Praxis HELP

Acoustic immittance is measured with A. typanometry B. immittanceometry C. impedanometry D. acoustic reflex

A

What determines the intensity at each harmonic in vowel production? A. Nothing B. Respiration C. Vocal folds D. Vocal tract

D

What five components should a clinician assess for a client with cerebral palsy? A. Respiration B. Phonation C. Rhythm D. Audiological examination E. Oculomotor examination F. Speech effectiveness G. Abnormal reflexes H. Oral-motor examination

A, B, C, F, H

A speech-language pathologist in a school is working with a child in therapy. The clinician's goal is to have the child use a communication device to express their wants and needs by pointing to the picture of the object during school. What type of goal is this an example of? A. Integrated goal B. Isolated goal C. Individual goal D. Long-term goal

A

A patient underwent a partial laryngectomy as a form of management for laryngeal cancer. You are explaining to a graduate student clinician that the area surrounding the larynx, including the pharyngoesophageal junction, right and left pyriform sinuses, lateral and posterior hypopharyngeal walls, and the post-cricoid region, is known as the: A. Hypopharynx B. Supraglottis C. Subglottis D. Pharynx

A

A 74-year-old patient was seen for a swallowing treatment. The radiological report indicates that the patient has decreased laryngeal closure but retains a strong cough. The clinician would most likely recommend the following A. Thicker foods B. Liquids C. NPO D. PEG tube

A

You are evaluating Tatyana, a Russian-speaking child with a suspected language impairment. To accurately estimate her language skills, you engage a Russian-speaking interpreter and count Tatyana's responses to test questions in both Russian and English. You are employing: A. conceptual scoring B. dynamic assessment C. criterion-referenced testing D. assessment of working memory

A

You are evaluating a 13-year-old girl whose voice is characterized by moderate to severe harshness and breathiness secondary to left vocal fold paresis. She stated that her voice does not bother her; however, her mother mentioned that she is bullied in school because of her current vocal quality. You decide to give the girl and her mother the following evaluation measure to gather a full understanding on how the girl's life is affected by her voice: A. Voice Handicap Index B. Consensus Auditory-Perceptual Evaluation of Voice C. Modified Erikson Scale of Communicative Attitudes D. Locus Control of Behavior

A

You have a client who is 5 years old and has a recently repaired submucous cleft. Prior to the surgery, you had noticed that all alveolar sounds and velar sounds were not made in the correct placement. What strategies did this client learn before his surgery that need to be addressed after surgery? A. Learned compensatory strategies B. Insufficiency C. Normal strategies D. Obligatory speech deviations

A

A screening test for dementia is: A. Arizona Battery for Communication Disorders of Dementia (ABCD) B. Short Portable Mental Status Questionnaire (SPMQ) C. Funcitonal Linguistic Communication Inventory (FLCI) D. Dementia Mood Assessment Scale

B

What would be the sound pressure level if the level from each source is 20 dB IL and the two sources are acting together? A. 20 dB SPL B. 23 dB SPL C. 26 dB SPL D. 40 dB SPL

B

What are two forces needed for vibration? A. mass and elasticity B. mass and interia C. intertia and elasticity D. weight and inertia

C

To assess a 4 year old with CP's speech. One can use the...?

viking speech scale

A teacher directs a child to describe the actions of a story that is presented on their communication device via a picture sequence. What is this type of teaching called? A. Structured teaching B. Situational teaching C. Generalization teaching D. Integrated teaching

A

The physical characteristics of Moebius syndrome may include involvement of any of the following cranial nerves, except the: A. Facial nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Vagus nerve

D

An infant girl is restricted to certain reflexive responses. The nurse mentions to the parents that the reflex through which the infant gains nutrition and involves the infant orienting herself toward the direction of contact with the mouth region is called the: A. Rooting reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Suckling response D. Startle response

A

A friend asks you about her baby Sasha, who is being exposed to Croatian and English in the home. Your friend explains that Sasha has heard both Croatian and English from early infancy. Sasha is experiencing the phenomenon of: A. Sequential bilingual acquisition B. Simultaneous bilingual acquisition C. Limited bilingualism D. Dual language immersion

B

A null hypothesis A. says that there is no relationship between two variables being studied. B. implies that events happen randomly. C. suggests that between two events, one is the cause and the other is the effect. D. is supposed to be accepted by the researcher.

A

Billy is a 16-year-old who recently suffered a traumatic brain injury as a result of a car accident. Billy remained in a coma for several days, and recently became minimally alert. During the early stages of treatment, the speech-language pathologist should focus on: A. Getting Billy to respond to sound, touch, or smell B. Helping Billy understand what day it is C. Finding ways to improve Billy's memory D. Working on Billy's social skills

A

During vocal fold vibration, what are the two forces needed for vibration? A. elasticity and inertia B. elasticity and energy C. inertia and power D. power and energy

A

Johnny, a 23-year-old male, was riding his motorcycle at 60 mph on a highway. A truck pulled into his lane, and to avoid hitting the truck, he had to brake and swerve. Johnny lost control and was thrown from the motorcycle. He flipped upside down and struck the railing alongside the road. Johnny was wearing a helmet; however, he hit his upper back and the back of his head when he hit the guardrail. What would be the nature of his head injury be? A. Translational trauma (linear acceleration) B. Angular acceleration injury C. Traumatic hemorrhage D. Impression trauma (nonacceleration)

A

Many augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) professionals may be confronted with situations where there are no previously defined rules or laws for action; therefore, common sense combined with which of the following as applied to AAC is essential? A. Knowledge of both laws and ethics B. Nothing; common sense is sufficient C. Chronology of laws affecting AAC D. Memorization of the Code of Ethics

A

One month after a 75-year-old client suffered from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), his primary difficulties are word retrieval. Which subtype of aphasia does he most likely present with? A. Anomic aphasia B. Global aphasia C. Wenicke's aphasia D. Broca's aphasia

A

Patients who have undergone total laryngectomy are not in danger of: A. Aspiration of food or liquid during swallow B. Pseudoepiglottis C. Lesions in pyriform sinus D. Swallowing difficulties

A

Procedures in which stuttering is directly reduced without teaching fluency skills (e.g., slow speech) are known as A. direct stuttering reduction methods. B. fluent stuttering. C. fluency shaping. D. desensitization to stuttering.

A

Select the statement that best characterizes the discrete trial procedure. A. It is the most researched procedure, and it is useful in establishing the skills, but it may not promote generalization to natural settings. B. It is not useful in any stage of treatment or for any client because it is too structured. C. It is useful in all stages of treatment, including the final stages in which discourse is taught. D. It is one of the least researched methods of treatment.

A

Spectrums include frequencies that need to be attenuated as well as frequencies that are allowed to pass through a filter without being dampened. Which of these is not a type of filter used for spectrums? A. Mid-pass filter B. Low-pass filter C. High-pass filter D. Band-rejection filter

A

The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations (JCAHO) uses tracer methodology as a primary way to evaluate if organizations are complying with standards. What are the two types of tracers? A. Patient care tracers and patient system tracers B. Primary care tracers and patient system tracers C. Patient safety tracers and patient system tracers D. Patient care tracers and management system tracers

A

Tumors in the larynx may be managed primarily by surgery or: A. Radiotherapy B. Chemotherapy C. Layngectomy D. Partial laryngectomy

A

What is the final stage of rehabilitation for many patients with traumatic brain injury? A. community integration B. orientation training C. cognitive-communicative interventions D. memory improvement programs

A

What is the muscle that exerts the pull that allows the eustachian tube to open during yawning and swallowing? A. tensory palatini B. levator palatini C. tensor tympani D. levator veli palatini

A

What is the sound pressure that generates 70 dB SPL? A. 63245 uPa B. 120873 uPa C. 36974 uPa D. 29231 uPa

A

Which of the following could be a technique used in therapy when treating a pediatric case of tongue protrusion/thrusting? A. change feeing positions; try head slightly reclined B. Encourage lip closure around the spoon. C. Firmly hold the jaw in place. D. Apply tapping of the lips and nose.

A

Which of the following is an emergent literacy skill, important for preschool children? A. print awareness B. letter identification C. sound-letter association D. reading fluency

A

While conducting rounds at a local pediatric hospital, a physician sees several children with brain damage sustained before, during, or shortly after birth. She mentions to the speech-language pathology students who are shadowing her that this type of brain damage usually produces movement disorders known as: A. Cerebral palsies B. Apraxia C. Diadochokinesis D. Aphasia

A

Within Huntington's disease, there are two neurotransmitters responsible for controlling choreiform movements. Choreiform movements mimic dance. What are the two neurotransmitters lacking in a person with Huntington's disease? A. Acetylcholine and gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) B. Acetylcholine and dopamine C. Dopamine and gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) D. Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) and serotonin

A

You are a clinician in a school district where increasing numbers of children are being diagnosed with childhood apraxia of speech (CAS). As you plan intervention for these children, what can you anticipate they will display? A. Slow, effortful speech, inconsistent and multiple articulation errors, and more difficulty with consonant clusters than fricatives B. Consistent sound errors accompanied by prolongation of speech sounds, voicing and devoicing errors, and deviations in prosody C. Deficits in phonological representation, problems with hyponasality, and rapid speech D. A limited sound inventory, unusual errors of articulation (e.g., metathesis), and rapid speech

A

What are the two most prominent air-filled cavities that compose the outer ear and have a resonant frequency to which they respond best? A. Concha B. Tympanic Cavity C. Ear Canal D. Ossicles E. Helix F. Anti-helix

A, C

What are the two subdivisions of traumatic brain injury? A. Penetrating B. Subdural hematoma C. Closed head injury D. Open head injury

A, C

A treatment procedure is selected or rejected based on the level of evidence of the particular technique. What level of evidence is described if a technique has been experimentally evaluated with a control group or single-subject design with control conditions? A. unreplicated B. replicated C. uncontrolled case studies D. controlled experimental studies

A, D

When treating a client, it is important to establish baselines for target behaviors. Which two of the following choices describes a specific procedure that establishes baselines of target behaviors in which multiple attempts to produce a target response are counted separately and trials are separated in time? A. Baselines B. Evoked trials C. Discrete trials D. Modeled trials E. Conversational speech

A, E

The speech-language pathologist's main role within the school community is: A. Supervising state-mandated testing B. To fully understand the enforced curriculum C. Advocating with administration D. To provide teachers with suggestions to create a positive communication environment in the classroom

D

A child with CP has an awkward gaint and uncoordinated movements as well as dysarthria. What kind of CP does this individual have? A. spastic dysarthria B. ataxic dysharthria C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Mixed dysarthria

B

A father comes to you regarding his daughter, who is 8 months old. The daughter's hearing loss is bilateral, and she is profoundly deaf. The father states that he wishes for his daughter, as she grows older, to "fit in with children with normal hearing." He is interested in any possible amplification and says that he wants his daughter to lead a life that is "as normal as possible." Which training approach would best fit this father's wishes? A. total communication B. aural/oral method C. manual approach D. rochester method

B

A speech-language pathology graduate student received her first adult patient diagnosed with apraxia of speech. The student consulted with the supervisor, who recommended that they try to maintain the natural prosody of the patient's utterances. She suggested using computer-generated pacing tones each time the patient produced an utterance, so that the patient could keep the natural rhythm of the utterance without regard to the rate of speech. The student clinician conducted further research and during therapy coupled hand-tapping and choral reading along with the suggestions made by the supervisor. This type of therapy is called A. metronomic pacing. B. metrical pacing. C. cued speech. D. integral practice.

B

A'dab, a 4-year-old, was referred to you by her teacher, Mrs. Kocher. The teacher comments that A'dab has limited vocabulary, has difficulty during transition of activities, and struggles to interact with her peers. Mrs. Kocher also notes that A'dab's art skills surpass all students in the class. She mentions that A'dab displays certain abilities that exceed the average, especially her ability to memorize. You performed a preliminary screening and noticed several communication deficits; however, you noticed that A'dab could calculate very fast, had good musical ability, and was very adept at map making. During the parent interview, A'dab's mother, Aabidah, mentions that she is worried about A'dab's ability to make friends because at home, "she does not ever talk about other kids in her class, and she tends to isolate herself with her toys during play dates." Aabidah indicated that A'dab is like a human calendar. The neurodevelopmental specialist diagnoses A'dab with? A. Down syndrome B. Savant syndrome C. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder D. Obsessive compulsive disorder

B

All of the following could be techniques used in therapy when treating a pediatric case of tongue retracting except? A. Alter feeding position, try head slightly flexed with close chin-down position. B. Begin at the middle of the upper lip and tap to the corner of the mouth; repeat on the other side. C. Alter feeding utensil; try a longer nipple. D. Apply rhythmic tapping under base of chin.

B

Ana is a 4-year-old preschooler who displays rapid and irregular repetitions when communicating with her peers and teachers. She appears to be aware of her disfluencies and expresses frustration when her friends do not understand her; however, she does not appear to fear her disfluencies. She occasionally blinks during a moment of disfluency, which seems to help her escape disfluent speech. What developmental level of stuttering is Ana exhibiting? A. Borderline stuttering B. Beginning stuttering C. Intermediate stuttering D. Normal disfluency

B

Annette, a 56-year-old woman, suffers from a lesion covering a large portion of her Perisylvian area, caused by total occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery. She displays deficits in all aspects of language. Her speech is nonfluent and she experiences severe sensory and motor deficits on the complete right side of her body. She has limited use of her automatic language. She most likely presents with: A. Anomic aphasia B. Global aphasia C. Mixed transcortical aphasia D. Broca's aphasia

B

Augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) has been shown to facilitate speech in all of the following except: A. Aphasia B. Receptive language delay C. Apraxia D. Dysarthria

B

Debbie, an 80-year-old female who recently underwent brain surgery, is presenting with imprecise and weak pressure consonants, diminished reflexes, and hypotonia. Based on these symptoms, your patient is most likely presenting with which of the following types of dysarthria? A. Ataxic dysarthria B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Hyperkinetic dysarthria D. Hypokinetic dysarthria

B

Ellen, an 80-year-old patient, was being seen for swallowing problems. She presents with minimal arousal and is unable to follow simple one-step commands to complete an oral mechanism examination. The clinician initiates ice chip trials as a part of the evaluation and notes oral acceptance and manipulation that is within normal limits; however, no pharyngeal swallow is noted as per palpation. The clinician, therefore, decides to trial exercises that stimulate the swallow reflex and determine Ellen's stimulability for trials. The following exercises are designed to stimulate the swallow reflex, except: A. Thermal stimulation B. Mendelsohn maneuver C. practicing liquid swallow after stimulation D. Asking the patient to swallow after stimulation without food

B

Impaired facial recognition is more common in patients A. anterior right hemisphere damage. B. posterior right hemisphere damage. C. left temporal lobe damage. D. damage to the perisylvian region.

B

Individuals who use augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) need to be able to select icons on a device. What type of selection technique involves activating a switch to make a selection while the device sequentially presents each option? A. Direct Selection B. Scanning C. Encoding D. Fingerspelling

B

Janine, an 83-year-old patient, is attending therapy for memory deficits caused by Alzheimer's disease. Janine's current goal is to use her techniques to recall a three-point plot in a short video. Throughout the video clips, she talks about the plot. What direct intervention is Janine utilizing? A. Multimodal approach B. Self-generated cues C. Spaced retrieval training D. Direct priming

B

Kinetic energy is energy that is being used. Over time, kinetic energy is transformed to thermal energy and the result of this is damping or damped vibration. What is damping? A. periodically allowing motion to pass B. Oppoisition to motion C. Opposition to frequency D. Periodically controlling energy

B

Various arteries help supply blood to the face and the brain. Neurogenic communication disorders are associated with interrupted blood supply to the brain. Of the following statements about the arteries that supply blood to the brain, which one is correct A. The internal carotid artery supplies the muscles of the face. B. Damage to the external carotid artery causes aphasia. C. Broca's area and Wernicke's area are supplied by the middle cerebral artery. D. If an artery below the circle of Willis is blocked, brain damage is maximal.

C

Lee, a 42-year-old male, has come to an outpatient center to be evaluated by a speech-language pathologist due to concerns expressed by his wife and children regarding his speech. Upon arriving at the clinic, the clinician notices that Lee's oral and facial structures appear normal at rest. During the evaluation, Lee admits that for the past 5 years, he has noticed moments of random slurred speech during conversation; however, he never wanted to bring up the issue with his family because he was too embarrassed of the occasional drunken sounding speech. He told the clinician, "I just hoped that no one would ever notice." His wife reported that within the past year his conversational speech has been characterized by irregular articulatory breakdowns, reduced rate of speech, and unsteady vowel prolongations. She expressed concerns for her husband's ability to communicate with others who are unaware of his deficits. Lee complained that he is unable to coordinate his breathing with speaking, and often bites his cheek or tongue when speaking. This creates discomfort and frustration for him, but his wife reported that when Lee slows down his speech, he usually improves his intelligibility. According to his family, Lee often seems discouraged that his speech will never improve and he will suffer from the deficits for the rest of his life. During the evaluation, the clinician notices that his wife and three children provide a strong support system for Lee. Based on Lee's reported deficits, he most likely presents with what motor speech disorder? A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Ataxic dysarthria C. Spastic dysarthria D. Apraxia of speech

B

Select the correct statement. A. It is not possible to have Broca's aphasia without a specific injury to Broca's area. B. Injury to Broca's area is not essential to have Broca's aphasia C.Auditory comprehension is typically worse than speech production in Broca's aphasia. D. Syntactic skills are severely impaired in anomic aphasia

B

Select the correct statement. A. It is not possible to have Broca's aphasia without a specific injury to Broca's area. B. Injury to Broca's area is not essential to have Broca's aphasia. C. Auditory comprehension is typically worse than speech production in Broca's aphasia. D. Syntactic skills are severely impaired in anomic aphasia.

B

Select the statement that is incorrect about group designs. A. They are effective in establishing internal validity. B. They usually have results similar to those of single-subject experiments. C. They can help establish cause-effect relationships. D. Their requirement of randomization may be difficult to meet.

B

Select the statement that is true of conduction aphasia. A. It is caused by widespread lesions in the entire perisylvian region. B. It is characterized by good syntax, prosody, and articulation. C. Its lesion sites are more definitive than for other types of aphasia. D. Speech associated with it is as fluent as it is in Wernicke's aphasia.

B

The most severe form of pinna deformity is microtia, where the pinna is small and underdeveloped. This is typically associated with what hearing condition? A. Stenosis B. Atresia C. External otitis D. Otosclerosis

B

The radiographic imaging procedure that allows X-ray beams to circle through segments of the brain and pass through tissue while a camera takes pictures of sections of the structures being scanned is known as A. electroencephalography (EEG). B. computerized axial tomography (CAT) scan. C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). D. positron emission tomography (PET) scan.

B

What can develop on the acoustic nerve and ultimately result in a sensorineural hearing loss due to decrease in nerve conduction of sound impulses to the brain? A. Brainstem lesions B. Acoustic neuroma C. Bony growths D. Bacteria

B

Which of the following could be a technique used in therapy when treating a pediatric case of tongue retracting? A. Jaw tapping B. Firm stroking of the tongue starting at the center and moving laterally in quick rhythmic strokes C. Applying firm pressure to the nose and cheeks D. Alternating food consistencies

B

Which of the following is not a clinical role of a speech-language pathology in health-care settings? A. counsel patients about communication and swallowing assessment, treatment, and prognosis B. assess and monitor vetibular systems C. particiapte and conduct health-care seminars, such as disease prevention and management D. use high-tech methods to serve clients, such as by using computer-based treatment and assessment approaches

B

Which statement is true about ASHA's special interest groups (SIGS)? A. membership in SIGS is free to all ASHA members. B. clinical specialty recognition is available in only a few specialty areas C. a clinical specialty recognition is essential to assess and treat clients with a specified disorder D. each SIG is concerned with a specific disorder of communication

B

While conducting an evaluation of an infant in a neonatal ICU, a student intern informed her supervisor that she noticed that while stimulating the gums of the infant, it elicited a rhythmical opening and closing of the jaw. She also noticed that the infant gently nibbled on her finger. The supervisor informed the student that normally developing infants go through this stage, called A. tonic bite reflex. B. phasic bite reflex. C. jaw retraction. D. jaw clenching.

B

What is the primary clinical task for a speech-language pathologist when assessing a client with cleft palate? A. Infer the effects of structural deviations on the speech behavior observed B. Compare data to developmental norms C. Assess the child's speech sound system D. Confirm a diagnosis

C

You are working with Cornelius, a 7-year-old client who has autism spectrum disorder. The target behavior for the session is taking turns with little to no frustrations. Cornelius responds well to most types of motivators. During your session, he shows no signs of frustration and takes turns cooperatively. What is the most effective way to ensure increased frequency of the target behaviors? A. Verbal praise after each turn and an additional reward at the end of the session B. Verbal praise after each turn, short breaks as a reward, and an additional motivator at the end of the session C. Verbal praise after each turn and short breaks as a reward D. Short breaks as a reward and an additional motivator at the end of the session

B

When analyzing spectrograms on a spectrograph, there are different types of spectrograms that allow you to analyze your sample to the best of its ability. These different types of spectrograms are called wideband spectrograms and narrowband spectrograms. Which of the following characteristics is expressed better in a narrowband spectrogram? A. short time window B. good for measuring formant frequencies C. good for showing and measuring harmonics D. good for showing changes in articualtory movements

C

When you evaluated Victoria, a 6-year-old client, you had difficulties distinguishing the contribution of different articulators as she spoke. You decide that during treatment, you should utilize a bite block. This device would stabilize which articulator(s) so that all others can be further evaluated and exercised? A. Tongue B. Maxilla C. Mandible D. Teeth

C

Which of the following components of communication is usually targeted when using augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) intervention in individuals with spinal cord injuries? A. Verbal communication B. Visual impairment C. Written communication D. Hearing deficits

C

Which of the following factors is most important when designing an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) system for individuals with progressive supranuclear palsy? A. Rigidity involving upper limbs B. Rigidity involving lower limbs C. Visual impairment D. Hearing deficits

C

Which of the following neurotransmitters may be prescribed as part of a treatment regimen for clients with movement disorders such as Parkinson's disease A. Gaba B. Glutamate C. Levadopa D. Seratonin

C

A child is brought to you with the following symptoms: disturbed balance, awkward gait, and uncoordinated movements, as well as some dysarthria. You suspect A. spastic cerebral palsy. B. traumatic brain injury due to a gunshot wound. C. ataxic cerebral palsy. D. athetoid cerebral palsy.

C

A complex, periodic signal has a period of 1 ms. What is the frequency of the 8th harmonic? A. 28000 Hz B. 230000 Hz C. 128000 Hz D. 98000 Hz

C

An individualized education program (IEP) must contain certain components that aid in the implementation of the IEP. What should be covered in the evaluation processes with regard to the method-of-the-processes section that is a required component of an IEP? A. The anticipated beginning date, occurrence, and length of service B. The goals and objectives correlated with meeting the general education curriculum C. A measurement of the student's progress and how often the progress will be measured D. A list of the modifications and support services necessary for a student to attain goals

C

Which statement is not true. A. Dysarthria and Broca's aphasia may coexist B. Excessive or even stress on syllables is a part of ataxic dysarthria C. Roughly 94% of parkinson's patients have hypokinetic dysarthria D. Spastic-Ataxic and flaccid-spastic are frequently mixed in the mixed variety of dysarthria

C

Certified speech-language pathologists are involved in hiring speech-language pathology assistants. What are the minimum proper training requirements for speech-language pathology support personnel as recommended by ASHA? A. Completion of a speech-language pathology training program with integrated fieldwork and on-the-job training B. A bachelor's degree from a 4-year institution with the course of study directed in speech-language pathology along with fieldwork and on-the-job training C. An associate's degree from a technical training program with course of study directed in speech-language pathology along with fieldwork and on-the-job training D. A bachelor's degree from a 4-year institution with at least 20 semester credit hours at the graduate level along with fieldwork and on-the-job training

C

Closed head injuries are commonly caused by what? A. strokes B. missile wounds C. motor vehicle accidents D. blows to the head by sharp objects

C

Debbie, a 42-year-old, was diagnosed with laryngeal cancer and has been noticing changes in her voice. Which of the following is the primary voice symptom of laryngeal cancer? A. Diplophonic B. Breathiness C. Hoarseness D. Strained

C

Evaluation refers to the process of arriving at a diagnosis. Clinicians perform evaluation tasks with two major goals in mind. All of the following statements are true regarding evaluation except: A. Informal probes, trial therapy tasks, and generalization data are part of an evaluation. B. We evaluate to arrive at a good understanding or diagnosis of a client's problem. C. Therapy with a client typically begins after arriving at a firm diagnosis. D. A major reason to perform evaluation activities is to monitor the client's progress in treatment.

C

In the case of vocal fold paralysis, the following treatment techniques can be trialed in voice therapy to achieve firmer vocal fold closure: A. hard glottal attacks B. elevation in pitch C. decreased loudness D. head turning or positioning

C

In the past 20 years, there have been changes to the Medicare statute that affect speech-language pathologists. Under which change was there a 1.5% increase in the Medicare payment schedule for services paid? A. The Medicare, Medicaid, and SCHIP Balanced Budget Refinement Act of 1999 (BBRA) B. The Medicare, Medicaid, and SCHIP Benefits Improvement and Protection Act of 2000 (BIPA) C. The Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 (MMA) D. The Medicare Percentage Based Payment Act of 1998

C

In the scientific method, what is the experiment-first-and-explain-later approach? A. Deductive method B. Null hypothesis method C. Inductive method D. Alternative hypothesis method

C

Many specialists believe that the comprehensiveness of the subcortical structures result in the best recovery for: A. Anomic aphasia B. Wernicke's aphasia C. Broca's aphasia D. Global aphasia

C

People with which of the following genetic disorders are at the highest risk for developing Alzheimer's disease? A. Turner Syndrome B. Sickle-cell disease C. Down syndrome D. Williams syndrome

C

Shirley, a 60-year-old patient, was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe oropharyngeal dysphagia. There were no overt signs or symptoms of aspiration at bedside; however, Shirley had weak and decreased laryngeal elevation and excursion during her swallow as per palpation. The clinician noticed a change in Shirley's respiratory status and after consulting with her respiratory therapist, decided to request a videofluoroscopic swallow study. Results indicated residue throughout the oral cavity as well as in the valleculae and pyriform sinuses that was partially cleared using compensatory strategies. The report also indicated inconsistent silent aspiration, a delayed swallow, and severely decreased laryngeal elevation and excursion. The clinician decided to make the patient NPO without PO trials to prevent aspiration until swallow strength and function increased. Which of the following would not be an appropriate treatment for Shirley: A. thermal stimulation B. effortful swallow C. practicing liquid swallow after stimulation D. mendelsohn maneuver

C

Speech-language pathologists in educational settings need to ask themselves questions that will guide curriculum-based language communication assessments. One question is "What communication abilities and tactics might the child obtain to become successful?" What can the clinician to do answer this question? A. Investigate how the student contributes to conversations. B. Observe the student in the classroom. C. Investigate what kinds of scaffolding might help the student. D. Collaborate with other educators to problem solve.

C

The Frenchay Dysarthria Assessment (FDA) is a quick standardized battery that assesses dysarthria. The task-oriented portion focuses on reflexes, speech and nonspeech activities, and intelligibility. What is not a characteristic of the FDA? A. Relies heavily on patient report B. Does not require training to administer C. Provides a description of deviant speech characteristics associated with each dysarthria type D. Distinguishes patients based on oral findings

C

The Frenchay Dysarthria Assessment (FDA) is a quick standardized battery that assesses dysarthria. The task-oriented portion focuses on reflexes, speech and nonspeech activities, and intelligibility. What is not a characteristic of the FDA? A. relies heavily on patient report B. does not require training to administer C. provides a description of deviant speech characteristics associated with each dysarthria type D. distinguishes patients based on oral findings

C

The most basic requirement for the caregiver-infant attachment is ___________________ between caregiver and infant. A. smiles B. touch C. recognition D. shelter

C

There are several aspects involved in studying language. These include using language as a social tool, a learned behavior, and/or a linguistic means of communication. Which of the following defines language as a learned behavior? A. Verbal langauge is learned through trial and error B. Verbal language that is learned through imitation C. Verbal language that is learned through social consequence D. Verbal language that is learned through intention

C

You are conducting an evaluation on a 7-year-old child. Your supervisor asks you to choose a reliable and valid norm-referenced assessment tool that measures frequency, duration, physical concomitants, and speech naturalness. You should choose: A. Speech Locus of Control Scale B. Overall Assessment of the Speaker's Experience of Stuttering (OASES) C. Stuttering Severity Instrument 4 (SSI-4) D. Erickson S-Scale

C

You are treating a 4-year-old boy with specific language impairment (SLI) for intervention. You notice that he omits all grammatical morphemes in his speech. Which one of the following morphemes would you target first in therapy with him? A. Articles a, an, the B. Regular plural -s C. Present progressive -ing D. Regular past tense -ed

C

You just completed an assessment of an 8-year-old boy who stutters. When you are offering post-assessment counseling to the boy's parents, they ask you, "What do you think caused stuttering in our son?" How would you answer their question? Select the best among the alternatives given. A. "Although we have many theories, we don't know the cause of stuttering, because no theory has been substantiated." B. "Stuttering is a genetically inherited disorder in almost all cases because more males than females stutter; there is a certain concordance rate for identical twins." C. "We can't say for sure in individual cases, but both complex genetic susceptibility and environmental factors may be involved in its causation." D. "Research suggests that stuttering is caused by parental pressure on the child to be more fluent; it is usually associated with high demands for fluency."

C

After an articulation disorder has been diagnosed, the most appropriate sequence of therapy should be: (put in the right order) A. Correct Production of the Sound in Specific Contexts B. Earlier Developmental Sounds C. Stimulability D. Sounds that Affect Intelligibility

C, A, B, D

A patient complains of muscle fatigue in her larynx. She visits her local hospital, and the specialist decides to insert needle electrodes into the peripheral laryngeal muscles to directly measure laryngeal function. The specialist informs the patient that this procedure is used to study the pattern of electrical activity of the vocal folds and view muscle activity patterns. This procedure is called A. indirect laryngoscopy. B. direct laryngoscopy. C. electroglottography. D. electromyography.

D

A 9-year-old child was seen for an evaluation because of a major dysfunction in his gastrointestinal tract. The child had short bowel syndrome, resulting in the removal of a major part of the intestines. The gastroenterologist most likely would recommend A. a jujunostomay tube (J-Tube) B. duodenal tub (duo-tube) C. gastrojejunal tube (GJ-tube) D. total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

D

A group of clinicians working with voice disorders wish to conduct research in a hospital setting. Many of their clients are hoarse because they work in noisy factories where they shout a great deal during the work week. The clinicians devise a rating scale to evaluate the hoarseness of these clients. The scale looks like this: Almost no hoarseness Slight hoarseness Moderate hoarseness Great amount of hoarseness This type of scale is called A. a ratio scale. B. a nominal scale. C. an interval scale. D. an ordinal scale.

D

A new client is placed on your caseload who is transsexual and is currently transitioning from male to female. This client received a thyroplasty and longitudinal incision of the vocal folds to achieve a higher-pitched voice, as the typical characteristics of a "female voice" are important to her. Voice therapy, however, was still recommended following surgery. The following would be important to address in therapy, except: A. Build vocal stamina and endurance to decrease vocal fatigue B. Use a greater number of rising pitch inflections at the ends of utterances C. Speak with greater articulatory precision, a softer voice, and more models D. Position the tongue more posteriorly during speech to create a resonance that is considered to be more feminine

D

The concrete operations stage as delineated by Piaget states that the child A. displays the ability to think and speak in the abstract. B. underextends words. C. is able to make if/then statements. D. employs logical causality.

D

According to Halliday, what are four of the seven functions of communicative intent that develop between 9 and 18 months of age? A. Imaginative, interactional, attribution, overextension B. Interactional, conversational, collaborative, attribution C. Collaborative, imaginative, attribution, conversational D. Heuristic, imaginative, interactional, personal

D

All of the following can be used to screen for aphasia except: A. Mississippi Aphasia Screening Test-II B. Bedside Evaluation Screening Test-II C. Frequency Aphasia Screening Test-II D. Duration Aphasia Screening Test-II

D

All of the following may be expected when treating a patient with Prader-Willi syndrome, except: A. Pitch variations in voice B. Hypotonia C. Delayed receptive and expressive language skills D. Cleft lip or palate

D

All of the following may be expected when treating a patient with velocardiofacial syndrome, except: A. Intellectual disability B. Cleft palate and/or velopharyngeal insufficiency C. Language deficits D. Visual, spatial, and attentional deficits

D

An 82-year-old resident in a nursing home who suffers from Parkinson's disease is not receiving any treatment since she has been dismissed from speech-language therapy because she has met her goals. The licensed speech-language pathologist, however, plans for and provides additional therapy for the resident. This type of therapy is called: A. Speech-language therapy B. Rehabilitation therapy C. Restorative nursing D. Restorative therapy

D

Blake, a 65-year-old man, comes to an audiologist's office and complains that he has an intense burning pain close to his ear. He states that his symptoms include vertigo and facial paralysis. He said, "I have not slept well this past week. I have been constantly feeling that my balance is off and that everything is spinning. It takes a while for the feeling to eventually stop." After sitting in the office for 10 minutes, the audiologist suddenly notices that he has small sac-like bodies on his face and neck. After further examination, the audiologist finds these same sac-like vesicles in his ear canal. To understand what Blake is experiencing, the audiologist conducts a hearing exam. Results of the testing indicate that Blake has a severe bilateral high-frequency hearing loss. The audiologist's initial impression is that Blake may have had a postnatal infection that caused cochlear damage. Which of the following specific conditions does Blake most likely have? A. Meniere disease B. Measles C. Bacterial meningitis D. Herpes zoster oticus

D

Christa, a 27-year-old singer, presented with a hyperfunctional voice disorder. The clinician recommended a voice therapy technique in which words are spoken in a connected manner, with even stress, prolongation of sounds, and soft glottal attack. This therapy technique is recommended for clients with hyperfunctional voice: A. Open-mouth approach B. Masking C. Glottal attack changes D. Chant-talk method

D

Critical diagnostic features of the right hemisphere syndrome include which of the following? A. Acceptance of illness B. Intact discourse skills C. Ease of expressing experienced emotions D. Impaired narrative skills

D

Jack is an 8-year-old boy. He attends an evaluation with his mother, who mentions that he is a chronic mouth breather. You mention that it is possible that the root cause of chronic mouth breathing is swelling of the: A. Inferior constrictor of the pharynx B. Trachea C. Nasal conchae D. Tonsillar ring

D

Lip radiation has a net effect of -12dB/octave leaving the larynx and a +6dB/octave when leaving the lips. What is the net effect in the atmosphere? A. +6dB/octave B. -12dB/octave C. +18dB/octave D. -6dB/octave

D

P.L. 99-457 established mandated development of individualized family service plans (IFSPs). Which of the following is not required to be included in a child's IFSP? A. child's present level of development B. family's needs and strengths relating to the child's development C. major goals for the child and family, and services to be provided D. a review of the plan at 12-month intervals or more frequently if needed

D

People with flaccid dysarthria report complaints that differ from those with other types of dysarthria. These complaints can help a clinician determine a speech diagnosis when they are due to damage to a single cranial nerve. Which of the following is not a cranial nerve that may be involved in flaccid dysarthria? A. Trigeminal B. Glossopharyngeal C. Vagus D. Accessory

D

Research has generally shown that children who stutter have parents A. who hold extremely high standards of fluency B. who have high ambitions for their children C. who have unique and aberrant personalities D. who are similar to parents with children who do not stutter

D

Sara has arterial damage that causes her to have cognitive deficits such as impaired judgment, problems concentrating, and difficulties with reasoning. According to the surgeon, damage to the affected artery can also cause a person to have paralysis of the feet and legs. Damage to which artery produces these effects? A. Internal carotid B. External carotid C. Middle cerebral D. Anterior cerebral

D

Sara is reading a story aloud in her class. To make distinctions between similar-sounding words like "I scream" and "ice cream," she uses a combination of suprasegmentals such as intonation and pausing, which mark special distinctions or grammatical divisions in speech. This type of vocal punctuation is also called A. stress. B. prosody. C. pitch. D. juncture.

D

Speech generating devices can be set to use a voice reflective of a user's age and gender. Which type of speech output uses recorded speech that is stored on an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) device and allows individuals to produce messages using appropriate inflection and intonation? A. Dynamic speech B. Preference speech C. Synthesized speech D. Digitized speech

D

The back-and-forth movement of particles when that movement is symmetrical and periodic is called A. an aperiodic wave. B. a sinusoidal wave. C. rarefaction. D. simple harmonic motion

D

This theory identifies the process of therapy as an explanation of the process of language in order to achieve a desired function of language. Additionally, the theory defines aphasia as a series of processing deficits that can be specific to different modalities. Which theory is this? A. Schuell's (1964) stimulation approach B. Localization: Boston school C. Neurolinguistics D. Cognitive neuropsychological

D

Tumors located on the free margin of one vocal fold with only minimal extension are usually treated with a laryngectomy known as all of the following except: A. hemilaryngectomy B. vertical laryngectomy C. extended hemilaryngectomy D. horizontal supraglottic laryngectomy

D

What are cartilages that are cone shaped and are located at the posterior of the aryepiglottic folds and are occasionally fused with the arytenoid cartilages? A. Cricoids B. Laminas C. Cuneiforms D. Corniculates

D

What disability is not recognized under the Individuals with Disability Education Act? A. autism spectrum disorder B. Deafness C. emotional disturbance D. language learning disabilities

D

What is the dB SPL if the sound pressure ratio is 10:1? A. 100 dBSPL B. 1000 dB SPL C. 10000 dB SPL D. 20 dB SPL

D

What specifically prohibits practitioners from charging for future services or incomplete services? A. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations (JCAHO) B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) C. Local Coverages Determinations (LCD) D. The List of Excluded Individuals and Entities (LEIE)

D

What structure of the thorax provides the mechanism for air movement through muscular action? A. The mediastinum B. Bronchioles C. Alveoli D. Pleura

D

When evaluating a child with cerebral palsy, the following symptom is often noticed: A. Increased rate of speech B. Equal stress is produced on all syllables C. Fatigue is not an issue D. Resonance difficulties

D

Which is not a prognostic indicator in traumatic brain injury (TBI)? A. Severity of brain injury is the magnitude and duration of alternation in consciousness. B. Time after coma during which the patient is unable to store new information and experiences in memory. C. Patient-related variables (e.g., age, substance abuse, education) D. Time that the patient passes through each level of the Rancho Los Amigos Scale (RLAS)

D

You are evaluating a 4-year-old patient whose mother states that she is concerned about his mild hypernasality and frequent ear infections. During an oral mechanism examination, you observe a bifid uvula. The presence of a bifid uvula may indicate that the patient has: ?

a submucous cleft palate