Prep U Ch. 25 Assessment of Cardiovascular Function, Prep U Ch. 26 Management of Patients With Dysrhythmias and Conduction Problems, MS II Prep U Ch. 26: Management of Patients With Dysrhythmias and Conduction Problems, Prep U Ch. 27 Management of Pa...
Creatine kinase-MB isoenzyme (CK-MB) can increase as a result of:
myocardial necrosis. An increase in CK-MB is related to myocardial necrosis. An increase in total CK might occur for several reasons, including brain injury, such as cerebral bleeding; skeletal muscle damage, which can result from I.M. injections or falls; muscular or neuromuscular disease; vigorous exercise; trauma; or surgery.
Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia (VT) when they:
occur at a rate of more than six per minute When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute, they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of VT. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy
Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia (VT) when they: occur at a rate of more than six per minute occur during the QRS complex have the same shape are paired with a normal beat
occur at a rate of more than six per minute When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute, they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of VT. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.
When the nurse observes that the patient has increased difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating
orthopnea.
Decreased pulse pressure reflects
reduced stroke volume.
The ability of the cardiac muscle to shorten in response to an electrical impulse is termed
contractility.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with rheumatic endocarditis but no valvular dysfunction. On which nursing diagnosis should the nurse focus her teaching?
Risk for infection
A nurse is teaching a client who is having a valuloplasty tomorrow. The client asks what the advantage is for having a tissue valve replacement instead of a mechanical valve. The correct answer by the nurse is which of the following?
"A tissue valve is less likely to generate blood clots, and so long-term anticoagulation therapy is not required."
The nursing instructor is discussing pacemakers with her clinical group. One of the students is caring for a client with a transvenous pacemaker. One of the students asks why this client has a transvenous pacemaker. What would be the instructor's best response?
"A transvenous pacemaker is used to manage transient bradydysrhythmias like those that occur during acute MIs." A transvenous pacemaker is a temporary pulse-generating device that sometimes is necessary to manage transient bradydysrhythmias such as those that occur during acute MIs or after coronary artery bypass graft surgery, or to override tachydysrhythmias.
The nurse admits a 52-year-old woman with a medical diagnosis of "rule out MI." The client is very frightened and expresses surprise that a woman would have heart problems. Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most appropriate?
"A woman's heart is smaller and has smaller arteries that become occluded more easily."
The nurse is assessing heart sounds in a patient with heart failure. An abnormal heart sound is detected early in diastole. How would the nurse document this?
S3
A nurse and nursing student are caring for a client with coronary heart disease and providing information about the disease process to the client. When client care is completed, the student asks the nurse what things stimulate the heart to beat faster. The correct response would be which of the following?
"Anything that stimulates the sympathetic nervous systerm (positive chronotropy)" Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate. Parasympathetic stimulation reduces heart rate. Administration of beta-adrenergic blocking agents decreases stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and subsequently heart rate.
A nurse and nursing student are caring for a client with coronary heart disease and providing information about the disease process to the client. When client care is completed, the student asks the nurse what things stimulate the heart to beat faster. The correct response would be which of the following? "Anything that stimulates the sympathetic nervous systerm (positive chronotropy)" "Anything that stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system (negative chronotropy)" "Hypothyroidism" "Beta-adrenergic blocking agents"
"Anything that stimulates the sympathetic nervous systerm (positive chronotropy)" Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate. Parasympathetic stimulation reduces heart rate. Administration of beta-adrenergic blocking agents decreases stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and subsequently heart rate.
After taking an ECG on a 38-year-old woman, the nurse reports that the PR interval reflects normal sinus rhythm. The nurse has made this interpretation based on the PR interval of:
0.12 and 0.2 seconds. The PR interval is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. It measures the time needed for conduction through the AV node before ventricular depolarization. The normal range in adults is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds.
A client with angina pectoris must learn how to reduce risk factors that exacerbate this condition. When developing the client's care plan, which expected outcome should a nurse include?
"Client will verbalize the intention to stop smoking." A client with angina pectoris should stop smoking at once because smoking increases the blood carboxyhemoglobin level; this increase, in turn, reduces the heart's oxygen supply and may induce angina.
A 52-year-old female patient is going through menopause and asks the nurse about estrogen replacement for its cardioprotective benefits. What is the best response by the nurse?
"Current evidence indicates that estrogen is ineffective as a cardioprotectant; estrogen is actually potentially harmful and is no longer a recommended therapy."
The nurse is reviewing the results of a total cholesterol level for a patient who has been taking simvastatin (Zocor). What results display the effectiveness of the medication?
160-190 mg/dL Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin Frequently given as initial therapy for significantly elevated cholesterol and low-density lipoprotein levels. Normal total cholesterol is less than 200 mg/dL
The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a patient who underwent a left groin cardiac catheterization 8 hours ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
"Do not bend at the waist, strain, or lift heavy objects for the next 24 hours." The nurse should instruct the patient to complete the following: If the artery of the groin was used, for the next 24 hours, do not bend at the waist, strain, or lift heavy objects; the primary provider should be contacted if any of the following occur: swelling, new bruising or pain from your procedure puncture site, temperature of 101°F or more. If bleeding occurs, lie down (groin approach) and apply firm pressure to the puncture site for 10 minutes. Notify the primary provider as soon as possible and follow instructions. If there is a large amount of bleeding, call 911. The patient should not drive to the hospital.
The nurse is assessing a patient with a probable diagnosis of first-degree AV block. He is aware that this dysrhythmia is evident on an ECG strip by which of the following?
Delayed conduction, producing a prolonged PR interval
You are doing an admission assessment on a client who is having outpatient testing done for cardiac problems. What should you ask this client during your assessment?
"Have you had any episodes of dizziness or fainting? Ask if the client has episodes of dyspnea, dizziness, or fainting. Options B, C, and D are incorrect. Being nauseous, mottling of the hands, and pain radiating into the lower extremities are not indications of cardiac problems.
A client with a forceful, pounding heartbeat is diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse. Which client statement indicates to the nurse a need for additional teaching? "I should increase my fluid intake." "I'll enroll in an aerobic exercise program." "I can still drink coffee and tea." "I should eat foods rich in protein."
"I can still drink coffee and tea." The client requires more teaching if he states that he may drink coffee and tea. Caffeine is a stimulant, which can exacerbate palpitations, and should be avoided by a client with symptomatic mitral valve prolapse. High fluid intake helps maintain adequate preload and cardiac output. Aerobic exercise helps increase cardiac output and decrease heart rate. Protein-rich foods aren't restricted but high-calorie foods are
A client with a forceful, pounding heartbeat is diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse. Which client statement indicates to the nurse a need for additional teaching?
"I can still drink coffee and tea." The client requires more teaching if he states that he may drink coffee and tea. Caffeine is a stimulant, which can exacerbate palpitations, and should be avoided by a client with symptomatic mitral valve prolapse. High fluid intake helps maintain adequate preload and cardiac output. Aerobic exercise helps increase cardiac output and decrease heart rate. Protein-rich foods aren't restricted but high-calorie foods are.
When teaching a patient with rheumatic carditis and a history of recurrent rheumatic fever, which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that teaching has been successful?
"I may have to take prophylactic antibiotics for up to 10 years." Antibiotic prophylaxis for recurrent rheumatic fever with rheumatic carditis may require 10 or more years of antibiotic coverage (e.g., penicillin G intramuscularly (IM) every 4 weeks, penicillin V orally twice a day (BID), sulfadiazine orally daily, or erythromycin orally BID. Patients with a history of rheumatic fever are susceptible to infective endocarditis and should be asked to take prophylactic antibiotics before any invasive procedure, including dental work.
The nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged after insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which question by the client indicates a need for clarification?
"I should ask for a handheld device search when I go through airport security." At security gates at airports, government buildings, or other secured areas, the client with a permanent pacemaker should show a pacemaker ID card and request a hand (not handheld device) search. The client should obtain and carry a physician's letter about this requirement.
The nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged after insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which question by the client indicates a need for clarification? "I should ask for a handheld device search when I go through airport security." "I should avoid large magnetic fields, such as an MRI machine or large motors." "I should avoid contact sports." "I'll watch the incision for swelling or redness and will report if either occurs."
"I should ask for a handheld device search when I go through airport security." At security gates at airports, government buildings, or other secured areas, the client with a permanent pacemaker should show a pacemaker ID card and request a hand (not handheld device) search. The client should obtain and carry a physician's letter about this requirement.
A client, who has undergone a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), has received discharge instructions. Which statement by the client would indicate the need for further teaching by the nurse?
"I should expect a low-grade fever and swelling at the site for the next week." Fever and swelling at the site are signs of infection and should be reported to the physician. Showers should be taken until the insertion site is healed. Prolonged sitting can result in thrombosis formation. Bruising at the insertion site is common and may take from 1 to 3 weeks to resolve.
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. The nurse knows that the client has left-sided heart failure when he makes which statement?
"I sleep on three pillows each night." Orthopnea is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. The client commonly sleeps on several pillows at night to help facilitate breathing. Swollen feet, ascites, and anorexia are signs of right-sided heart failure.
The nurse is educating a patient about the care related to a new diagnosis of mitral valve prolapse. What statement made by the patient demonstrates understanding?
"I will avoid caffeine, alcohol, and smoking." In mitral valve prolapse, if dysrhythmias are documented and cause symptoms, the patient is advised to eliminate caffeine and alcohol from the diet and to stop the use of tobacco products.
A nurse is performing discharge teaching with a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placed. Which client statement indicates effective teaching?
"I'll keep a log of each time my ICD discharges."
A nurse is performing discharge teaching with a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placed. Which client statement indicates effective teaching? "I'll keep a log of each time my ICD discharges." "I can't wait to get back to my football league." "I have an appointment for magnetic resonance imaging of my knee scheduled for next week." "I need to stay at least 10? away from the microwave."
"I'll keep a log of each time my ICD discharges." The client stating that he should keep a log of all ICD discharges indicates effective teaching. This log helps the client and physician identify activities that may cause the arrhythmias that make the ICD discharge. He should also record the events right before the discharge. Clients with ICDs should avoid contact sports such as football. They must also avoid magnetic fields, which could permanently damage the ICD. Household appliances don't interfere with the ICD.
A nurse is performing discharge teaching with a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placed. Which client statement indicates effective teaching? "I'll keep a log of each time my ICD discharges." "I can't wait to get back to my football league." "I have an appointment for magnetic resonance imaging of my knee scheduled for next week." "I need to stay at least 10? away from the microwave."
"I'll keep a log of each time my ICD discharges." The client stating that he should keep a log of all ICD discharges indicates effective teaching. This log helps the client and physician identify activities that may cause the arrhythmias that make the ICD discharge. He should also record the events right before the discharge. Clients with ICDs should avoid contact sports such as football. They must also avoid magnetic fields, which could permanently damage the ICD. Household appliances don't interfere with the ICD.
A client recovering from a myocardial infarction asks why he needs to take a stool softener. He says, "I had a heart attack; I don't have a problem with constipation." Which explanation should the nurse use to answer the client's question?
"If you strain to have a bowel movement, you can cause a drop in your heart rate that can be dangerous." When straining during defication, the client bears down, which momentarily may cause the heart to slow and cause fainting or syncope in the client.
Two nursing students are reading EKG strips. One of the students asks the instructor what the P-R interval represents. The correct response should be which of the following? "It shows the time needed for the SA node impulse to depolarize the atria and travel through the AV node." "It shows the time it takes the AV node impulse to depolarize the atria and travel through the SA node." "It shows the time it takes the AV node impulse to depolarize the ventricles and travel through the SA node." "It shows the time it takes the AV node impulse to depolarize the septum and travel through the Purkinje fibers."
"It shows the time needed for the SA node impulse to depolarize the atria and travel through the AV node." The PR interval is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex and represents the time needed for sinus node stimulation, atrial depolarization, and conduction through the AV node before ventricular depolarization. In a normal heart the impulses do not travel backward. The PR interval does not include the time it take to travel through the Purkinje fibers.
When assessing a client who reports recent chest pain, the nurse obtains a thorough history. Which client statement most strongly suggests angina pectoris?
"The pain occurred while I was mowing the lawn." Decreased oxygen supply to the myocardium causes angina pectoris. Lawn mowing increases the cardiac workload, which increases the heart's need for oxygen and may precipitate this chest pain. Anginal pain typically is self-limiting, lasting 5 to 15 minutes. Food consumption doesn't reduce angina pain, although it may ease pain caused by a GI ulcer. Deep breathing has no effect on anginal pain.
The nurse is caring for a client anticipating further testing related to cardiac blood flow. Which statement, made by the client, would lead the nurse to provide additional teaching?
"My niece thought that I would be ordered a magnetic resonance imaging even though I have a pacemaker."
A nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled Adenocard (adenosine) stress test. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
"My wife is bringing me a cup of coffee to drink before the test."
The nurse receives a telephone call from a client with an implanted pacemaker who reports that his pulse is 68 beats per minute, but his pacemaker rate is set at 72 beats per minute. The best response by the nurse is which of the following?
"Please come to the clinic right away so that we may interrogate the pacemaker to see if it is malfunctioning." A client experiencing pacemaker malfunctioning may develop bradycardia as well as signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output. The client should check the pulse daily and report immediately any sudden slowing or increasing of the pulse rate. This may indicate pacemaker malfunction.
The nurse receives a telephone call from a client with an implanted pacemaker who reports that his pulse is 68 beats per minute, but his pacemaker rate is set at 72 beats per minute. The best response by the nurse is which of the following? "Please come to the clinic right away so that we may interrogate the pacemaker to see if it is malfunctioning." "Don't worry. The pacemaker's rate is often higher than the client's actual heart rate." "This is okay as long as you are not having any symptoms." "Try walking briskly for about 5 minutes to see if that gets your heart rate to increase."
"Please come to the clinic right away so that we may interrogate the pacemaker to see if it is malfunctioning." A client experiencing pacemaker malfunctioning may develop bradycardia as well as signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output. The client should check the pulse daily and report immediately any sudden slowing or increasing of the pulse rate. This may indicate pacemaker malfunction.
A client is ordered a nitroglycerine transdermal patch for treatment of CAD and asks the nurse why the patch is removed at bedtime. Which is the best response by the nurse?
"Removing the patch at night prevents drug tolerance while keeping the benefits." Tolerance to antiangina effects of nitrates can occur when taking these drugs for long periods of time. Therefore, to prevent tolerance and maintain benefits, it is a common regime to remove transdermal patches at night. Common adverse effects of nitroglycerine are headaches and contact dermatitis but not the reason for removing the patch at night. It is true that while you rest, there is less demand on the heart but not the primary reason for removing the patch.
A patient is being examined for medical management of atrial flutter. The nurse reviews the ECG strip. He expects to see which of the following?
"Sawtooth" pattern to the waveform The "sawtooth pattern" is the classic waveform appearance with atrial flutter. The atrial rate is faster than the AV node can conduct. Not all atrial impulses stimulate the ventricle.
A patient is being examined for medical management of atrial flutter. The nurse reviews the ECG strip. He expects to see which of the following? P-to-QRS duration of less than 0.1 seconds "Sawtooth" pattern to the waveform Ventricular rate below 70 bpm PR interval between 0.12 and 0.2 seconds.
"Sawtooth" pattern to the waveform The "sawtooth pattern" is the classic waveform appearance with atrial flutter. The atrial rate is faster than the AV node can conduct. Not all atrial impulses stimulate the ventricle.
A client is unconscious on arrival to the emergency department. The nurse in the emergency department identifies that the client has a permanent pacemaker due to which characteristic?
"Spike" on the rhythm strip Confirmation that the client has a permanent pacemaker is the characteristic "spike" identified by a thin, straight stroke on the rhythm strip. The scar on the chest is suggestive of pacer implantation but not definitive. There should be no change in pulse quality, and no vibration under the skin
A client is unconscious on arrival to the emergency department. The nurse in the emergency department identifies that the client has a permanent pacemaker due to which characteristic? Scar on the chest "Spike" on the rhythm strip Quality of the pulse Vibration under the skin
"Spike" on the rhythm strip Confirmation that the client has a permanent pacemaker is the characteristic "spike" identified by a thin, straight stroke on the rhythm strip. The scar on the chest is suggestive of pacer implantation but not definitive. There should be no change in pulse quality, and no vibration under the skin.
A nurse and a nursing student are performing a physical assessment of a client with pericarditis. The client has an audible pericardial friction rub on auscultation. When leaving the room, the student asks the nurse what causes the sound. The nurse's best response is which of the following?
"The pericardial surfaces lose their lubricating fluid because of inflammation and rub against each other. A pericardial friction rub occurs when the pericardial surfaces lose their lubricating fluid due to inflammation. The rub is audible on auscultation and is synchronous with the heartbeat. The layers of the heart never become loose from each other. The great vessels are not in contact with the inside of the pericardium, where the inflammation is located. The lungs have nothing to do with a pericardial friction rub.
The nurse in a cardiac clinic is taking vital signs of a 58-year-old man who is 3 months status post myocardial infarction (MI). While the physician is seeing the client, the client's spouse approaches the nurse and asks about sexual activity. "We are too afraid he will have another heart attack, so we just don't have sex anymore." The nurse's best response is which of the following?
"The physiologic demands are greatest during orgasm and are equivalent to walking 3 to 4 miles per hour on a treadmill." The physiologic demands are greatest during orgasm. The level of activity is equivalent to walking 3 to 4 miles per hour on a treadmill. Erectile dysfunction may be a side effect of beta-blockers, but other medications may be substituted.
A nurse is teaching a patient about valve replacement surgery. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the benefit of an autograft replacement valve?
"The valve is made from my own heart valve, and I will not need to take any blood thinning drugs when I am discharged."
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of atrial fibrillation. The onset was approximately 2 to 3 days ago. The client is scheduled for a transesophageal echocardiogram this morning. The client's spouse asks what this test is for. The best response by the nurse is which of the following?
"This test will show any blood clots in the heart and if it is safe to do a cardioversion." When contemplating cardioversion for the client with atrial fibrillation, the absence of a thrombus in the atria can be confirmed by transesophageal echocardiogram.
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of atrial fibrillation. The onset was approximately 2 to 3 days ago. The client is scheduled for a transesophageal echocardiogram this morning. The client's spouse asks what this test is for. The best response by the nurse is which of the following? "This test will show any blood clots in the heart and if it is safe to do a cardioversion." "This test will show the specific area causing the atrial fibrillation and what can be done to stop it." "This test will show if the client needs a cardiac catheterzation." "This test will let the doctor know if the client is at risk for hypotension."
"This test will show any blood clots in the heart and if it is safe to do a cardioversion." When contemplating cardioversion for the client with atrial fibrillation, the absence of a thrombus in the atria can be confirmed by transesophageal echocardiogram.
A home care nurse is visiting a left-handed client who has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implanted in his left chest. The client tells the nurse how excited he is because he's planning to go rifle hunting with his grandson. How should the nurse respond?
"You can't shoot a rifle left-handed because the rifle's recoil will traumatize the ICD site." The recoil from the rifle can damage the ICD, so the client should be warned against shooting a rifle with his left hand. Close proximity to a rifle won't cause the ICD to fire inadvertently. The client shouldn't take an extra dose of his antiarrhythmic.
A home care nurse is visiting a left-handed client who has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implanted in his left chest. The client tells the nurse how excited he is because he's planning to go rifle hunting with his grandson. How should the nurse respond? "Enjoy your time with your grandson." "You can't shoot a rifle left-handed because the rifle's recoil will traumatize the ICD site." "Being that close to a rifle might make your ICD fire." "You'll need to take an extra dose of your antiarrhythmic before you shoot."
"You can't shoot a rifle left-handed because the rifle's recoil will traumatize the ICD site." The recoil from the rifle can damage the ICD, so the client should be warned against shooting a rifle with his left hand. Close proximity to a rifle won't cause the ICD to fire inadvertently. The client shouldn't take an extra dose of his antiarrhythmic.
The nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged after insertion of a permanent pacemaker. The client, an avid tennis player, is scheduled to play in a tournament in 1 week. What is the best advice the nurse can give related to this activity?
"You will need to cancel this activity; you must restrict arm movement above your head for 2 weeks." It is important to restrict movement of the arm until the incision heals. The client should not raise the arm above the head for 2 weeks afterward to avoid dislodging the leads. The client must avoid contact sports (eg, basketball, football, hockey).
The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation. The client's symptoms started about 1 week ago, but he is just now seeking medical attention. The client asks the nurse why he has to wait several weeks before the cardioversion takes place. The best answer by the nurse is which of the following?
"Your atrial chambers may contain blood clots now, so you must take an anticoagulant for a few weeks before the cardioversion." Because of the high risk of embolization of atrial thrombi, cardioversion of atrial fibrillation that has lasted longer than 48 hours should be avoided unless the client has received warfarin for at least 3 to 4 weeks prior to cardioversion
The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation. The client's symptoms started about 1 week ago, but he is just now seeking medical attention. The client asks the nurse why he has to wait several weeks before the cardioversion takes place. The best answer by the nurse is which of the following? "The doctor wants to see if your heart will switch back to its normal rhythm by itself." "Your atrial chambers may contain blood clots now, so you must take an anticoagulant for a few weeks before the cardioversion." "We have to allow your heart to rest for a few weeks before it is stressed by the cardioversion." "There is a long list of clients in line to be cardioverted."
"Your atrial chambers may contain blood clots now, so you must take an anticoagulant for a few weeks before the cardioversion." Because of the high risk of embolization of atrial thrombi, cardioversion of atrial fibrillation that has lasted longer than 48 hours should be avoided unless the client has received warfarin for at least 3 to 4 weeks prior to cardioversion.
The nurse is observing the monitor of a patient with a first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. What is the nurse aware characterizes this block?
Delayed conduction, producing a prolonged PR interval
After taking an ECG on a 38-year-old woman, the nurse reports that the PR interval reflects normal sinus rhythm. The nurse has made this interpretation based on the PR interval of: 0.05 and 0.1 seconds. 0.12 and 0.2 seconds. 0.15 and 0.3 seconds. 0.25 and 0.4 seconds.
0.12 and 0.2 seconds. The PR interval is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. It measures the time needed for conduction through the AV node before ventricular depolarization. The normal range in adults is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds.
After taking an ECG on a 38-year-old woman, the nurse reports that the PR interval reflects normal sinus rhythm. The nurse has made this interpretation based on the PR interval of: 0.05 and 0.1 seconds. 0.12 and 0.2 seconds. 0.15 and 0.3 seconds. 0.25 and 0.4 seconds.
0.12 and 0.2 seconds. The PR interval is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. It measures the time needed for conduction through the AV node before ventricular depolarization. The normal range in adults is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds.
After taking an ECG on a 38-year-old woman, the nurse reports that the PR interval reflects normal sinus rhythm. The nurse has made this interpretation based on the PR interval of: 0.05 and 0.1 seconds. 0.12 and 0.2 seconds. 0.15 and 0.3 seconds. 0.25 and 0.4 seconds.
0.12 and 0.2 seconds. The PR interval is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. It measures the time needed for conduction through the AV node before ventricular depolarization. The normal range in adults is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds.
Electrocardiogram (ECG) waveforms are printed on graph paper that is divided by light and dark vertical and horizontal lines at standard intervals. When the nurse is interpreting the heart rhythm, he or she understands that each large block equals how many seconds?
0.2 Each small block on the graph paper equals 0.04 second, and five small blocks form a large block, which equals 0.2 second.
Electrocardiogram (ECG) waveforms are printed on graph paper that is divided by light and dark vertical and horizontal lines at standard intervals. When the nurse is interpreting the heart rhythm, he or she understands that each large block equals how many seconds? 0.2 0.1 0.3 0.4
0.2 Each small block on the graph paper equals 0.04 second, and five small blocks form a large block, which equals 0.2 second.
Which PR interval presents a first-degree heart block?
0.24 seconds In adults, the normal range for the PR is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. A PR internal of 0.24 seconds would indicate a first-degree heart block.
Which PR interval presents a first-degree heart block? 0.24 seconds 0.14 seconds 0.16 seconds 0.18 seconds
0.24 seconds In adults, the normal range for the PR is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. A PR internal of 0.24 seconds would indicate a first-degree heart block.
A client is receiving furosemide (Lasix), a loop diuretic, to prevent fluid overload. The order is for 50 mg intraveneous now. The pharmacy supplies Lasix 80 mg per 2 mL. How many mL will the nurse give the client? Enter the correct number ONLY.
1.25
A nurse has come upon an unresponsive, pulseless victim. She has placed a 911 call and begins CPR. The nurse understands that if the patient has not been defibrillated within which time frame, the chance of survival is close to zero?
10 minutes
Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is how many times normal?
2 to 2.5 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage. The patient's aPTT value would have to be greater than .5 to 1 times normal to be considered therapeutic. An aPTT value that is 2.5 to 3 times normal would be too high to be considered therapeutic. The patient's aPTT value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.
A client is receiving intravenous heparin to prevent blood clots. The order is for heparin 1,200 units per hour. The pharmacy sends 25,000 units of heparin in 500 mL of D5W. At how many mL per hour will the nurse infuse this solution? Enter the correct number ONLY.
24 ml
A patient asks the nurse how long he will have to wait after taking nitroglycerin before experiencing pain relief. What is the best answer by the nurse?
3 minutes Nitroglycerin may be given by several routes: sublingual tablet or spray, oral capsule, topical agent, and intravenous (IV) administration. Sublingual nitroglycerin is generally placed under the tongue or in the cheek (buccal pouch) and ideally alleviates the pain of ischemia within 3 minutes.
A patient who had a prosthetic valve replacement was taking Coumadin to reduce the risk of postoperative thrombosis. He visited the nurse practitioner at the Coumadin clinic once a week. Select the INR level that would alert the nurse to notify the health care provider.
3.8 Coumadin patients usually have individualized target international normalized ratios (INRs) between 2 to 3.5 to maintain adequate anticoagulation. Levels below 2 to 2.5 can result in insufficient anticoagulation and levels greater than 3.5 can result in dangerous and prolonged anticoagulatio
A client with suspected acute myocardial infarction is admitted to the coronary care unit. To help confirm the diagnosis, the physician orders serial enzyme tests. Increased serum levels of the isoenzyme creatinine kinase of myocardial muscle (CK-MB), found only in cardiac muscle, can be detected how soon after the onset of chest pain?
4 to 6 hours Serum CK-MB levels can be detected 4 to 6 hours after the onset of chest pain. These levels peak within 12 to 18 hours and return to normal within 3 to 4 days.
The nurse is caring for a five-client assignment on a cardiac unit. In caring for which client would the nurse be most correct to assess for an effusion?
A client with chest trauma An effusion, which is the accumulation of fluid between two layers of tissue, commonly occurs with pericarditis, which is the inflammation of the pericardium. Common causes of pericarditis include endocarditis, myocarditis, chest trauma, post heart surgery, or a myocardial infarction. Clients with chest pain, aortic stenosis, and mitral valve prolapse have conditions without current inflammation.
Following a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty, a client is monitored in the postprocedure unit. The client's heparin infusion was stopped 2 hours earlier. There is no evidence of bleeding or hematoma at the insertion site, and the pressure device is removed. The nurse should plan to remove the femoral sheath when the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is:
50 seconds or less. Heparin causes an elevation of the PTT and, thereby, increases the risk for bleeding. With a large cannulation such as a sheath used for angioplasty, the PTT should be 50 seconds or less before the sheath is removed. Removing the sheath before the PTT drops below 50 seconds can cause bleeding at the insertion site. The other PTT results are incorrect for determining when to remove the sheath.
On his return to the cardiac step-down unit after his diagnostic procedure, a client awaits the report from his cardiologist. As the client's nurse, you review the process of measuring ejection fraction and explain to the client that it measures the percentage of blood the left ventricle ejects upon contraction. What is the typical percentage of blood a healthy heart ejects?
55%
In order to be effective, percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) must be performed within what time frame, beginning with arrival at the emergency department after diagnosis of myocardial infarction?
60 minutes
A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath. The nurse notes an irregular rhythm on the bedside electrocardiograph (ECG) monitor. The nurse counts 9 RR intervals on the patient's 6-second rhythm tracing. The nurse correctly identifies the patient's heart rate as which of the following?
90 bpm An alternative but less accurate method for estimating heart rate, which is usually used when the rhythm is irregular, is to count the number of RR intervals in 6 seconds and multiply that number by 10. The RR intervals are counted, rather than QRS complexes, because a computed heart rate based on the latter might be inaccurately high. The same methods may be used for determining atrial rate, using the PP interval instead of the RR interval. In this instance, 9 × 10 = 90.
A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath. The nurse notes an irregular rhythm on the bedside electrocardiograph (ECG) monitor. The nurse counts 9 RR intervals on the patient's 6-second rhythm tracing. The nurse correctly identifies the patient's heart rate as which of the following? 90 bpm 80 bpm 70 bpm 100 bpm
90 bpm An alternative but less accurate method for estimating heart rate, which is usually used when the rhythm is irregular, is to count the number of RR intervals in 6 seconds and multiply that number by 10. The RR intervals are counted, rather than QRS complexes, because a computed heart rate based on the latter might be inaccurately high. The same methods may be used for determining atrial rate, using the PP interval instead of the RR interval. In this instance, 9 × 10 = 90.
The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with pericarditis. What serious complication should this patient be monitored for?
Cardiac tamponade The inflammatory process of pericarditis may lead to an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac (pericardial effusion) and increased pressure on the heart, leading to cardiac tamponade
The licensed practical nurse is setting up the room for a client arriving at the emergency department with ventricular arrhythmias. The nurse is most correct to place which of the following in the room for treatment?
A defibrillator
The nurse is assessing a patient who complains of feeling "light-headed." When obtaining orthostatic vital signs, what does the nurse determine is a significant finding?
A heart rate of more than 20 bpm above the resting rate Normal postural responses that occur when a person moves from a lying to a standing position include (1) a heart rate increase of 5 to 20 bpm above the resting rate; (2) an unchanged systolic pressure, or a slight decrease of up to 10 mm Hg; and (3) a slight increase of 5 mm Hg in diastolic pressure. Postural (orthostatic) hypotension is a sustained decrease of at least 20 mm Hg in systolic BP or 10 mm Hg in diastolic BP within 3 minutes of moving from a lying or sitting to a standing position (Freeman et al., 2011). It is usually accompanied by dizziness, lightheadedness, or syncope.
The nurse has been asked to explain the cause of angina pain to a patient's family. Choose the best statement. The pain is due to:
A lack of oxygen in the heart muscle that causes the death of cells. Impeded blood flow, due to blockage in a coronary artery, deprives the cardiac muscle cells of oxygen thus leading to a condition known as ischemia.
Which nursing diagnosis is most significant in planning the care for a client with Raynaud's disease?
Acute Pain The hallmark symptom of Raynaud's Disease is pain related to the arterial insufficiency. Disturbed Sensory Perception associated with paresthesia can occur but is less significant than pain. Self-Care Deficit and Activity Intolerance can occur but less significant than Acute Pain.
A client has started to exhibit dangerous PVCs in the cardiac postoperative unit. The client has been given a bolus of lidocaine and is under continuous IV infusion, but serious side effects, including hypotension during administration, could occur. What should the nurse be ready to do? Adjust the IV infusion. Administer additional lidocaine. Prepare for defibrillation. Call for the doctor and just wait.
Adjust the IV infusion. Call for the physician while adjusting the IV infusion to the slowest possible rate until the physician can examine the patient.
You are overseeing a 62-year-old who has started to exhibit dangerous PVCs in the cardiac postoperative unit. He's been given a bolus of lidocaine and is under continuous IV infusion, but serious side effects, including hypotension during administration, could occur. What should you be ready to do?
Adjust the IV infusion. Call for the physician while adjusting the IV infusion to the slowest possible rate until the physician can examine the patient. Call for the physician while adjusting the IV infusion to the slowest possible rate until the physician can examine the patient. Do not do anything else. Call for the physician while adjusting the IV infusion to the slowest possible rate until the physician can examine the patient. Stay focused on the IV. Call for the physician and while waiting, adjust the IV infusion to the slowest possible rate until the physician can examine the patient.
A client in the emergency department complains of squeezing substernal pain that radiates to the left shoulder and jaw. He also complains of nausea, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do?
Administer oxygen, attach a cardiac monitor, take vital signs, and administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Cardiac chest pain is caused by myocardial ischemia. Therefore the nurse should administer supplemental oxygen to increase the myocardial oxygen supply, attach a cardiac monitor to help detect life-threatening arrhythmias, and take vital signs to ensure that the client isn't hypotensive before giving sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain. Registration information may be delayed until the client is stabilized. Alerting the cardiac catheterization team or the physician before completing the initial assessment is premature.
The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant, to a patient with a mechanical valve replacement. The patient's INR is 2.7. Which action should the nurse take?
Administer the medication as ordered. Patients with mechanical valve replacements who take warfarin (Coumadin) usually have individualized target international normalized ratios (INRs) between 2.0 and 3.5. The nurse would give the medication as ordered.
A 26-year-old Air Force staff sergeant is returning for diagnostic follow-up to the cardiologist's office where you practice nursing. Her Holter monitor strip reveals a heart rate with normal conduction but with a rate consistently above 105 beats/minute. What other conditions can cause this response in a healthy heart?
All options are correct It occurs in clients with healthy hearts as a physiologic response to strenuous exercise, anxiety and fear, pain, fever, hyperthyroidism, hemorrhage, shock, or hypoxemia. There are a variety of causes that can create an elevated heart rate in an otherwise healthy heart. Fever is one cause. There are a variety of causes that can create an elevated heart rate in an otherwise healthy heart. Shock is one cause. There are a variety of causes that can create an elevated heart rate in an otherwise healthy heart. Strenuous exercise is one cause.
A client's Holter monitor strip reveals a heart rate with normal conduction but with a rate consistently above 105 beats/minute. What other conditions can cause this response in a healthy heart? All options are correct. elevated temperature shock strenuous exercise
All options are correct. There are a variety of causes that can create an elevated heart rate in an otherwise healthy heart, including fever, shock, and strenuous exercise.
A nurse is reevaluating a client receiving IV fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following patient findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Altered level of consciousness A patient receiving fibrinolytic therapy is at risk for complications associated with bleeding. Altered level of consciousness may indicate hypoxia and intracranial bleeding and the infusion should be discontinued immediately. Minimal bleeding requires manual pressure. Reperfusion dysrhythmias are an expected finding. A chest pain score of 2 is low, and indicates the patient's chest pain is subsiding, an expected outcome of this therapy.
The nurse is caring for clients on a telemetry unit. Which nursing consideration best represents concerns of altered rhythmic patterns of the heart?
Altered patterns frequently affect the heart's ability to pump blood effectively The best representation of a nursing concern related to a cardiac arrhythmia is the inability of the heart to fill the chambers and eject blow flow efficiently. Lack of an efficient method to circulate blood and bodily fluids produces a variety of complications such as tissue ischemia, pulmonary edema, hypotension, decreased urine output, and impaired level of consciousness. The other options can occur with dysrhythmias, but the cause stemming from the altered pattern is the best answer.
The nurse is caring for clients on a telemetry unit. Which nursing consideration best represents concerns of altered rhythmic patterns of the heart? Altered patterns frequently turn into life-threatening arrhythmias. Altered patterns frequently produce neurological deficits. Altered patterns frequently cause a variety of home safety issues. Altered patterns frequently affect the heart's ability to pump blood effectively.
Altered patterns frequently affect the heart's ability to pump blood effectively. The best representation of a nursing concern related to a cardiac arrhythmia is the inability of the heart to fill the chambers and eject blow flow efficiently. Lack of an efficient method to circulate blood and bodily fluids produces a variety of complications such as tissue ischemia, pulmonary edema, hypotension, decreased urine output, and impaired level of consciousness. The other options can occur with dysrhythmias, but the cause stemming from the altered pattern is the best answer.
A nurse plans to have an education session with a client with cardiomyopathy and the client's spouse about ways to increase activity tolerance. Which of the following instructions would provide that information?
Alternate active periods with rest periods. The client should plan activities to occur in cycles, alternating rest with active periods. The client with cardiomyopathy must avoid strenuous activity and isometric exercises. It is impossible to avoid all physical and emotional stress.
A total artificial heart (TAH) is an electrically powered pump that circulates blood into the pulmonary artery and the aorta, thus replacing the functions of both the right and left ventricles. What makes it different from an LVAD?
An LVAD only supports a failing left ventricle. A TAH is considered an extension of LVADs, which only support a failing left ventricle. TAHs are targeted for clients who are unlikely to live more than a month without further interventions.
What ECG findings does the nurse observe in a patient who has had a myocardial infarction (MI)? (Select all that apply.)
An abnormal Q wave T-wave inversion ST-segment elevation The ECG changes that occur with an MI are seen in the leads that view the involved surface of the heart. The expected ECG changes are T-wave inversion, ST-segment elevation, and development of an abnormal Q wave (Fig. 27-5).
The nurse is aware that statistics show an increase in the prevalence of infective endocarditis among older adults. Which of the following factors places older adults at risk for developing infective endocarditis?
An increased use in the number of prosthetic valve replacements
Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication?
Angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.
Which of the following medication classifications is more likely to be expected when the nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation?
Anticoagulant Clients with persistent atrial fibrillation are prescribed anticoagulation therapy to reduce the risk of emboli formation associated with ineffective circulation. The other options may be prescribed but not expected in most situations.
Which of the following medication classifications is more likely to be expected when the nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation? Diuretic Anticoagulant Antihypertensive Potassium supplement
Anticoagulant Clients with persistent atrial fibrillation are prescribed anticoagulation therapy to reduce the risk of emboli formation associated with ineffective circulation. The other options may be prescribed but not expected in most situations.
Which of the following statements is not accurate regarding an autograft?
Anticoagulation is necessary
The nurse is assessing a patient and feels a pulse with quick, sharp strokes that suddenly collapse. The nurse knows that this type of pulse is diagnostic for which disorder?
Aortic regurgitation The pulse pressure (i.e., difference between systolic and diastolic pressures) is considerably widened in patients with aortic regurgitation. One characteristic sign is the water-hammer (Corrigan's) pulse, in which the pulse strikes a palpating finger with a quick, sharp stroke and then suddenly collapses.
Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is the least effective?
Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding. Application of a vascular closure device has been demonstrated to be very effective. Direct manual pressure to the sheath introduction site has been demonstrated to be effective and was the first method used to induce hemostasis post PTCA. Application of a pneumatic compression device post PTCA has been demonstrated to be effective.
After percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), the nurse suspects that a patient, who is on bed rest, may be experiencing the complication of bleeding. The nurse's initial action should be to do which of the following?
Apply manual pressure at the site of the insertion of the sheath. The immediate nursing action would be to apply pressure, which may stop the bleeding. If the bleeding does not stop, the health care provider needs to be notified.
The client states, "My doctor says that because I am now taking this water pill, I need to eat more foods that contain potassium. Can you give me some ideas about what foods would be good for this?" The nurse's appropriate response is which of the following?
Apricots, dried peas and beans, dates
The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment for a patient in left-sided heart failure. What does the nurse understand is the best determinant of the patient's ventilation and oxygenation status?
Arterial blood gases In left-sided heart failure, arterial blood gases may be obtained to assess ventilation and oxygenation.
A client asks the clinic nurse what the difference is between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis. What is the nurse's best response?
Arteriosclerosis is a loss of elasticity, or hardening of the arteries, that happens as we age
While assessing a patient with pericarditis, the nurse cannot auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?
Ask the patient to lean forward and listen again.
A patient complains about chest pain and heavy breathing when exercising or when stressed. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for the patient diagnosed with coronary artery disease?
Assess chest pain and administer prescribed drugs and oxygen The nurse assesses the patient for chest pain and administers the prescribed drugs that dilate the coronary arteries. The nurse administers oxygen to improve the oxygen supply to the heart. Assessing the blood pressure or the physical history does not clearly indicate that the patient has CAD. The nurse does not administer aspirin without the physician's prescription.
A client with left-sided heart failure is in danger of impaired renal perfusion. How would the nurse assess this client for impaired renal perfusion?
Assess for elevated blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen indicates impaired renal perfusion in a client with left-sided heart failure. Serum sodium levels may be elevated. Reduced urine output or elevated blood potassium levels do not indicate impaired renal perfusion in a client with left-sided heart failure.
A patient arrives at the ED with an exacerbation of left-sided heart failure and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?
Assess oxygen saturation leve Assessment is priority to determine severity of the exacerbation. It is important to assess the oxygen saturation level of a heart failure patient, as below normal oxygen saturation level can be life-threatening. Treatment options vary according to the severity of the patient's condition and may include supplemental oxygen, oral and IV medications, major lifestyle changes, implantation of cardiac devices, and surgical approaches.
You are caring for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). What is an appropriate nursing action when evaluating a client with CAD?
Assess the characteristics of chest pain. The nurse should assess the characteristics of chest pain for a client with CAD. Assessing the client's mental and emotional status, skin, or for drug abuse will not assist the nurse in evaluating the client for CAD. The assessment should be aimed at evaluating for adequate blood flow to the heart.
A nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting signs and symptoms characteristic of a myocardial infarction (MI). Which statement describes priorities the nurse should establish while performing the physical assessment?
Assess the client's level of pain and administer prescribed analgesics. The cardinal symptom of MI is persistent, crushing substernal pain or pressure. The nurse should first assess the client's pain and prepare to administer nitroglycerin or morphine for pain control. The client must be medically stabilized before pulmonary artery catheterization can be used as a diagnostic procedure.
The nurse is caring for a client on a monitored telemetry unit. During morning assessment, the nurse notes abnormal ECG waves on the telemetry monitor. Which action would the nurse do first?
Assess the client.
A nurse is providing evening care for a patient wearing a continuous telemetry monitor. While the nurse is giving the patient a back rub, the patient's monitor alarm sounds and the nurse notes a flat line on the bedside monitor system. What is the nurse's first response?
Assess the patient and monitor leads. The nurse should assess the patient and monitor leads first. It is important that the nurse "treat the patient, not the monitor." Ventricular asystole may often appear on the monitor when leads are displaced. The other interventions are not necessary.
A patient hospitalized for 10 days with subacute infective endocarditis is afebrile and has no signs of heart damage. Discharge with outpatient antibiotic therapy for 2 to 6 weeks is anticipated. During discharge planning with the patient, it is MOST important for the nurse to
Assess the patient's home environment in terms of family assistance and adequacy. Long-term IV antimicrobial therapy is often necessary. The nurse should assess the home environment to ensure successful management of long-term antibiotic therapy. Bed rest is not necessary for the patient without heart damage. The others are not the most important steps for a patient undergoing outpatient antibiotic therapy.
Which condition most commonly results in coronary artery disease (CAD)?
Atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis (plaque formation), is the leading cause of CAD. Diabetes mellitus is a risk factor for CAD, but it isn't the most common cause. Myocardial infarction is a common result of CAD. Renal failure doesn't cause CAD, but the two conditions are related.
You are presenting a workshop at the senior citizens center about how the changes of aging predispose clients to vascular occlusive disorders. What would you name as the most common cause of peripheral arterial problems in the older adult?
Atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is the most common cause of peripheral arterial problems in the older adult. The disease correlates with the aging process. The other choices may occur at any age.
The nurse caring for a patient with a dysrhythmia understands that the P wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) represents what phase of the cardiac cycle?
Atrial depolarization
The nurse caring for a patient with a dysrhythmia understands that the P wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) represents what phase of the cardiac cycle? Atrial depolarization Early ventricular repolarization Ventricular depolarization Ventricular repolarization
Atrial depolarization The P wave represents atrial depolarization. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The ST segment represents early ventricular repolarization, and lasts from the end of the QRS complex to the beginning of the T wave.
An 83-year-old resident in the long-term care facility where you practice nursing has an irregular heart rate of around 100 beats/minute. He also has a significant pulse deficit. What component of his history would produce such symptoms?
Atrial fibrillation In atrial fibrillation, several areas in the right atrium initiate impulses resulting in disorganized, rapid activity. The atria quiver rather than contract, producing a pulse deficit due to irregular impulse conduction to the AV node. The ventricles respond to the atrial stimulus randomly, causing an irregular ventricular heart rate, which may be too infrequent to maintain adequate cardiac output. Atrial fibrillation generally causes disorganized activity, irregular heart rates, and pulse deficits. It is not atrial flutter. Atrial fibrillation generally causes disorganized activity, irregular heart rates, and pulse deficits. It is not heart block. Atrial fibrillation generally causes disorganized activity, irregular heart rates, and pulse deficits. It is not bundle branch block.
A client presents to the emergency department via ambulance with a heart rate of 210 beats/minute and a sawtooth waveform pattern per cardiac monitor. The nurse is most correct to alert the medical team of the presence of a client with which disorder?
Atrial flutter Atrial flutter is a disorder in which a single atrial impulse outside the SA node causes the atria to contract at an exceedingly rapid rate. The atrioventricular (AV) node conducts only some impulses to the ventricle, resulting in a ventricular rate slower than the atrial rate, thus forming a sawtooth pattern on the heart monitor. Asystole is the absence of cardiac function and can indicate death. Premature ventricular contraction indicates an early electric impulse and does not necessarily produce an exceedingly rapid heart rate. Ventricular fibrillation is the inefficient quivering of the ventricles and indicative of a dying heart.
Which dysrhythmia has an atrial rate between 250 and 400, with saw-toothed P waves?
Atrial flutter Atrial flutter occurs in the atrium and creates impulses at a regular atrial rate between 250 and 400 times per minute. The P waves are saw-toothed in shape. Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature. Ventricular fibrillation is a rapid, disorganized ventricular rhythm that causes ineffective quivering of the ventricles. Ventricular tachycardia is defined as three or more PVCs in a row, occurring at a rate exceeding 100 beats per minute.
Electrocardiogram (ECG) characteristics of atrial fibrillation include which of the following?
Atrial rate of 300 to 400 ECG characteristics of atrial fibrillation include an atrial rate of 300 to 400, a nonmeasurable PR interval, irregular rhythm, and no discernible P waves.
When starting a client on oral or I.V. diltiazem (Cardizem), for which potential complication should the nurse monitor?
Atrioventricular block The chief complications of diltiazem are hypotension, atrioventricular blocks, heart failure, and elevated liver enzyme levels. Other reported reactions include flushing, nocturia, and polyuria, but not renal failure. Although flushing may occur, it's an adverse reaction, not a potential complication.
The nurse administers propranolol hydrochloride to a patient with a heart rate of 64 beats per minute (bpm). One hour later, the nurse observes the heart rate on the monitor to be 36 bpm. What medication should the nurse prepare to administer that is an antidote for the propranolol?
Atropine Sheath removal and the application of pressure on the vessel insertion site may cause the heart rate to slow and the blood pressure to decrease (vasovagal response). A dose of IV atropine is usually given to treat this response.
A nurse is completing a shift assessment on a patient admitted to the telemetry unit with a diagnosis of syncope. The patient's heart rate is 55 bpm with a blood pressure of 90/66 mm Hg. The patient is also experiencing dizziness and shortness of breath. Which of the following medications will the nurse anticipate administering to the patient based on these clinical findings?
Atropine The patient is demonstrating signs and symptoms of symptomatic sinus bradycardia. Atropine is the medication of choice in treating symptomatic sinus bradycardia. Lidocaine treats ventricular dysrhythmias. Pronestyl treats and prevents atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias. Cardizem is a calcium channel blocker and treats atrial dysrhythmias.
A nurse is completing a shift assessment on a patient admitted to the telemetry unit with a diagnosis of syncope. The patient's heart rate is 55 bpm with a blood pressure of 90/66 mm Hg. The patient is also experiencing dizziness and shortness of breath. Which of the following medications will the nurse anticipate administering to the patient based on these clinical findings? Atropine Lidocaine Pronestyl Cardizem
Atropine The patient is demonstrating signs and symptoms of symptomatic sinus bradycardia. Atropine is the medication of choice in treating symptomatic sinus bradycardia. Lidocaine treats ventricular dysrhythmias. Pronestyl treats and prevents atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias. Cardizem is a calcium channel blocker and treats atrial dysrhythmias.
The patient is told that she has second-degree AV block with symptomatic bradycardia. The patient will be treated with an anticholinergic that blocks the effects of the vagal nerve. Choose the most likely drug that will be prescribed.
Atropine sulfate Atropine blocks acetylcholine at parasympathetic neuroeffector sites and blocks vagal stimulation.
The patient is told that she has second-degree AV block with symptomatic bradycardia. The patient will be treated with an anticholinergic that blocks the effects of the vagal nerve. Choose the most likely drug that will be prescribed. Corgard Procardia Atropine sulfate Tenormin
Atropine sulfate Atropine blocks acetylcholine at parasympathetic neuroeffector sites and blocks vagal stimulation.
A patient tells the nurse "my heart is skipping beats again; I'm having palpitations." After completing a physical assessment, the nurse concludes the patient is experiencing occasional premature atrial complexes (PACs). The nurse should instruct the patient to complete which of the following?
Avoid caffeinated beverages. If PACs are infrequent, no medical interventions are necessary. Causes of PACs include caffeine, alcohol, nicotine, stretched atrial myocardium (e.g., as in hypervolemia), anxiety, hypokalemia (low potassium level), hypermetabolic states (e.g., with pregnancy), or atrial ischemia, injury, or infarction. The nurse should instruct the patient to avoid caffeinated beverages.
A patient tells the nurse "my heart is skipping beats again; I'm having palpitations." After completing a physical assessment, the nurse concludes the patient is experiencing occasional premature atrial complexes (PACs). The nurse should instruct the patient to complete which of the following? Avoid caffeinated beverages. Request sublingual nitroglycerin. Apply supplemental oxygen. Lie down and elevate the feet.
Avoid caffeinated beverages. If PACs are infrequent, no medical interventions are necessary. Causes of PACs include caffeine, alcohol, nicotine, stretched atrial myocardium (e.g., as in hypervolemia), anxiety, hypokalemia (low potassium level), hypermetabolic states (e.g., with pregnancy), or atrial ischemia, injury, or infarction. The nurse should instruct the patient to avoid caffeinated beverages.
A patient has undergone a cardiac catheterization. He is to be discharged today. What information should the nurse emphasize during discharge teaching?
Avoid heavy lifting for the next 24 hours. For the next 24 hours, the patient should not bend at the waist, strain, or life heavy objects. The patient should avoid tub baths, but shower as desired. The patient should call her the health care provider if she has any bleeding, swelling, new bruising, or pain from her procedure puncture site, or a temperature of 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit or more.
A patient has had an implantable cardioverter defibrillator inserted. What should the nurse be sure to include in the education of this patient prior to discharge? (Select all that apply.)
Avoid magnetic fields such as metal detection booths. Call for emergency assistance if feeling dizzy. Record events that trigger a shock sensation. The nurse should instruct the patient to avoid large magnetic fields such as those created by magnetic resonance imaging, large motors, arc welding, electrical substations, and so forth. Magnetic fields may deactivate the device, negating its effect on a dysrhythmia. The patient should call 911 for emergency assistance if a feeling of dizziness occurs. The patient should maintain a log that records discharges of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD). Record events that precipitate the sensation of shock. This provides important data for the physician to use in readjusting the medical regimen. Throbbing pain is not normal and should be reported immediately. An initial x-ray is indicated prior to discharge, but monthly x-rays are unnecessary.
The nurse is caring for a client with Raynaud's disease. What is an important instruction for a client who is diagnosed with this disease to prevent an attack?
Avoid situations that contribute to ischemic episodes.
The nurse is caring for a client with Raynaud's disease. What is an important instruction for a client who is diagnosed with this disease to prevent an attack?
Avoid situations that contribute to ischemic episodes. Teaching for clients with Raynaud's disease and their family members is important. They need to understand what contributes to an attack. The nurse should instruct the clients to avoid situations that contribute to ischemic episodes. Reporting changes in the usual pattern of chest pain or avoiding fatty foods and exercise does not help the client to avoid an attack; it is more contributory for clients with CAD. In addition, the nurse advises clients to avoid over-the-counter decongestants.
Which of the following postimplantation instructions must a nurse provide a patient with a permanent pacemaker?
Avoid sources of electrical interference The nurse must instruct the patient with a permanent pacemaker to avoid sources of electrical interference. The nurse should also instruct the patient to avoid strenuous movement (especially of the arm on the side where the pacemaker is inserted), to keep the arm on the side of the pacemaker lower than the head except for brief moments when dressing or performing hygiene, and to delay for at least 8 weeks activities such as swimming, bowling, tennis, vacuum cleaning, carrying heavy objects, chopping wood, mowing, raking, and shoveling snow.
Which of the following postimplantation instructions must a nurse provide a patient with a permanent pacemaker? Keep the arm on the side of the pacemaker higher than the head Delay for at least 3 weeks activities such as swimming and bowling Keep moving the arm on the side where the pacemaker is inserted Avoid sources of electrical interference
Avoid sources of electrical interference The nurse must instruct the patient with a permanent pacemaker to avoid sources of electrical interference. The nurse should also instruct the patient to avoid strenuous movement (especially of the arm on the side where the pacemaker is inserted), to keep the arm on the side of the pacemaker lower than the head except for brief moments when dressing or performing hygiene, and to delay for at least 8 weeks activities such as swimming, bowling, tennis, vacuum cleaning, carrying heavy objects, chopping wood, mowing, raking, and shoveling snow.
The nurse is providing discharge education for the client going home after a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following would be important information to give this client?
Avoid tub baths, but shower as desired.
After having several Stokes-Adams attacks within 4 months, a client reluctantly agrees to implantation of a permanent pacemaker. Before discharge, the nurse reviews pacemaker care and safety guidelines with the client and his spouse. Which safety precaution is appropriate for a client who has a pacemaker?
Avoid undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
After having several Stokes-Adams attacks within 4 months, a client reluctantly agrees to implantation of a permanent pacemaker. Before discharge, the nurse reviews pacemaker care and safety guidelines with the client and his spouse. Which safety precaution is appropriate for a client who has a pacemaker? Stay at least 2? away from microwave ovens. Never engage in activities that require vigorous arm and shoulder movement. Avoid going through airport metal detectors. Avoid undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
Avoid undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). A client with a pacemaker should avoid undergoing an MRI because the magnet could disrupt pacemaker function and cause injury to the client. Disruption is less likely to occur with newer microwave ovens; nonetheless, the client should stay at least 5? away from microwaves, not 2?. The client must avoid vigorous arm and shoulder movement only for the first 6 weeks after pacemaker implantation. Airport metal detectors don't harm pacemakers; however, the client should notify airport security guards that he has a pacemaker because its metal casing and programming magnet could trigger the metal detector.
Which of the following is a key diagnostic laboratory test for heart failure?
B-type natriuretic peptide
A nurse is checking laboratory values on a client who has crackles in the lower lobes, 2+ pitting edema, and dyspnea with minimal exertion. Which laboratory value does the nurse expect to be abnormal?
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Aortic stenosis remains asymptomatic for several decades. However, once a client becomes symptomatic for aortic stenosis, life expectancy without further treatment is only 2 to 3 years. What is the treatment of choice for symptomatic aortic stenosis?
Balloon valvuloplasty Additional treatment eventually becomes critical because average survival is 2 to 3 years once symptoms develop. Balloon valvuloplasty is an invasive, nonsurgical procedure to enlarge a narrowed valve opening. Balloon angioplasty, cardiac catheterization, and cardiac graft procedure are not indicated treatments for aortic stenosis.
The nurse is caring for a client with an elevated blood pressure and no previous history of hypertension. At 0900, the blood pressure was 158/90 mm Hg. At 0930, the blood pressure is 142/82 mm Hg. The nurse is most correct when relating the fall in blood pressure to which structure?
Baroreceptors Baroreceptor sense pressure in nerve endings in the walls of the atria and major blood vessels. The baroreceptors respond accordingly to raise or lower the pressure. Chemoreceptors are sensitive to pH, CO2, and O2 in the blood. Sympathetic nerve fibers increase the heart rate. The vagus nerve slows the heart rate.
The nurse in the intensive care unit (ICU) hears an alarm sound in the patient's room. Arriving in the room, the patient is unresponsive, without a pulse, and a flat line on the monitor. What is the first action by the nurse?
Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) Commonly called flatline, ventricular asystole (Fig. 26-19) is characterized by absent QRS complexes confirmed in two different leads, although P waves may be apparent for a short duration. There is no heartbeat, no palpable pulse, and no respiration. Without immediate treatment, ventricular asystole is fatal. Ventricular asystole is treated the same as PEA, focusing on high-quality CPR with minimal interruptions and identifying underlying and contributing factors.
The nurse in the intensive care unit (ICU) hears an alarm sound in the patient's room. Arriving in the room, the patient is unresponsive, without a pulse, and a flat line on the monitor. What is the first action by the nurse? Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) Administer epinephrine Administer atropine 0.5 mg Defibrillate with 360 joules (monophasic defibrillator)
Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) Commonly called flatline, ventricular asystole (Fig. 26-19) is characterized by absent QRS complexes confirmed in two different leads, although P waves may be apparent for a short duration. There is no heartbeat, no palpable pulse, and no respiration. Without immediate treatment, ventricular asystole is fatal. Ventricular asystole is treated the same as PEA, focusing on high-quality CPR with minimal interruptions and identifying underlying and contributing factors.
A client is returning from the operating room after inguinal hernia repair. The nurse notes that he has fluid volume excess from the operation and is at risk for left-sided heart failure. Which sign or symptom indicates left-sided heart failure?
Bibasilar crackles
A nurse is caring for a patient who had an aortic balloon valvuloplasty. The nurse would inspect the surgical insertion site closely for which of the following complications?
Bleeding and infection Possible complications of an aortic balloon valvuloplasty include aortic regurgitation, emboli, ventricular perforation, rupture of the aortic valve annulus, ventricular dysrhythmia, mitral valve damage, infection, and bleeding from the catheter insertion sites.
A client is receiving nitroglycerin ointment (Nitro-Dur) to treat angina pectoris. The nurse evaluates the therapeutic effectiveness of this drug by assessing the client's response and checking for adverse effects. Which vital sign is most likely to reflect an adverse effect of nitroglycerin?
Blood pressure 84/52 mm Hg Hypotension and headache are the most common adverse effects of nitroglycerin. Therefore, blood pressure is the vital sign most likely to reflect an adverse effect of this drug. The nurse should check the client's blood pressure 1 hour after administering nitroglycerin ointment. A blood pressure decrease of 10 mm Hg is within the therapeutic range. If blood pressure falls more than 20 mm Hg below baseline, the nurse should remove the ointment and report the finding to the physician immediately
The nurse recognizes which of the following lab tests is a key diagnostic indicator of heart failure?
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Which of the following is a key diagnostic indicator of heart failure (HF)?
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
A 78-year-old client was just admitted to the cardiac step-down unit where you practice nursing. Upon stabilizing his condition, you begin a conversation about his symptoms and you answer his questions to the best of your ability. In your discussion of cardiac dysrhythmias, which of the following would you rule out as a likely origination point for cardiac dysrhythmias?
Bundle of His Cardiac dysrhythmias may originate in the atria, atrioventricular node, or ventricles. They do not originate in the Bundle of His. Cardiac dysrhythmias do not originate in the Bundle of His.
Which diagnostic is a marker for inflammation of vascular endothelium?
C-reactive protein (CRP) C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker for inflammation of vascular endothelium. LDL, HDL, and triglycerides are not marker of vascular endothelium inflammation. They are elements of fat metabolism.
A nurse is caring for a patient in the cardiovascular intensive care unit (CVICU) following a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). Which of the following clinical findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
CVP reading: 1 mmHg The central venous pressure (CVP) reading of 1 is low (2-6 mmHg) and indicates reduced right ventricular preload, commonly caused by hypovolemia. Hypovolemia is the most common cause of decreased cardiac output after cardiac surgery. Replacement fluids such as colloids, packed red blood cells, or crystalloid solutions may be prescribed. The other findings require follow-up by the nurse; however, addressing the CVP reading is the nurse's priority.
A patient is admitted with aortic regurgitation. Which of the following medication classifications are contraindicated since they can cause bradycardia and decrease ventricular contractility?
Calcium channel blockers The calcium channel blockers diltiazem (Cardizem) and verapamil (Calan, Isoptin) are contraindicated for patients with aortic regurgitation as they decrease ventricular contractility and may cause bradycardia.
A 56-year-old male client with CAD kept his appointment to see a cardiologist for posthospitalization follow up. The client indicates that he thinks the diltiazem (Cardizem) has been making him nauseous. The nurse is aware that diltiazem (Cardizem) is categorized as which type of drug?
Calcium-channel blockers
A patient in severe pulmonary edema is being intubated by the respiratory therapist. What priority action by the nurse will assist in the confirmation of tube placement in the proper position in the trachea?
Call for a chest x-ray.
Ronald is a 46-year-old who has developed congestive heart failure. He has to learn to adapt his diet and you are his initial counselor. Which of the following should you tell him to avoid?
Canned peas There are a wide variety of foods that Ronald can still eat. The key is they have to have low-salt content. Canned vegetables are usually very high in salt or sodium, unless they have labels such as low-salt or sodium free or salt free. The key is to read the food labels and look for foods that contain <300 mg sodium/serving.
A patient has had cardiac surgery and is being monitored in the intensive care unit (ICU). What complication should the nurse monitor for that is associated with an alteration in preload?
Cardiac tamponade Preload alterations occur when too little blood volume returns to the heart as a result of persistent bleeding and hypovolemia. Excessive postoperative bleeding can lead to decreased intravascular volume, hypotension, and low cardiac output. Bleeding problems are common after cardiac surgery because of the effects of cardiopulmonary bypass, trauma from the surgery, and anticoagulation.
The nurse is caring for a patient with an intra-arterial BP monitoring device. The nurse recognizes the most preventable complication associated with hemodynamic monitoring includes which of the following?
Catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSI) CRBSIs are the most common preventable complication associated with hemodynamic monitoring systems. Comprehensive guidelines for the prevention of these infections have been published by Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Complications from use of hemodynamic monitoring systems are uncommon and can include pneumothorax, infection, and air embolism. A pneumothorax may occur during the insertion of catheters using a central venous approach (CVP and pulmonary artery catheters). Air emboli can be introduced into the vascular system if the stopcocks attached to the pressure transducers are mishandled during blood drawing, administration of medications, or other procedures that require opening the system to air.
Which of the following nursing interventions should a nurse perform when a patient with cardiomyopathy receives a diuretic
Check for dependent edema regularly The nurse should monitor for dependent edema regularly if the patient with cardiomyopathy receives a diuretic. Oxygen is administered either continuously or when dyspnea or dysrhythmias develop. Bed rest is not necessary. The nurse should ensure that the patient's activity level is reduced and should sequence any activity that is slightly exertional between periods of rest.
A client has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg twice daily. The cardiac monitor technician informs the nurse that the client has started having rare premature ventricular contractions followed by runs of bigeminy lasting 2 minutes. During the assessment, the nurse determines that the client is asymptomatic and has stable vital signs. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform next?
Check the client's potassium level.
A middle-aged male presents to the ED complaining of severe chest discomfort. Which of the following patient findings is most indicative of a possible MI?
Chest discomfort not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin Chest pain or discomfort not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin is associated with an acute MI. The other findings, although associated with ACS (acute coronary syndrome) or MI, may also occur with angina and, alone, are not indicative of an MI.
When evaluating a patient suspected of having pericarditis, the nurse documents the description of which indicator that is considered the most characteristic symptom?
Chest pain
The nurse is taking a health history from a client admitted with the medical diagnosis of cardiovascular disease (CVD). Identify which of the following symptoms indicate CVD
Chest pain, weight gain, fatigue
You are caring for a client with a damaged tricuspid valve. You know that the tricuspid valve is held in place by which of the following?
Chordae tendineae Attached to the mitral and tricuspid valves are cordlike structures known as chordae tendineae, which in turn attach to papillary muscles, two major muscular projections from the ventricles. Options B, C, and D are distractors for the question.
A 73-year-old male client is diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy. The nurse is aware that which of the following is the most likely cause of his condition?
Chronic alcohol abuse Chronic alcohol ingestion is one of the main causes of dilated cardiomyopathy. Other causes include history of viral myocarditis, an autoimmune response, and exposure to other chemicals in addition to alcohol. Heredity is considered the main cause of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. This a connective tissue disorder is thought to cause restrictive cardiomyopathy. Scar tissue that forms after a myocardial infarction is thought to be a cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy.
A client with chronic heart failure is able to continue with his regular physical activity and does not have any limitations as to what he can do. According to the New York Heart Association (NYHA), what classification of chronic heart failure does this client have?
Class I (Mild) Class I is when ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea. The client does not experience any limitation of activity. Class II (Mild) is when the client is comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, heart palpitations, or dyspnea. Class III (Moderate) is when there is marked limitation of physical activity. The client is comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, heart palpitations, or dyspnea. Class IV (Severe), the client is unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of cardiac insufficiency occur at rest. Discomfort is increased if any physical activity is undertaken.
You are caring for a client who has been admitted to have a cardioverter defibrillator implanted. You would know that implanted cardioverter defibrillators are used in what clients?
Clients with recurrent life-threatening tachydysrhythmias The automatic implanted cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) is an internal electrical device used for selected clients with recurrent life-threatening tachydysrhythmias. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect.
You are caring for a client who has been admitted to have a cardioverter defibrillator implanted. You would know that implanted cardioverter defibrillators are used in what clients? Clients with recurrent life-threatening bradycardias Clients with sinus tachycardia Clients with ventricular bradycardia Clients with recurrent life-threatening tachydysrhythmias
Clients with recurrent life-threatening tachydysrhythmias The automatic implanted cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) is an internal electrical device used for selected clients with recurrent life-threatening tachydysrhythmias. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect.
The nurse is preparing to apply ECG electrodes to a male patient who requires continuous cardiac monitoring. Which of the following should the nurse complete to optimize skin adherence and conduction of the heart's electrical current?
Clip the patient's chest hair prior to applying the electrodes. The nurse should complete the following actions when applying cardiac electrodes: Clip (do not shave) hair from around the electrode site, if needed; if the patient is diaphoretic (sweaty), apply a small amount of benzoin to the skin, avoiding the area under the center of the electrode; debride the skin surface of dead cells with soap and water and dry well (or as recommended by the manufacturer). Change the electrodes every 24 to 48 hours (or as recommended by the manufacturer); examine the skin for irritation and apply the electrodes to different locations.
Which of the following medications is given to patients diagnosed with angina and is allergic to aspirin?
Clopidogrel (Plavix) Plavix or Ticlid is given to patients who are allergic to aspirin or given in addition to aspirin to patients at high risk for MI. Norvasc, Cardizem, and Plendil are calcium channel blockers.
The nurse identifies which of the following symptoms as a manifestation of right-sided heart failure (HF)?
Congestion in the peripheral tissues
The nurse determines that a patient has a characteristic symptom of pericarditis. What symptom does the nurse recognize as significant for this diagnosis?
Constant chest pain The most characteristic symptom of pericarditis is chest pain, although pain also may be located beneath the clavicle, in the neck, or in the left trapezius (scapula) region. Pain or discomfort usually remains fairly constant, but it may worsen with deep inspiration and when lying down or turning.
A nurse assessing a client who underwent cardiac catheterization finds the client lying flat on the bed. His temperature is 99.8° F (37.7° C). His blood pressure is 104/68 mm Hg. His pulse rate is 76 beats/minute. She detects weak pulses in the leg distal to the puncture site. Skin on the leg is cool to the touch. The puncture site is dry, but swollen. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Contact the physician and report her findings. The client is probably developing a hematoma at the puncture site. The decreased pulses, swelling, and cool temperature in the leg are all classic signs that blood flow to that extremity is compromised. The nurse should notify the physician immediately to preserve the blood flow in the client's leg. Documenting findings and checking the client again in 1 hour, slowing the I.V. fluid, and encouraging the client to perform isometric leg exercises aren't appropriate actions for the nurse to take at this time.
An asymptomatic patient questions the nurse about the diagnosis of mitral regurgitation and inquires about continuing an exercise routine. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing response?
Continue the exercise routine unless symptoms such as shortness of breath or fatigue develop. Exercise is not limited until mild symptoms develop. Once symptoms of heart failure develop, the patient needs to restrict his or her activity level to minimize symptoms. It is not important for an asymptomatic patient to avoid exercise and to take ample rest after exercise.
A client comes to the emergency department (ED) complaining of precordial chest pain. In describing the pain, the client describes it as pressure with a sudden onset. What disease process would you suspect in this client?
Coronary artery disease The classic symptom of CAD is chest pain (angina) or discomfort during activity or stress. Such pain or discomfort typically is manifested as sudden pain or pressure that may be centered over the heart (precordial) or under the sternum (substernal). Raynaud's disease in the hands presents with symptoms of hands that are cold, blanched, and wet with perspiration. Cardiogenic shock is a complication of an MI. Venous occlusive disease occurs in the veins, not the arteries.
Which medication is indicated for the patient with atrial fibrillation who is at high risk for stroke?
Coumadin Warfarin (Coumadin) is indicated if the patient with atrial fibrillation is at high risk for stroke. Aspirin, Lovenox, and Plavix are not indicated. If immediate anticoagulation is necessary, the patient may be placed on heparin until the warfarin level is therapeutic.
Which medication is indicated for the patient with atrial fibrillation who is at high risk for stroke? Coumadin Aspirin Lovenox Plavix
Coumadin Warfarin (Coumadin) is indicated if the patient with atrial fibrillation is at high risk for stroke. Aspirin, Lovenox, and Plavix are not indicated. If immediate anticoagulation is necessary, the patient may be placed on heparin until the warfarin level is therapeutic.
The clinic nurse caring for a client with a cardiovascular disorder is performing an assessment of the client's pulse. Which of the following steps is involved in determining the pulse deficit?
Count the heart rate at the apex. The nurse determines the pulse deficit by counting the heart rate through auscultation at the apex while a second nurse simultaneously palpates and counts the radial pulse for a full minute. The difference, if any, is the pulse deficit. The pulse quality refers to its palpated volume. Pulse rhythm is the pattern of the pulsations and the pauses between them.
The analgesic of choice for a hospitalized patient with an MI is morphine sulfate. An important nursing responsibility, prior to administering morphine, is to do which of the following?
Count the respiratory rate for bradypnea. The nurse should always check the respiratory rate prior to administering morphine sulfate. The drug should be withheld, and the health care provider notified, if the respiratory rate is below 16 breaths/minute.
The nurse is caring for an elderly client with left-sided heart failure. When auscultating lung sounds, which adventitious sound is expected?
Crackles When the heart is pumping inefficiently, blood backs up into the pulmonary veins and lung tissue. Auscultation reveals a crackling sound. Possible wheezes and gurgles are also possibilities.
Which of the following lab values would be seen in the patient diagnosed with infective endocarditis? Select all that apply
Elevated white blood cell (WBC) count Elevated c-reactive protein Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) Abnormal findings include anemia, elevated WBC counts, elevated ESR, and elevated c-reactive protein
Which of the following body system responses correlates with systolic heart failure (HF)?
Decrease in renal perfusion A decrease in renal perfusion due to low cardiac output (CO) and vasoconstriction causes the release of renin by the kidney. Systolic HF results in decreased blood volume being ejected from the ventricle. Sympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the skin, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. Dehydration does not correlate with systolic heart failure.
The nurse is caring for a client who is displaying a third-degree AV block on the EKG monitor. The client is symptomatic due to the slow heart rate. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be which of the following? Decreased cardiac output Ineffective health maintenance Ineffective breathing pattern Risk for vascular trauma
Decreased cardiac output Based on assessment data for this client, the most logical nursing diagnosis will be decreased cardiac output. Third-degree AV block that is causing symptoms will be a slow rhythm that will produce a decreased cardiac output.
A client seeks medical attention for dyspnea, chest pain, syncope, fatigue, and palpitations. A thorough physical examination reveals an apical systolic thrill and heave, along with a fourth heart sound (S4) and a systolic murmur. Diagnostic tests reveal that the client has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate?
Decreased cardiac output Decreased cardiac output is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with HCM because the hypertrophied cardiac muscle decreases the effectiveness of the heart's contraction, decreasing cardiac output.
After evaluating a client for hypertension, a physician orders atenolol (Tenormin), 50 mg P.O. daily. Which therapeutic effect should atenolol have?
Decreased cardiac output and decreased systolic and diastolic blood pressure As a long-acting, selective beta1-adrenergic blocker, atenolol decreases cardiac output and systolic and diastolic blood pressure; however, like other beta-adrenergic blockers, it increases peripheral vascular resistance at rest and with exercise. Atenolol may cause bradycardia, not tachycardia.
After evaluating a client for hypertension, a physician orders atenolol (Tenormin), 50 mg P.O. daily. Which therapeutic effect should atenolol have? Decreased cardiac output and decreased systolic and diastolic blood pressure Decreased blood pressure with reflex tachycardia Increased cardiac output and increased systolic and diastolic blood pressure Decreased peripheral vascular resistance
Decreased cardiac output and decreased systolic and diastolic blood pressure As a long-acting, selective beta1-adrenergic blocker, atenolol decreases cardiac output and systolic and diastolic blood pressure; however, like other beta-adrenergic blockers, it increases peripheral vascular resistance at rest and with exercise. Atenolol may cause bradycardia, not tachycardia.
A client is recovering from coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority at this time
Decreased cardiac output related to depressed myocardial function, fluid volume deficit, or impaired electrical conduction For a client recovering from CABG surgery, Decreased cardiac output is the most important nursing diagnosis; anesthetics or a long cardiopulmonary bypass time may depress myocardial function, leading to decreased cardiac output. Other possible causes of decreased cardiac output in this client include fluid volume deficit and impaired electrical conduction. Anxiety, Disabled family coping, and Hypothermia may be relevant but take lower priority at this time; maintaining cardiac output is essential to sustaining the client's life.
The nurse is caring for a client who is displaying a third-degree AV block on the EKG monitor. The client is symptomatic due to the slow heart rate. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be which of the following?
Decreased cardic output
What is the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema?
Decreased left ventricular pumping
A nurse is caring for a patient who experienced an MI. The patient is ordered metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse understands that the therapeutic effect of this medication is which of the following?
Decreases resting heart rate The therapeutic effects of beta-adrenergic blocking agents such as metoprolol are to reduce the myocardial oxygen consumption by blocking beta-adrenergic sympathetic stimulation to the heart. The result is reduced heart rate, slowed conduction of impulses through the conduction system, decreased blood pressure, and reduced myocardial contractility to balance the myocardial oxygen needs and amount of oxygen available.
The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker to a patient who has symptomatic sinus tachycardia at a rate of 132 bpm. What is the anticipated action of the drug for this patient?
Decreases the sinoatrial node automaticity Calcium channel blockers have a variety of effects on the ischemic myocardium. These agents decrease sinoatrial node automaticity and atrioventricular node conduction, resulting in a slower heart rate and a decrease in the strength of myocardial contraction (negative inotropic effect).
The nurse is assessing a patient with a probable diagnosis of first-degree AV block. He is aware that this dysrhythmia is evident on an ECG strip by which of the following? Variable heart rate, usually fewer than 90 bpm Irregular rhythm Delayed conduction, producing a prolonged PR interval P waves hidden within the QRS complex
Delayed conduction, producing a prolonged PR interval First-degree AV block may occur without an underlying pathophysiology, or it can result from medications or conditions that increase parasympathetic tone. It occurs when atrial conduction is delayed through the AV node, resulting in a prolonged PR interval.
The nurse is observing the monitor of a patient with a first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. What is the nurse aware characterizes this block? A variable heart rate, usually fewer than 60 bpm An irregular rhythm Delayed conduction, producing a prolonged PR interval P waves hidden with the QRS complex
Delayed conduction, producing a prolonged PR interval First-degree AV block occurs when all the atrial impulses are conducted through the AV node into the ventricles at a rate slower than normal. Thus the PR interval is prolonged (>0.20 seconds).
A client is recovering from coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. The nurse knows that for several weeks after this procedure, the client is at risk for certain conditions. During discharge preparation, the nurse should advise the client and his family to expect which common symptom that typically resolves spontaneously?
Depression For the first few weeks after CABG surgery, clients commonly experience depression, fatigue, incisional chest discomfort, dyspnea, and anorexia. Depression typically resolves without medical intervention. However, the nurse should advise family members that symptoms of depression don't always resolve on their own. They should make sure they recognize worsening symptoms of depression and know when to seek care. Ankle edema seldom follows CABG surgery and may indicate right-sided heart failure. Because this condition is a sign of cardiac dysfunction, the client should report ankle edema at once. Memory lapses reflect neurologic rather than cardiac dysfunction. Dizziness may result from decreased cardiac output, an abnormal condition following CABG surgery. This symptom warrants immediate physician notification.
Which of the following would be an indication for a transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)?
Determination of atrial thrombi
The health care provider documents that the patient's pulse quality is a +1 on a scale of 0 to 4. The nurse knows that this describes a pulse that is:
Difficult to palpate and is obliterated with pressure.
Patient with myocarditis are sensitive to which of the following medications?
Digoxin The nurse must closely monitor these patients for digoxin toxicity, which is evidenced by arrhythmia,, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and malaise. If the cause of the myocarditis is hemolytic streptococci, penicillin will be given. The use of corticosteroids remains controversial.
The nurse is caring for a geriatric client. The client is ordered Lanoxin (digoxin) tablets 0.125mg daily for a cardiac dysrhythmias. Which of the following assessment considerations is essential when caring for this age-group?
Digoxin level The action of Digoxin slows and strengthens the heart rate. Assessment of the pulse rate is essential prior to administration in all clients. Due to decreased perfusion common in geriatric clients, toxicity may occur more often. The nurse must monitor Digoxin levels in the body. Monitoring symptoms reflecting cardiac output, activity level, and dyspnea are also important assessment considerations for all clients.
A patient is being scheduled for a stress test. The patient is unable to exercise during the test. The nurse would include information about which medication used for pharmacologic stress testing?
Dipyridamole (Persantine) If the patient is unable to exercise, a pharmacologic stress test is performed by injecting a vasodilating agent, dipyridamole (Persantine) or adenosine (Adenocard), to mimic the physiologic effects of exercise. The stress test may be combined with an echocardiogram or radionuclide imaging techniques to examine myocardial function during exercise and rest. Digoxin would not be used for stress testing. Thallium 201 and Cardiolite are radioisotopes used in myocardial perfusion scanning.
The nurse is caring for a patient in the ICU diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which of the following assessment data indicates the patient is experiencing a decrease in cardiac output?
Disorientation, 20 mL of urine over the last 2 hours Assessment findings associated with reduced cardiac output include reduced pulse pressure, hypotension, tachycardia, reduced urine output, lethargy, or disorientation.
Which of the following is a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure?
Dizziness
The nurse caring for a client who is suspected of having cardiovascular disease has a stress test ordered. The client has a co-morbidity of multiple sclerosis, so the nurse knows the stress test will be drug-induced. What drug will be used to dilate the coronary arteries?
Dobutamine Drugs such as adenosine (Adenocard), dipyridamole (Persantine), or dobutamine (Dobutrex) may be administered singularly or in combination by the IV route. The drugs dilate the coronary arteries, similar to the vasodilation that occurs when a person exercises to increase the heart muscle's blood supply. Options A, B, and C would not dilate the coronary arteries.
A nurse is evaluating a client with a temporary pacemaker. The patient's ECG tracing shows each P wave followed by the pacing spike. The nurse's best response is which of the following
Document the findings and continue to monitor the patient. Capture is a term used to denote that the appropriate complex is followed by the pacing spike. In this instance, the patient's temporary pacemaker is functioning appropriately; all Ps wave followed by an atrial pacing spike. The nurse should document the findings and continue to monitor the patient. Repositioning the patient, placing the patient on the left side, checking the security of all connections, and increasing the milliamperage are nursing interventions used when the pacemaker has a loss of capture. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG and chest x-ray are indicated when there is a loss of pacing-total absence of pacing spikes or when there is a change in pacing QRS shape.
A client has been living with an internal, fixed-rate pacemaker. When checking the client's readings on a cardiac monitor the nurse notices an absence of spikes. What should the nurse do? Double-check the monitoring equipment. Do nothing; there is no cause for alarm. Suggest the need for a new beta-blocker to the doctor. Measure the client's blood pressure.
Double-check the monitoring equipment. One of the reasons for lack of pacemaker spikes is faulty monitoring equipment.
Jack Johnson is a 58-year-old who's been living with an internal, fixed-rate pacemaker. You're checking his readings on a cardiac monitor and notice an absence of spikes. What should you do?
Double-check the monitoring equipment. One of the reasons for lack of pacemaker spikes is faulty monitoring equipment. It's important to be careful. One of the reasons for lack of pacemaker spikes is faulty monitoring equipment. Focus on the monitor. One of the reasons for lack of pacemaker spikes is faulty monitoring equipment. Check the monitor. One of the reasons for lack of pacemaker spikes is faulty monitoring equipment.
The nurse is preparing a patient for upcoming electrophysiology (EP) studies and possible ablation for treatment of atrial tachycardia. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
During the procedure, the arrhythmia will be reproduced under controlled conditions. During EP studies, the patient is awake and may experience symptoms related to the arrhythmia. EP studies do not always include ablation of the arrhythmia.
The nurse is preparing a patient for upcoming electrophysiology (EP) studies and possible ablation for treatment of atrial tachycardia. Which of the following information should the nurse include? During the procedure, the arrhythmia will be reproduced under controlled conditions. The procedure will occur in the operating room under general anesthesia. The procedure takes less time than a cardiac catheterization. After the procedure, the arrhythmia will not recur.
During the procedure, the arrhythmia will be reproduced under controlled conditions. During EP studies, the patient is awake and may experience symptoms related to the arrhythmia. EP studies do not always include ablation of the arrhythmia.
Frequently, what is the earliest symptom of left-sided heart failure?
Dyspnea on exertion
Which diagnostic study best evaluates different medications ability to restore normal heart rhythm? Elective electrical cardioversion Electrocardiogram (ECG) Electrophysiology study Echocardiogram
Electrophysiology study An electrophysiology study is a procedure that enables the physician to examine the electrical activity of the heart, produce actual dysrhythmias, and determine the best method for care. Cardioversion uses synchronized electricity to change the rhythm pattern. Electrocardiogram and echocardiograms provide diagnostic information.
A client comes to the emergency department complaining of chest pain. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals myocardial ischemia and an anterior-wall myocardial infarction (MI). Which ECG characteristic does the nurse expect to see?
Elevated ST segment
A female client returns for a follow-up visit to the cardiologist 4 days after a trip to the ED for sudden shortness of breath and abdominal pain. The nurse realizes the client had a myocardial infarction because the results from the blood work drawn in the hospital shows:
Elevated troponin levels Troponin is present only in myocardial tissue; therefore, it is the gold standard for determining heart damage in the early stages of an MI. LDH1 and LDH2 may be elevated in response to cardiac or other organ damage during an MI. Myoglobin is a biomarker that rises in 2 to 3 hours after heart damage during an MI. C-reactive protein, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and the WBC count increase on about the third day following MI because of the inflammatory response that the injured myocardial cells triggered. These levels would not be elevated during the MI event.
The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What procedure should the nurse prepare the client for in order to determine the ejection fraction to measure the efficiency of the heart as a pump?
Echocardiogram
The nursing instructor is discussing heart failure with their clinical group. The instructor talks about heart failure in terms of a decreasing ejection fraction of the heart. What diagnostic test is used to measure the ejection fraction of the heart?
Echocardiogram
The diagnosis of heart failure is usually confirmed by which of the following?
Echocardiogram Although the chest X-ray can indicate cardiomegaly and the ECG can indicate a left ventricular abnormality, it is the echocardiogram that is diagnostic. This test measures ejection fraction (EF) which, if greater than 40% and accompanied with signs and symptoms of heart failure, indicates diastolic dysfunction and impaired ventricular relaxation.
The client with a diagnosis of heart failure reports frequently awakening during the night with the need to urinate. The nurse offers which explanation?
Edema is collected in dependent extremities during the day; at night when the client lays down, it is reabsorbed into the circulation and excreted by the kidneys. Nocturia is common in patients with heart failure. Fluid collected in dependent areas during the day is reabsorbed into the circulation at night when the client is recumbent. The kidneys excrete more urine with the increased circulating volume.
Your client has been diagnosed with an atrial dysrhythmia. The client has come to the clinic for a follow-up appointment and to talk with the physician about options to stop this dysrhythmia. What would be a procedure used to treat this client?
Elective electrical cardioversion Elective electrical cardioversion is a nonemergency procedure done by a physician to stop rapid, but not necessarily life-threatening, atrial dysrhythmias. Chemical cardioversion is not a procedure; it is drug therapy. A Mace procedure is a distractor for this question. Defibrillation is not an elective procedure
Your client has been diagnosed with an atrial dysrhythmia. The client has come to the clinic for a follow-up appointment and to talk with the physician about options to stop this dysrhythmia. What would be a procedure used to treat this client? Elective electrical cardioversion Chemical cardioversion Mace procedure Elective electrical defibrillation
Elective electrical cardioversion Elective electrical cardioversion is a nonemergency procedure done by a physician to stop rapid, but not necessarily life-threatening, atrial dysrhythmias. Chemical cardioversion is not a procedure; it is drug therapy. A Mace procedure is a distractor for this question. Defibrillation is not an elective procedure.
A 65-year-old client has come to the emergency department reporting light-headedness, chest pain, and shortness of breath. As you finish your assessment, the physician enters and orders tests to ascertain what is causing the client's problems. In your client education, you explain the tests. Which test is used to identify cardiac rhythms?
Electrocardiogram
A patient is prescribed digitalis preparations. Which of the following conditions should the nurse closely monitor when caring for the patient?
Electrolyte and water loss The nurse should closely monitor a patient being administered diuretics for electrolyte and water loss. Digitalis preparations (not diuretics) are potent and may cause various toxic effects. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of digitalis toxicity, not just during the initial period of therapy, but throughout care management. However, the effects do not include vasculitis, flexion contractures, or enlargement of joints
Which diagnostic study best evaluates different medications ability to restore normal heart rhythm?
Electrophysiology study
A patient complaining of heart palpitations is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation caused by mitral valve prolapse. In order to relieve the symptoms, the nurse should teach the patient which of the following dietary interventions?
Eliminate caffeine and alcohol To minimize symptoms of mitral valve prolapse, the nurse should instruct the patient to avoid caffeine and alcohol. The nurse encourages the patient to read product labels, particularly on over-the-counter products such as cough medicine, because these products may contain alcohol, caffeine, ephedrine and adrenaline, which may produce arrhythmias and other symptoms.
Within the heart, several structures and several layers all play a part in protecting the heart muscle and maintaining cardiac function. The inner layer of the heart is composed of a thin, smooth layer of cells, the folds of which form heart valves. What is the name of this layer of cardiac tissue?
Endocardium
You are monitoring the results of laboratory tests performed on a client admitted to the cardiac ICU with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Which test would you expect to show elevated levels?
Enzymes When tissues and cells break down, are damaged, or die, great quantities of certain enzymes are released into the bloodstream. Enzymes can be elevated in response to cardiac or other organ damage. After an MI, RBCs and platelets should not be elevated. WBCs would only be elevated if there was a bacterial infection present.
The area of the heart that is located at the third IC space to the left of the sternum is the
Erb's point.
The nurse is asked to explain ventricular bigeminy to a patient. The nurse explains that it is a conduction defect in which:
Every other complex is a PVC. The effect of a PVC depends on its timing in the cardiac cycle and how much blood was in the ventricles when they contracted. Bigeminy is a rhythm in which every other complex is a PVC. In trigeminy, every third complex is a PVC.
The nurse is asked to explain ventricular bigeminy to a patient. The nurse explains that it is a conduction defect in which: Conduction is primarily from the AV node. Every other complex is a PVC. The rhythm is regular but fast. The rate is between 150 to 250 bpm.
Every other complex is a PVC. The effect of a PVC depends on its timing in the cardiac cycle and how much blood was in the ventricles when they contracted. Bigeminy is a rhythm in which every other complex is a PVC. In trigeminy, every third complex is a PVC.
A 76-year-old client has a significant history of congestive heart failure. During his semiannual cardiology examination, for what should you, as his nurse, specifically assess? Select all that apply.
Examine the client's neck for distended veins. Monitor the client for signs of lethargy or confusion.
A patient with acute pericarditis is exhibiting distended jugular veins, tachycardia, tachypnea, bradycardia, and muffled heart sounds. The senior nursing student recognizes these symptoms occur when
Excess pericardial fluid compresses the heart and prevents adequate diastolic filling. The cardinal signs of cardiac tamponade are falling systolic blood pressure, narrowing pulse pressure, rising venous pressure (increased JVD), and distant (muffled) heart sounds. Increased pericardial pressure, reduced venous return to the heart, and decreased carbon dioxide result in cardiac tamponade (eg, compression of the heart).
A nurse is caring for a client with aortic stenosis whose compensatory mechanisms of the heart have begun to fail. The nurse will monitor the client carefully for which initial symptoms?
Exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, pulmonary edema When symptoms develop, clients with aortic stenosis usually first have exertional dyspnea, caused by increased pulmonary venous pressure from left heart failure. Orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, dizziness, and pulmonary edema may also occur
The nurse prepares to auscultate heart sounds. Which nursing interventions would be most effective to assist with this procedure?
Explain to the client that the nurse will be listening to different areas of the chest and may listen for a long time, but that does not mean that anything abnormal is heard.
A physician treating a client in the cardiac care unit for atrial arrhythmia orders metoprolol (Lopressor), 25 mg P.O. two times per day. Metoprolol inhibits the action of sympathomimetics at beta1-receptor sites. Where are these sites mainly located?
Heart Most beta1-receptor sites are located in the heart. Beta2-receptor sites are located in the uterus, blood vessels, and bronchi.
The nurse is auscultating the heart of a patient diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse. Which of the following is often the first and only manifestation of mitral valve prolapse?
Extra heart sound
Sam, a retired professional NFL player, visits his cardiologist for his annual physical. The nurse takes an ECG and notices an abnormal finding. However, the nurse realizes that this result can be normal when present without symptoms. This finding is a:
Heart rate of 42 beats per minute (bpm) All answers refer to a normal sinus rhythm (NSR) except for the heart rate. A rate of 42 bpm is slow but normal when it occurs in athletes without symptoms.
Which signs and symptoms accompany a diagnosis of pericarditis?
Fever, chest discomfort, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) The classic signs and symptoms of pericarditis include fever, positional chest discomfort, nonspecific ST-segment elevation, elevated ESR, and pericardial friction rub. Low urine output secondary to left ventricular dysfunction lethargy, anorexia, heart failure and pitting edema, result from acute renal failure.
You are caring for a client who has premature ventricular contractions. What sign or symptom is observed in this client?
Fluttering Premature ventricular contractions usually cause a flip-flop sensation in the chest, sometimes described as "fluttering." Associated signs and symptoms include pallor, nervousness, sweating, and faintness. Symptoms of premature ventricular contractions are not nausea, hypotension, and fever.
You are caring for a client who has premature ventricular contractions. What sign or symptom is observed in this client? Fluttering Nausea Hypotension Fever
Fluttering Premature ventricular contractions usually cause a flip-flop sensation in the chest, sometimes described as "fluttering." Associated signs and symptoms include pallor, nervousness, sweating, and faintness. Symptoms of premature ventricular contractions are not nausea, hypotension, and fever.
A harsh grating sound caused by abrasion of the pericardial surfaces during the cardiac cycle is termed which of the following?
Friction rub
You are caring for a client with suspected right-sided heart failure. What would you know that clients with suspected right-sided heart failure may experience?
Gradual unexplained weight gain
A young mother brings her 4-year-old in to the pediatric clinic with a mild fever and a red, spotty rash that is beginning to fade. The child's heart rate is rapid, and the rhythm is abnormal. The mother states the child has been healthy until about 3 weeks ago when the child had a sore throat. You suspect rheumatic carditis. What organism causes rheumatic carditis?
Group A beta-hemolytic strep
A patient with a prosthetic heart valve is diagnosed with subacute infective endocarditis. The nurse knows that the majority of these infections are caused by:
Group A, beta-hemolytic Streptococcus Acute IE is often caused by Staphylococcus infection, and its onset is rapid, occurring within days to weeks. Subacute IE, usually caused by Streptococcus, occurs more slowly and its course is prolonged.
The nurse obtains a health history from a patient with a prosthetic heart valve and new symptoms of infective endocarditis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate to ask?
Have you been to the dentist recently? Invasive procedures, particularly those involving mucosal surfaces (e.g., those involving manipulation of gingival tissue or periapical regions of teeth), can cause a bacteremia, which rarely lasts more than 15 minutes. However, if a patient has any anatomic cardiac defects or implanted cardiac devices (e.g., prosthetic heart valve, pacemaker, implantable cardioverter defibrillator [ICD]), bacteremia can cause bacterial endocarditis.
A nurse is caring for a client experiencing dyspnea, dependent edema, hepatomegaly, crackles, and jugular vein distention. What condition should the nurse suspect?
Heart failure
During assessment of a 63-year-old retired mechanic, the nurse notes and documents an S3 heart sound. The nurse knows that this sound is an abnormal sound suggestive of:
Heart failure
The nurse is caring for a patient in the ED who has a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 115 pg/mL. The nurse understands that this finding is most suggestive of which of the following?
Heart failure
The nurse is reviewing the results of the patient's echocardiogram and observes that the ejection fraction is 35%. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive treatment for what condition?
Heart failure An ejection fraction of less than 40% indicates that the patient has decreased left ventricular function and likely requires treatment for heart failure.
Which of the following therapies are for patient who have advanced heart failure (HF) after all other therapies have failed?
Heart failure Heart transplantation involves replacing a person's diseased heart with a donor heart. This is an option for advanced HF patients when all other therapies have failed. A ventricular access device, ICD, and cardiac resynchronization therapy would be tried prior to a heart transplant.
Sam, a retired professional NFL player, visits his cardiologist for his annual physical. The nurse takes an ECG and notices an abnormal finding. However, the nurse realizes that this result can be normal when present without symptoms. This finding is a: PR interval of 0.18 seconds. Heart rate of 42 beats per minute (bpm). QT interval of 0.37 seconds. P-to-QRS ratio of 1:1.
Heart rate of 42 beats per minute (bpm). All answers refer to a normal sinus rhythm (NSR) except for the heart rate. A rate of 42 bpm is slow but normal when it occurs in athletes without symptoms.
A nurse is monitoring the vital signs and blood results of a 53-year-old male patient who is receiving anti-coagulation therapy. Which of the following does the nurse identify as a major indication of concern?
Hematocrit of 30% Hematocrit is a measurement of the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells. A lowered hematocrit can imply internal bleeding.
A 62-year-old male client who works as a stockbroker reports chest pain and palpitations during and after his morning jogs. The client's family history includes CAD. His lipid profile reveals his LDL level to be 122 mg/dL. The nurse is aware that this client has which of the following?
High LDL level
A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client diagnosed with hyperlipidemia 6 months ago. Which results indicate that the client has been following his therapeutic regimen?
High density lipoproteins (HDL) increase from 25 mg/dl to 40 mg/dl.
Often, women and elderly do not have the typical chest pain associated with a myocardial infarction. Some report vague symptoms (fatigue, abdominal pain), which can lead to misdiagnosis. Some older adults may experience little or no chest pain. Gender is not a contributing factor for fatal occurrence but rather a result of symptoms association.
High-density lipoprotein (HDL), 80 mg/dL A fasting lipid profile should demonstrate the following values (Alberti et al., 2009): LDL cholesterol less than 100 mg/dL (less than 70 mg/dL for very high-risk patients); total cholesterol less than 200 mg/dL; HDL cholesterol greater than 40 mg/dL for males and greater than 50 mg/dL for females; and triglycerides less than 150 mg/dL.
A white male, age 43, with a tentative diagnosis of infective endocarditis is admitted to an acute care facility. His medical history reveals diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and pernicious anemia; he underwent an appendectomy 20 years earlier and an aortic valve replacement 2 years before this admission. Which history finding is a major risk factor for infective endocarditis?
History of aortic valve replacement A heart valve prosthesis such as an aortic valve replacement is a major risk factor for infective endocarditis. Other risk factors include a history of heart disease (especially mitral valve prolapse), chronic debilitating disease, I.V. drug abuse, and immunosuppression. Although race, age, and a history of diabetes mellitus may predispose a person to cardiovascular disease, they aren't major risk factors for infective endocarditis
The nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (Dilatrate). When obtaining vital signs, the nurse notes that the blood pressure is 90/60. What is the priority action by the nurse?
Hold the medication and call the physician A combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate may be another alternative for patients who cannot take ACE inhibitors (ICSI, 2011). Nitrates (e.g., isosorbide dinitrate) cause venous dilation, which reduces the amount of blood return to the heart and lowers preload. Hydralazine lowers systemic vascular resistance and left ventricular afterload. If these medications lead to severe hypotension, the nurse should hold the medication and call the physician.
When the postcardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient's serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality?
Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves). Hypercalcemia would likely be demonstrated by asystole. Hypomagnesemia would likely be demonstrated by hypotension, lethargy, and vasodilation. Hyponatremia would likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T-wave formation
A nurse is caring for a patient post cardiac surgery. Upon assessment, the patient appears restless and is complaining of nausea and weakness. The patient's ECG reveals peaked T waves. The nurse reviews the patient's serum electrolytes anticipating which of the following abnormalities?
Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves). Hypercalcemia would likely be demonstrated by asystole. Hypomagnesemia would likely be demonstrated by hypotension, lethargy, and vasodilation. Hyponatremia would likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T-wave formation.
In which type of cardiomyopathy does the heart muscle actually increase in size and mass weight, especially along the septum?
Hypertrophic Because of the structural changes, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy had also been called idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) or asymmetric septal hypertrophy (ASH). Restrictive cardiomyopathy is characterized by diastolic dysfunction caused by rigid ventricular walls that impair ventricular stretch and diastolic filling. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) occurs when the myocardium of the right ventricle is progressively infiltrated and replaced by fibrous scar and adipose tissue.
Which of the following is inconsistent as a condition related to metabolic syndrome?
Hypotension
A new surgical patient who has undergone a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) is receiving opioids for pain control. The nurse must be alert to adverse effects of opioids. Which of the following effects would be important for the nurse to document?
Hypotension The patient is observed for any adverse effects of opioids, which may include respiratory depression, hypotension, ileus, or urinary retention. If serious side effects occur, an opioid antagonist, such as Narcan, may be used.
The nurse understands that asystole can be caused by several of the following. Select all that apply. Hypoxia Alkalosis Hypovolemia Hypothermia Acidosis
Hypoxia Hypovolemia Hypothermia Acidosis Ventricular asystole is treated the same as pulseless electrical activity (PEA), focusing on high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) with minimal interruptions and identifying underlying and contributing factors. The key to successful treatment is a rapid assessment to identify a possible cause, which is known as the "Hs and Ts": hypoxia, hypovolemia, hydrogen ion (acid/base imbalance), hypo- or hyperglycemia, hypo- or hyperkalemia, hyperthermia, trauma, toxins, tamponade (cardiac), tension pneumothorax, or thrombus (coronary or pulmonary).
The nurse understands that asystole can be caused by several of the following. Select all that apply
Hypoxia Hypovolemia Hypothermia Acidosis Ventricular asystole is treated the same as pulseless electrical activity (PEA), focusing on high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) with minimal interruptions and identifying underlying and contributing factors. The key to successful treatment is a rapid assessment to identify a possible cause, which is known as the "Hs and Ts": hypoxia, hypovolemia, hydrogen ion (acid/base imbalance), hypo- or hyperglycemia, hypo- or hyperkalemia, hyperthermia, trauma, toxins, tamponade (cardiac), tension pneumothorax, or thrombus (coronary or pulmonary).
A patient with endocarditis is being discharged home. In evaluating the effectiveness of patient teaching about how to prevent recurrence of the infection, the student nurse would expect the patient to state:
I will ask for antibiotics whenever I have dental work done." The patient should take antibiotics for dental procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue or the periapical area of the teeth or perforation of the oral mucosa. Exceptions include routine anesthetic injections through noninfected tissue, placement of orthodontic brackets, loss of deciduous teeth, bleeding from trauma to the lips or oral mucosa, dental x-rays, adjustment of orthodontic appliances, and placement of removable prosthodontic or orthodontic appliances.
Which New York Heart Association classification of heart failure has a poor prognosis and includes symptoms of cardiac insufficiency at rest?
IV
A client has a medical diagnosis of an advanced AV block and is symptomatic due to a slow heart rate. With what initial treatment(s) should the nurse be prepared to assist?
IV bolus of atropine or temporary pacing The initial treatment of choice is an IV bolus of atropine. If the client does not respond to atropine, has advanced AV block, or has had an acute MI, temporary pacing may be started. A permanent pacemaker my be necessary if the block persists.
A client has a medical diagnosis of an advanced AV block and is symptomatic due to a slow heart rate. With what initial treatment(s) should the nurse be prepared to assist? IV bolus of atropine or temporary pacing Cardioversion or IV bolus of dopamine A maze procedure or IV bolus of furosemide Cardiac catheterization
IV bolus of atropine or temporary pacing The initial treatment of choice is an IV bolus of atropine. If the client does not respond to atropine, has advanced AV block, or has had an acute MI, temporary pacing may be started. A permanent pacemaker my be necessary if the block persists.
You enter your client's room and find them pulseless and unresponsive. What would be the treatment of choice for this client?
Immediate defibrillation
You enter your client's room and find them pulseless and unresponsive. What would be the treatment of choice for this client? IV lidocaine Chemical cardioversion Immediate defibrillation Electric cardioversion
Immediate defibrillation Defibrillation is used during pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation.
The nurse reviews a patient's lab results and notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse knows that this reading can also be associated with which of the following?
Impaired myocardial contractility
A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy is having frequent episodes of ventricular fibrillation. What choice would be best to sense and terminate these episodes? Implantable cardioverter defibrillator Pacemaker Atropine Epinephrine
Implantable cardioverter defibrillator The implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) is an electronic device that detects and terminates life-threatening episodes of tachycardia or fibrillation, especially those that are ventricular in origin. Patients at high risk of ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation and who would benefit from an ICD are those who have survived sudden cardiac death syndrome, which usually is caused by ventricular fibrillation, or have experienced spontaneous, symptomatic VT (syncope secondary to VT) not due to a reversible cause (called a secondary prevention intervention).
A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy is having frequent episodes of ventricular fibrillation. What choice would be best to sense and terminate these episodes?
Implantable cardioverter defibrillator The implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) is an electronic device that detects and terminates life-threatening episodes of tachycardia or fibrillation, especially those that are ventricular in origin. Patients at high risk of ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation and who would benefit from an ICD are those who have survived sudden cardiac death syndrome, which usually is caused by ventricular fibrillation, or have experienced spontaneous, symptomatic VT (syncope secondary to VT) not due to a reversible cause (called a secondary prevention intervention).
Which of the following would be inconsistent as criterion of extubation in the patient who has undergone a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)?
Inability to speak. Before being extubated, the patient should have cough and gag reflexes and stable vital signs; be able to life the head off the bed or give firm hand grasps; have adequate vital capacity, negative inspiratory force, and minute volume appropriate for body size; and have acceptable ABG levels while breathing without the assistance of the ventilator. Inability to talk is expected when intubated with an endotracheal tube.
When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 mL/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects
Inadequate fluid volume
When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (less than 25 mL per hour) with high specific gravity (greater than 1.025), the nurse suspects which of the following conditions?
Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 mL per hour may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 mLor greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. The anuric patient does not produce urine.
Which of the following is the most important postoperative assessment parameter for patients undergoing cardiac surgery?
Inadequate tissue perfusion The nurse must assess the patient for signs and symptoms of inadequate tissue perfusion, such as a weak or absent pulse, cold or cyanotic extremities, or mottling of the skin.
A patient's elevated cholesterol levels are being managed with Lipitor, 40 mg daily. The nurse practitioner reviews the patient's blood work every 6 months before renewing the prescription. The nurse explains to the patient's daughter that this is necessary because of a major side effect of Lipitor that she is checking for. What is that side-effect?
Increased liver enzymes Myopathy and increased liver enzymes are significant side effects of the statins, HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors that are used to affect lipoprotein metabolism.
Age-related changes associated with the cardiac system include which of the following? Select all that apply.
Increased size of the left atrium Endocardial fibrosis Age-related changes associated with the cardiac system include endocardial fibrosis, increased size of the left atrium, decreased number of SA node cells, and myocardial thickening.
What medication order would the nurse question for a patient being treated for pericarditis?
Indocin Analgesic medications and NSAIDs such as aspirin or ibuprofen (Motrin) may be prescribed for pain relief during the acute phase of pericarditis. These agents also hasten reabsorption of fluid in patients with rheumatic pericarditis. Indomethacin (Indocin) is contraindicated because it may decrease coronary blood flow. Colchicine (Colcrys) or corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone) may be prescribed if the pericarditis is severe or if the patient does not respond to NSAIDs. Colchicine also may be used instead of NSAIDs during the acute phase.
A 63-year-old client is in the cardiac step-down unit where you practice nursing. In your discussions about his condition, the client is puzzled as to what causes the heart to be an effective pump. Which of the following statements would you include in your response?
Inherent rhythmicity of cardiac muscle tissue Cardiac rhythm refers to the pattern (or pace) of the heartbeat. The conduction system of the heart and the inherent rhythmicity of cardiac muscle produce a rhythm pattern, which greatly influences the heart's ability to pump blood effectively.
A patient has a persistent third-degree heart block and has had several periods of syncope. What priority treatment should the nurse anticipate for this patient?
Insertion of a pacemaker Third-degree AV block, also known as a complete block, occurs when no atrial impulse is conducted through the AV node into the ventricles. A permanent pacemaker may be necessary if the block persists
A patient has a persistent third-degree heart block and has had several periods of syncope. What priority treatment should the nurse anticipate for this patient? Insertion of a pacemaker Administration of atropine Administration of epinephrine Insertion of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)
Insertion of a pacemaker Third-degree AV block, also known as a complete block, occurs when no atrial impulse is conducted through the AV node into the ventricles. A permanent pacemaker may be necessary if the block persists.
Which of the following nursing interventions is required to prepare a patient with cardiac dysrhythmia for an elective electrical cardioversion?
Instruct the patient to restrict food and oral intake The nurse should instruct the patient to restrict food and oral intake before the cardioversion procedure. Digitalis and diuretics are withheld for 24 to 72 hours before cardioversion. The presence of digitalis and diuretics in myocardial cells decreases the ability to restore normal conduction and increases the chances of a fatal dysrhythmia developing after cardioversion. When the patient is in cardiopulmonary arrest, the nurse should facilitate CPR until the patient is prepared for defibrillation and not for cardioversion. Monitoring blood pressure every 4 hours is not required to prepare a patient with cardiac dysrhythmia.
Which of the following nursing interventions is required to prepare a patient with cardiac dysrhythmia for an elective electrical cardioversion? Instruct the patient to restrict food and oral intake Administer digitalis and diuretics 24 hours before cardioversion Facilitate CPR until the patient is prepared for cardioversion Monitor blood pressure every 4 hours
Instruct the patient to restrict food and oral intake The nurse should instruct the patient to restrict food and oral intake before the cardioversion procedure. Digitalis and diuretics are withheld for 24 to 72 hours before cardioversion. The presence of digitalis and diuretics in myocardial cells decreases the ability to restore normal conduction and increases the chances of a fatal dysrhythmia developing after cardioversion. When the patient is in cardiopulmonary arrest, the nurse should facilitate CPR until the patient is prepared for defibrillation and not for cardioversion. Monitoring blood pressure every 4 hours is not required to prepare a patient with cardiac dysrhythmia.
The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) orally. The nurse reviews the patient's prothrombin time (PT) level to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication. The nurse should also evaluate which of the following laboratory values?
International normalized ratio (INR) The INR, reported with the PT, provides a standard method for reporting PT levels and eliminates the variation of PT results from different laboratories. The INR, rather than the PT alone, is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin. The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3.5, although specific ranges vary based on diagnosis. The other laboratory values are not used to evaluate the effectiveness of Coumadin.
A client diagnosed with pulmonary edema has a PaCO2 of 72 mm Hg and an oxygen saturation of 84%. What method of oxygen delivery would best meet the needs of this client?
Intubation and mechanical ventilation The client?'s respiratory status is severely compromised and has developed signs of respiratory failure. When respiratory failure occurs, the client is intubated and oxygen is administered under continuous positive airway pressure or with mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure. A face mask, cannula, or Venturi mask will not deliver the concentration or ventilatory support that an endotracheal tube with mechanical ventilation will provide.
The nurse is caring for a client with a dysrhythmia. While assessing the data in the history of the chart, the nurse anticipates the cause of the dysrhythmia to be which of the following? Peripheral vascular disease Ischemic heart disease Aortic stenosis Atherosclerotic heart disease
Ischemic heart disease The nurse realizes that the most common cause of dysrhythmias is ischemic heart disease. When the heart does not obtain sufficient blood to meet demands, the heart works harder to circulate body fluids and becomes inefficient in the process. Problems with the peripheral vessels, narrowing of the aorta and plaque buildup in the vessels may be a component of the disease process but not the best answer
The nurse is caring for a client with a dysrhythmia. While assessing the data in the history of the chart, the nurse anticipates the cause of the dysrhythmia to be which of the following?
Ischemic heart disease The nurse realizes that the most common cause of dysrhythmias is ischemic heart disease. When the heart does not obtain sufficient blood to meet demands, the heart works harder to circulate body fluids and becomes inefficient in the process. Problems with the peripheral vessels, narrowing of the aorta and plaque buildup in the vessels may be a component of the disease process but not the best answer.
A nursing student is giving to a client with heart failure a medication with a positive inotropic effect on the heart. The student asks what a "positive inotropic" effect is. The correct response would be which of the following?
It increases the force of the myocardial contraction A positive inotropic effect increases the force of myocardial contraction. A positive chronotropic effect increases the heart rate. A positive inotropic effect will usually help slow respiratory rate and will increase blood flow through the kidneys, so fluid output will increas
A nursing student is giving to a client with heart failure a medication with a positive inotropic effect on the heart. The student asks what a "positive inotropic" effect is. The correct response would be which of the following? It increases the force of the myocardial contraction. It increases the heart rate. It increases the respiratory rate. It causes the kidneys to retain fluid and increase intravascular volume.
It increases the force of the myocardial contraction. A positive inotropic effect increases the force of myocardial contraction. A positive chronotropic effect increases the heart rate. A positive inotropic effect will usually help slow respiratory rate and will increase blood flow through the kidneys, so fluid output will increase.
The nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with angina pectoris about the difference between the pain of angina and a myocardial infarction (MI). How should the nurse describe the pain experienced during an MI? (Select all that apply.)
It is substernal in location. It is viselike and radiates to the shoulders and arms. It is sudden in onset and prolonged in duration Chest pain that occurs suddenly, continues despite rest and medication, is substernal, and is sometimes viselike and radiating to the shoulders and arms is associated with an MI. Angina pectoris pain is generally relieved by rest and nitroglycerin.
A nurse is assessing a patient with congestive heart failure for jugular vein distension (JVD). Which of the following observations is important to report to the physician?
JVD is noted 3 cm above the sternal angle. JVD is assessed with the patient sitting at a 45° angle. Jugular vein distention greater than 3 cm above the sternal angle is considered abnormal and is indicative of right ventricular failure.
The nurse identifies which of the following symptoms as a characteristic of right-sided heart failure?
Jugular vein distention (JVD)
A new client has been admitted with right-sided heart failure. The nurse knows to look for which of the following assessment findings when assessing this client?
Jugular venous distention
A patient with a history of valvular disease has just arrived in the PACU after a percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty. Which intervention should the recovery nurse implement?
Keep the patient's affected leg straight. Balloon valvuloplasty is performed in the cardiac catheterization laboratory. A catheter is inserted into the femoral artery. The patient must keep the affected leg straight to prevent hemorrhage at the insertion site. It is not an open heart surgery requiring chest tubes nor a chest dressing. ET tubes are placed when someone has general anesthesia, and this procedure is performed using light or moderate sedation.
A patient is 2 days postoperative after having a permanent pacemaker inserted. The nurse observes that the patient is having continuous hiccups as the patient states, "I thought this was normal." What does the nurse understand is occurring with this patient?
Lead wire dislodgement Phrenic nerve, diaphragmatic (hiccuping may be a sign), or skeletal muscle stimulation may occur if the lead is dislocated or if the delivered energy (mA) is set high. The occurrence of this complication is avoided by testing during device implantation.
A client who suffered blunt chest trauma in a motor vehicle accident complains of chest pain, which is exacerbated by deep inspiration. On auscultation, the nurse detects a pericardial friction rub — a classic sign of acute pericarditis. The physician confirms acute pericarditis and begins appropriate medical intervention. To relieve chest pain associated with pericarditis, which position should the nurse encourage the client to assume?
Leaning forward while sitting The nurse should encourage the client to lean forward, because this position causes the heart to pull away from the diaphragmatic pleurae of the lungs, helping relieve chest pain caused by pericarditis.
The nurse is performing an assessment of the patient's heart. Where would the nurse locate the apical pulse if the heart is in a normal position?
Left 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line
The nurse working in the medical intensive care unit has a patient admitted with mitral stenosis. The nurse knows that the pathophysiology of mitral stenosis is consistent with some of the following. Choose all that apply.
Left atrial hypertrophy Poor left ventricular filling can cause decreased cardiac output. The increased blood volume in the left atrium causes it to dilate and hypertrophy.
Within the physiology of the heart, each chamber has a particular role in maintaining cellular oxygenation. Which chamber of the heart is responsible for receiving oxygenated blood from the lungs?
Left atrium
Within the physiology of the heart, each chamber has a particular role in maintaining cellular oxygenation. Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood to all the cells and tissues of the body?
Left ventricle
A nurse is teaching a patient about an upcoming surgery to separate fused cardiac leaflets. Which of the following is the correct term used to describe this surgery?
Left ventricle into the left atrium during systole.
Incomplete closure of the mitral valve results in backflow of blood from the:
Left ventricle to left atrium
A nursing student is caring for a client with end-stage cardiomyopathy. The client's spouse asks the nurse to clarify one of the last treatment options available that the physician mentioned earlier. After checking with the primary nurse, the nursing student would most likely discuss which of the following?
Left ventricular assist device When heart failure progresses and medical treatment is no longer effective, surgical intervention, including heart transplantation, is considered. Because of the limited number of organ donors, many clients die waiting. In some cases, a left ventricular assist device is implanted to support the failing heart until a suitable donor becomes available. The other three choices have to do with failing valves and valve repairs.
For patients diagnosed with aortic stenosis, digoxin would be ordered for which of the following clinical manifestations?
Left ventricular dysfunction Digoxin may be used to treat left ventricular dysfunction, and diuretics may be used for dyspnea. Nitrates may be prescribed for the treatment of angina, but must be used with caution due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension and syncope.
The clinical manifestations of cardiogenic shock reflect the pathophysiology of heart failure (HF). By applying this correlation, the nurse notes that the degree of shock is proportional to which of the following?
Left ventricular function
In a client with chronic bronchitis, which sign would lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure?
Leg edema
A nurse is preparing to assess a patient for postural BP changes. Which of the following indicates the need for further education?
Letting 30 seconds elapse after each position change before measuring BP and heart rate (HR) he following steps are recommended when assessing patients for postural hypotension: Position the patient supine for 10 minutes before taking the initial BP and HR measurements; reposition the patient to a sitting position with legs in the dependent position, wait 2 minutes then reassess both BP and HR measurements; if the patient is symptom free or has no significant decreases in systolic or diastolic BP, assist the patient into a standing position, obtain measurements immediately and recheck in 2 minutes; continue measurements every 2 minutes for a total of 10 minutes to rule out postural hypotension. Return the patient to supine position if postural hypotension is detected or if the patient becomes symptomatic. Document HR and BP measured in each position (e.g., supine, sitting, and standing) and any signs or symptoms that accompany the postural changes.
A nurse is teaching a client who receives nitrates for the relief of chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse emphasize?
Lie down or sit in a chair for 5 to 10 minutes after taking the drug. Nitrates act primarily to relax coronary smooth muscle and produce vasodilation. They can cause hypotension, which makes the client dizzy and weak. The nurse should instruct the client to lie down or sit in a chair for 5 to 10 minutes after taking the drug. Nitrates are taken at the first sign of chest pain and before activities that might induce chest pain. Sublingual nitroglycerin is taken every 5 minutes for three doses. If the pain persists, the client should seek medical assistance immediately. Nitrates must be stored in a dark place in a closed container because sunlight causes the medication to lose its effectiveness. Alcohol is prohibited because nitrates may enhance the effects of the alcohol.
A nurse working in a cardiac step-down unit understands that the following drugs can affect the contractility of the heart. The nurse recognizes that contractility is depressed by which of the following drugs?
Lopressor Contractility is depressed by beta-adrenergic blocking medications. The other choices all enhance contractility.
After a physical examination, the provider diagnosed a patient with a grade 4 heart murmur. During assessment, the nurse expects to hear a murmur that is:
Loud and may be associated with a thrill sound similar to (a purring cat). Heart murmurs are characterized by location, timing, and intensity. A grading system is used to describe the intensity or loudness of a murmur. A grade 1 is very faint and difficult to describe, whereas a grade 6 is extremely loud. Refer to Box 12-3 in the text for a description of grades 1 to 6.
A patient is receiving anticoagulant therapy. The nurse should be alert to potential signs and symptoms of external or internal bleeding, as evidenced by which of the following?
Low blood pressure The patient receiving anticoagulation therapy should be monitored for signs and symptoms of external and internal bleeding, such as low blood pressure, increased heart rate, and decreased serum hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Which of the following is the hallmark of systolic heart failure?
Low ejection fraction (EF) A low EF is a hallmark of systolic heart failure (HF); the severity of HF is frequently classified according to the patient's symptoms.
A nurse administers furosemide (Lasix) to treat a client with heart failure. Which adverse effect must the nurse watch for most carefully?
Low serum potassium level
On auscultation, the nurse suspects a diagnosis of mitral valve stenosis when which of the following is heard?
Low-pitched, rumbling diastolic murmur at the apex of the heart
Your client has just been prescribed Pronestyl for their dysrhythmia. What would you teach this client about the side effects?
Lupus-like syndrome Procainamide hydrochloride (Pronestyl) can have side effects of hypotension, GI upset, and a lupus-like syndrome; With long-term use, it may cause immune system problems.
Your client has just been prescribed Pronestyl for their dysrhythmia. What would you teach this client about the side effects? Hypertension Decreased appetite Change in mental status Lupus-like syndrome
Lupus-like syndrome Procainamide hydrochloride (Pronestyl) can have side effects of hypotension, GI upset, and a lupus-like syndrome; With long-term use, it may cause immune system problems.
A nurse should obtain serum levels of which electrolytes in a client with frequent episodes of ventricular tachycardia?
Magnesium and potassium Hypomagnesemia as well as hypokalemia and hyperkalemia are common causes of ventricular tachycardia. Calcium imbalances cause changes in the QT interval and ST segment. Alterations in sodium level don't cause rhythm disturbances.
A nurse should obtain serum levels of which electrolytes in a client with frequent episodes of ventricular tachycardia? Calcium and magnesium Potassium and calcium Magnesium and potassium Potassium and sodium
Magnesium and potassium Hypomagnesemia as well as hypokalemia and hyperkalemia are common causes of ventricular tachycardia. Calcium imbalances cause changes in the QT interval and ST segment. Alterations in sodium level don't cause rhythm disturbances.
A 52-year-old male client in the hospital unit where you practice nursing is being treated for myocarditis. Which of the following nursing interventions should you perform to reduce cardiac workload in a client with myocarditis?
Maintain the client on bed rest. The nurse should maintain the client on bed rest to reduce cardiac workload and promote healing. The nurse would administer a prescribed antipyretic only if the client has a fever. The nurse elevates the client's head to promote maximal breathing potential. The nurse should maintain the client on bed rest to reduce cardiac workload and promote healing. This does not preclude allowing the client to have visitors or use the telephone.
When preparing a patient for a cardiac catheterization, the patient states that she has allergies to seafood. Which of the following medications may give to her prior to the procedure?
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
A 6-year-old female client is admitted to the pediatrics unit due to suspected rheumatic fever. Aggressive antibiotic therapy and comfort measures have been instituted to minimize the long-lasting effects of the systemic inflammation. If the client were to develop rheumatic carditis, which cardiac structure would most likely be affected?
Mitral valve In rheumatic carditis, cardiac structures that usually are affected include the heart valves (particularly the mitral valve), endocardium, myocardium, and pericardium. In rheumatic carditis, cardiac structures that usually are affected include the heart valves (particularly the mitral valve), endocardium, myocardium, and pericardium. In rheumatic carditis, cardiac structures that usually are affected include the heart valves (particularly the mitral valve), endocardium, myocardium, and pericardium. In rheumatic carditis, cardiac structures that usually are affected include the heart valves (particularly the mitral valve), endocardium, myocardium, and pericardium.
What nursing interventions could you institute with a client who has a suspected dysrhythmia that would help detect life-threatening dysrhythmias and would manage and minimize any that occur? Monitor blood pressure continuously. Monitor cardiac rhythm continuously. Provide supplemental oxygen. Palpate the client's pulse and observe the client's response.
Monitor cardiac rhythm continuously. The nurse should monitor cardiac rhythm continuously. Cardiac monitors display real-time heart rate and rhythm and alert the nurse to potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias. Monitoring blood pressure continuously and palpating the client's pulse do not help detect life-threatening dysrhythmias. Providing supplemental oxygen helps maintain adequate cardiac output and does not help detect life-threatening dysrhythmias.
Which of the following discharge instructions for self-care should the nurse provide to a patient who has undergone a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) procedure?
Monitor the site for bleeding or hematoma. The nurse provides certain discharge instructions for self-care, such as monitoring the site for bleeding or development of a hard mass indicative of hematoma. A nurse does not advise the patient to clean the site with disinfectants or refrain from sexual activity for one month.
Which of the following nursing interventions must a nurse perform when administering prescribed vasopressors to a patient with a cardiac dysrhythmia?
Monitor vital signs and cardiac rhythm The nurse should monitor the patient's vital signs and cardiac rhythm for effectiveness of the medication and for side effects and should always have emergency life support equipment available when caring for an acutely ill patient. The side effects of vasopressor drugs are hypertension, dysrhythmias, pallor, and oliguria. It is not necessary to place a patient flat during or after vasopressor administration. When administering cholinergic antagonists, documentation of the heart rate is necessary.
Which of the following nursing interventions must a nurse perform when administering prescribed vasopressors to a patient with a cardiac dysrhythmia? Keep the patient flat for one hour after administration Administer every five minutes during cardiac resuscitation Document heart rate before and after administration Monitor vital signs and cardiac rhythm
Monitor vital signs and cardiac rhythm The nurse should monitor the patient's vital signs and cardiac rhythm for effectiveness of the medication and for side effects and should always have emergency life support equipment available when caring for an acutely ill patient. The side effects of vasopressor drugs are hypertension, dysrhythmias, pallor, and oliguria. It is not necessary to place a patient flat during or after vasopressor administration. When administering cholinergic antagonists, documentation of the heart rate is necessary.
The nurse expects to see which of the following characteristics on an ECG strip for a patient who has third-degree AV block?
More P waves than QRS complexes There is no PR interval because there isn't any relationship between the P and R wave. No atrial impulse is conducted through the AV node; atrial and ventricular contractions are independent. With third-degree AV block, two separate impulses stimulate the heart; there is no synchrony or relationship.
The nurse expects to see which of the following characteristics on an ECG strip for a patient who has third-degree AV block? Extended PR interval More P waves than QRS complexes Atrial rate of 60 bpm or below Shortened QRS duration.
More P waves than QRS complexes There is no PR interval because there isn't any relationship between the P and R wave. No atrial impulse is conducted through the AV node; atrial and ventricular contractions are independent. With third-degree AV block, two separate impulses stimulate the heart; there is no synchrony or relationship.
The nurse expects to see which of the following characteristics on an ECG strip for a patient who has third-degree AV block? Extended PR interval More P waves than QRS complexes Atrial rate of 60 bpm or below Shortened QRS duration.
More P waves than QRS complexes There is no PR interval because there isn't any relationship between the P and R wave. No atrial impulse is conducted through the AV node; atrial and ventricular contractions are independent. With third-degree AV block, two separate impulses stimulate the heart; there is no synchrony or relationship.
Upon discharge from the hospital, patients diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI) must be placed on all of the following medications except:
Morphine IV Upon patient discharge, there needs to be documentation that the patient was discharged on a statin, an ACE or angiotensin receptor blocking agent (ARB), and aspirin. Morphine IV is used for these patients to reduce pain and anxiety. The patient would not be discharged with IV morphine.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is having chest pain associated with a myocardial infarction (MI). What medication should the nurse administer intravenously to reduce pain and anxiety?
Morphine sulfate
Which of the following is the analgesic of choice for acute MI?
Morphine sulfate
A client develops cardiogenic pulmonary edema and is extremely apprehensive. What medication can the nurse administer with physician orders that will relieve anxiety and slow respiratory rate?
Morphine sulfate Morphine seems to help relieve respiratory symptoms by depressing higher cerebral centers, thus relieving anxiety and slowing respiratory rate. Morphine also promotes muscle relaxation and reduces the work of breathing.
The nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with myocarditis. Which diagnostic test would the nurse find most helpful in confirming the diagnosis?
Myocardial biopsy When choosing a definitive diagnostic test for myocarditis, a myocardial biopsy is most helpful. All of the other diagnostic tests provide information about the heart but is not as definitive as actually testing the heart muscle.
A patient's heart rate is observed to be 140 bpm on the monitor. The nurse knows that the patient is at risk for what complication
Myocardial ischemia As heart rate increases, diastolic time is shortened, which may not allow adequate time for myocardial perfusion. As a result, patients are at risk for myocardial ischemia (inadequate oxygen supply) during tachycardias (heart rate greater than 100 bpm), especially patients with coronary artery disease.
Which of the following medications is a human brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) preparation?
Natrecor Nesiritide (Natrecor) is a preparation of human BNP that mimics the action of endogenous BNP, causing dieresis and vasodilation, reducing blood pressure, and improving cardiac output. It is a preload and afterload reducer. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker. Captopril and enalapril are angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
The nurse is caring for a male patient who is being evaluated for lipid-lowering medication. The patient's laboratory results reveal the following: Total cholesterol: 230 mg/dL, LDL: 120 mg/dL, and a triglyceride level of 310 mg/dL. Which of the following classes of medications would be most appropriate for the patient based on his laboratory findings?
Nicotinic acids The most appropriate class of medications based on the patient's laboratory findings would be nicotinic acids. This class of medications is prescribed for patients with: minimally elevated cholesterol and LDL levels or as an adjunct to a statin when the lipid goal has not been has not been achieved and triglyceride (TG) levels are elevated.
A patient presents to the ED complaining of anxiety and chest pain after shoveling heavy snow that morning. The patient says that he has not taken nitroglycerin for months but did take three nitroglycerin tablets and although the pain is less, "They did not work all that well. " The patient shows the nurse the nitroglycerin bottle and the prescription was filled 12 months ago. The nurse anticipates which of the following physician orders?
Nitroglycerin SL Nitroglycerin is volatile and is inactivated by heat, moisture, air, light, and time. Nitroglycerin should be renewed every 6 months to ensure full potency. The client's tablets were expired and the nurse should anticipate administering nitroglycerin to assess if the chest pain subsides. The other choices may be ordered at a later time, but the priority is to relieve the patient's chest pain.
A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with a mitral valve prolapse who is asymptomatic. The nurse would expect which of the following to be ordered for this patient?
No treatment required No treatment is required for asymptomatic patients. If symptoms develop, management is aimed at symptomatic control. Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers may be used to relieve chest pain and palpitations. Heparin would not be ordered for this patient.
The nurse is caring for a patient with clubbing of the fingers and toes. The nurse should complete which of the following actions given these findings?
Obtain an oxygen saturation level.
The school nurse is providing care to a child with a sore throat. With any sign of throat infection, the nurse stresses which of the following?
Obtaining a throat culture When a child has a sore throat and symptoms of a possible infection occur, it is essential that a culture is obtained. A culture can identify group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, which needs to be eliminated with use of an antibiotic. Warm, salt gargles; increasing fluids; and administering antiseptic lozenges are helpful for symptom control. Obtaining a throat culture is a priority.
A healthy 46-year-old woman is seeing her health care provider for her annual physical examination. While the nurse is taking the patient's vital signs, the patient states, "Occasionally, my heart skips a beat. Is this normal?" The nurse explains that this feeling is caused by which of the following?
Premature atrial complex
You are working in a long-term care facility with a group of older adults with cardiac disorders. Why would it be important for you to closely monitor an older adult receiving digitalis preparations for cardiac disorders?
Older adults are at increased risk for toxicity. Older adults receiving digitalis preparations are at increased risk for toxicity because of the decreased ability of the kidneys to excrete the drug due to age-related changes. The margin between a therapeutic and toxic effect of digitalis preparations is narrow. Using digitalis preparations does not increase the risk of cardiac arrests, hyperthyroidism, or asthma.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with unstable angina. The client is ordered Nitrostat 1/150 every 5 minutes as needed for angina. Which side effect, emphasized by the nurse, is common especially with the increased dosage?
Orthostatic hypotension
To evaluate a client's atrial depolarization, the nurse observes which part of the electrocardiogram waveform?
P wave
To evaluate a client's atrial depolarization, the nurse observes which part of the electrocardiogram waveform? P wave PR interval QRS complex T wave
P wave The P wave depicts atrial depolarization, or spread of the electrical impulse from the sinoatrial node through the atria. The PR interval represents spread of the impulse through the interatrial and internodal fibers, atrioventricular node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The T wave depicts the relative refractory period, representing ventricular repolarization.
Which of the following tends to be prolonged on the electrocardiogram (ECG) during a first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block? PR interval QRS T wave P wave
PR interval First-degree AV block occurs when atrial conduction is delayed through AV node resulting in a prolonged PR interval. The QRS complex, T wave, and P wave are not prolonged in first-degree AV block.
The nurse is assessing vital signs in a patient with a permanent pacemaker. What should the nurse document about the pacemaker? Date and time of insertion Location of the generator Model number Pacer rate
Pacer rate
The nurse is assessing vital signs in a patient with a permanent pacemaker. What should the nurse document about the pacemaker?
Pacer rate After a permanent pacemaker is inserted, the patient's heart rate and rhythm are monitored by ECG
The nurse is assessing vital signs in a patient with a permanent pacemaker. What should the nurse document about the pacemaker? Date and time of insertion Location of the generator Model number Pacer rate
Pacer rate After a permanent pacemaker is inserted, the patient's heart rate and rhythm are monitored by ECG.
A client with Raynaud's disease complains of cold and numbness in the fingers. Which of the following would the nurse identify as an early sign of vasoconstriction?
Pallor Pallor is the initial symptom in Raynaud's followed by cyanosis and aching pain. Gangrene can occur with persistent attacks and interference of blood flow. Clubbing of the fingers is a symptom associated with chronic oxygen deprivation to the distal phalanges.
A patient admitted to the telemetry unit has a serum potassium level of 6.6 mEq/L. Which of the following electrocardiographic (ECG) characteristics is commonly associated with this laboratory finding?
Peaked T waves The patient's serum potassium level is high. The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or "peaked" if a patient's serum potassium level is high. The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low. The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria and is not affected by a patient's serum potassium level. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization, and is not affected by a patient's serum potassium level.
A healthy 46-year-old woman is seeing her health care provider for her annual physical examination. While the nurse is taking the patient's vital signs, the patient states, "Occasionally, my heart skips a beat. Is this normal?" The nurse explains that this feeling is caused by which of the following?
Premature atrial complex A premature atrial complex (PAC) is a single ECG complex that occurs when an electrical impulse starts in the atrium before the next normal impulse of the sinus node.
A patient admitted to the telemetry unit has a serum potassium level of 6.6 mEq/L. Which of the following electrocardiographic (ECG) characteristics is commonly associated with this laboratory finding? Occasional U waves Peaked T waves Flattened P waves Prolonged QT interval
Peaked T waves The patient's serum potassium level is high. The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or "peaked" if a patient's serum potassium level is high. The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low. The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria and is not affected by a patient's serum potassium level. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization, and is not affected by a patient's serum potassium level.
Postpericardiotomy syndrome may occur in patients who undergo cardiac surgery. The nurse should be alert to which of the following clinical manifestations associated with this syndrome?
Pericardial friction rub The syndrome is characterized by fever, pericardial pain, pleural pain, dyspnea, pericardial effusion, pericardial friction rub, and arthralgia. Leukocytosis (elevated WBCs) occurs, along with elevation of the ESR.
During assessment of a patient with chest pain, the nurse practitioner documents the following characteristics of chest pain: Sharp, substernal of intermittent duration, and radiating to the arms and back. According to the patient, the pain increases with inspiration and swallowing. The pain is alleviated when the patient sits upright. Based on these symptoms, the nurse suspects that the patient may be experiencing which of the following conditions?
Pericarditis Refer to Table 12-2 in the text, where the distinction in the pain characteristics is clearly illustrated.
A patient comes into the emergency room complaining about chest pain that gets worse when taking deep breaths and lying down. After ruling out a myocardial infarction, a nurse would assess for which of the following diagnoses?
Pericarditis The primary symptom of pericarditis is pain, which is assessed by evaluating the patient in various positions. The nurse tries to identify whether pain is influenced by respiratory movements while holding an inhaled breath or holding an exhaled breath; by flexion, extension, or rotation of the spine, including the neck; by movements of shoulders and arms; by coughing; or by swallowing. Recognizing events that precipitate or intensify pain may help establish a diagnosis and differentiate pain of pericarditis from pain of myocardial infarction.
The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately?
Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-sided heart failure. Loss of appetite should be reported immediately. Weight gain should be reported immediately. Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.
The nurse is part of a triage team that is assessing a patient to determine if his chest pain is a manifestation of angina pectoris or an MI. The nurse knows that a primary distinction is that the pain of angina is:
Relieved by rest and nitroglycerin
The nurse does an assessment on a patient who is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. The nurse knows that a significant sign is which of the following?
Pitting edema The presence of pitting edema is a significant sign of right-sided heart failure because it indicates fluid retention of about 10 lbs. Sodium and water are retained because reduced cardiac output causes a compensatory neurohormonal response.
A patient in the recovery room after cardiac surgery begins to have extremity paresthesia, peaked T waves, and mental confusion. What type of electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect this patient is having?
Potassium Hyperkalemia (high potassium) can result in the following ECG changes: tall peaked T waves, wide QRS, and bradycardia. The nurse should be prepared to administer a diuretic or an ion-exchange resin (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]); IV sodium bicarbonate, or IV insulin and glucose. Imbalances in the other electrolytes listed would not result in peaked T waves.
A physician orders digoxin (Lanoxin) for a client with heart failure. During digoxin therapy, which laboratory value may predispose the client to digoxin toxicity?
Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
The nurse is preparing to administer furosemide (Lasix) to a client with severe heart failure. What lab study should be of most concern for this client while taking Lasix?
Potassium level of 3.1
The nurse, caring for a patient after cardiac surgery, is aware that fluid and electrolyte imbalance is a concern. Select the most immediate result that needs to be reported.
Potassium level of 6 mEq/L
A healthy 46-year-old woman is seeing her health care provider for her annual physical examination. While the nurse is taking the patient's vital signs, the patient states, "Occasionally, my heart skips a beat. Is this normal?" The nurse explains that this feeling is caused by which of the following? Premature atrial complex Atrial flutter Sinus tachycardia Ventricular fibrillation
Premature atrial complex A premature atrial complex (PAC) is a single ECG complex that occurs when an electrical impulse starts in the atrium before the next normal impulse of the sinus node.
Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms?
Prolapse
The nurse is caring for a patient following a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The nurse notes persistent oozing of bloody drainage from various puncture sites. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which of the following medications to neutralize the unfractionated heparin the patient received?
Protamine sulfate
A client has had oral anticoagulation ordered. What should you monitor for when your client is taking oral anticoagulation?
Prothrombin time (PT) or international normalized ratio (INR) The nurse should monitor PT or INR when oral anticoagulation is prescribed. Vascular sites for bleeding, urine output, and hourly IV infusions are generally monitored in all clients.
Which of the follow arteries carries deoxygenated blood?
Pulmonary artery
A client is admitted to the hospital with systolic left-sided heart failure. The nurse knows to look for which of the following assessment findings for this client?
Pulmonary congestion
A patient who was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly develops complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath and is visibly anxious. The nurse immediately assesses the patient for other signs and symptoms of which of the following problems?
Pulmonary embolism Pulmonary embolism is a potentially life-threatening disorder typically caused by blood clots in the lungs. This disorder poses a particular threat to people with cardiovascular disease. Blood clots that form in the deep veins of the legs and embolize to the lungs can cause a pulmonary infarction where emboli mechanically obstruct the pulmonary vessels, cutting off the blood supply to sections of the lung. Clinical indicators of pulmonary embolism can vary but typically include dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea.
Which valve lies between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery?
Pulmonic
A 97-year-old client with a history of atrial fibrillation is being admitted to the assisted living center where you practice nursing. In your initial assessment, you measure his apical pulse and compare it to his peripheral pulse. The difference between the two is known as what?
Pulse deficit
The nurse is assessing a patient's blood pressure. What does the nurse document as the difference between the systolic and the diastolic pressure?
Pulse pressure
A client is experiencing an irregular heartbeat. The client asks the nurse how a heartbeat occurs. The nurse explains the conduction system of the heart beginning with the sinoatrial node (SA node). Place the conduction sequence of the heart in order beginning with the SA node. Use all options.
Purkinje fibers AV node Atrial cell stimulation Bundle of His Bundle branches In the normal sequence, the impulse starts in the SA node. The waves of stimulation spread through the atria to the AV node. The impulse then travels from the AV node to the bundle of His, then to the right and left bundle branches, and eventually to the Purkinje fibers.
Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle?
QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. The PR interval is a component of an ECG tracing reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the AV node. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.
The nurse is teaching a beginning EKG class to staff nurses. As the nurse begins to discuss the the parts of the EKG complex, one of the students asks what the normal order of conduction through the heart is. The correct response would be which of the following?
Sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, and the Purkinje fibers
Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? P wave QRS complex PR interval QT interval
QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. The PR interval is a component of an ECG tracing reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the AV node. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.
The nurse is analyzing the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing of a client newly admitted to the cardiac step-down unit with a diagnosis of chest pain. Which of the following findings indicate the need for follow-up?
QT interval that is 0. 46 seconds long The QT interval that is 0.46 seconds long needs to be investigated. The QT interval is usually 0.32 to 0.40 seconds in duration if the heart rate is 65 to 95 bpm. If the QT interval becomes prolonged, the patient may be at risk for a lethal ventricular dysrhythmia called torsades de pointes. The other findings are normal.
The nurse is analyzing the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing of a client newly admitted to the cardiac step-down unit with a diagnosis of chest pain. Which of the following findings indicate the need for follow-up? QT interval that is 0. 46 seconds long PR interval that is 0.18 seconds long QRS complex that is 0.10 seconds long ST segment that is isoelectric in appearance
QT interval that is 0. 46 seconds long The QT interval that is 0.46 seconds long needs to be investigated. The QT interval is usually 0.32 to 0.40 seconds in duration if the heart rate is 65 to 95 bpm. If the QT interval becomes prolonged, the patient may be at risk for a lethal ventricular dysrhythmia called torsades de pointes. The other findings are normal.
A client is being evaluated for coronary artery disease (CAD) and is scheduled for an electron beam computed tomography. The nurse understands that the primary advantage of this radiologic test is which of the following?
Quantifies calcified plaque The primary advantage of EBCT is to detect and quantify calcified plaque in the coronary arteries even before symptoms arise. EBCT is noninvasive and provides clearer images with less exposure to radiation than a CT scan but not the primary reason for use.
A nursing student is assigned to the medical intensive care unit for the first time. The nurse preceptor asks the student to listen to a water-hammer pulse. The nursing student knows that the sound will resemble which of the following?
Quick, sharp strokes that suddenly collapse
You are the clinic nurse doing assessments on your clients before they have outpatient diagnostic testing done. What would you document when assessing the client's pulse?
Rate, quality, and rhythm Assess apical and radial pulses, noting rate, quality, and rhythm. Pulse quality and volume are not assessed in this instance.
Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate when caring for a client with a nursing diagnosis of risk for injury related to side effects of medication (enoxaparin [Lovenox])?
Report any incident of bloody urine, stools, or both. The client who takes an anticoagulant, such as a low-molecular-weight heparin, is routinely screened for bloody urine, stools, or both.
Which is a potassium-sparing diuretic used in the treatment of heart failure?
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
Which of the following is an action of the intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)?
Reduction of left ventricular afterload The IABP decreases the workload of the heart by reducing left ventricular afterload. Additionally, it improves coronary artery blood flow by increasing coronary artery perfusion pressure. It does not reduce left or right ventricular preload.
The nurse is caring for a client who has developed junctional tachycardia with a heart rate (HR) of 80 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse complete?
Request a digoxin level be ordered. The nurse should request a digoxin level be obtained. Junctional tachycardia generally does not have any detrimental hemodynamic effect; it may indicate a serious underlying condition, such as digitalis toxicity, myocardial ischemia, hypokalemia, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Potassium supplements do not cause junctional tachycardia. Lidocaine is indicated for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Because junctional tachycardia is caused by increased automaticity, cardioversion is not an effective treatment; in fact, it causes an increase in ventricular rate
The nurse is caring for a client who has developed junctional tachycardia with a heart rate (HR) of 80 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse complete? Request a digoxin level be ordered. Withhold the patient's oral potassium supplement. Prepare for emergent electrical cardioversion. Prepare to administer IV lidocaine.
Request a digoxin level be ordered. The nurse should request a digoxin level be obtained. Junctional tachycardia generally does not have any detrimental hemodynamic effect; it may indicate a serious underlying condition, such as digitalis toxicity, myocardial ischemia, hypokalemia, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Potassium supplements do not cause junctional tachycardia. Lidocaine is indicated for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Because junctional tachycardia is caused by increased automaticity, cardioversion is not an effective treatment; in fact, it causes an increase in ventricular rate.
The nurse recognizes which of the following symptoms as a classic sign of cardiogenic shock?
Restlessness and confusion Cardiogenic shock occurs when decreased cardiac output leads to inadequate tissue perfusion and initiation of the shock syndrome. Inadequate tissue perfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation).
Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy are characterized by diastolic dysfunction caused by rigid ventricular walls that impair diastolic filling and ventricular stretch.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy (RCM)
A nurse is conducting a heath history on a patient with a primary diagnosis of mitral stenosis. Which of the following disorders reported by the patient is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
Rheumatic endocarditis Mitral stenosis is most often caused by rheumatic endocarditis, which progressively thickens the mitral valve leaflets and chordate tendineae. Leaflets often fuse together. Eventually, the mitral valve orifice narrows and progressively obstructs blood flow into the ventricle.
A patient comes to the clinic with complaints of fever, chills, and sore throat and is diagnosed with streptococcal pharyngitis. A nurse knows that early diagnosis and effective treatment is essential to avoid which of the following preventable diseases?
Rheumatic fever Rheumatic fever is a preventable disease. Diagnosing and effectively treating streptococcal pharyngitis can prevent rheumatic fever and, therefore, rheumatic heart disease.
Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for mitral stenosis?
Rheumatic fever The most significant risk factor for mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, which gradually causes the mitral valve leaflets to thicken and can result in leaflet fusion. Risk factors for aortic regurgitation are infective endocarditis, Marfan's syndrome, and a dissecting aortic aneurysm.
The nurse is placing electrodes for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). The nurse would be correct in placing an electrode on which area for V1?
Right side of sternum, fourth intercostal space view V1, the electrodes would be placed on the right side of the sternum, fourth intercostal space. V2 is the left side of the sternum, fourth intercostal space. V3 is midway between V2 and V4. V4 is at the mid-clavicular line, fifth intercostal space.
It is important for a nurse to be aware of the normal hemodynamics of blood flow to recognize and understand pathology when it occurs. The nurse should know that incomplete closure of the tricuspid valve results in a backward flow of blood from the:
Right ventricle to the right atrium
It is important for a nurse to understand cardiac hemodynamics. For blood to flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, the following must occur:
Right ventricular pressure must be higher than pulmonary arterial pressure.
A client is admitted to the ICU with a diagnosis of heart failure. The client is exhibiting symptoms of weakness, ascites, weight gain, and jugular vein distention. The nurse would know that the client is exhibiting signs of what kind of heart failure?
Right-sided heart failure
The nurse is observing a patient during an exercise stress test (bicycle). Which of the following findings indicates a positive test and the need for further diagnostic testing?
ST-segment changes on the ECG During the test, the following are monitored: two or more ECG leads for heart rate, rhythm, and ischemic changes; BP; skin temperature; physical appearance; perceived exertion; and symptoms, including chest pain, dyspnea, dizziness, leg cramping, and fatigue. The test is terminated when the target heart rate is achieved or if the patient experiences signs of myocardial ischemia. Further diagnostic testing, such as a cardiac catheterization, may be warranted if the patient develops chest pain, extreme fatigue, a decrease in BP or pulse rate, serious dysrhythmias or ST-segment changes on the ECG during the stress test. The other findings would not warrant the testing to be stopped.
A nurse is caring for a client with acute mitral regurgitation related to an acute myocardial infarction. The nurse knows to monitor the client carefully for symptoms of which initial complication or result?
Severe heart failure Acute mitral regurgitation usually manifests as severe congestive heart failure, resulting from blood flowing backward from the left ventricle to the left atria and eventually into the lungs. Kidney failure could become a problem later if cardiac output is too low, but not initially. CVA and an infarcted bowel would not be caused by mitral regurgitation.
A patient has been diagnosed with systolic heart failure. The nurse would expect the patient's ejection fraction to be at which level?
Severely reduced The ejection fraction is normal in diastolic heart failure, but severely reduced in systolic heart failure.
A patient with a myocardial infarction develops acute mitral valve regurgitation. The nurse knows to assess for which of the following manifestations that would indicate that the patient is developing pulmonary congestion?
Shortness of breath Chronic mitral regurgitation is often asymptomatic, but acute mitral regurgitation (e.g., resulting from a myocardial infarction) usually manifests as severe congestive heart failure. Dyspnea, fatigue and weakness are the most common symptoms. Palpitations, shortness of breath on exertion, and cough from pulmonary congestion also occur.
A client reports recent onset of chest pain that occurs sporadically with exertion. The client also has fatigue and mild ankle swelling, which is most pronounced at the end of the day. The nurse suspects a cardiovascular disorder. What other client complaint increases the likelihood of a cardiovascular disorder?
Shortness of breath Common signs and symptoms of cardiovascular dysfunction include shortness of breath, chest pain, palpitations, fainting, fatigue, and peripheral edema. Insomnia seldom indicates a cardiovascular problem. Although irritability may occur if cardiovascular dysfunction leads to cerebral oxygen deprivation, this symptom more commonly reflects a respiratory or neurologic dysfunction. Lower substernal abdominal pain occurs with some GI disorders.
The nurse is preparing to defibrillate a client with no breathing or pulse. Which nursing action precedes the nurse pressing the discharge button?
Shouts, "All clear"
The nurse is teaching a beginning EKG class to staff nurses. As the nurse begins to discuss the the parts of the EKG complex, one of the students asks what the normal order of conduction through the heart is. The correct response would be which of the following? Sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, and the Purkinje fibers AV node, SA node, bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, and the Purkinje fibers SA node, AV node, right and left bundle branches, bundle of His, and the Purkinje fibers SA node, AV node, bundle of His, the Purkinje fibers, and the right and left bundle branches
Sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, and the Purkinje fibers
A 66-year-old female client is having cardiac diagnostic tests to determine the cause of her symptoms. In her follow-up visit to the cardiologist, she is told that she has a dysrhythmia at a rate slower than 60 beats/minute. What type of dysrhythmia did the tests reveal?
Sinus bradycardia
A patient comes to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain after using cocaine. The nurse assesses the patient and obtains vital signs with results as follows: blood pressure 140/92, heart rate 128, respiratory rate 26, and an oxygen saturation of 98%. What rhythm on the monitor does the nurse anticipate viewing?
Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate. Causes include medications that stimulate the sympathetic response (e.g., catecholamines, aminophylline, atropine), stimulants (e.g., caffeine, nicotine), and illicit drugs (e.g., amphetamines, cocaine, Ecstasy).
A patient comes to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain after using cocaine. The nurse assesses the patient and obtains vital signs with results as follows: blood pressure 140/92, heart rate 128, respiratory rate 26, and an oxygen saturation of 98%. What rhythm on the monitor does the nurse anticipate viewing? Sinus bradycardia Ventricular tachycardia Normal sinus rhythm Sinus tachycardia
Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate. Causes include medications that stimulate the sympathetic response (e.g., catecholamines, aminophylline, atropine), stimulants (e.g., caffeine, nicotine), and illicit drugs (e.g., amphetamines, cocaine, Ecstasy).
Admission lab values on a patient admitted with congestive heart failure are as follows: potassium 3.4 mEq/L; sodium 148 mEq/L; calcium 9.8 mg/dL; and magnesium 1.5 mEq/L. Which lab value is abnormal?
Sodium
A nurse is aware that the patient's heart rate is influenced by many factors. The nurse understands that the heart rate can be decreased by:
Stimulation of the vagus nerve Parasympathetic impulses, which travel to the heart through the vagus nerve, can slow the cardiac rate. The other choices cause an increase in heart rate.
A 65-year-old male client with CAD has been prescribed a transdermal nitroglycerin patch. The nurse's instructions to the client would include which of the following? Select all that apply.
Store the patch in its original container when not in use. Remove the transdermal patch at night and reapply in the morning. Transdermal nitroglycerin systems are applied to the skin and slowly release nitroglycerin. Clients should be instructed to store the patch in its original container when not in use and keep tightly closed, remove the patch each night and reapply in the morning to prevent diminishing vasodilating effects, and expect possible side effects, such as headache, flushing, or nausea
Which of the following terms describes the amount of blood ejected per heartbeat?
Stroke volume
A client was transferring a load of fire wood from his front driveway to his backyard woodpile at 10 a.m. when he experienced a heaviness in his chest and dyspnea. He stopped working and rested, and the pain subsided. At noon, the pain returned. At 1:30 p.m., his wife took him to the emergency department. Around 2 p.m., the emergency department physician diagnoses an anterior myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should anticipate which orders by the physician?
Sublingual nitroglycerin, tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), and telemetry The nurse should anticipate an order for sublingual nitroglycerin, tPA, and telemetry. (The client's chest pain began 4 hours before diagnosis.) The preferred choice is tPA, which is more specific for cardiac tissue than streptokinase. Stress testing shouldn't be performed during an MI. The client doesn't exhibit symptoms that indicate the use of lidocaine.
Your patient is experiencing asymptomatic sinus tachycardia with a rate of 118. The nurse understands that the treatment of this condition includes:
Treating the underlying cause Sinus tachycardia occurs in response to an underlying condition and will usually resolve once that condition is corrected.
Which of the following is a manifestation of right-sided heart failure?
Systemic venous congestion
The registered nurse reviewed the patient's q4h vital signs recorded by the LPN. He noticed a consistent pattern of heart rate recordings between 48 and 58 bpm over a 24-hour period of time. The nurse, aware that bradycardia can be a side-effect of medications, checked the patient's electronic health record. Select the medication that might cause bradycardia.
Tenormin Beta-blockers can lower the heart rate. The other choices stimulate the sympathetic response.
The registered nurse reviewed the patient's q4h vital signs recorded by the LPN. He noticed a consistent pattern of heart rate recordings between 48 and 58 bpm over a 24-hour period of time. The nurse, aware that bradycardia can be a side-effect of medications, checked the patient's electronic health record. Select the medication that might cause bradycardia. Aminophylline Atropine Tenormin Epinephrine
Tenormin Beta-blockers can lower the heart rate. The other choices stimulate the sympathetic response.
Your patient is experiencing asymptomatic sinus tachycardia with a rate of 118. The nurse understands that the treatment of this condition includes: Treating the underlying cause Electrical cardioversion Administration of amiodarone Immediate defibrillation
Treating the underlying cause Sinus tachycardia occurs in response to an underlying condition and will usually resolve once that condition is corrected.
Which of the following medications does the nurse anticipate administering to a client preparing for cardioversion? Atropine Lanoxin Vasotec Valium
Valium Prior to cardioversion, cardiac medications are held, and the client is sedated with a medication such as Valium.
You are evaluating the expected outcomes on a client who is recovering from a cardiac catheterization. What is an expected outcome that you would evaluate?
The client and family understands the discharge instructions. The client is relaxed and feels secure. The test is performed uneventfully or the client is stabilized when complications are managed successfully. The client and family have an accurate understanding of the diagnostic testing process and discharge instructions. The scenario does not indicate that the client has a CV diagnosis, a need for medication, or a need to restrict their activity for 72 hours.
The client is admitted for a scheduled cardiac catheterization. On the morning of the procedure, while assessing the client's morning laboratory values, the nurse notes a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 34 mg/dL and a creatinine of 4.2 mg/dL. The nurse makes it a priority to notify the physician for which of the following reasons?
The client is at risk for renal failure due to the contrast agent that will be given during the procedure. The contrast medium must be excreted by the kidneys. If there is already a degree of renal impairment (which these laboratory values indicate), the risk for contrast agent-induced nepropathy and renal failure is high.
A client with right-sided heart failure is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. What information obtained from the client may indicate the presence of edema?
The client says his rings have become tight and are difficult to remove.
Your patient is experiencing asymptomatic sinus tachycardia with a rate of 118. The nurse understands that the treatment of this condition includes: Treating the underlying cause Electrical cardioversion Administration of amiodarone Immediate defibrillation
Treating the underlying cause Sinus tachycardia occurs in response to an underlying condition and will usually resolve once that condition is corrected.
A nurse is administering lanoxin, which she knows increases contractility as well as cardiac output. Contractility refers to which of the following?
The force of the contraction related to the status of the myocardium
A nurse caring for a patient with mitral stenosis understands that the initial cause of disruption to the normal flow of blood through the heart is due to:
The increased resistance of a narrowed orifice between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
Two female nursing assistants approach a nurse on a cardiac step-down unit to report that a client who experienced an acute myocardial infarction made sexual comments to them. How should the nurse intervene?
The nurse should explain that the client might have concerns about resuming sexual activity but is afraid to ask. Sometimes clients are concerned about resuming sexual activity but are afraid to ask. Making inappropriate sexual comments provides a forum for asking questions. It isn't necessary to report the incident to the nursing supervisor immediately without investigating the situation further. The client's call light must be answered in a timely fashion. More information is needed before assuming that the client is asking for extra attention.
The patient has had biomarkers drawn after complaining of chest pain. Which diagnostic of myocardial infarction remains elevated for as long as 3 weeks?
Troponin Troponin remains elevated for a long period, often as long as 3 weeks, and it therefore can be used to detect recent myocardial damage. Myoglobin returns to normal in 12 hours. Total CK returns to normal in 3 days. CK-MB returns to normal in 3 to 4 days.
A patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) is having a cardiac catheterization. What indicator is present for the patient to have a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)?
The patient has at least a 70% occlusion of a major coronary artery. For a patient to be considered for CABG, the coronary arteries to be bypassed must have approximately a 70% occlusion (60% if in the left main coronary artery).
A nurse caring for a patient with cardiomyopathy determines a diagnosis of anxiety related to a fear of death. Which of the following patient behaviors would indicate to the nurse that the patient's level of anxiety has decreased?
The patient is able to discuss the prognosis freely. As anxiety decreases, patients will be able to discuss prognosis freely, verbalize fears and concerns, and participate in support groups.
The licensed practical nurse is co-assigned with a registered nurse in the care of a client admitted to the cardiac unit with chest pain. The licensed practical nurse is assessing the accuracy of the cardiac monitor, which notes a heart rate of 34 beats/minute. The client appears anxious and states not feeling well. The licensed practical nurse confirms the monitor reading. When consulting with the registered nurse, which of the following is anticipated?
The registered nurse administering atropine sulfate intravenously The licensed practical nurse and registered nurse both identify that client's bradycardia. Atropine sulfate, a cholinergic blocking agent, is given intravenously (IV) to increase a dangerously slow heart rate. Lanoxin is not administered when the pulse rate falls under 60 beats/minute. It is dangerous to wait until the pulse rate increases without nursing intervention or administering additional medications until the imminent concern is addressed.
The licensed practical nurse is co-assigned with a registered nurse in the care of a client admitted to the cardiac unit with chest pain. The licensed practical nurse is assessing the accuracy of the cardiac monitor, which notes a heart rate of 34 beats/minute. The client appears anxious and states not feeling well. The licensed practical nurse confirms the monitor reading. When consulting with the registered nurse, which of the following is anticipated? The registered nurse stating to administer Lanoxin (digoxin) The registered nurse administering atropine sulfate intravenously The registered nurse stating to hold all medication until the pulse rate returns to 60 beats/minute The registered nurse stating to administer all medications except those which are cardiotonics
The registered nurse administering atropine sulfate intravenously The licensed practical nurse and registered nurse both identify that client's bradycardia. Atropine sulfate, a cholinergic blocking agent, is given intravenously (IV) to increase a dangerously slow heart rate. Lanoxin is not administered when the pulse rate falls under 60 beats/minute. It is dangerous to wait until the pulse rate increases without nursing intervention or administering additional medications until the imminent concern is addressed.
The patient has a heart rate of 72 bpm with a regular rhythm. Where does the nurse determine the impulse arises from?
The sinoatrial node
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pericarditis. Where does the nurse understand the inflammation is located?
The thin fibrous sac encasing the heart
A nurse is preparing a teaching plan regarding biological tissue valve replacement. Which of the following identifies a disadvantage of this type of valve replacement?
The valve has to be replaced frequently. Biological valves deteriorate and need to be replaced frequently. They do not necessitate accompanying anticoagulant therapy. Infections are easier to treat and the risk of thromboembolism is lower as compared with mechanical valves.
When no atrial impulse is conducted through the AV node into the ventricles, the patient is said to be experiencing which type of AV block?
Third degree In third degree heart block, two impulses stimulate the heart, one impulse stimulates the ventricles and other stimulates the atria. In first degree heart block, all the atrial impulses are conducted through the AV node into the ventricles at a rate slower than normal. In second degree AV block, type I, all but one of the atrial impulses are conducted through the AV node into the ventricles. In second degree AV block, type II, only some of the atrial impulses are conducted through the AV node into the ventricles.
When no atrial impulse is conducted through the AV node into the ventricles, the patient is said to be experiencing which type of AV block? First degree Second degree, type I Second degree, type II Third degree
Third degree In third degree heart block, two impulses stimulate the heart, one impulse stimulates the ventricles and other stimulates the atria. In first degree heart block, all the atrial impulses are conducted through the AV node into the ventricles at a rate slower than normal. In second degree AV block, type I, all but one of the atrial impulses are conducted through the AV node into the ventricles. In second degree AV block, type II, only some of the atrial impulses are conducted through the AV node into the ventricles.
Which of the following is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock?
Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). Low blood pressure is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock. Hypoactive bowel sounds are classic signs of cardiogenic shock. Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.
In the treatment of coronary artery disease (CAD), medications are often ordered to control blood pressure in the client. Which of the following is a primary purpose of using beta-adrenergic blockers in the nursing management of CAD?
To decrease workload of the heart Beta-adrenergic blockers are used in the treatment of CAD to decrease the myocardial oxygen by reducing heart rate and workload of the heart. Nitrates are used for vasodilation. Anti-lipid drugs (such as statins and Bvitamins) are used to decrease homocysteine levels. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin.
Which of the following instructions should a nurse provide a patient with a history of rheumatic fever before the patient has any dental work done?
To take prophylactic antibiotics
The nurse is awaiting results of cardiac biomarkers for a patient with severe chest pain. The nurse would identify which cardiac biomarker as remaining elevated the longest when myocardial damage has occurred?
Troponin T and I After myocardial injury, these biomarkers rise early (within 3 to 4 hours), peak in 4 to 24 hours, and remain elevated for 1 to 3 weeks. These early and prolonged elevations may make very early diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) possible and allow for late diagnosis in patients who have delayed seeking care for several days after the onset of acute MI symptoms. CK-MB returns to normal within 3 to 4 days. Myoglobin returns to normal within 24 hours. BNP is not considered a cardiac biomarker. It is a neurohormone that responds to volume overload in the heart by acting as a diuretic and vasodilator.
The nurse is participating in the care of a client requiring emergent defibrillation. The nurse will complete the following steps in which order?
Turn on the defibrillator and place it in "not sync" mode. Charge the defibrillator to the prescribed voltage. Apply the multifunction conductor pads to the patient's chest. Call "clear" three times ensuring patient and environmental safety. Deliver the prescribed electrical charge.
The nurse is participating in the care of a client requiring emergent defibrillation. The nurse will complete the following steps in which order? Turn on the defibrillator and place it in "not sync" mode. Charge the defibrillator to the prescribed voltage. Apply the multifunction conductor pads to the patient's chest. Call "clear" three times ensuring patient and environmental safety. Deliver the prescribed electrical charge.
Turn on the defibrillator and place it in "not sync" mode. Charge the defibrillator to the prescribed voltage. Apply the multifunction conductor pads to the patient's chest. Call "clear" three times ensuring patient and environmental safety. Deliver the prescribed electrical charge. This is the sequence of events the nurse should implement when delivering emergent defibrillation. If not followed correctly, the patient and health care team may be placed in danger.
You are discussing complications of a pacemaker with a group of nursing students. One of the students asks about complications associated with use of a cardiac pacemaker. Which of the following items are considered complications of a pacemaker? Choose all that apply. a. Twiddler syndrome b. Hiccuping c. Positive Kernig's d. Local infection e. Negative Babinski Correct answers: a, b, and d Twiddler syndrome Hiccuping Positive Kernig's sign Localized infection Negative Babinski reflex
Twiddler syndrome Hiccuping Localized infection Complications associated with pacemakers include infection at entry site, pneumothorax, bleeding and hematoma, hemothorax, ventricular ectopy and tachycardia, phrenic nerve/diaphragmatic(hiccupping)/skeletal stimulation, cardiac perforation, Twiddler syndrome, and hemodynamic instability. A positive Kernig's sign is an indication of meningitis. A positive Babinski reflex is normal in neonates, but indicates a central nervous system disorder in adults.
You are discussing complications of a pacemaker with a group of nursing students. One of the students asks about complications associated with use of a cardiac pacemaker. Which of the following items are considered complications of a pacemaker? Choose all that apply. a. Twiddler syndrome b. Hiccuping c. Positive Kernig's d. Local infection e. Negative Babinski
Twiddler syndrome Hiccuping Localized infection Complications associated with pacemakers include infection at entry site, pneumothorax, bleeding and hematoma, hemothorax, ventricular ectopy and tachycardia, phrenic nerve/diaphragmatic(hiccupping)/skeletal stimulation, cardiac perforation, Twiddler syndrome, and hemodynamic instability. A positive Kernig's sign is an indication of meningitis. A positive Babinski reflex is normal in neonates, but indicates a central nervous system disorder in adults.
Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low?
U wave
Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? U wave T wave P wave QT interval
U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low. The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or "peaked" if a patient's serum potassium level is high. The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.
When the patient diagnosed with angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the pain to occur, the nurse recognizes that the patient is describing which type of angina?
Unstable Unstable angina is also called crescendo or preinfarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment. Intractable or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment. Variant angina is described as pain at rest with reversible ST-segment elevation and is thought to be caused by coronary artery vasospasm. Intractable or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment.
Which of the following is also termed preinfarction angina?
Unstable Angina Preinfarction angina is also known as unstable angina. Stable angina has predictable and consistent pain that occurs on exertion and it relieved by rest. Variant angina is exhibited by pain at rest with reversible ST-segment elevation. In silent angina, there is evidence of ischemia, but the patient reports no symptoms.
The nurse knows that women and the elderly are at greater risk for a fatal myocardial event. Which factor is the primary contributor of this cause?
Vague symptoms Often, women and elderly do not have the typical chest pain associated with a myocardial infarction. Some report vague symptoms (fatigue, abdominal pain), which can lead to misdiagnosis. Some older adults may experience little or no chest pain. Gender is not a contributing factor for fatal occurrence but rather a result of symptoms association.
Which of the following medications does the nurse anticipate administering to a client preparing for cardioversion?
Valium Prior to cardioversion, cardiac medications are held, and the client is sedated with a medication such as Valium.
The physician writes orders for a patient to receive an angiotensin II receptor blocker for treatment of heart failure. What medication does the nurse administer?
Valsartan (Diovan) Valsartan (Diovan) is the only angiotensin receptor blocker listed. Digitalis/digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside. Metolazone (Zaroxolyn) is a thiazide diuretic. Carvedilol (Coreg) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (beta-blocker).
A patient who had a myocardial infarction is experiencing severe chest pain and alerts the nurse. The nurse begins the assessment but suddenly the patient becomes unresponsive, no pulse, with the monitor showing a rapid, disorganized ventricular rhythm. What does the nurse interpret this rhythm to be?
Ventricular fibrillation The most common dysrhythmia in patients with cardiac arrest is ventricular fibrillation, which is a rapid, disorganized ventricular rhythm that causes ineffective quivering of the ventricles. No atrial activity is seen on the ECG. The most common cause of ventricular fibrillation is coronary artery disease and resulting acute myocardial infarction. Ventricular fibrillation is always characterized by the absence of an audible heartbeat, a palpable pulse, and respirations
A patient who had a myocardial infarction is experiencing severe chest pain and alerts the nurse. The nurse begins the assessment but suddenly the patient becomes unresponsive, no pulse, with the monitor showing a rapid, disorganized ventricular rhythm. What does the nurse interpret this rhythm to be? Ventricular tachycardia Atrial fibrillation Third-degree heart block Ventricular fibrillation
Ventricular fibrillation The most common dysrhythmia in patients with cardiac arrest is ventricular fibrillation, which is a rapid, disorganized ventricular rhythm that causes ineffective quivering of the ventricles. No atrial activity is seen on the ECG. The most common cause of ventricular fibrillation is coronary artery disease and resulting acute myocardial infarction. Ventricular fibrillation is always characterized by the absence of an audible heartbeat, a palpable pulse, and respirations.
Myocarditis is most commonly caused by which of the following?
Viral infection
The nurse understands that which of the following medications will be administered for 6 to 12 weeks following prosthetic porcine valve surgery?
Warfarin To reduce the risk of thrombosis in patients with porcine or bovine tissue valves, warfarin is required for 6 to 12 weeks, followed by aspirin therapy. Furosemide would not be given for 6 to 12 weeks following this type of surgery.
A patient with hypertension has a newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering to prevent the complication of atrial thrombi?
Warfarin (Coumadin) Because atrial function may be impaired for several weeks after cardioversion, warfarin is indicated for at least 4 weeks after the procedure. Patients may be given amiodarone (Cordarone), flecainide (Tambocor), ibutilide (Corvert), propafenone (Rythmol), or sotalol (Betapace) prior to cardioversion to enhance the success of cardioversion and prevent relapse of the atrial fibrillation (Fuster, Rydén et al., 2011).
A 23-year-old female client has been diagnosed with Raynaud's disease. The nurse teaches the client which of the following self-care strategies to minimize risks associated with this disease? Select all that apply.
Wear gloves to protect hands from injury when performing tasks. Do not smoke or stop smoking. Avoid over-the-counter decongestants and cold remedies The nurse instructs clients with Raynaud's disease to quit smoking, avoid over-the-counter decongestants, cold remedies, and drugs for symptomatic relief of hay fever because of their vasoconstrictive qualities, protect hands and feet from injury, and wear warm socks and mittens when going outdoors in the cold weather
A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client's fluid status?
Weighing the client daily at the same time each day Increased fluid volume leads to rapid weight gain — 2.2 lb (1 kg) for each liter of fluid retained. Weighing the client daily at the same time and in similar clothing provides more objective data than measuring fluid intake and output, which may be inaccurate because of omitted measurements such as insensible losses.
When assessing a patient with left-sided heart failure, what would be noted on auscultation of lungs?
Wheezes with wet lung sounds f the left side of the heart fails to pump efficiently, blood backs up into the pulmonary veins and lung tissue. For abnormal and normal breath sounds, the nurse auscultates the lungs. With left-sided congestive heart failure, auscultation reveals a crackling sound and wheezes and gurgles. Wet lung sounds are accompanied by dyspnea and an effort to sit up to breathe. With left-sided congestive heart failure, auscultation does not reveal high pitch sound.
The nurse caring for a client with cardiomyopathy plans to have an education session with the client and her spouse about ways to improve cardiac output and reduce the workload of the heart. Which of the following instructions would help reduce preload, and therefore, reduce the workload of the heart?
When resting, sit up with the legs down to pool blood in the legs. Many clients find that sitting up with their legs down is more comfortable than lying in bed. This position is helpful in pooling venous blood in the periphery and reducing preload.
Which nursing actions would be of greatest importance in the management of a client preparing for angioplasty?
Withhold anticoagulant therapy. The nurse knows to withhold the anticoagulant therapy to decrease chance of hemorrhage during the procedure. The nurse does inform the client of diagnostic test, will assess pulses, and prep the skin prior to the angioplasty, but this is not the most important action to be taken.
Which of the following nursing interventions should a nurse perform when a patient with valvular disorder of the heart has a heart rate less than 60 beats/min before administering beta blockers?
Withhold the drug and inform the primary health care provider. Before administering beta blockers, the nurse should monitor the patient's apical pulse. If the heart rate is less than 60 bpm, the nurse should withhold the drug and inform the primary health care provider.
The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. The nurse obtains an apical pulse rate for 1 minute and determines a rate of 52 beats/minute. What is the first action by the nurse?
Withhold the medication and notify the physician of the heart rate. Digitalis drugs are withheld if the heart rate is less than 60 or more than 120 beats/minute until a physician is consulted. The other choices would have the nurse administer the drug, which would not be the standard of practice.
A client with chest pain doesn't respond to nitroglycerin. When he's admitted to the emergency department, the health care team obtains an electrocardiogram and administers I.V. morphine. The physician also considers administering alteplase (Activase). This thrombolytic agent must be administered how soon after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) symptoms?
Within 6 hours For the best chance of salvaging the client's myocardium, a thrombolytic agent must be administered within 6 hours after onset of chest pain or other signs or symptoms of MI. Sudden death is most likely to occur within the first 24 hours after an MI. Physicians initiate I.V. heparin therapy after administration of a thrombolytic agent; it usually continues for 5 to 7 days
Patients who are taking beta-adrenergic blocking agents should be cautioned not to stop taking their medications abruptly because which of the following may occur?
Worsening angina Patients taking beta blockers are cautioned not to stop taking them abruptly because angina may worsen and myocardial infarction may develop. Beta blockers do not cause the formation of blood clots, internal bleeding, or thrombocytopenia.
Which type of graft is utilized when a heart valve replacement is made of tissue from an animal heart valve?
Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue. An autograft is a heart valve replacement made from the patient's own heart valve. Allograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for homograft. Homograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for allograft.
The cardiologist has scheduled a 57-year-old male client for drug-induced stress testing. To prepare the client for this test, the nurse should instruct him about which of the following?
You will receive medication via IV administration.
The nurse is proving discharge instruction for a patient with a new arrhythmia. Which of the following should the nurse include?
Your family and friends may want to take a CPR class. Having friends and family learn to take a pulse and perform CPR will help patients to manage their condition. Antiarrhythmic medication should be taken on time. Lightheadedness and dizziness are symptoms which should be reported to the provider.
The nurse is proving discharge instruction for a patient with a new arrhythmia. Which of the following should the nurse include? Your family and friends may want to take a CPR class. It is not necessary to learn how to take your own pulse. If you miss a dose of your antiarrhythmia medication, double up on the next dose. Do not be concerned if you experience symptoms of lightheadedness and dizziness.
Your family and friends may want to take a CPR class. Having friends and family learn to take a pulse and perform CPR will help patients to manage their condition. Antiarrhythmic medication should be taken on time. Lightheadedness and dizziness are symptoms which should be reported to the provider.
During the insertion of a rigid scope for bronchoscopy, a client experiences a vasovagal response. The nurse should expect:
a drop in the client's heart rate. During a bronchoscopy, a vasovagal response may be caused by stimulating the pharynx, and it, in turn, may cause stimulation of the vagus nerve. The client may, therefore, experience a sudden drop in heart rate leading to syncope. Stimulation of the vagus nerve doesn't lead to pupillary dilation or bronchodilation. Stimulation of the vagus nerve increases gastric secretions.
When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, the nurse expects to note:
air hunger. With left-sided heart failure, the client typically has air hunger and other signs of pulmonary congestion. Ascites, jugular vein distention, and pitting edema of the legs are signs of right-sided heart failure.
A client with chronic arterial occlusive disease undergoes percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) for mechanical dilation of the right femoral artery. After the procedure, the client will require long-term administration of:
aspirin or clopidogrel (Plavix). fter PTCA, the client begins long-term aspirin or clopidogrel therapy to prevent thromboembolism. Physicians order heparin for anticoagulation during this procedure; some physicians discharge clients with a prescription for long-term warfarin (Coumadin) or low-molecular-weight heparin therapy. Pentoxifylline, a vasodilator used to treat chronic arterial occlusion, isn't required after PTCA because the procedure itself opens the vessel. The physician may order short-term acetaminophen therapy to manage fever or discomfort, but prolonged therapy isn't warranted. The client may need an antibiotic, such as penicillin or erythromycin, for a brief period to prevent infection associated with an invasive procedure; long-term therapy isn't necessary.
A client reports light-headedness, chest pain, and shortness of breath. The physician orders tests to ascertain what is causing the client's problems. Which test is used to identify cardiac rhythms? electrocardiogram electroencephalogram echocardiogram electrocautery
electrocardiogram An electrocardiogram is used to identify normal and abnormal cardiac rhythms
:Following a myocardial infarction, a client develops an arrhythmia and requires a continuous infusion of lidocaine. To monitor the effectiveness of the intervention, the nurse should focus primarily on the client's:
electrocardiogram (ECG). Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic and is given for the treatment of cardiac irritability and ventricular arrhythmias. The best indicator of its effectiveness is a reduction in or disappearance of ventricular arrhythmias as seen on an ECG. Urine output is an indicator of pump effectiveness; CK and troponin levels monitor myocardial damage. Blood pressure and heart rate measurements are too nonspecific to help determine the effectiveness of parenteral lidocaine.
A client asks the nurse what causes the heart to be an effective pump. The nurse informs the client that this is due to the: inherent rhythmicity of cardiac muscle tissue. inherent rhythmicity of all muscle tissue. sufficient blood pressure. inherent electrons in muscle tissue.
inherent rhythmicity of cardiac muscle tissue. Cardiac rhythm refers to the pattern (or pace) of the heartbeat. The conduction system of the heart and the inherent rhythmicity of cardiac muscle produce a rhythm pattern, which greatly influences the heart's ability to pump blood effectively.
A client is diagnosed with a dysrhythmia at a rate slower than 60 beats/minute. What type of dysrhythmia does the client have? sinus bradycardia atrial bradycardia heart block none
sinus bradycardia Sinus bradycardia is a dysrhythmia that proceeds normally through the conduction pathway but at a slower than usual (less than60 beats/minute) rate.
A patient with infective endocarditis of a prosthetic mitral valve returns to the emergency department with a second episode of left-sided weakness and visual changes. The nurse expects that collaborative management of the patient will include
surgical valve replacement Aortic or mitral valve debridement, excision, or replacement is required in patients with more than one serious systemic embolic episode.
A client with severe angina pectoris and electrocardiogram changes is seen by a physician in the emergency department. In terms of serum testing, it's most important for the physician to order cardiac:
troponin. This client exhibits signs of myocardial infarction (MI), and the most accurate serum determinant of an MI is troponin level. Creatine kinase, lactate dehydrogenase and myoglobin tests can show evidence of muscle injury, but they're less specific indicators of myocardial damage than troponin.
A client with second-degree atrioventricular heart block is admitted to the coronary care unit. The nurse closely monitors the client's heart rate and rhythm. When interpreting the client's electrocardiogram (ECG) strip, the nurse knows that the QRS complex represents: atrial repolarization. ventricular repolarization. atrial depolarization. ventricular depolarization.
ventricular depolarization The QRS complex on the ECG strip represents ventricular depolarization. Atrial repolarization usually occurs at the same time as ventricular depolarization and is impossible to distinguish on the ECG. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The P wave represents atrial depolarization.
A client with second-degree atrioventricular heart block is admitted to the coronary care unit. The nurse closely monitors the client's heart rate and rhythm. When interpreting the client's electrocardiogram (ECG) strip, the nurse knows that the QRS complex represents:
ventricular depolarization.
A client with second-degree atrioventricular heart block is admitted to the coronary care unit. The nurse closely monitors the client's heart rate and rhythm. When interpreting the client's electrocardiogram (ECG) strip, the nurse knows that the QRS complex represents: atrial repolarization. ventricular repolarization. atrial depolarization. ventricular depolarization.
ventricular depolarization. The QRS complex on the ECG strip represents ventricular depolarization. Atrial repolarization usually occurs at the same time as ventricular depolarization and is impossible to distinguish on the ECG. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The P wave represents atrial depolarization.
A client with chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg by mouth daily, and furosemide (Lasix), 20 mg by mouth twice daily. The nurse instructs the client to notify the physician if nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or abdominal cramps occur because these signs and symptoms may signal digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity may also cause:
visual disturbances.
Before a transesophageal echocardiogram, a nurse gives a client an oral topical anesthetic spray. When the client returns from the procedure, the nurse observes that he has no active gag reflex. In response, the nurse should:
withhold food and fluids.