PMP

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as: A. A Knowledge area B. A process group C. Program management D. Portfolio management

A framework for keeping an organization focused on its overall strategy is: A. Organizational project management B. The PMBOK Guide C. Project governance D. Portfolio management

A primary function of a project management office is to support project managers in a variety of ways, including which of the following? A. Developing and managing project policies, procedures, templates, and other shared documentation B. Acting as the project sponsor by providing financial resources to the project C. Resolving issues and change management within a shared governance structure D. Aligning organizational/strategic direction that affects project and program goals

A project can be defined as a/an: A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique procduct, service, or result B. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs C. Permanent endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service or result D. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

A project is best defined as: A. A temporary endeavor undertaken to provide a unique product, service or result B. A collection of tasks with a common objective C. A significant non-routine change with defined objectives and a clear start and end D. An extraordinary enterprise that is outwith/outside the scope of business as usual

A project lifecycle is defined as: A. A collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases B. A process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required , to complete the project successfully C. A recognized standard for the project management profession. D. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure? A. Projectized B. Weak matrix C. Functional D. Balanced matrix

A project manager is trying to complete a software development project but cannot get enough attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process-related work, and the project manager has little authority to assign resources. What form of organization must the project manager be working in? A. Functional B. Matrix C. Expediter D. Coordinator

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate: A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database B. Historical information and the stakeholder register C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database D. Project documents and historical information

A project manager wants to more extensively involve stakeholders on the project. Which of the following would be the BEST way to accomplish this? A. Have the stakeholders periodically review the list of project requirements B. Invite the stakeholders to attend project status meeting C. Send status reports to stakeholders D. Update the stakeholders on the status of all project changes

A routine audit of cost-reimbursable contract determines that overcharges are being made. If the contract does not take specific corrective action, the buyer should: A. Continue to make project payments B. Halt payments until the problem is corrected C. Void the contract and start legal action to recover overpayments D. Change the contract to require more frequent audits

A scope baseline consists of what? A. Scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary B. Cost baseline, quality baseline, and schedule baseline C. Configuration management plan and configuration identification documents D. Procurement statement of work and project scope statement

A stakeholder engagement assessment matric can be used to identify: A. Communication gaps B. Additional stakeholder C. Key relationship between stakeholders D. Skill levels of stakeholders

A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process? A. Plan Stakeholder Management B. Identify Stakeholders C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement D. Control Stakeholder Engagement

A team member is visiting the mfg. plant of one of the suppliers. Which of the following is the MOST important thing to be done in any telephone call the project manager might make to the team member? A. Ask the team remember to repeat back what the project manager says B. Review the list of contact information for all stakeholders C. Ask the team member to look for change requests D. Review the upcoming meeting schedule

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a: A. Project B. Plan C. Program D. Portfolio

A tool and technique used during during the Define Scope process is: A. Facilitated workshops B. Observations C. Questionnaires and surveys D. Group creativity techniques

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is: A. Prototypes B. Expert judgment C. Alternatives identification D. Product analysis

According to Maylor, what are traditionally the core three risk categories? A. Cost, schedule, and quality B. Environment, cost, and legal C. Resources, schedule, and health and safety D. Schedule, health, quality

All the following occur during the planning process group except A. Develop Project Charter B. Create WBS C. Estimate Costs D. Sequence Activities

An element of the project scope statement is: A. Acceptance criteria B. A stakeholder list C. A summary budget D. High-level risks

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an: A. Business Case B. Activity List C. Project Management plan D. Cost forecast

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the: A. Stakeholder register B. Project management plan C. Project scope statement D. Requirements management plan

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process? A. Manage ProJet Team B. Acquire Project Team C. Plan Human Resource Management D. Develop Project Team

An output of the Close Project Phase process is the creation of: A. Project archives B. A project charter C. A project management plan D. A risk management plan

An output of the Create WBS process is: A. Scope baseline B. Project scope statement C. Organizational process assets D. Requirements traceability matrix

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is: A. Change requests B. Enterprise environmental factors C. The stakeholder management plan D. The change log

As a project manager, you have had to develop skills to help plan and manage projects successfully. Which skills would best help you encourage project teams to reach levels of high cooperation and achievement, promote a positive relationship with sellers on a project, and involve stakeholders appropriately through all aspects of the project? A. Active listening, negotiating and political awareness B. Networking, communication models, and SWOT C. Sensitivity analysis, active listening, and leadership D. Communication methods, team building and claims administration

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as: A. Updates B. Defect repairs C. Preventive actions D. Corrective actions

Close Procurements is different from Close Project or Phase in that Close Procurements: A. Occurs before Close project or Phase B. Is the only one to involve the customer C. Includes the return of property D. May be done more than once for each contract

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resr4ouces are processes in which project management Knowledge Area? A. Project Time Management B. Project Cost Management C. Project Scope Management D. Project Human Resource Management

Design of experiments: A. Identifies which variables will have the most influence on a quality outcome B. Identifies which variables will have the least influence on a quality outcome C. Determines what a quality outcome is D. Determines methods to be used for research and development

During a team meeting, the team adds a specific area of extra work to the project because they have determines it would benefit the customer. What is wrong in this situation? A. The team is gold plating B. These efforts shouldn't be done in meetings C. Nothing. This is how to meet and exceed customer expectations D. Nothing. The project manager is in control of the situation

During the six month update on a 1 year, $50,000 project, the analysis shows that the PV is $25,000; the EV is $20,000 and the AC is $15,000. What can be determined from these figures? A. The project is behind schedule and over cost. B. The project is ahead of schedule and under cost. C. The project is ahead of schedule and over cost. D. The project is behind schedule and under cost.

Estimate Costs: A. Involves developing an estimate of the cost of the resources needed to complete project activities. B. Does not include identifying and considering various costing alternatives. C. Involves allocating the overall estimates to individual work items. D. Produces a cost management plan

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be: A. Tangible B. Targeted C. Organized D. Variable

Forcing, as a means to manage conflict: A. Exerts one's view at the potential expense of another party. B. Emphasizes areas of agreement while avoiding points of disagreement. C. Establishes a lose-lose situation. D. Does not have a purpose

How does the PMBOK define leadership? A. Developing a vision and strategy B. Communicating the vision by words and deeds C. The ability to get things done D. Consistently producing the key results expected by shareholders

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis? A. Keep satisfied B. Keep informed C. Manage closely D. Monitor

Identify risks is part of which Process Group? A. Planning B. Executing C. Closing D. Initiating

If the optimistic estimate for the an activity is 12 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 18 days, what is the standard deviation of this activity? A. 1 B. 1.3 C. 6D. 3

In a fixed-price (FP) contract, (from the buyer's perspective) the fee or profit is: A. Unknown B. Part of the negotiation involved in paying for every invoice C. Applied as a line item to every invoice D. Determined with the other party at the end of the project

In the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized? A. When the project charter is signed B. When all the stakeholders agree on the scope of the project C. When the project manager is appointed D. When the necessary finance or funding is obtained

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions and services meet the procurement documents requirements? (278) A. Technical approach B. Technical capability C. Business size and type D. Production capacity and interest

In which document, should project acceptance criteria be established? A. Project scope statement B. Work breakdown structure C. Resource assignments D. Project scope management plan

In which process group is the scope first defined? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Controlling

In which type of organizational structure are staff membe3rs grouped by specialty? A. Functional B. Projectized C. Matrix D. Balanced

Inputs to identifying stakeholders include: A. Project charter, procurement documents, enterprise environmental factors and organizational process assets B. Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets C. Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and stakeholder management strategy D. Project charter, procurement documents, expert judgment and organizational process assets

Integration is done by: A. Project Manager B. Team C. Sponsor D. Stakeholders

Ken is managing a project where the morale of the team is very low. The team members have been on the project for more than a year and though the project is due to end in a few weeks' time, they do not know what is in store for them. What should Ken have planned better to avoid such a situation? A. Staff release plan B. Job rotation within the project. C. Ground rules D. 360-degree feedback

Legitimate power is: A. Power derived from a person's formal position in the organization. B. Power bestowed due to a person's personal qualities and abilities. C. Power earned based on a person's technical knowledge, skill, or expertise in a particular area. D. Power to distribute information as one sees fit.

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and: A. Available organizational assets B. Project staff assginemtns C. Interpersonal skills D. Enterprise environmental factors

Plan Quality Management is: A. Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them B. Preparing the design to the customer's specifications C. Monitoring the project results to decide if the outputs fulfill the requirements D. Determining the necessary quality sampling techniques

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeho9lder classification model? A. Salience B. Influence/impace C. Power/interest D. Power/influence

Present Value measures: A. The value today of future cash flows. B. The rate of return on an investment. C. The current estimate of our project budget. D. The value of work completed.

Progressive elaboration is defined as A. Developing in steps and continuing by increments B. Increasing the scope of the work over time C. Increasing the accuracy of estimates from phase to phase D. Providing more detailed product specifications at lower levels of Work Breakdown

Project Management is the application of ... A. Knowledge, skills, tools and techniques B. Knowledge, skills, processes and techniques C. Knowledge, experience, processes and techniques D. Knowledge, skills, experience and techniques

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories? A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of: A. Influencing B. Leadership C. Motivation D. Coaching

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include: A. Feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype B. Initiate, plan, execute and monitor C. Develop charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build and test

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between: A. Risk taking and risk avoidance B. Known risk and unknown risk C. Identified risk and analysized risk D. Varying degrees of risk

Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following? A. Acceptance of the work deliverables B. Accuracy of the work deliverables C. Approval of the scope statement D. Accuracy of th work breakdown structure

Stakeholders are A. Those actively involved in the project or whose interests may be affected B. Those who are expected to make an investment of time or money C. Those who will be responsible for supporting the result after implementation D. Those who will be part of the project team

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be: A. Continuous B. Discrete C. Regulated D. Arbitrary

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group? A. Initiating B. Monitor and Controlling C. Planning D. Executing

The MOST effective way to accelerate the project integration process is: A. Through frequent periodic team communications B. By assigning specific responsibilities to each project employee. C. By having the sponsor apply direct influence on the project team. D. To use crisis periods to reinforce integration activities

The Procurement Statement of Work (SOW) is an output of which process? A. Plan Procurement Management B. Close Procurements C. Control Procurements D. None of the above

The Project Manager decides to create an online database that can be used to query the documents by name, type, date, etc. This is an example of what type of communication tool? A. Project Management Information System B. Lessons Learned C. Configuration Management System D. Project Records

The Stakeholder Register is an output of which process? A. Identify Stakeholders B. Plan Stakeholder Management C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement D. Control Stakeholder Management

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with: A. Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. B. Accuracy of the work deliverables C. Formalizing approval of the scope statement D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS)

The ability to influence is greatest during which stages of the project? (206) A. Early B. Middle C. Late D. Completion

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following? A. Project B. Scope C. Contract D. Program

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called: A. Tracking B. Scoping C. Timing D. Defining

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component? A. Timing B. Methodology C. Risk categories D. Budgeting

The high-level project schedule constraints have been determined. What project management process group are you in? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Monitoring and controlling

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WBS) is called a WBS: A. Dictionary B. Chart C. Report D. Register

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (WBS) is called a/an: A. Work package B. Deliverable C. Milestone D. Activity

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as: A. Earned value management B. Forecasting C. Critical chain methodology D. Critical path methodology

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the: A. Stakeholder management strategy B. Communications management plan C. Stakeholder register D. Performance report

The person who should be in control of the project during project planning is the: A. Project manager B. Team member C. Functional manager D. Sponsor

The process of establishing the policies, procedures and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as: A. Plan Schedule Management B. Develop Project Charter C. Develop Schedule D. Plan Scope Management

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as: A. Define Activities B. Sequence Activities C. Define Scope D. Control Schedule

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is: A. Define Activities B. Create WBS C. Define Scope D. Develop Schedule

The project manager is having a conflict with project personnel. Which of the following methods decreases the immediate intensity of the conflict? A. Smoothing B. Compromising C. Confronting D. Forcing

The project manager is working to clearly describe the level of involvement expected from everyone on the project in order to prevent rework, conflict, coordination problems. Which of the following best describes the project manager's efforts? A. Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Quality Management B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Direct and Manage Project Work C. Validate Scope and Control Quality D. Identify Risks and Develop Project Team

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response? A. Transfer B. Share C. Avoid D. Accept

The role of each stakeholder is determined by: A. The stakeholder and sponsor B. The project manager and sponsor C. The team and project manager D. The project manager and stakeholder

The software development project has progressed according to plan. The team is very enthusiastic about the product they have created. Now they are looking ahead to finding new projects to work on. You caution them that the current project cannot be considered complete until after the closing process group. Closure includes all of the following except: A. Determining performance measures B. Turning over the product of the project C. Documenting the degree to which each project phase was properly closed after its completion D. Updating the company's organization process assets

The stakeholder register is an output of: A. Identify Stakeholders B. Plan Stakeholder Management C. Control Stakeholder Engagement D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

To control a schedule a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project duration. She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of scheduling flexibility. What technique does she use? A. Critical path method B. Flow Chart C. Precedence diagramming D. Work Breakdown Structure

Two project managers have just realized that they are in a weak matrix organization and that their power as project managers is quite limited. One figures out that he is really a project expediter, and the other realizes she is really a project coordinator. How is a project expediter different from a project coordinator? A. The project expediter cannot make decisions B. The project expediter can make more decisions C. The project expediter reports to a higher-level manager D. The project expediter has some authority

Understanding the culture, policies, and procedures of the organization in which the project is being performed is most challenging in: A. Global organizations B. Manufacturing organizations C. Small organizations D. Agile organizations

Validate Scope is closely related to: A. Perform Quality control B. Sequence activities C. Perform Quality Assurance D. Time Management

What are the five Project Management Process Groups? (194) A. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing B. Introduction, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing C. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Ending D. Introduction, Planning, Implementation, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closure

What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions? A. Project boundaries B. Project constraints C. Project assumptions D. Project objectives

What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain? A. Project management office B. Project team office C. Executive sponsor office D. Program management office

What is the most accurate order of magnitude (ROM)? A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/-50% B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/-50% C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/-15% D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/-15%

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an: A. Improvement B. Program C. Result D. Portfolio

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating? A. Bottom-up B. Parametric C. Analogous D. Three-point

When do stakeholders have the MOST influence on a project? A. At the beginning of the project B. In the middle of the project C. At the end of the project D. Throughout the project

Where are product requirements and characteristics documented? A. Product scope description B. Project charter C. Preliminary project scope statement D. Communications management plan

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project? A. Scope baseline B. Scope management plan C. Change management plan D. Cost baseline

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports? A. Information management systems B. Work performance reports C. Stakeholder analysis D. Data gathering and representation

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements Process? A. Organizational process assets B. Resource availability C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Team performance assessment

Which activity is an input to the select sellers process? (161) A. Organizational process assets B. Resource availability C. Change control process D. Team performance assessment

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess? A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge D. Assertiveness, collaboration and performance skills

Which cost is associated with nonconformance? A. Liabilities B. Inspection C. Training D. Equipment

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating? A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases B. Marketplace conditions and company structure C. Commercial databases and company structure D. Existing human resources and marketplace conditions

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering? A. The Delphi technique B. Nominal group technique C. Affinity diagram D. Brainstorming

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements? A. Stakeholder register B. Scope management plan C. Stakeholder management plan D. Project charter

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks? A. Project charter B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Stakeholder register D. Organizational process assets

Which is an enterprise environmental factor? A. Marketplace conditions B. Policies and procedures C. Project files from previous projects D. Lessons learned from pervious projects

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements Process? A. Requirements traceability matrix B. Project scope statement C. WBS dictionary D. Work performance measurements

Which is not part of the scope baseline: A. Scope management plan. B. Project scope statement. C. Work breakdown structure. D. WBS dictionary.

Which of the following are placed at selected points in the work breakdown structure (WBS) for performance measurement? A. Control accounts B. Milestones C. Management points D. Measurement points

Which of the following aspects of leadership is MOST important for a project manager? A. Communication B. Team building C. Technical expertise D. Project control

Which of the following can create the MOST misinterpretation of the project scope statement? A. Imprecise language B. Poor pattern, structure, and chronological order C. Small variation in size of work packages or detail of work D. Too much detail

Which of the following documents contains the detailed description of work packages? A. WBS dictionary. B. Activity List. C. Project scope statement. A. D. Scope management plan.

Which of the following forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes? A. Time series B. Judgmental C. Econometric D. Simulation

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives? A. Requirements traceability matrix B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary C. Requirements management plan D. Requirements documentation

Which of the following is NOT an output of the Control Scope process? A. Work performance information. B. Change requests. C. Project document updates. D. Accepted deliverables.

Which of the following is a characteristic of project management processes? A. Iterative B. Unique C. Unnecessary D. Standardized

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project? A. Project statement of work B. Business case C. Accepted deliverable D. Work performance information

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations? A. Parametric estimating B. Monte Carlo analysis C. Alternatives analysis D. Bottom-up estimating

Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating? A. Parametric estimating B. Monte Carlo analysis C. Top-down estimating D. Bottom-up estimating

Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom? A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones B. Force of nature, such as flood C. Risk threshold target D. Crashing, front loading or fast tracking

Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis? A. Sensitivity analysis B. Probability and impact matrix C. Risk data quality assessment D. Risk categorization

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process? A. Risk register B. Risk data quality assessment C. Risk categorization D. Risk urgency

Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis Process? A. Risk register B. Risk data quality assessment C. Risk categorization D. Risk urgency

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope? A. Project scope statement B. Project charter C. Project plan D. Project schedule

Which of the following is an output of the Collect requirements process? A. Requirements traceability matrix B. Project scope statement C. WBS D. Change requests

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities Process? A. Activity list B. Project plan C. Activity duration estimates D. Project schedule

Which of the following is correct? A. The critical path helps prove how long the project will take B. There can be only one critical path C. The network diagram will change every time the end date changes D. A project can never have a negative float

Which of the following is true about risks? A. The risk register documents all the identified risks in detail B. Risk impact should be considered, but probability of occurrence is not important C. Risks always have negative impact and not positive D. Risk Response Plan is another name for Risk Management Plan.

Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Quantitative risk analysis C. Risk management planning D. Risk response planning

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events? A. Preventive action B. Risk management C. Corrective action D. Defect repair

Which of the following sequences represents straight line depreciation? A. $100, $100, $100 B. $100, $120, $140 C. $100, $120, $160 D. $160, $140, $120

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the WBS? A. The WBS indicates when certain activities are to be done. B. The WBS is a hierarchical breakdown of the project deliverables. C. The WBS represents the entire scope of the project. D. The WBS subdivides work into small, manageable pieces.

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process? A. Inspection B. Variance analysis C. Expert judgment D. Decomposition

Which of these is accurate regarding risk management? A. It has its origins in the uncertainty present in all projects B. Organizations are not likely to perceive risk as a threat to project success C. The attitudes of individuals and organizations must not be a factor affecting risk management D. It is a passive activity in project management

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary? A. Responsible organization B. Change requests C. Validated deliverables D. Organizational process assets

Which process group contains those processes performed to define a new project? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Closing

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization? (293) A. Plan Procurement Management B. Control Procurements C. Collect Requirements D. Plan Cost Management

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Plan Risk Management D. Plan Risk Responses

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives? A. Collect Requirements B. Plan Scope Management C. Define Scope D. Define Activities

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities? A. Estimate costs B. Control costs C. Determine budget D. Plan cost Management

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project? A. Project life cycle B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Project initiation

Which stakeholder approves a project's result? A. Customer B. Sponsor C. Seller D. Functional manager

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case? (222) A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment. B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default. C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis. D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan? A. Expert judgment B. Project Management Methodology C. Project Management Information D. Project Selection Methods

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties? A. Teaming B. Collective bargaining C. Sharing D. Working

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve? A. Functional managers and manager of project managers B. Functional managers only C. Project managers only D. Technical managers and project managers

Who has the most power in a project-oriented organization? A. The project manager B. The functional manager C. The team D. They all share power

Who is responsible for initiating a project? A. Project sponsor B. Project manager C. Program manager D. Project management office (PMO)

With which type of contract is the seller MOST concerned about project scope? A. Fixed price B. Cost plus fixed fee C. Time and material D. Purchase order

Your cost forecast shows that you will have a cost overrun at the end of the project. Which of the following should you do? A. Eliminate risks in estimates and reestimate B. Meet with the sponsor to find out what work can be done sooner C. Cut quality D. Decrease scope

Your project has a medium amount of risk and is not very well defined. The sponsor hands you a project charter and asks you to confirm that the project can be completed within the project cost budget. What is the BEST method to handle this? A. Build the estimate in the form of a range of possible results B. Ask the team members to help estimate the cost based on the project charter C. Based on the information you have, calculate a parametric estimate D. Provide an analogous estimate based on past history.

Your project sponsor has asked you to present your project's high-level risk register to him in the next project update meeting. Which of the following processes must be started to have your high level risk register? A. Identify Risks B. Control Risks C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Plan Risk Management

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk: A. Responses B. Appetite C. Tolerance D. Attitude

A contingency plan is executed when: A. A risk is identified. B. An identified risk event occurs. C. When a workaround is needed. D. All of the above

A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating the: A. Project budget B. Work breakdown structure C. Project management plan D. Detailed risk assessment

A hierarchical decomposition of the work specified in the current approved project scope statement is the A. Gantt Chart B. Work Breakdown Structure C. Project Scope Statement D. Scope Baseline

A market demand, a business need, and a legal requirement are examples of: A. Reasons to hire a project manager B. Reasons projects are initiated C. Reasons people or businesses become stakeholders D. Reasons to sponsor a project

A project manager does not have much time to spend on planning before the mandatory start date arrives. He therefore wants to move through planning as effectively as possible. What advice would you offer? A. Make sure you have a signed project charter and then start the WBS B. Create an activity list before creating a network diagram C. Document all the known risks before you document the high-level assumptions D. Finalize the quality management before you determine quality matrix

A project manager is in the middle of creating a request for proposal (RFP). What part of the procurement process is he in? A. Conduct procurements B. Plan procurement management C. Administer procurements D. Make-or-buy analysis

A project manager is managing his second project. It started one month after the first one did, and both projects are still in process. Though his first project is small, the new project seems to be quickly growing in size. As each day passes, the project manager is feeling more and more in need of help. The project manager has recently heard that there was another project in the company last year that was similar to his second project. What should he do? A. Contact the project manager for the other project, and ask for assistance. B. Obtain historical records and guidance from the project management office (PMO) C. Wait to see if the project is impacted by the growth in scope D. Make sure the scope of the project is agreed to by all the stakeholders

A project manager is using weighted average duration estimates to perform schedule network analysis. Which type of mathematical analysis is being used? A. Critical path method B. Beta distribution C. Monte Carlo D. Resource Leveling

A project team is working on manufacturing a new product, but they are having difficulty creating a project charter. What is the best description of the real problem? A. They have not identified the project objectives B. They are working on a process and not a project C. The end date has not been set D. They have not identified the product of the project

A project team member is talking to another team member and complaining that many are asking him to do things. If he works in a functional organization, who has the power to give direction to the team member? A. The project manager B. The functional manager C. The team D. The PMO

A regression line is used to estimate: A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart D. The central tendency, dispersion and the shape of a statistical distribution

A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called: A. Negotiation B. Arbitration C. Smoothing D. Forcing

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is: A. Change control tools B. Expert judgment C. Meetings D. Analytical techniques

A work authorization system can be used to: A. Manage who does each activity B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done C. Manage when each activity is done D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done

All the following are tools of Control Quality EXCEPT: A. Inspection B. Cost of quality C. Pareto diagram D. Fishbone diagram

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational: A. Structure B. Process asset C. Matrix D. Breakdown structure

An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is: A. Organizational Structure B. Organizational Process Assets C. Organizational Matrix D. Organizational Breakdown Structures

An output of the Develop Project Team process i: A. Change requests B. Team performance assessments C. Project staff assignments D. Project documents updat3es

Approved corrective actions are an input to which of the following processes? A. Validate Scope B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Develop Project Charter D. Develop Schedule

Approved corrective actions are input to which of the following processes? A. Validate Scope B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Develop a Charter D. Develop a Schedule

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be sued to calculate the forecast? A. BAC B. EAC C. ETC D. WBS

As project manager, you are unable to allocate as much time to interact with your stakeholders as you would like. Which of the following stakeholders will you make it a priority to get to know? A. The stakeholder who is an expert on the product of the project, but is not interested in implementing it in his department. B. The manager of the department that will use the product of the project. She is known to be resistant to change C. The project sponsor, with whom you have successfully worked on many projects D. The department employee who is unfamiliar with the product of the project, but open to the positive impacts he believes the product will have on his work environment

As the project manager, of a project to construct a city park, you have yourself identified 39 risks on the project, determined what would trigger the risks, rated them on a risk rating matrix, tested the assumptions and assessed the quality of the data used. You now plan to move to the next step of the risk management process. What have you missed? A. Overall risk ranking for the project B. Involvement of other stakeholders C. Risk Mitigation D. Simulation

Assigned risk ratings are based upon: A. Root cause analysis B. Risk probability and impact assessment C. Expert judgment D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances

At various points during project execution, the project manager reviews the project charter. Which of the following best describes what a project charter may be used for when the work is being completed? A. To make sure all the team members are rewarded B. To help determine if a scope change should be approved C. To assess the effectiveness of the change control system D. To make sure that all the documentation on the project is completed

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest? A. Final phase of the project B. Start of the project C. End of the project D. Midpoint of the project

Close Procurements and Close Project are similar because they both involve: A. Administrative closure and customer satisfaction analysis B. Deliverable acceptance, administrative closure, and lessons learned C. Product verification, administrative closure, and satisfaction analysis D. None of the above

Communication is key to the success of a project. As the project manager, you had three stakeholders with whom you needed to communicate. Therefore, you had six channels of communication. A new stakeholder has been added with whom you also need to communicate. How many communication channels do you have now? A. 7 B. 10 C. 12 D. 16

Definition of Plan Scope Management process: A. A component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and verified. B. The process of creating a scope management plan that documents how the project scope will be defined, validated, and controlled C. The process of developing appropriate management strategies to effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle, based on the analysis of their needs, interests and potential impact on project process. D. None of the above

During a project team mtg, a team member suggest an enhancement to the scope that is beyond the scope of the project charter. The Project Mgr points out that the team needs to concentrate on completing all of the work and only the work required. This is an example of: A. Change management process B. Scope management C. Quality analysis D. Scope decomposition

During the middle of the project, things have been going well. The work authorization system has allowed people to know when to start work, and the issue log has helped keep track of stakeholders' concerns. The sponsor has expressed his appreciation for the team members' efforts by hosting a milestone party. The project mgr. gets a call from a team member saying the results from the completion of her activity's predecessor are 2 days late. Which of the following reason would BEST describe why this occurred? A. The project mgr. was focusing on the sponsor's needs B. Functional mgmt. was not included in the comms mgmt. plan C. The successor activities should have been watched, not the predecessors D. The right people were not invited to the milestone party

During which stage of risk planning are risks prioritized based on their relative probability and impact? A. Identify Risks B. Perform Qualitative risk analysis C. Perform Quantitative risk analysis D. Plan Risk Responses

Fast-tracking is: A. Obtaining the greatest amount of compression for the least incremental cost B. Doing activities in parallel that would normally be done in sequence to reduce project duration C. Completing multiple projects in parallel D. Reducing the duration of selected activities by vending out to another organization

Fast-tracking is: A. Obtaining the greatest amount of compression for the least incremental cost B. Doing activities in parallel that would normally be done in sequence to reduce project dura-tion C. Completing multiple projects in parallel D. Reducing the duration of selected activities by vending out to another organization

Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when: A. Defects are detected B. The customer requests additional work not covered under contract C. The project has a schedule slippage that includes changes to the critical path D. The project has cost overruns

Ground rules are established to set clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by the project team members. Whose responsibility is it to enforce ground rules? A. The project manager B. All project team members share the responsibility for enforcing the rules once they are established C. The HR team D. The project manager and senior team members

Identify stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project: A. Manager B. Success C. Deadline D. Scope

If a change request is approved and the project scope is revised, what must be revised and reissued to reflect the approved changes? A. Procurements Plan B. Both Baseline and Schedule baseline C. Human Resources plan D. Quality management Plan

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget? A. Functional manager B. Project manager C. Program manager D. Project management office

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique? A. Probability B. Quantitative C. Qualitative D. Sensitivity

Most experienced project managers know that: A. Every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK Guide B. There is no single way to manage a project C. Project management techniques are risk free D. There is only one way to manage projects successfully

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resources Management process is that it: A. Outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities B. Establishes project roles and responsibilities C. Improves teamwork, interpersonal skills and competencies D. Provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance

Organizations perceive risks as: A. Events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives. B. The effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives. C. Events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives D. The negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

PMBOI Guide is a standard that describes: A. Product-oriented processes B. Project management processes C. Product-oriented and project management processes D. Program management and project management processes

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to: A. Communicating identified risks to the project stakeholders B. Conduct risk management activities for a project C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project

Project setup costs are an example of: A. Variable costs B. Fixed costs C. Overhead costs D. Opportunity costs

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a : A. Portfolio B. Program C. Selection D. Sub portfolio

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all output of which process? A. Control scope B. Collect Requirements C. Create WS D. Define scope

Risk exists the moment that a project is: A. Planned B. Conceived C. Chartered D. Executed

Risks are accepted when: A. The project team decides to transfer the risk to a third party. B. The project team decides not to change the project plan to deal with a risk or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. C. The project team reduces the probability and consequences of an adverse risk event to an acceptable threshold. D. Risks are never accepted.

Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency? A. External B. Discretionary C. Mandatory D. Internal

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of: A. Performance measurement criteria B. Source selection criteria C. Product acceptance criteria D. Phase exit criteria

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Executing

The Power/interest grid is a classification model used in A. Analytical Techniques B. Stakeholder Analysis C. The Stakeholder Register D. Meetings

The Stakeholder Management Plan is: A. Produced by Identify Stakeholders and input to Plan Stakeholder Management B. Produced by Plan Stakeholder Management and input to Manage Stakeholder Engagement C. Produced by Plan Stakeholder Management and input to Identify Stakeholders D. Produced by Plan Stakeholder Management and updated by Control Stakeholder Management

The WBS and WBS dictionary have been completed and the project team has begun working on identifying risks. The sponsor contacts the project manager, requesting that the responsibility assignment matrix be issued. The project has a budget of $100,000 and is taking place in three countries using 14 human resources. There is little risk expected for the project, and the project manager has managed many projects similar to this one. What is the next thing to do? A. Understand the experience of the sponsor on similar projects B. Create an activity list C. Make sure the project scope is defined D. Complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment matrix

The business needs, assumptions and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the: A. Project management plan B. Project charter C. Work breakdown structure D. Stakeholder register

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication? A. Push B. Pull C. Interactive D. Iterative

The customer has accepted the completed project scope. However, the lessons learned required by the project management office have not been completed. What is the status of the project? A. The project is incomplete because it needs to be replanned B. The project is incomplete until all project and product deliverables are complete and accepted C. The project is complete because the customer has accepted the deliverables D. The project is complete because it has reached its due date

The customer on a project tells the project manager they have run out of money to pay for the project. What should the project manager do first? A. Shift more of the work to later in the schedule to allow time for the customer to get the funds B. Close Project or Phase C. Stop work D. Release part of the project team

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk: A. Appetite B. Tolerance C. Threshold D. Management

The development of the scope baseline can BEST be described as involving: A. The functional managers B. The project team C. All the stakeholders D. The project expeditor

The primary objective of contract negotiations is to: A. Get the most from the other side B. Protect the relationship C. Get the highest monetary return D. Define objectives and stick to them

The product scope description is used to: A. Gain stakeholders support for the project B. Document the characteristics of the product C. Describe the project in great detail D. Formally authorize the project

The product scope description is used to: A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service or result. C. Describe the project in great detail D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service or result

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called: A. Expert judgement B. Rolling wave planning C. Work performance information D. Specification

The project charter is an input to which process? A. Develop Project Charter B. Develop Project Management Plan C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Perform Integrated Change Control

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as: A. Supportive B. Leading C. Neutral D. Resistant

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to: A. Manage the timely completion of the project B. Ensure that the project includes all the work required C. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun D. Reduce the risk of negative events in the project

The receiver filters messages based on all BUT which of the following: A. Language B. Distance C. Culture D. Knowledge

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document? A. Schedule management plan B. Project management plan C. Quality management plan D. Resource management plan

To obtain support for the project throughout the performing organization, it's best if the project manager: A. Ensures there is a communications management plan B. Correlates the need for the project to the organization's strategic plan C. Connects the project to the personal objectives of the sponsor D. Confirms that the management plan includes the management of team members

To what does the following definition refer? "The point where the benefits or revenue to be received from improving quality equals the incremental cost to achieve that quality." A. Quality control analysis B. Marginal analysis C. Standard quality analysis D. Conformance analysis

Validation of the project scope is based on inputs from which document: A. Stakeholder register B. The project management plan C. The project charter D. The change control plan

WBS dictionary is a document which... A. ... describes technical terms used for scope management. B. ... describes the details for each component in the WBS. C. ... translates essential WBS terms for global project teams. D. ... helps translate functional into technical requirements.

What are the three stages of cyclical risk management? A. Identification, quantification and prioritization B. Identification, analysis, and monitoring and control C. Analysis, mitigation, and control D. Identification, Analysis, prioritization

What characteristic do project and operational work share in common? A. Performed by systems B. Constrained by limited resources C. Repetitiveness D. Uniqueness

What impact does a matrix organization have on project team development? A. No impact at all B. It complicates team development. C. It simplifies team development. D. It hinders team development completely.

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risk arranged by risk category? (36) A. Risk register B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS) C. Risk management plan D. Risk category

What is a program? A. An initiative set up by management B. A means to gain benefits and control of related projects C. A group of unrelated projects managed in a coordinated way D. A government regulation

What is project management? A. A logical grouping of project inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution? A. Integrating all planned activities B. Performing the activities included in the plan C. Developing and maintaining the plan D. Execution of deliverables

What is the definition of project plan execution? A. Integrating all planned activities B. Performing the activities included in the plan C. Developing and maintaining the plan D. Execution of deliverables

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively? A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area C. A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)? A. 0.30 B. 0.06 C. 0.10 D. 0.50

What process determines which risks might affect the project? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Identify risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Quantitative Risk analysis

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type? A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS) B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS) C. Work breakdown structure (WBS) D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)

When a project manager is engaged in negotiations, nonverbal communication skills are of: A. Little importance B. Major importance C. Importance only when cost and schedule objectives are involved D. Importance to ensure he wins the negotiation

When might a PERT approach to risk assessment now be most useful? A. In determining the effects of risks B. For a manager deciding whether to accept the level of risk that a project presents C. In all large projects D. In determining the likelihood of individual risks occurring

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them? A. Requirements documentation B. Requirements traceability matrix C. Project management plan updates D. Project document updates

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints? A. Project charter B. Project scope statement C. Scope management plan D. Project document updates

Which of the following BEST describes the Project Manager's role as an integrator? A. Help team members become familiar with the project B. Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole C. Put all the pieces of a project into a program D. Get all team members together into a cohesive whole

Which of the following are ALL items included in the cost management plan? A. The level of accuracy needed for estimates, rules for measuring cost performance, specifications for how duration estimates should be stated B. Specifications for how estimates should be stated, rules for measuring cost performance, the level of accuracy needed for estimates C. Rules for measuring team performance, the level of accuracy needed for estimates, specifications for how estimates should be stated D. Specifications for how estimates should be stated, the level of risk needed for estimates, rules for measuring cost performance

Which of the following are inputs of Control Schedule? A. Progress reporting and approved change request B. Project Schedule and Work Performance Data C. Requested changes and corrective actions D. Performance measurements and approved change requests

Which of the following best describes the project manager's role as an integrator? A. Help team members become familiar with the project B. Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole C. Put all the pieces of a project into a program D. Get all team members together into a cohesive whole

Which of the following is NOT quantitative risk analysis technologies? A. Simulation B. Using simple ranking charts C. The Event Chain method D. PERT

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process? A. Three-point estimates B. Resource leveling C. Precedence diagramming method D. Bottom-up estimating

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process? A. Organizational standard processes B. Marketplace conditions C. Historical information D. Templates

Which of the following is an example of contract administration? A. Negotiating the contract B. Authorizing contractor work C. Developing the statement of work D. Establishing evaluation criteria

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks? A. Influence diagrams B. Brainstorming C. Assumption analysis D. SWOT analysis

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope? A. Project schedule B. Organizational process assets updates C. Project document updates D. Work performance information

Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area? A. Project Integration Management B. Project Change Management C. Project Risk Management D. Project Time Management

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project lifecycle? A. Cost and staffing levels are low at the start B. Costs peak at the mid-point of the lifecycle C. Stakeholder influence is highest in the early stages D. The probability of success is lowest at the outset

Which of the following is the most appropriate thing to do during the initiating process group? A. Create a detailed description of the project deliverables B. Get familiar with the company culture and structure as they relate to the project C. Identify the root cause of problems D. Ensure all project management processes are complete

Which of the following is the most appropriate thing to do in a project closing? A. Work with the customer to determine acceptance criteria B. Confirm all the requirements in the project have been met C. Collect historical information from previous projects D. Gain formal approval of the management plans

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process? A. Risk management plan B. Risk register C. Change requests D. Risk response plan

Which of the following is true about project quality management? A. Quality management tools are similar for all types of deliverables B. Quality management plan should be determined after initial testing to get a cost of quality C. Quality management plans implement an organization's quality management system D. Quality management deals with the quality of the deliverables, not project performance to plan

Which of the following it TRUE about most project life cycles? A. Staffing level is highest at the start B. The stakeholder's influence is highest at the start C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start D. The cost of changes is highest at the start

Which of the following statements BEST describes how stakeholders are involved on a project? A. They help to determine the project schedule, deliverables, and requirements B. They help to determine the project constraints and product deliverables C. They help to determine the resource needs and resource constraints on the project D. They approve the project charter, help provide assumptions, and create the management plans

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the costs of changes as project time advances? A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases

Which of the following statements correctly characterized pull communication? A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails and faxes B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal

Which of the following statements regarding grade and quality is/are true? A. The terms are synonymous. B. Grade is a category given to entities having the same functional use but different characteristics while quality refers to the characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs. C. Low quality and low grade are always considered problematic. D. Low quality and high grade are never considered problematic

Which of the following statements regarding stakeholder management is true? (Choose the BEST answer) A. Refers to managing stakeholders expectations concerning the project B. Actively engaging stakeholders increases the likelihood that the project will not veer off track due to unresolved stakeholder issues C. Is the primary responsibility of the project management team D. Is not important for helping to ensure the overall success of the project

Which of these is a valid response to negative risks and not positive risks? A. Exploit B. Mitigate C. Enhance D. Share

Which of these is an input of the Control Risks process? A. Change requests B. Work Performance Reports C. Risk audits D. Work performance information

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Identify Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks? A. Identify risks B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Plan Risk Management D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks? A. Risk identification B. Qualittative risk analysis C. Risk management planning D. Quantitative risk analysis

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur? Project Risk Probability Impact Risk 1 L M Risk 2 H H Risk 3 L L Risk 4 M L A. Risk 1 B. Risk 2 C. Risk 3 D. Risk 4

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge? A. Recognized by every project manager B. Constantly evolving C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project.

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations? A. Stakeholder management strategy B. Communications methods C. Issue log D. Change requests

Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter? A. Project manager information systems B. Expert judgment C. Change control meetings D. Brainstorming

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process? A. Risk assessment analysis B. Make or buy analysis C. Contract value analysis D. Cost impact analysis

Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the project? A. The project engineer B. The project manager C. The quality manager D. The team member

Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk of project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor? A. Functional manager B. Project manager C. Functional manager supported by the project manager D. Project management office

You are managing two projects and have been assigned to a third project that has just been approved. You begin the new project, and are able to manage it well along with the others you are managing. During initiating, you are focused on accomplishing a number of activities. Which of the following are you not concerned with at this time? A. Identifying and documenting business needs B. Creating a project scope statement C. Dividing a large project into phases D. Accumulating and evaluating historical information

You are the project manager for a large installation project when you realize there are over 200 potential stakeholders on the project. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action for you to take? A. Eliminate some stakeholders B. Find an effective way to gather the needs of all stakeholders C. Contact your manager, and ask which stakeholders are most important D. Gather the needs of all the most influential stakeholders

You have been contacted by a former colleague, who is now a project manager for one of your major competitors, who managed a large technology project on which you were a team member. He is requesting an updated copy of the project charter for that project in order to compare it to one of his current charters, because the charter for the technology project was very detailed. In this situation you should A. Send him the update since he developed the original charter and basically knows what it includes anyway B. Not send him the update, he does not have a legitimate need to know the contents of the document C. Send him a confidentiality agreement to sign before sending the updates D. Invite him to the office where he can review it in your presence

You have taken over a project during project planning and have discovered that six individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should most concern you? A. Who will be a member of the change control board B. Spending more time on configuration management C. Getting a single project sponsor D. Determining the reporting structure

A WBS numbering systems allows the project team to: A. Systematically estimate costs of WBS elements B. Provide project justification C. Identify the level at which individual elements are found D. Use it in project management software

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the: A. Cultural differences of team members B. Possibility of communications misunderstandings C. Costs associated with travel D. Costs associated with technology

A control chart shows seven data points in a row on one side of the mean. What should be done? A. Perform a design of experiments B. Adjust the chart to reflect the new mean C. Find an assignable cause D. Nothing. This is the rule of seven and can be ignored

A dependency requiring that design be completed before manufacturing can start is an example of a(n): A. Discretionary dependency B. External dependency C. Mandatory dependency D. Scope dependency

A project is plagued by requested changes to the project charter. Who has the primary responsibility to decide if these changes are necessary? A. The project manager B. The project team C. The sponsor D. The stakeholders

A project manager gets a call from a team member notifying him that there is a variance between the speed of a system on the project and the desired or planned speed. The project manager is surprised because that performance measurement was not identified in planning. If the project manager then evaluates whether the variance warrants a response, he is in which part of the project management process? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Monitoring and controlling D. Closing

A project manager has little project experience, but she has been assigned as the project manager of a new project. Because she will be working in a matrix organization to complete her project, she can expect communications to be: A. Simple B. Open and accurate C. Complex D. Hard to automate

A project manager has received some help from the team, and she needs help from them again so that she can create a detailed project budget. Which project management process group is she in? A. Initiating B. Before the project management process C. Planning D. Executing

A project manager may use ___________ to make sure the team members clearly know what work is included in each of their work packages? A. A project scope statement B. The product scope C. The WBS dictionary D. The schedule

A project manager's primary responsibility is to deliver the product of the project within project constraints. Actions taken and changes made to the benefit of one constraint could negatively affect another. Which of the following best describes the major constraint on a project? A. Scope, number of resources, and cost B. Scope, cost and schedule C. Scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction D. Schedule, cost, and number of changes

A project of $1.5 million has an adverse event that has a probability of 0.07 of occurring and a potential loss of $15,000. This represents an expected negative monetary value of how much? A. $100,500 B. $105 C. $1,050 D. $15,000

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document? (160) A. Work breakdown structure B. Requirements document C. Project charter D. Project management plan

A risk event is defined as: A. The severity of the consequences of a loss B. How likely the event is to occur C. An uncertain event or condition that may affect the project for better or worse D. A symptom of a risk

A significant difference between independent estimates and proposed pricing could mean that: A. The independent estimates are most likely incorrect and the proposed pricing correct B. The SOW was adequate C. The prospective seller either misunderstood or failed to respond fully to the SOW. D. There is not much difference between the two

A team member notifies the project manager that the activities comprising a work package are no longer appropriate. It would be best for the project manager to be in what part of the project management process? A. Corrective action B. Integrated change control C. Monitoring and controlling D. Project closing

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements? A. Plan contracting B. Requesting seller responses C. Selecting seller's D. Planning purchase and acquisition

Activity C is preceded by Activities A and B. Activity A has a FS relationship with a 1 day lead with Activity C. Activity B has SS relationship with Activity C with a 2 day lag. Given the following: Activity A: Early Start is Day 2; Early Finish is Day 4 Activity B: Early Start is Day 3; Early Finish is Day 6 Activity C: Duration is 3 days. Assuming no other dependencies for Activity C, calculate Activity C's Early Start and Finish dates. A. Early Start is Day 4; Early Finish is Day 6. B. Early Start is Day 1; Early Finish is Day 4. C. Early Start is Day 5; Early Finish is Day 8. D. Early Start is Day 7; Early Finish is Day 9.

All of the following MUST be present to have a contract EXCEPT: A. A procurement statement of work B. Acceptance C. The address of the seller D. Buyer's signature

All of the following result from quality audits EXCEPT: A. Determination of whether project activities comply with organizational policies B. Improved processes to increase productivity C. Creation of quality metrics D. Confirmation of the implementation of approved change requests

All the following are parts of the team's stakeholder management effort EXCEPT: A. Determining stakeholders' needs B. Identifying stakeholders C. Giving stakeholders extras D. Managing stakeholders' expectations

All the following statements about change control are incorrect EXCEPT: A. A fixed-price contract will minimize the need for change control B. Changes seldom provide real benefits to the project C. Contracts should include procedures to accommodate changes D. More detailed specifications eliminate the causes of changes

An electronics form authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is the project mainly concerned? A. Customer request B. Market demand C. Technological advance D. Strategic opportunity

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is: A. Cost estimates B. Resource calendars C. The project charter D. The risk register

At a high-level status meeting for a very important program you note that the project manager on one of the other projects has reported that his project is on schedule. In looking back at your project you notice that many of the deliverables from the other project arrived late. In this situation what should you do? A. Discuss the situation with your manager B. Setup a meeting with the program manager C. Setup a meeting to discuss with the other project manager D. Do nothing

By which means is a contractor able to control cost due to changing requirements? A. Project data review B. Purchase order amendment C. Change control D. Fixed price contract

Changes to some project deliverables have been documented in the project management plan. These changes, and other project information, have been distributed according to the communication mgmt. plan. One stakeholder expressed surprise to the project manager upon hearing of a documented change to a project deliverable. All stakeholders received the communication providing notification of the change. What should the project manager do? A. Determine why the stakeholder did not receive the information and let him know when it was published B. Ask the functional mgr. why the stakeholder did not understand his responsibility C. Review the communications mgmt. plan and make revisions if necessary D. Address the situation in the next steering committee mtg so others do not miss published changes

Chartering a project links the project to: A. Funding of the project B. Decisions regarding the project C. The ongoing work of the organization D. Resource Planning

Double declining balance is a form of: A. Decelerated depreciation B. Straight line depreciation C. Accelerated depreciation D. Life cycle costing

During a team meeting, a team member asks about the measurements that will be used on the project to assess performance. The team member feels that some of the measures related to activities assigned to him are not valid measurements. The project is most likely in what part of the project management process? A. Closing B. Monitoring and controlling C. Executing D. Initiating

During project execution, a project team member informs the project manager that a work package has not met the quality metric, and that she believes it is not possible to meet it. The project manager meets with all concerned parties to analyze the situation. Which part of the quality management process is the project manager involved in? A. Perform Quality Assurance B. Project Control C. Control Quality D. Plan Quality Management

During which process group does the team measure and analyze the work being done on the project? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Monitoring and controlling D. Closing

Earned value is: A. Actual cost of work performed. B. Budgeted cost of work scheduled. C. Budgeted cost of work performed. D. Budget at completion.

Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on: A. The careers of the team members B. Timely updates to the project management plan C. Effective communication at key interface points D. Product control

Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on: A. The personal careers of the team members B. Timely updates to the project management plan C. Effective communication at key interface points D. Product control

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process? A. Control Scope B. Define Scope C. Plan Scope Management D. Collect Requirements

Extensive use of ____________ communication is most likely to aid in solving complex problems. A. Formal verbal B. Informal written C. Formal written D. Nonverbal

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis? A. Influence/impact grid B. Power/influence grid C. Power/interest grid D. Salience model

High-level project risks are included in which document? A. Business case B. Risk breakdown structure C. Project charter D. Risk register

If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating and disseminating the outputs of all project management processes, she should concentrate on improving the: A. Work breakdown structure (WBS) B. Communications management plan C. Project management information system (PMIS) D. Scope management plan

If crashing the schedule, you would focus on: A. Accelerating as many tasks as possible B. Accelerating just the non-critical tasks C. Accelerating the performance of tasks on the critical path D. Accelerating the milestones

In project management, a temporary project can be: A. Completed without planning B. A routine business process C. Long in duration D. Ongoing to produce goods

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed? A. Monitoring and Controlling B. Executing C. Initiating D. Planning

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance? A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP) B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA) C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF) D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

In which type of organization is team building likely to be most difficult? A. Functional B. Projectized C. Matrix D. Project expediter

Lag means: A. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date B. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of its successor C. Waiting time D. The product of a forward and backward pass

Once signed, a contract is legally binding unless: A. One party is unable to perform B. One party is unable to finance its part of the work C. It is in violation of applicable law D. It is declares null and void by either party

One of the team member working on a module has gone an extra mile and improved a feature with some functionality even though it was not mentioned in the scope of the project. When you see the extra functionality added to project work, what you should do as a project manager? A. Verify if the extra functionality was added by extending schedule B. Give award to the team member and ask other team members to go an extra mile while working on project activities C. Ask the team member to remove that extra functionality, as gold plating and or scope creep is not acceptable D. Arrange a conference call with the customer and tell the customer about the excellent performance of the team members

One of your team members informs you that he does not know which of the many projects he is working on is the most important. Who should determine the priorities between projects in a company? A. The project manager B. The project management team C. The project management office (PMO) D. The project team

Percent complete is calculated by: A. AC / BAC B. EV - AC C. EV / BAC D. EAC / BAC

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process? A. Monitor and Control Risks B. Plan Risk Management C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on: A. Project staff assignments B. Project team acquisition C. Managing conflicting interests D. Communication methods

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as? (282) A. Complete project phase B. Project life C. The project life cycle D. Project cycle

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies? A. Avoid B. Accept C. Mitigate D. Exploit

Rearranging resources so that a constant number of resources are used each month is called: A. Crashing B. Floating C. Leveling D. Fast Tracking

Risk avoidance involves: A. Accepting the consequences B. Developing a contingency plan C. Eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating the cause D. Reducing the effect of the risk event by reducing the probability of the occurrence

Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process? A. Plan Risk Responses B. Plan Risk Management C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to preform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as: A. Organizational skills B. Technical skills C. Communication skills D. Hard skills

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of: A. Enterprise environmental factors B. Organizational process assets C. The project management plan D. The stakeholder register

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project: A. Benefit B. Initiative C. Objective D. Process

The Cost Management processes and their associated tools and techniques are usually selected during which of the following? A. Project finance management B. Project cost estimation C. Project life cycle definition D. Project plan development

The MOST likely result of communication blockers is that: A. The project is delayed B. The trust level is enhanced C. Conflict occurs D. Senior management is displeased

The Project Management Plan includes all of the following except A. Scope Management Plan B. Staffing Management Plan C. Project Scope Statement D. Procurement Management Plan

The WBS, estimates for each work package, and the network diagram are completed. The NEXT thing for the project manager to do is : A. Sequence activities B. Validate that they have the correct scope C. Create the preliminary schedule and get the team's approval D. Complete risk management

The baseline may be modified for what reasons? (Choose the best answer) A. The project manager decides to expand the scope of the project. B. An executive makes a request. C. Change request for enhanced function has been received and approved through the Control Scope Process. D. Baselines may never be modified

The best time to assign a project manager to a project is during: A. Integration B. Project selection C. Initiating D. Planning

The first phase of your project has come to an end. What is the most important thing to ensure is done before beginning the next phase? A. Verify that the resources are available for the next phase. B. Check the project's progress compared to its baselines C. Confirm that the phase has reached its objectives, and have its deliverables formally accepted D. Recommend corrective action to bring the project results in line with project expectations

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique? A. Alternatives identification B. Scope decomposition C. Expert judgment D. Product analysis

The key objective of stakeholder management is: A. Communication B. Coordination C. Satisfaction D. Relationships

The need for ____ is one of the major driving forces for communications in a project A. Optimization B. Integrity C. Integration D. Differentiation

The new software installation project is in progress. The project manager is working with the quality assurance department to improve stakeholders' confidence that the project will satisfy the quality standards. Which of the following MUST they have before they start this process? A. Quality problems B. Quality improvement C. Quality control measurements D. Rework

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to: A. Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit B. Develop a risk register for risk planning C. Evaluate each risk's importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as: A. Define Scope B. Develop Project Management Plan C. Plan Scope Management D. Plan Quality Management

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as: A. Plan Risk Management B. Plan Risk Responses C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they: A. Operate separately B. Move together in batches C. Overlap and interact D. Move in a sequence

The project manager is trying to recall a stakeholder's preferred communication method. Where can she find this information? A. RACI chart B. Stakeholders engagement assessment matric C. Stakeholder management plan D. Human resource management plan

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process? A. Sequence Actives B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Develop Schedule D. Control Schedule

The project team has just completed the initial project schedule and budget. The next thing to do is to: A. Identify risks B. Begin iterations C. Determine communications requirements D. Create a bar (gantt) chart

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as: A. Exploit B. Avoid C. Mitigate D. Share

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified: A. Objectives B. Schedule C. Product D. Approach

The specific technique for identifying a problem, discovering the causes that lea to it, and developing preventive actions is: A. Inspection B. Use of quality checklists C. Root cause analysis D. Use of matrix diagrams

The staffing management plan is part of the: A. Organization process assets B. Resource calendar C. Human resource plan D. Develop project team process

The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS from a numbering system collectively known as: A. The work package codes B. The project identifiers C. The code of accounts D. The work breakdown structure dictionary

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones: A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Manaement Process B. Occur at random times in the project plans C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management? A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events D. Removal of project risk

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)? A. 0.45 B. 0.56 C. 0.70 D. 1.36

What level of authority does a Project Manager have in a Balanced Matrix structure? A. Limited B. Moderate to high C. Low to moderate D. Little or none

What name(s) is/are associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle? A. Pareto B. Ishikawa C. Shewhart-Deming D. Delphi

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria? A. Decomposition B. Benchmarking C. Inspection D. Checklist analysis

When addressing roles and responsibilities, which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities? A. Authority B. Role C. Competency D. Responsibility

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project? A. Facilitation techniques B. Expert judgment C. Analytical techniques D. Variance analysis

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis? (289) A. Initiating B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Planning D. Closing

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed? A. Strategic plan B. Project charter C. Project management plan D. Service level agreement

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process? A. Budget estimates B. Risk matrix C. Requirements documentation D. Procurement documents

Which element does a project charter contain? A. Management reserves B. Work breakdown structure C. Stakeholder list D. Stakeholder register

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project? A. Procurement documents B. Communications plan C. Project charter D. Stakeholder register

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope? A. Templates, forms and standards B. Change requests C. Product analysis D. Project assumptions

Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition? A. Templates, forms and standards B. Change requests C. Stakeholder analysis D. Project assumptions

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project? (56) A. Build vs. buy B. Expert judgment C. Alternatives identification D. Product analysis

Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization? A. WBS B. CPI C. OBS D. BOM

Which is the duration of a milestone? A. It is shorter than the duration of the longest activity B. It is shorter than the activity it represents C. It has no duration D. It is the same length as the activity it represents

Which of the following BEST describes the Validate Scope process? A. It provides assurances that the deliverable meets the specifications, is an input to the project management plan, and is an output of Control Quality B. It ensures the deliverable is completed on time, ensures customer acceptances, and shows the deliverable meets specifications C. It ensures customer acceptance, shows the deliverable meets specifications, and provides a chance for differences of option to come to light D. It is an output of Control Quality, occurs before Define Scope, and ensures customer acceptance

Which of the following BEST describes the Validate Scope process? A. It provides assurance that the deliverables meet the specifications, is an input to the project management plan, and is an output of perform Quality control. B. It ensures the deliverable is completed on time, ensures customer acceptance, and shows the deliverable meets specifications. C. It ensures customer acceptance, shows the deliverable meets specifications, and provides a chance for differences of opinion to come to light. D. It is an output of perform quality control, occurs before Define Scope, and ensures customer acceptance

Which of the following BEST describes the project manager's role in the procurement process? A. The project manager has only minor involvement B. The project manager should be the negotiator C. The project manager should provide an understanding of the risks of the project D. The project manager should tell the contract manager how the contracting process should be handled

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between standard deviation and risk? A. There is no relationship B. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate is accurate C. Standard deviation tells you how uncertain the estimate is D. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate includes a pad

Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas? (I think b could be true too!) A. Executing B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Planning D. Initiating

Which of the following are considered to be integrative project management processes? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Direct and manage project work D. Development

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register? A. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan B. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates C. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents D. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Which of the following best describes a project management plan? A. A printout from project management software B. A bar chart C. Scope, risk, resource, and other management plans D. The project scope

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action? (143) A. Probability and impact matrix B. Contingency analysis report C. Risk urgency assessment D. Rolling wave plan

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked and reported? A. Configuration management plan B. Scope baseline C. Requirements management plan D. Schedule baseline

Which of the following is NOT an output of Control Costs: A. Change requests B. Cost variance C. Project funding requirements D. Budget forecast

Which of the following is a benefit of analogous estimate? A. It will be closer to what the work will actually require B. It is based on a detailed understanding of what the work requires C. It gives the project team an understanding of management's expectations D. It helps the project manager determine if the project will meet the schedule

Which of the following is a characteristic of project scope management. A. It defines the baseline for project acceptance. B. It defines the requirements for each project within the organization. C. It defines the processes to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project within the approved budget. D. It defines the functional managers assigned to the project.

Which of the following is a key input to the Define Scope Process? A. Risk Management Plan B. Staffing Management Plan C. Project Charter D. Quality Management Plan

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities? A. Mitigate B. Transfer C. Exploit D. Avoid

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process? A. Networking B. Training C. Negotiation D. Issue log

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process? A. Work performance information B. Project management plan C. Business case D. Change request

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process? (21) A. Project calendar B. Communications management plan C. Organzational process assets updates D. Project document updates

Which of the following is not a Project Management process? A. Human Resource Planning B. Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Staff Motivation D. Cost Estimating

Which of the following is not part of the five stages of team development? A. Norming B. Performing C. Conforming D. Adjourning

Which of the following is part of the expectancy theory of motivation? A. Clear, specific, and challenging goals generally motivate team members. B. Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills and the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and achieving a sense of competence. C. People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to successful results and that success will lead to personal rewards. D. All of the above are part of the expectancy theory of motivation

Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables? A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Sequence Activities C. Define Activities D. Activity Attributes

Which of the following methods is a project selection technique? A. Flowcharting B. Earned value C. Cost-benefit analysis D. Pareto analysis

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process? A. Vendor risk assessment diagram B. Risk register C. Requirements traceability matrix D. Area of responsibility summary

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party? A. Mitigate B. Transfer C. Share D. Avoid

Which of the following statements describes the difference between a balanced matrix project organization and a strong matrix project organization? A. A strong matrix has a project manager and a balanced matrix does not have a project manager B. In a strong matrix organization, the project manager reports directly to the CEO, while in the balanced matrix, the project manager reports to a functional manager C. In a strong matrix organization, project coordination is performed by the project manager who resides in a department of project managers while in the balanced matrix; coordination is performed by a project manager who resides in a functional department with other staff members. D. There is no difference. A balanced matrix is another name for a strong matrix

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work? A. WBS directory B. Activity list C. WBS D. Project schedule

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process? A. Acquisitions B. Organizational theories C. Team-building activies D. Virtual teams

Which of these is not an Enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Plan Human Resource Management process? A. Personnel administration policies B. Organizational culture C. Lessons learned on organizational structures D. Marketplace conditions

Which process group and knowledge area include the Sequence Activities process? (59) A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Which process group focuses on completing the requirements of the project? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Closing

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses? A. Identify Risks B. Plan Risk Management C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives? (202) A. Plan Risk Management B. Plan Risk Responses C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized? A. Enhance B. Share C. Exploit D. Accept

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process? A. Brainstorming B. Strategies for opportunities C. Decision tree analysis D. Risk data quality assessment

Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance? A. Histogram B. Quality audits C. Benchmarking D. Performance measurement analysis

Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team? A. Negotiation B. Roles and responsibilities C. Recognition and rewards D. Prizing and promoting

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract? A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF) B. Firm-Fixed-Price Contract (FFP) C. Time and Material Contract (T&M) D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Which type of prbablity distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree? A. Uniform B. Continuous C. Discrete D. Linear

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events? A. Ishikawa B. Milestone C. Influence D. Decision tree

Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them? A. Project sponsor and project manager B. Project sponsor and functional manager C. Project manager and project team D. Project team and functional manager

Who must know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented? A. Customers B. Project sponsors C. Project management team D. Insurance claims department

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project? A. Project stakeholders B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder C. Project manager and project team D. Project manager and project sponsor

With a clear procurement statement of work, a seller completes work as specified, but the buyer is not pleased with the results. The contract is considered to be: A. Null and void B. Incomplete C. Complete D. Waived

You are a project manager for a major information systems project. Someone from the quality dept comes to see you about beginning a quality audit of your project. The team, already under pressure to complete the project as soon as possible, objects to the audit. You should explain to the team the purpose of a quality audit is: A. To satisfy part of an ISO 9000 investigation B. To check if the customer is following the quality process C. To identify inefficient and ineffective policies D. To check the accuracy of costs submitted by the team

You are chairing a meeting in which you are using experts to identify the best solution to a very critical problem facing your project. A conflict has arisen between some team members who are anxious for closure and others who wish to consider more alternatives. As project manager and meeting chairperson, you should ____________. Choose the best answer. A. Conclude meeting because more discussion is a waste time B. Allow people who are anxious for closure to leave meeting and continue meeting with remaining team members C. Facilitate continued discussion of alternatives while being cognizant of the impact of delays D. Smooth conflict by telling attendees which alternative to take

You are managing a 6-month poject and have held bi-weekly meetings with your project stakeholders. After 5.5 months of work, the prject is on-schedule and budget, but the stakeholders are not satisfied with the deliverables. This situation will delay the project completion by 1 month. The MOST important process that have prevented this situation is: A. Monitor and control risks B. Control schedule C. Define scope D. Control scope

You are managing a project and find that you need to apply resource leveling. Which of the following tools can help you identify resources that are over allocated? A. Resource Assignment Matrix B. Network diagram C. Resource Histogram D. Resource Breakdown Structure

You are planning communications on a new service development project. Your stakeholder list is large but not terribly complicated. What is one of the major driving forces for communication on a project? A. Optimization B. Integrity C. Integration D. Differentiation

You are working on a project where the sponsor informs you that their company has run out of money to pay for the project. What should you as the project manger do FIRST? A. Stop work B. Cut back on resources assigned to the project C. Reduce the scope of the work and enter administrative closure D. Redo the schedule to shift work to later in the project

You have calculated both the cost variance and schedule variance on your project and have found that they are exactly the same; -$200. This indicates that: A. The value of the work completed is equal to the value of the work scheduled. B. The actual cost of work completed is $200 less than the value of the work scheduled. C. The value of the work scheduled is equal to the actual cost of the work completed. D. The value of the work scheduled is equal to the value of the work completed.

You send milestones reports to a key stakeholder by e-mail. He expresses dissatisfaction with the reports and complains about the lack of details. Where would this situation have best been addressed? A. Plan Scope B. Plan Risk Management C. Plan Communications Management D. Manage Communications

You, the project manager, and your team members are using facilitated workshops as part of the Collect Requirements phase to define product requirements. Which other process also uses this technique? A. Develop Scope B. Develop Project Charter C. Define Scope D. Create WBS

Your management team has decided that all orders will be treated as projects and that project managers will be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure the customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from $100 to $150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other than daily status. How would you define this situation? A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor" each order is a project B. This is a program management since there are multiple projects involved C. This is a recurring process D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would e considered projects and would involve project management.

Your project management plan results in a project schedule that is too long. If the project network diagram cannot change but you have extra personnel resources, what is the BEST thing to do? A. Fast track the project B. Level the resources C. Crash the project D. Perform Monte Carlo Analysis

Your project team member delivers a project deliverable to the buyer. However, the buyer refuses the deliverables, stating it does not meet the requirement on page 300 of the technical specifications. You review the document and find that you agree. What is the BEST thing to do? A. Explain that the contact is wrong and should be changed B. Issue a change order C. Review the requirements and meet with responsible team member to review the WBS dictionary D. Call a meeting of the team to review the requirement on page 300

project has faced major difficulties in he quality of its deliverables. Management now states that quality is the most important project constraint. If another problem with quality were to occur, what would be the BEST thing for the project manager to do? A. Fix the problem as soon as possible B. Allow the schedule to slip by cutting cost C. Allow cost to increase by fixing the root cause of the problem D. Allow risk to increase by cutting cost

A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what? A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

A cell phone ringing during a meeting is an example of: (choose the BEST answer) A. A perpetual difference B. Resistance to the message C. Poor listening D. A physical distraction

A complex aerospace engineering project is nearing completion. Because the work was highly technical and new to the organization, the product of the project was released two months later than planned. Despite the late delivery, management is appreciative of the effort expended and believes that this product will generate additional opportunities for the organization. Management also thinks that the experience of this team will provide great value for teams working on similar projects in the future. The sponsor requests that lessons learned be thoroughly documented. Lessons learned are best completed by: A. The project manager B. The team C. The sponsor D. The stakeholders

A control chart helps the project manager: A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality B. Focus on stimulating thinking C. Explore a desired future outcome D. Determine if a process is functioning within set limits

A formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence is called: (choose BEST answer) A. work package B. project plan C. project charter D. work authorization system

A heuristic is BEST described as a: A. Control tool B. Scheduling Method C. Planning Tool D. Generally accepted rule

A manufacturing project has a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.89 and a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.91. Generally, what is the BEST explanation for why this occurred? A. The scope was changed B. A supplier went out of business and a new one needed to be found C. Additional equipment needed to be purchased D. A critical path activity took longer and needed more labor hours to complete

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as: A. Benchmarking B. Context diagrams C. Brainstorming D. Prototyping

A project management plan should be realistic in order to be used to manage the project. Which of the following is the best method to achieve a realistic project management plan? A. The sponsor creates the project management plan based on input from the project manager. B. The functional manager creates the project management plan based on input from the project manager. C. The project manager creates the project management plan based on input from senior management. D. The project manager creates the project management plan based on input from the team

A project manager has a problem with a team member's performance, What is the BEST form of communication for addressing this problem? A. Formal written communication B. Formal verbal communication C. Informal written communication D. Informal verbal communication

A project manager has just been assigned a team that comes from many countries including Brazil, Japan, the United States, and the UK. What is the BEST tool for success? A. The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) B. The teleconference C. Team communication with the WBS D. Communication and well-developed people skills

A project mgr. overhears a conversation between 2 stakeholders who are discussing how unhappy they are with the impacts of the project on their own depts. Stakeholder A asks if the project is on time, and stakeholder B replies that the SPI is 1.05. Stakeholder A asks if the project mgr. knows of stakeholder B's concern. Stakeholder B responds that he is not sure. What is the BEST thing for the project manager to do? A. Make sure the stakeholders see that the project manager overheard. Then ask them to direct any questions to the project manager in writing. B. Make a presentation to all stakeholders regarding the status of the project C. Send both stakeholders a copy of the issue log and ask for additional comments D. Arrange a meeting with both stakeholders to allow them to voice any concerns they may have

A project team is discussing the benefits and drawbacks of working on projects within their organization now that it has become project oriented. They can agree on many advantages for the team and for the organization, but also agree there are some drawbacks relative to the strong matrix structure the organization used to have. In a project-oriented organization, the project team: A. Reports to many bosses B. Has no loyalty to the project C. Reports to the functional manager D. Will not always have a "home"

A required input for Create WBS is a project: A. Quality plan B. Schedule network C. Management document update D. Scope statement

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a: A. Contingent risk B. Residual risk C. Potential risk D. Secondary risk

A rough order of magnitude estimate is made during which project management process group? A. Planning B. Closing C. Executing D. Initiating

Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time Management process? A. Schedule Control B. Activity Definition C. Schedule Development D. Activity Resource Estimating

All of the following are parts of the Direct and Manage Project Work Process EXCEPT: A. Identifying Changes B. Using a WBS C. Implementing corrective actions D. Setting up a project control system

All technical work is completed on the project. Which of the following remains to be done? A. Validate Scope B. Plan Risk Responses C. Create a staffing management plan D. Complete lessons learned

All the following are characteristics of a project except: A. It is temporary B. It has a definite beginning and end C. It has interrelated activities D. It repeats itself every month

All the following are parts of the Direct and Manage Project Work process except: A. Identifying changes B. Using a work breakdown structure C. Implementing corrective actions D. Setting up a project control system

All the following parts of an effective change management plan except: A. Procedures B. Standards for reports C. Meeting D. Lessons learned

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is: A. The project charter B. The stakeholder analysis C. A communication management plan D. A stakeholder register

Change requests can include A. Corrective actions B. Preventative actions C. Defect repairs. D. All of the above

Communications are often enhanced when the sender ____________ the receiver. A. Speaks up to B. Uses gestures when speaking to C. Speaks slowly to D. Shows concern for the perspective of

Conflict management is a tool and technique of which of the following processes? A. Close Project or Phase B. Control Procurements C. Identify Stakeholders D. Manage Project Team

Continuous monitoring A. Ensures that the project remains on track B. Highlights the causes of problems C. Enables the accurate forecasting of project outcomes D. Provides the project team insight into the health of the project

Deflection or shifting of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categories? A. Mitigate B. Accept C. Avoid D. Transfer

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a: A. Corrective action B. Preventive action C. Non-conformance report D. Defect repair

For a project to be successful, the project team must do which of the following? (272) A. Complete the project in sequential phases B. Overlook minor stakeholders C. Produce ongoing repetitive products, services, or results D. Select the appropriate processes required to meet the project objective

For any given project, the project manager, in collaboration with the project team, is responsible for: A. Applying knowledge, skills, and processes uniformly B. Informing the project sponsor about which processes are going to be used C. Tailoring the processes to fit the abilities of the organization D. Determining which particular processes are appropriate

For which of the following structures would you expect to see the Project Manager being full time but the Administrative staff part time? A. Weak Matrix B. Strong Matrix C. Projectised D. Balanced Matrix

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process? A. Estimate Costs B. Control Costs C. Plan Cost Management D. Determine Budget

If a project manager delegates the processes of Develop Schedule, Estimate Costs, Define Activities, and Estimate Activity Resources to various project team members, and basically serves as an occasional referee and coordinator of activities. The results of this approach are likely to be: A. A team functioning throughout the project at a very high level, demonstrating creativity and commitment B. A team that initially experiences some amounts of confusion, but that after a period of time becomes a cohesive and effective unit C. A team that is not highly productive, but that stays together because of the work environment created by the project manager D. A team that is characterized by poor performance, low morale, high levels of conflict, and high turnover

If a project manager wants to report on the actual project results versus planned results, she should use a: A. Trend report B. Forecasting report C. Status report D. Variance report

In Control Communications, expert judgment can be supplied by which of the following: A. Consultants B. Subject Matter Experts C. Professional and Technical Associations D. All of the above

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to: A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed? A. Project Cost Management B. Project Scope Management C. Project Time Management D. Project Integration Management

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities? A. Acquire Project Team B. Develop Project Management Plan C. Manage Project Execution D. Develop project charter

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the: A. Cost management plan B. Risk management plan C. Activity list D. Risk register

Monitoring cost expended to date in order to detect variances from the plan occurs during: A. The creation of the cost change management plan B. Recommending corrective actions C. Updating the cost baseline D. Product performance reviews

One of the objectives of the quality audit is to: A. Highlight the need for root cause analysis B. Share the process documentation among stakeholders. C. Offer assistance with non-value-added activities D. Identify all of the gaps or shortcomings

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process? A. Manage Project Team B. Acquire Project Team C. Develop Project Team D. Plan Human Resource Management

Process A produces an item that is fitted into a container in process B. From time to time the item didn't fit into the container properly. You have a hunch that the defect occurs at regular time periods. What is the BEST tool to investigate? A. Fishbone diagrams B. Pareto diagrams C. Flowcharts D. Control charts

Project management processes ensure the: A. Alignment with organizational strategy B. Efficient means to achieve the project objectives C. Performance of the project team D. Effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the: A. Product performance B. Budget process C. Collective capabilities D. Organizational strategy

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least: A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements B. Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements C. Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communication requirements D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements

Senior Management is complaining that they are not able to easily determine the status of ongoing projects in the organization. Which of the following types of reports would help provide summary to senior management? A. Detailed cost estimates B. Project Management plans C. Bar Charts D. Milestone reports

Stakeholder management strategy is an output of: A. Plan Communications B. Distribute Information C. Report Performance D. Identify Stakeholders

The Manage Communications process belongs to which of the following process groups? A. Planning B. Monitoring & Controlling C. Closing D. Executing

The Project Manager has least authority in a ________ organization. A. Weak Matrix B. Balanced Matrix C. Projectised D. Functional

The Time Management Process that involves identifying and documenting logical rela-tionships among schedule activities is called: A. Define Activities B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Develop Schedule D. Sequence Activities

The WBS can BEST be thought of as an effective aid for________________ communications: A. Team B. Project manager C. Customer D. Stakeholder

The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project end date is called: A. Total Float B. Free Float C. Float D. Both A & C

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as: A. Recognition and rewards B. Compliance C. Staff acquisition D. Training needs

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk: A. Management B. Response C. Tolerance D. Appetite

The degree to which a particular stakeholder may be able to positively of negatively affect a project is his or her: A. Level of engagement B. Level of interest C. Level of commitment D. Level of influence

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as: A. Negotiation B. Organizational theory C. Meeting D. Networking

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group? A. Define activities B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Sequence Activities

The output(s) of project team development include: A. Responsibility assignment matrix, and input to performance appraisals B. External feedback process, and input to performance appraisals C. Performance improvement and staff management plan D. Team performance assessment

The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the procurement dept. and assign procurement responsibilities to depts. directly responsible for the projects. A procurement professional might not want this split to occur because he or she would lose ______________in a decentralized contracting environment. A. Standardized company project management practices B. Loyalty to the project C. Experience D. Access to others with similar expertise

The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform activity is known as: A. Collect Requirements B. Conduct Procurements C. Estimate Activity Durations D. Estimate Activity Resources

The project charter is created in which project management process group? A. Executing B. Planning C. Closing D. Initiating

The project governance approach should be described in the: A. Change control plan B. Project scope C. Statement of work D. Project management plan

The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order: A. Disciplinary, autocratic, participative B. Staff planning, team training, performance monitoring C. Team building, team development, responsibility assignment D. Directing, persuading, participating, delegating

The project or phase closure procedure address: A. Actions and activities necessary to satisfy completion and exit criteria for the phase or project B. Actions and activities necessary to transfer the project's products or services to the next phase C. Activities needed to collect project records, audit project success, and gather lessons learned D. All of the above.

The project sponsor has just signed the project charter. What is the next thing to do? A. Begin to complete work packages B. Validate scope C. Start integrated change control D. Start to create management plans

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the : A. Assumption log B. Quality checklist C. Risk register D. Contract type

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in: A. Organizational process assets B. A requirements traceability matrix C. The project charter D. The project management plan

Through whom do project managers accomplish work? A. Consultants and stakeholders B. Stakeholders and functional managers C. Project team members and consultants D. Project team members and stakeholders

What are the components of the "triple constraint"? A. Scope, time, requirements B. Resources, time, cost C. Scope, management, cost D. Scope, time, cost

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS? A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

What causes replanning of the project scope? (178) A. Project document updates B. Project scope statement changes C. Variance analysis D. Change requests

What is Project Portfolio Management? (126) A. Management of of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling. C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company. D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives

What risk technique is used to quantity the probability and impact of risks on project objectives? A. Expert judgment B. Risk registry C. Risk response planning D. Interviewing

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur? (250) A. When the project uses capital expenditures B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary? A. Before the Define Activities process B. During the Define Activities process C. Before the Sequence Activities process D. During the Sequence Activities process

When it comes to changes, the project manager's attention is BEST focused on: A. Making changes B. Tracking and recording changes C. Informing the sponsor of changes D. Preventing unnecessary changes

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project? A. Project Risk Management B. Project Human Resource Management C. Project Scope Management D. Project Stakeholder Management

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable? (201) A. Cause and effect diagram B. Histogram C. Control chart D. Scatter diagram

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment? A. Cost baseline B. Service level agreement C. Memorandum of understanding D. Business case

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project? A. Feedback analysis B. Stakeholder analysis C. Communications management plan D. Stakeholder management plan

Which is NOT a Collect Requirement process tool & technique? A. Group Creativity Techniques B. Interviews C. Benchmarking D. Expert Judgment

Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process? A. Performance report B. Work breakdown structure C. Requested changes D. Project scope statement

Which item is an example of personnel assessment? A. Resource calendar B. Tight matrix C. Team-building activity D. Focus group

Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components? A. Collect Requirements B. Decompose Scope C. Control Scope D. Create WBS

Which of the following activities are included in the monitor and control project work process? A. Developing estimates B. Selecting sellers C. Transfer historical information and lessons learned to the knowledge base for future use D. Providing information to support status reporting, progress measurement and forecasting

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risk process? A. Work performance reports B. Assumption logs C. Network diagrams D. Academic studies

Which of the following are generally illustrated better by bar charts than diagrams?: A. Logical Relationships B. Critical Paths C. Resource trade-offs D. Progress or status

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"? A. Changing project specifications continuously B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk occur? A. Risk register B. Risk audits C. Risk urgency assessment D. Risk probability and impact assessment

Which of the following is NOT a key input to Determine Budget? A. Activity cost estimates B. Project schedule C. WBS D. Project funding requirements

Which of the following is NOT needed in order to come up with a project estimate? A. A WBS B. A network diagram C. Risks D. A change control system

Which of the following is a process within the Execution process group? A. Risk Management Planning B. Solicitation Planning C. Activity Definition D. Perform Quality Assurance

Which of the following is a project constraint? A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment D. The product is needed in 250 days

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan? A. Team performance assessment B. Roles and responsibilities C. Staffing management plan D. Enterprise environmental factors

Which of the following is included in a Project Charter? A. A risk management strategy B. Work package estimates C. Detailed resource estimates D. The business case for the project

Which of the following is not a process within the Planning process group? A. Risk Response Planning B. Quality Planning C. Communications Planning D. Develop Project Charter

Which of the following is not a tool and technique of the Plan Human Resource Management process? A. Networking B. Organization charts C. Organizational theory D. Rewards and recognition

Which of the following is not an input to the initiating process group? A. Company processes B. Company culture C. Historical WBSs D. Project scope statement

Which of the following is not provided by the communications management plan? A. Person responsible for communicating the information B. Frequency of communication C. Stakeholders communication requirements D. Desired and current engagement levels of key stakeholders

Which of the following is true about the development of a project charter? A. The sponsor creates the project charter, and the project manager approves it. B. The project team creates the project charter, and the PMO approves it C. The executive manager creates the project charter, and the functional manager approves it D. The project manager creates the project charter and the sponsor approves it.

Which of the following is used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project team members? A. Hierarchical-type charts (HTC) B. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS) C. Work breakdown structure (WBS) D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area? (165) A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risk or threats? A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives? A. Exploit B. Share C. Enhance D. Transfer

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations? A. Critical path method B. Rolling wave planning C. Precedence diagramming method D. Parametric estimating

Which of these statements about Risk in a project is correct? A. Risks are always negative in nature and are threats that need to be managed well B. A risk is always induced external to the project. C. Risks need not be planned for in all projects D. Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics? A. Control Risks B. Plan Risk Management C. Plan Risk Responses D. Identify Risks

Which process groups must be included in every project? A. Planning, executing and closing B. Initiating, planning and executing C. Planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling D. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling and closing

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project? A. Define activities B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Develop Project Management Plan D. Develop Project Charter

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager? A. Control quality B. Monitor and Control Project Work C. Control Scope D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area? A. Manage Project Team B. Collect Requirements C. Sequence Activities D. Direct and Manage Project Work

Which project management process group generally takes the most project time and resources? A. Planning B. Design C. Integration D. Executing

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management? A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide B. The Standard for Program Management C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$) D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK)

Which technique can be used to determine the cause and degree of the difference between the baseline and actual performance? A. Root-cause analysis B. Baseline bouncing C. Root cause calculations D. Variance analysis

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task? A. Acquisition B. Negotiation C. Virtual team D. Pre-assignment

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process? A. Pareto diagram B. Performance reporting C. SWOT analysis D. Expert judgment

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process? A. Document analysis B. Observations C. Product analysis D. Expert judgment

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process? A. Benchmarking, expert judgement, and analytical techniques B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques and meetings

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of work? A. External B. Lead C. Discretionary D. Mandatory

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes and objectives? A. Affinity B. Scatter C. Fishbone D. Matrix

Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity? A. Schedule Analysis B. Checklist Analysis C. Assumption Analysis D. Cost-Benefit Analysis

You are asked to select tools and techniques to implement a quality assurance program to supplement existing quality control activities. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for this purpose? A. Quality audits B. Statistical sampling C. Pareto diagram D. Focus groups

You have just started work on a procurement when management decided to terminate the contract. What should you do FIRST? A. Go back to the Plan Procurement Management process B. Go back to the Conduct Procurement process C. Finish the Control Procurement process D. Go to the Close Procurement process

Your well-planned project is likely to encounter a number of change requests and approved changes during its life cycle. In the change management plan, you have outlined the processes that you and others will use to understand the impacts of changes. Getting stakeholder acceptance of the decisions related to change on this project is critical, as a failed project could impact stakeholder value and the earning projections for the organization. Your attention is best focused on which of the following regarding changes on your project? A. Making changes B. Tracking and recording changes C. Informing the sponsor of changes D. Preventing unnecessary changes

PMP

Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Chapter 2 Terms The Market System and the Circular Flow

Chapter 16 Store layout, Design, and Visual Merchandising

Astronomy HW #10

Psychotherapy Final Exam Question Database Ch 8-16

Principles of Personal Property (Introduction and Possession)

AP HUGE- 18.2

Micro

The Nine (9) Rights of Medication Administration

Microbiology Test 1

ICT Digital Tools - Database

earth science

lecture 9 (preg and substance abuse)

College and Sports Media Midterm 1 (ADV 378S)

Trivia Questions

EAQ PSYCH

PANCE Prep

Guinness World Records 2013

Drugs & Behavior - Chapter 12

Accounting Test 3 Review

MGMT CH4