Physiology test #2

What is the structure most responsible for focusing light rays that enter the eye. 1. Fovea centalis 2. lens 3. retina 4. Aqueous humor

2. Lens

True or False? The blood vessels of the skin are one of the few areas of the body where the vessels are innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

False

True or false? All splanchnic nerves are sympathetic.

False

True or false? All visceral organs receive dual innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS.

False

True or false? Lamellar corpuscles can only be exteroceptors or proprioceptors.

False

True or false? The parasympathetic division innervates more organs than the sympathetic division.

False

True or false? The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS have the same effect on most body organ systems.

False

True of false? Nuclei relating to the startle reflex are located in the corpora quadrigemina of the midbrain.

True

True of false? The vasomotor tone of blood vessels is mostly under sympathetic control.

True

True or false? Acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons, all preganglionic neurons of the ANS and by the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers.

True

True or false? Autonomic ganglia are sites of synapse and information transmission from preganglionic to postganglionic neurons.

True

True or false? In most people, the left cerebral hemisphere has greater control over language abilities, math, and logic.

True

True or false? Light passes through the entire thickness of the neural layer of the retina to excite the photoreceptors.

True

True or false? Most blood vessels are innervated by the sympathetic division alone.

True

True or false? Most disorders of the autonomic nervous system reflect abnormalities of smooth muscle control.

True

True or false? Most splanchnic nerves pass through the abdominal aortic plexus.

True

True or false? Odorants must be volatile to be smelled.

True

True or false? Passing through the NREM stages (1 through 4), the frequency of the EEG waves declines, but their amplitude increases.

True

True or false? REM sleep begins about 90 minutes after sleep begins.

True

True or false? The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target that is affected.

True

True or false? The blood brain barrier is the protective mechanism that helps maintain the brain's stable environment.

True

True or false? The effect of the parasympathetic division on the penis is vasodilation causing erection, while ejaculation is due to sympathetic stimulation.

True

True or false? The function of the lens of the eye is to allow precise focusing of light on the retina.

True

True or false? The limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective (feelings), brain.

True

True or false? Theoretically, an individual born without a middle ear would be able to hear by bone conduction with a hearing aid.

True

True or false? Visceral reflexes include the reflexes that empty the bladder and the rectum.

True

True or false? Vitamin A needed by the photoreceptor cells is stored by the cells of the retina pigmented layer.

True

True or false? When we move from darkness to bright light, retinal sensitivity is lost, but visual acuity is gained.

True

True or False? Bundles of axons in the central nervous system are called tracts.

True Explanation: Bundles of neurons are called tracts in the central nervous system. In the peripheral nervous systems, bundles of axons are called nerves.

_____ : The membrane potential is becoming more positive than the resting membrane potential.

Depolarize

____: The membrane potential is more negative than the resting membrane potential.

Hyperpolarize

The concentration of ____ is higher inside than outside the cell.

K+

The membrane is more permeable to _____.

K+

The concentration of ______ is higher outside than inside the cell.

Na+

Plasma membrane exhibits chemically gated ion channels.

Receptive Region

____ The membrane potential is moving from a more positive value toward resting membrane potential.

Repolarize

Plasma membrane exhibits voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.

Secretory Region

True or False. During depolarization, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative.

True

Receives stimuli.

receptive region

Heroin addicts can now be given pharmaceutical treatment to help curb their desire and addiction. Which mechanism would help an addict decrease their addiction? 1. A drug that acts as an opioid agonist. 2. A drug that increases norepinephrine levels in the synapse. 3. A drug that increases serotonin and dopamine levels in the synapse. 4.A drug that increases GABA.

1. A drug that acts as an opioid agonist. Explanation: Several different medications have been developed to help curb the craving and desire for heroin. Many of these such as methadone and buprenorphine (Subutex) are opioid agonists that decrease the patient's desire for the drug. Other medications are opioid antagonists, which block the receptor. These have not been as effective for treatment as the opioid agonists.

Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors? 1. Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes. 2. The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli. 3. In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic. 4. All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation.

1. Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.

A patient has noticed that his ability to hear has recently decreased. Which item is NOT likely to have caused his problem? 1. Damage to the semicircular canals. 2. Perforation of the tympanic membrane. 3. Occlusion of the external auditory meatus by cerumen. 4. Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube dysfunction

1. Damage to the semicircular canals. Explanation: The semicircular canals contain the apparatus responsible for equilibrium, or balance. They are not directly involved with hearing.

The repolarization phase of the action potential, where voltage becomes more negative after the +30mV peak, is caused primarily by __________. 1. K+ ions leaving the cell through voltage-gated channels. 2. Na+ ions leaving the cell through voltage-gated channels. 3. Na+ ions transported out of the cell by the Na+-K+ pump. K+ ions entering the cell through voltage-gated channels.

1. K+ ions leaving the cell through voltage-gated channels. Explantion: The opening of voltage-gated K+ channels allows K+ ions to exit the cell, repolarizing the membrane. In other words, the exit of K+ ions makes the membrane potential more negative. K+ also exits through leakage channels during this phase because leakage channels are always active. However, most of the membrane permeability to K+ during this phase is due to voltage-gated channels. Voltage-gated K+ channels make the action potential more brief than it would otherwise be if only leakage channels were available to repolarize the membrane.

____What has hair cells receptive to changes in static equilibrium are found in this structure. 1. Macula 2. Olfactory epithelium 3. Crista ampullaris 4. Taste buds

1. Macula

Sleepwalking may occur during ________. 1. NREM stage4 2. NREM stage 1 3. NREM stage 2 4. REM

1. NREM stage4

____: Secreted by most postganglionic sympathetic fibers. 1. Norepinephrine (NE) 2. Acetycholine (ACh)

1. Norepinephrine (NE)

Select the correct definition. 1. Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face. 2. Magnitude estimation is the simplest level of sensation. 3. Spatial discrimination allows us to recognize textures. 4.Perceptual detection is the ability to detect how much stimulus is applied to the body.

1. Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.

Which of the following is true about photoreceptors? 1. Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision. 2. If all cones are stimulated equally, all colors are absorbed by the cones and the color perceived is black. 3. Three types of color-sensitive photoreceptors exist: red, green, and yellow. 4. In dim light, images are focused directly on the rods in the fovea centralis.

1. Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.

After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________. 1. Schwann cells 2. dendrites 3. Golgi organs 4. Wallerian cells

1. Schwann cells

____ Loss of hearing resulting from prolonged exposure to high-intensity sounds. 1. Sensorineural deafness 2. Conduction deafness 3. Tinnitus

1. Sensorineural deafness

___: this neurotransmitter increases mood (decreased levels are associated with depression), stimulates sleep and inhibits appetite. 1. Serotonin 2. Dopamine 3. GABA 4. Norepinephrine 5. Glutatmate 6. Endorphins

1. Serotonin

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the spinal cord? 1. Spinal nerves have mixed motor and sensory function. 2. Damage to sensory tracts in the spinal cord leads to paralysis. 3. Just like the cerebrum, the gray matter is found on the superficial surfaces. 4. The white matter contains cell bodies for spinal nuclei.

1. Spinal nerves have mixed motor and sensory function. Explanation: The ventral roots carry motor commands out of the spinal cord. The dorsal roots carry sensory information into the spinal cord. The spinal nerves represent a fusion of these two elements.

___:Short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibers. 1. Sympathetic 2. Parasympathetic

1. Sympathetic

A patient has a loss of hearing in only one ear. Which of the following is likely to be a result? 1. The patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds. 2. The patient will have increased sensitivity to sound in the unaffected ear. 3. The patient will have a loss of balance with dizziness and vertigo. 4. The patient will not be able to track objects with the eye on the same side as the hearing loss.

1. The patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds.

What is the basic condition when a neuron is described as polarized? 1. There is a separation of positive and negative charges across a membrane. 2. There are large, protein anions inside the neuron. 3. Na+ is found outside of the neuron. 4. Na+ is found outside of the neuron and K+ is found inside of the cell.

1. There is a separation of positive and negative charges across a membrane. Explantion: Polarization describes a condition where there is some sorting into poles. In a neuron, the inside of the cell is slightly negative compared to the positive charge (provided primarily by Na+) outside of the cell.

What is a difference between tactile (Meissner's) corpuscles and tactile (Merkel) discs? 1. Unlike Merkel discs, Meissner's corpuscles are surrounded (encapsulated) by connective tissue and Schwann cells. 2. Meissner's corpuscles are found in the skin. Merkel discs are found in muscles, ligaments, tendons, and joints. 3. Unlike Merkel discs, Meissner's corpuscles detect light touch. 4. Meissner's corpuscles are classified as mechanoreceptors, while Merkel discs are classified as proprioceptors.

1. Unlike Merkel discs, Meissner's corpuscles are surrounded (encapsulated) by connective tissue and Schwann cells. Explanation: Merkel discs are classified as unencapsulated. They lack a connective tissue capsule around the nerve ending.

Select the statement below that is NOT true with regards to the process of light adaptation. 1. Visual acuity is diminished. 2. The activity of rods is reduced by rapid bleaching of rhodopsin. 3. Retinal sensitivity decreases. 4. Rhodopsin is uncoupled from light transduction.

1. Visual acuity is diminished.

If a postsynaptic cell is stimulated to threshold by temporal summation this implies that ________. 1. a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP. 2. the presynaptic neuron is sending frequent IPSP. 3. the postsynaptic cell can be influenced by only one presynaptic cell. 4. the postsynaptic cell is sending frequent action potential.

1. a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP.

Which type of wave predominates during stage 1 NREM sleep? 1. alpha 2. beta 3. delta 4. theta

1. alpha

Neural tracts that convey information to the brain concerning temperature and pain would be ________. 1. lateral spinothalamic 2. posterior spinothalamic 3. reticulospinal 4.ventral (anterior) spinothalamic

1. lateral spinothalamic

Parasympathetic functions include ________. 1. lens accommodation for close vision. 2. a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction. 3. allowing the body to cope with an external threat. 4. raising blood glucose levels.

1. lens accommodation for close vision.

Which of the following correctly matches the equilibrium receptor to the type of equilibrium it monitors? 1. maculae: static equilibrium. 2. maculae dynamic equilibrium. 3. crista ampullaris: static equilibrium. 4. saccule: dynamic equilibrium.

1. maculae: static equilibrium Explanation: The maculae ("spots"), one in each saccule wall and one in each utricle wall, are sensory receptor organs that monitor the position of the head in space (with respect to gravity). Because gravity is constant, this is sometimes called our sense of static equilibrium.

Which of the following is not a feature of the major spinal cord tracts (pathways)? 1. memory 2. somatotopy 3. decussation 4. relay

1. memory Explanation: Memory is a function of the brain (not the spinal cord).

Which of the following does not enhance the conversion of short-term to long-term memories? 1. memory consolidation 2. your emotional state 3. rehearsal 4.association

1. memory consolidation Explanation: Consolidation is the process of learning new facts by storing them in already-learned categories.

Which type of white matter fiber tract connects the cerebrum to lower centers, like the spinal cord? 1. projection fibers 2. association fibers 3. commissures 4.corpus callosum

1. projection fibers Explanation: Projection fibers either enter the cerebral cortex from lower brain or cord centers or descend from the cortex to lower areas.

Which of the following is mismatched? 1. promotes urination; sympathetic. 2. bronchiole dilation in lungs; sympathetic. 3. penis ejaculation; sympathetic. 4. gallbladder contracts to expel bile; parasympathetic.

1. promotes urination; sympathetic.

We can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. These sensations create awareness of our body's positioning. Which of the following receptors is most likely responsible for this ability? 1. proprioceptors 2. nociceptors 3. interoceptors 4. exteroceptors

1. proprioceptors

The oval window is connected directly to which passageway? 1. scala vestibuli 2. external acoustic meatus 3. scala tympani 4. pharyngotympanic tube

1. scala vestibuli

Which of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? 1. skeletal muscle 2. cardiac muscle 3. most glands 4. smooth muscle

1. skeletal muscle

Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all of the following EXCEPT ________. 1. synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion. 2. pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron. 3. ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion. 4. synapse with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion.

1. synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion.

All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________. 1. thalamus 2. reticular formation 3. medulla 4.pons

1. thalamus

Which brain waves are uncommon for awake adults, but are common for children? 1. theta 2. alpha 3. beta 4.delta

1. theta

When calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal,___ 1. they cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules to fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron. 2.the inside of the receiving neuron becomes more positive. 3. they cause an action potential in the sending neuron. 4. neurotransmitter molecules are quickly removed from the synaptic cleft. 5. the inside of the receiving neuron becomes more negative. Submit

1. they cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules to fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron.

Which of the following best describes the hypothalamus? 1. visceral control center of the body. 2. relay station for the special senses. 3. gateway to the cerebellum. 4. somatic motor control center.

1. visceral control center of the body. Explanation: The hypothalamus is the main visceral control center of the body and is vitally important to overall body homeostasis. Its chief homeostatic roles include controlling the autonomic nervous system; controlling endocrine system function; regulating the sleep-wake cycle, body temperature, hunger, and thirst; and initiating physical responses to emotions.

The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________. 1. visceral sensory area 2. vestibular cortex 3. olfactory cortex 4. gustatory cortex

1. visceral sensory area

At which membrane potential, given the graphs shown, do a sufficient number of the voltage-gated Na+ channels start to open? (flip) 1. -50 mV 2. -60 mV 3. -70 mV 4. -80 mV

2. -60 mV Explanation: The membrane potential at which the voltage-gated Na+ channels open would be −60 mV.

Which of the following is false or incorrect? 1. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane. 2. A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal. 3. An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold.

2. A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.

____:Secreted by preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. 1. Norepinephrine (NE) 2. Acetycholine (ACh)

2. Acetycholine (ACh)

Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________. 1. motor nerves 2. afferent nerves 3. mixed nerves 4. efferent nerves

2. Afferent nerves

Select the correct statement regarding chemical synapses. 1. Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons terminals of cells. 2. An action potential reaching the axon terminal causes a chemical signal to be transmitted across the synaptic cleft to the postsynaptic cell. 3. The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled. 4. Cells with gap junctions use chemical synapses.

2. An action potential reaching the axon terminal causes a chemical signal to be transmitted across the synaptic cleft to the postsynaptic cell.

Select all that apply: What characteristic does a spinocerebellar tract neuron share with a sensory neuron originating in the quadriceps femoris? 1. Both neurons lack myelin sheathing. 2. Both neurons carry afferent information. 3. Both neurons pass through the dorsal root ganglion. 4. Both neurons interface with gray matter nuclei.

2. Both neurons carry afferent information.

What Ensures coordination and balance. 1. Thalamus 2. Cerebellum 3. Brain stem 4. Cerebrum 5. Hypothalamus

2. Cerebellum

____ Can result from impacted cerumen. 1. Sensorineural deafness 2. Conduction deafness 3. Tinnitus

2. Conduction deafness

_____ Can result from the fusion of the auditory ossicles. 1. Sensorineural deafness 2. Conduction deafness 3. Tinnitus

2. Conduction deafness

_____ One of the most common results of otitis media. 1. Sensorineural deafness 2. Conduction deafness 3. Tinnitus

2. Conduction deafness

Which of the following is the best explanation for our perception of color? 1. As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell. 2. Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light. 3. The foveae are densely packed with cones. 4. Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment.

2. Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.

_____: This drug binds to opioid receptors, which normally bind endorphins. This decreases pain and causes euphoria. 1. Ecstasy (MDMA) 2. Herion 3. Cocaine 4. Alcohol

2. Herion

In which type of axon will velocity of action potential conduction be the fastest? 1. Unmyelinated axons with the largest diameter. 2. Myelinated axons with the largest diameter. 3. Myelinated axons with the smallest diameters. 4. Unmyelinated axons of the shortest length.

2. Myelinated axons with the largest diameter. Explanation: The large diameter facilitates the flow of depolarizing current through the cytoplasm. The myelin sheath insulates the axons and prevents current from leaking across the plasma membrane.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? 1. Vitamin A supplements can sometimes cure nyctalopia because vitamin A can be converted into retinal. 2. Nyctalopia affects vision in the fovea centralis, resulting in impaired vision. 3. Retinitis pigmentosa is a disorder in which the discs released from rods are not properly phagocytized. 4. All of the listed responses are false.

2. Nyctalopia affects vision in the fovea centralis, resulting in impaired vision. Explanation: Nyctalopia (night blindness) occurs due to the loss of normal rod function. Few rods are present in the fovea centralis.

____Chemically sensitive cilia are found in this structure. 1. Macula 2. Olfactory epithelium 3. Crista ampullaris 4. Taste buds

2. Olfactory epithelium

Which of the following does NOT describe the process of summation? 1. One EPSP and one IPSP cancel each other out. 2. One EPSP fails to bring the cell to threshold. 3. Two EPSPs occur close enough in time to bring the cell to threshold. 4. Two EPSPs are generated at the same time by two separate synapses, bringing the cell to threshold.

2. One EPSP fails to bring the cell to threshold. Explanation: This statement is true, but summation considers the action of multiple synaptic potentials working on a cell simultaneously.

____:Decreases heart rate. 1. Sympathetic 2. Parasympathetic

2. Parasympathetic

____:Known to be active during rest and digest responses. 1. Sympathetic 2. Parasympathetic

2. Parasympathetic

_____: Stimulates ciliary muscles of the eye, which makes the lens bulge for close vision. 1. Sympathetic 2. Parasympathetic

2. Parasympathetic

______: Maintenance functions. 1. Sympathetic 2. Parasympathetic

2. Parasympathetic

____: Intermediate relay for incoming and outgoing neurons. 1. Pre-command level 2. Projection level 3. Segmental level

2. Projection level

Nutrients are delivered and waste products are carried away from the cells of the posterior segment of the eye by blood vessels. However, the cells in the cornea and lens (in the anterior segment) are avascular. Which is the best explanation for how these cells are maintained? 1. These cells, like the cells of the corneal layer of the integument are not living cells. 2. The aqueous humor is continuously replenished and flows from the ciliary process to drain in the scleral venous sinus. 3. The metabolic activity of these cells is very low. They produce little waste and need few nutrients. 4. The nutrients and waste products of the anterior segment diffuse into and through the vitreous humor of the posterior segment.

2. The aqueous humor is continuously replenished and flows from the ciliary process to drain in the scleral venous sinus.

In a lab you are conducting tests with various chemicals and neurotransmitter receptors. You notice that exposed frog muscle cells depolarize when you add the chemical nicotine to the acetylcholine (ACh) receptors. What does this tell us about the relationship between neurotransmitters and their receptors? 1. The effect of a neurotransmitter is based on the properties of the neurotransmitter more than the receptor. 2. The effect of a neurotransmitter is based on the properties of the receptor more than the neurotransmitter. 3. Neurotransmitter receptors only bind specifically with their neurotransmitter. 4. The response generated by a receptor is very broad in nature.

2. The effect of a neurotransmitter is based on the properties of the receptor more than the neurotransmitter. Explanation: This is true; also consider that in the neuromuscular junction, ACh receptors are excitatory, but in the heart muscle, ACh receptors are inhibitory.

You discover that a new chemical compound interacts with K+ voltage-dependent channels. What would be the effect on a neuron if the chemical came into contact with the axonal membrane? 1. The cell would be unable to generate a resting potential. 2. The neuron would be unable to repolarize. 3. The cell would be unable to depolarize. 4. The cell would die.

2. The neuron would be unable to repolarize. Explanation: This is true; K+ is used to repolarize the membrane after Na+ rushes into the membrane.

Which of the following best describes the function of the iris? 1. refracts light through the pupil. 2. controls amount of light entering eye. 3. gives the eye its color. 4. adjusts the shape of the lens.

2. controls amount of light entering eye.

Humans can smell as many as 10,000 different odors but have significantly fewer types of olfactory receptors. Which of the following is the best explanation for why humans can distinguish so many smells? 1. Taste receptors that are active at the same time influence the subtlety of what we smell. 2. The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once. 3. The belief that we can smell so many different distinct odors is a psychological process referred to as an uncinate fit or olfactory hallucination. 4. The olfactory pathway travels to location in the brain in which memories are formed and we simply mix this new sensory information with old memories.

2. The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once.

What is the membrane that transmits sound vibrations to the auditory ossicles. 1. cochlear duct 2. Tympanic membrane 3. vestibule 4. Spiral organ (of Corti)

2. Tympanic membrane

The parasympathetic tone ________. 1. prevents unnecessary heart deceleration. 2. determines normal activity of the urinary tract. 3. causes blood pressure to rise. 4. accelerates activity of the digestive tract.

2. determines normal activity of the urinary tract.

If the optic chiasma is destroyed but the rest of the visual pathway to the brain is not damaged, the result would be ______. 1. loss of depth perception. 2. loss of peripheral vision on both the far right and far left sides of the visual field. 3. inability to focus on objects in the center of the visual field. 4. loss of three-dimensional vision in the central region of the visual field.

2. loss of peripheral vision on both the far right and far left sides of the visual field. Explanation: At the optic chiasm, optic nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each retina cross to the opposite side. The lens system reverses all images so that the medial half of each retina receives light rays from the most lateral part of the visual field and the lateral retina receives images from the most medial visual field. Thus, damage to the optic chiasma results in loss of peripheral vision from the far left and far right of the visual field.

Which is NOT a function of a multimodal area of the brain? 1. recognizing someone's face in a crowded room. 2. maintaining body homeostasis via the interaction of the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine glands. 3. learning new concepts and relating them to previous experiences and previously learned ideas. 4.becoming fearful or nervous when on a high ladder.

2. maintaining body homeostasis via the interaction of the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine glands. Expl: Autonomic processes are generally handled by nuclei in the brain stem and diencephalon. Multimodal areas deal with consciously perceived sensations and impressions of the cerebral cortex.

Which type of sensory receptor allows us to feel an insect landing on our skin? 1. chemoreceptor 2. mechanoreceptor 3. nociceptor 4. thermoreceptor

2. mechanoreceptor Explanation: Mechanoreceptors respond to mechanical force such as pressure, vibration, stretch, and touch, allowing us to feel an insect landing on our skin.

____ An inflammation of the lining of the middle ear. 1. Glaucoma 2. otitis media 3. Conduction deafness 4. Night blindness

2. otitis media

If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is ________. 1. a small portion of light always enters the other eye. 2. sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain. 3. information from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes. 4. This, in fact, does not occur; information from both eyes is always separated.

2. sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain

Which of the following is not an autonomic nervous system (ANS) function? 1. increasing heart rate 2. skeletal muscle reflex 3. gland secretion 4. emptying the bladder

2. skeletal muscle reflex Explanation: The somatic nervous system stimulates skeletal muscle, whereas the ANS innervates cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands.

Which body locations typically lack proprioceptors? 1. connective tissues covering bones and muscles. 2. skin surface. 3. tendons and ligaments 4.skeletal muscles

2. skin surface. Explanation: The skin surface does not contain proprioceptors. Proprioceptors receive stimuli from deeper within the body than the skin surface.

The "fight or flight" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. 1. parasympathetic division 2. sympathetic division 3. somatic division 4. peripheral division

2. sympathetic division

Which part of the CNS sorts almost all sensory information ascending to the cerebral cortex? 1. mesencephalon 2. thalamus 3. hypothalamus 4. pons

2. thalamus Explanation: Afferent impulses from all senses and all parts of the body converge on the thalamus and synapse with at least one of its nuclei. The thalamus— which sorts out and edits these afferent signals before relaying them to the appropriate cortical areas—is considered the gateway to the cerebral cortex. In summary, the thalamus plays a key role in mediating sensation, motor activities, cortical arousal, learning, and memory.

As you start working out, you notice that your heart rate and breathing rate start to increase. Which division of your nervous system is generating this response? Be as specific as possible. 1. the afferent division of the nervous system 2. the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system 3. the somatic nervous system 4. the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

2. the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. Explanation: The sympathetic division of the autonomic, or involuntary, nervous system consists of visceral motor nerve fibers that regulate the activity of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and glands. This division is responsible for generating actions required during activity.

A knee-jerk reflex that is unusually strong may be caused by ______. 1. inhibition of reciprocal inhibition 2. transmission of excitatory signals from the brain to the neurons that form the femoral nerve. 3. suppression of muscle spindle activity in the lower limb. 4. enhancement of activity in the antagonistic muscles.

2. transmission of excitatory signals from the brain to the neurons that form the femoral nerve. Explanation: The femoral nerve innervates all of the muscles that act to extend the knee (quadriceps).

Assume you have a membrane with only potassium leakage channels. The RMP is -90mV. Predict the RMP if we add Na+ leakage channels. The most likely RMP value of Na+ is __________. 1. -50 mV 2. -90 mV 3. -70 mV 4. +90 mV 5. +70 mV

3. -70 mV

Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane? 1. Specific potassium gates will open. 2. Specific sodium gates will open. 3. A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium. 4.Sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open.

3. A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.

What Produces automatic behaviors necessary for survival. 1. Thalamus 2. Cerebellum 3. Brain stem 4. Cerebrum 5. Hypothalamus

3. Brain stem

Which of the following statements is true? 1. Contraction of the ciliary muscles is required for myopic individuals to clearly see distant objects. 2. Relaxation of the ciliary muscles is required for hyperopic individuals to clearly see nearby objects. 3. Contraction of the ciliary muscles is required for hyperopic individuals to clearly see distant objects. 4. All of the listed responses are true.

3. Contraction of the ciliary muscles is required for hyperopic individuals to clearly see distant objects. Explanation: People with hyperopia (farsighted) can see distant objects because their ciliary muscles are in a state of continuous contraction that increases the refraction power of the lens and focuses images on the retina.

_____ Hair cells receptive to changes in dynamic equilibrium are found in this structure. 1. Macula 2. Olfactory epithelium 3. Crista ampullaris 4. Taste buds

3. Crista ampullaris

Select the correct statement about equilibrium. 1. Due to dynamic equilibrium, movement can be perceived if rotation of the body continues at a constant rate. 2. Hair cells involved in both static and dynamic equilibrium hyperpolarize only, resulting in an increased rate of impulse transmission. 3. Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration. 4. The weight of the endolymph contained within the semicircular canals against the maculae is responsible for static equilibrium.

3. Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.

Which of these statements is NOT correct regarding our limbic system? 1. Your amygdala judges facial expressions for danger. 2. The cingulate gyrus helps you express your emotional state. 3. Sights often create strong emotional responses. 4.Emotional states can alter our blood pressure.

3. Sights often create strong emotional responses. Explanation: Your sense of smell is more directly attached to your limbic system and is, therefore, more likely to cause emotional responses.

Select the correct statement about olfaction. 1. Olfactory receptors have a high degree of specificity toward a single type of chemical. 2. Substances must be volatile and hydrophobic in order to activate olfactory receptors. 3. Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain. 4. Olfactory adaptation is only due to fading of receptor cell response.

3. Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? 1. Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers. 2. Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS; parasympathetic ganglia are close to the visceral organs served. 3. Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar. 4. Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers.

3. Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.

Which of the following statements about the cerebellum is NOT correct? 1. The cerebellum plays a role maintaining your balance. 2. Damage to the cerebellum could affect posture. 3. The cerebellum generates conscious motor commands. 4. The cerebellum has a cortex and homunculus, just like the motor cortex.

3. The cerebellum generates conscious motor commands. Explan: The cerebellum does not operate at the conscious level of processing.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation? 1. A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold. 2. The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor's receptive field. 3. The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential. 4.The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor.

3. The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential.

The light of dawn and the buzz of an alarm clock lead to wakefulness through the ________. 1. basal nuclei 2. limbic system 3. reticular activating system 4.cerebellar peduncles

3. reticular activating system.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for something to be tasted? 1. The tastant must contact gustatory hairs. 2. The tastant must diffuse into a taste pore. 3. The tastant must contact the basal epithelial cells of the taste buds. 4. The tastant must dissolve in saliva.

3. The tastant must contact the basal epithelial cells of the taste buds. Explanation: For a chemical to be tasted, it must dissolve in saliva, diffuse into a taste pore, and contact the gustatory hairs. The tastant does not contact the basal epithelial cells, which act as stem cells, dividing and differentiating into new gustatory epithelial cells.

Receptors that respond to changes in room temperature are found in the skin. Which of the following pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described above? 1. mechanoreceptors that are also exteroceptors. 2. thermoreceptors that are also interoceptors. 3. thermoreceptors that are also exteroceptors. 4. mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors.

3. Thermoreceptors that are also exteroceptors.

The depolarization phase of an action potential is punctuated by the closing of inactivation gates in the voltage gated sodium ion channels. All of the following are consequences of this inactivation except one. Choose the statement below that is not a consequence of the closing of inactivating gates. 1. This allows for the one way transmission of action potential down the axon. 2. This stops the depolarization of the axon membrane. 3. This allows for the efflux (diffusion out) of potassium ions, resulting in the repolarization of the cell. 4. This limits the frequency of action potentials down the axon.

3. This allows for the efflux (diffusion out) of potassium ions, resulting in the repolarization of the cell.

____A possible side effect of medications such as aspirin. 1. Sensorineural deafness 2. Conduction deafness 3. Tinnitus

3. Tinnitus

Which area of the cerebrum is responsible for understanding written or spoken words? 1. somatosensory association cortex 2. the primary visual cortex 3. Wernicke's area 4. Broca's area

3. Wernicke's area Explantion: Wernicke's area, usually found in the posterior area of the left cerebral hemisphere, combines the functions of the auditory association area and the visual association area to understand oral and visual language.

Which of the following does NOT describe the ANS? 1. general visceral motor system. 2. a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells. 3. a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells 4. a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands.

3. a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

Which of the following is LEAST likely to explain why a person has anosmia? 1. a buildup of thick mucus in the nasal passages due to a respiratory infection. 2. a broken nose. 3. being young. 4. nasal polyps.

3. being young. Explanation: The sense of smell decreases with age, secondary to decreased ability to regenerate olfactory neurons and a decrease in mitral cell number in the olfactory bulb.

Which eye structure is primarily responsible for making the adjustments required to focus on objects both near and far? 1. iris 2. cornea 3. ciliary muscles 4. sclera

3. ciliary muscles Explanation: Ciliary muscles change the shape of the lens to direct images onto the retina.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a coma but is NOT a characteristic of sleep? 1. absence of brain waves ("flat EEG"). 2. irreversible brain damage. 3. continuously reduced mitochondrial activity in brain neurons. 4. All of the listed responses are correct.

3. continuously reduced mitochondrial activity in brain neurons. Explanation: Mitochondria are cytoplasmic organelles that produce ATP to provide energy for other cellular activities through the consumption of oxygen and glucose. Brain mitochondrial activity during sleep is similar to activity during the waking state, but mitochondrial activity is reduced during a coma.

When neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron, 1. ion channels in the plasma membrane of the sending neuron open. 2. vesicles in the synaptic terminal fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron. 3. ion channels in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron open. 4. the receiving neuron becomes more positive inside. 5. the receiving neuron becomes more negative inside.

3. ion channels in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron open.

Cataracts typically affect which eye structure? 1. cornea 2. retina 3. lens 4. ciliary muscles

3. lens Explanation: A cataract occurs when the lens becomes cloudy.

Which of the following is correctly matched? 1. posterior association area: understand balance. 2. gustatory cortex; sense of hearing. 3. limbic association area: sense of danger. 4. vestibular cortex; pattern recognition.

3. limbic association area: sense of danger. Explanation: The limbic association area is part of the limbic system, which control our emotions and fears.

Damage to the medial portion of the optic chiasm, cause by a pituitary tumor, would lead to __________. 1. blindness in the right half of the visual field. 2. blindness in the left half of the visual field. 3. loss of peripheral vision. 4. loss of central vision

3. loss of peripheral vision. Explanation: If you look at the diagram of the visual pathway on page 568, images from your right peripheral visual field land on the left medial retina and vice versa. The ganglion cells from the medial retina of each retina cross over at the optic chiasm. If there were damage at the medial portion of the chiasm, it would block the flow of this peripheral field of view.

Which of the following could NOT be seen as one looks into the eye with an ophthalmoscope? 1. macula lutea 2. fovea centralis 3. optic chiasma 4.optic disc

3. optic chiasma

Second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________. 1. medulla 2. somatosensory cortex 3. thalamus 4. spinal cord

3. thalamus

____: This drug mainly increases GABA to have an inhibitory effect on the brain. 1. Ecstasy (MDMA) 2. Herion 3. Cocaine 4. Alcohol

4. Alcohol

What helps maintain the intraocular pressure; located in the anterior part of the eye? 1. Fovea centalis 2. lens 3. retina 4. Aqueous humor

4. Aqueous humor

Your patient's CT scan demonstrates a cerebral vascular accident causing damage to the inferior and posterior portions of her left cerebral hemisphere. Your patient is right-handed. What deficits should you expect? 1. Cortical blindness 2. Deafness and difficulty maintaining balance. 3. Difficulty with movement on the left side of her body and difficulty with speech. 4. Difficulty with movement on the right side of her body and difficulty with speech.

4. Difficulty with movement on the right side of her body and difficulty with speech. Explanation: Broca's area, which controls the production of speech is found in the left frontal lobe in 90% of right-handed people. Her primary motor cortex for the right side of her body is in the posterior portion of her left frontal lobe.

What changes occur to voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels at the peak of depolarization? 1. Activation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close, while inactivation gates of voltage-gated K+‎ channels open. 2. Activation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close, while activation gates of voltage-gated K+‎ channels open. 3. Inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close, while inactivation gates of voltage-gated K+‎ channels open. 4. Inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close, while activation gates of voltage-gated K+‎ channels open.

4. Inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close, while activation gates of voltage-gated K+‎ channels open. Explanation: Closing of voltage-gated channels is time dependent. Typically, the inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close about a millisecond after the activation gates open. At the same time, the activation gates of voltage-gated K+‎ channels open.

Tactile sensation is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch, and vibration. Which of the following is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation? 1. thermoreceptors 2. nociceptors 3. proprioceptors 4. mechanoreceptors

4. Mechanoreceptors

In a person who is color-blind, which of the following would you most expect to see? 1. a loss of functions in the rods of their retina. 2. a loss of their peripheral vision. 3. an inability to regenerate 11-cis-retinal after bleaching. 4. absence of green or red cones in their foveae.

4. absence of green or red cones in their foveae.

Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________. 1. inferior colliculus. 2. lateral geniculate of the thalamus. 3. lateral horn of the spinal cord. 4. hypothalamus.

4. hypothalamus.

In a 30-year-old man who has red-green color blindness, light having a wavelength of 560 nm is perceived as being green. This man ______. 1. cannot easily detect green light due to the absence of red cones. 2. cannot easily detect green light due to the absence of green cones. 3. perceives that red light has a red color. 4. perceives that red light has a green color.

4. perceives that red light has a green color. Explanation: Green cones normally respond to light around wavelengths 530 nm but red cones respond to light at 560 nm. In people with red-green color blindness, red and green are seen as the same color due to the overlap of the wavelengths. These people may have a deficit or complete lack of red or green cones.

Which of the following is NOT a type of circuit? 1. reverberating circuits 2. diverging circuits 3. converging circuits 4. pre-synaptic circuits

4. pre-synaptic circuits Explanation: Correct, pre-synaptic circuits do not exist.

___: this is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter and is important in memory and learning. 1. Serotonin 2. Dopamine 3. GABA 4. Norepinephrine 5. Glutatmate 6. Endorphins

5. Glutatmate

What is the visceral command center? 1. Thalamus 2. Cerebellum 3. Brain stem 4. Cerebrum 5. Hypothalamus

5. Hypothalamus

Which of the following is characteristic of the parasympathetic division? 1. inhibited digestion and elimination. 2. increased cognitive functioning. 3. increased heart rate. 4. dilated airways. 5. None of the above

5. None of the above Explanation: none of the answers above accurately reflect characteristics of the parasympathetic division of the ANS.

Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it? 1. bitter-alkaloids. 2. sweet-organic substances such as sugar and some lead salts. 3. salty-metal ions. 4. sour-acids. 5. umami-triglycerides and fatty acids.

5. umami-triglycerides and fatty acids.

_____: these peptides decrease the sensation of pain, and are often known as the "body's natural opiates." 1. Serotonin 2. Dopamine 3. GABA 4. Norepinephrine 5. Glutatmate 6. Endorphins

6. Endorphins

DIAGRAM: What ion is entering the axon terminal at A, and what effect does it have? 1. Ca2+, which then causes release of neurotransmitter from the axon terminal. 2. neurotransmitter, which then causes the presynaptic neuron to form an action potential. 3. Na+, which then causes repolarization of the axon terminal's membrane. 4.K+, which then causes increased production of neurotransmitter.

Ca2+, which then causes release of neurotransmitter from the axon terminal Explanation: Calcium ion channels open when the membrane is depolarized, and the inflow of Ca2+ leads to the release of neurotransmitters from synaptic vesicles.

What is the Collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal? 1. Filum terminale 2. Cauda equina 3. Conus medullaris 4. Cervial enlargement

Cauda equina

What is the Inferior point of termination of the spinal cord in an adult? 1. Filum terminale 2. Cauda equina 3. Conus medullaris 4. Cervial enlargement

Conus medullaris

___: Different types of sensory input can have the same ultimate effect.

Converging Circuit

___: Involved in activating fibers of a skeletal muscle such as the biceps muscle.

Diverging Circuit

True or false? Unlike the sympathetic division, the parasympathetic division synapses with the adrenal medulla.

False Explanation: The sympathetic division synapses at the adrenal medulla which enhances the sympathetic responses.

What Anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx? 1. Filum terminale 2. Cauda equina 3. Conus medullaris 4. Cervial enlargement

Filum terminale

Which lobe is for Motor speech (Broca's) area?

Frontal lobe

Which lobe is for Premotor cortex?

Frontal lobe

Which lobe is for Primary (somatic) motor cortex?

Frontal lobe

Which lobe is for Seat of intelligence, abstract reasoning.

Frontal lobe

Which lobe is for Gustatory (taste) area.

Insula

____ : Tactile corpuscle

Meissner corpuscle

What do the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions have in common? 1. The ganglia from both divisions are located in or near visceral organs. 2. Most nerve fibers from both divisions share the same sites of origin. 3. Most nerve fibers from both divisions innervate many of the same effectors. 4. The preganglionic nerve fibers in both divisions are of similar length.

Most nerve fibers from both divisions innervate many of the same effectors. Explanation: The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions both innervate many common smooth muscles, organs, and glands.

What is the stage that, is Very easy to awaken; EEG shows alpha waves; may even deny being asleep. 1. NREM stage 2 2. REM 3. NREM stage 1 4. NREM stage 3 5.NREM stage 4

NREM stage 1

What stage is Typified by sleep spindles. 1. NREM stage 2 2. REM 3. NREM stage 1 4. NREM stage 3 5.NREM stage 4

NREM stage 2

What is the stage that, Theta and delta waves begin to appear. 1. NREM stage 2 2. REM 3. NREM stage 1 4. NREM stage 3 5.NREM stage 4

NREM stage 3

Which lobe is for visual area?

Occipital lobe

Which lobe is for Primary somatosensory cortex?

Parietal lobe

What is the stage that, Indicates by movement of the eyes under the lids; dreaming occurs. 1. NREM stage 2 2. REM 3. NREM stage 1 4. NREM stage 3 5.NREM stage 4

REM

What stage may allow the brain to work through emotional problems in dream imagery? 1. NREM stage 2 2. REM 3. NREM stage 1 4. NREM stage 3 5.NREM stage 4

REM

___: Involved in control of rhythmic activities such as breathing.

Reverberating circuit

______: Bulbous corpuscle

Ruffini endings

Which lobe is for auditory area?

Temporal lobe

True or false? A disturbance of posture, muscle tremors at rest, and uncontrolled muscle contraction are all symptoms of damage to the basal nuclei.

True

Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open? 1. voltage-gated potassium channels. 2. voltage-gated sodium channels. 3. chemically-gated chloride channels. 4. voltage-gated calcium channels.

voltage-gated potassium channels

Release neurotransmitters into the extracellular space.

Axon terminal

The resting membrane potential is maintained by Na+-K+ pumps that actively transport 1.) _____ into and 2.___ out of the cell.

1. K+ 2. Na+

Events that occur during synaptic activity are listed here, but they are arranged in an incorrect order. Choose the correct order of these events below: (a) Voltage-gated calcium channels open. (b) Neurotransmitter binds to receptors. (c) Action potential arrives at axon terminal. (d) Neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft. (e) Neurotransmitter released into synaptic cleft. (f) Graded potential generated in postsynaptic cell. 1. (c) Action potential arrives at axon terminal. (a) Voltage-gated calcium channels open. (e) Neurotransmitter released into synaptic cleft. (b) Neurotransmitter binds to receptors. (f) Graded potential generated in postsynaptic cell. (d) Neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft. 2. (c) Action potential arrives at axon terminal. (a) Voltage-gated calcium channels open. (e) Neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft. (d) Neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft. (b) Neurotransmitter binds to receptors. (f) Graded potential generated in postsynaptic cell. 3. (a) Voltage-gated calcium channels open. (e) Neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft. (c) Action potential arrives at axon terminal. (b) Neurotransmitter binds to receptors. (f) Graded potential generated in postsynaptic cell. (d) Neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft. 4. (d) Neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft. (b) Neurotransmitter binds to receptors. (f) Graded potential generated in postsynaptic cell. (c) Action potential arrives at axon terminal. (a) Voltage-gated calcium channels open. (e) Neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft.

1. (c) Action potential arrives at axon terminal. (a) Voltage-gated calcium channels open. (e) Neurotransmitter released into synaptic cleft. (b) Neurotransmitter binds to receptors. (f) Graded potential generated in postsynaptic cell. (d) Neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft. Explanation: The correct sequence starts with a neural signal at the presynaptic cell, followed by the release of neurotransmitter, the creation of a graded potential in the postsynaptic cell, and degradation of the neurotransmitters. Neurotransmitters transfer information between a neuron and a postsynaptic cell. This process gets a "message" across a physical separation much like sending a text to your friend who is across town.

List the order of the events involved in generation of an action potential.

1. Threshold stimulus Na+ channels open. 2. Na+ influx depolarization. 3. Na+ channels close K+ channels open. 4. K+ efflux Repolarization. 5. Hyperpolarization K+ channels close. Explanation: Action potentials are all-or-nothing events. Once an action potential is generated at the initial segment, it will continue to propagate (move) along the entire length of the axon.

Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________. 1. ganglia 2.nerves 3.tracts 4.nuclei

1. ganglia

Which of the following is NOT true of graded potentials? 1. They are short-lived. 2. They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point. 3. They can form on receptor endings. 4.They can be called postsynaptic potentials.

2. They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.

What division of the nervous system is most specifically responsible for voluntary motor control? 1. parasympathetic nervous system 2. somatic nervous system. 3. central nervous system. 4.sympathetic nervous system.

2. somatic nervous system. Explanation: The somatic nervous system is composed of somatic motor nerve fibers that conduct impulses from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles. It is often referred to as the voluntary nervous system because it allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles.

Which is the main receptive portion of the neuron? 1. the axon. 2. the cell body or soma. 3. the dendrite. 4.the synapse.

3. the dendrite. Explanation: Dendrites are the main receptive or input regions, providing an enormous surface area for receiving signals from other neurons.

You are going to record RMP from a cell using an electrode. You place your electrode and record a resting membrane potential every millisecond. You record an initial value of -70mV; however, over time you notice that your recordings become more and more positive until the RMP reaches 0mV. Assuming that Na+ and K+ are the major determinants of RMP in this cell, which of the following could best explain your results? 1. The cell's Na+ leakage channels have stopped functioning. 2. The cell is becoming depleted of K+. 3. The cell is becoming depleted of Na+. 4. The cell's K+ leakage channels have stopped functioning. 5. he cell's Na+- K+ ATPase pumps have stopped functioning.

5. The cell's Na+- K+ ATPase pumps have stopped functioning. explanation: Since the RMP eventually becomes zero, the concentration of ions on either side of the membrane would be roughly equal. Without active processes to maintain concentration gradients, we would expect the concentration of ions on either side of the membrane to equilibrate.

Plasma membrane exhibits voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels.

Conducting Region

Area where nerve impulse is generated.

trigger zone

What is the executive suite? 1. Thalamus 2. Cerebellum 3. Brain stem 4. Cerebrum 5. Hypothalamus

4. Cerebrum

An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are) the ________. 1. cupula 2. scala media 3. otoliths 4. spiral organ (of Corti)

3. otoliths

____ A condition often leading to blindness due to increased intraocular pressure. 1. Glaucoma 2. otitis media 3. Conduction deafness 4. Night blindness

1. Glaucoma

Which movement of ions produces EPSPs in cochlea hair cells? 1. Influx of K+ and Ca++ 2. Efflux of Ca++ 3. Influx of Na+ 4. Efflux of K+

1. Influx of K+ and Ca++

Where do most action potentials originate? 1. Initial segment 2. Axon terminal 3. Cell body 4.Nodes of Ranvier

1. Initial segment Explanation: The first part of the axon is known as the initial segment. The initial segment is adjacent to the tapered end of the cell body, known as the axon hillock.

Which receptors respond to stimuli within the body? 1. interoceptors 2. photoreceptors 3. proprioceptors 4. exteroceptors

1. Interoceptors

You have a patient experiencing an essential tremor, which makes it hard for him to dress and feed himself. Imaging has detected a lesion in the basal nuclei. How would you best explain the function of these cerebral structures to him? 1. "This group of cells monitors all of our outgoing motor signals and makes sure there isn't any excessive activity. Your injury is preventing them from doing their job." 2. "The damage is preventing you from sending signals to your muscles." 3. "These structures control how many impulses you send to your muscles." 4. "Your brain is not receiving the proper input from your muscles."

1. "This group of cells monitors all of our outgoing motor signals and makes sure there isn't any excessive activity. Your injury is preventing them from doing their job." Explanation: You remembered that one of the primary roles of these nuclei is prevent or inhibit unwanted muscle contractions.

Which accessory eye structure is not correctly matched with one of its functions? 1. tarsal glands: produce tears 2. conjunctiva: protect eye from drying out. 3. palpebrae: protect the eye 4. lacrimal glands: destroy bacteria.

1. 1. tarsal glands: produce tears. Explanation: The tarsal glands are embedded in the tarsal plates, and their ducts open at the eyelid edge just posterior to the eyelashes. These modified sebaceous glands produce an oily secretion that lubricates the eyelid and the eye and prevents the eyelids from sticking together. They do not produce tears.

You realize that many of your geriatric patients have visual problems that impact their care. Which item is NOT a common cause of decreased visual acuity in the elderly? 1. Abnormal production of vitreous humor. 2. Macular degeneration. 3. Presbyopia. 4. Cataracts

1. Abnormal production of vitreous humor Explanation: Vitreous humor forms during embryonic life and lasts for a lifetime. By contrast, production of aqueous humor is ongoing. If its drainage is blocked, glaucoma results and may cause serious damage to the eye.

What is the order of events that occur at a synapse.

1. An action potential arrives at the synaptic terminal. 2. Calcium channels open, and calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal. 3. Vesicles containing neurotransmitter fuse with the plasma membrane of the sending neuron. 4. Neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the synaptic cleft. 5. The neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron, causing ion channels there to open.

What is the role of calcium in synaptic activity? 1. Calcium influx into the synaptic terminal causes vesicle fusion. 2. Calcium diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. 3. Calcium influx into the axon causes an action potential to propagate into the synaptic terminal. 4. Calcium degrades neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft.

1. Calcium influx into the synaptic terminal causes vesicle fusion. Explanation: When an action potential reaches the synaptic terminal, voltage-gated channels open and calcium enters the cell. Calcium causes vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane and release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft.

Select all that apply! You are removing a hot pan of cookies from the oven, using a pot holder. Suddenly, you feel a surge of heat through the pot holder. Why don't you react by dropping the baking pan and spilling cookies all over the floor? 1. Cortical integration centers override the spinal reflex. 2. The limbic system inhibits the fear of being burned. 3. Sensory input is temporarily suspended to the spinal reflex center. 4. Efferent signals by cord ventral cord neurons are interrupted.

1. Cortical integration centers override the spinal reflex.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? 1. Damage to the primary (somatic) motor cortex results in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and all reflexive contractions. 2. Damage to the premotor cortex results in loss of motor skills programmed in that area but movement is still possible. 3. Damage to the visual association area can result in an inability to comprehend what is being seen. 4. Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in the inability to interpret pitch, loudness, and location.

1. Damage to the primary (somatic) motor cortex results in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and all reflexive contractions.

Select all that apply! Uncle Mel suffers from depression and is having trouble sleeping. Some medications can increase the amount of neurotransmitter in the synapse by preventing its re-uptake into the presynaptic neuron or its degradation. This increases the level of the neurotransmitter in the synapse and prolongs its effects. Select which neurotransmitters you think might be a good target for anti-depressant drugs. 1. Dopamine 2. Norepinephrine 3. Glutamate 4. GABA 5. Endorphins 6. Serotonin

1. Dopamine 2. Norepinephrine 6. Serotonin

____: This drug causes an increase in happiness and feeling good. It blocks the removal of serotonin from the synapse. 1. Ecstasy (MDMA) 2. Herion 3. Cocaine 4. Alcohol

1. Ecstasy (MDMA)

Select the true statement regarding first-order neurons. 1. First-order neuron cell bodies reside in a ganglion. 2.First-order neurons usually ascend directly to the thalamus. 3. First-order neurons descend with motor commands. 4.First-order neurons originate in the CNS.

1. First-order neuron cell bodies reside in a ganglion. Explanation: First-order neurons, whose cell bodies reside in a ganglion (dorsal root or cranial), conduct impulses from the cutaneous receptors of the skin and from proprioceptors to the spinal cord or brain stem, where they synapse with second-order neurons.

What is the area of greatest visual acuity? 1. Fovea centalis 2. lens 3. retina 4. Aqueous humor

1. Fovea centalis

Uncle Mel mentioned having difficulty sleeping. If he was prescribed a medication that targeted serotonin, such as a SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor), it would also help with sleep. There is another chemical secreted in the brain that causes sleepiness. It is characterized as a hormone rather than a neurotransmitter. Name this hormone. 1. Melatonin 2. Glutamate 3. Norepinephrine 4. Insulin

1. Melatonin Explanation: Although a hormone and not a neurotransmitter, melatonin is important for brain function. This hormone is thought to be an antioxidant and protective for the brain. It stimulates sleep and is often taken as a sleep aid.

Which of the following does NOT describe conditions that occur during an action potential? 1. Na+ is used to repolarize the membrane. 2. Na+ enters the cell through voltage-gated channels, causing a reversal of the resting membrane potential. 3. After initial depolarization, K+ now has both an electrical and a chemical gradient drawing it out of the cell. 4. The Na+/K+ pump reestablishes resting concentration gradients.

1. Na+ is used to repolarize the membrane. Explanation: This is false. Initially, K+ leaves the cell through voltage-gated channels. As K+ leaves the cell, the inside of the cell becomes more negative, repolarizing the cell.

How are the olfactory receptors activated? 1. Odorants dissolve in the mucus and bind to receptors. 2. The olfactory tracts transduce signals to the hypothalamus. 3. Olfactory cilia move mucus over the receptors. 4. Mitral cells relay signals to the olfactory bulbs.

1. Odorants dissolve in the mucus and bind to receptors. Explanation: Dissolved odorants stimulate olfactory sensory neurons by binding to receptor proteins in the olfactory cilium membranes. This triggers the opening of cation channels, which results in generation of a receptor potential. Ultimately (assuming threshold stimulation), an action potential is conducted to the first relay station in the olfactory bulb.

___: Controls the outputs of the cortex and regulates motor activity. 1. Pre-command level 2. Projection level 3. Segmental level

1. Pre-command level

___: The cerebellum and basal nuclei. 1. Pre-command level 2. Projection level 3. Segmental level

1. Pre-command level

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the polarization of a neuronal membrane and the formation of a resting membrane potential? 1. Sodium/Potassium pumps maintain concentration gradients; sodium and potassium move down their concentration gradients through leakage channels. 2. A resting potential can be generated without the energy as an input. 3. As sodium leaks into the cell, the inside of the cell becomes more negative. 4.As Na+ leaks across the membrane, that establishes a negative charge inside the membrane.

1. Sodium/Potassium pumps maintain concentration gradients; sodium and potassium move down their concentration gradients through leakage channels. Explanation: Correct. As Na+ leaks into the cell, the Na+/K+ pump actively transports Na+ back out of the neuron to maintain a gradient for Na+.

Transduction refers to conversion of ________. 1. stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential. 2. afferent impulses to efferent impulses. 3. receptor energy to stimulus energy. 4. presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses.

1. Stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential.

____: Collateral ganglia. 1. Sympathetic 2. Parasympathetic

1. Sympathetic

____:Active during fight and flight responses. 1. Sympathetic 2. Parasympathetic

1. Sympathetic

What gives a gateway to the cerebrum? 1. Thalamus 2. Cerebellum 3. Brain stem 4. Cerebrum 5. Hypothalamus

1. Thalamus

Which of the following best describes the Na+ and K+ concentrations across a neuron's plasma membrane? 1. The Na+ concentration is higher outside the cell compared to inside. The K+ concentration is higher inside the cell compared to outside. 2. Both Na+ and K+ concentrations are higher inside the cell compared to outside. 3. Both Na+ and K+ concentrations are higher outside the cell compared to inside. 4. The Na+ concentration is higher inside the cell compared to outside. The K+ concentration is higher outside the cell compared to inside.

1. The Na+ concentration is higher outside the cell compared to inside. The K+ concentration is higher inside the cell compared to outside. Explanation: The Na+-K+ pump constantly transports Na+ and K+ ions in opposite directions. K+ is transported into the cell, which increases the K+ concentration inside the cell. At the same time, Na+ is transported out of the cell, which increases the Na+ concentration outside the cell. Although it's easy to remember that the pump moves ions in opposite directions, remembering which ion goes which way may be more difficult. To help you remember, think PUMPKIN ("PUMP K INto the cell).

What event triggers the generation of an action potential? 1. The membrane potential must depolarize from the resting voltage of -70 mV to a threshold value of -55 mV. 2. The membrane potential must depolarize from the resting voltage of -70 mV to its peak value of +30 mV. 3. The membrane potential must hyperpolarize from the resting voltage of -70 mV to the more negative value of -80 mV. 4.The membrane potential must return to its resting value of -70 mV from the hyperpolarized value of -80 mV.

1. The membrane potential must depolarize from the resting voltage of -70 mV to a threshold value of -55 mV. Explanation: This is the minimum value required to open enough voltage-gated Na+ channels so that depolarization is irreversible.

What opens first in response to a threshold stimulus? 1. Voltage-gated Na+ channels 2. Voltage-gated K+ channels 3. Ligand-gated cation channels 4. Ligand-gated Cl- channels

1. Voltage-gated Na+ channels Explanation: The activation gates of voltage-gated Na+ channels open, and Na+ diffuses into the cytoplasm.

What type of channel on the postsynaptic membrane binds neurotransmitter? 1. a chemically gated channel 2. a leakage channel 3. a mechanically gated channel 4. a voltage-gated channel

1. a chemically gated channel. Explanation: Chemically gated channels bind a specific chemical, which causes the channel to open. At chemical synapses, neurotransmitter molecules are released by the presynaptic neuron and bind to chemically gated channels on the postsynaptic cell membrane. The opening of these channels allows ions to diffuse across the membrane, causing a graded potential in the postsynaptic cell.

What differentiates an autonomic reflex from a somatic reflex? 1. a two-neuron motor pathway 2. an integration center 3. a single sensory neuron in the sensory pathway. 4. presence of a sensory receptor

1. a two-neuron motor pathway. Explanation: Visceral reflex arcs have essentially the same components as somatic reflex arcs--receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, and effector. A key difference is that a visceral reflex arc has two neurons in its (autonomic) motor component, whereas the somatic reflex arc has a single (somatic) motor neuron.

Overlap in the visual fields of our eyes ________. 1. allows us to subconsciously estimate the distance of objects based on the different angles the image strikes our two retinas. 2. is essentially a waste of brain processing for what is essentially the same image. 3. gives us higher visual acuity for small detail by doubling the number of photoreceptors that are being stimulated. 4.leaves a blind spot anterior to the nose and in the lateral fields of vision.

1. allows us to subconsciously estimate the distance of objects based on the different angles the image strikes our two retinas

Which part of the brain is the "executive suite" that controls conscious brain activity? 1. cerebral cortex 2. brain stem 3. cerebellum 4. diencephalon

1. cerebral cortex Explanation: The cerebral cortex is the "executive suite" of the nervous system, where most of our higher-level decision making occurs. It enables us to be aware of ourselves and our sensations, communicate, remember, understand, and consciously initiate voluntary movements.

What is the primary function of cerumen? 1. cleans and lubricates the external auditory canal. 2. prevents water from entering middle ear. 3. lubricates ossicles 4. softens tympanic membrane

1. cleans and lubricates the external auditory canal

What houses the spiral organ (of Corti.)? 1. cochlear duct 2. Tympanic membrane 3. vestibule 4. Spiral organ (of Corti)

1. cochlear duct

Which type of tract connects the two hemispheres of the cerebrum? 1. commissural tracts 2. association tracts 3. projection tracts 4.lateralization tracts

1. commissural tracts Explantion: Commissural tracts, the largest of which is the corpus callosum, connect the cerebral hemispheres.

Which of the following is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury? 1. concussion 2. swelling 3. hemorrhage 4. contusion

1. concussion

During close vision, what actions must the eye take to bring an object into focus? 1. contract the ciliary body. 2. dilate the pupil. 3. relax the ciliary body. 4. change the curvature of the cornea.

1. contract the ciliary body. explanation: Contracting the ciliary body would allow the lens to recoil and bulge, which would enhance focus on close objects.

Which of the following is a function of the parasympathetic division? 1. contracts smooth muscle of the bladder wall and relaxes urethral sphincter. 2. dilates bronchioles 3. increases heart rate and force of contraction. 4. produces "goosebumps".

1. contracts smooth muscle of the bladder wall and relaxes urethral sphincter.

Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________. 1. cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma. 2. pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma. 3. go to the superior colliculus only. 4. divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing.

1. cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma.

Which of the following is NOT a result of parasympathetic stimulation? 1. increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera. 2. dilation of the pupils. 3. elimination of urine. 4. salivation

1. dilation of the pupils.

Which brain structure functions to control the autonomic nervous system and to regulate body temperature? 1. hypothalamus 2. medulla oblongata 3. mammillary body 4. pons

1. hypothalamus

A normal response to sympathetic nervous system activation would most likely include the __________. 1. inhibition of digestive system activity. 2. decrease in heart rate. 3. constriction of bronchioles. 4. increased uptake of glucose from the blood.

1. inhibition of digestive system activity. Explantion: When in an emergency situation, digestion is not a critical body function.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the CSF? 1. initiation of some nerve impulses 2. reduction of brain weight 3. protection from blows 4.nourishment of the brain

1. initiation of some nerve impulses

A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) ________. 1. interneuron 2. afferent neuron 3. efferent neuron 4.glial cell

1. interneuron

Broca's area ________. 1. is considered a motor speech area. 2. is usually found only in the right hemisphere. 3. serves the recognition of complex objects. 4.controls voluntary movements of the eyes.

1. is considered a motor speech area

Which is an exclusively sympathetic function? 1. regulation of pupil size. 2. regulation of body temperature. 3. regulation of cardiac rate. 4. regulation of respiratory rate.

2. regulation of body temperature.

Which of the following would increase the membrane permeability to K+? 1. more K+ leakage channels. 2. a greater concentration gradient for K+. 3. more Na+ leakage channels. 4. more negative membrane potential.

1. more K+ leakage channels. explanation: Adding more leakage channels would provide more pathways through which K+ ions could diffuse. This would increase the membrane's permeability to K+. Imagine a dark room where people wander around aimlessly. Running down the middle of the room is a wall containing a few open doors. As people wander, they bump into the wall. But occasionally, someone wanders through an open door and walks over to the other side. This is analogous to the neuron. The wall is the plasma membrane, the people are K+ ions, and the open doors are the K+ leakage channels. Increasing the number of open doors (K+ leakage channels) increases the wall's permeability. This makes it easier for people to pass through the wall.

Ependymal cells line many open cavities in the central nervous system (CNS). Ependymal cells have cilia on the side of the cell that face these openings. What is the most likely function of these ciliated cells? 1. movement and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. 2. create myelin sheaths for CNS cells. 3. exchange of nutrients between the circulatory system and neurons. 4.act as macrophage cells to destroy microorganisms or neuronal debris.

1. movement and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Explanation: cilia are an indication that the cells they appear on are moving fluids past the surface of the cells.

A molecule that carries information across a synaptic cleft is a___: 1. neurotransmitter. 2. synaptic cleft. 3. sending neuron. 4. synapse. 5. receiving neuron.

1. neurotransmitter. Explanation: Neurotransmitter molecules carry information across a synaptic cleft.

Which receptor pairing below is correct? 1. nicotinic; acetylcholine 2. nicotinic: norepinephrine 3. alpha 1: acetylcholine 4. muscarinic: norepinephrine

1. nicotinic; acetylcholine Explanation: Nicotinic receptors are one of two acetylcholine receptors.

If someone spills very hot coffee (200°F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation? 1. nociceptors 2. thermoreceptors 3. mechanoreceptors 4. chemoreceptors

1. nociceptors

Order each of the following events so that they occur in the proper order, from left to right, with respect to the function of the channels, ion permeability, and changes in membrane potential.

1. opening of volatge-gated Na+ channels. 2. Na+ ion flows into the neuron increases. 3. Depolarization of the membrane to +30 mV. 4. K+ ion flow out of the neurons increases. 5. Repolarization of the membrane.

As sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti), ________. 1. outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane. 2. inner hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane. 3. inner hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium. 4. outer hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium.

1. outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane.

In the brain, vision originates in the rods and cones in the retina. Separate regions of the brain decode basic information, like color, shapes, intensity of light, and there are other regions that decode information like position in space, and awareness of patterns. As you use your visual system, all of these regions are working simultaneously. This simultaneous awareness of all regions working at the same time is due to which processing pattern listed below? 1. parallel processing 2. oscillative processing 3. reflexive processing 4. serial processing

1. parallel processing Explanation: In parallel processing, inputs are segregated into many pathways, and different parts of the neural circuitry deal simultaneously with the information delivered by each pathway. This helps us understand all of the different types of information in our visual fields simultaneously.

Which of the following form(s) the walls of the fourth ventricle? 1. pons, medulla oblongata, and cerebellum. 2. cerebral white matter 3. pineal gland and choroid plexus 4.thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus

1. pons, medulla oblongata, and cerebellum Explantion: The fourth ventricle lies posterior to the pons and medulla and anterior to the cerebellum.

Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________. 1. premotor cortex 2. rubrospinal tracts 3. primary motor cortex 4. spinal cord

1. premotor cortex

In a synapse, neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles located in the __________. 1. presynaptic neuron 2. synaptic cleft 3. postsynaptic neuron

1. presynaptic neuron Explanation: Yes, neurotransmitters are stored in the axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron.

At age 79, Mrs. X is diagnosed with a disorder that severely impairs her logical judgment. Medical imaging techniques show that this has been most likely caused by brain damage in a ______. 1. parietal lobe 2. frontal lobe 3. temporal lobe 4. premotor cortex

2. frontal lobe Explanation: The frontal lobe has areas that control voluntary motor functions, mood, smell, and social judgment.

DIAGRAM FLIP : Part complete You are working on a new medication to selectively kill cancer cells. You test the drug on a culture of normal neurons to check for any side effects. Despite the presence of the drug, a normal resting membrane potential of − 70 mV is maintained. Look at each of the figures below to analyze how the drug might be affecting the neuron. Figure A shows neuron activity under normal, or control, conditions (without the drug). Figure B shows neuron activity that has been altered due to exposure to the drug. Based on these results, the drug is most likely __________. 1. preventing Na+ -gated channels from opening 2. destroying some of the K+ leak channels 3. destroying some of the Na+ leak channels 4. opening voltage-gated K+ channels

1. preventing Na+Na+-gated channels from opening

Which of these activities is most likely driven by parasympathetic innervation? 1. resting and digesting 2. sweating and dilating pupils 3. vigorous physical activity 4. fight-or-flight responses

1. resting and digesting Explanation: The parasympathetic division, sometimes called the "rest and digest" system, keeps body energy use as low as possible, even as it directs vital housekeeping activities like digesting food and eliminating feces and urine.

Which neuron circuit pattern is involved in the control of rhythmic activities such as breathing? 1. reverberating circuit 2. parallel after-discharge circuit 3. diverging circuit 4.converging circuit

1. reverberating circuit Explanation: Reverberating circuits are involved in the control of rhythmic activities such as breathing, the sleep-wake cycle, and repetitive motor activities like walking. A signal travels through a chain of neurons, each feeding back to previous neurons in the pathway. The oscillation of the signal can create cyclical activity in the pathway.

Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve, sends nerve impulses to the brain carrying information about the things we see. These nerve fibers most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? 1. sensory (afferent) division 2. somatic nervous system 3. sympathetic division 4.parasympathetic division

1. sensory (afferent) division

Nerve impulses leading to the brain carry information about cool temperatures on the skin. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? 1. sensory (afferent) division 2. somatic nervous system 3. sympathetic division 4. parasympathetic division

1. sensory (afferent) division.

Which target organ receives dual innervation? 1. small intestine 2. coronary blood vessels 3. kidney 4. sweat glands

1. small intestine

Myelination tends to be heaviest on which types of neurons? 1. somatic motor neurons. 2. parasympathetic preganglionic neurons. 3. sympathetic preganglionic neurons. 4. parasympathetic postganglionic neurons.

1. somatic motor neurons. Explanation: Somatic motor neurons, those that activate skeletal muscles, are heavily myelinated.

Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the ________ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease. 1. substantia nigra 2. internal capsule 3. red nucleus 4. reticular formation

1. substantia nigra

Which of the following hypothalamic control centers would you predict is the LEAST important for survival? 1. suprachiasmatic nucleus 2. autonomic control center 3. temperature control center 4. thirst center

1. suprachiasmatic nucleus Explanation: This area of the hypothalamus is important in determining the circadian rhythm that sets our sleep-wake cycles.

The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________. 1. sympathetic stimulation 2. parasympathetic innervation 3. vagus (X) nerve activity 4. somatic stimulation

1. sympathetic stimulation

During an action potential, the rapid decrease in sodium permeability and simultaneous increase in potassium permeability is responsible for __________. 1. the repolarization phase 2. the hyperpolarization phase 3. the depolarization phase 4.returning to the resting membrane potential after the action potential.

1. the repolarization phase Explanation: The repolarization phase of the action potential occurs just after the action potential peak, as the membrane potential becomes more negative again. This is caused by two factors: 1) a rapid decrease in sodium permeability as the inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+ channels close and 2) a simultaneous increase in potassium permeability as the activation gates of voltage-gated K+ channels open. With less Na+Na+ entering the cell and more K+ leaving, the membrane potential becomes more negative.

What is the electrochemical gradient of an ion? 1. the sum of the electrical and concentration gradients for that ion. 2. the direction an ion would tend to diffuse based on the membrane potential. 3. the membrane potential at which the electrical gradient and concentration gradient for that ion are equal in magnitude, but opposite in direction. 4. the difference between the inside and outside concentrations of that ion.

1. the sum of the electrical and concentration gradients for that ion. Explanation: An ion's electrochemical gradient consists of two parts. The first part, the electrical gradient, is a consequence of the membrane potential. For negative membrane potential values, positively-charged ions (like K+ and Na+) tend to enter the cell. The second part, the concentration gradient, is the tendency of ions to diffuse from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. The electrochemical gradient determines the net movement of ions across the plasma membrane.

An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the ________. 1. visual association area 2. lateral geniculate body 3. calcarine cortex 4.primary visual cortex

1. visual association area

Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials? 1. voltage-gated channel 2. leakage channel 3. ligand-gated channel 4. mechanically-gated channel

1. voltage-gated channel

Where would you NOT find autonomic ganglia? 1. within spinal cord 2. paired, beside spinal cord. 3. within wall of organ served or close to organ. 4. unpaired, anterior to spinal cord

1. within spinal cord

Cl− is a common, negatively charged extracellular ion. Predict the effect on the RMP if many Cl− gated channels are suddenly opened. 1. The membrane would become hypopolarized or have less charge separation across the membrane. 2. A more negative RMP would result. 3. There would be no change in the RMP. 4. The RMP would become more positive.

2. A more negative RMP would result. Explanation: Cl− is negatively charged and has a higher concentration in the ECF. The opening of Cl− channels would allow more negative charge to attempt to enter the cytoplasm. If the cell's normal RMP were -70mV, it would now become more negative. The farther away the RMP is from zero, either in the positive or in the negative direction, the greater the separation of charges is. This is called hyperpolarization. When the RMP moves closer to 0 mV, depolarization occurs.Congratulations! You've successfully examined the construction of the resting membrane potential, an important concept in any human cell.

_____: Secreted by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers. 1. Norepinephrine (NE) 2. Acetycholine (ACh)

2. Acetycholine (ACh)

_____: Secreted by postganglionic sympathetic fibers to sweat glands. 1. Norepinephrine (NE) 2. Acetycholine (ACh)

2. Acetycholine (ACh)

_____: Secreted by preganglionic sympathetic fibers. 1. Norepinephrine (NE) 2. Acetycholine (ACh)

2. Acetycholine (ACh)

What is a benefit of a nerve plexus? 1. A plexus does not allow for redistribution. 2. Damage to one single branch of a plexus does not necessarily disrupt all motor information sent to a region. 3. The dorsal ramus can be distributed to many areas. 4. They provide a straight path from the spinal cord to target muscles.

2. Damage to one single branch of a plexus does not necessarily disrupt all motor information sent to a region. Explanation: Because individual spinal nerves fuse and mix their flow through branches in the plexus, no one damaged area blocks nervous flow completely.

____: an excitatory neurotransmitter, which helps with learning. Associated with a pleasant sensation and desire. Often nicknamed the "addiction" neurotransmitter due its association with addictions. This neurotransmitter also increases heart rate and force of contraction, but is toxic to the heart muscle. 1. Serotonin 2. Dopamine 3. GABA 4. Norepinephrine 5. Glutatmate 6. Endorphins

2. Dopamine

What must occur for threshold to be reached? 1. Enough excitatory potentials add up to open chemically gated channels at the axon hillock. 2. Enough excitatory potentials add up to open voltage-gated channels at the axon hillock. 3. Enough inhibitory potentials prevent the opening of voltage-gated channels at the axon hillock. 4.Enough inhibitory potentials add up to open voltage-gated channels at the axon hillock.

2. Enough excitatory potentials add up to open voltage-gated channels at the axon hillock. Explanation: EPSPs move the membrane potential closer to threshold. EPSPs that cumulate a relative 15 to 20 mVmV change at the axon hillock region result in threshold being reached and the subsequent opening of the voltage-gated channels in this region.

Select the statement that is most correct. 1. Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers. 2. Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons. 3. The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord. 4. The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.

2. Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.

Which of the following is the clearest example of a neuronal membrane's selective permeability? 1. The Na+-K+ pump only transports Na+ and K+ ions. 2. K+ ions can diffuse across the membrane more easily than Na+ ions. 3. The concentration gradient for Na+ ions is inward, but the concentration gradient for K+ ions is outward. 4. Diffusion of K+ ions out of the neuron causes the membrane potential to become more negative.

2. K+ ions can diffuse across the membrane more easily than Na+ ions. Explanation: The permeability of the membrane refers to how easily substances can move through, or permeate, that membrane. Generally, the membrane is more permeable to some substances than others. This is known as selective permeability. The fact that K+ ions can cross neuronal membranes more easily than Na+ ions is an example of selective permeability.

During an action potential, hyperpolarization beyond (more negative to) the resting membrane potential is primarily due to __________. 1. Na+ diffusing through voltage-gated channels. 2. K+ ions diffusing through voltage-gated channels. 3. Na+-K+ pump activity. 4.K+ ions diffusing through leakage channels.

2. K+ ions diffusing through voltage-gated channels. Explantion: The large number of voltage-gated K+ channels opening during the repolarization phase quickly makes the membrane potential more negative as positively-charged K+ ions leave the cell. K+ ions continue to leave through open channels as the membrane potential passes (becomes more negative than) the resting potential. This hyperpolarization phase of the action potential is therefore due to K+ ions diffusing through voltage-gated K+ channels. The membrane potential remains more negative than the resting potential until voltage-gated K+ channels close. This period of hyperpolarization is important in relieving voltage-gated Na+ channels from inactivation, readying them for another action potential.

Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following EXCEPT ________. 1. Tactile (Meissner's) corpuscles 2. Lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscles 3. hair follicle receptors 4. tactile discs

2. Lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscles

What is happening to voltage-gated channels at this point in the action potential? (TOP point) 1. Na+ channels are inactivating, and K+ channels are closing. 2. Na+ channels are inactivating, and K+ channels are opening. 3. Both Na+ and K+ channels are opening. 4. Na+ channels are opening, and K+ channels are closing.

2. Na+ channels are inactivating, and K+ channels are opening. Explanation: As voltage-gated Na+ channels begin to inactivate, the membrane potential stops becoming more positive This marks the end of the depolarization phase of the action potential. Then, as voltage-gated K+ channels open, K+ ions rush out of the neuron, following their electrochemical gradient. This exit of positively-charged ions causes the interior of the cell to become more negative, repolarizing the membrane.

The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________. 1. amacrine cells. 2. ganglion cells. 3. rods and cones. 4. bipolar cells.

2. ganglion cells

During the action potential of a neuron, which ion is primarily crossing the membrane during the depolarization phase, and in which direction is the ion moving? 1. K+ is entering the cell. 2. Na+ is entering the cell. 3. K+ is exiting the cell. 4. Na+ is exiting the cell.

2. Na+ is entering the cell. Explanation: During the depolarization phase of the action potential, open Na+ channels allow Na+ ions to diffuse into the cell. This inward movement of positive charge makes the membrane potential more positive (less negative). The depolarization phase is a positive feedback cycle where open Na+ channels cause depolarization, which in turn causes more voltage-gated Na+ channels to open.

What is the direct role of neurotransmitter at a chemical synapse? 1. Neurotransmitter causes vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane. 2. Neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the postsynaptic cell membrane and allows ions to diffuse across the membrane. 3. Neurotransmitter causes a graded potential in the postsynaptic cell. 4. Neurotransmitter causes calcium to flood into the presynaptic cell.

2. Neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the postsynaptic cell membrane and allows ions to diffuse across the membrane. Explanation: Neurotransmitter leaves the presynaptic neuron by exocytosis and binds receptors on the postsynaptic cell membrane, opening the channels. When ions enter the postsynaptic cell, a graded potential takes place.

____:Includes cortical and brain stem motor areas. 1. Pre-command level 2. Projection level 3. Segmental level

2. Projection level

Dancers will use a technique called "spotting" when they perform spins of the body. By holding their head and eyes on a fixed point in front of them as their body spins they reduce the amount of head spinning and this prevents dizziness. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why this works? 1. This helps keep the motions detected by the eyes congruent (aligned) with the motions sensed by the vestibular apparatus. 2. Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris. 3. This will help to reduce the lateral flection of the head and will prevent hyper polarization or depolarization of the hair cells in the macula. 4. When the eyes send a static vision of stability to the brain, it is tricked into believing the body is still and therefore dizziness will not occur.

2. Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris.

Which of the stimuli in this experiment would be considered a threshold stimulus? 1. Stimulus 1 2. Stimulus 2

2. Stimulus 2 Explanation: A minimum threshold stimulus occurs when a cell is stimulated and the stimulus is strong enough to elicit an action potential.

Imagine that the cell membrane from the previous problem becomes more permeable to Na+. Predict how this will affect the RMP. 1. The RMP will be zero. 2. The RMP will be more positive. 3. The RMP will be unaffected. 4. The RMP will be more negative.

2. The RMP will be more positive.

Why does the action potential only move away from the cell body? 1. The flow of the sodium ions only goes in one direction—away from the cell body. 2. The areas that have had the action potential are refractory to a new action potential.

2. The areas that have had the action potential are refractory to a new action potential. Explanation: Yes, sodium channels are inactivated in the area that just had the action potential.

Many neurons have many short, branching extensions called dendrites. What is the benefit of these structures for a neuron? 1. There is a large area for production of chemicals used to signal other neurons. 2. The dendrites provide a large surface area for connections from other neurons. 3. There is a large amount of space for myelin to form and make electrical conduction more efficient. 4.There is a large surface area to send signals to other cells.

2. The dendrites provide a large surface area for connections from other neurons. Explanation: Yes, because of the branching and extensive membrane surface area, there is a large amount of membrane dedicated to synapses with other neurons.

Which of the following is NOT a difference between graded potentials and action potentials? 1. Graded potentials occur along dendrites, whereas action potentials occur along axons. 2. The magnitude of action potentials decrease as the impulse travels further away from the start of the impulse while graded potentials do not decrease in magnitude. 3. Greater stimulus intensity results in larger graded potentials, but not larger action potentials. 4.Graded potentials can result from the opening of chemically gated channels; action potentials require the opening of voltage-gated channels.

2. The magnitude of action potentials decrease as the impulse travels further away from the start of the impulse while graded potentials do not decrease in magnitude. Explanation: This is opposite of what is true. Graded potentials decrease in magnitude as the impulse travels.

What characterizes depolarization, the first phase of the action potential? 1. The membrane potential changes to a less negative (but not a positive) value. 2. The membrane potential changes from a negative value to a positive value. 3. The membrane potential reaches a threshold value and returns to the resting state. 4.The membrane potential changes to a much more negative value.

2. The membrane potential changes from a negative value to a positive value. Explanation: The plasma membrane, which was polarized to a negative value at the RMP, depolarizes to a positive value.

Which of the following is true of receptors for dynamic equilibrium? 1. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium are not stimulated by head movement. 2. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium respond to rotational forces. 3. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium are called maculae. 4. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium are located in the vestibule of the ear.

2. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium respond to rotational forces. Explanation: The receptor for rotational (angular) movements of the head, called the crista ampullaris, or simply crista, is a minute elevation in the ampulla of each semicircular canal. Perception of these changes in head rotation is sometimes called our sense of dynamic equilibrium.

Which of the following is NOT a function of dendrites? 1. produce short-distance signals called graded potentials. 2. generate nerve impulses and transmit them away from the cell body. 3. provide enormous surface area for receiving signals from other neurons. 4. convey incoming messages toward the cell body.

2. generate nerve impulses and transmit them away from the cell body.

The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine during sympathetic stimulation. Which of the following statements describes why epinephrine would increase the sympathetic response? 1. Epinephrine has no effect on sympathetic targets. 2. The same receptors that respond to norepinephrine also respond to epinephrine, increasing the action of both. 3. Epinephrine increases the action of pre- and postganglionic axons. 4. Epinephrine binds to a separate receptor than norepinephrine, which increases the sympathetic response.

2. The same receptors that respond to norepinephrine also respond to epinephrine, increasing the action of both. Explanation: There is no separate receptor for epinephrine. It enhances the sympathetic pathways because it binds to the same receptors as norepinephrine.

Which statement about malnutrition-induced night blindness is most accurate? 1. The most common cause is vitamin D deficiency. 2. Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes. 3. Visual pigment content is reduced in cones more than rods. 4. The impaired vision is caused by reduced cone function.

2. Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes.

What is the first change to occur in response to a threshold stimulus? 1. Voltage-gated Na+ channels change shape, and their inactivation gates close. 2. Voltage-gated Na+ channels change shape, and their activation gates open. 3. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels change shape, and their activation gates open. 4. Voltage-gated K+ channels change shape, and their activation gates open.

2. Voltage-gated Na+ channels change shape, and their activation gates open. Explanation: The activation gates of voltage-gated Na+ channels open very rapidly in response to threshold stimuli. The activation gates of voltage-gated K+ channels are comparatively slow to open.

The mechanism by which the neurotransmitter is returned to a presynaptic neuron's axon terminal is specific for each neurotransmitter. Which of the following neurotransmitters is broken down by an enzyme before being returned? 1. glutamate 2. acetylcholine

2. acetylcholine Explanation: acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase before being returned to the presynaptic neuron's axon terminal.

Where would you NOT find a cholinergeric nicotinic receptor? 1. sarcolemma of skeletal muscle cells at neuromuscular junctions. 2. all parasympathetic target organs. 3. adrenal medulla hormone producing cells. 4. all postganglionic neurons (cell bodies and dendrites).

2. all parasympathetic target organs.

Cold sores on the skin of the mouth occur when herpes simplex viruses that are dormant in neural ganglia become active and travel to the skin of the mouth. Which of the following is the mechanism by which these viruses travel from the ganglia (located within the head) to the skin of the mouth? 1. transport by nerve impulses that travel down the axons. 2. anterograde transport. 3. retrograde transport. 4. travel of the viruses along neurofibrils.

2. anterograde transport. Explanation: This transport mechanism defines movement of material from the cell body (soma) of a neuron toward the axon terminals (synaptic knobs).

Transduction of lower frequency sound waves occurs at the __________ of the cochlea. 1. proximal end 2. apex 3. base 4.middle

2. apex Explanation: The apex is wider and more flexible, which makes it more receptive to lower frequencies.

The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called ________. 1. automatic memory 2. association 3. rehearsal 4. long-term memory

2. association

The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this? 1. satellite cells 2. astrocytes 3. Schwann cells 4.oligodendrocytes

2. astrocytes

Binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptors opens __________ channels on the __________ membrane. 1. chemically gated; presynaptic 2. chemically gated; postsynaptic 3. chemically gated; postsynaptic 4. voltage-gated; postsynaptic

2. chemically gated; postsynaptic Explantion: Yes, the neurotransmitter is a chemical released from the presynaptic membrane, so it would open chemically gated channels on the postsynaptic membrane.

Which of the following types of receptors are located in the mouth? 1. chemoreceptors, thermoreceptors, and nociceptors only. 2. chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors, and nociceptors. 3. thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, and nociceptors only. 4.chemoreceptors only

2. chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors, and nociceptors.

Three main levels of neural integration operate in the somatosensory system. Which level involves the spinal cord? 1. receptor level 2. circuit level 3. integrative level 4. perceptual level

2. circuit level Explnation: Processing at the circuit level includes the transmission of action potentials along ascending spinal pathways. These pathways deliver impulses to the appropriate regions of the cerebral cortex for localization and perception of the stimulus.

An action potential is self-regenerating because __________. 1. repolarizing currents established by the efflux of Na+‎ flow down the axon and trigger an action potential at the next segment. 2. depolarizing currents established by the influx of Na+‎ flow down the axon and trigger an action potential at the next segment. 3. depolarizing currents established by the influx of K+‎ flow down the axon and trigger an action potential at the next segment. 4. repolarizing currents established by the efflux of K+‎ flow down the axon and trigger an action potential at the next segment.

2. depolarizing currents established by the influx of Na+‎ flow down the axon and trigger an action potential at the next segment. Explanation: The Na+‎ diffusing into the axon during the first phase of the action potential creates a depolarizing current that brings the next segment, or node, of the axon to threshold.

Binding of the neurotransmitter to its receptor causes the membrane to __________. 1. depolarize 2. either depolarize or hyperpolarize 3. hyperpolarize

2. either depolarize or hyperpolarize Explanation: The neurotransmitter can cause the postsynaptic membrane to either depolarize or hyperpolarize, depending on which ion channels are opened.

Which type of stimulus would activate nociceptors of the skin? 1. warm bathtub water. 2. extreme cold. 3. a vibrating cell phone. 4. moderate sunlight exposure.

2. extreme cold. Explanation: Nociceptors respond to stimuli that might damage the body, experienced as pain. These stimuli might include extreme heat or cold, excessive pressure, or inflammatory chemicals.

What stimuli does the vestibular apparatus detect? 1. presence of particular odorants. 2. head position in space. 3. joint position 4.sound waves

2. head position in space Explanation: The equilibrium receptors in the semicircular canals and vestibule are collectively called the vestibular apparatus. The receptors in the vestibule monitor linear acceleration and the position of the head with respect to gravity.

What is the major purpose for vitreous humor? 1. circulate oxygen and nutrients to the lens. 2. helps the eye maintain its shape. 3. refract the light to focus images on the retina. 4. produce tears.

2. helps the eye maintain its shape. Explanation: The humors located in the anterior and posterior aspects of the eye are responsible for maintaining the round shape of the eye.

When a neurotransmitter like GABA is acting in an inhibitory manner which of the following is likely a result of the GABA acting on the postsynaptic cell? 1. opening of chemically gated sodium channels. 2. hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane. 3. depolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane. 4.influx of positively charged ions into the postsynaptic cell.

2. hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane

Where are equilibrium receptors located? 1. only in the semicircular canals of the ear. 2. in the semicircular canals and in the vestibule of the ear. 3. only in the vestibule of the ear. 4. in the semicircular canals, in the spiral organ of Corti, and in the vestibule of the ear.

2. in the semicircular canals and in the vestibule of the ear Explanation: The equilibrium receptors in the semicircular canals and vestibule are collectively called the vestibular apparatus. The receptors in the vestibule monitor linear acceleration and the position of the head with respect to gravity. Because gravity is constant, this is sometimes called our sense of static equilibrium. The semicircular canals monitor changes in head rotation, sometimes called our sense of dynamic equilibrium.

A mugger steals your wallet causing all of the following to happen EXCEPT ________. 1. increased rate and force of heartbeat. 2. increased glucose uptake to the liver from blood. 3. inability to read close-up print. 4. increased metabolic rate

2. increased glucose uptake to the liver from blood.

Erection (vasodilation) of the penis or clitoris ________. 1. is primarily under sympathetic control. 2. is primarily under parasympathetic control. 3. depends very little on autonomic activation. 4. is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input.

2. is primarily under parasympathetic control.

A person has gone for an appointment to receive a deep-tissue therapeutic massage. Which of the following receptors would be stimulated by the massage? 1. free nerve ending 2. lamellae corpuscle 3. bulbous corpuscle 4. tendon organ

2. lamellae corpuscle

Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________. 1. dehydration 2. loss of fine motor control 3. sleep disturbances 4. loss of body temperature control.

2. loss of fine motor control

Meningitis can be caused by infection of the central nervous system by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection? 1. satellite cells 2. microglia 3. Schwann cells 4. oligodendrocytes

2. microglia

Which description is NOT consistent with the sympathetic division? 1. long postganglionic fibers 2. most innervation from the vagus nerve. 3. ganglia close to the spinal cord. 4. thoracolumbar

2. most innervation from the vagus nerve. Explanation: The vagus nerve innervates most of the parasympathetic division.

Which of the choices below describes the ANS? 1. sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS. 2. motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands. 3. sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract. 4.motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles.

2. motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands.

The interior surface of a neuron's plasma membrane at resting membrane potential will have a ________. 1. positive charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell. 2. negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell. 3. negative charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell. 4. positive charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell.

2. negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell.

Like all cells, the neurons' internal organization dictates its function. Neurons have relatively many mitochondria, an extensive network of rough endoplasmic reticulum and many clusters of ribosomes. These cellular features indicate all of the following EXCEPT ________. 1. neurons have a relatively high consumption of oxygen. 2. neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments. 3. neurons produce many proteins. 4.neurons must meet a high demand for ATP.

2. neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments.

Conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the ________. 1. chiasma 2. occipital lobe of the cortex 3. thalamus 4. superior colliculus

2. occipital lobe of the cortex.

Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________. 1. ependymal cells 2. oligodendrocytes 3. microglia 4.astrocytes

2. oligodendrocytes

Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality? 1. posterior association area. 2. prefrontal cortex (anterior association area). 3. combined primary somatosensory cortex and somatosensory association cortex. 4. limbic association area.

2. prefrontal cortex (anterior association area)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? 1. regulate emotional responses 2. regulate the thalamus 3. regulate food intake 4. regulate body temperature.

2. regulate the thalamus Explanation: The hypothalamus does not regulate the thalamus.

The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following EXCEPT ________. 1. their efferent pathways and ganglia. 2. regulation of activity by higher brain centers. 3. their effectors. 4. target organ responses to their neurotransmitters.

2. regulation of activity by higher brain centers.

Which functional area of the brain is responsible for keeping the cortex alert and conscious and enhancing its excitability? 1. frontal eye fields 2. reticular activating system 3. limbic system 4. Broca's area

2. reticular activating system Explanation: Impulses from all the great ascending sensory tracts synapse within the reticular formation with reticular activating system neurons, keeping them active and enhancing their arousing effect on the cerebrum.

The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________. 1. pyramids 2. reticular formation 3. limbic system 4.thalamus

2. reticular formation

Which photoreceptor cells respond to very dim light? 1. cones 2. rods 3. bipolar cells 4. ganglion cells

2. rods Explanation: Rods are our dim-light and peripheral vision receptors. They are more numerous and far more sensitive to light than cones are, but they do not provide sharp images or color vision. This is why colors disappear and the edges of objects appear fuzzy in dim light and at the edges of our visual field.

Which of the following lists the hierarchy of motor control from lowest to highest level of control? 1. precommand level, projection level, segmental level. 2. segmental level, projection level, precommand level. 3. projection level, precommand level, segmental level. 4. segmental level, precommand level, projection level.

2. segmental level, projection level, precommand level Explanation: The hierarchy of motor control from lowest to highest level of control is segmental level, projection level, and precommand level.

Nerve impulses leading to the skeletal muscle carry information to direct movement. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? 1.sensory (afferent) division 2. somatic nervous system 3. sympathetic division 4. parasympathetic division

2. somatic nervous system.

Which structure of the brain is most responsible for acting as a relay station to sort and send incoming signals to the cerebral cortex? 1. medulla oblongata 2. thalamus 3. cerebellum 4.midbrain

2. thalamus Explantion: The thalamus, located in the centermost area of the brain, acts as the primary sorter for signals coming to the cerebral cortex.

Which structure contains the blood vessels that nourish all layers of the eye? 1. the aqueous humor 2. the choroid 3. the cornea 4. The ciliary body

2. the choroid Explantion: The vascular layer forms the middle coat of the eyeball. This pigmented layer has three regions: choroid, ciliary body, and iris. The choroid is a blood-vessel-rich, dark brown membrane that forms the posterior of the eye. Its blood vessels nourish all eye layers. Its brown pigment, produced by melanocytes, helps absorb light, preventing it from scattering and reflecting within the eye.

Which criterion is used to functionally classify neurons? 1. the number of processes extending from the cell body neuron. 2. the direction in which the nerve impulse travels relative to the central nervous system. 3. whether the nerve fibers are myelinated or unmyelinated. 4. whether the neurons are found within the CNS or the PNS.

2. the direction in which the nerve impulse travels relative to the central nervous system. Explantion: Functional classification groups neurons according to the direction in which the nerve impulse travels relative to the central nervous system. Based on this criterion, there are sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons.

Imagine you changed the concentration of K+ outside a neuron such that the resting membrane potential changed to -80 mV (from the normal resting value of -70 mV). What have you changed? 1. the electrical gradients and concentration gradients for both Na+ and K+. 2. the electrical gradient for K+ and the concentration gradient for K+. 3. the electrical gradient for K+. 4. the concentration gradient for K+.

2. the electrical gradient for K+ and the concentration gradient for K+. Explanation: The electrical gradient for K+ is directly related to the membrane potential. Because the membrane potential has changed, the electrical gradient for K+ has changed. In addition, the change in resting membrane potential was accomplished by changing the concentration of K+ outside the neuron. The concentration gradient for K+ is related to how much higher (or lower) the K+ concentration is outside the cell compared to inside. Because the K+ concentration outside the cell has changed, the concentration gradient for K+ has also changed.

A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________. 1. proteins have been resynthesized. 2. the membrane potential has been reestablished. 3. the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell. 4. all sodium gates are closed.

2. the membrane potential has been reestablished.

What structure helps us localize sound? 1. the cochlea 2. the superior olivary nucleus 3. the auditory cortex 4. the inferior colliculus

2. the superior olivary nucleus Explanation: As sound reaches each superior olivary nucleus from the ear, whichever superior olivary nucleus is more strongly activated determines the direction of the sound.

During the relative refractory period of an action potential, a larger than normal stimulus is needed to cause another action potential. This is due to the fact that ________. 1. the sodium potassium pump will stop working during relative refractory. 2. the voltage gated potassium ion channels remain open long enough to hyperpolarize the axon membrane. 3. the inactivation gates on voltage gated sodium ion channels are closed. 4.the membrane is now impermeable to all ions.

2. the voltage gated potassium ion channels remain open long enough to hyperpolarize the axon membrane.

Which set of details correctly identifies a series of events in a sympathetic pathway? 1. thoracolumbar origin, long preganglionic fiber, NE release at ganglion, short postganglionic fiber, NE release at effector. 2. thoracolumbar origin, short preganglionic fiber, ACh release at ganglion, long postganglionic fiber, NE release at effector. 3. craniosacral origin, long preganglionic fiber, ACh release at ganglion, short postganglionic fiber, ACh release at effector. 4. craniosacral origin, short preganglionic fiber, ACh release at ganglion, long postganglionic fiber, ACh release at effector.

2. thoracolumbar origin, short preganglionic fiber, ACh release at ganglion, long postganglionic fiber, NE release at effector. Explanation: This describes the pathway for a sympathetic response.

Which of the following is mismatched? 1. sympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE 2. parasympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh 3. parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE 4. sympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh

3. parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE

Which sympathetic fibers form a splanchnic nerve? 1. those that synapse with somatic fibers. 2. those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia. 3. those that synapse in the same trunk ganglion they entered. 4. those that synapse with parasympathetic fibers.

2. those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia.

Which choice best characterizes K+ leakage channels? 1. chemically gated K+K+ channels that open and close according to the binding of other molecules. 2. transmembrane protein channels that are always open to allow K+ to cross the membrane without the additional input of energy. 3. transmembrane channels that use energy to allow the movement of K+ across the membrane 4.common transmembrane channels that are always open for any ion to move through in the presence of K+.

2. transmembrane protein channels that are always open to allow K+ to cross the membrane without the additional input of energy.

The only special sense NOT fully functional at birth is the sense of ________. 1. hearing 2. vision 3. taste 4. equilibrium 5.smell

2. vision

What is the main function of the rods in the eye? 1. accommodation for near vision 2. vision in dim light 3. color vision 4. depth perception

2. vision in dim light

Color vision has much greater resolution than night vision (vision that is mostly in shades of gray). Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so? 1. A larger proportion of the brain's visual cortex is active during the day when our cone photoreceptors are most active. 2. There are several types of cone photoreceptors, each of which enrich the clarity and resolution of vision. 3. A single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge to a single ganglion cell. 4. There are many more cone photoreceptors in the eye than rod photoreceptors.

3. A single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge to a single ganglion cell.

Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus's strength is transmitted to the central nervous system from sensory nerves? 1. More than one type of receptor will respond to larger stimulus. 2. Action potentials as well as graded potentials are sent to the central nervous system when stimulus strength increases. 3. Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus strength increases. 4. An action potential will increase in strength as stimulus strength increases.

3. Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus strength increases.

How is an action potential propagated along an axon? 1. An efflux of potassium from the current action potential depolarizes the adjacent area. 2. Stimuli from the graded (local) potentials from the soma and dendrites depolarize the entire axon. 3. An influx of sodium ions from the current action potential depolarizes the adjacent area.

3. An influx of sodium ions from the current action potential depolarizes the adjacent area. Explanation: The influx of sodium ions depolarizes adjacent areas, causing the membrane to reach threshold and cause an action potential. Thus, the action potential is regenerated at each new area.

____: This drug increases alertness and causes a sensation of a "rush." It blocks the removal of dopamine from a synapse. Because dopamine also affects the heart, individuals who use this drug have an increased risk of heart attack and sudden death. 1. Ecstasy (MDMA) 2. Herion 3. Cocaine 4. Alcohol

3. Cocaine

Which statement about coma is true? 1. Coma is a form of deep sleep. 2. Coma is neurologically identical to syncope. 3. Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma. 4.During coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state.

3. Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma.

_____ A condition of deafness that may result from otosclerosis. 1. Glaucoma 2. otitis media 3. Conduction deafness 4. Night blindness

3. Conduction deafness

What type of conduction takes place in unmyelinated axons? 1. Saltatory conduction 2. Synaptic transmission 3. Continuous conduction 4.Electrical conduction

3. Continuous conduction. Explanation: An action potential is conducted continuously along an unmyelinated axon from its initial segment to the axon terminals. The term continuous refers to the fact that the action potential is regenerated when voltage-gated Na+‎ channels open in every consecutive segment of the axon, not at nodes of Ranvier.

People who have hydrocephaly often have an issue with which of these glial cell types? 1. Oligodendrocytes 2. Astrocytes 3. Ependymal cells 4. Microglia

3. Ependymal cells Explanation: These cells are responsible for the production and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid, and if they are overactive, it can lead to hydrocephaly.

Your patient is recovering after a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting. You are instructing him on the use of the epinephrine auto-injection device that has been prescribed for him. Which of the following groups of side effects would NOT be expected after self-injection with epinephrine? 1. Dry mouth and pallor. 2. Pupillary dilation and increased blood pressure. 3. Excessive salivation and pupillary constriction. 4. Rapid heartbeat and tremors

3. Excessive salivation and pupillary constriction. Explanation: These effects are caused by activation of the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system and are mediated by acetylcholine.

_____: this is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter. Individuals prone to anxiety may have reduced levels. 1. Serotonin 2. Dopamine 3. GABA 4. Norepinephrine 5. Glutatmate 6. Endorphins

3. GABA

Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________. 1. preganglionic fibers are long. 2. preganglionic fibers are short 3. NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response. 4. inactivation of ACh is fairly slow

3. NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response.

Which of the following is not associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? 1. resting 2. digesting 3. emergency action 4. energy conservation

3. emergency action Expalantion: The activity of the sympathetic division, often called the "fight-or-flight" system, is evident when we are excited, exercising, or find ourselves in emergency situations.

What characterizes repolarization, the second phase of the action potential? 1. Once the membrane depolarizes to a threshold value of approximately -55 mV, it repolarizes to its resting value of -70 mV. 2. As the membrane repolarizes to a negative value, it goes beyond the resting state to a value of -80 mV. 3. Once the membrane depolarizes to a peak value of +30 mV, it repolarizes to its negative resting value of -70 mV. 4. Before the membrane has a chance to reach a positive voltage, it repolarizes to its negative resting value of approximately -70 mV.

3. Once the membrane depolarizes to a peak value of +30 mV, it repolarizes to its negative resting value of -70 mV. Explanation: The plasma membrane was depolarized to a positive value at the peak of the first phase of the action potential. Thus, it must repolarize back to a negative value.

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of cooperation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems? 1. Sympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, leading to erection; parasympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation. 2. Sympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the clitoris, leading to erection; parasympathetic stimulation then causes reflex contractions of the vagina. 3. Parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, leading to erection; sympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation. 4. Parasympathetic stimulation causes copious sweating; sympathetic stimulation causes epidermal pores to dilate.

3. Parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, leading to erection; sympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation. Explanation: The best example of cooperative autonomic effects is seen in controls of the external genitalia. Parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the external genitalia, and is responsible for erection of the male penis or female clitoris during sexual excitement. Sympathetic stimulation then causes the ejaculation of semen by the penis or reflex contractions of the vagina during an orgasm.

How do proprioceptors help maintain body homeostasis? 1. Proprioceptors are able to detect temperature so that the body can sweat or shiver if necessary. 2. Proprioceptors detect pain so that the body can be alerted to dangerous stimuli, such as extreme temperatures or harmful chemicals. 3. Proprioceptors help prevent excessive stretching at the joints. 4.Proprioceptors help prevent prolonged exposure to harmful chemicals.

3. Proprioceptors help prevent excessive stretching at the joints. Explanation: Proprioceptors are located in the muscles, joints, tendons, and ligaments to detect and monitor body position. They send signals to the brain to warn of extensive stretching or hyperextension of a joint.

Which of the following is NOT one of the basic functions of the nervous system? 1. Generate direct, electrical signals. 2. Integrate sensory input for decision making. 3. Release hormones into the bloodstream that travel around the systemic blood circulation to communicate with cells in multiple locations within the body. 4. Decode sensory information from the environment.

3. Release hormones into the bloodstream that travel around the systemic blood circulation to communicate with cells in multiple locations within the body. Explanation: Hormones are released by endocrine organs. The nervous system does have some control over endocrine function, but the endocrine system is considered a separate signaling system.

What is the The sensory layer of the eye? 1. Fovea centalis 2. lens 3. retina 4. Aqueous humor

3. Retina

___:Central pattern generators. 1. Pre-command level 2. Projection level 3. Segmental level

3. Segmental level

_____: The neural machinery of the spinal cord, including spinal cord circuits. 1. Pre-command level 2. Projection level 3. Segmental level

3. Segmental level

Tetraethylammonium (TEA) blocks voltage-gated K+ channels such that K+ cannot pass even when the channels are open. However, TEA leaves K+ leakage channels largely unaffected. How would you expect the action potential to change if you treated a neuron with TEA? 1. The membrane would depolarize as usual but then stay at that depolarized voltage (about +30 mV). 2. The membrane would depolarize and repolarize as usual, but no hyperpolarization beyond (more negative to) the resting membrane potential would occur. 3. The action potential would depolarize as usual, but the repolarization phase would take longer, causing the action potential to be more broad in time. 4.The action potential would fail. Once the voltage reached threshold, it would return to the resting membrane potential.

3. The action potential would depolarize as usual, but the repolarization phase would take longer, causing the action potential to be more broad in time. Explanation: The passage of K+ ions through open voltage-gated K+ channels is an important component of the repolarization phase of the action potential. However, repolarization would still occur (albeit more slowly) in the presence of TEA. Once voltage-gated Na+ channels open during the depolarization phase, those same Na+ channels quickly inactivate. In other words, open Na+ channels inevitably inactivate regardless of whether K+ channels open or not. This means that the depolarization phase of the action potential stops on its own. Once Na+ channels inactivate, the membrane potential is set by other open channels. If voltage-gated K+ channels are blocked by TEA, then the membrane will be (slowly) set, by leakage channels, to the resting membrane potential.

Which mechanism allows the rabies virus to gain access to the central nervous system (CNS)? 1. The rabies virus uses anterograde along the neuronal axon. 2. The rabies virus enters the Schwann cells of the peripheral nervous system and uses salutatory movement to move toward the CNS. 3. The rabies virus uses retrograde movement along the neuronal axon. 4.Rabies virus moves through the blood vessels to the CNS.

3. The rabies virus uses retrograde movement along the neuronal axon. Explanation: Once the rabies virus enters the tissue via a bite, the viral particles use the normal retrograde movement along the axons of the peripheral nervous system to move "upstream" to the CNS.

These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid. 1. oligodendrocytes 2. Schwann cells 3. ependymal cells 4.astrocytes

3. ependymal cells

Which of the following best describes the cerebrum? 1. motor command center 2. visceral command center 3. executive suite 4.decussation center

3. executive suite

In the visual pathways to the brain, the optic radiations project to the ________. 1. medial retina 2. lateral geniculate body 3. primary visual cortex 4.optic chiasma

3. primary visual cortex.

Hypothetically, what would be the most immediate effect of doubling the number of Na+ leakage channels in the plasma membrane? 1. The outward concentration gradient for K+ would become smaller. 2. The inward concentration gradient for Na+ would become larger. 3. The resting membrane potential would become less negative (more positive). 4. The resting membrane potential would become more negative.

3. The resting membrane potential would become less negative (more positive). Explanation: Na+ leakage channels allow Na+ ions to diffuse across the plasma membrane. These Na+ ions diffuse down their concentration gradient-into the cell. The arrival of these positively charged ions tends to make to the membrane potential positive (less negative). Increasing the number of Na+ leakage channels would allow Na+ to cross the plasma membrane more easily. This means that more Na+ ions would enter the cell, immediately making the membrane potential less negative (more positive).

Suppose a drug is developed that blocks K+ leakage channels. The drug prevents ions from passing through those channels. If this drug was applied to a neuron, what would be the most immediate effect on that neuron? 1. The concentration gradient for K+ would decrease. 2. The concentration gradient for Na+ would decrease. 3. The resting membrane potential would become less negative (more positive). 4.The resting membrane potential would become more negative.

3. The resting membrane potential would become less negative (more positive). Explanation: Normally, K+ leakage channels allow K+ ions to diffuse across the plasma membrane. These K+ ions diffuse down their concentration gradient-out of the cell. The loss of these positively-charge ions from the interior of the cell makes to the membrane potential negative. A drug that blocks K+ leakage channels would prevent this loss of K+ ions. With fewer positive ions leaving the cell, the membrane potential wouldn't be as negative. That is, the membrane potential would immediately become less negative (more positive).

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neurons? 1. They conduct impulses. 2. They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate. 3. They are mitotic. 4.They have extreme longevity.

3. They are mitotic.

What is meant by an EPSP? 1. a localized change in the membrane potential that always results in threshold being reached. 2. a localized change in the membrane potential that makes a neuron less likely to send a signal. 3. a localized change in the membrane potential resulting in a less negative membrane voltage. 4. a localized change in the membrane potential resulting in a more negative membrane voltage.

3. a localized change in the membrane potential resulting in a less negative membrane voltage. explanation: EPSPs result in a local depolarization, which brings the membrane potential closer to zero.

A postsynaptic cell can be a neuron, a muscle cell, or a secretory cell. What is an example of a presynaptic cell? 1. a muscle cell 2. a secretory cell 3. a neuron 4. a Schwann cell

3. a neuron Explanation: A neuron is the only type of presynaptic cell. Neurons release neurotransmitters, effectively changing an electrical signal or action potential into a chemical signal that can communicate across the synaptic cleft to the postsynaptic cell.

The velocity of the action potential is fastest in which of the following axons? 1. a small unmyelinated axon 2. a large unmyelinated axon 3. a small myelinated axon

3. a small myelinated axon Explanation: Yes, the myelination acts as insulation and the action potential is generated only at the nodes of Ranvier. Propagation along myelinated axons is known as saltatory conduction.

Which of the following would not be an example of autonomic neuropathy? 1. diarrhea. 2. constipation. 3. abnormal stretch reflex responses. 4. hyposecretion by sudoriferous glands.

3. abnormal stretch reflex responses Explanation: The stretch reflex is controlled by a somatic reflex arc which includes afferent input from stretch receptors and output along somatic motor neurons to skeletal muscle.

Which protective covering of the brain provides passageways for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to drain into the superior sagittal sinus? 1. pia mater 2. membranous part of the dura mater. 3. arachnoid mater 4. periosteal part of the dura mater.

3. arachnoid mater Explantation: The subarachnoid space is filled with CSF. Knoblike projections of the arachnoid mater, called arachnoid granulations (villi), protrude superiorly through the dura mater and into the superior sagittal sinus. These villi provide a passageway for CSF to leave the subarachnoid space and enter the venous blood of the sinus.

During what part of the action potential do voltage-gated Na+ channels begin to inactivate (their inactivation gates close)? 1. at the end of the hyperpolarization phase of an action potential, as the membrane potential returns to its resting value. 2. at the beginning of an action potential, as the membrane potential reaches threshold. 3. at the end of the depolarization phase, as the membrane potential approaches its peak value. 4. at the end of the repolarization phase, as the membrane potential briefly passes its resting value.

3. at the end of the depolarization phase, as the membrane potential approaches its peak value Explanation: Voltage-gated Na+ channels are opened by depolarization and then quickly inactivated. Once inactivated, these channels cannot pass Na+ ions. At the peak of the action potential, a large number of Na+ channels are open, but they are rapidly inactivating. As the action potential enters the repolarization phase, the number of open Na+ channels continues to decrease because more and more inactivation gates close. The number of inactivated Na+ channels is greatest towards the end of the repolarization phase.

Which component has a role in the postsynaptic cell during synaptic activity? 1. Vesicles filled with neurotransmitter. 2. calcium channels 3. chemically gated channels 4.Axon terminal

3. chemically gated channels Explanation: Neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the postsynaptic cell. These chemically gated channels open, allowing the transfer of the "signal" from a presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic cell.

What kinds of gated channels are typically found in high concentrations at the dendrites? 1. both voltage-gated and chemically gated. 2. neither voltage-gated nor chemically gated. 3. chemically gated. 4. voltage-gated.

3. chemically gated. Explanation: Chemically gated channels are concentrated on the receptive region of a neuron, where they open in response to neurotransmitter binding.

Arachnoid granulations are knoblike projections that protrude superiorly through the ________ mater to absorb cerebrospinal fluid into venous blood. 1. pia 2. arachnoid 3. dura 4. subarachnoid

3. dura

Neurotransmitter is released from presynaptic neurons through what mechanism? 1. pinocytosis 2. endocytosis 3. exocytosis 4. phagocytosis

3. exocytosis Explanation: Neurotransmitter molecules are released from vesicles that fuse with the plasma membrane through exocytosis. Note that "exo-" means "outside" and "cytosis" means "cell." Once released, neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft.

What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus? 1. type of stimulus receptor 2. size of action potentials 3. frequency of action potentials 4. origin of the stimulus

3. frequency of action potentials.

The ________ is the main switch station for memory; if the right and left areas are destroyed, the result is widespread amnesia. 1. thalamus 2. hypothalamus 3. hippocampus 4.Wernicke's area

3. hippocampus

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________. 1. opening of voltage-regulated channels. 2. lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur. 3. hyperpolarization 4. a change in sodium ion permeability.

3. hyperpolarization

Which of the following is responsible for the overall integration of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? 1. peripheral ganglia 2. cerebral cortex 3. hypothalamus 4. brain stem

3. hypothalamus Explanation: The hypothalamus stands at the top of the control hierarchy as the integrator of ANS activity.

Which of the following is responsible for the overall integration of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? 1. brain stem. 2. frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex. 3. hypothalamus 4. reticular formation

3. hypothalamus Explanation: The hypothalamus stands at the top of the control hierarchy as the integrator of ANS activity. The limbic system communicates the hypothalamus, which is why emotions, like fear, affect the ANS. The reticular formation connects the hypothalamus to nuclei in the brainstem that cause the ANS outputs for some visceral organs as their output is regulated by the hypothalamus.

Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________. 1. decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure. 2. decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure 3. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure. 4. increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure.

3. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure.

Which of the following is NOT a role of the basal nuclei? 1. playing a role in cognition and emotion. 2. controlling starting and stopping movements. 3. initiating protective reflex actions. 4.inhibiting unnecessary or antagonistic movements.

3. initiating protective reflex actions.

Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ________. 1. always mediated by the brain. 2. rapid, predictable, and can be learned responses. 3. involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior. 4. autonomic only

3. involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior.

What is the major role of the Na+-K+ pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential? 1. hydrolyzing ATP 2. permitting Na+ and K+ ions to diffuse across the plasma membrane. 3. maintaining the concentration gradients for Na+ and K+ across the cell membrane. 4.making the membrane potential negative by moving more Na+ ions out of the cell than K+ ions into the cell

3. maintaining the concentration gradients for Na+ and K+ across the cell membrane. Explanation: The Na+-K+ pump actively transports Na+ and K+ ions against their concentration gradients. This maintains the unequal distribution of these two ions across the membrane. Without the pump, diffusion of Na+ and K+ through leakage channels would eventually eliminate the concentration gradients. Without these concentration gradients, the resting membrane potential would be 0 mV. Not coincidentally, dead cells also have a resting membrane potential of 0 mV.

Which of the following types of glial cells monitors the health of neurons, and can transform into a special type of macrophage to protect endangered neurons? 1. oligodendrocytes 2. ependymal cells 3. microglia 4. astrocytes

3. microglia Explanation: Microglial cells are small and ovoid with relatively long "thorny" processes. Their processes touch nearby neurons, monitoring their health, and when they sense that certain neurons are injured or are in other trouble, the microglial cells migrate toward them. Where invading microorganisms or dead neurons are present, the microglial cells transform into a special type of macrophage that phagocytizes the microorganisms or neuronal debris.

Hiccups could occur if there was irritation or damage to the ______. 1. cutaneous branches of rami associated with the C3-C5 region of the spinal cord. 2. dorsal rami of spinal nerves associated with the C3-C5 region of the spinal cord 3. motor branches of ventral rami associated with the C3-C5 region of the spinal cord. 4. afferent neurons of spinal nerves associated with the C3-C5 region of the spinal cord

3. motor branches of ventral rami associated with the C3-C5 region of the spinal cord. Explanation: The ventral rami of spinal nerves contain motor fibers that originate from neuron soma found in the spinal cord. These efferent pathways activate the contraction of skeletal muscle. The phrenic nerve branches from this region and innervates the skeletal muscle of the diaphragm.

Complete the following sentence. The operation of the Na+ − K+ ATPase pump __________. 1. moves 2 Na+ to the ECF and 3 K+ to the cytoplasm. 2. releases 1 Na+ to the ECF and 1 K+ to the cytoplasm 3. moves 3 Na+ to the ECF and 2 K+ to the cytoplasm 4. releases 3 K+ to the ECF

3. moves 3 Na+ to the ECF and 2 K+ to the cytoplasm. Explanation: The pumps move more Na+ than K+, which counteracts the effect of the membrane's being more permeable to K+ (more K+ leak channels than Na+).

Autonomic nerve fibers that increase heart rate, elevate blood pressure, induce dry mouth, and increase sweating do so primarily through the secretion of __________. 1. only epinephrine 2. only acetylcholine 3. norepinephrine 4. both acetylcholine and epinephrine

3. norepinephrine Explanation: Sympathetic fibers primarily release norepinephrine, which can have an excitatory or inhibitory effect.

Choose the correctly paired terms. 1. hyperopia: nearsightedness. 2. astigmatism: clouding of the lens. 3. nyctalopia: night blindness. 4. myopia: farsightedness

3. nyctalopia: night blindness. Explanation: Night blindness, or nyctalopia, is a condition in which rod function is seriously hampered, impairing one's ability to drive safely at night.

For our motor commands to travel toward our muscles, the signals must travel on __________. 1. association fibers 2. commissural fibers 3. projection fibers 4.the primary visual cortex

3. projection fibers Explanation: Projection fibers descend from the brain toward the spinal cord.

The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the lacrimal gland and nasal mucosa is the ________. 1. otic ganglion 2. ciliary ganglion 3. pterygopalatine ganglion 4. submandibular ganglion

3. pterygopalatine ganglion

During dark adaptation, ________. 1. the rate of rhodopsin breakdown is accelerated. 2. the cones are activated. 3. rhodopsin accumulates in the rods. 4.the sensitivity of the retina decreases.

3. rhodopsin accumulates in the rods.

The knee-jerk reflex is an example of a __________. 1. superficial reflex 2. flexor reflex 3. stretch reflex 4. tendon reflex

3. stretch reflex Explanation: The most familiar clinical example of a stretch reflex is the knee-jerk reflex. The overall goal of a stretch reflex is to maintain a muscle's length and in turn maintain body position. For example, the knee-jerk reflex, during which the knee extensors contract in response to being stretched, helps keep your knees from buckling when you are standing upright.

Which reflex requires gamma motor neurons to set the length of the muscle? 1. flexor reflex 2. crossed-extensor reflex 3. stretch reflex 4. tendon reflex

3. stretch reflex Explanation: The gamma motor neurons signal the intrafusal muscle fibers, which stretch with the skeletal muscle. If the intrafusal fiber is stretched, sensory receptors initiate the stretch reflex.

A patient has lost the ability to taste food. Which nerve may have been damaged? 1. the optic nerves 2. the abducens nerves 3. the facial nerves 4.trigeminal nerves

3. the facial nerves

If a signal from a sending neuron makes the receiving neuron more negative inside, 1. the receiving neuron is more likely to generate an action potential. 2. the sending neuron becomes more positive inside. 3. the receiving neuron is less likely to generate an action potential. 4. the sending neuron becomes more negative inside. 5. the receiving neuron immediately generates an action potential. Submit

3. the receiving neuron is less likely to generate an action potential.

Outflow of the sympathetic division occurs from which regions of the CNS? 1. cervical and lumbar 2. cranial and sacral 3. thoracic and lumbar 4. cranial only

3. thoracic and lumbar Explanation: Preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division arise from the thoracic and upper lumbar regions (T1 to L2) of the spinal cord.

Which of the following characteristics is representative of receptor-level processing, NOT perceptual-level processing? 1. detection 2. magnitude 3. transduction 4. spatial discrimination

3. transduction Explanation: Transduction is converting a stimulus into a nervous signal; this happens at the receptor level.

Which of the following is the basic taste quality responsible for the amino acid flavor of steak? 1. bitter 2. sweet 3. umami 4. sour

3. umami Explanation: Umami is elicited by the amino acids glutamate and aspartate, which are responsible for the "beef taste" of steak, the characteristic tang of aging cheese, and the flavor of the food additive monosodium glutamate.

The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________. 1. cephalic plexus 2. pelvic nerves 3. vagus (X) nerves 4. lumbar splanchnic nerves

3. vagus (X) nerves

Which of the following is an effect of norepinephrine binding to beta 2 adrenergic receptors? 1. an increase in heart rate 2. vasoconstriction 3. vasodilation 4. lipolysis

3. vasodilation Explanation: The binding of norepinephrine to the beta 2 adrenergic receptors in blood vessels causes vasodilation.

What is the central part of the bony labyrinth? 1. cochlear duct 2. Tympanic membrane 3. vestibule 4. Spiral organ (of Corti)

3. vestibule

Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. 1. visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons. 2. somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess. 3. visceral arcs involve two motor neurons. 4. visceral arcs do not use integration centers.

3. visceral arcs involve two motor neurons.

An action potential releases neurotransmitter from a neuron by opening which of the following channels? 1. chemically gated Ca2+ channels 2. voltage-gated K+ channels 3. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels 4. voltage-gated Na+ channels

3. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels Explanation: Yes, opening of these channels causes calcium to move into the axon terminal. Calcium inside the neuron causes the vesicles to merge with the membrane and release the neurotransmitter via exocytosis into the synaptic cleft.

Where are ganglia of the parasympathetic division located? 1. near major arteries just as they exit the aorta. 2. within the medullas of endocrine glands. 3. within or near effector organs. 4. in chains on either side the spinal column.

3. within or near effector organs. Explanation: Note the location of synapses between preganglionic and ganglionic fibers on the left side of the figure that summarizes the outflow of the parasympathetic division.

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. 1. thalamus 2.cerebellum 3.hypothalamus 4.medulla

3.hypothalamus

What is the resting membrane potential of the neuron used in the experiment? (FLIP) 1. -50 mV 2. -60 mV 3. -70 mV 4. -80 mV

4. -80 mV Explanation: The resting membrane potential for this neuron would be the line at which there is no activity because this neuron has not yet been stimulated. For this particular neuron, we can see that it is right at −80 mV−80 mV.

Which of the following is the best explanation of why it is difficult to discriminate the color of an object at night? 1. The foveae are densely packed with cones. 2. Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light. 3. As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell. 4. At night, the amount of light entering the eye is insufficient to stimulate the cone cells but is sufficient to stimulate the rod cells.

4. At night, the amount of light entering the eye is insufficient to stimulate the cone cells but is sufficient to stimulate the rod cells.

When a neurotransmitter like acetylcholine is acting in an excitatory manner which of the following is likely a result of the acetylcholine acting on the postsynaptic cell? 1. Chemically gated potassium channels will open. 2. Chemically gated chloride channels will open. 3. Chemically gated sodium channels will be closed. 4. Chemically gated sodium channels will open.

4. Chemically gated sodium channels will open.

Which of the following structures of the eye is most responsible for absorbing light? 1. pupil 2. lens 3. cornea 4. choroid

4. Choroid Explanation: The choroid, the dark layer posterior to the retina, absorbs light rays that pass the retina.

Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to only three (perhaps four) wavelengths of light. What is the best explanation for why we see so many colors? 1. Colors are added and enhanced in the primary visual cortex of the brain. 2. Shades of color are purely psychological and learned by association with age, infants only seeing in black and white. 3. Color perception is dependent on the millions of rods as well as cone photoreceptors. 4. Color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types.

4. Color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types.

The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. Which of the following gives the best explanation for why this is so? 1. Acetylcholine has many different forms. 2. Postsynaptic cells have a dynamic and changing metabolism and respond differently at different times. 3. Acetylcholine has a "dose effect." Larger doses are stimulating while small doses inhibit. 4. Different postsynaptic cells will have different receptors.

4. Different postsynaptic cells will have different receptors.

Which description best fits graded potentials? 1. Graded potentials are caused only by the influx of sodium ions. 2. Graded potentials are all-or-nothing events. 3. Graded potentials are found only along the axon of a neuron. 4. Graded potentials can result in either depolarization or hyperpolarization of the membrane and vary in strength.

4. Graded potentials can result in either depolarization or hyperpolarization of the membrane and vary in strength. Explanation: Both EPSPs and IPSPs are graded potentials. The signal strength of each varies depending on both temporal and spatial summation.

During the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential, when the membrane potential is more negative than the resting membrane potential, what happens to voltage-gated ion channels? 1. K+ channels open. Na+ channels inactivate. 2. K+ channels close. Leakage channels open. 3. K+ channels close. Na+ channels open. 4. K+ channels close. Na+ channels go from an inactivated state to a closed state.

4. K+ channels close. Na+ channels go from an inactivated state to a closed state. Explanation: Voltage-gated K+ channels are opened by depolarization. This means that as the membrane potential repolarizes and then hyperpolarizes, these K+ channels close. With the closing of voltage-gated K+ channels, the membrane potential returns to the resting membrane potential via leakage channel activity. Resetting voltage-gated Na+ channels to the closed (but not inactivated) state prepares them for the next action potential.

People who lose their sense of taste may also lose interest in eating. Which of the following is involved in the perception of tastes? 1. Taste cells for sweet are only located at the anterior tip of the tongue. 2. Transduction of sour and sweet tastes involves activation of a G protein called gustducin. 3. Afferent impulses related to taste are carried to from the tongue to the CNS by the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). 4.Much of what is perceived as a taste defect may actually be a defect in olfaction, which causes foods and beverages to taste differently.

4. Much of what is perceived as a taste defect may actually be a defect in olfaction, which causes foods and beverages to taste differently. Explanation: Taste perception results from the combination of sensations of smell, taste, temperature, and texture of the foods and beverages being ingested. Smell, however, contributes approximately 80% of the sensory input perceived as taste. Thus, a defect of olfaction can significantly impair taste.

___ A condition that can result from a deficiency of vitamin A. 1. Glaucoma 2. otitis media 3. Conduction deafness 4. Night blindness

4. Night blindness

__________ are receptors that can respond to painful stimuli. 1. Photoreceptors 2. Chemoreceptors 3. Mechanoreceptors 4. Nociceptors

4. Nociceptors Explanation: Nociceptors respond to potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain.

___: an excitatory neurotransmitter, it causes a pleasant mood, increased attentiveness in the brain, and also causes blood vessel vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure. 1. Serotonin 2. Dopamine 3. GABA 4. Norepinephrine 5. Glutatmate 6. Endorphins

4. Norepinephrine

Some nerve fibers of the peripheral nervous system have the ability to regenerate after damage has occurred. Which of the following cells is most responsible for aiding in this regulation? 1. satellite cells 2. oligodendrocytes 3. astrocytes 4. Schwann cells

4. Schwann cells

FLIP!! Name the glial cell at F. 1. ependymal cells 2. satellite cells 3. oligodendrocytes 4. Schwann cell

4. Shwann cell Explantion: Schwann cells carry out myelination of the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

What is the receptor organ for hearing? 1. cochlear duct 2. Tympanic membrane 3. vestibule 4. Spiral organ (of Corti)

4. Spiral organ (of Corti)

______ Chemically sensitive microvilli found in this structure. 1. Macula 2. Olfactory epithelium 3. Crista ampullaris 4. Taste buds

4. Taste buds

A patient sustains a ventral horn injury to the lumbar region of the spine. This injury has damaged the cell bodies of several afferent nerves within the region. Predict how the patient's patellar reflex might be affected. 1. The hamstring would relax, but the quadriceps would not contract. 2. The patient's patellar reflex would be hyperactive. 3. Both the quadriceps and the hamstring would contract. 4. The patient's patellar reflex would be absent or weak. 5. The quadriceps would contract, but the hamstring would not relax.

4. The patient's patellar reflex would be absent or weak.

What brain structure separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes? 1. central sulcus 2. transverse cerebral fissure 3. parieto-occipital sulcus 4.lateral sulcus

4.lateral sulcus Explanation: The lateral sulcus separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes on each side of the brain.

Local anesthetics block voltage-gated Na+ channels, but they do not block mechanically gated ion channels. Sensory receptors for touch (and pressure) respond to physical deformation of the receptors, resulting in the opening of specific mechanically gated ion channels. Why does injection of a local anesthetic into a finger still cause a loss of the sensation of touch from the finger? 1. The local anesthetic prevents Na+ from causing the initial depolarization of this sensory receptor. 2. The local anesthetic prevents any type of repolarization of this sensory receptor. 3. Touch stimulation of this sensory receptor requires that there be a simultaneous opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels and mechanically gated ion channels. 4.Touch stimulation of this sensory receptor will open the mechanically gated ion channels, but action potentials are still not initiated because propagation of an action potential requires the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.

4. Touch stimulation of this sensory receptor will open the mechanically gated ion channels, but action potentials are still not initiated because propagation of an action potential requires the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels. Explanation: Propagation (spreading) of an action potential from the axon hillock to the axon terminals (synaptic knobs) requires the sequential opening of mechanically and voltage-gated ion channels. When the sequence is interrupted, the message cannot spread to the sensory regions of the central nervous system, causing numbness.

Bitter taste is elicited by ________. 1. hydrogen ions 2. acids 3. metal ions 4. alkaloids

4. alkaloids

The blind spot of the eye is caused by ________. 1. an absence of cones in the foveae. 2. the macula lutea interrupts the nerve pathway. 3. more rods than cones within the retina. 4. an absence of photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye.

4. an absence of photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye

Which structure or organ is innervated exclusively by sympathetic fibers? 1. gallbladder 2. heart 3. iris 4. arrector pili muscles

4. arrector pili muscles Explanation: Arrector pili muscles in the skin are innervated by sympathetic fibers but not parasympathetic fibers.

After Joe has a stroke, his doctor asks Joe to touch his right pointer finger to his chin, but Joe is unable to move his right hand. However, when the doctor stimulates Joe's pointer finger with a painful stimulus, Joe's muscles quickly move his hand away from the stimulus. The doctor concludes that ______. 1. the stroke caused damage to Joe's frontal eye field which interfered with his effort to touch his chin. 2. the stroke caused damage to Joe's right primary motor cortex. 3. the stroke caused damage to Joe's left premotor cortex. 4. based on the doctor's observations, none of the listed answers are correct conclusions.

4. based on the doctor's observations, none of the listed answers are correct conclusions Explanation: Review central nervous system control of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions and compare it to reflex arc activation.

Spinocerebellar tracts ________. 1. give rise to conscious experience of perception. 2. are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord. 3. terminate in the spinal cord. 4. carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum.

4. carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum

Which of the following target organs/systems is affected by the sympathetic nervous system but is NOT affected by the parasympathetic nervous system? 1. lungs 2. Gallbladder 3. salivary glands 4. cellular metabolism

4. cellular metabolism Explanation: Preganglionic sympathetic fibers stimulate the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine into the bloodstream during "fight-or-flight" situations (such as exercise). In turn, epinephrine increases cellular metabolism (metabolic rate).

What part of the spinal cord represents an increase in cell body mass for upper limb control? 1. cauda equina 2. conus medullaris 3. lumbar enlargement 4. cervical enlargement

4. cervical enlargement Explanation: The spinal cord has an obvious enlargement in the cervical region, called the cervical enlargement, where the cell bodies controlling the upper limbs arise.

Which structure is NOT matched with its function? 1. choroid: circulatory layer. 2. iris: allow light into eye. 3. retina: senses light. 4. ciliary body: focus the pupil.

4. ciliary body: focus the pupil. Explanation: The ciliary body does have a muscular complex; however, it acts to change the shape of the lens to focus an image on the retina.

What term refers to the eyes moving medially to track items close at hand? 1. accommodation 2. refraction 3. constriction 4. convergence

4. convergence explanation: Convergence is the medial rotation of the eyes by the medial rectus muscles; this lets the eyes fixate on a close object.

Which reflex has a contralateral component? 1. tendon 2. flexor 3. stretch 4. crossed-extensor

4. crossed-extensor Explanation: The crossed-extensor reflex activates opposing actions in the opposite limb.

Which reflex is triggered when a stranger suddenly grasps your arm? 1. tendon reflex 2. plantar reflex 3. stretch reflex 4. crossed-extensor reflex

4. crossed-extensor reflex Explanation: The grasped arm is withdrawn (via the flexor reflex) as the opposite arm pushes you away from the attacker (via crossed-extensor reflex). As in this scenario, the crossed-extensor reflex often accompanies the flexor reflex.

During the action potential, when does sodium permeability initially DECREASE? 1. during repolarization 2. during hyperpolarization 3. during the rising phase of depolarization. 4. during the peak of depolarization.

4. during the peak of depolarization. Explanation: At the peak of the action potential, the inactivation gates of the voltage-gated Na+ channels are rapidly closing. This causes a rapid decrease in the membrane's permeability to Na+.

The sensation of loudness or the volume of a sound is detected by ________. 1. faster vibration of the basilar membrane resulting in a higher frequency of hair cell stimulation. 2. sounds that can travel all the way to the apex of the scala vestibule with enough energy remaining to deflect hair cells. 3. vibration along a greater length of the basilar membrane, stimulating a greater number of hair cells. 4. greater movement of the basilar membrane resulting in greater deflection of the hair cells.

4. greater movement of the basilar membrane resulting in greater deflection of the hair cells.

Loss of function in the enzyme acetylcholine esterase would result in which of the following? 1. amplify or enhance the effect of ACh. 2. stimulation of the production of acetylcholine. 3. inability to release acetylcholine 4. inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft.

4. inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft.

Which best describes the function of olfactory cilia? 1. help transport mucus toward nasopharynx. 2. help move air through nasal passages. 3. trap inhaled particulates before air reaches lungs. 4. increase surface area of neurons receptive to airborne chemicals.

4. increase surface area of neurons receptive to airborne chemicals.

Which plexus does NOT receive innervation from the vagus nerve? 1. pulmonary plexuses 2. abdominal aortic plexus 3. cardiac plexuses 4. inferior hypogastric plexus

4. inferior hypogastric plexus Explanation: The inferior hypogastric plexus receives nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic (spinal) nerves, not the vagus (cranial) nerve. As the vagus nerves pass into the thorax, they send branches to the cardiac, pulmonary, and esophageal plexuses. In the abdominal cavity, they send fibers through the large abdominal aortic plexus.

Which of the lobes of the brain contains the gustatory cortex? 1. parietal 2. frontal 3. temporal 4. insula

4. insula Expl: The insula, which lies deep to the temporal, parietal, and frontal lobes, contains the gustatory cortex responsible for the perception of taste.

What component of the reflex arc determines the response to a stimulus? 1. effector 2. sensory neuron 3. receptor 4.integration center

4. integration center Explanation: The integration center receives sensory information (input), determines the proper response, and then signals the appropriate effector(s) to produce the response.

Which of the following is NOT required for a reflex arc? 1. sensory neurons 2. motor neurons 3. receptors 4. interneurons

4. interneurons Explanation: In many cases, the interneurons are the integration point for reflexes, but they are not necessary.

Dark adaptation ________. 1. results in inhibition of rod function. 2. primarily involves improvement of acuity and color vision. 3. is much faster than light adaptation. 4. involves accumulation of rhodopsin.

4. involves accumulation of rhodopsin.

Emotional memory ________. 1. involves remembering names, faces, words, and dates. 2. involves remembering motor skills such as riding a bike. 3. involves remembering a skill such as playing a musical instrument. 4. involves your pounding heart when you hear a rattlesnake.

4. involves your pounding heart when you hear a rattlesnake.

Regeneration within the CNS ________. 1. is more successful than with the PNS. 2. typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm. 3. is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars. 4. is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes.

4. is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes.

When a person's cold is accompanied by "watery eyes," there is reduced flow of lacrimal fluid directly into the ______. 1. lacrimal glands 2. lacrimal canaliculi 3. lacrimal sac 4. lacrimal puncta

4. lacrimal puncta Explanation: This structure is the beginning point of each lacrimal canaliculi. They are seen on the medial portion of each eyelid. They function to collect tears produced by the lacrimal glands. These openings can become swollen or blocked during a cold or allergic reaction.

The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following? 1. less light getting to the retina and diminished visual acuity. 2. a clouding of the lenses known as a cataract. 3. lowered accommodation of the pupillary reflex and blurry vision. 4. less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects.

4. less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects.

Which of the following structures is probably NOT directly involved in memory? 1. prefrontal cortex 2. hippocampus 3. thalamus 4. medulla oblongata

4. medulla oblongata

The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________. 1. nutrients such as glucose 2. anesthetics 3. alcohol 4. metabolic waste such as urea

4. metabolic waste such as urea

All somatic motor neurons produce __________. 1. both acetylcholine and norepinephrine. 2. only norepinephrine 3. both epinephrine and norepinephrine. 4. only acetylcholine

4. only acetylcholine Explanation: Somatic motor neurons activate skeletal muscle fibers at neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

An individual accidentally transected (cut across) the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________. 1. spinal shock only 2. quadriplegia 3. hemiplegia 4. paraplegia

4. paraplegia

Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart's rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? 1. sensory (afferent) division 2. somatic nervous system 3. sympathetic division 4. parasympathetic division

4. parasympathetic division.

Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc? 1. effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor. 2. receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector. 3. effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor. 4. receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector.

4. receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector.

Which of the following is (are) involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)? 1. Wernicke's area 2. gustatory cortex 3. postcentral gyrus 4.red nuclei

4. red nuclei

Which of the following appears to exert the most direct influence over autonomic functions? 1. medulla oblongata 2. midbrain 3. hypothalamus 4. reticular formation

4. reticular formation

In multiple sclerosis, the cells that are the target of an autoimmune attack are the _________. 1. neurons 2. muscle cells 3. Schwann cells 4.oligodendrocytes

4.oligodendrocytes Explanation: Oligodendrocytes are a type of neuroglial cell that function to form the myelin sheath around the axons of neurons within the central nervous system. These are the glial cells targeted by the immune system in people who have MS.

In addition to diffusion, what are two other mechanisms that terminate neurotransmitter activity? 1. exocytosis and degradation 2. excitation and degradation 3. reuptake and inhibition 4. reuptake and degradation

4. reuptake and degradation Explanation: To terminate neurotransmitter effects, neurotransmitter molecules must be removed from the synaptic cleft. Reuptake does this by moving neurotransmitter back into the presynaptic neuron. Diffusion causes neurotransmitter to drift away from the synaptic cleft. Degradation occurs when enzymes break down neurotransmitter. As long as neurotransmitter molecules remain in the synaptic cleft, the chemically gated channels on the postsynaptic cell will continue to bind them and cause graded potentials.

Which of the following structures contain receptors that monitor changes in head rotation? 1. saccule 2. utricle 3. cochlea 4. semicircular canals

4. semicircular canals Explanation: The receptor for rotational acceleration, called the crista ampullaris or simply crista, is a minute elevation in the ampulla of each semicircular canal. The semicircular canals monitor changes in head rotation, called our sense of dynamic equilibrium.

Which of the following describes the excitatory postsynaptic potential? 1. opens K+ or Cl- channels. 2. moves membrane potential away from threshold. 3. short distance hyperpolarization 4. short distance depolarization

4. short distance depolarization.

Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. 1. parasympathetic division 2. cerebrum 3. somatic nervous system 4. sympathetic division

4. sympathetic division

The small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron is the__: 1. vesicle. 2. synaptic terminal. 3. calcium channel. 4. synaptic cleft. 5. neurotransmitter.

4. synaptic cleft. Explanation: The synaptic cleft is the small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron.

REM sleep is associated with ________. 1. decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex. 2. decreased activity of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex. 3. decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure. 4. temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm.

4. temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm.

A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________. 1. plantar reflex 2. crossed-extensor reflex 3. flexor reflex 4. tendon reflex

4. tendon reflex

Autonomic motor neurons __________. 1. release only acetylcholine. 2. are typically heavily myelinated. 3. innervate skeletal muscle. 4. utilize a two-neuron chain to reach their effectors.

4. utilize a two-neuron chain to reach their effectors. Explanation: Autonomic neural pathways utilize two neurons, a preganglionic neuron and a postganglionic neuron, to reach their effector.

Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential? 1. It is initiated by voltage changes in the membrane. 2. It has a depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization phase. 3. It travels long distances. 4.It can have amplitudes of various sizes.

4.It can have amplitudes of various sizes.

A patient reports that she has become completely deaf; she can't hear anything. Thorough tests on her ears indicate that her ears have not been damaged. Additional tests reveal that her deafness has been caused by damage to her ______. 1. primary somatosensory cortex 2. auditory association area 3. somatosensory association cortex 4.None of the listed responses is correct.

4.None of the listed responses is correct. Explanation: Review the different sensory cortices of the parietal and temporal lobes of the brain.

Why does regeneration of the action potential occur in one direction, rather than in two directions? 1. The activation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close in the node, or segment, that has just depolarized. 2. The inactivation gates of voltage-gated K+‎ channels close in the node, or segment, that has just fired an action potential. 3. The activation gates of voltage-gated K+‎ channels open in the node, or segment, that has just depolarized. 4.The inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close in the node, or segment, that has just fired an action potential.

4.The inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close in the node, or segment, that has just fired an action potential. Explanation: At the peak of the depolarization phase of the action potential, the inactivation gates close. Thus, the voltage-gated Na+‎ channels become absolutely refractory to another depolarizing stimulus.

What is the function of the myelin sheath? 1. The myelin sheath decreases the resistance of the axonal membrane to the flow of charge. 2. The myelin sheath increases the insulation along the entire length of the axon. 3. The myelin sheath decreases the speed of action potential conduction from the initial segment to the axon terminals. 4.The myelin sheath increases the speed of action potential conduction from the initial segment to the axon terminals.

4.The myelin sheath increases the speed of action potential conduction from the initial segment to the axon terminals. Explantion: The myelin sheath increases the velocity of conduction by two mechanisms. First, myelin insulates the axon, reducing the loss of depolarizing current across the plasma membrane. Second, the myelin insulation allows the voltage across the membrane to change much faster. Because of these two mechanisms, regeneration only needs to happen at the widely spaced nodes of Ranvier, so the action potential appears to jump.

Which target organ is not affected by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? 1. lungs 2. heart 3.liver 4.adrenal medulla

4.adrenal medulla Explanation: The adrenal medulla is not innervated (thus not affected) by the parasympathetic division of the ANS. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers stimulate the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine (hormones that contribute to the overall fight-or-flight response mediated by the sympathetic division of the ANS) into the bloodstream.

The term central nervous system refers to the ________. 1. sensory (afferent) nerves 2. somatic nerves 3. spinal nerves 4.brain and spinal cord

4.brain and spinal cord.

Which brain structure is most responsible for interacting with and controlling the endocrine system? 1. epithalamus 2. thalamus 3. medulla oblongata 4.hypothalamus

4.hypothalamus Explantion: The hypothalamus connects to the pituitary gland via the infundibulum. The hypothalamus secretes inhibiting and releasing hormones that control the hormones secreted by the pituitary gland.

Which motor area both has a homunculus and has descending projection fibers? 1. Broca's area 2. frontal eye fields 3. premotor cortex 4.primary motor cortex

4.primary motor cortex Explanation: The primary motor cortex has projections for the entire human body map, or homunculus. Axons from the primary motor cortex project from the frontal lobe to the spinal cord.

If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon, ________. 1. the impulse would move to the axon terminal only, and the muscle contraction would occur. 2. the impulse would move to the axon terminal only. 3. muscle contraction would occur. 4.the impulse would spread bidirectionally.

4.the impulse would spread bidirectionally.

If a postsynaptic neuron is stimulated to threshold by spatial summation this implies that ________. 1. the postsynaptic cell has a lower than normal threshold. 2. the postsynaptic cell is slow to repolarize. 3. the postsynaptic cell has many voltage gated ion channels. 4.the postsynaptic cell has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons.

4.the postsynaptic cell has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons.

Most preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic system arise from which nerve pair? 1. oculomotor 2. splanchnic 3. glossopharyngeal 4.vagus

4.vagus Explanation: The heart, lung, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, stomach, and intestines--virtually all of the visceral organs of the thoracic and abdominal cavities--contain ganglia innervated by nerve fibers from the vagus nerves.

Where nerves serving the upper limbs arise, is what? 1. Filum terminale 2. Cauda equina 3. Conus medullaris 4. Cervial enlargement

Cervial enlargement

Which description of synapses is not correct? 1. Direct signaling involves the activation of G proteins. 2. Ionotropic receptors are ion channels that open and influence the polarization of the membrane. 3. Excitatory synapses cause depolarization. 4.Second messengers can activate gene activities in the postsynaptic neuron.

Direct signaling involves the activation of G proteins. Explantion: Indirect signaling involves intracellular second messenger molecules, typically via G protein pathways. Direct signaling involves neurotransmitters that bind to ligand-gated ion channels and leads directly to changes to the polarization of the membrane.

___: One incoming axon triggers responses in ever-increasing numbers farther and farther along the circuit.

Diverging circuit

True or false? The structure that allows equalization of the pressure in the middle ear with the atmospheric pressure is the external auditory meatus.

False

True or false? Thermoregulatory responses to increased heat are mediated by the parasympathetic nervous division.

False

True or false? As light hits the retina, the first structure the light encounters is a rod or a cone.

False Explanation: Contrary to what might make sense, light has to pass through the ganglion cells, through the bipolar cells, and finally strikes the rods and the cones.

True or false? Stretch reflexes can cause reciprocal inhibition because the sensory neuron synapses on the alpha motor neurons of both agonists and antagonists.

False Explanation: The stretch reflex activates agonists directly. However, reciprocal inhibition of the antagonist happens through an interneuron.

What is the stage that, vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, and body temperature) reach their lowest normal levels. 1. NREM stage 2 2. REM 3. NREM stage 1 4. NREM stage 3 5.NREM stage 4

NREM stage 4

What stage is the sleep cycle where bed-wetting, night terrors, and sleepwalking may occur. 1. NREM stage 2 2. REM 3. NREM stage 1 4. NREM stage 3 5.NREM stage 4

NREM stage 4

_____ : Lamellar corpuscle?

Pacinian corpuscle

___ : May be involved in complex, exacting types of mental processing.

Parallell after-discharege circuit

True or false? If the neuron membrane becomes more permeable to Na+, Na+ will transport across the membrane, causing the cell to depolarize.

True Explanation: In either a graded or action potential, Na+ is transported into the cell faster than during resting potentials. As Na+ enters the cell, the inside of the cell becomes more positive, or depolarized.

True or false? The term cerebral dominance designates the hemisphere that is dominant for language.

True Explanation: One cerebral hemisphere or the other "dominates" each of the brain's tasks, and the term cerebral dominance designates the hemisphere that is dominant for language. In most people (about 90%), the left hemisphere has greater control over language abilities, math, and logic.

True or false? As the ciliary muscle relaxes, the suspensory ligaments tighten and stretch the lens, allowing for distance vision.

True Explanation: Sympathetic innervation relaxes the ciliary body. As the muscle relaxes, it pulls on the suspensory ligaments, which put tension on the lens. This allows images that are farther away to focus on the retina.

True of false? In general, a primary sensory cortex breaks down sensory input into component parts, while an association cortex makes sense of sensory inputs.

True Explanation: The primary sensory cortex receives sensory inputs in their cruder forms, while the association cortex helps you understand what the sensory input means.

GRID: Which of the following mechanisms is most significant in returning the ion concentrations to the resting state (from point D to point E)?

active transport by the Na+-K+ pump Explanation: Maintenance (and restoration) of the resting ion concentrations depends on the Na+-K+ pump. Once gated ion channels are closed, the combined action of the pump and ion leakage (particularly that of K+) establishes a resting membrane potential in a typical neuron of around −70 mV.

The generation of an action potential in a neuron requires the presence what type of membrane channels? 1. chemically gated channels 2. voltage-gated channels 3. leakage channels 4. membrane channels are not required.

voltage-gated channels.