Practice 3
Which of the following types of laptop displays would utilize a fluorescent backlight to illuminate the image? Plasma LCD OLED LED
A LCD (TFT) with fluorescent backlight has been the standard display technology for the last few years. The backlight is a fluorescent bulb that illuminates the image, making it bright and clear. An inverter supplies the correct AC voltage to the backlight from the laptop's DC power circuits. More modern laptops use LED displays that replace the fluorescent backlight with an LED backlight. OLED and plasma displays do not use a backlight.
Which of the following tools is used to identify why an 802.11g network is intermittently dropping network traffic? Cable tester Tone generator and probe WiFi analyzer Multimeter
A WiFi analyzer can determine the wireless network's signal strength, the frequencies in use, and any possible radio frequency interference. Based on the issue described in the question, the network may have dead zones that could be fixed by adding additional access points to increase the network's wireless coverage.
Which of the following devices should be installed as an intermediary between your clients and the web servers they want to connect to make an HTTP request from the client, check it, and then forward it to its destination? DNS server File server DHCP server Proxy server
A proxy server takes a whole HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination computer on the Internet. When the reply comes back, it checks it and then shuttles it back to the LAN computer. A proxy can be used for other types of traffic too. A proxy server can usually operate either as a transparent service, in which case the client requires no special configuration or as a non-transparent service that requires configuration. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching a user. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization. A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host's MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns.
You are working as a network technician and need to create several Cat 5e network cables to run between different computers and the network jacks on the wall. The connections between the switch, the patch panel, and the wall jacks have already been installed and tested. Which of the following tools would NOT be necessary to complete this task? Punchdown tool Cable crimper Wire stripper Cable tester
A punchdown tool is used to connect a network cable (such as Cat 5e) to a patch panel, 110-block, or the inside portion of a wall jack, therefore it is not needed for this task. A wire stripper is used to remove the outer plastic shielding from the Cat 5e cable so that you can reach the inner wiring pairs. The cable tester is used to verify the electrical connections in a twisted pair or coaxial cable. A cable crimper is used to join the internal wires of a twisted pair cable with metallic pins houses inside a plastic connector, such as an RJ-45 connector.
Whenever you reboot your domain controller, you notice it takes a very long time to boot up. As the server is booting, you hear noises that sound like a steady series of clicks coming from the hard drive. Which of the following is the BEST action to help speed up the boot time of the server? Defragment the hard drive Remove unnecessary applications from startup Perform a Disk Cleanup Terminate processes in the Task Manager
Defragging is a simple process when file fragments are put together to speed up file access. File fragments are put together, and quality defragmentation utilities also assemble the free space into a single block to prevent future fragmentation. By defragmenting the hard drive, the server doesn't have to spend as much time accessing the information, and it can boot up faster. Based on the clicking noises, it sounds like the system has to access many parts of the drive to load the files.
Which of the following types of servers should you configure to accept requests through HTTP or HTTPS and provide resources back to the requester? DHCP server Web server File server Print server
A web server is a server that accepts requests through HTTP or HTTPS for a webpage and delivers the webpage and other requested resources to the user. A print server is a type of server that connects printers to client computers over a computer network. Print servers act as an intermediary between the computers and printers by accepting print jobs and then sending them to the correct printer when it is ready to accept new jobs. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization. A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host's MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers.
Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center and requires a different media type between the switching center and the end customer? Fiber Cable DSL Satellite
DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). "Fiber to the X" (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user's network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user's home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH. FTTN (fiber to the node) or FTTC (fiber to the curb/cabinet) provides fiber only to the local area or neighborhood but then uses copper cabling from the node/cabinet/curb to the home network, which slows down the network (generally, 100-200 Mbps). HFC (Hybrid Fiber Coax) is similar to FTTN/FTTC, except that coaxial cable is used from the cabinet to the home to increase the speed (generally 300-500 Mbps). A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. Satellite systems provide far bigger areas of coverage than can be achieved using other technologies. A Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) microwave antenna is aligned to an orbital satellite that can either relay signals between sites directly or via another satellite.
Which of the following provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism to positively identify an organization as the authorized sender of email for a particular domain name? SMTP DMARC SPF DKIM
DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism. This can replace or supplement SPF. To configure DKIM, the organization uploads a public key as a TXT record in the DNS server. Sender Policy Framework (SPF) uses a DNS record published by an organization hosting an email service. The SPF record identifies the hosts authorized to send emails from that domain, and there must be only one per domain. SPF does not provide a cryptographic authentication mechanism like DKIM does, though. The Domain-Based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework can ensure that SPF and DKIM are being utilized effectively. DMARC relies on DKMI for the cryptographic authentication mechanism, making it the incorrect option for this question. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is a communication protocol for electronic mail transmission, which does not utilize cryptographic authentication mechanisms by default.
You are troubleshooting a customer's PC. You realize there is a problem with the RAM and decided to replace the faulty module. You turn on the PC, and after a few seconds, you hear a single beep. What does hearing a single beep indicate? BIOS detected an error BIOS completed POST CMOS battery needs to be replaced Possible faulty RAM module
During the bootup process, a power-on self-test (POST) is performed. A single beep is commonly used to indicate the successful completion of the POST. Based on the POST results, different series of beeps may be played to indicate the status of the system. For example, if a single beep was heard, this could indicate a successful POST after a new hardware installation has been completed. Each manufacturer uses different POST codes, so it is important to consult the manual for the motherboard or BIOS in use by the system.
Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP? SSH SNMP TFTP DHCP
Explanation OBJ-2.1: The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper). The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68.
Which of the following BEST describes how a DHCP reservation works? By leasing a set of reserved IP addresses according to their category By assigning options to the computers on the network by priority By matching a MAC address to an IP address within the DHCP scope By letting the network switches assign IP addresses from a reserved pool
Explanation OBJ-2.6: When the client requests an IP address by sending a message on the network to the DHCP server, the DHCP server will assign an IP from its DHCP scope to the client and reserve it based on its MAC address. DHCP reservations allow the DHCP server to pre-set an IP address to a specific client based on its MAC address. This ensures that the client will always get the same IP address from the DHCP server when it connects to the network. DHCP reservations are usually used with servers or printers on your internal network and are rarely used with end-user or client devices.
William would like to use full-disk encryption on his laptop. He is worried about slow performance, though, so he has requested that the laptop have an onboard hardware-based cryptographic processor. Based on this requirement, what should William ensure the laptop contains? FDE PAM TPM AES
Explanation OBJ-3.4: This question is asking if you know what each acronym means. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based cryptographic processing component that is a part of the motherboard. A Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) is a device that looks like a USB thumb drive and is used as a software key in cryptography. Full Disk Encryption (FDE) can be hardware or software-based. Therefore, it isn't the right answer. The Advanced Encryption System (AES) is a cryptographic algorithm. Therefore, it isn't a hardware solution.
Your Windows 10 machine has just crashed. Where should you look to identify the cause of the system crash and how to fix it? MAC POST BSOD DDOS
Explanation OBJ-5.2: A stop error, commonly called the blue screen of death, blue screen, or BSoD, is an error screen displayed on a Windows computer system following a fatal system error. It indicates a system crash, in which the operating system has reached a condition where it can no longer operate safely. Each BSOD displays a "stop code" that can research the cause of the error and how to solve it. A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique physical hardware address for each Ethernet network adapter that is composed of 12 hexadecimal digits. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make an online service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from multiple sources. The Power On Self Test (POST) is a built-in diagnostic program that checks the hardware to ensure the components required to boot the PC are present and functioning correctly.
Dion Training's file server uses a RAID 5 for its main data store. Recently, the RAID began flashing from green to yellow. Additionally, an alert was received that stated, "RAID ARRAY DISK1 FAILURE". Unfortunately, the company no longer has any spare 1 TB, 5400 RPM Seagate drives, so a technician replaces DISK1 with a 1 TB, 7200 RPM Western Digital drive. When the technician attempts to rebuild the array, the drive stays in degraded operation and continues to alert that "RAID ARRAY DISK1 FAILURE" is occurring. What is the most likely cause of this issue? Bad SATA cable The HDD is incompatible The new drive is not formatted as FAT32 Incorrect SCSI ID set
In this scenario, likely, the replacement HDD may not be compatible with the RAID. This will cause the RAID to stay degraded and the alert to continue to display. Whenever you need to replace a disk in a RAID, it is considered a best practice to replace it with the same brand and model of the hard drive. For this reason, most professionals purchase spare hard drives when initially building out their RAID array.
You have just set up a Minecraft server on a spare computer within your network and want your friends to connect to it over the internet. What do you need to configure in your SOHO router to allow your friends to connect to the new Minecraft server you created? Configure your Wi-Fi to use Channel 11 Enable DHCP Update the firmware Configure port forwarding
OBJ-2.5: Port forwarding occurs when a router takes requests from the Internet for a particular application, such as HTTP/port 80), and sends them to a designated host on the local area network. This question did not mention that Wi-Fi was being used in the 2.4 GHz frequency range, therefore using channels 1, 6, and 11 is not required to minimize interference. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP does not need to be configured to use a server and most servers use static IP addresses instead of dynamic ones. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types.
Dion Training has just installed a new web server and created an A record for DionTraining.com. When users try entering www.DionTraining.com, though, they get an error. You tell their network administrator that the problem is because he forgot to add the appropriate DNS record to create an alias for www to the domain's root. Which type of DNS record should be added to fix this issue? AAAA CNAME PTR NS
OBJ-2.6: A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME). An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address.
You have been asked to install a network cable inside a conduit placed underground and connected to two buildings located about 1 KM apart. Which of the following cable types should you choose? Shielded Fiber Coaxial Plenum
OBJ-3.1: A fiber optic cable is a network cable that contains strands of glass fibers inside an insulated casing. They're designed for long-distance, high-performance data networking, and telecommunications. If you are dealing with connecting two networks over a long distance (over a few hundred meters), you should use a fiber optic cable. Shielded and plenum copper cables can only cover a distance of approximately 100 meters in length. Coaxial cables can cover a maximum distance of 200 to 500 meters in length.
You just installed an SSD into a laptop to increase the storage speed of the device. Which of the following should you configure to increase the lifespan of the newly installed SSD? Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of the SSD Enable the power-saving mode of the SSD Enable the paging file within the operating system Disable memory caching on the SSD
OBJ-3.3: An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is limited in the total number of write functions that can occur over its lifespan. Due to the immediate ability of an SSD to locate data on the drive (since there is no spinning platter that must be moved to reach the right area to retrieve the data like a regular magnetic hard drive), there is no need to defragment an SSD. When you defrag a hard drive, especially an SSD, it will cause tons of small write accesses, reducing the hard drive's lifespan. And since data is not being read sequentially, it doesn't matter if the file is stored in a hundred different places; the performance will remain the same. Therefore, you should disable any regularly scheduled defragmentation tasks when using an SSD to extend its lifespan.
What is the name of the printer concept that is used a page description language that produces higher quality outputs at the expense of speed? PostScript Internet Printing Protocol Line Printer Daemon Printer control language
OBJ-3.6: Both the printer control language (PCL) and PostScript (PS) are page description languages, but PS produces higher quality outputs. The printer control language (PCL) is a page description language used to tell printers how to properly layout and print the contents of a document on a page. PCL is a common printing language that is supported by many different printer manufacturers. PostScript (PS) is the page description language used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. PCL is faster to print than PS. PS is slower but produces higher quality outputs. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop the steps into their sequential order.) Which of the following sequence of events properly identifies the steps of a laser printer's imaging process? Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning Cleaning, charging, developing, exposing, transferring, fusing, and processing Developing, processing, charging, exposing, cleaning, transferring, and fusing Charging, processing, exposing, transferring, developing, fusing, and cleaning
OBJ-3.7: The proper sequence of events when printing a document using a laser printer is processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning. This is referred to as the imaging process.
Which cloud computing concept allows users to store files on a cloud-based server when necessary and copy that data from the cloud, and put it back on the device when space once again becomes available on the device? Synchronization application On-demand Resource pooling Shared resources
OBJ-4.1: On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. In this question, the cloud storage is provisioned and deprovisioned automatically for the user, and thereby it would be categorized as on-demand. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user's changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Shared resources are any resources shared by multiple users or systems within an internal or cloud-based network.
You are working as part of the server team for an online retail store. Due to the upcoming holidays, your boss is worried that the current servers may not be able to handle the increased demand during a big sale. Which of the following cloud computing concepts can quickly allow services to scale upward during busy periods and scale down during slower periods based on the changing user demand? Resource pooling On-demand Rapid elasticity Metered services
OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed.
Which of the following metrics should you consider to compare the performance of an SSD or HDD? Bandwidth Latency Seek time IOPS
The input/output operations per second (IOPS) is a measurement of performance used to compare a hard disk drive (HDD) and solid-state device (SSD). The IOPS is calculated based on the physical constraints of the media being used. For a hard disk drive, the IOPS is calculated by dividing 1000 milliseconds by the combined average seek time and average latency. The seek time only applies to a traditional hard drive since it calculates the time it takes to move the head to the proper storage location on the platter. For an SSD, there is no seek time used since it can instantly access any portion of the memory without physically moving a read head.
John is setting up 100 Windows 10 computers for a new corporate office. He wants to ensure that unauthorized applications are prevented from being installed during the bootup process. What feature should he ensure is enabled? BIOS password required RAM integrity checking Full disk encryption Secure Boot
The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system (OS) during the startup process. Secure Boot is enabled by default in Windows 10. When the PC starts, the firmware checks the signature of each piece of boot software, including UEFI firmware drivers (also known as Option ROMs), EFI applications, and the operating system. If the signatures are valid, the PC boots and the firmware gives control to the operating system. The OEM can use instructions from the firmware manufacturer to create Secure boot keys and to store them in the PC firmware. When you add UEFI drivers, you'll also need to make sure these are signed and included in the Secure Boot database. Full disk encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device's internal storage. RAM integrity checking is conducted by default on most systems during the initial boot process but it doesn't check the contents of the memory for malware. The BIOS password would prevent the system from booting up without the correct password being entered, but this would not prevent unauthorized applications from being installed during the bootup process.
An employee at Dion Consulting is configuring their Android smartphone to synchronize their email with their corporate Office 365 account. What type of credentials will the employee need? Mail Protocols Domain Name Email and Password Authentication code
To configure the email client on an Android device with an Office 365 account, the employee will need their email and password. Since Office 365 is a mainstream service, it is well supported on both Android and iPhone smartphones. If your company is running its own email servers, though, then you would be required to enter the domain name, appropriate mail protocols, and authentication codes.
Which of the following technologies combines the functionality of a firewall, malware scanner, and other security appliances into one device? IPS IDS UTM Syslog
Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance enforces a variety of security-related measures, combining the work of a firewall, malware scanner, and intrusion detection/prevention. A UTM centralizes the threat management service, providing simpler configuration and reporting than isolated applications spread across several servers or devices. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or system for malicious activity or policy violations. Any malicious activity or violation is typically reported to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system. Unlike an IPS, which can stop malicious activity or policy violations, an IDS can only log these issues and not stop them. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) conducts the same functions as an IDS but can also block or take actions against malicious events. A Syslog server is a server that collects diagnostic and monitoring data from the hosts and network devices across a given network.
A network engineer is designing an 802.11g wireless network that uses three wireless access points for complete coverage. Which of the following channel selections would result in the LEAST amount of interference between each access point? Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 2, 6, and 10 with a 20MHz channel width Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 7, 9, and 11 with a 40MHz channel width Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 1, 6, and 11 with a 20MHz channel width Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 4, 8, and 12 with a 40MHz channel width
ecause the overlapping signals are from access points from unrelated non-overlapping channels, the access points are least likely to interfere with each other. For Wireless B and G networks, you should always use channels 1, 6, and 11 to ensure you are using non-overlapping frequencies.
A user wants to print 2 copies of a 3-page report at once. The user would like the pages to come out of the printer in the order of pages 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3 instead of pages 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3. What printer setting should the user enable for this print job to achieve this result? Transparency Orientation Duplex Collate
he collate setting allows the gathering and arranging of individual sheets or other printed components into a pre-determined sequence. Collating creates consistent, logical sets from multiple parts, such as printing a series of pages in a report like pages 1, 2, 3 before printing the second copy. This makes it easier to staple and distribute to people after coming out of the printer.
Dion Training has asked you to verify that a server rack has been properly installed and grounded. Which tool should you utilize to verify that the server rack is properly grounded? Voltmeter Toner probe Multimeter Loopback plug
multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. If you use the lowest ohms (resistance) setting, you can touch the multimeter's black lead to a grounded metal surface and touch the red lead to each circuit wire. If you get a meter reading of zero ohms (low resistance), this indicates that the circuit is properly grounded. If you get a meter reading of infinity, O.L., Open Loop, or a needle that pegs high on the meter, this indicates an open circuit with no path to ground. A voltmeter can only measure the voltage, not the amperage or resistance of the circuit.
