PMP Practice Test Study

When will stakeholders have the most influence over the outcome of a project? A. At the end of the project B. During scope validation C. At the start of a project D. At the start of each phase

C. At the start of a project Stakeholders have the most influence at the start of the project, when they are providing their requirements which will help shape the scope of the project and its deliverables.

You are the Team Facilitator on an Agile Project. Who is ultimately accountable for the business value of the solution the project team produces? A. Product Owner B. Team Facilitator C. The whole team D. Sponsor

A. Product Owner The Product Owner represents the customer and is ultimately accountable for the solution. The team is responsible for creating the solution and the Team Facilitator is responsible for making sure the team has all the tools and resources necessary to make that happen. The Sponsor provides the funding. PMI Authorized PMP Exam Prep Student Guide/ Page 269

You are working with the project team to identify quality requirements and standards for the project. Which of the following documents would not be relevant? A. Assumptions Log B. Organizational quality policy C. Requirements documentation D. Stakeholder Register

A. Assumptions Log The correct answer is A, as the question asks which of the documents is NOT relevant. The Stakeholder Register would be helpful, so you could find out which Stakeholders had requirements around Quality. The Assumptions Log is where we document Assumptions and Constraints, and while there is a chance there are assumptions made about quality, if you were looking for requirements as the question asked, that would be the least likely place of the 4 answers to go looking.

Effective communication closes the gap between different stakeholders with different backgrounds and skill levels. The fundamental attributes of effective communication are: A. Clarity on the purpose of communication; understanding the receiver; and monitoring communication effectiveness B. Acknowledging, clarifying and confirming, understanding and removing barriers that adversely affect comprehension C. Sender and receiver model, feedback, encoding and decoding D. Established communication channels, tools and systems

A. Clarity on the purpose of communication; understanding the receiver; and monitoring communication effectiveness This is the PMBOK Guide definition of effective communication. B refers to active listening, C refers to the communication model, D refers to Enterprise Environmental Factors.

You are mentoring a junior project manager who will be taking on a few smaller projects. While he is eager to start, he is fairly inexperienced at working in a large organization. Since communication develops the relationships necessary for successful project outcomes, the first thing you should do is advise him that there are two parts to successful communication. They are: A. Developing an appropriate communication strategy and the project's communications B.The project's communications and the engagement guide C.Official and unofficial communications D.The 5 Cs of communication and developing an appropriate communication strategy

A. Developing an appropriate communication strategy and the project's communications While all of the answers are very important to communicating on a project, only answer A is clearly defined by the PMBOK as being the two parts of successful communication.

Kathryn and Mike are preparing a work performance report for cost and are in constant disagreement about the placement of the control accounts on the WBS. As the project manager, how should you proceed? A. Force/Direct - inform the team members the answer to their problem was already determined in the Cost Management Plan B. Withdraw/Avoid - let the team members handle the problem themselves C. Force/Direct - inform the team members the financial responsibility is already defined in the WBS Dictionary D. Withdraw/Avoid - since it is the first instance, let them resolve the issue themselves, but refer them to the WBS Dictionary when asked

A. Force/Direct - inform the team members the answer to their problem was already determined in the Cost Management Plan If this were the first instance the team would be allowed to resolve the issue on their own. The question states this is an ongoing problem. At this point, the project manager should be involved. With the options available the best answer was to inform the team to follow the plan.

You are managing a complicated aerospace project for the Department of Defense. We are using SDLC and EVM throughout the project. You need to ensure that cost is managed closely and proactively. Which of the following would allow you to control costs on your project most effectively? A. Prepare cost estimates at the beginning of the project and then check costs against the cost performance baseline as you proceed B. Estimate costs during the execution of the project and then manage each task to the budget and immediately submit a change request if variance is greater than tolerance C. Estimate costs during planning and then re-estimate before each task begins and update the baseline as necessary D. Estimate costs during the planning of the project and have management confirm the estimates and update the estimates at the beginning of each phase of the project

A. Prepare cost estimates at the beginning of the project and then check costs against the cost performance baseline as you proceed Preparing accurate cost estimates at the beginning of the project and then closely monitoring and controlling costs against the budget will help lead to good cost performance.

You have been called into a meeting and are told that you are going to be the replacement for a project manager that was let go recently. You have been told that there is much confusion about the direction of the project, what the high-level goals are, and who is funding the project. There is a list of stakeholders but some of the stakeholders are disputing their involvement on the project. Which document is most likely missing? A. Project Charter B. Stakeholder Register C. Project Management Plan D. Scope Document

A. Project Charter The Project Charter should clearly highlight the high-level goals of the project and identify the Project Sponsor (who is responsible for funding the project).

You have been doing your best to make sure the project teams that have been assembled are productive and able to cooperate optimally among themselves. Having noticed some dysfunctional events in one of the technical teams, you decide that it may be time to take action and address the situation. It seems motivation is lacking among the team. Which of the following is not an input of Develop Team as you work to address the situation? A. Recognition and rewards B. Project team assignments C. Resource calendars D. Resource management plan

A. Recognition and rewards Recognition and rewards is a tool and technique of the Develop Team process.

What is the most important agile project practice for the agile team? A. Retrospectives B. Daily stand-up meeting C. Earned value metrics D. Spring planning meeting

A. Retrospectives Option A is correct. The Agile Practice Guide indicates that the most important practice for the agile team is the retrospective because it allows the team to learn about, improve and adapt its process. See page 50 of the Agile Practice Guide for more details.

Pat is a new project manager and wants to do a good job. His sponsor, experienced and a mentor of Pat, is certified in and passionate about risk management. What document would he suggest Pat focuses on, since it is used as an input and an output of most risk processes, and is frequently reviewed and updated? A. Risk register B. Risk monitoring plan C. Risk audit D. Risk probability and impact matrix

A. Risk register The risk register is an output of the Identify Risks process and an input to various risk management processes including the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses, and Monitor Risks. It is frequently updated as an output of all the above risk management processes.

As part of your team risk analysis, you are considering each risk from several perspectives in order to have a fuller sense of each one. Since your project is not an island unto itself, you explain to the team that you must also identify any threats to your project that arise from within your organization. The best technique to do that would be to use: A. SWOT analysis B. Organizational process assets analysis C. Risk/reward analysis D. Data analysis

A. SWOT analysis SWOT analysis examines the project from each of the stands for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) perspectives. and In general, SWOT analysis identifies opportunities that may arise from strengths, and any threats resulting from weaknesses. Neither B nor C exist, and D is a generic name for certain techniques, one of which in this case is SWOT.

As the HR lead on a company-wide software implementation project, Jean realizes her team has completed all the necessary exit criteria for the deliverables in question at this point of the project. She reaches out to you, the project manager, to determine what would be appropriate for conducting her closure activities. Which of the following is most relevant for performing administrative closure? A. Technical documentation on the product of the project, project plan documentation and project reports B. Clearly refining variance metrics to capture within the resource histogram C. Statement of Work D. Project reports and project baselines

A. Technical documentation on the product of the project, project plan documentation and project reports Administrative closure would require project planning documentation that establishes the framework for performance reporting, product documentation for establishing that the project has met all requirements, and project reports for recording lessons learned.

A pandemic has broken out and the local state officials have banned all public gatherings. You have determined that this will significantly affect the scope of your agile project. What would be a useful tool to help the team function. A. Use remote paring along with your project management information system to keep the team moving forward B. Create a Fishbowl C. Adobe Connect D. Update your communication & resource management plans noting the increased number of channels of communication and the need for cultural awareness training for the team

A. Use remote paring along with your project management information system to keep the team moving forward The Agile practice guide discusses best practices with ""dispersed teams"" and the need for virtual workspace on p 46. Although a fishbowl is discussed in this section the intent of that tool is not to connect individuals with other individuals it's more about connecting a group with another group. The best answer is A using remote pairing.

When using an adaptive project life cycle or one of the many agile methodologies what two processes are conducted iteratively to ensure project objectives are being met and that the product backlog reflects the customer's current needs? A. Validate Scope and Control Scope B. Daily Standups and Backlog Refinements C. Backlog Refinements and Retrospectives D. Backlog Refinements and Define Scope

A. Validate Scope and Control Scope A is the only answer that has two PROCESS names in it. Daily Standups, Backlog Refinements, and Retrospectives are not processes in the PMBOK if the question asked what "AGILE PRACTICES" then you can make an argument for B or C..... but the questions asked for processes... so try answering the question that was actually asked. Read PMBOK p. 131 fourth paragraph from the top third line in that paragraph. To see all processes see The PMBOK Guide p.25 to see all agile practices see the Agile Practice Guide p. 50-57 5.2.1- 5.2.8

You are a project manager for a large aerospace company. You are working on manufacturing a space shuttle turbine. Design for X performs which of the following functions? A. identifies which variables have the most influence on a quality outcome B. identifies which variables have the least influence on a quality outcome C. determines what a quality outcome is D. identifies variables impacting quality outcomes by looking at each variable individually

A. identifies which variables have the most influence on a quality outcome Design for X is a statistical method of identifying which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development. Design for X should be used during the plan quality management process to determine the number and type of tests and their impact on cost of quality. D is incorrect because Design for X analyzes all variables collectively, not individually.

Which of the following best describes the process of controlling and tracking changes to the project's deliverables? A. Change control board B. Change management plan C. Configuration Management Plan D. Contract change procedure

C. Configuration Management Plan Configuration management is a procedure to identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of an item or system and ensure the deliverable reflects all implemented changes.

You are ready to close your project out and have gathered together all project documents for review. Your sponsor calls you in to a meeting and reminds you that there are business documents that must be reviewed as well. Your next step should be to review which business documents? A. Project charter, business case and benefits management plan B. Business case and benefits management plan C. Business case and business management plan D. Project charter and benefits management plan

B. Business case and benefits management plan The only two documents specifically referred to in the PMBOK Guide as business documents are the business case and benefits management plan. There is no such thing as a business management plan. And while it is important to review the project charter, strictly speaking it is not considered a business document.

Which of the following are outputs of define scope? A. The scope statement, WBS update, WBS Dictionary update B. The assumption log updates, stakeholder register updates, the scope statement C. Project Documents updates, Project Scope Statement, Project Charter D. Project Document updates, Project Scope Statement, Product Analysis

B. The assumption log updates, stakeholder register updates, the scope statement Assumption log updates and stakeholder register updates are some of the many documents updated and known as Project Document Updates. The Scope Statement is a key output of define Scope. The WBS and WBS Dictionary are outputs of Create WBS (5.4), not define scope. Answer C starts correctly, but the Project Charter is not updated. The product analysis is a tool and technique.

You have the following activity cost estimates: Optimistic = $1,000, Pessimistic = $2,400, Most Likely = $1,400. What is the estimated activity cost using a beta distribution? A. $1,400 B. $1,500 C. $1,600 D. $2,400

B. $1,500 This question is asking you to use the beta distribution (aka PERT) formula for 3-point estimates, which is: (O + 4ML + P) / 6 = ($1,000 + 4x$1,400 + $2,400) / 6 = $1,500.

The project steering committee is considering which project they should invest capital in. Bob's project promises to be worth $175,000 in four years. The project steering committee is interested in Bob's project, but they would like to know the present value of the return if the interest rate is 6 percent. What is the present value of Bob's project? A. $175,000 B. $139,000 C. $220,000 D. $43,750

B. $139,000 The formula for Present Value (PV) is FV / (1 + i) ^n, where FV is the future value, i is the interest rate, and n is the number of periods. PV = 175,000 / (1.06 * 1.06 * 1.06 * 1.06), PV = $139,000.

Using the Program Evaluation and Review Technique, create a cost estimate of an activity expected to last 6 weeks. The Customer has given you an overall budget of $1.5 million but has ambiguous requirements with the additional risk of scarce resources. The expected delivery is 8 months from today. O = $32,000, M = $46,000, P = $62,500. A. $38,750 B. $46,416 C. $47,541 D. $47,000

B. $46,416 The formula for calculating the Program Evaluation and Review Technique or PERT is Optimistic + Most likely (x4) + Pessimistic / 6 or $32,000 + $46,000 (4) + $62,500 / 6 = $46,416.

You are considering whether to seek out a potential contract. The probability of completing a contract is 92% which will yield a profit of $10,000. If the project fails to complete the contract then the associated risk is $10,000, which will be charged as a penalty. What is the expected monetary value of taking the contract? A. $800 B. $8,400 C. $10,800 D. ($800)

B. $8,400 This is a case of a decision tree analysis, the probability of each uncertainty point must total 100 percent (if using percentages); if using fractions, these must add up to 1. As such, given the probability to complete the contract is .92, then the probability of not completing the contract is .08, which would be multiplied by the impact (-$10,000), for a result of -$800. On the other hand, the chances of completing the contract on time and realizing the $10,000 profit is 92%, so you multiply .92 x $10,000 and get $9,200. When you sum the two values you get $8,400.

You are a project manager at Kruger Smoothing IT Solutions. Your project follows an iteration-based agile methodology. You are facilitating a meeting with the team and product owner to prepare and define stories for the upcoming iteration. The purpose of this meeting is to refine enough stories so the team understands what the stories are and how large the stories are in relation to each other. What Agile Practice are you performing? A. Retrospective B. Backlog Refinement C. Agile Proportional Backlog Assessment APBA D. Daily Standup

B. Backlog Refinement Answers A, B, and C are all "Common Agile Practices" this passage best describes Backlog Refinement read more in the Agile Practice Guide on page 52. Test tip: just because an answer sounds cool and uses business buzz words does not mean it is correct. Answer C sound right but is not in any of the cited literature for this exam.

You are performing earned value management (EVM) on your project and have determined the following metrics: SV = -150, CV = 200, SPI = .85, CPI = 1.15. Which EVM metric is considered the most critical? A. SPI B. CPI C. CV D. SV

B. CPI CPI is considered the most critical EVM metric. CPI is a measure of cost efficiency on a project and is the ratio of earned value (EV) to actual costs (AC).

You are the project manager for a large construction company. You are currently managing a project to expand an existing facility. Which of the following is an output of Control Scope? A. Workarounds B. Change requests C. Transference D. Risk assessment

B. Change requests Change request are outputs of Control scope. Choices A, C, and D are all related to risk.

You are a project manager for a software company. As part of your project you need to replace old servers with new ones, but you can't do it on Thursdays. This is an example of what? A. Restriction B. Constraint C. Assumption D. Requirement

B. Constraint Constraints are anything that limits the options of the project team in meeting the objectives of the project.

You have taken over a project from a colleague who has moved to another department. One of the first issues you need to address is the concern of stakeholders not receiving timely reporting, leading them to make decisions based on faulty information. In order to best understand stakeholder expectations, the first thing you should do is: A. Ask the sponsor to communicate with key stakeholders B. Consult the Communications Management Plan C. Call an emergency meeting with key stakeholders D. Consult the Stakeholder Management Plan

B. Consult the Communications Management Plan While this is an important issue, this not an emergency and there is no reason to call an emergency meeting or to involve the sponsor. The Communications management plan will provide information about stakeholders' needs, requirements, and expectations. There is no such document as the stakeholder management plan, this is an excellent example of a distractor answer loosely referring to the Stakeholder Engagement Plan.

Your subject matter experts have identified a risk on the construction project that well exceeds the threshold of risk tolerance of your project. You decide that the best response in this case, rather than mitigate or avoid the risk to the project, is to transfer the risk. Which of the following may be used as a risk transfer tool? A. Vendor proposal B. Contract C. Quotation D. Project requirements

B. Contract Contracts can be used as a risk transfer tool. The risk does not disappear, but the responsibility for the risk is transferred to a third party. Answer A, C, and D are all incorrect. A vendor proposal, a quotation, and project requirements do not serve as risk transfer tools.

As a team facilitator, you are trying to understand which level of conflict your team is at. You are hearing conversations such as, that is nonsense and you are completely wrong. Which of the five levels of conflict would this best describe? A. Problem Solving B. Disagreement C. Contest D. World War

B. Disagreement This describes a Disagreement since team members are being opinionated. Problem Solving is where team members are working together collaboratively (here they are being combative). Contest would be where other team members start taking sides (there is no evidence of that here). World War is where teams are not talking to one another.

You are a Project Manager in a Multi-Divisional organization. You were just informed by a functional manager that one of your key resources will be unavailable to perform an activity on your Critical Path. What should you do? A. Contact the sponsor immediately B. Discuss the importance of the situation with the manager C. Inform the manager that if they cause project failure, they will regret it D. Update your schedule to account for the resource shortage

B. Discuss the importance of the situation with the manager Discussing the importance of the situation is the best answer in this situation. The authority of a PM is limited in a Multi-Divisional organization, however every effort should be made to develop a solution before contacting the Sponsor or revising the Schedule Baseline. Of the two remaining answers, stressing the importance rather than possible regret is a better course of action in line with Interpersonal and Team Skills.

You are the project manager at an IT company called Vote Right. Your project has been created with the intent of creating a new email voting system. At face value, the project seems straightforward but competing stakeholder factions are attempting to undermine the project by creating a system that benefits their faction over the other. You have determined that the project's environment is best handled with an Agile project methodology. In a discussion with the customer, you mention how it is quite possible that your team is able to deliver the value needed before meeting the entirety of the project scope stated in the contract. Nathan, head of customer relations and sales, tells you that there is an option in the contract that allows the customer to buy the remainder of the contract with a cancelation fee. What Option is Nathan talking about? A. Dynamic Scope Option B. Early Cancelation Option C. Not to Exceed Option D. Early Value Management Option

B. Early Cancelation Option If you answered Dynamic Scope Option you were close but the passage does not discuss a budget constraint, the main reason for the Dynamic Scope Option. See Agile Practice Guide p. 78.

Which of the following is not an input to Implement Risk Responses? A. Risk Register B. Enterprise Environmental Factors C. Risk Management Plan D. Lessons Learned Register

B. Enterprise Environmental Factors Enterprise Environmental are notably absent from this process because they had been taken into account previously. This process involves the execution of a plan rather than the development of one, which would necessitate considering those internal and external factors that are outside of the control of the project management team.

You are facilitating a meeting to discuss a specialized area of your project where your knowledge is lacking. It is vital that a decision be made quickly so the project can proceed. You gather a team of experts in the area to help you make the decision, however, the meeting is not going according to plan. There seems to be much contention between the experts and there are widely-varied opinions on how to proceed. Some members in the meeting are even going so far as making false accusations of others and you notice that the opinion of one member is constantly being rejected. What would be the best approach to try and come up with a resolution? A. Institute a voting method to reach the decision quickly B. Immediately halt this meeting and then use the Delphi technique to reach a decision C. Immediately halt the meeting and engage in team building exercises D. Immediately halt the meeting and set up guidelines for conduct during the meeting, and re-iterating the agenda of the meeting

B. Immediately halt this meeting and then use the Delphi technique to reach a decision The Delphi technique is useful where there is hostility amongst a group of experts, and especially where personal differences are tainting people's reception of others' ideas.

Your project is falling behind the original schedule and you have a hard deadline you must meet for your project completion. Management has recommended that you fast-track the project. You agree with management, but warn them that fast-tracking could result in which of the following? A. Increased costs due to additional resources being utilized B. Increased risk C. A reduction in scope D. Increased use of procurements

B. Increased risk Fast tracking causes increased risk and could result in re-work since you are performing what would otherwise be sequential activities in parallel.

Which answer best explains why the WBS is important to a project? A. It provides a hierarchical diagram of the project B. It is used for estimating activities, costs, and resources C. It provides templates that can be re-used on other projects D. It helps foster team commitment to the project

B. It is used for estimating activities, costs, and resources The WBS is used to help establish activities, costs and resources for the project. The WBS is used for planning and controlling the project. Budgets, staffing, and schedules are derived largely from the WBS.

During a risk a review meeting, a team member brings up a new risk with the potential to derail your entire project. As the project manager, how do you proceed? A. Refer to the risk management plan and conduct a risk workshop B. Quantify the risk, develop potential solutions, and manage the risk appropriately C. Follow the process outlined in your OPAs and EEFs D. Determine the appropriate strategy, ID solutions, and implement risk responses

B. Quantify the risk, develop potential solutions, and manage the risk appropriately When a new risk is identified, the PM must take a proactive stance. Once risk has been identified, the next steps are to perform qualitative risk analysis, perform quantitative risk analysis, plan risk responses, implement risk responses, and finally monitor risks.

Joan orders RFID chips for her project from a new supplier who appears to have the lowest cost. After delivery of the chips, the sales rep calls Joan to thank her for the order, and tells her he will be sending her a portable grill as a thank you gift. What should Joan do? A. Accept the gift. It did not influence her decision to purchase the chips. B. Refuse the gift to avoid the appearance of impropriety. C. Report the chips manufacturer to the Better Business Bureau. D. Ensure the gift becomes a company asset and not a personal asset.

B. Refuse the gift to avoid the appearance of impropriety. Although Answers A and D might be tempting, the appearance of impropriety is important, and should be avoided. Answer C is not necessary unless the chip manufacturer has done something illegal.

Who should attend status meetings? A. The project team B. The people designated in the communication management plan C. The people designated in the stakeholder register D. Stakeholders

B. The people designated in the communication management plan Answer B is correct. The people listed in the communication management plan will attend status meetings.

Which of the following collaboration technologies would best help enable interactive nonverbal communication for virtual teams? A. Shared task boards B. Video conferencing tools C. Knowledge repositories D. Messaging and chat boards

B. Video conferencing tools Video conferencing is interactive and provides visuals and audio of the participants. Messaging and chat boards are interactive, but don't provide visuals. Task boards and knowledge repositories are examples of pull communications, and are not interactive.

Manage Communications ensures timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, monitoring and ultimate disposition of project information. The key benefit of this process is: A. It is a documented approach to effectively and efficiently engage stakeholders by presenting relevant information in a timely manner. B. It provides the optimal information flow as defined in the communications management plan and the stakeholder engagement plan. C. It enables an efficient and effective information flow between the team and stakeholders. D. It provides the optimal information flow as defined in the communications management plan and the stakeholder communications plan.

C. It enables an efficient and effective information flow between the team and stakeholders. Answer A is the key benefit of Plan Communications and Answer B is the key benefit of Monitor Communications. D is very close to C but be careful. There is no such thing as the stakeholder communications plan.

The PMO is prioritizing projects for the organization and have called a meeting with all the senior PMs. There is a disagreement about the cost of a specific activity. Using a triangular distribution method create an estimate, where O = $2,300, M = $3,200, P = $4,700. A. $3,300 B. $3,375 C. $3,400 D. $4,000

C. $3,400 The formula for triangular distribution is Optimistic + Most Likely + Pessimistic divided by 3 or $2,300 + $3,200 + $4,700 / 3= $3,400.

Universal Global Company's construction division has won a contract to build an office park in a busy part of downtown Paris. You are excited that you were elected to create a program for the development of the buildings. You have managed projects in the past, but this is your first real exposure to a program. Which of the following best describes a program? A. A standardized approach to project management that ensures alignment with the portfolio of the organization B. A standardized approach to project management with multiple projects coordinated together C. A collection of related projects managed in coordination to gain control that would not necessarily be available if the projects were managed independently D.A collection of unrelated projects all contributing to the strategic objectives of the organization

C. A collection of related projects managed in coordination to gain control that would not necessarily be available if the projects were managed independently A program is a collection of related projects managed and coordinated to gain a higher level of control. A, B, and D do not accurately describe a program.

Which of the following is an output of the Validate Scope process? A. WBS Dictionary B. Verified deliverables C. Accepted deliverables D. Work performance data

C. Accepted deliverables Validate Scope is the process by which the customer or sponsor formally accepts the deliverables (which may sometimes be done in conjunction with Control Quality). Accepted Deliverables are the output of this process (assuming they meet requirements). Other possible outputs are change requests (if they do not meet requirements), work performance information and project document updates (as needed).

In order to bolster the performance of team members working on key outputs being delivered for your project, you have opted to use peer reviews to get a better handle on how things are being accomplished. A peer review would include all of the following except? A. A documented list of any omissions, additions, and deviations B. A defined activity for the individual doing the review C. All scope, schedule, and cost work performance information D. All of the source information that was used to develop the item being reviewed

C. All scope, schedule, and cost work performance information The goal of a peer review is to reduce defects and rework in a deliverable, by having another individual review the work of the individual who produced the deliverable. All source information is reviewed to verify that the deliverable is correct. Any omissions, additions, and deviations are documented for accurate identification and clarification. A peer review activity needs to identified, estimated, scheduled, and tracked. Work performance information does not have any bearing on a peer review.

You are actively managing your project. Your team is fairly new and virtual. You have begun to observe some team problems and believe that you are in the Storming stage of organizational development. Project Performance Appraisals are used in order to achieve which of the following? A. Correct the project manager's mistakes B. Provide answers for upper levels of management C. Assess the progress and performance of a team member D. Appraise the project costs and cost trends of the project

C. Assess the progress and performance of a team member Project Performance Appraisals are used to gauge the performance of individual team members, and are therefore a tool of Manage Team.

On your project, there are several stakeholders, the most important of whom are within the main business you support. Your sponsor calls you aside one day and advises you he has noticed there appears to be less support and more resistance to your project. What tools and techniques of Manage Stakeholder Engagement should you be using to help deal with this issue? A. Root cause analysis, assumption and constraint analysis, stakeholder engagement assessment matrix B. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, active listening, stakeholder analysis C. Conflict management, cultural awareness, negotiation, political awareness D. Stakeholder analysis, stakeholder mapping/representation, questionnaires and surveys

C. Conflict management, cultural awareness, negotiation, political awareness While there is some overlap among the various Stakeholder processes, only Manage Stakeholder Engagement has the four mentioned in the answer. Conflict management in particular only shows up in Manage Stakeholder Engagement, not in the other three.

A product deliverable is undergoing acceptance testing. A senior-level stakeholder raises concern that an essential product feature for their department was not developed. The project manager wants to avoid this issue in the future. What is one way to accomplish this goal? A. Properly manage stakeholder expectations. B. Prepare a change management plan. C. Ensure a scope management plan gets approved. D. Hold a product demo with stakeholders.

C. Ensure a scope management plan gets approved. A scope management plan documents how the project and product scope will be defined, validated, and controlled. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2017) PMI/PMI/5.1.3.1/137

You are the project manager for a large medical company. Your project is to create an innovative laser that will dramatically improve how dentists clean teeth. This technology is new and must be manufactured with precision to pass federal regulations and strict inspections. You must have a robust quality management plan. All of the following are tools and techniques of Plan Quality Management except which of the following? A. Expert Judgment B. Data Gathering C. Inspection D. Test and inspection planning

C. Inspection Inspection is a tool and technique used in Control Quality (to ensure conformance with quality standards).

Which of the following is false about Manage Project Knowledge? A. It resides in the Project Integration Management Knowledge area B. It updates Organizational Process Assets C. It is conducted as part of Monitoring and Controlling D. The Lessons learned register is an input to this process

C. It is conducted as part of Monitoring and Controlling Answer choice C is false. Manage Project Knowledge is an Executing Process (although the Lessons learned register is often updated while working in the Monitoring & Controlling process group). While the Lessons learned register is an output of this process, it can also be an input, especially when this process is being performed after the project has begun.

You are the project manager for a large technology company and working on an innovative technology solution. Your organization is holding a bidders conference to discuss the project with prospective sellers, and a trusted seller you have worked with many times in the past has asked if they can meet with the project manager the day before the conference to cover some sensitive questions they do not wish to ask in front of others sellers. Should your organization meet with the seller? A. Yes, the more that prospective sellers know about the project, the better. B. Yes, they are your primary seller, and past history should be factored in. C. No, prospective sellers should be kept on equal footing. D. No, that would represent an illegal activity.

C. No, prospective sellers should be kept on equal footing. If you are involved in a formal procurement, you should make every effort to keep sellers on equal footing. If one seller is provided with an advantage, it negates much of the value of the procurement process.

As a project manager, one of the key tools and techniques in your toolbox is having a high degree of emotional intelligence. One of the primary skills of high emotional intelligence is self-regulation. Which of the following is not an element of self-regulation? A. Trustworthiness B. Adaptability C. Optimism D. Conscientiousness

C. Optimism The self-regulation elements include self-control, trustworthiness, conscientiousness, adaptability and innovation. Optimism is an element of motivation, which is another key skill of emotional intelligence.

You are preparing to close out your project and you have been asked by your sponsor to perform some data analysis on the project. Specifically, she would like you or someone on your team to analyze interrelationships between different variables which contributed to project outcomes. This will help improve performance on future projects. The best option for this is to: A. Perform variance analysis B. Perform document analysis C. Perform regression analysis D. Perform trend analysis

C. Perform regression analysis All the choices are valid data analysis techniques for project closeout. Variance analysis takes planned vs. actual into consideration. Document analysis means assessing available information to identify knowledge sharing and lessons learned. Trend analysis is used to look at trends over time to implement adjustments for future projects. However, only regression analysis analyzes the interrelationships between different project variables that contributed to the project outcomes to improve performance on future projects.

You are a project manager for the state. You are managing a virtual team with team members dispersed throughout the state. You are preparing a document which outlines high-level requirements, known high-level risks, a summary budget, and a description of the project manager's level of authority. What knowledge area is being utilized here? A. Project Scope Management B. Project Stakeholder Management C. Project Integration Management D. Project Communications Management

C. Project Integration Management Project Integration Management, which focuses on the coordination of all components of project management, includes the development of the project charter (which is what the question describes).

Lean Six Sigma is a quality framework which improves the quality of project management, as well as the quality of the end product, service or result. It focuses on the seven kinds of waste. All of the following are types of waste except: A. Transportation B. Inventory C. Scrap D. Overproduction

C. Scrap The seven kinds of waste are transportation, inventory, waiting, overproduction, over-processing, motion and defects. Scrap is a legitimate quality term but is not one of the seven kinds of waste.

One of your junior project managers has approached you upset and bewildered. He mentioned that he has asked a subcontractor several times to do a piece of work but the subcontractor has ignored him every time and now his part of the project is falling behind schedule. The subcontractor was hired by a general contractor that was hired by your organization. What would be your best response? A. Find out who the subcontractor is and talk to him yourself to find out why he is ignoring these repeated requests. B. Explain to your junior project manager that he has no authority to request tasks from the subcontractor C. Talk to the general contractor and find out why the subcontractor has been ignoring repeated requests. D. Request the subcontractor be removed from the project.

C. Talk to the general contractor and find out why the subcontractor has been ignoring repeated requests. You should direct your attention to the general contractor, with whom you are in privity of contract (which means you have a contract in force with it). Because you are not in privity with the subcontractor, you should not make demands of it directly. Remember you should take such actions either through your procurements specialists or with their assistance and direction.

Your Agile release is going well, you have completed two sprints and are planning the third. Based on performance so far, you are trying to identify your team strengths and weaknesses, team preferences and future employment plans of team members. What are you performing? A. Attitudinal Surveys B. Updating the RACI chart C. Team Skill Appraisal D. SWOT analysis

C. Team Skill Appraisal The scenario describes Team Skill Appraisal which, by definition is identifying strengths and weaknesses, assessing opportunities for improvement, building trust, identifying team preferences, aspirations and decision making amongst others. Although SWOT analysis looks like a decent answer, it is a distractor here since a SWOT will not document aspirations or preferences of team members

You are the project manager working with an agile team to develop a new security system for a prison client. Key stakeholders interact with the team on a daily basis--most notably the warden and guard chief--and occasionally come up with new ideas of what they'd like to include in the system. Which of the following steps would not typically occur for this type of project? A. The stakeholder requesting the change identifies and documents it. B. An analysis of the impact of the change is performed. C. The change request and impact analysis are forwarded to the change control board for approval. D. The team decides whether or not to accept the change.

C. The change request and impact analysis are forwarded to the change control board for approval. Answers A and B would be done no matter what life cycle or methodology is utilized. For agile projects, the team decides whether or not to accept the change, not a change control board. For changes that are accepted, the team will either agree that they can include it in the current sprint/iteration, else it will be added to the Product Backlog for addition inclusion in a future sprint.

As you begin to onboard various team members onto your project, you notice that nearly a dozen of your fellow employees have not yet had their standard safety and behavioral compliance training. This training is critical to each team member being successful on your project. Training of team members in general job skills such as these is the responsibility of whom? A. The engineering manager B. The director of training C. The functional manager D. The project manager

C. The functional manager The functional manager is responsible for training in general job skills. The project manager should address project-specific skills.

One of the teams on your hybrid project was facing a real perplexing issue that no one on the team was able to resolve. Another team member from a different team immediately stepped in and was able to resolve the issue and put the project back on track. Your stakeholders were so impressed with this team members commitment and performance that they offered her a $100 gift card, much to her surprise. Which of the following best describes her gift? A. This is known as a reward since the team member was being rewarded for her outstanding performance. B. This is a reward because going above and beyond should be recognized. C. This is known as a recognition since the gift was unexpected. D. This is a recognition because going above and beyond is always recognized by stakeholders.

C. This is known as a recognition since the gift was unexpected. A recognition is more personalized and usually unexpected. In the scenario it states that she was surprised which implies the gift was unexpected, and so this would be a recognition. A reward is usually something that is expected for achieving an agreed result. Unfortunately going above and beyond is not always recognized by stakeholders! PMI Authorized PMP Exam Prep Student Guide / Page 203

An externally imposed project completion time sets the project duration at 75 days. The critical path of the project is established as 75 days, with a standard deviation of 3 days. What could be the maximum project float available? A. Six days B. Zero days C. Three days D. Cannot be established

C. Three days Project float is the difference between an externally-imposed completion period and estimated project duration, which is equal to the length of the critical path. The difference is zero. Add to this the standard deviation of 3 days (implying that the critical path could be +/- 3 days from the estimated one). The maximum float could be 0+3 = 3 days.

You are in a supportive PMO and giving a class on Earned Value Management. The concept is difficult for some of your junior project managers to grasp. You have explained EV, PV and AC and are currently discussing schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance index. A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means which of the following, and what can you expect of your schedule variance? A. You are over budget and SV > 0 B. You are ahead of schedule and SV > 0 C. You are behind schedule and SV < 0 D. You are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned and SV < 0

C. You are behind schedule and SV < 0 An SPI greater than 1 means that you are ahead of schedule, but an SPI less than 1 means that you are behind schedule.

Which of the following would be of the greatest concern in the Control Resources process? A. Details on the deliverable B. Technical Risk C. Available funding D. Facilities

D. Facilities Availability of required facilities fall under the purview of this process. Details on the deliverable will influence which resources are necessary and help determine levels of technical risk. Funding is not the primary concern of this process.

The scope baseline consists of: A. The Scope Management Plan, Project Scope Statement, and WBS B. The Scope Management Plan, Stakeholder register, and WBS C. The Scope Management Plan, WBS, and WBS Dictionary D. The Project Scope Statement, WBS, and WBS Dictionary

D. The Project Scope Statement, WBS, and WBS Dictionary

Who has the responsibility of educating stakeholders on why and how to be agile? A. Each team member because agile is a frame of mind B. Scrum Master C. An Agile Coach D. A Servant Leader

D. A Servant Leader Servant leadership is not a specific role so you won't find the job title on an organizational chart. Servant leadership, much like agile overall, is a mindset. Many people can fulfill the aspiration of serving as a servant leader. PMI Agile Practice Guide pg. 36-37.

According to the PMBOK Guide which of the following is not a part of the Executing process group? A. Coordinating people and resources B. Developing and managing the project team C. Managing stakeholder expectations D. Integrating and performing the activities of the project as defined and outlined in the project charter

D. Integrating and performing the activities of the project as defined and outlined in the project charter. Choice D is the correct answer. As per the PMBOK Guide, the processes in the Executing Process Group are direct and manage project work, manage project knowledge, manage quality, acquire resources, develop team, manage team, manage communications, implement risk responses, manage stakeholder engagement, and conduct procurements. Choice D, is not a part of the Executing process group.

As an experienced project manager, the department heads in your company have asked for your input on how to make effective project selections for the coming year. You personally have used several cash flow methods to determine alternative ways of performing your current project and want to impart your lessons learned to the directors. You know which of the following is true regarding the results of your cash flow analysis? A. Payback period and IRR will generally give you the same accept/reject decision. B. NPV and discounted cash flows will generally give you the same accept/reject decision. C. Payback period and discounted cash flows will generally give you the same accept/reject decision. D. NPV and IRR will generally give you the same accept/reject decision.

D. NPV and IRR will generally give you the same accept/reject decision. NPV and IRR will generally bring you to the same accept/reject decision. If either of them are positive it means the project will make enough money to out-pace the cost of capital.

You are managing a project to purchase state-of-the-art technology. You have just completed your market research and solicited proposals from prospective sellers. All of the following are outputs of Plan Procurement Management except which? A. Bid Documents B. Procurement statement of work C. Procurement Strategy D. Negotiation points

D. Negotiation points Negotiation points, a made-up term, are not an output of this process.

You are leading a large infrastructure project for the IT department at your organization. You have completed all your planning and are beginning to start your build phase. You have multiple stakeholders who have a lot of influence in your organization and on this project - as this is a high visibility, highly political project involving millions of dollars. There was a similar project several years ago, but not the same scale as this one. Which statement best represents your next steps? A. Look to lessons learned from the previous project B. Perform a Stakeholder Analysis C. Outsource the project D. Perform a Stakeholder Engagement Assessment

D. Perform a Stakeholder Engagement Assessment This question appears to have large stakeholder involvement. Since you already know you have multiple highly-influential stakeholders, you will already have completed the Stakeholder Analysis (either via the grid, cube or Salience model). So, B is not the correct answer. However, since stakeholder engagement can increase or decrease the support for this project, a Stakeholder Engagement Assessment would be the best tool to use as your next step. This will determine the engagement level of the key stakeholders, and develop strategies on how to get the correct level of engagement to support the project. While lessons learned is important and can help with managing the stakeholders for this project, the engagement is the best thing to do next.

You are the project manager for a midsize IT services company. You are currently managing a project to provide IT services, including digital forensics, investigation and electronic data discovery. Cost and schedule containment are very important on your project. You have decided to utilize Earned Value Management. EVM does not significantly assist a Project Manager with which of the following? A. Project Cost Management B. Project Schedule Management C. Project Communication Management D. Project Quality Management

D. Project Quality Management Earned Value Management (EVM) does not have a significant role in Project Quality Management; however, Earned Value is only earned for work meeting the quality requirements. EVM is used for both Cost and Schedule management. EVM is also important when communicating project performance.

You are successfully managing a software project to automate the business processes for one of your clients. A key stakeholder voices a concern to you about the lack of relevant information on the team deliverables in the project status reports, which you have been sending to her. She is worried her team has no visibility in this project and has requested you look into the matter immediately. What should you do first in this situation? A. Revisit the information distribution process in your project. B. Have an urgent meeting with the stakeholders to understand what her team is working on. C. Ask the stakeholder to send the status of her team so you can incorporate them into your report. D. Review the communications management plan.

D. Review the communications management plan. Since the stakeholder is receiving the status reports, there is no issue with the information distribution process (choice A). You should review the communications management plan first to understand the information need, communications requirements, format, method, time frame, and frequency of distribution for the required information for the stakeholder in question. You may want to have a meeting with the stakeholder once you have the facts and details (choice B). Choice C would be incorrect since there is nothing in the question which states the stakeholder is not sending this.

A colleague has approached you for some expert advice. Her division is implementing Agile methods to their projects and wants to know if you will be able to offer her guidance and coaching during her first project. Which of the following are not examples of mentoring and coaching in this situation? A. Offer to be an Agile Coach to lead her through the various Agile ceremonies. B. Be present at the daily standups and offer guidance when needed. C. Advise her on things that have gone well and not so well on prior projects. D. Tell her which tasks to perform next throughout the project.

D. Tell her which tasks to perform next throughout the project. Mentoring and coaching is advising and encouraging stakeholders to take the initiative and ask questions when needed. Simply telling someone what to do is delegating, not coaching. PMI Authorized PMP Exam Prep Student Guide/ Page 237

For agile projects, the product owner defines the initial functionality or capabilities that make up a minimum busines increment. Release planning determines how many sprints will be included in a release, and how many releases will be done for the project. Which of the following typically has the least impact on release planning? A. Availability of a set of features or capabilities. B. Organizational tolerance for changes. C. A time cadence for subsequent releases. D. The velocity of the agile team(s).

D. The velocity of the agile team(s). Agile team velocity determines how many user stories or story points the team can deliver within a time boxed sprint/iteration

Heather is the project manager for a new internal-only system for reporting interdepartmental budgets and software adoption. During a weekly status call on the progress of development and testing, the project sponsor discusses the approved changes in the priorities of the release, switching Phase 1 deliverables for Phase 2 deliverables. Heather objects on the call, proposing to take this change in priorities to the change control board, but the project sponsor overrides the request and demands adoption of the new priorities on the call. What is the next step for Heather? A. Demand this change go through change control B. Escalate to senior management after the status meeting C. Request a change to the project charter D. Write up the new priorities for the stakeholders

D. Write up the new priorities for the stakeholders This is a situation where the sponsor has obviously had a change request approved without the project manager knowing about it. The best answer is D, write up the new priorities for the stakeholders. Since the change has been through change control and been approved, the next step then is to update all documentation. A is incorrect because the project sponsor has received approval. B is incorrect because your path to senior management should be through your sponsor. C is incorrect because the change is not to the project charter, but to the order the deliverables will be produced.

Your project has recently been plagued by unforeseen events detrimental to the scope and quality of your project. During a project update meeting with the Sponsor, you have been asked to get the project back on schedule. After speaking with your Project Management Team, you decided to hire additional laborers and approve overtime for employees. What type of approach is this? A. By approving over time, you are now able to speed up successor activities to bring the schedule back into compliance B. You are utilizing the law of diminishing returns, whereby adding additional resources will align project work with the schedule baseline C. You are utilizing excess funding to pay for more services, bringing the project schedule back in line D. You are using reserves to authorize additional spending on resources in order to meet the scheduled deadline

D. You are using reserves to authorize additional spending on resources in order to meet the scheduled deadline In this scenario you are crashing the project by paying for additional services or resources to bring the project back into alignment with the Project Charter. Option A: at best is a mediocre example of leads; Option B: The law of diminishing returns simply states adding more resources does not necessarily improve capability or output. In fact, a point arises where the additional resource is a detriment to the project. Option C: Excess funding would not apply in this situation and typically this is an unrealistic expectation.