRI tells the nurse that the drug has caused reduced sexual performance, weight gain, and sedation. The nurse will suggest that the patient ask the provider about using which drug? a. Bupropion [Wellbutrin] b. Imipramine [Tofranil] c. Isocarboxazid [Marplan] d. Trazodone [Oleptro]

17. A patient with stable COPD is prescribed a bronchodilator medication. Which type of bronchodilator is preferred for this patient? a. A long-acting inhaled beta2 agonist b. An oral beta2 agonist c. A short-acting beta2 agonist d. An intravenous methylxanthine

2. A 43-year-old patient with a strong family history of breast cancer considers taking tamoxifen [Nolvadex] for cancer prevention. Which assessment finding is a possible contraindication? a. History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) b. History of osteoporosis c. Hyperlipidemia d. Prior hysterectomy

A patient is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse consults the drug information manual and learns that nausea is not an expected adverse effect of this drug. When the next dose is due, what will the nurse do? a. Administer the drug and tell the patient to report further nausea. b. Hold the drug and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms. c. Report the symptoms of nausea to the MEDWATCH program. d. Request an order for an antiemetic to counter this drug's effects.

2. A 65-year-old patient who receives glucocorticoids for arthritis is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a urinary tract infection. The prescriber has ordered intravenous ciprofloxacin [Cipro]. Before administering the third dose of this drug, the nurse reviews the bacterial culture report and notes that the causative organism is Escherichia coli. The bacterial sensitivity report is pending. The patient complains of right ankle pain. What will the nurse do? a. Withhold the dose of ciprofloxacin and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms. b. Instruct the patient to exercise the right foot and ankle to minimize the pain. c. Question the patient about the consumption of milk and any other dairy products. d. Request an order to increase this patient's dose of glucocorticoids.

2. A clinic nurse is assessing an adolescent male patient who has been receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism via a transdermal patch. The patient's last clinic visit was 4 weeks earlier. Which part of the interval history is of most concern to the nurse? a. Five-pound weight gain b. Increased growth of pubic hair c. Rash at the site of the patch d. Presence of acne

2. A nurse is reviewing a patient's most recent blood count and notes that the patient has a hemoglobin of 9.6 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 33%. The nurse will notify the provider and will expect initial treatment to include: a. determining the cause of the anemia. b. giving intravenous iron dextran. c. giving oral carbonyl iron [Feosol]. d. teaching about dietary iron.

2. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of sildenafil [Viagra] for erectile dysfunction. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "If my erection lasts longer than 4 hours, I should contact my provider." b. "I should not use nitroglycerin within 12 hours of using sildenafil." c. "I should take this drug about 15 minutes before sexual activity." d. "This drug may cause me to have an erection when I don't want one."

2. A patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate [Rheumatrex] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of: a. having routine renal and hepatic function tests. b. limiting folic acid consumption. c. reporting alopecia and rash. d. taking the medication on a daily basis.

2. A patient is diagnosed with an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus, and the prescriber orders intravenous gentamicin and penicillin (PCN). Both drugs will be given twice daily. What will the nurse do? a. Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin. b. Give the gentamicin intravenously and the penicillin intramuscularly. c. Infuse the gentamicin and the penicillin together to prevent fluid overload. d. Request an order to change the penicillin to vancomycin.

2. A patient is taking a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscles in veins. To help minimize drug side effects, the nurse caring for this patient will: a. caution the patient not to get up abruptly. b. encourage the patient to increase fluid intake. c. tell the patient to report shortness of breath. d. warn the patient about the possibility of bradycardia.

3. A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension about the drug's side effects. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may become constipated, so I should increase fluids and fiber." b. "I may experience a rapid heart rate as a result of taking this drug." c. "I may have swelling of my hands and feet, but this will subside." d. "I may need to increase my digoxin dose while taking this drug."

3. A patient has three separate blood pressure (BP) readings of 120/100 mm Hg, 138/92 mm Hg, and 126/96 mm Hg. Which category describes this patient's BP? a. Hypertension b. Isolated systolic hypertension c. Normal d. Prehypertension

4. An infertile couple begins treatment with menotropins. To enhance the therapeutic effects of the medication, the nurse will advise the patients to have intercourse: a. before hCG injection and the following 2 to 3 days. b. the morning of the hCG injection and later that evening. c. the evening of the injection and the following day. d. the evening of the injection and the following morning.

5. A patient takes temazepam [Restoril] for insomnia. The patient tells the nurse that a recent telephone bill lists several calls to friends that the patient does not remember making. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient about any alcohol consumption in conjunction with the benzodiazepine. b. Contact the prescriber to request an order for a benzodiazepine with a shorter duration. c. Reassure the patient that this is most likely caused by a paradoxical reaction to the benzodiazepine. d. Tell the patient that this is an example of anterograde amnesia, which is an expected effect of the benzodiazepine.

6. A nurse is screening a patient being admitted to the hospital. The patient reports being fired for drinking at work. On further questioning, the patient reveals a history of daily alcohol consumption of more than a six-pack of beer each day, regular morning drinking, and several unsuccessful attempts to stop drinking. The nurse detects alcohol on the patient's breath. The nurse will inform the provider of these findings and request an order for which medication? a. Chlordiazepoxide [Librium] b. Clonidine c. Disulfiram [Antabuse] d. Naltrexone [ReVia]

6. A nurse is teaching a class on addiction. Which statement by one of the class participants indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Addictive drugs lead to dopamine release in amounts similar to those released by normal reward circuits." b. "Neural remodeling leads to decreased dopamine release, leaving users with feelings of lifelessness and depression." c. "Over time, the brain will develop reduced responses to many addictive drugs." d. "With the use of a drug over time, the brain undergoes synaptic remodeling."

6. A nurse provides teaching for a patient about to begin taking an FGA drug for schizophrenia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about side effects of these drugs? a. "Dry mouth and constipation are uncommon with this medication." b. "I may experience gynecomastia and galactorrhea." c. "I may feel lightheaded or dizzy and should sit or lie down if this occurs." d. "Sedation may occur initially, but will subside in 1 to 2 weeks."

6. A patient with hypertension is admitted to the hospital. On admission the patient's heart rate is 72 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 140/95 mm Hg. After administering an antihypertensive medication, the nurse notes a heart rate of 85 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. What does the nurse expect to occur? a. A decrease in the heart rate back to baseline in 1 to 2 days b. An increase in the blood pressure within a few days c. An increase in potassium retention in 1 to 2 days d. A decrease in fluid retention within a week

6. A patient with hypertension with a blood pressure of 168/110 mm Hg begins taking hydrochlorothiazide and verapamil. The patient returns to the clinic after 2 weeks of drug therapy, and the nurse notes a blood pressure of 140/85 mm Hg and a heart rate of 98 beats per minute. What will the nurse do? a. Notify the provider and ask about adding a beta blocker medication. b. Reassure the patient that the medications are working. c. Remind the patient to move slowly from sitting to standing. d. Request an order for an electrocardiogram.

6. During an admission history, a patient reports a frequent need to return to a room multiple times to make sure an iron or other appliance is unplugged. What does the nurse understand about this patient's behavior? a. It helps the patient reduce anxiety about causing a fire. b. It usually is treated with alprazolam [Xanax]. c. It seems perfectly normal to the patient. d. It will best respond to deep brain stimulation.

7. A female patient has come to the STD clinic and has been diagnosed with a Trichomonas vaginalis infection. What education should be provided to this patient? a. Male partners should always be treated, even if they are asymptomatic. b. The applicator for the vaginal gel should be washed after each application. c. The infection is not completely eliminated with the medication. d. The medication should be taken twice daily for 2 weeks.

7. A nurse is obtaining a medication history on a newly admitted patient, who reports taking minoxidil for hypertension. Admission vital signs reveal a heart rate of 78 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. What is an important part of the initial assessment for this patient? a. Evaluating ankle edema b. Monitoring for nausea and vomiting c. Noting the presence of hypertrichosis d. Obtaining a blood glucose

7. A patient has a positive urine culture 1 week after completion of a 3-day course of antibiotics. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will: a. begin a 2-week course of antibiotics. b. evaluate for a structural abnormality of the urinary tract. c. initiate long-term prophylaxis with low-dose antibiotics. d. treat the patient with intravenous antibiotics.

7. A patient has been taking levothyroxine for several years and reports that "for the past 2 weeks, the drug doesn't seem to work as well as before." What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient when the prescription was last refilled. b. Expect the patient to have an elevated temperature and tachycardia. c. Suggest that the patient begin taking calcium supplements. d. Tell the patient to try taking the medication with food.

7. A patient has just purchased a 1-year supply of 28-day-cycle oral contraceptives. She tells the nurse she wishes she had planned things better, because she has calculated that her period will begin during her upcoming honeymoon. What will the nurse suggest? a. She should discard the inert pills and start a new pack during the honeymoon. b. She should discontinue the oral contraceptives and use an alternative form of birth control. c. She should discuss a prescription for an extended-cycle product with her provider. d. She should discuss DMPA (Depo-Provera) injections in addition to the OC with her provider.

7. A patient is admitted with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The patient appears emaciated and complains of feeling weak. The nurse notes a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg. The nurse reviews the chart and notes an increased serum potassium level and a decreased serum sodium level. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication initially? a. Cosyntropin [Cortrosyn] b. Dexamethasone c. Fludrocortisone [Florinef] d. Hydrocortisone

7. A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to: a. ask for assistance when getting out of bed. b. expect bradycardia for a few days. c. notify the provider if headache occurs. d. report shortness of breath.

7. A patient who has a brain tumor will receive a nitrosourea agent. A nursing student asks why this type of drug is used for this type of cancer. The nurse will tell the student that nitrosoureas are useful because they: a. are lipophilic. b. are bifunctional alkylating agents. c. have a broad spectrum of antineoplastic characteristics. d. have delayed bone marrow suppression.

7. A patient with a hemoglobin of 7.2 gm/dL begins therapy with an ESA. Two weeks later the patient's hemoglobin is 8.3 gm/dL. The nurse anticipates that the provider will: a. reduce the ESA dose. b. discontinue the ESA. c. order a blood transfusion. d. order heparin.

A patient tells a nurse that a medication prescribed for recurrent migraine headaches is not working. What will the nurses do? A. Ask the patient about the number and frequency of tablets taken B. Assess the patient's headache pain on a scale from 1 to 1o C. Report the patient's complaint to the prescriber D. Suggest biofeedback as an adjunct to drug therapy

7. An adolescent patient recently attended a health fair and had a serum glucose test. The patient telephones the nurse and says, "My level was 125 mg/dL. Does that mean I have diabetes?" What is the nurse's most accurate response? a. "Unless you were fasting for longer than 8 hours, this does not necessarily mean you have diabetes." b. "At this level, you probably have diabetes. You will need an oral glucose tolerance test this week." c. "This level is conclusive evidence that you have diabetes." d. "This level is conclusive evidence that you do not have diabetes."

8. A neonate is born to a patient who reports taking venlafaxine [Effexor XR]. The nurse caring for the infant will observe the infant for: a. irritability, tremor, and respiratory distress. b. poor appetite and disturbed sleeping patterns. c. serotonin syndrome. d. sustained mydriasis.

8. A nurse explains to a nursing student why opioid antidiarrheal medications are classified as drugs with little or no abuse potential. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Formulations for the treatment of diarrhea have very short half-lives." b. "Opioid antidiarrheal drugs contain other drugs with unpleasant side effects at higher doses." c. "Some opioid antidiarrheal drugs do not cross the blood-brain barrier." d. "Some opioid antidiarrheal medications are not water soluble and cannot be given parenterally."

8. A nurse is discussing how beta blockers work to decrease blood pressure with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Beta blockers block the actions of angiotensin II." b. "Beta blockers decrease heart rate and contractility." c. "Beta blockers decrease peripheral vascular resistance." d. "Beta blockers decrease the release of renin."

8. A nurse is discussing the administration of an intravenous infusion of rituximab (Rituxan) with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education about the care of a patient receiving this drug? a. "Angoedema and hypersensitivity may occur, but they are usually self-limiting and mild." b. "I should be prepared to administer epinephrine, glucocorticoids, and oxygen if needed." c. "I will administer an antihistamine and acetaminophen before beginning the infusion." d. "I will monitor this patient's blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation closely."

8. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient recently started on delavirdine [Rescriptor]. Which concurrent prescription should the nurse question before administration? a. Alprazolam [Xanax] b. Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] c. Morphine d. Penicillin

8. A nurse teaches a nursing student about the differences between desmopressin (DDAVP) and vasopressin [Pitressin]. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Desmopressin has a shorter duration of action than vasopressin." b. "Desmopressin is easier to administer than vasopressin." c. "Vasopressin can be used in cardiac resuscitation." d. "Vasopressin can cause serious adverse cardiovascular effects."

8. A patient is admitted for treatment of gout that has been refractory to treatment with allopurinol and probenecid. The patient is taking colchicine, and the prescriber orders pegloticase [Krystexxa]. Before administering this drug, the nurse will expect to: a. administer an antihistamine and a glucocorticoid. b. discontinue the colchicine. c. increase the dose of colchicine. d. prepare to administer a bronchodilator if needed.

8. A patient who has been taking alprazolam [Xanax] to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) reports recently stopping the medication after symptoms have improved but reports having feelings of panic and paranoia. Which initial action by the nurse is correct? a. Ask the patient if the medication was stopped abruptly. b. Instruct the patient to resume taking the alprazolam. c. Notify the provider that the patient is experiencing a relapse. d. Suggest that the patient discuss taking buspirone [Buspar] with the provider.

8. A patient who has undergone surgical removal of a solid tumor has just begun chemotherapy. The patient experiences severe nausea and vomiting as well as alopecia. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. continue the chemotherapeutic agent at the same dose. b. decrease the dose of chemotherapy to minimize side effects. c. order lab tests to evaluate for the presence of residual cancer cells. d. stop the chemotherapy because the tumor has been removed.

8. A patient who is an opioid addict has undergone detoxification with buprenorphine [Subutex] and has been given a prescription for buprenorphine with naloxone [Suboxone]. The patient asks the nurse why the drug was changed. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Suboxone has a lower risk of abuse." b. "Suboxone has a longer half-life." c. "Subutex causes more respiratory depression." d. "Subutex has more buprenorphine."

8. A patient who stopped taking teriflunomide [Aubagio] 1 year prior tells the nurse that she has just found out she is pregnant. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Contact the provider to obtain an order for serum drug levels. b. Reassure the patient that her fetus should be safe. c. Suggest that she consider an abortion. d. Tell her that she will not be able to nurse her baby when it is born.

8. A patient will begin chemotherapy with cisplatin. Which medications will the nurse expect to administer to offset this agent's side effects? a. Amifostine [Ethyol], diuretics, and antiemetics b. Antiemetics, vitamin B12, and glucocorticoids c. Dexamethasone, antiemetics, and vistonuridine d. Folic acid, gabapentin, and vitamin B12

8. A patient with Stage C heart failure (HF) who has been taking an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic begins to have increased dyspnea, weight gain, and decreased urine output. The provider orders spironolactone [Aldactone]. The nurse will instruct the patient to: a. avoid potassium supplements. b. monitor for a decreased heart rate. c. take extra fluids. d. use a salt substitute instead of salt.

8. A patient with a urinary tract infection is given a prescription for TMP/SMZ. When reviewing the drug with the patient, the nurse learns that the patient has type 1 diabetes mellitus and consumes alcohol heavily. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to request a different antibiotic for this patient. b. Obtain frequent blood glucose determinations while giving TMP/SMZ. c. Suggest that the patient take a potassium supplement while taking TMP/SMZ. d. Tell the patient to avoid excessive fluid intake while taking TMP/SMZ.

8. A patient with advanced cancer of the prostate begins treatment with leuprolide [Lupron Depot] injections and will receive 7.5 mg IM once per month. After the first injection, the patient experiences an increase in cancer symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Desensitization to the drug over time will result in a decrease in these symptoms. b. The dose of leuprolide may have to be increased to 22.5 mg per month. c. These symptoms indicate a need for surgical castration to treat the cancer. d. This is a sign that the patient's cancer is getting worse.

8. A patient with lung cancer receives filgrastim [Neupogen] after chemotherapy to reduce neutropenia. The patient reports a moderate degree of bone pain. What will the nurse do? a. Obtain an order to administer acetaminophen. b. Request an order for a complete blood count (CBC). c. Request an order to reduce the dose of filgrastim. d. Suspect metastasis of the cancer to the bone.

8. A patient with no known drug allergies is receiving amoxicillin [Amoxil] PO twice daily. Twenty minutes after being given a dose, the patient complains of shortness of breath. The patient's blood pressure is 100/58 mm Hg. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider and prepare to administer epinephrine. b. Notify the provider if the patient develops a rash. c. Request an order for a skin test to evaluate possible PCN allergy. d. Withhold the next dose until symptoms subside.

9. A nurse is caring for a woman during the perinatal and postnatal period. To stop postpartum hemorrhage, how will the nurse administer oxytocin [Pitocin] to this patient? a. 20 units in 1000 mL of IV solution after delivery of the placenta b. 20 units intramuscularly prior to delivery of the placenta c. 40 units intramuscularly after delivery of the placenta d. 60 units per rectum prior to delivery of the placenta

9. A nursing student asks the nurse how antibodies provide immune suppression. The nurse responds by telling the student that antibodies: a. block T-cell function. b. boost immune responses. c. reduce proliferation of B cells. d. suppress interferon production.

9. A patient has heart failure and is taking an ACE inhibitor. The patient has developed fibrotic changes in the heart and vessels. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication to counter this development? a. Aldosterone antagonist b. Angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) c. Beta blocker d. Direct renin inhibitor (DRI)

9. A patient is about to undergo a procedure to harvest hematopoietic stem cells from the bone marrow. Which medication will the nurse anticipate giving before this procedure? a. Filgrastim [Neupogen] b. Pegfilgrastim [Neulasta] c. Oprelvekin [Neumega] d. Sargramostim [Leukine]

9. A patient is admitted to a hospital for treatment for first-time symptoms of mania and is exhibiting euphoric mania. Which medication will the provider order? a. Lithium [Lithobid] b. Olanzapine [Zyprexa] c. Risperidone [Risperdal] d. Divalproex sodium [Valproate]

9. A prescriber has ordered propranolol [Inderal] for a patient with recurrent ventricular tachycardia. The nurse preparing to administer this drug will be concerned about what in the patient's history? a. Asthma b. Exercise-induced tachyarrhythmias c. Hypertension d. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia associated with emotion

9. A young adult begins taking clonidine [Kapvay] to treat ADHD symptoms after suffering anorexia with methylphenidate [Ritalin]. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about taking clonidine? a. "Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication." b. "Insomnia may still occur while taking this drug." c. "You will need to pick up a written prescription every 30 days." d. "You may crush the tablets and put them in food."

9. Supplemental oxygen has been shown to help reduce symptoms for which type of headache? a. Cluster b. Menstrual migraine c. Migraine d. Tension-type

9. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient after a right hip open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The patient is taking an opioid every 6 hours as needed for pain. The nurse discusses obtaining an order from the prescriber for which medication? a. Docusate sodium [Colace] b. GoLYTELY c. Lactulose d. Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]

A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and has stopped taking his alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication because of ejaculatory difficulties. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to prescribe? a. Alfuzosin [Uroxatral] b. Prazosin [Minipress] c. Silodosin [Rapaflo] d. Tamsulosin [Flomax]

A nurse consults a drug manual before giving a medication to an 80-year-old patient. The manual states that older adult patients are at increased risk for hepatic side effects. Which action by the nurse is correct? A. Contact the provider to discuss an order for pretreatment laboratory work B. Ensure that the drug is given in the correct dose at the correct time to minimize the risk of adverse effects C. notify the provider that this drug is contraindicated for this patient D. Request an order to give the medication intravenously so that the drug does not pass through the liver

A nurse educator is conducting a continuing education class one pharmacology. To evaluate the learning of the nurses in the class, the nurse educator asks, "Which drug name gives information about the drug's pharmacologic classification?" Which is the correct response? A. Amoxicillin B. Tylenol C. Cipro D. Motrin

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving verapamil [Calan] for hypertension and digoxin [Lanoxin] for heart failure. The nurse will observe this patient for: a. AV blockade. b. gingival hyperplasia. c. migraine headaches. d. reflex tachycardia.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient. The patient reports taking alprazolam [Xanax] for "nerves." The nurse knows that this patient is most likely being treated for which condition? a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) c. Panic disorder d. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A nurse is preparing to administer a medication and learns that it is a nonselective agonist drug. What does the nurse understand about this drug? a. It directly activates receptors to affect many physiologic processes. b. It directly activates receptors to affect a specific physiologic process. c. It prevents receptor activation to affect many physiologic processes. d. It prevents receptor activation to affect a specific physiologic processes.

A nurse is preparing to administer medications. Which patient would the nurse consider to have the greatest predisposition to an adverse reaction? A. A 30-year-old man with kidney disease B. A 75-year-old woman with cystitis C. A 50-year-old man with an upper respiratory tract infection D. A 9-year-old boy with an ear infection

A nurse is preparing to give an antibiotic to a patient who reports being allergic to antibiotics. Before giving the medication, what will the nurse do first? a. Ask whether the patient has taken this antibiotic for other infections b. Question the patient about allergies to other medications c. Request an order for a lower dose of the antibiotic d. Request an order for an antihistamine

A nurse is reviewing nursing actions for emergency treatment of malignant hyperthermia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Analgesics should be given to help with muscle pain." b. "Dantrolene helps to slow the metabolic activity in skeletal muscles." c. "If malignant hyperthermia occurs, the succinylcholine must be stopped immediately." d. "The patient may need an intravenous infusion of cold saline."

A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about administering medications to older adult patients. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Alteration in hepatic function requires more frequent drug dosing." b. "Changes in GI function in older adult patients lead to lower serum drug levels." c. "Most adverse drug reactions in older adult patients are related to altered renal function." d. "Most nonadherence among older adult patients is intentional."

A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neuropharmacology. Which statement by a student about peripheral nervous system (PNS) drugs indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Drugs affecting axonal conduction have a variety of uses." b. "Drugs that alter synaptic transmission can be highly selective." c. "Many PNS drugs act by altering synaptic transmission." d. "These drugs work by influencing receptor activity."

A nurse is teaching a patient about a medication that alters sympathetic nervous system functions. To evaluate understanding, the nurse asks the patient to describe which functions the sympathetic nervous system regulates. Which answer indicates the need for further teaching? a. "The digestive functions of the body" b. "The cardiovascular system" c. "The fight-or-flight response" d. "Body temperature"

A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription for reserpine [Serpasil] for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching? a. "Depressive side effects are common and will improve over time." b. "I should report gastrointestinal side effects to the provider." c. "I should stand up slowly when getting up and lie down if I feel dizzy." d. "Therapeutic effects may not be optimal for a couple of weeks."

A nurse is teaching a patient who has a second-degree burn on one arm about the use of a topical anesthetic for pain. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I will apply a thin layer of the medication to a small area of skin." b. "I will cover the burn with a dressing after applying the medication." c. "I will make sure to apply the medication to the entire burn area." d. "I will use the medication only on the most painful, blistered areas."

A patient will begin taking propranolol [Inderal] for hypertension. Which statement by the nurse is important when teaching this patient about the medication? a. "Check your hands and feet for swelling and report that to your provider." b. "It is safe to take this medication with a calcium channel blocker." c. "Stop taking the drug if you become short of breath." d. "Take your pulse and do not take the medication if your heart rate is fast."

A patient with asthma uses albuterol [Ventolin] for wheezing. The nurse assesses the patient and notes vital signs of HR, 96 beats per minute RR, 18 breaths per minute and BP, 116/78 mm Hg. The patient has clear breath sounds and hand tremors. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient how often the inhaler is used. b. Check the patient's blood glucose level. c. Request an order for isoproterenol [Isuprel] to reduce side effects. d. Stop the medication and report the tremors to the provider.

A patient with hypertension has a previous history of opioid dependence. Which medication would the nurse question? a. Clonidine [Catapres] b. Guanabenz [Wytensin] c. Methyldopa d. Reserpine [Serpasil]

A patient with migraines is started on a beta blocker. The nurse explains the benefits of taking the medication for migraines. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the medication's effects? a. "I need to take it every day to reduce the frequency of migraines." b. "I will take it as needed to get relief from migraines." c. "I will take it to shorten the duration of my migraines." d. "I will take this drug when a migraine starts."

A patient with pheochromocytoma is admitted for surgery. The surgeon has ordered an alpha-blocking agent to be given preoperatively. What does the nurse understand about this agent? a. It is ordered to prevent perioperative hypertensive crisis. b. It prevents secretion of catecholamines by the adrenal tumor. c. It reduces contraction of smooth muscles in the adrenal medulla. d. It is given chronically after the surgery to prevent hypertension.

A pediatric nurse is teaching nursing students about medication administration in children. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "Drugs effective in adults may not work in children, even if the dose is proportional for weight and size." b. "Infants metabolize drugs more quickly than do older children and adults." c. "Side effects of drugs in children are similar to side effects of drugs in adults." d. "The known differences in drug effects in children versus those in adults are related to the size of the patient."

A pediatric nurse is teaching nursing students to calculate medication doses for children using a formula based on body surface area. Which statement by a nursing student indicates understand-ing of the teaching? a. "This formula helps approximate the first dose other doses should be based on clini-cal observations." b. "This formula accounts for pharmacokinet-ic factors that are different in children." c. "Using this formula will prevent side ef-fects of medications in children." d. "This formula can determine medication dosing for a child of any age."

A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safe use of medications during the third trimester. What will the nurse tell her about drugs taken at this stage? a. They may need to be given in higher doses if they undergo renal clearance. b. They require lower doses if they are metabolized by the liver. c. They are less likely to cross the placenta and affect the fetus. d. They are more likely to cause anatomical defects if they are teratogenic.

A prescriber has ordered bethanechol [Urecholine] for a postoperative patient who has urinary retention. The nurse reviews the patient's chart before giving the drug. Which part of the pa-tient's history would be a contraindication to using this drug? a. Asthma as a child b. Gastroesophageal reflux c. Hypertension d. Hypothyroidism

A prescriber has ordered clonidine [Catapres] for a patient who has hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about side effects of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I should chew sugar-free gum or drink water to reduce dry mouth." b. "I should not drive as long as I am taking this drug." c. "I should stand up slowly when taking this medication." d. "I should stop taking this drug if I feel anxious or depressed."

A prescriber has ordered medication for a newborn. The medication is eliminated primarily by hepatic metabolism. The nurse expects the prescriber to: a. order a dose that is lower than an adult dose. b. order a dose that is higher than an adult dose. c. increase the frequency of medication dos-ing. d. discontinue the drug after one or two dos-es.

A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition? a. ADHD b. Hypertension c. Severe pain d. Tourette's syndrome

A psychiatric nurse is teaching a patient about an antidepressant medication. The nurse tells the patient that therapeutic effects may not occur for several weeks. The nurse understands that this is likely the result of: a. changes in the brain as a result of prolonged drug exposure. b. direct actions of the drug on specific synaptic functions in the brain. c. slowed drug absorption across the blood-brain barrier. d. tolerance to exposure to the drug over time.

An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation of a chronic illness. Admission laboratory work reveals an extremely low serum drug level of the drug used to treat this condition. The patient has brought the medication to the hospital, along with other medications taken. The patient's renal and hepatic function tests are normal. What might the nurse suspect as a likely cause of this finding? a. Financial concerns b. Inability to open drug containers c. Increased tolerance to the drug's effects d. Patient's conviction that the drug is unnecessary

Because they cause vasoconstriction, alpha1-adrenergic agonists are especially useful for: a. causing hemostasis in skin and mucous membranes. b. producing mydriasis to facilitate ophthalmic examinations. c. slowing the heart rate in tachycardic patients. d. treating hypotension.

In a discussion of drug-drug interactions, which would be the best example of a beneficial inhibitory interaction? a. Naloxone [Narcan] blocking morphine sulfate's actions b. Antacids blocking the action of tetracycline [Sumycin] c. Propranolol [Inderal] blocking the effects of albuterol d. Cholestyramine blocking the actions of antihypertensive drugs

The nurse receives an order to give morphine 5 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. Which action is not part of the of the six rights of drug administration? A. Assessing the patient's pain level 15 to 30 minutes after giving the medication B. Checking the medication administration record to see when the last dose was administered C. Consulting a drug manual to determine whether the amount the prescriber ordered is appropriate D. documenting the reason the medication was given in the patient's electronic medical record

The nurse working on a high-acuity medical-surgical unit is prioritizing care for four patients who were just admitted. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. The NPO patient with a blood glucose level of 80 mg/dL who just received 20 units of 70/30 Novolin insulin b. The patient with a pulse of 58 beats per minute who is about to receive digoxin [Lanoxin] c. The patient with a blood pressure of 136/92 mm Hg who complains of having a headache d. The patient with an allergy to penicillin who is receiving an infusion of vancomycin [Vancocin]

The parents of a child with asthma ask the nurse why their child cannot use oral corticosteroids more often, because they are so effective. The nurse will offer which information that is true for children? a., Chronic steroid use can inhibit growth. b., Frequent use of this drug may lead to a decreased response. c., A hypersensitivity reaction to this drug may occur. d., Systemic steroids are more toxic in children.

What is the target organ when a beta1 agonist is administered? a. heart b. kidney c. respiratory d. liver

2. The nurse is providing education to a group of patients who are HIV positive. The nurse is discussing the various medications used to treat HIV infection. A patient asks about nevirapine [Viramune]. Which statements by the nurse most accurately reflect the facts about nevirapine? (Select all that apply.) a. "Some herbal preparations can reduce the levels of this drug." b. "This agent can damage the liver therefore, liver function tests are needed periodically." c. "Usually no adverse effects occur when this medication is used alone." d. "The drug must be dosed five times per day at evenly spaced intervals." e. "You should call your healthcare provider immediately if you develop a rash."

A, B, E

10. A patient tells a nurse that she is thinking about getting pregnant and asks about nutritional supplements. What will the nurse recommend? a. A balanced diet high in green vegetables and grains b. 400 to 800 mg of folic acid per day c. A multivitamin with iron d. Vitamin B 12 supplements

15. A nursing student asks a nurse how digoxin causes dysrhythmias. The nurse correctly states that digoxin: a. reduces automaticity in the AV node. b. increases automaticity in the Purkinje fibers. c. increases automaticity in the SA node. d. speeds up AV conduction.

5. A patient who is taking a combination oral contraceptive begins taking carbamazepine. After several weeks, the patient tells the nurse she has begun experiencing spotting during her cycle. What will the nurse tell her to do? a. Change to condoms instead of oral contraceptives. b. Discuss an oral contraceptive with increased estrogen. c. Request a decreased dose of carbamazepine. d. Stop taking the oral contraceptive immediately.

8. What is ipratropium bromide [Atrovent]? a. A cholinergic agent used for perennial rhinitis b. An anticholinergic used for allergic rhinitis and colds c. A medication that is used only in patients with asthma d. A drug that is inappropriate for use in patients with allergic rhinitis

9. A patient with chronic congestive heart failure has repeated hospitalizations in spite of ongoing treatment with hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] and digoxin. The prescriber has ordered spironolactone [Aldactone] to be added to this patient's drug regimen, and the nurse provides education about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I can expect improvement within a few hours after taking this drug." b. "I need to stop taking potassium supplements." c. "I should use salt substitutes to prevent toxic side effects." d. "I should watch closely for dehydration."

9. A provider has indicated that a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) will be prescribed for a patient who is experiencing major depression. When conducting a pretreatment health history, the nurse learns that the patient has a recent history of alcohol abuse. Which SNRI would be contraindicated for this patient? a. Desvenlafaxine [Pristiq] b. Duloxetine [Cymbalta] c. Escitalopram [Lexapro] d. Venlafaxine [Effexor SR]

9. The nurse is providing patient education to a patient who will begin taking fludrocortisone [Florinef] as adjunctive therapy to hydrocortisone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I should move from sitting to standing slowly." b. "I should report any swelling of my hands and feet." c. "I should report weight loss to my provider." d. "I should report excessive urine output."

9. The nurse is taking a medication history on a newly admitted patient. The patient reports taking folic acid and vitamin B 12 . The nurse notifies the provider because of the concern that folic acid can: a. cause fetal malformation. b. mask the signs of vitamin B 12 deficiency. c. negatively affect potassium levels. d. worsen megaloblastic anemia.

A nurse is caring for a patient and her newborn immediately after delivery. The patient's medication history includes prenatal vitamins throughout pregnancy, one or two glasses of wine before knowing she was pregnant, occasional use of an albuterol inhaler in her last trimester, and intravenous morphine during labor. What will the nurse expect to do? a. Administer opioids to the infant to prevent withdrawal syndrome. b. Monitor the infant's respirations and prepare to administer naloxone if needed. c. Note a high-pitched cry and irritability in the infant and observe for seizures. d. Prepare the patient for motor delays in the infant caused by the alcohol use.

A nurse is caring for an infant after a surgical procedure. After ensuring that the ordered dose is appropriate for the infant's age and weight, the nurse administers a narcotic analgesic intrave-nously. When assessing the infant 15 minutes later, the nurse notes respirations of 22 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. The infant is asleep in the parent's arms and does not awaken when vital signs are assessed. The nurse understands that these findings are the result of: a. an allergic reaction to the medication. b. immaturity of the blood-brain barrier in the infant. c. toxic effects of the narcotic, requiring na-loxone as an antidote. d. unexpected side effects of medications in infants.

A nurse is explaining activation of beta2 receptors to nursing students during a clinical rotation at the hospital. Which statement by a student demonstrates a need for further teaching? a. "Beta2 activation results in bronchodila-tion." b. "Beta2 activation results in contraction of uterine muscle." c. "Beta2 activation results in glycogeno-lysis." d. "Beta2 activation results in vasodilation of skeletal muscles."

A nurse is giving an external medication. The patient asks why this method is preferable for this drug. How will the nurse reply? A. This route allows more rapid absorption of the drug B. This route is safer, less expensive and more convenient C. This route is the best way to control serum drug levels D. This route prevents inactivation of the drug by digestive enzymes

A nurse is making a home visit to an older adult woman who was recently discharged home from the hospital with a new prescription. The nurse notes that a serum drug level drawn the day before was subtherapeutic. What will the nurse do next? a. Ask the patient if she has difficulty swallowing pills. b. Count the pills in the prescription bottle. c. Notify the provider to request more frequent dosing. d. Request an order for renal function tests.

A nurse is teaching a class to a group of pregnant patients. The nurse correctly teaches that the highest risk of teratogen-induced gross malformations exists during which time? a. Immediately before conception b. During the first trimester c. During the second trimester d. During the third trimester

A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Diazepam is given to reverse inhibition of cholinesterase when overdose occurs." b. "Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors are rapidly absorbed by all routes." c. "These agents are often used to treat glaucoma." d. "Toxic doses of these agents produce an anticholinergic crisis."

A nurse is teaching a group of women about medications. The women want to know why so many drugs have unpredictable effects in women. The nurse will tell them that: a. drugs usually have more toxic effects in women. b. most known drug effects are based on drug trials in men. c. women have varying responses to drugs during menstrual cycles. d. women metabolize drugs more slowly.

A nurse is teaching a nursing student about the two classes of adrenergic agonist drugs. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Catecholamines may be given orally." b. "Catecholamines often require continuous infusion to be effective." c. "Noncatecholamines do not cross the blood-brain barrier." d. "Noncatecholamines undergo rapid degradation by monoamine oxidase."

A nurse is teaching a patient about a drug that induces P-glycoprotein. The nurse will explain that this drug may cause which effect on other drugs? a. Decreased absorption in the intestines b. Decreased elimination through the kidneys c. Increased brain exposure d. Increased fetal absorption

A nurse is teaching a patient about a prescription for a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor for depression. What will the nurse teach the patient to avoid while taking this drug? a. Alcoholic beverages b. Aged cheeses c. Brussels sprouts and cabbage d. Grapefruit juice

A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names? A. They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember B. They are assigned by the U.S adopted names council C. They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification D. They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex

A nursing student asks the nurse why epinephrine, and not other adrenergic agonists, is used to treat anaphylactic shock. What will the nurse tell the student? a. "Epinephrine is the only adrenergic agonist that may be given parenterally." b. "Epinephrine has the ability to activate multiple types of adrenergic receptors." c. "Other adrenergic agonists have more severe adverse effects and are not safe in the doses needed to treat anaphylaxis." d. "Other adrenergic agonists have little or no effects on beta2-adrenergic receptors."

A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to: a. prevent hypertension induced by the anesthetic. b. allow a reduced dose of the anesthetic. c. reduce anesthetic-induced nausea. d. reduce the pain of an injection.

A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of an unknown chemical. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication? a. Atropine [Sal-Tropine] IV b. Physostigmine [Antilirium] c. An acetylcholinesterase activator d. Pseudoephedrine [Ephedrine]

A patient has just given birth to a baby boy with a cleft palate. The nurse will review the patient's medication history with special emphasis on drugs taken during which period? a. Before she became pregnant b. During the first trimester c. During the second trimester d. During the third trimester

A patient is taking a beta-adrenergic antagonist medication for angina pectoris and asks the nurse how the drug works to relieve the discomfort associated with this condition. Which statement by the patient after the nurse's teaching indicates understanding of the drug's effects? a. "It causes bronchodilation, which increases oxygen flow." b. "It helps reduce the heart's oxygen needs." c. "It improves blood flow to the heart." d. "It increases cardiac output."

A patient is taking a drug that does not bind to albumin. Which aspect of renal drug excretion is affected by this characteristic? A. active tubular secretion B. glomeruli filtration C. passive tubular reabsorption D. pH-dependent ionization

A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The pre-scriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduc-tion in respiratory distress, the nurse will monitor for which side effect? a. Hypotension b. Tachycardia c. Tachypnea d. Urinary retention

A patient received atropine intravenously before surgery. The recovery room nurse notes that the patient is delirious upon awakening and has a heart rate of 96 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 110/78 mm Hg. The nurse notifies the anes-thesiologist, who will order: a. activated charcoal to minimize intestinal absorption of the antimuscarinic agent. b. an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to compete with the antimuscarinic agent at receptors. c. an antipsychotic medication to treat the pa-tient's central nervous system symptoms. d. ipratropium bromide [Atrovent] to counter the respiratory effects of the antimuscarinic agent.

A patient taking a beta blocker complains of shortness of breath. The patient has respirations of 28 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 162/90 mm Hg, and a pulse of 88 beats per minute. The nurse auscultates crackles in all lung fields. The nurse understands that these assessments are consistent with: a. bronchoconstriction. b. left-sided heart failure. c. rebound cardiac excitation. d. sinus bradycardia.

A patient taking oral contraceptives thinks she may be pregnant. As part of this patient's history, what will the nurse ask the patient? a. "Do you drink grapefruit juice?" b. "Do you take seizure medication?" c. "Do you take your contraception with milk?" d. "Do you use laxatives regularly?"

A patient who has just learned she is pregnant has stopped using a prescription medication that she takes for asthma because she doesn't want to harm her baby. What will the nurse tell her? a. That asthma medications will not affect the fetus b. That her baby's health is dependent on hers c. To avoid taking medications during her pregnancy d. To resume the medication in her second trimester

A patient who has myasthenia gravis will be taking neostigmine [Prostigmin]. What will the nurse emphasize when teaching this patient about the medication? a. "Stop taking the drug if you have diarrhea." b. "Take a supplementary dose before exercise." c. "Use atropine if you have excessive salivation." d. "Withhold the dose if ptosis occurs."

A patient who will undergo electroconvulsive therapy to treat severe depression will be given succinylcholine just prior to the procedure. When teaching the patient about the procedure the nurse will explain that the succinylcholine is given for what purpose? a. To minimize the amount of electroshock treatment required b. To prevent harm caused by electroshock-induced convulsions c. To prolong the therapeutic electroshock-induced convulsions d. To stop the electroshock-induced convulsions once therapeutic effects have occurred

A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] along with amantadine [Symmetrel] 400 mg/day to treat dyskinesias. The patient reports having increased dyskinesias several months after beginning the amantadine. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which action? a.Increasing the dose of amantadine [Symmetrel] b.Interrupting treatment with amantadine for several weeks c.Ordering renal function tests d.Ordering another anticholinergic medication

A patient with hepatitis requires endotracheal intubation. Which agent does the nurse expect to be administered to facilitate this procedure? a. Atropine b. Cisatracurium [Nimbex] c. Rocuronium [Zemuron] d. Vecuronium [Norcuron]

A patient with myasthenia gravis who is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor is being admitted to the intensive care unit and is on mechanical ventilation. The prescriber has ordered a challenge dose of edrophonium to distinguish between a myasthenic crisis and a medication overdose. The nurse will expect to do what? a. Administer neostigmine if muscle strength decreases. b. Be prepared to administer atropine and oxygen if muscle weakness increases. c. Give a second dose of edrophonium if no improvement is seen. d. Give pralidoxime [Protopam] if cholinergic symptoms worsen.

A postoperative patient reports pain, which the patient rates as an 8 on a scale from 1 to 10. The prescriber has ordered acetaminophen mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain. What will the nurse do? A. Ask the patient what medications have helped with pain in the past B. contact the provider to request a different analgesic medication C. Give the pain medication and reposition the patient to promote comfort D. request an order to administer the medication every 4 hours

A postoperative patient who is worried about pain control will be discharged several days after surgery. The nurse providing discharge teaching tells the patient that the prescribed Lortab is not as strong as the morphine the patient was given in the immediate postoperative period. Which response is the patient likely to experience? a. A decreased likelihood of filling the prescription for the drug b. A negative placebo effect when taking the medication c. An increased compliance with the drug regimen d. Optimistic, realistic expectations about the drug

A prescriber has ordered pilocarpine [Pilocar]. A nurse understands that the drug stimulates muscarinic receptors and would expect the drug to have which action? a. Reduction of excessive secretions in a postoperative patient b. Lowering of intraocular pressure in pa-tients with glaucoma c. Inhibition of muscular activity in the blad-der d. Prevention of hypertensive crisis

A provider has written an order for a medication: drug 100 mg PO every 6 hours. the half life for the drug is approximately 6 hours. the nurse is preparing to administer the first dose at 8:00 Am on Tuesday. ON Wednesday, when will the serum drug level reach plateau A. 2:00 am B: 8:00Am C. 2:00 pm D. 8:00 pm

A woman who is breast-feeding her infant must take a prescription medication for 2 weeks. The medication is safe, but the patient wants to make sure her baby receives as little of the drug as possible. What will the nurse tell the patient to do? a. Give the baby formula as long as the mother is taking the medication b. Take the medication immediately after breast-feeding c. Pump breast milk and feed the baby by bottle d. Take the medication 1 hour before breast-feeding

An infant has allergies and often develops a pruritic rash when exposed to allergens. The in-fant's parents ask the nurse about using a topical antihistamine. What should the nurse tell them? a. Antihistamines given by this route are not absorbed as well in children. b. Applying an antihistamine to the skin can cause toxicity in this age group. c. The child will also need oral medication to achieve effective results. d. Topical medications have fewer side effects than those given by other routes.

Based on changes in hepatic function in older adult patients, which adjustment should the nurse expect for oral medications that undergo extensive first pass metabolism? a. A higher dose should be used with the same time schedule. b. The interval between doses should be increased. c. No change is necessary, metabolism will not be affected. d. The interval between doses should be reduced.

Bethanechol [Urecholine] is used to treat urinary retention but is being investigated for use in which other condition? a. Gastric ulcers b. Gastroesophageal reflux c. Hypotension d. Intestinal obstruction

Dopamine is administered to a patient who has been experiencing hypotensive episodes. Other than an increase in blood pressure, which indicator would the nurse use to evaluate a successful response? a. Decrease in pulse b. Increase in urine output c. Weight gain d. Improved gastric motility

Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. What kinds of effects are these? a. Alpha adrenergic b. Anticholinergic c. Beta adrenergic d. Sympathetic

Someone asks a nurse about a new drug that is in preclinical testing and wants to know why it cannot be used to treat a friend's illness. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "A drug at this stage of development can be used only in patients with serious disease." b. "At this stage of drug development, the safety and usefulness of the medication is unknown." c. "Clinical trials must be completed to make sure the drug is safe to use in humans." d. "Until postmarketing surveillance data are available, the drug cannot be used."

The FDA amendments act was passed in 2007 to address which aspect of drug safety? A. Allowing pharmaceutical companies to identify off-label uses of medications approved for other uses B. Evaluating drug safety information C. Expediting the approval process of the FDA so that needed drugs can get to market more quickly D. Requiring manufacturers to notify patients before removing a drug from the market

The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommends genetic testing of patients receiving certain medications. Genetic testing helps prescribers: a. better establish a drug's therapeutic index. b. determine whether a patient is a rapid or slow metabolizer of the drug. c. identify racial characteristics that affect psychosocial variation in drug response. d. produce a drug that is tailored to an individual patient's genetic makeup.

The nurse is teaching a patient who is newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis about managing the disease. Which is important when teaching this patient about adverse effects of cholinesterase inhibitors? a. "There are very few serious side effects associated with your medication." b. "It is important to notify your provider if you have excessive saliva." c. "If you experience urinary urgency, you may need to increase your dose." d. "Excessive sweating is a minor side effect and will improve over time."

Two nurses are discussing the major differences between physostigmine [Antilirium] and neostigmine [Prostigmin]. One nurse correctly makes which statement about physostigmine [Antilirium]? a. "It is not effective for treating poisoning by muscarinic blocking drugs." b. "It can readily cross the blood-brain barrier." c. "It does not cause any side effects." d. "It can be given by all routes."

What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body? a. It alters the receptor to become nonresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules. b. It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor. c. It gives the receptor a new function. d. It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.

a postoperative patient is being discharged home with acetaminophen/hydrocodone for pain. The patient asks the nurse about using Tylenol for fever. Which statement by the nurse is correct? A. "It is not safe to take over-the-counter drugs with prescription medication" B. Taking the two medications together poses a risk of drug toxicity C. there are no known drug interactions, so this will be safe d. Tylenol and portable are different drugs, so there is no risk of overdose

2. Amphotericin B is the drug of choice for which systemic mycosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Aspergillosis b. Candidiasis c. Dermatophytosis d. Histoplasmosis e. Mucormycosis

B, D, E

2. A nurse tells a nursing student that the glucocorticoids given for rheumatoid arthritis are nearly identical to substances produced naturally by the body. The student remarks that the drug must be very safe. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "As long as the drug is taken as prescribed, side effects usually do not occur." b. "By interrupting the inflammatory process, these drugs inhibit side effects." c. "Side effects can occur and are dependent on the dose and duration of treatment." d. "The negative feedback loop prevents side effects."

2. A patient is admitted with lower abdominal pain and nausea. The nurse performing the initial assessment notes that the patient's abdomen is distended and firm, and hypoactive bowel sounds are present. The patient has not had a stool for 3 days. The nurse will contact the provider, who will: a. order a bulk-forming laxative. b. order extra fluids and fiber. c. perform diagnostic tests. d. prescribe a cathartic laxative.

7. A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern? a. Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand b. Inability to feel pressure at the suture site c. Nervousness and tachycardia d. Sensation of pain returning to the wound

7. These patients are receiving chemotherapy. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. The patient with lightly bleeding gums b. The patient with nausea and vomiting c. The patient with a fever of 100.3°F d. The patient with diarrhea and stomatitis

9. A patient with histoplasmosis is being treated with itraconazole [Sporanox]. The nurse will teach this patient to report which symptoms? a. Gynecomastia and decreased libido b. Headache and rash c. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia d. Visual disturbances

9. A patient with hypertension will begin taking an alpha 1 blocker. What will the nurse teach this patient? a. A persistent cough is a known side effect of this drug. b. Eat foods rich in potassium while taking this drug. c. Move slowly from sitting to standing when taking this drug. d. Report shortness of breath while taking this drug.

9. A patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is about to begin chemotherapy with a massive dose of methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The nurse will expect to administer which medication concurrently with this drug? a. Dexamethasone b. Folic acid c. Leucovorin d. Vitamin B12

9. A patient with schizophrenia has been taking an oral FGA for 1 week. The patient has been taking the drug daily in two divided doses. The individual complains of daytime drowsiness. The patient's family reports a decrease in the person's hostility and anxiety but states that the patient remains antisocial with disordered thinking. What will the nurse tell the patient and the family? a. An increased dose of the drug may be needed. b. Intramuscular dosing may be needed. c. Some symptoms take months to improve. d. The entire dose may be taken at bedtime.

9. A provider has ordered intravenous promethazine [Phenergan] for an adult patient postoperatively to prevent nausea and vomiting (N/V). What will the nurse do? a. Administer the drug at a rate of 25 mg/min or more to achieve maximum effects. b. Contact the provider to suggest using dimenhydrinate [Dramamine] instead. c. Ensure that the IV is infusing freely through a large-bore needle. d. Monitor the patient closely for cardiac dysrhythmias.

9. An Asian patient will begin taking rosuvastatin [Crestor] to treat hypercholesterolemia. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication? a. Higher than usual doses may be necessary for this patient. b. Renal toxicity is a common adverse effect among Asian patients. c. Serum drug levels must be monitored more frequently than with other patients. d. Yellow skin and sclera are more common side effects with Asian patients but are not concerning.

A child is diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The prescriber orders a central nervous system stimulant. Which statement by the child's parent indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should report insomnia and poor appetite to his provider." b. "I will make sure he takes his medication after breakfast every day." c. "This drug will make him less impulsive while he's at school." d. "This medication will help my child focus so he can learn new behaviors."

A nurse administers the same medication in the same preparation in the same dose to several patients and notes that some patients have a better response to the drug than others. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon? a. Altered bioavailability of the drug b. Patient compliance with the therapeutic regimen c. Pharmacogenomic differences among individuals d. Placebo effects enhancing expectations of drug efficacy

A nurse is administering an agonist drug that acts on postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. Which response will the nurse expect to see? a. Decreased sweating b. Bronchodilation c. Increased cardiac output d. Pinpoint pupils

A nurse is administering drug X to a patient. The drug information states that the drug acts by activating receptors in the peripheral nervous system by increasing transmitter synthesis. The nurse understands that the effect of this drug is to: a. activate axonal conduction. b. enhance transmitter storage. c. increase receptor activation. d. synthesize supertransmitters.

A nurse is administering intravenous dopamine [Intropin] to a patient in the intensive care unit. Which assessment finding would cause the most concern? a. Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg b. Increased urine output c. Edema at the IV insertion site d. Headache

A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital. The patient reports taking oral baclofen [Lioresal] but stopped taking the drug the day before admission. The nurse would be correct to anticipate which adverse effects? a. Weakness and dizziness b. Fatigue and drowsiness c. Seizures and hallucinations d. Respiratory depression and coma

A nurse is caring for a newborn 1 day after delivery. The infant's mother used betaxolol during pregnancy. The nurse will expect to monitor this infant for which condition? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hyperthyroidism c. Respiratory distress d. Tachycardia

A nurse is caring for an older adult patient during the immediate postoperative period after a total hip replacement. The surgeon has ordered meperidine [Demerol] for severe pain. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the medication as prescribed and initiate a fall risk protocol. b. Ask for a PRN order for diphenhydramine [Benadryl] for the expected side effect of itching. c. Request an order for morphine instead of meperidine [Demerol]. d. Suggest to the surgeon that the patient receive diazepam [Valium] to reduce anxiety and the need for narcotics.

A nurse is discussing phentolamine [OraVerse] with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates the need for further teaching? a. "Phentolamine can be used to block both epinephrine- and norepinephrine-mediated vasoconstriction." b. "Phentolamine can be used to prevent tissue necrosis after extravasation of drugs such as norepinephrine." c. "Phentolamine is a competitive adrenergic agonist that acts selectively on alpha1 receptors." d. "Side effects of phentolamine may include tachycardia and hypotension."

A nurse is explaining drug metabolism to a nursing student who asks about glucuronidation. The nurse knows that this is a process that allows drugs to be: A: excreted in hydrolyzed form in the feces to reduce drug toxicity B: reabsorbed from the urine into the renal circulation to minimize drug loss C: Recycled via the enterohepatic recirculation to remain in the body longer D. Transported across the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine

A nurse is preparing to teach a forgetful older adult patient about a multiple drug regimen to follow after discharge from the hospital. To help promote adherence, what will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient to share the teaching with a neighbor or friend soon after discharge. b. Give the patient detailed written information about each drug. c. Cluster medication administration times as much as possible. d. Make sure the patient understands the actions and side effects of each drug.

A nurse is reviewing an older adult patient's chart before giving medications. Which patient information is of most concern? a. Chronic constipation b. Increased body fat c. Low serum albumin d. Low serum creatinine

A nurse is teaching nursing students about pediatric medication administration. What will the nurse include when discussing pediatric drug research? a. Early studies revealed that less than 10% of drugs known to be effective in adults were effective in children. b. Research findings show that drug doses may be safely calculated by extrapolating adult dosing. c. Studies showed a significant percentage of unanticipated and potentially lethal side effects in children. d. There is no need to continue with pediatric-specific drug research, since early studies were reassuring.

A nurse is teaching nursing students about the pharmacology of methyldopa. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching? a. "Methyldopa results in alpha2 agonist activation, but it is not itself an alpha2 agonist." b. "Methyldopa is not effective until it is converted to an active compound." c. "Methyldopa reduces blood pressure by reducing cardiac output." d. "Methyldopa's principal mechanism is vasodilation, not cardiosuppression."

A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of alpha-adrenergic antagonists. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching? a. "Alpha-adrenergic antagonists block alpha1 receptors on arterioles and veins." b. "Dilation of arterioles has a direct effect on arterial pressure." c. "Dilation of veins by alpha-adrenergic antagonists improves cardiac output." d. "Venous dilation by alpha-adrenergic antagonists indirectly lowers arterial pressure."

A nurse working in the emergency department is assigned to a child who is arriving by ambulance after being involved in a spill of organophosphate insecticides. What will the nurse expect to be the initial priority for treating this child? a. Administering diphenhydramine to control secretions b. Giving diazepam to control seizures c. Providing mechanical ventilation and oxygen d. Reporting the spill to the Environmental Protection Agency

A nursing student is preparing to give a medication that has a boxed warning. The student asks the nurse what this means. What will the nurse explain about boxed warnings? a. They indicate that a drug should not be given except in life-threatening circumstances. b. They provide detailed information about the adverse effects of the drug. c. They alert prescribers to measures to mitigate potential harm from side effects. d. They provide information about antidotes in the event that toxicity occurs.

A patient asks a nurse why a friend who is taking the same drug responds differently to that drug. The nurse knows that the most common variation in drug response is due to differences in each patient's: a. drug receptor sites. b. hypersensitivity potential. c. metabolism of drugs. d. psychosocial response.

A patient claims to get better effects with a tablet of brand X of a drug than with a tablet of Brand Y of the same drug. Both brands contain the same amount of the active ingredient. What does the nurse know to be most likely? A. Advertising by pharmaceutical companies can enhance patient expectations of one brand over another, leading to a placebo effect B. because the drug preparations are chemically equivalent the effects of the two brands must be identical C. tablets can differ in composition and can have differing rates of disintegration and dissolution, which can alter the drug's effects in the body D. The bioavailability of a drug is determined by the amount of the drug in each dose

A patient has allergies and takes an antihistamine. The patient wants to know how the drug works. The nurse understands that antihistamines work because they are what? a. Activators b. Agonists c. Antagonists d. Antidotes

A patient has been newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS), and the nurse provides teaching about the medications for the disease. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may need to take additional drugs at times of acute relapse." b. "I will need to take medication indefinitely." c. "If medication is begun early, permanent remission can be achieved." d. "Some symptoms may need to be managed with symptom-specific drugs."

A patient has been receiving an antibiotic with a small therapeutic index for 10 days. Upon assessment, the nurse notes an increase in the drug's side effects. What would be the nurse's priority action? a. Call the prescriber and have the antibiotic changed. b. Suspect an allergic reaction and administer a PRN antihistamine. c. Ask the prescriber to order a plasma drug level test. d. Set up oxygen and obtain an order for an antagonist.

A patient has been taking narcotic analgesics for chronic pain for several months. The nurse caring for this patient notes that the prescribed dose is higher than the recommended dose. The patient has normal vital signs, is awake and alert, and reports mild pain. What does the nurse recognize about this patient? a. This patient exhibits a negative placebo effect with a reduced response to the drug. b. This patient has developed a reaction known as tachyphylaxis because of repeated exposure to the drug. c. This patient has developed pharmacodynamic tolerance, which has increased the minimal effective concentration (MEC) needed for analgesic effect. d. This patient produces higher than normal hepatic enzymes as a result of prolonged exposure to the drug.

A patient has taken levodopa [Dopar] for Parkinson's disease for 2 weeks but reports no improvement in the symptoms. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Another agent will be needed to manage your symptoms." b."Double the dose to see whether an effect occurs." c."It may take several months for a response to occur." d."The prescriber may need to change your drug regimen."

A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit for treatment of shock. The prescriber orders isoproterenol [Isuprel]. The nurse expects this drug to increase tissue perfusion in this patient by activating: a. alpha1 receptors to cause vasoconstriction. b. alpha1 receptors to increase blood pressure. c. beta1 receptors to cause a positive inotropic effect. d. beta2 receptors to cause bronchodilation.

A patient is being discharged after surgery. During the admission history, the nurse learned that the patient normally consumes two or three glasses of wine each day. The prescriber has ordered hydrocodone with acetaminophen [Lortab] for pain. What will the nurse do? a. Request an order for acetaminophen without hydrocodone for pain. b. Suggest that the patient use ibuprofen for pain. c. Tell the patient not to drink wine while taking Lortab. d. Tell the patient to limit wine intake to one or two glasses per day.

A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct, and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result A. A loading dose was not given B. The drug was not completely dissolved in the IV solution C. The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin D. The medication is being given at a frequency that is longer than its half-life

A patient is taking a drug that has known toxic side effects. What will the nurse do? a. Discontinue the drug at the first signs of toxicity. b. Ensure that complete blood counts are ordered periodically. c. Monitor the function of all organs potentially affected by the drug. d. Teach the patient how to treat the symptoms if they develop.

A patient is taking drug X and receives a new prescription for drug Y, which is listed as an inducing agent. The nurse caring for this patient understands that this patient may require ____ doses of drug ____. a. lower, X b. lower, Y c. higher, X d. higher, Y

A patient receives a drug that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse administering this medication will expect to do what? A. Administer the drug at intervals longer the drug half-life B. Administer this medication intravenously C. Monitor plasma drug levels D. Teach the patient that maximum drug effects will occur within a short period

A patient receives topical atropine to facilitate an eye examination. The nurse will tell the patient to remain in a darkened room or to wear sunglasses for several hours until the effects of the medication wear off. This teaching is based on the nurse's knowledge that muscarinic antago-nists cause: a. elevation of intraocular pressure. b. miosis and ciliary muscle contraction. c. paralysis of the iris sphincter. d. relaxation of ciliary muscles.

A patient reports becoming "immune" to a medication because it no longer works to alleviate symptoms. The nurse recognizes that this decreased effectiveness is likely caused by: a. antagonists produced by the body that compete with the drug for receptor sites. b. decreased selectivity of receptor sites, resulting in a variety of effects. c. desensitization of receptor sites by continual exposure to the drug. d. synthesis of more receptor sites in response to the medication.

A patient tells the nurse that the oral drug that has been prescribed has caused a lot of stomach discomfort in the past. What will the nurse ask the prescriber? A. Whether a sublingual form of the medication can be given B. Whether the medication can be given by a parenteral route instead C. Whether an enteric-coated form of the drug is available D. Whether the patient can receive a sustained-release preparation of the drug

A patient who has cancer reports pain as "burning" and "shooting" alternating with feelings ofnumbness and coldness. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss the use of which medication? a. Acetaminophen b. Ibuprofen c. Imipramine [Tofranil] d. Oxycodone [OxyContin]

A patient who has occasional migraine headaches tells a nurse that the abortive medication works well, but she would like to do more to prevent the occurrence of these headaches. The nurse will suggest that the patient: a. ask the provider about an adjunct medication, such as prochlorperazine. b. discuss the use of prophylactic medications with the provider. c. keep a headache diary to help determine possible triggers. d. take the abortive medication regularly instead of PRN.

A patient who takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for arthritis asks a nurse what can be done to prevent ulcers. The nurse will recommend asking the provider about using which medication? a. Antibiotics b. Histamine-2 receptor antagonists c. Proton pump inhibitors d. Mucosal protectants

A patient will receive atracurium [Tracrium] during surgery for neuromuscular blockade. The nurse caring for this patient will correctly perform which of the following actions? a. Assess the patient for signs of CNS depression. b. Ensure that dantrolene is available in case of a serious adverse reaction. c. Monitor the patient's blood pressure closely. d. Review the preprocedure laboratory values related to renal and hepatic function.

A patient with type 1 diabetes is taking NPH insulin, 30 units every day. A nurse notes that the patient is also taking metoprolol [Lopressor]. What education should the nurse provide to the patient? a. "Metoprolol has no effect on diabetes mellitus or on your insulin requirements." b. "Metoprolol interferes with the effects of insulin, so you may need to increase your insulin dose." c. "Metoprolol may mask signs of hypoglycemia, so you need to monitor your blood glucose closely." d. "Metoprolol may potentiate the effects of the insulin, so the dose should be reduced."

A postoperative patient is reporting pain as a 7 on a scale from 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst pain. The nurse caring for the patient assesses vital signs of HR, 76 RR, 16 and BP, 110/70. The patient has vomited twice. Which postoperative medications will the nurse expectto administer? a. Atropine and morphine b. Bethanechol and ibuprofen c. Morphine and ondansetron [Zofran] d. Promethazine and clonidine [Catapres]

A pregnant patient in active labor is admitted to the emergency department. A toxicology screen and a physical assessment reveal that the patient is an active heroin addict. The nurse who cares for the neonate after delivery should anticipate which clinical manifestations? a. Passivity and flat affect b. Diarrhea and salivation c. A shrill cry and irritability d. Restless sleep and seizures

A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given? a. Alpha1 agonist b. Anticholinergic c. Beta2 agonist d. Beta2 antagonist

A young adult postoperative patient is receiving morphine 2 to 4 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. The last dose was 3 mg given 2 hours ago. The patient is asleep, and the nurse notes a heart rate of 86 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which PRN medication will the nurse give this patient? a. Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to counter morphine side effects b. Morphine 4 mg for increased pain, as indicated by tachycardia c. Naloxone [Narcan] to block the effects of the morphine d. Nothing at this time, because the patient is resting comfortably

An adult male patient is 1 day postoperative from a total hip replacement. On a pain scale of 0 to 10, with 10 being the greatest pain, the patient reports a pain level of 10. Which medication would be most appropriate for the nurse to administer to this patient? a. 60 mg morphine sulfate PO b. 75 mg meperidine (Demerol) intramuscularly c. 6 mg morphine sulfate intravenously d. Fentanyl (Duragesic) patch 50 mcg transdermally

An infant is receiving a medication that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse reviews the medication information and learns that the drug is excreted by the kidneys. When giving the medication, the nurse will assess the infant for: a. decreased effectiveness of the drug. b. shorter period of the drug's effects. c. signs of drug toxicity. d. unusual CNS effects.

An older adult patient who lives alone and is somewhat forgetful has an overactive bladder (OAB) and reports occasional constipation. The patient has tried behavioral therapy to treat the OAB without adequate results. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate for this patient? a. Oxybutynin short-acting syrup b. Oxybutynin [Ditropan XL] extended-release tablets c. Oxybutynin [Oxytrol] transdermal patch d. Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation (PTNS)

Parents ask the nurse why an over-the-counter cough suppressant with sedative side effects is not recommended for infants. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Babies have a more rapid gastric emptying time and don't absorb drugs well." b. "Cough medicine tastes bad, and infants usually won't take it." c. "Infants are more susceptible to central nervous system effects than are adults." d. "Infants metabolize drugs too rapidly, so drugs aren't as effective."

The nurse administers naloxone [Narcan] to a patient who has received a toxic dose of morphine sulfate. The nurse understands that the naloxone is effective because of which action? a. Countering the effects of morphine sulfate by agonist actions b. Increasing the excretion of morphine sulfate by altering serum pH c. Preventing activation of opioid receptors through antagonist actions d. Regulating the sensitivity of opioid receptors by neurochemical alterations

The nurse is discussing home management with a patient who will begin taking an alpha-adrenergic antagonist for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I need to stop the medication if my heart rate increases." b. "I should not drive while taking this medication." c. "I should take the first dose at bedtime." d. "I will stop taking the medication if I feel dizzy."

The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who will be taking an antihypertensive medication. Which action by the nurse is part of the assessment step of the nursing process? A. Asking the prescriber for an order to monitor serum drug levels b. monitoring the patient for drug interactions after giving the medication C. questioning the patient about over-counter medications D. Taking the patient's blood pressure throughout the course of treatment

The nurse wants to evaluate a nursing student's understanding of chemotherapy. The nurse asks, "Which factor would be a major obstacle to successful chemotherapy?" What is the student's best response? a. "The patient's reluctance about the doses administered." b. "The patient's degree of nausea." c. "The toxicity of anticancer drugs to normal tissues." d. "The difficulty attaining and maintaining venous access."

Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus? a. Drugs that are highly polar b. Ionized drugs c. Lipid-soluble drugs d. Protein-bound drugs

a patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient, the nurse will anticipate which outcome a. decreased chance of having a placebo effect b. decreased motivation to take the drug c. improved compliance with the drug regimen d. increased likelihood of drug overdose

2. Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis? a. Cefaclor b. Cefazolin c. Cefoxitin d. Cefotaxime

3. A patient with Cushing's syndrome has undergone surgery and radiation treatment. The nurse will expect to teach the patient about which medication? a. Cosyntropin b. Dexamethasone c. Fludrocortisone acetate [Florinef] d. Ketoconazole [Nizoral]

4. A patient who has been taking 25 mg of hydrocortisone each morning for several months reports feeling fatigued late in the day each day. What will the nurse tell the patient to discuss with the provider? a. Adding a mineralocorticoid to the drug regimen b. Assessing serum electrolytes to check for toxicity c. Increasing the dose to 50 mg daily d. Splitting the daily dose into a morning and an afternoon dose

9. A patient who has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has been undergoing behavioral therapy but continues to exhibit symptoms that interfere with daily life. Which intervention will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Alprazolam [Xanax] b. Buspirone [Buspar] c. Deep brain stimulation d. Fluoxetine [Paxil]

9. A patient with cerebral palsy who has been receiving baclofen [Lioresal] via gastrostomy tube for 3 months is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of new-onset seizures. What may the nurse suspect to be the cause of these seizures? a. Baclofen toxicity b. Common adverse effect of baclofen c. Idiopathic causes related to disease process d. Missed doses of baclofen

9. After starting an antiviral protease inhibitor, a patient with HIV telephones the nurse, complaining, "I'm so hungry and thirsty all the time! I'm urinating 10 or 12 times a day." The nurse recognizes these findings to be consistent with: a. pancreatic infiltration by HIV. b. allergic reaction. c. nonadherence to the antiviral regimen. d. hyperglycemia.

9. What is the most reliable measure for assessing diabetes control over the preceding 3-month period? a. Self-monitoring blood glucose (SMBG) graph report b. Patient's report c. Fasting blood glucose level d. Glycosylated hemoglobin level

9. Which patient with a urinary tract infection will require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics? a. A 5-year-old child with a fever of 100.5°F, dysuria, and bacteriuria b. A pregnant woman with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, and fever c. A young man with dysuria, flank pain, and a previous urinary tract infection d. An older adult man with a low-grade fever, flank pain, and an indwelling catheter

A child ingests a parent's aspirin tablets, and the prescriber orders sodium bicarbonate to block the toxic effects of the aspirin. The nurse caring for this patient knows that sodium bicarbonate is effective against the aspirin because it: a. accelerates its passage through the intestine. b. alters urinary pH to enhance renal excretion. c. induces CYP isoenzymes to increase drug metabolism. d. raises the pH of the interstitial fluid to facilitate passage out of the cells.

A child will receive 750 mg of an antibiotic for 10 days. The child attends day care. The drug may be dosed in several ways and is available in two concentrations. Which dosing regimen will the nurse discuss with the child's provider? a. 250 mg/5 mL-375 mg PO twice daily b. 250 mg/5 mL-250 mg PO three times daily c. 500 mg/5 mL-250 mg PO three times daily d. 500 mg/5 mL-375 mg PO twice daily

A nurse caring for a 5-year-old child notes that the child has discoloration of several teeth. When taking a medication history, the nurse will ask about which group of medications? a. Glucocorticoids b. Salicylates c. Sulfonamides d. Tetracyclines

A nurse is caring for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. The prescriber has ordered neostigmine [Prostigmin]. An important initial nursing action before administration of the medication includes assessing: a. the ability to raise the eyelids. b. level of fatigue. c. skeletal muscle strength. d. swallowing ability.

A nurse is caring for an intubated patient who is receiving pancuronium for neuromuscular blockade. The patient's eyes are closed, and the patient is not moving any extremities. The heart rate is 76 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. The nurse caring for this patient will do what? a. Request an order for an antihistamine to prevent a further drop in blood pressure. b. Request an order for serum electrolytes to evaluate for hyperkalemia. c. Review the patient's chart for a history of myasthenia gravis (MG). d. Talk to the patient while giving care and explain all procedures.

A nurse is caring for an older adult man who has Alzheimer's disease (AD). The patient's daughter wants to know if testing can be done to determine her risk for developing the disease. What will the nurse tell her? a. Female gender is known to increase the risk. b. Genetic testing can provide a definitive measure of the risk. c. Patients with the apolipoprotein E2 gene (apoE2) are more likely to develop the disease. d. Advancing age and family history areknown risk factors.

A nurse is preparing to care for a patient who is receiving digoxin. When screening for potential adverse effects from this drug, the nurse will review which of this patient's laboratory results? a. Albumin b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine c. Hepatic enzymes d. Serum electrolytes

A nurse is preparing to give medications to four older patients who are all taking multiple medications. Which patient is most likely to have an adverse drug reaction related to increased drug effects? a. Obese patient b. Patient with decreased serum creatinine c. Patient with chronic diarrhea d. Thin patient with a chronically low appetite

A nurse is reviewing a medication administration record before administering medications. Which order will the nurse implement? a. Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg QD PO b. Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg qd PO c. Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg daily d. Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg PO daily

A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neurotransmitters. Which statement by a student about acetylcholine indicates a need for further teaching? a. "It activates three cholinergic receptor sub-types." b. "It has effects in the parasympathetic, sym-pathetic, and somatic nervous systems." c. "It is used at most junctions of the periph-eral nervous system." d. "Its transmission is terminated by reuptake into the cholinergic nerve terminal."

A nurse prepares to administer propranolol [Inderal] to a patient recovering from acute myocardial infarction. The patient's heart rate is 52 beats per minute, and the rhythm is regular. What action should the nurse take next? a. Administer the drug as prescribed. b. Request an order for atropine. c. Withhold the dose and document the pulse rate. d. Withhold the dose and notify the prescriber.

A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking a drug with a known risk of hepatotoxicity. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this drug." b. "I will need periodic evaluation of aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels." c. "If I experience nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, I should call my provider." d. "Routine testing and early detection of problems will prevent liver failure."

A nursing student asks about drugs that interfere with the termination of transmitter action. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Drugs act on this process by altering the diffusion of the transmitter away from the synaptic gap." b. "Drugs can interfere with termination by either increasing or decreasing reuptake of the transmitter." c. "Drugs in this category lead to decreased activation by the transmitter in the synapse." d. "These drugs reduce either reuptake or degradation of the transmitter, causing an increase in receptor activation."

A nursing student asks the nurse about receptor specificity of adrenergic agonist medications. What will the nurse say? a. "As the dosage of these medications increases, drugs in this class are more selective." b. "Dopamine is selective for dopamine receptors and has no effects on alpha or beta receptors." c. "Epinephrine is the most selective alpha-adrenergic agonist medication." d. "Specificity is relative and is dose dependent."

A patient asks a nurse why drugs that have been approved by the FDA still have unknown side effects. What will the nurse tell the patient? A. Testing for all side effects of a medication would be prohibitively expensive B. Patients in drug trials often are biased by their preconception of a drug's benefits C. Researchers tend to conduct studies that will prove the benefits of their new drugs D. Subjects in drug trials do not always represent the full spectrum of possible patients

A patient has been receiving intravenous penicillin for pneumonia for several days and begins to complain of generalized itching. The nurse auscultates bilateral wheezing and notes a temperature of 38.5. Which is the correct action by the nurse? A. Administer the next dose and continue to evaluate the patient's symptoms. B. Ask the prescriber if an antihistamine can be given to relieve the itching C. Contact the prescriber to request an order for a chest radiograph D. hold the next dose and notify the prescriber of the symptom

A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine, including delirium and hallucinations. Which medication will the nurse expect to administer? a. Donepezil [Aricept] b. Edrophonium [Reversol] c. Neostigmine [Prostigmin] d. Physostigmine

A patient is given a drug for the first time and develops shortness of breath. The patient's heart rate is 76 beats per minute, the respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. The nurse checks a drug administration manual to make sure the correct dose was given and learns that some patients taking the drug experience shortness of breath. The nurse will contact the provider to report what? a. An allergic reaction b. An idiosyncratic effect c. An iatrogenic response d. A side effect

A patient is to receive a beta agonist. Before administration of this medication, which assessment finding would most concern the nurse? a. Pulse oximetry reading of 88% b. Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg c. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute d. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute

A patient receives morphine and shows signs of toxicity. The prescriber orders naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the morphine. The nurse understands that the naloxone reverses morphine toxicity by which action on morphine receptor sites? a. Blocking transmitter reuptake b. Inhibiting transmitter release c. Interfering with transmitter storage d. Preventing activation of receptors

A patient who has esophageal cancer is experiencing dry mouth and the provider orders oral pilocarpine to treat this symptom. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient about this med-ication? a. "This medication may cause rapid heart rate and elevated blood pressure." b. "This medication may cause constipation and gastric discomfort in large doses." c. "You should experience sweating with this medication and should not have other side effects." d. "You will begin taking 5 mg three times daily and may increase the dose to 10 mg."

A patient who is taking morphine for pain asks the nurse how a pain medication can also cause constipation. What does the nurse know about morphine? a. It binds to different types of receptors in the body. b. It can cause constipation in toxic doses. c. It causes only one type of response, and the constipation is coincidental. d. It is selective to receptors that regulate more than one body process.

A patient will begin using a transdermal preparation of a muscarinic antagonist for overactive bladder (OAB). The nurse teaches the patient what to do if side effects occur. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching? a. "I can use sugar-free gum for dry mouth." b. "I may need laxatives for constipation." c. "I should keep the site covered to prevent other people from getting the medicine." d. "I will take Benadryl for any itching caused by a local reaction to the patch."

A postoperative patient has orders for morphine sulfate 1 to 2 mg IV every 1 hour PRN for severe pain and acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 4 to 6 hours PRN for moderate pain. The patient reports pain at a level of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst pain. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? A. Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 4 hours B. Administer morphine sulfate 1 mg IV every 1 hour until pain subsides C. Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 6 Hours and change to every 4 hours if not effective D. Administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV and evaluate the patient's pain in 15 to 30 minutes

A prescriber has ordered methyldopa for a patient with hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about drug actions, adverse effects, and the ongoing blood tests necessary with this drug. The nurse is correct to tell the patient what? a. "If you have a positive Coombs' test result, you will need to discontinue the medication, because this means you have hemolytic anemia." b. "Methyldopa can be used for its analgesic effects and for its hypertensive effects." c. "Xerostomia and orthostatic hypotension are serious side effects and indications for withdrawing the medication." d. "You will need to contact the provider and stop taking the medication if your eyes look yellow."

A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine [Catapres TTS] for a patient with hypertension. What will the nurse teach this patient? a. That medication given by transdermal patch has fewer systemic side effects b. That localized skin reactions are uncommon c. To apply the patch to intact skin on the forearm or leg d. To change the patch every week

An agitated, extremely anxious patient is brought to the emergency department. The prescriber orders a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that benzodiazepines are used in this clinical situation based on which principle? a. Benzodiazepines have a very short half-life. b. Physical dependence is not a risk when taking benzodiazepines. c. Benzodiazepines are known to cure generalized anxiety. d. Benzodiazepines have a rapid onset of action.

The nurse assesses a patient who has been given phentolamine [OraVerse] to treat pheochromocytoma. The nurse notes a blood pressure of 76/52 mm Hg and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Contact the provider to request an order for epinephrine. b. Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and notify the provider if the heart rate increases. c. Notify the provider and request an order for a beta blocker. d. Notify the provider and request an order for norepinephrine.

The nurse is assessing a newly admitted older patient who has recently lost 15 pounds. The nurse notes that the patient is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory tests will the nurse discuss with this patient's provider? a. Blood glucose and C-reactive protein b. Complete blood count and hepatic function tests c. Renal function tests and serum electrolytes d. Serum albumin and coagulation studies

The nurse is caring for a child who has ingested a toxic amount of aspirin. The provider orders an intravenous drug that will increase pH in the blood and urine. The nurse understands that this effect is necessary to: A. decrease the gastric absorption of aspirin B. decrease the lipid solubility C. increase the serum protein binding of aspirin D. increase the urinary excretion of aspirin

The nurse is preparing to administer penicillin G intramuscularly to a child. The child's parents ask why the drug cannot be given in an oral liquid form. What is the nurse's reply A. this drug causes severe gastric upset if given orally B. This drug has a narrow therapeutic range, and the dose must be tightly controlled C. this drug is absorbed much too quickly in an oral form d. this drug would be inactivated by the enzymes in the stomach

The nurse is teaching a patient about taking warfarin and asks if the patient takes aspirin. This assessment by the nurse reflects a knowledge of which type of drug interaction? a. Creation of unique effects b. Increased therapeutic effects c. Inhibitory effects d. Potentiative effects

2. Which are guidelines for selecting chemotherapeutic agents to use in combination therapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Drugs used should have different mechanisms. b. Each drug should be delivered by different routes. c. Each drug should be effective. d. Each drug should have different dosing schedules. e. Toxicities should be minimally overlapping.

A, C, E

2. Which antibiotics may be administered topically? (Select all that apply.) a. Bacitracin b. Daptomycin c. Ofloxacin d. Polymyxin B e. Rifampin

A, D

1. Ketoconazole is used as an alternative to amphotericin B for less severe systemic mycosis. Which are the primary reasons for choosing ketoconazole? (Select all that apply.) a. It can be given orally. b. It can be used safely in patients with hepatic dysfunction. c. It can be given once weekly rather than daily. d. It is effective for severe, acute infections. e. It is less toxic.

A, E

3. Which fluoroquinolone antibiotics may be administered to children? (Select all that apply.) a. Ciprofloxacin [Cipro] b. Levofloxacin [Levaquin] c. Moxifloxacin [Avelox] d. Norfloxacin [Noroxin] e. Ofloxacin

A,B

1. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitors. A student asks the nurse about characteristics of COX-1 inhibitors. Which statement by the nurse is true? a. "COX-1 inhibitors protect against colorectal cancer." b. "COX-1 inhibitors protect against myocardial infarction and stroke." c. "COX-1 inhibitors reduce fever." d. "COX-1 inhibitors suppress inflammation."

1. A nurse provides teaching to a patient with allergic rhinitis who will begin using an intranasal glucocorticoid. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "If the glucocorticoid causes burning or itching, I should use it every other day." b. "I should use a decongestant if necessary before using the glucocorticoid." c. "I should use the glucocorticoid whenever I have symptoms." d. "I will probably develop systemic effects from the topical glucocorticoid."

1. A nursing student asks about the differences between cell-cycle phase-specific chemotherapeutic agents and those that are cell-cycle phase nonspecific. What will the nurse explain? a. Cell-cycle phase-nonspecific drugs are less toxic. b. Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs do not harm "resting" cells. c. Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs should be given at specific intervals. d. Neither type is toxic to cells in the "resting" G0 phase.

13. The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of ado-trastuzumab emtansine [Kadcycla] to a patient who has metastatic breast cancer. Which nursing action is correct? a. Administer a test dose with an antihistamine. b. Ensure that the patient has HER2-positive disease. c. Infuse the initial dose over 30 to 45 minutes. d. Review renal function tests.

9. A patient is admitted to the hospital and will begin taking levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The nurse learns that the patient also takes warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse will notify the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose. a. reducing levothyroxine b. reducing warfarin c. increasing levothyroxine d. increasing warfarin

A patient is using a metered-dose containing albuterol for asthma for asthma. the medication label instructs the patient to administer "2 puffs every 4 hours as needed for coughing or wheezing." The patient reports feeling jittery sometimes when taking the medication, and she doesn't feel that the medication is always effective. which action is outside the nurse's scope of practice? a) asking the patient to demonstrate use of the inhaler b) assessing the patient's exposure to tobacco smoke c) auscultating lung sounds and obtaining vital signs d) suggesting that the patient use one puff to reduce side effect

1. A nurse is providing education about tetracycline [Sumycin]. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the administration of this medication? a. "I should not take this medication with milk or other dairy products." b. "I should not worry if I experience an acnelike rash with this medication." c. "I should take an antacid, such as Tums, if I experience gastrointestinal distress." d. "I should take this antibiotic with a calcium supplement to improve absorption."

10. A child with an upper respiratory infection caused by B. pertussis is receiving erythromycin ethylsuccinate. After 2 days of treatment, the parent asks the nurse why the child's symptoms have not improved. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Erythromycin eliminates the bacteria that causes the infection, but not the toxin that causes the symptoms." b. "We may need to add penicillin or another antibiotic to increase the antimicrobial spectrum." c. "We will need to review the culture sensitivity information to see whether a different antibiotic is indicated." d. "Your child may have developed a suprainfection that we need to culture and treat."

12. A nurse is discussing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student correctly identifies the basis for MRSA resistance? a. "MRSA bacteria have developed PBPs with a low affinity for penicillins." b. "MRSA bacteria produce penicillinases that render penicillin ineffective." c. "MRSA occurs because of host resistance to penicillins." d. "MRSA strains replicate faster than other Staphylococcus aureus strains."

12. A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin taking clarithromycin ER [Biaxin XL] to treat an Helicobacter pylori infection. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may experience distorted taste when taking this medication." b. "I should take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days." c. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach." d. "This medication does not interact with other drugs."

2. A patient has an infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The prescriber has ordered piperacillin and amikacin, both to be given intravenously. What will the nurse do? a. Make sure to administer the drugs at different times using different IV tubing. b. Suggest giving larger doses of piperacillin and discontinuing the amikacin. c. Suggest that a fixed-dose combination of piperacillin and tazobactam [Zosyn] be used. d. Watch the patient closely for allergic reactions, because this risk is increased with this combination.

2. A pregnant adolescent patient asks the nurse whether she should continue to take her prescription for tetracycline [Sumycin] to clear up her acne. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Tetracycline can be harmful to the baby's teeth and should be avoided." b. "Tetracycline is safe to take during pregnancy." c. "Tetracycline may cause allergic reactions in pregnant women." d. "Tetracycline will prevent asymptomatic urinary tract infections."

3. A patient newly diagnosed with PUD reports taking low-dose aspirin (ASA) for prevention of cardiovascular disease. The nurse learns that the patient drinks 2 to 3 cups of coffee each day and has a glass of wine with dinner 3 or 4 nights per week. The patient eats three meals a day. The nurse will counsel this patient to: a. change the meal pattern to five or six smaller meals per day. b. discontinue taking aspirin, because it can irritate the stomach. c. stop drinking wine or any other alcoholic beverage. d. switch to a decaffeinated coffee and reduce the number of servings.

4. A patient is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. The patient is otherwise healthy. The nurse learns that the patient does not smoke and that he drinks 1 or 2 glasses of wine with meals each week. The nurse anticipates that the provider will prescribe which drugs? a. Amoxicillin [Amoxil], clarithromycin, and omeprazole [Prilosec] b. Amoxicillin [Amoxil], metronidazole [Flagyl], and cimetidine [Tagamet] c. Clarithromycin, metronidazole [Flagyl], and omeprazole [Prilosec] d. Tetracycline, cimetidine [Tagamet], and lansoprazole [Prevacid]

5. A child with an ear infection is not responding to treatment with amoxicillin [Amoxil]. The nurse will expect the provider to order: a. amoxicillin-clavulanic acid [Augmentin]. b. ampicillin. c. nafcillin. d. penicillin G [Benzylpenicillin].

5. A nursing student is discussing with a nurse the plan of care for a patient about to undergo a third round of chemotherapy with cisplatin. Which statement by the nursing student about the treatment of CINV is correct? a. "Aprepitant [Emend] will be necessary to treat CINV caused by cisplatin." b. "Antiemetics are most effective if given just as the chemotherapy is finished." c. "Lorazepam probably would not be helpful for this patient." d. "This patient will need intravenous antiemetics for best effects."

5. A provider has ordered ceftriaxone 4 gm once daily for a patient with renal impairment. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the medication as prescribed. b. Contact the provider to ask about giving the drug in divided doses. c. Discuss increasing the interval between doses with the provider. d. Discuss reducing the dose with the provider.

6. A patient who is in her first trimester of pregnancy asks the nurse to recommend nonpharmaceutical therapies for morning sickness. What will the nurse suggest? a. Avoiding fatty and spicy foods b. Consuming extra clear fluids c. Eating three meals daily d. Taking foods later in the day

6. A prescriber has ordered cefoxitin for a patient who has an infection caused by a gram-negative bacteria. The nurse taking the medication history learns that the patient experienced a maculopapular rash when taking amoxicillin [Amoxil] several years earlier. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the cefoxitin and observe for any side effects. b. Give the cefoxitin and have epinephrine and respiratory support available. c. Request an order for a different, nonpenicillin, noncephalosporin antibiotic. d. Request an order to administer a skin test before giving the cefoxitin.

6. When metronidazole [Flagyl] is a component of the H. pylori treatment regimen, the patient must be instructed to do what? a. Avoid any alcoholic beverages b. Avoid foods containing tyramine c. Take the drug on an empty stomach d. Take the drug with food

7. A patient will be discharged home to complete treatment with intravenous cefotetan with the assistance of a home nurse. The home care nurse will include which instruction when teaching the patient about this drug treatment? a. Abstain from alcohol consumption during therapy. b. Avoid dairy products while taking this drug. c. Take an antihistamine if a rash occurs. d. Use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not acetaminophen, for pain.

7. The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed both an antacid and cimetidine [Tagamet]. Which instruction should the nurse give the patient about taking the medications? a. "Take the antacid 1 hour after the ranitidine." b. "The antacid and ranitidine should be taken at the same time for better effect." c. "Take the antacid 15 minutes before the ranitidine." d. "Take the antacid 30 minutes after the ranitidine."

9. A patient is to undergo orthopedic surgery, and the prescriber will order a cephalosporin to be given preoperatively as prophylaxis against infection. The nurse expects the provider to order which cephalosporin? a. First-generation cephalosporin b. Second-generation cephalosporin c. Third-generation cephalosporin d. Fourth-generation cephalosporin

10. A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by Clostridium difficile. What is an appropriate treatment for this patient? a. Adding an antibiotic, such as vancomycin [Vancocin], to the patient's regimen b. Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning metronidazole [Flagyl] c. Discontinuing all antibiotics and providing fluid replacement d. Increasing the dose of the cephalosporin and providing isolation measures

10. A patient will undergo a colonoscopy, and the provider has ordered sodium phosphate as a bowel cleanser before the procedure. The nurse reviews the patient's chart and notes that the patient's creatinine clearance and blood urea nitrogen are both elevated. What will the nurse do? a. Reduce the amount of fluid given with the laxative to prevent fluid retention. b. Request an order to give polyethylene glycol and electrolytes (PEG-ELS) instead. c. Suggest that the patient reduce the dietary sodium intake. d. Suggest using a suppository laxative instead.

10. An older adult patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops bronchitis. The patient has a temperature of 39.5°C. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. obtain a sputum culture and wait for the results before prescribing an antibiotic. b. order empiric antibiotics while waiting for sputum culture results. c. treat symptomatically, because antibiotics are usually ineffective against bronchitis. d. treat the patient with more than one antibiotic without obtaining cultures.

11. A patient is taking erythromycin ethylsuccinate for a chlamydial infection and develops vaginal candidiasis. The prescriber orders ketoconazole to treat the superinfection. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the erythromycin and the ketoconazole as ordered. b. Contact the provider to discuss changing to a different antifungal medication. c. Contact the provider to discuss increasing the dose of erythromycin. d. Contact the provider to suggest using erythromycin stearate.

11. A patient reports taking an oral bisacodyl laxative [Dulcolax] for several years. The provider has suggested discontinuing the laxative, but the patient is unsure how to do this. The nurse will tell the patient to: a. stop taking the oral laxative and use a suppository until normal motility resumes. b. stop taking the laxative immediately and expect no stool for several days. c. switch to a bulk-forming laxative, such as methylcellulose [Metamucil]. d. withdraw from the laxative slowly to avoid a rebound constipation effect.

12. A nurse is providing teaching to a nursing student about to care for a woman with irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) who is receiving alosetron [Lotronex]. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should evaluate the patient's abdomen for distension and bowel sounds." b. "Patients with diverticulitis and IBS-C may take this drug." c. "This drug can cause ischemic colitis in some patients." d. "This drug is given only to women with severe IBS-D."

13. The nurse is providing education to a patient with ulcerative colitis who is being treated with sulfasalazine [Azulfidine]. What statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the action of sulfasalazine? a. "It treats the infection that triggers the condition." b. "It reduces the inflammation." c. "It enhances the immune response." d. "It increases the reabsorption of fluid."

14. A nurse is discussing the use of immunosuppressants for the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Azathioprine [Imuran] helps induce rapid remission of IBD." b. "Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] can be used to induce remission of IBD." c. "Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] does not have serious adverse effects." d. "Methotrexate is used long term to maintain remission of IBD."

14. A nurse receives an order to administer castor oil to a patient. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Administer the medication at bedtime. b. Chill the medication and mix it with fruit juice. c. Provide teaching about home use of this medication. d. Teach the patient that the effects will occur slowly.

17. A nurse is teaching a nursing student about dalfopristin/quinupristin [Synercid]. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "Patients should stop taking the drug if they experience joint and muscle pain." b. "Patients taking this drug should have blood tests performed frequently." c. "Patients who are allergic to penicillin should not take this drug." d. "This drug will be administered intravenously over a 30- to 60-minute period."

19. A patient with severe community-acquired pneumonia has been prescribed telithromycin [Ketek]. Which aspect of the patient's medical history is of concern to the nurse? a. Anemia b. Myasthenia gravis c. Renal disease d. Strep. pneumoniae infection

2. A patient admitted to the hospital has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The patient takes ranitidine [Zantac] and sucralfate [Carafate]. The patient tells the nurse that discomfort is usually controlled but that symptoms occasionally flare up. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the provider about ordering an endoscopic examination. b. Contact the provider to discuss serologic testing and an antibiotic. c. Contact the provider to discuss switching to a proton pump inhibitor. d. Counsel the patient to avoid beverages containing caffeine.

2. A pregnant patient who is taking ondansetron [Zofran] for morning sickness tells the nurse she is experiencing headache and dizziness. What will the nurse tell her? a. It is not safe to take this drug during pregnancy. b. These are common side effects of ondansetron. c. She should stop taking the ondansetron immediately. d. She should report these adverse effects to her provider.

3. A nurse assisting a nursing student with medications asks the student to describe how penicillins (PCNs) work to treat bacterial infections. The student is correct in responding that penicillins: a. disinhibit transpeptidases. b. disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis. c. inhibit autolysins. d. inhibit host cell wall function.

6. A patient has a viral sinus infection, and the provider tells the patient that antibiotics will not be prescribed. The patient wants to take an antibiotic and asks the nurse what possible harm could occur by taking an antibiotic. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Antibiotics are mutagenic and can produce changes that cause resistance." b. "Even normal flora can develop resistance and transfer this to pathogens." c. "Host cells become resistant to antibiotics with repeated use." d. "Patients who overuse antibiotics are more likely to have nosocomial infections."

7. A patient who experiences motion sickness is about to go on a cruise. The prescriber orders transdermal scopolamine [Transderm Scop]. The patient asks the nurse why an oral agent is not ordered. The nurse will explain that the transdermal preparation: a. can be applied as needed at the first sign of nausea. b. has less intense anticholinergic effects than the oral form. c. is less sedating than the oral preparation. d. provides direct effects, because it is placed close to the vestibular apparatus of the ear.

8. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with: a. allergic reaction. b. red man syndrome. c. rhabdomyolysis. d. Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

9. A patient is taking bismuth subsalicylate [Pepto-Bismol] to prevent diarrhea. The nurse performing an assessment notes that the patient's tongue is black. What will the nurse do? a. Assess further for signs of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. b. Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect of this drug. c. Request an order for liver function tests to evaluate for hepatotoxicity. d. Withhold the drug, because this is a sign of bismuth overdose.

1. A patient who is receiving a final dose of intravenous (IV) cephalosporin begins to complain of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes signs of redness at the IV insertion site and along the vein. What is the nurse's priority action? a. Apply warm packs to the arm, and infuse the medication at a slower rate. b. Continue the infusion while elevating the arm. c. Select an alternate intravenous site and administer the infusion more slowly. d. Request central venous access.

11. A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital who reports having recurrent, crampy abdominal pain followed by diarrhea. The patient tells the nurse that the diarrhea usually relieves the pain and that these symptoms have occurred daily for the past 6 months. The patient undergoes a colonoscopy, for which the findings are normal. The nurse will plan to teach this patient to: a. use antispasmodic medications. b. avoid food containing lactose and gluten. c. keep a food, stress, and symptom diary. d. use antidiarrheal drugs to manage symptoms.

11. A patient with an infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is being treated with piperacillin. The nurse providing care reviews the patient's laboratory reports and notes that the patient's blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels are elevated. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. adding an aminoglycoside. b. changing to penicillin G. c. reducing the dose of piperacillin. d. ordering nafcillin.

12. A patient with a history of chronic alcohol abuse has been admitted to the unit with cirrhosis. Upon review of the patient's laboratory test results, the nurse notes that the patient's ammonia level is elevated at 218 mcg/dL. What medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. 0.9% NS b. Docusate sodium [Colace] c. Lactulose d. Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]

13. A patient received 500 mg of azithromycin [Zithromax] at 0800 as a first dose. What are the usual amount and time of the second dose of azithromycin? a. 250 mg at 2000 the same day b. 500 mg at 2000 the same day c. 250 mg at 0800 the next day d. 500 mg at 0800 the next day

15. A patient with Crohn's disease will begin receiving an initial infusion of infliximab [Remicade]. The nurse explains how this drug works to treat this disease. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may have an increased risk of infections, such as tuberculosis, when taking infliximab." b. "I should report chills, fever, itching, and shortness of breath while receiving the infusion." c. "This drug sometimes provides a complete cure of inflammatory bowel disease." d. "I will take the second dose in 2 weeks, the third dose in 6 weeks, and then a dose every 8 weeks thereafter."

16. A patient who has been taking linezolid [Zyvox] for 6 months develops vision problems. What will the nurse do? a. Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect of this drug. b. Tell the patient that blindness is likely to occur with this drug. c. Tell the patient that this symptom is reversible when the drug is discontinued. d. Tell the patient to take tyramine supplements to minimize this effect.

3. A patient is being treated for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) with ondansetron [Zofran] and dexamethasone. The patient reports getting relief during and immediately after chemotherapy but has significant nausea and vomiting several days after each chemotherapy treatment. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to discuss increasing the dose of ondansetron. b. Suggest giving prolonged doses of dexamethasone. c. Suggest adding aprepitant [Emend] to the medication regimen. d. Tell the patient to ask the provider about changing the ondansetron to aprepitant.

3. A patient recently began receiving clindamycin [Cleocin] to treat an infection. After 8 days of treatment, the patient reports having 10 to 15 watery stools per day. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. The provider may increase the clindamycin dose to treat this infection. b. This is a known side effect of clindamycin, and the patient should consume extra fluids. c. The patient should stop taking the clindamycin now and contact the provider immediately. d. The patient should try taking Lomotil or a bulk laxative to minimize the diarrheal symptoms.

3. A patient with renal disease is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Before the procedure, the nurse will anticipate administering: a. glycerin suppository. b. magnesium hydroxide (MOM). c. polyethylene glycol and electrolytes. d. sodium phosphate.

3. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the mechanism by which antimicrobial agents achieve selective toxicity. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Some agents disrupt the bacterial cell wall." b. "Some agents act to block the conversion of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) to folic acid." c. "Some agents cause phagocytosis of bacterial cells." d. "Some agents weaken the cell wall, causing cell wall lysis."

4. A child has received amoxicillin [Amoxil] for three previous ear infections, but a current otitis media episode is not responding to treatment. The nurse caring for this child suspects that resistance to the bacterial agent has occurred by which microbial mechanism? a. Alteration of drug target molecules b. Antagonist production c. Drug inactivation d. Reduction of drug concentration at the site of action

4. A patient is receiving intravenous promethazine [Phenergan] 25 mg for postoperative nausea and vomiting. What is an important nursing action when giving this drug? a. Giving the dose as an IV push over 3 to 5 minutes b. Infusing the dose with microbore tubing and an infusion pump c. Observing the IV insertion site frequently for patency d. Telling the patient to report dry mouth and sedation

5. A 30-year-old male patient will begin a three-drug regimen to treat peptic ulcer disease. The regimen will consist of bismuth subsalicylate, tetracycline, and cimetidine [Tagamet]. The nurse will include which information when teaching this patient about this drug regimen? a. Black discoloration of the tongue and stools should be reported immediately. b. Central nervous system depression and confusion are likely to occur. c. Decreased libido, impotence, and gynecomastia are reversible side effects. d. Staining of the teeth may occur and is an indication for discontinuation of these drugs.

5. A nursing student asks a nurse to clarify the differences between the mechanisms of spontaneous mutation and conjugation in acquired resistance of microbes. What will the nurse say? a. Conjugation results in a gradual increase in resistance. b. Conjugation results in random changes in the microbe's DNA. c. Spontaneous mutation leads to resistance to only one antimicrobial agent. d. Spontaneous mutation can transfer DNA from one organism to another.

5. A patient's provider has recommended a bulk-forming laxative for occasional constipation. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching about this agent? a. "I can take this medication long term." b. "I should not take this drug if I have diverticulitis." c. "I should take each dose with a full glass of water." d. "This drug can cause severe diarrhea."

6. A patient is receiving intravenous potassium penicillin G, 2 million units to be administered over 1 hour. At 1900, the nurse notes that the dose hung at 1830 has infused completely. What will the nurse do? a. Assess the skin at the infusion site for signs of tissue necrosis. b. Observe the patient closely for confusion and other neurotoxic effects. c. Request an order for serum electrolytes and cardiac monitoring. d. Watch the patient's actions and report any bizarre behaviors.

6. A patient is to begin taking doxycycline to treat a rickettsial infection. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for teaching about this drug? a. "I should consult my provider before using laxatives or antacids while taking this drug." b. "I should not take a calcium supplement or consume dairy products with this drug." c. "I should take this drug with food to ensure more complete absorption." d. "If I get diarrhea, I should stop taking the drug and let my provider know immediately."

7. A 6-year-old child has frequent constipation. The nurse provides teaching after the parent asks the nurse why the provider recommended using laxatives only when needed. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Children who take laxatives regularly can become dehydrated." b. "Chronic laxative use can cause electrolyte imbalances." c. "Frequent use of laxatives can cause diverticulitis." d. "The normal reflex to defecate can be inhibited with overuse of laxatives."

7. A patient is about to receive penicillin G for an infection that is highly sensitive to this drug. While obtaining the patient's medication history, the nurse learns that the patient experienced a rash when given amoxicillin [Amoxil] as a child 20 years earlier. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the provider to order a cephalosporin. b. Reassure the patient that allergic responses diminish over time. c. Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk. d. Suggest using a desensitization schedule to administer the drug.

7. A patient who is taking doxycycline for a serious infection contacts the nurse to report anal itching. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. adding an antihistamine to the patient's drug regimen. b. ordering liver function tests to test for hepatotoxicity. c. prescribing an antifungal drug to treat a superinfection. d. testing the patient for a C. difficile secondary infection.

8. A patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Cimetidine [Tagamet] b. Esomeprazole [Nexium] c. Ranitidine [Zantac] d. Sucralfate [Carafate]

9. A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the medication as ordered. b. Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV. c. Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin. d. Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.

9. An older adult patient with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has had only minimal relief using a histamine2-receptor antagonist (H2RA). The patient is to begin taking omeprazole [Prilosec]. What will the nurse teach this patient? a. A complete cure is expected with this medication. b. Lifestyle changes can be as effective as medication therapy. c. Long-term therapy may be needed. d. The medication will be used until surgery can be performed.

10. A patient is preparing to travel to perform missionary work in a region with poor drinking water. The provider gives the patient a prescription for ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to take on the trip. What will the nurse instruct this patient to do? a. Combine the antibiotic with an antidiarrheal medication, such as loperamide. b. Start taking the ciprofloxacin 1 week before traveling. c. Take 1 tablet of ciprofloxacin with each meal for best results. d. Use the drug if symptoms are severe or do not improve in a few days.

10. A patient stops taking a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) after 6 weeks of therapy for treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The patient reports symptoms of dyspepsia to the nurse. The nurse will tell this patient to: a. come to the clinic to be tested for Clostridium difficile. b. resume taking the PPI, because long-term therapy is necessary. c. resume taking the PPI until symptoms resolve completely. d. try an antacid to see whether it relieves these symptoms.

10. The parent of an infant with otitis media asks the nurse why the prescriber has ordered amoxicillin [Amoxil] and not ampicillin [Unasyn]. What will the nurse tell the parent? a. Amoxicillin is a broader spectrum antibiotic than ampicillin. b. Amoxicillin is not inactivated by beta-lactamases. c. Ampicillin is associated with more allergic reactions. d. Ampicillin is not as acid stable as amoxicillin.

11. A nursing student is caring for a patient who is taking sucralfate [Carafate] and ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat peptic ulcer disease. The student asks the nurse about the pharmacokinetics of sucralfate. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Sucralfate adheres to the ulcer and blocks the back-diffusion of hydrogen ions." b. "Sucralfate and ciprofloxacin should be administered 1 hour apart." c. "Sucralfate does not cause systemic side effects." d. "Sucralfate has a moderate acid-neutralizing capacity."

11. A patient has a skin infection and the culture reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What is an appropriate treatment for this patient? a. Cefaclor b. Cefazolin c. Cefotaxime d. Ceftaroline

12. A patient who has cystic fibrosis has a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection and the provider has ordered aztreonam [Cayston]. What will the nurse teach this patient about administration of this drug? a. Administer the drug intramuscularly twice daily. b. Give a daily dose every day for 28 days and then stop. c. Inhale the powdered drug as ordered three times each day. d. Use the nebulizer to administer the drug three times daily.

12. A patient who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) receives a prescription for a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) medication. What will the nurse include when teaching the patient about this drug? a. "The FDA has determined that there is a gastric cancer risk with this drug." b. "This drug will be given on a short-term basis only." c. "You may experience hypermagnesemia when taking this drug." d. "You should report any fever and cough to your provider."

13. A patient has been taking senna [Senokot] for several days, and the nurse notes that the urine is yellowish-brown. What does the nurse know about this symptom? a. It indicates that renal failure has occurred. b. It is caused by dehydration, which is a laxative side effect. c. It is a sign of toxicity, indicating immediate withdrawal of the drug. d. It is an expected, harmless effect of senna.

15. A patient develops CDAD. Which antibiotic is recommended for treating this infection? a. Chloramphenicol b. Clindamycin [Cleocin] c. Linezolid [Zyvox] d. Vancomycin

16. A nurse is caring for a patient with cancer who has been undergoing chemotherapy. The patient has oral mucositis as a result of the chemotherapy, and the provider has ordered palifermin [Kepivance]. Which is an appropriate nursing action when giving this drug? a. Administering the drug as a slow IV infusion b. Flushing the IV line with heparin before infusing the drug c. Giving the drug within 6 hours of the chemotherapy d. Warning the patient about the potential for distortion of taste

17. A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is to begin taking oral metoclopramide [Reglan]. The patient asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "After 3 months, if the drug is not effective, you may need to increase the dose." b. "Metoclopramide may cause hiccups, especially after meals." c. "Serious side effects may occur but will stop when the drug is discontinued." d. "You should take the drug 30 minutes before each meal and at bedtime."

2. The nurse is caring for a patient on a medical-surgical unit who has a fever of unknown origin. The prescriber has ordered a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Which intervention is the priority? a. Administering the antibiotic immediately b. Administering antipyretics as soon as possible c. Delaying administration of the antibiotic until the culture results are available d. Obtaining all cultures before the antibiotic is administered

4. A child with otitis media has had three ear infections in the past year. The child has just completed a 10-day course of amoxicillin [Amoxil] with no improvement. The parent asks the nurse why this drug is not working, because it has worked in the past. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. "Amoxicillin is too narrow in spectrum." b. "The bacteria have developed a three-layer cell envelope." c. "The bacteria have developed penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) that have a low affinity for penicillins." d. "The bacteria have synthesized penicillinase."

8. A hospitalized patient who is taking demeclocycline [Declomycin] reports increased urination, fatigue, and thirst. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to report potential toxic side effects. b. Notify the provider to discuss changing the medication to doxycycline. c. Perform bedside glucometer testing to evaluate the serum glucose level. d. Provide extra fluids and reassure the patient that these are expected side effects.

8. A patient has a localized skin infection, which is most likely caused by a gram-positive cocci. Until the culture and sensitivity results are available, the nurse will expect the provider to order a ____-spectrum ____ agent. a. broad systemic b. broad topical c. narrow systemic d. narrow topical

9. A parent asks a nurse if the provider will prescribe an antibiotic for a child who attends school with several children who have strep throat. The child is complaining of a sore throat and has a fever. What will be the nurse's response? a. "Because strep throat is likely, your child should be treated empirically." b. "With good hand washing, your child should not get strep throat." c. "Your child probably has strep throat, so your provider will order an antibiotic." d. "Your child should come to the clinic to have a throat culture done today."

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Chapter 31- Environmental Emergencies

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CISSP-Topic 9, Business Continuity Planning

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