Prep U Ch 72

A client presents to the ED following a motor vehicle collision. The client is suspected of having internal hemorrhage. The nurse assesses the client for signs and symptoms of shock. Which are signs and symptoms of shock? Select all that apply

Correct response: Cool, moist skin Decreasing blood pressure Increasing heart rate Delayed capillary refill Explanation: Signs and symptoms of shock include cool, moist skin (resulting from poor peripheral perfusion), decreasing blood pressure, increasing heart rate, delayed capillary refill, and decreasing urine volume.Pg2165

A client present to the ED following a work-related injury to the left hand. The client has an avulsion of the left ring finger. Which correctly describes an avulsion?

Correct response: Tissue tearing away from supporting structures Explanation: An avulsion is described as a tearing away of tissue from supporting structures. A laceration is a skin tear with irregular edges and vein bridging. Abrasion is denuded skin. A cut is an incision of the skin with well-defined edges, usually long rather than deep. Pg2167

A patient arrives at the emergency department after sustaining a gunshot wound to the abdomen. When assessing the patient, the nurse pays particular attention to which of the following?

Correct response: Liver Explanation: Penetrating abdominal injuries, such as from a gunshot wound, are serious and result in a high incidence of injury to hollow and solid organs. Although any organs can be injured, the liver is the most frequently injured solid organ. The small bowel is a frequently injured hollow organ. Thus, of the options shown, the nurse would assess the liver area most closely. Pg2169

A nurse is providing care to an older adult client who has frostbite of the feet. Which action would be least appropriate?

Correct response: Massaging the feet Explanation: For a client with frostbite, massaging the affected body part is contraindicated. Analgesia is given for pain during the rewarming process because it can be very painful. Ambulation would be restricted. Once rewarmed, sterile gauze or cotton is placed between the affected toes to prevent maceration. pg 2173

A patient has undergone a diagnostic peritoneal lavage. The nurse interprets which result as indicating a positive test?

Correct response: Evidence of feces Explanation: A diagnostic peritoneal lavage is considered positive if there is bile, feces, or food in the specimen, a red blood cell count greater than 100,000/mm3, and a white blood cell count greater than 500/mm3. Pg2170

When assessing a client with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning, which finding would be least reliable?

Correct response: Cherry red skin color Explanation: Skin color can range from pink or cherry-red to cyanotic and pale is not a reliable sign. In clients with carbon monoxide poisoning, central nervous system signs such as headache and confusion predominate. Palpitations also may occur. Pg 2179

The nurse in the hospital emergency department is assessing a patient who fell while intoxicated with alcohol. The nurse is using the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment-Alcohol (CIWA-A) scale to assess the patient's need for a benzodiazipine medication. In order to assess for auditory disturbances, which question should the nurse ask the patient?

Correct response: "Are you hearing anything that is disturbing you?" Explanation: The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment-Alcohol (CIWA-A) scale is used in the assessment of alcohol withdrawal. The patient's score on this scale helps determine the level of intervention that is required to support safe, withdrawal from alcohol. Assessing for auditory disturbances is one subsection on the scale. In order to effectively assess for this symptom, the nurse should ask the patient if they are hearing anything that is disturbing. By asking the patient if they are experiencing any numbness or burning would help to assess for tactile disturbances. By asking the patient if the light is bothering their eyes would support the assessment for visual disturbances. Asking the patient if it feels like there is a tight band around their head would help determine if the patient has a headache or fullness of the head. These are all symptom items that are measured by this scale. Pg2185

A client arrives at the emergency department and is experiencing a severe allergic reacton to a bee sting. The client received treatment and is being discharged. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching about exposure prevention is needed?

Correct response: "Brightly colored clothes help to ward off bees." Explanation: To prevent insect stings, the client should avoid wearing brightly colored clothing because it attracts bees. The client should wear covering on the feet and avoid going barefoot because yellow jackets nest and pollinate on the ground. Staying still or motionless reduces the likelihood of being stung. Perfumes and scented soaps attract bees and should be avoided. Pg

A patient is brought to the ED by a friend, who states that a tree fell on the patient's leg and crushed it while they were cutting firewood. What priority actions should the nurse perform? (Select all that apply.)

Correct response: -Applying a clean dressing to protect the wound -Elevating the site to limit the accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces -Splinting the wound in a position of rest to prevent motion Explanation: Major soft tissue injuries are dressed and splinted promptly to control bleeding and pain. If an extremity is injured, it is elevated to relieve swelling and pressure. Pg2162

A female patient was sexually assaulted when leaving work. When assisting with the physical examination, what nursing interventions should be provided? (Select all that apply.)

Correct response: -Assess and document any bruises and lacerations. -Record a history of the event, using the patient's own words. -Label all torn or bloody clothes and place each item in a separate brown bag so that any evidence can be given to the police. Explanation: A history is obtained only if the patient has not already talked to a police officer, social worker, or crisis intervention worker. The patient should not be asked to repeat the history. Any history of the event that is obtained should be recorded in the patient's own words. The patient is asked whether he or she has bathed, douched, brushed his or her teeth, changed clothes, urinated, or defecated since the attack, because these actions may alter interpretation of subsequent findings. Each item of clothing is placed in a separate paper bag. The bags are labeled and given to appropriate law enforcement authorities. The patient is examined (from head to toe) for injuries, especially injuries to the head, neck, breasts, thighs, back, and buttocks. The exam focuses on external evidence of trauma (bruises, contusions, lacerations, stab wounds). Pg2188-2189

A client with a history of allergies comes to the emergency department. The nurse suspects anaphylaxis based on which of the following? Select all that apply.

Correct response: -Chest tightness -Localized itching -Pallor -Facial angioedema Explanation: Manifestations suggesting anaphylaxis include chest tightness, generalized itching, pallor, massive facial angioedema, tachycardia or bradycardia, and decreasing blood pressure (as a result of peripheral vascular collapse). Pg

A client presents to the ED following a motor vehicle collision. The client is suspected of having internal hemorrhage. The nurse assesses the client for signs and symptoms of shock. Which are signs and symptoms of shock? Select all that apply.

Correct response: -Cool, moist skin -Decreasing blood pressure -Increasing heart rate -Delayed capillary refill Explanation: Signs and symptoms of shock include cool, moist skin (resulting from poor peripheral perfusion), decreasing blood pressure, increasing heart rate, delayed capillary refill, and decreasing urine volume. Pg2165

A nurse who is a member of an emergency response team anticipates that several patients with airway obstruction may need a cricothyroidotomy. For which of the following patients would this procedure be appropriate? Select all that apply.

Correct response: -Patient with extensive facial trauma -Patient with laryngeal edema secondary to anaphylaxis -Patient with an obstructed larynx Explanation: Cricothyroidotomy is used in emergencies when endotracheal intubation is either not possible or contraindicated. Examples include airway obstruction from extensive maxillofacial trauma, cervical spine injury, laryngospasm, laryngeal edema after an allergic reaction or extubation, hemorrhage into neck tissue, and obstruction of the larynx. Pg 2165

The nurse is preparing to transfer a client from the ICU to a medical unit in the hospital. To ensure consistent communication regarding the client's care needs to the receiving unit, in what sequence of steps should the nurse organize the report? (order it)

Correct response: 1 Obtain the client's health record 2 State the client's admission date and current diagnosis 3 Provide a brief statement of current concerns 4 Give the client's pertinent medical history 5 Provide the most recent vital signs and assessment findings 6 Give recommendations for what needs to be done for the client When using the SBAR tool for consistent communication in health care settings, the nurse should organize sharing information about the client by including what the receiving unit needs to know about the (S)ituation, (B)ackground, (A)ssessment and (R)ecommendations. The nurse should first have the chart in hand before making the phone call, and be sure they can readily communicate all the following: Briefly state the issue or problem: what it is, when it happened (or how it started) and how severe it is. Give the signs and symptoms that cause concern. The nurse should then provide the date of admission and current medical diagnoses. Next, the nurse must give most recent vital signs and any recent changes in the systems assessment. For example, the nurse may need to communicate that the client had become constipated over the past 24 hours. Finally, it is important for the nurse to provide recommendations about what actions are need to be taken in the client's care. The nurse should state what they think should be done to address any identified client problems. Pg2160

Permanent brain injury or death will occur within which time frame secondary to hypoxia?

Correct response: 3 to 5 minutes Explanation: If the airway is completely obstructed, permanent brain injury or death will occur within 3 to 5 minutes secondary to hypoxia. Air movement is absent in the presence of complete airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation of the blood decreases rapidly because obstruction of the airway prevents air from entering the lungs. Oxygen deficit occurs in the brain, resulting in unconsciousness, with death following rapidly. The other time frames are incorrect. Pg2163

The nurse is administering 100% oxygen to a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning and obtains a carboxyhemoglobin level. Which level would the nurse interpret as indicating that oxygen therapy can be discontinued?

Correct response: 4% Explanation: Oxygen is administered until the carboxyhemoglobin level is less than 5%. Pg2179

A patient with frostbite to both lower extremities from exposure to the elements is preparing to have rewarming of the extremities. What intervention should the nurse provide prior to the procedure?

Correct response: Administer an analgesic as ordered. Explanation: During rewarming, an analgesic for pain is administered as prescribed, because the rewarming process may be very painful. To avoid further mechanical injury, the body part is not handled. Massage is contraindicated. Pg2173

As part of an emergency department team, an emergency nurse is conducting a secondary survey on a client. Which of the following would the nurse include?

Correct response: Applying electrocardiogram electrodes Explanation: A secondary survey is completed after the primary survey priorities of airway, breathing, circulation, and disability have been addressed. Applying electrocardiogram electrodes would be a component of the secondary survey. Establishing a patent airway, providing adequate ventilation, and determining neurologic disability by assessing neurologic function are components of the primary survey.pg2162

After inserting an oropharyngeal airway, the nurse determines that it is in the proper position when the flange is located at which position?

Correct response: Approximately at the patient's lips Explanation: When an oropharyngeal airway is properly inserted, the tip is in the hypopharynx and the flange is approximately at the patient's lips. Pg2164

The ED staff work collaboratively and follow the ABCDE method to establish and treat health priorities effectively in a client experiencing a trauma. Which action is completed by the nurse when implementing the "D" element of this method?

Correct response: Assessing the client's Glasgow Coma Scale score Explanation: The primary survey focuses on stabilizing life-threatening conditions. The ED staff work collaboratively and follow the ABCDE (airway, breathing, circulation, disability, exposure) method. While implementing the D element, the nurse determines neurologic disability by assessing neurologic function using the Glasgow Coma Scale and performing a motor and sensory evaluation of the spine. A quick neurologic assessment may be performed using the AVPU mnemonic: A, alert: is the client alert and responsive? V, verbal: does the client respond to verbal stimuli? P, pain: does the client respond only to painful stimuli? U, unresponsive: is the client unresponsive to all stimuli, including pain? The other interventions are not included in this element of the primary survey. Pg2162

A homeless client presents to the ED. Upon assessment, the client is experiencing hypothermia. The nurse will plan to complete which priority intervention during the rewarming process?

Correct response: Attach a cardiac monitor Explanation: Continuous electrocardiograph (ECG) monitoring is performed during the rewarming process because cold-induced myocardial irritability leads to conduction disturbances, especially ventricular fibrillation. A urinary catheter should be inserted to monitor urinary output; however, ECG monitoring is the priority. There is no indication for endotracheal intubation. Inotropic medications are contraindicated because they can stimulate the heart and increase the risk for fatal dysrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation. Pg2174

A client has a gaping wound on his forearm that is bleeding profusely. Applying pressure to which pressure point would be most helpful?

Correct response: Brachial Explanation: The pressure point at the brachial artery would be most appropriate because this site is proximal to the bleeding site. The femoral pressure point would be useful for bleeding in the lower extremities. The radial pressure point would be appropriate for bleeding in the wrist and hands. The subclavian pressure point would be used for bleeding in the upper anterior chest area. Pg2166

The nurse is caring for a client who is agitated and confused. The client is persistently trying to get out of bed and attempted to remove the peripheral IV. The nurse has attempted to re-orient the client; however, this was not effective in de-escalating the client's agitation. The client yells, "I am going to punch you in the face!" What is the nurse's next action?

Correct response: Call security personnel to assist Explanation: Clients at risk for harming staff members require specific interventions. It is important to first notification of security and administration of the potential for violence. Although medication and physical restraints maybe required, the nurse will not be able to carry out these interventions in a safe manner independently. The nurse should first call for security personnel to assist, all other interventions can be carried out with the support of trained staff. When a client is agitated and has the potential to be violent, they should not be left unattended. Moving out of the client's view can lead to further agitation for the client and increase the risk for escalating to violence. Pg2190

A client is brought to the emergency department with severe hemorrhage requiring masssive blood replacement. The nurse warms the blood in a commercial warmer based on the understanding that infusion of large amounts of blood could result in which of the following?

Correct response: Cardiac arrest Explanation: Blood must be warmed in a commercial blood warmer because administration of large amounts of blood that has been refigerated has a core cooling effect that may lead to cardiac arrest and coagulopathy. Hyperthermia, hemolytic transfusion reaction, or fluid overload is not the concern. Pg2166

The health care team in an intensive care unit have experienced a critical incident in which a young client died unexpectedly and the client's father physically attacked the senior physician treating the client. The client's father was arrested and escorted from the intensive care unit by police, against his will and in handcuffs. A critical incident stress management (CISM) staff meeting held 3 days after the incident took place. What would be the purpose for that meeting?

Correct response: Debriefing Explanation: After serious events, critical incident stress management (CISM) is necessary to critique individual and group performance and to facilitate healthy coping. Optimally, this may consist of three steps: defusing, debriefing, and follow-up. Debriefing typically occurs 1 to 10 days after the critical incident. Debriefing sessions follow a format similar to the initial defusing session; however, during these sessions, participating staff are encouraged to discuss their feelings about the incident and are reassured that their negative reactions and feelings are normal and that their negative feelings will diminish over time. Defusing occurs immediately after the critical incident. During this session, affected staff are encouraged to discuss their feelings about the incident and are given contact information so that they may talk to someone if they have disturbing symptoms (e.g., sleeplessness, excessive worry). Follow-up may occur after the debriefing session is completed for those participants who have persistent negative symptoms and may consist of continued individual or group counseling and therapy. Counseling or group therapy would typically occur outside the context of the stress-inducing environment. Individuals may require private counseling versus group counseling. Pg2159

A client is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect internal bleeding

Correct response: Delayed capillary refill Explanation: If a client exhibits tachycardia, falling blood pressure, thirst, apprehension, cool moist skin, or delayed capillary refill, internal bleeding should be suspected Pg2165

A client is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect internal bleeding?

Correct response: Delayed capillary refill Explanation: If a client exhibits tachycardia, falling blood pressure, thirst, apprehension, cool moist skin, or delayed capillary refill, internal bleeding should be suspected. Pg2165

The nurse is conducting a secondary survey on a client in the ED. Which action is completed during the secondary survey?

Correct response: Diagnostic and laboratory testing Explanation: Diagnostic and laboratory testing is completed during the secondary survey, along with a complete health history, a head-to-toe assessment, insertion or application of monitoring devices, splinting of suspected fractures, cleansing, closure, and dressing of wounds, and performance of other necessary interventions based on the client's condition. The other interventions are completed during the primary survey. Pg2162

A patient is brought to the emergency department and diagnosed with decompression sickness. The nurse interprets this as indicating that the patient most likely has been involved with which of the following?

Correct response: Diving in an ocean Explanation: Decompression sickness occurs when patients have engaged in diving in a lake or ocean or high-altitude flying or flying in a commercial aircraft within 24 hours of diving. Swimming in a lake could lead to a near-drowing episode. Running a race in hot humid weather would increase a person's risk for heat stroke. Working in a chemical plant would increase the risk for chemical burns. Pg2175

A client is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The client is seriously ill and unconscious. No family or friends are present. Which of the following would be most appropriate to do?

Correct response: Document the client's condition and absence of friends or family for obtaining consent to treatment. Explanation: Consent is needed to examine and treat a client unless he or she is unconscious or in critical condition and unable to make decisions. In this situation, the client is unconscious and no friends or family are around to provide consent to treatment. The nurse should document this fact and provide care. Checking the client's record and asking the ambulance team for information would waste valuable time. Explaining to the client that care will be provided is appropriate even though the client is unconscious, but documentation is essential. pg 2157

Which triage category refers to life-threatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment?

Correct response: Emergent Explanation: The client triaged as emergent must be seen immediately. The triage category of urgent refers to minor illness or injury needing first-aid-level treatment. The triage category of immediate refers to nonacute, non-life-threatening injury or illness. pg2161

A patient brought to the ED by the rescue squad after getting off a plane at the airport is complaining of severe joint pain, numbness, and an inability to move the arms. The patient was on a diving vacation and went for a last dive this morning before flying home. What is a priority action by the nurse?

Correct response: Ensure a patent airway and that the patient is receiving 100% oxygen. Explanation: Decompression sickness, also known as "the bends," occurs in patients who have engaged in diving (lake/ocean diving), high-altitude flying, or flying in commercial aircraft within 24 hours after diving. Signs and symptoms include joint or extremity pain, numbness, hypesthesia, and loss of range of motion. A patent airway and adequate ventilation are established before all other interventions, as described previously, and 100% oxygen is administered throughout treatment and transport. Pg 2175

A nurse is caring for a patient with multiple injuries and performs the following. Place these actions in the order in which the nurse would perform them. Use all options.

Correct response: Establish airway and ventilation Control hemorrhage Prevent and treat shock Assess for head and neck injuries Assess for abdomen, back, and extremity injuries Splint fractures Explanation: When providing care to a patient with multiple injuries, the nurse would first establish airway and ventilation, then control hemorrhage, prevent and treat hypovolemic shock, and assess for head and neck injuries. Then the nurse would evaluate for other injuries including re-assessing the head, neck, and chest and assessing the abdomen, back, and extremities. Then the nurse would splint fractures and, lastly, perform a more thorough and ongoing examination and assessment.Pg2162

The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who requires a peripheral intravenous (PIV) line for antibiotic administration and to treat dehydration. The nurse must avoid inserting which type of PIV?

Correct response: Foot Explanation: PIV lines should rarely be used in the foot for various reasons. They limit the client's ability to ambulate and tend to occlude easily. These types of IVs should never be used in clients with diabetes due to the risk that the client has neuropathy and cannot feel injury caused by the IV catheter. IV lines in the forearm and hands are acceptable and are commonly used sites. These sites would be safe to use for a client with diabetes. The upper arm is a site of choice for the insertion of a peripherally inserted central line (PICC) not a PIV line. Although, this site would not be an option for a PIV line, it would be safe for use in a client with diabetes if warranted. Pg2165

Nursing students are reviewing the categories of intra-abdominal injuries. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as examples of penetrating trauma? Select all that apply.

Correct response: Gunshot wound Knife-stab wound Explanation: Examples of penetrating trauma include gunshot wounds and stab wounds. Motor vehicle crashes, falls, and being struck with a baseball bat are examples of blunt trauma. pg2169

A nurse is working as a camp nurse during the summer. A camp counselor comes to the clinic after receiving a snakebite on the arm. What is the first action by the nurse?

Correct response: Have the patient lie down and place the arm below the level of the heart. Explanation: Initial first aid at the site of the snakebite includes having the person lie down, removing constrictive items such as rings, providing warmth, cleansing the wound, covering the wound with a light sterile dressing, and immobilizing the injured body part below the level of the heart. Airway, breathing, and circulation are the priorities of care. Ice, incision and suction, or a tourniquet is not applied. Pg2176

Which phase of the psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks?

Correct response: Heightened anxiety phase Explanation: During the heightened anxiety phase, the client demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks. The acute disorganization phase is characterized by shock, disbelief, guilt, humiliation, and anger. The denial phase is characterized by an unwillingness to talk. The reorganization phase occurs when the incident is put into perspective. Some clients never fully recover from rape trauma. Pg2188

A client comes to the emergency department with a suspected airway obstruction. The emergency department team prepares to manage the client as if he has a complete airway obstruction based on which of the following?

Correct response: High-pitched noise on inhalation Explanation: A client who demonstrates a weak, ineffective cough, high-pitched noise while inhaling, increased respiratory difficulty, or cyanosis should be managed as if he or she has a complete airway obstruction. Forceful coughing, wheezing between coughs, and a refusal to lie flat suggest a partial airway obstruction that can be managed as such. Pg2163

A nurse is caring for a client who has arrived at the emergency department in shock. The nurse intervenes based on the knowledge that which of the following is the most common cause of shock?

Correct response: Hypovolemia Explanation: Types of shock include cardiogenic, neurogenic, anaphylactic, and septic. Of these, the most common cause is hypovolemia. Pg2167

The nurse educator is providing orientation to a group of nurses newly hired to an intensive care unit. The group of nurses are correct in stating which is the most common type of shock managed in critical care?

Correct response: Hypovolemic Explanation: The underlying cause of shock (hypovolemic, cardiogenic, neurogenic, anaphylactic, or septic) must be determined. Of these, hypovolemia is the most common cause. Pg2167

A patient who has accidentally ingested toilet bowel cleaner is brought to the emergency department. Which action would NOT be appropriate for the nurse to implement?

Correct response: Induced vomiting Explanation: Vomiting is never induced after ingestion of caustic substances (acid or alkaline) such as toilet bowl cleaner because the substance is corrosive to the tissues. Appropriate actions include dilution with milk or water, gastric lavage, and administration of activated charcoal. Pg2178

A nurse is completing her annual cardiopulmonary resuscitation training. The class instructor tells her that a client has fallen off a ladder and is lying on his back; he is unconscious and isn't breathing. What maneuver should the nurse use to open his airway?

Correct response: Jaw-thrust Explanation: If a neck or spine injury is suspected, the jaw-thrust maneuver should be used to open the client's airway. To perform this maneuver, the nurse should position herself at the client's head and rest her thumbs on his lower jaw, near the corners of his mouth. She should then grasp the angles of his lower jaw with her fingers and lift the jaw forward. The head tilt-chin lift maneuver is used to open the airway when a neck or spine injury isn't suspected. To perform this maneuver the nurse places two fingers on the chin and lifts while pushing down on the forehead with the other hand. The abdominal thrust is used to relieve severe or complete airway obstruction caused by a foreign body. The Seldinger maneuver is a method of percutaneous introduction of a catheter into a vessel. Pg2163

Which solution should the nurse use to replace lost fluids in a client with signs and symptoms of shock due to hemmorhaging?

Correct response: Lactated Ringer solution Explanation: Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions( lactated Ringers, nomoral saline) ,colloids, and blood component therapy. O negative blood is prepared for emergency use in women of childbearing age. Dextrose 5% in water should not be used to replace fluids in hypovolemic clients. Hypertonic saline is used only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units. Pg

Which solid organ is most frequently injured in a penetrating trauma?

Correct response: Liver Explanation: The most frequently injured solid organ in a penetrating trauma is the liver because of its size and anterior placement in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Pg2169

The nurse is administering antivenin to a patient who was bitten on the arm by a poisonous snake. What intervention provided by the nurse is required prior to the procedure and every 15 minutes after?

Correct response: Measure the circumference of the arm. Explanation: Before administering antivenin and every 15 minutes thereafter, the circumference of the affected part is measured. Premedication with diphenhydramine (Benadryl) or cimetidine (Tagamet) may be indicated, because these antihistamines may decrease the allergic response to antivenin. Antivenin is administered as an IV infusion whenever possible, although intramuscular administration can be used. Pg2176

A client presents to the ED after an unsuccessful suicide attempt. The client is diagnosed with an acetaminophen overdose. The nurse anticipates the administration of which medication?

Correct response: N-acetylcysteine Explanation: Treatment of acetaminophen overdose includes administration of N-acetylcysteine. Flumazenil is administered in the treatment of nonbarbiturate sedative overdoses. Naloxone is administered in the treatment of narcotic overdoses. Diazepam may be administered to treat uncontrolled hyperactivity in the client with a hallucinogen overdose. Pg2184

Which medication reverses severe respiratory depression and coma?

Correct response: Naloxone hydrochloride Explanation: Naloxone hydrochloride, a narcotic antagonist, reverses respiratory depression and coma. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine. Flumazenilis a benzodiazepine antagonist. N-acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen toxicity. Pg2184

The nurse is caring for a client with known myocardial ischemia. The client will be getting up to ambulate for the first time in three days after being on bedrest since admission to the intensive care unit. Which medication should the nurse administer before the client ambulates?

Correct response: Nitroglycerin Explanation: Nitroglycerin is indicated for use in clients who experience angina pectoris as a result of myocardial ischemia. The medication acts by decreasing blood pressure and causing arterial vasodilation permitting blood flow into the myocardium. Nitroglycerin should be given prior to any anticipated physical exertion that is likely to bring on chest pain from vasoconstriction. Vasopressin is a vasoactive medication administered to increase blood pressure in cases where clients have diabetes insipidus, a gastrointestinal bleed or in cases of septic shock. Norepinephrine raises blood pressure and is indicated for use in emergencies such as cardiac arrest or for hypovolemia. Dobutamine increased heart contractility and blood pressure to improve stroke volume in clients with congestive heart failure. Pg

A patient with intra-abdominal injuries is brought to the emergency department. Which of the following would most likely alert the nurse to suspect internal bleeding secondary to a ruptured spleen?

Correct response: Pain in the left shoulder Explanation: Pain in the left shoulder is common in a patient with bleeding from a ruptured spleen. Pain in the right shoulder is consistent with a laceration of the liver. The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant, not the right. Rebound tenderness and abdominal distention are generalized signs suggesting intraperitoneal injury. Although these generalized signs may accompany a ruptured spleen, they are less specific than pain in the left shoulder. Pg2170

A nurse who is a member of an emergency response team anticipates that several patients with airway obstruction may need a cricothyroidotomy. For which of the following patients would this procedure be appropriate? Select all that apply

Correct response: Patient with extensive facial trauma Patient with laryngeal edema secondary to anaphylaxis Patient with an obstructed larynx Explanation: Cricothyroidotomy is used in emergencies when endotracheal intubation is either not possible or contraindicated. Examples include airway obstruction from extensive maxillofacial trauma, cervical spine injury, laryngospasm, laryngeal edema after an allergic reaction or extubation, hemorrhage into neck tissue, and obstruction of the larynx.Pg2165

A family member brings a patient to the emergency department. The family member states, "I think he overdosed on heroin." Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess?

Correct response: Pinpoint pupils Explanation: Signs of an acute overdose of heroin, an opioid, include pinpoint pupils, marked respiratory depression, descreased blood pressure, stupor progressing to coma, seizures, and pulmonary edema. Flushed face typically reflects a barbiturate overdose. Pg2181

When preparing to perform abdominal thrusts on a client with an airway obstruction, which of the following would be most appropriate?

Correct response: Positioning the hands in the midline slightly above the umbilicus Explanation: When performing abdominal thrusts, the nurse would place the thumb side of one fist against the client's abdomen in the midline slighlty above the umbilicus and well below the xiphoid process, grasping the fist with the other hand. Then the nurse would press the fist into the client's abdomen with a quick inward and upward thrust such that each new thrust should be a separate and distinct maneuver. The unconscious client is positioned on the back. The client who is conscious should be standing or sitting. Pg2163

The nurse in an intensive care unit is caring for a client who requires blood work to assess for changes in blood coagulation due to heparin therapy. Which test should the nurse expect to see prescribed for this value to be assessed?

Correct response: Prothrombin time (PTT) Explanation: Prothrombin time (PTT) is assessed in the blood work to identify coagulopathy or presence of chemically induced anticoagulation. This client is receiving heparin, an intravenous medication that helps to prevent the formation of clots; therefore, the PTT must be monitored regularly to ensure the medication remains within the therapeutic range. The client's white blood cell (WBC) reflects a count of this blood component to detect elevation of these cells, which is related to increased physiological stress. Typically this stress is infection, but it can also increase when there is trauma. Lactate would be drawn with the blood work to determine acidosis and need for continued resuscitation. Arterial blood gas (ABG) is evaluated to determine pH for the presence of acidosis, the base deficit for resuscitation evaluation, and ventilation parameters (PaCO2, PaO2). Pg2169

The nurse has received a client into care who was admitted with a heroine overdose. The client has a 5-year history of illicit substance use with cocaine, heroine and oxycodone. The client develops a sudden onset of wheezing, restlessness and a cough that produces a frothy, pink sputum. The nurse suspects the client has most likely developed which complication of opioid overdose?

Correct response: Pulmonary edema Explanation: The nurse should suspect the client has developed pulmonary edema, which is frequently seen in clients who abuse/overdose on narcotics. Many drugs — ranging from illegal drugs such as heroin and cocaine to aspirin — are known to cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema. Pneumonia is not the likely cause given the sudden onset of respiratory symptoms accompanied but coughing up the pink frothy sputum. The client's history of illicit substance use and now overdose on these drugs should lead the nurse to suspect pulmonary edema is the cause of the sudden onset of these symptoms over congestive heart failure, in which clients have a more gradual onset of respiratory issues. Although a panic attack can manifest in shortness or breath and restlessness, the client would not be wheezing or producing blood tinged sputum with a cough. Panic attacks do, however, have a sudden onset and can cause the client chest pain and a sense of doom. Pg 2181

A nurse is establishing a patient's airway. Which action would the nurse perform first?

Correct response: Repositioning the patient's head Explanation: Establishing an airway may be as simple as repositioning the patient's head to prevent the tongue from obstructing the pharynx. Subsequent measures would include abdominal thrusts to dislodge a foreign body, head-tilt chin-lift or jaw-thrust manuever, or insertion of an artificial airway. Pg2163

A nurse is providing an educational program for a group of occupational health nurses working in chemical facilities. Which of the following would the nurse include as the priority in the case of a chemical burn?

Correct response: Rinsing the area with copious amounts of water Explanation: The priority for any chemical burn is to immediately drench the area with running water, unless the chemical is lye or white phosphorus, which should be brushed off the patient. Antimicrobial ointments, sterile dressings, and tetanus prophylaxis are measures instituted later in the course of treatment, depending on the characteristics of the chemical agent and the size and location of the burn. Pg2179

The nurse has commenced a transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and notes the client is exhibiting symptoms of a transfusion reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, what is the next required action?

Correct response: Run a normal saline line to keep the vein open Explanation: If the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, the transfusion must be stopped immediately and the nurse's next action is to ensure the normal saline line is running at a rate that permits administration of IV fluids or medications that are required to treat the reaction. The nurse should ensure IV access is maintained. The 'to keep vein open (TKVO) rate allows the nurse to keep the IV client without the potential to cause fluid volume overload. It would be unsafe for the nurse to remove the peripheral IV because continued access is required for urgent IV administration of medications or fluids to treat the reaction. Obtaining a blood culture at the IV site would be necessary if an infection was suspected. This is not required for a transfusion reaction. Normal saline is the solution of choice when transfusing blood products because there is a risk for incompatibility with all other IV solutions. Pg2165

A patient is brought to the emergency department following an overdose of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). While assessing the patient, the nurse suspects that the patient may be developing serotonin syndrome based on which of the following?

Correct response: Seizures Explanation: Serotonin syndrome is manifested by agitation, seizures, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, and hypertension. Pg 2184

A patient is brought to the emergency department following an overdose of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). While assessing the patient, the nurse suspects that the patient may be developing serotonin syndrome based on which of the following

Correct response: Seizures Explanation: Serotonin syndrome is manifested by agitation, seizures, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, and hypertension.Pg2184

Which guideline is appropriate for a nurse to implement while helping family members cope with the sudden death of a loved one?

Correct response: Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. Explanation: The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss. The nurse should avoid using euphemisms such as "passed on." The nurse should avoid giving sedation to family members, because this may mask or delay the grieving process. The nurse should avoid volunteering unnecessary information (e.g., client was drinking at the time of the accident). Pg2159

A client comes to the emergency department after experiencing a wound. Inspection reveals an opening in the skin with distinct edges and whose depth is greater than the length of the wound. The nurse documents this as which type of wound?

Correct response: Stab Explanation: A stab wound is an incision of the skin with well-defined edges and is typically deeper than long. It is usually caused by a sharp instrument. A laceration is a tear in the skin with irregular edges and vein bridging. An avulsion is manifested as a tearing away of tissue from the supporting structures. A patterned wound takes on the outline of the object causing the wound. Pg2169

A patient was bitten by a tick 3 months ago and is now having muscle aches as well as joint pain and swelling. The patient is having difficulty with self care and requires assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs). What stage of Lyme disease does the nurse recognize the patient is in?

Correct response: Stage III Explanation: Lyme disease has three stages. Stage I presents with a classic "bull's-eye" rash (i.e., erythema migrans) and flulike signs and symptoms that may include chills, fever, myalgia, fatigue, and headache. If antibiotics are not administered, stage II Lyme disease may present within 4 to 10 weeks following the tick bite and may manifest with joint pain, memory loss, poor motor coordination, and meningitis. Stage III can begin anywhere from weeks to more than a year after the bite and has serious long-term chronic sequelae, including arthritis, neuropathy, myalgia, and myocarditis. Pg2178

The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for impaired tissue oxygenation resulting from hemorrhage. After 15 minutes of the transfusion, the nurse notes the client has a fever and shortness of breath. Place in order the steps the nurse should take in response to these findings. Use all options.

Correct response: Stop the transfusion Ensure the normal saline IV line is open Assess need for airway support Check full vital signs Notify the physician Intervene for any signs and symptoms as appropriate Explanation: The client is experiencing an immunological transfusion reaction which will only become worse as the transfusion proceeds. The nurse's first action is to stop the transfusion. A normal saline line is always made available prior to commencing a transfusion of any blood product to promote flushing and allowing for the immediate administration of any IV medications that may be required to manage the signs and symptoms resulting from the transfusion reaction. Airway, circulation and breathing are a top priority in transfusion reactions. The client is experiencing shortness of breath which can progress to respiratory distress if not managed. The nurse must assess airway and work of breathing to determine if oxygen, repositioning or other respiratory interventions are required. The nurse must assess a full set of vital signs to determine other systemic effects caused by the transfusion. It is possible to see variations of vital signs such as hyper- and hypotension, tachycardia, fever and increased respiratory rate. Any change in the vital signs requires an intervention. This should be completed prior to contacting the physician as it is important to have this information readily available to collaborate with the physician for next steps in the client's care. The nurse must notify the physician to obtain any additional orders for interventions that may be individualized based on the client's overall clinical situation. The nurse is responsible for intervening for any other signs or symptoms such as administering antihistamines or antipyretic medications.Pg2165

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which statement best indicates that the client understands the need for long-term treatment?

Correct response: The client agrees to detoxification, rehabilitation, and participation in an aftercare program. Explanation: Detoxification, rehabilitation, and participation in an aftercare program are the only options that address the client's long-term treatment needs. Supportive counseling, family involvement, and support-group participation are important aspects of the treatment process, but they don't address the client's need for long-term treatment.Pg2185

The nurse is caring for a client in the intensive care unit who is recovering from trauma as a result of a motor vehicle accident that claimed the life of the client's friend. While the nurse is performing a dressing change on the client's surgical wound, the client states, "I don't deserve to live. I have just been thinking about ending it all." As the nurse assesses the client's imminent risk for suicide, what contributing factors need to be considered? Select all that apply

Correct response: The client attempted suicide as a teenager. The client's maternal uncle committed suicide. The client had a close relationship to the accident victim. Explanation: When assessing a client's suicide risk, it is very important to first determine whether the client has a previous history of suicide attempts. Having a suicide-attempt history increases the risk that the client will attempt to end his or her life if experiencing suicidal thoughts. Having a family member who has committed suicide increases the risk that the client will follow through with a suicide attempt. Family support mitigates the risk that the client will follow through with a suicide attempt if the client is experiencing hopeless thoughts. Having a close relationship with the victim in the car accident indicates the client is experiencing grief and loss and may increase the risk of suicide. If the client is unable to ambulate unassisted, this decreases the client's means to access to be able to follow through with a suicide attempt.Pg2190

The intensive care unit nurse is assessing a client who is going to require a peripheral intravenous (PIV) line for fluids. The nurse should consider what information in the client's health history when deciding the site for the PIV?

Correct response: The client has had a mastectomy on the right side Explanation: Contraindications to the placement of a PIV line in any specific placement (right vs. left side) will include history of mastectomy, arterial-venous shunt placement, peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line placement, thrombus, trauma, and other device placements, such as splints and casts. The nurse will only have the option to start the PIV on a site in the client's left arm if the client has had a ride-sided mastectomy. A history of hypertension does not preclude the client from having a PIV inserted in any specific location. Although fluid requirements are monitored more strictly with clients who are on a fluid volume restriction, this does not influence the placement of the PIV. The nurse should always be aware of the risks of a PIV for a client with a falls history. The tubing can be a tripping hazard, therefore, the client with a falls history who requires a PIV should be closely monitored but this does not preclude the client from having a PIV inserted. Pg2165

The nurse is caring for a client who is being prepared for the placement of a central intravenous line. The nurse recognizes this client requires this type of intravenous access for which reason?

Correct response: The client requires total parenteral nutrition Explanation: For a patient who requires total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a central intravenous line is required due to the length of time the client will require the infusion as well as the nature of the solution itself. A large vein is required to safely infuse TPN. For this reason, a central line is needed. A peripheral intravenous line is safe to used when IV access is required under six days. Beyond this time, either a new peripheral IV will need to be inserted. If it is known in advance that IV treatment will last beyond six days, the client's health care provider will order the placement of a central intravenous line. Intravenous antibiotics can be administered peripherally unless the course is longer than six days. D5W is an intravenous solution that can be administered either peripherally or centrally. The nature of this IV solution would not determine which type of IV access the client requires. Pg

A nurse working in an emergency department is responsible for determining the severity of the patients' problems and how fast each needs to be seen. The nurse is implementing which of the following?

Correct response: Triage Explanation: The nurse is performing triage, which sorts patients into groups based on the severity of their health problems and the immediacy with which these problems need to be treated. Referral involves communicating with other health care delivery service providers to assist the patient with meeting his or her needs. Discharge planning involves actions to get the patient ready to leave the facility. Crisis intervention involves actions to alleviate the high level of stress and to promote effective coping with challenging life events. Pg2161

A finger sweep is only to be used in which client population?

Correct response: Unconscious adult Explanation: A finger sweep should be used only in the unconscious adult client. This action draws the tongue away from the back of the throat and away from any foreign body that may be lodged there. A finger sweep should not be done on a conscious adult, child, or adolescent. Pg 2163

The nurse is caring for a patient in the ED who is breathing but unconscious. In order to avoid an upper airway obstruction, the nurse is inserting an oropharyngeal airway. How would the nurse insert the airway?

Correct response: Upside down and then rotated 180 degrees Explanation: The nurse should insert the oropharyngeal airway with the tip facing up toward the roof of the mouth until it passes the uvula and then rotate the tip 180 degrees so that the tip is pointed down toward the pharynx. This displaces the tongue anteriorly, and the patient then breathes through and around the airway. Pg2164

Following a motor vehicle collision, a client is brought to the ED for evaluation and treatment. The client is being assessed for intra-abdominal injuries. The client reports severe left shoulder pain (pain score of 10 on a 1 to 10 scale). The nurse suspects injury to the

Correct response: spleen. Explanation: The location of pain can indicate certain types of intra-abdominal injuries. Pain in the left shoulder is common in a client with bleeding from a ruptured spleen, whereas pain in the right shoulder can result from laceration of the liver. Pg2170