Project Management FINAL
All of the following are among ground rules that have proven widely useful to project teams EXCEPT: a. avoid conflict at all costs b. consider at alternative by considering at least two approaches before proceeding c. develop trust by doing work as promised and being truthful d. use data when possible and gather facts rather than arguing over opinions
A
All of the following are among the activities a project manager should undertake to develop a highly effective team EXCEPT: a. assess sponsor capability b. assess project team capability c. establish team ground rules d. assess individual member capability
A
All of the following statements accurately describe supply chain management EXCEPT: a. It is a closed-loop system solely within the project organization's boundaries b. It spans across suppliers, resellers, project organizations and consumers. c. It addresses the flow of products, information and funds. d. It is a system approach to managing the entire flow of physical products.
A
Which of the following reasons might lead to an early contract termination for convenience? a. The buyer faces changing priorities. b. The seller faces unexpected difficulties. c. The seller needs change. d. The buyer and seller negotiate a settlement
A
When a project is completed on time, the project team must accomplish all of the following activities EXCEPT: a. use alternative dispute resolution b. capture and share lessons learned c. planning a smooth transition of deliverables into ongoing operations d. secure customer feedback and approval
A
Which of the following is among the widely accepted project team success factors? a. effective communication including performance feedback b. emphasis on the quality of project deliverables, without regard to cost c. extreme risk taking strategies to maximize project gains d. use of coercion to resolve conflicts and problems
A
Which of the following is one of the PMBOK Guide's four project procurement management processes? a. Conduct procurements b. Perform configuration management c. Conduct contract reviews d. Perform value engineering
A
When a contract is terminated for convenience, the contractor must complete all deliverables in process and submit the completed deliverables to the buyer.
F
When a decision needs to be made quickly or requires significant authority it is often useful to delegate the decision to one or two team members.
F
When discrepancies are identified during a project quality audit, the presumption must be that workers failed to comply with procedures and should be reprimanded accordingly.
F
Project manager strategies to promote organization, project and team member needs may vary from one stage of team development to another.
T
Project managers can further team development by securing agreement on common goals and objectives for the project.
T
Project managers should empower team members to the extent possible, yet control to the extent necessary.
T
Project partnerships can be advantageous to both the client and the vendor, in terms of improved project execution, flexibility, and reduced bid administration.
T
Project quality is defined as the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.
T
Project stakeholders will judge the quality of project work processes as well as project deliverables.
T
Six Sigma is a quality improvement approach that is particularly suited for many service processes that people had previously said were too difficult if not impossible to measure.
T
Some project sponsors will only approve a project charter if it includes and reflects lessons learned from other recently completed projects.
T
Some scope changes start as proposed changes to cost or schedule, just as some changes to cost or schedule start as proposed scope changes.
T
Sometimes a project is terminated before its normal completion.
T
Stakeholder satisfaction requires an understanding of the ultimate quality goals with respect to stakeholders.
T
Supply chain operations require managerial processes that span across functional areas within individual organizations, and link trading partners and customers across organizational boundaries.
T
Supply chains use a combination of modes of transportation including: air, rail, water, pipeline and truck.
T
The International Organization for Standardization developed a quality management standard that relies upon several quality management areas including management, resources and realization.
T
The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is a measure of schedule efficiency on a project, expressed as the ratio of earned value (EV) to planned value (PV).
T
The Validate Scope process occurs with interim deliverables throughout the project and with final deliverables near the end.
T
The adoption of specific ground rules that specify acceptable and unacceptable behaviors can help prevent potential problems and improve working relationships, effectiveness, and communication.
T
The evaluation criteria developed during procurement planning should guide the vendor evaluation and selection.
T
The formality of a kick-off meeting can vary considerably depending on the size and type of project.\
T
The ideal time to on-board core team members is to include them in the chartering process.
T
The negotiation process involves several steps such as: preparing for negotiation; knowing your walk-away point; and working towards a common goal.
T
The outputs of Control Quality may include recommended preventive actions designed to ensure the future performance of project work is aligned with the project management plan.
T
The purpose of process control is to be able to have confidence that outputs are predictable.
T
The quality management plan describes how an organization's quality policies will be implemented.
T
The value of engaging a subject matter expert early in a project should be balanced against the potentially significant cost of paying for his or her expertise.
T
Traditional project procurement was characterized by win / lose adversarial relations between owner and contractor, whereas contemporary project partnering fosters a relationship of trust and collaboration.
T
Two types of control are used extensively on projects: steering control and go / no go control.
T
W. Edwards Deming argued that managers must understand cause and effect relationships to predict future behavior.
T
When a project is no longer needed or viable, the project manager, as primary advocate for the project, should recommend early termination.
T
When a project team member is not performing, rewards may not prove as effective as a coercive approach that threatens the team member with undesired consequences.
T
When many members of the project team disagree, then it may be best to delay the decision, gather more data, or agree to let one or two team members investigate and recommend a strategy for the whole team.
T
When reporting performance to sponsors and management, it is often helpful to organize the information in terms of three time horizons: past, current and future.
T
When using earned value techniques, Actual Cost (AC) refers to realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time period.
T
Change control includes which of the following activities? a. identifying, documenting, approving or rejecting, modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines b. brainstorming, selecting and implementing new ideas c. recruiting, selecting and training new team members d. identifying and implementing changes to the project charter
A
Control quality generally includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. Using management by objectives b. Repairing defects c. Providing specific measurements for quality assurance d. Implementing approved changes as directed by the project's integrated change control system.
A
Fact-based management includes four key ideas. Which of the following is among the key ideas associated with fact-based management? a. the need to understand variation b. reliance on historical research c. routine use of interrogations d. use of analogous estimating
A
High-performing teams include members who typically hold which of the following values? a. a high need for achievement b. a strict adherence to their personal points of view c. a commitment to self-promotion d. a strong need for authority
A
Many organizations require the completion of a project close-out report upon completion of a project. These reports typically include which of the following? a. a review of the project's original justification b. a list of team members dismissed due to poor performance c. transcripts of team member conversations d. review of team building exercises
A
Project managers interested in controlling quality on projects will often concentrate upon project inputs. Which of the following are important considerations for the project managers concentrating on inputs to ensure project quality? a. ensure the workers assigned are capable of doing their work b. ensure that rework is kept to a minimum c. prove to the customer that the deliverables are correct d. ensure that all deliverables work before they are sent to the customer
A
Project partnerships offer which of the following advantages to both clients and vendors? a. shared motivation b. potential of lower cost for client c. potential of greater profit for vendor d. opportunity for vendor to prove oneself
A
Reward power relies upon persuading others based upon giving them some form of reward. It is most appropriately used when: a. a team member performs well. b. when working with project sponsors. c. others respect the project manager's opinion and expertise. d. a team member is not performing
A
The Budget at Completion (BAC) is the sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed on a project. As such it is equivalent to: a. the total planned value of the project. b. the total earned value of the project. c. the total actual cost of the project. d. the total value of the work completed to date
A
The project manager is responsible for selecting appropriate quality standards for the project. Typically, these standards apply to all of the following EXCEPT: a. team selection criteria b. documentation created during the project c. deliverables created by the project d. materials and related inputs used by the project
A
Which of the following serves as a pre-condition that must be met in order for a project kick-off meeting to be successful? a. An atmosphere of trust and relationship building should be set by all. b. Project performance results should be calculated and made available to team members. c. Compensation packages and benefits plans should be shared with all team members. d. The meeting location should always be off-site
A
Which of the following statements is consistent with the ideas that W. Edwards Deming promoted regarding quality management? a. Understanding variation is essential to improving quality. b. Statistical concepts rather than behavioral considerations should govern quality improvement efforts. c. A key to quality improvement is to ensure that each part of the system functions effectively, independent from the others. d. The burden of quality falls on those that do the work
A
Which party to a contract absorbs the preponderance of cost risk when a Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP) contract is used? a. the seller b. the buyer c. the cost risk is equally shared. d. the insurer
A
W. Edwards Deming asserted that managers need to understand both serial variation and sequential variation and then work to reduce both.
F
A description of the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services or results is known as: a. the contract clauses and special provisions b. the procurement statement of work c. the supply invoice d. the purchase order
B
A project team attempting to close a project should review all of the following documents to ensure that everything promised was delivered EXCEPT: a. the project charter b. the stakeholder register c. the work breakdown structure d. the project schedule
B
A project team attempting to close a project should review which of the following to ensure the customers are satisfied with the project work? a. the project charter b. the customer feedback and scope verification c. the communication plan d. the project organization chart
B
A source of variation that is inherent in a system and predictable is typically known as: a. special cause variation. b. common cause variation. c. systemic variation. d. life cycle variation
B
All of the following accurately describe skills that an owner's representative can use during the project when making tradeoffs EXCEPT: a. Managing change b. Inspecting quality into the project c. Team building d. Knowledge of criteria
B
All of the following are advantages associated with assigning both core team members and subject matter experts to the project as soon as possible EXCEPT: a. implementers are more motivated when they help create the plan b. early assignment of SMEs to the project saves money c. early assignment helps ensure team members are available when needed d. plans are more realistic when those who will perform the work are involved in the planning
B
All of the following entities are typically included in the supply chain EXCEPT: a. suppliers b. public relations c. consumers d. project team
B
All of the following factors are commonly used to assess potential suppliers pursuant to a source selection decision EXCEPT: a. supply quality b. personal relationships with senior management c. inbound transportation cost d. replenishment lead time
B
All of the following items contribute to developing empowered performance in an organization EXCEPT: a. setting an expectation for managers to encourage associates to treat risk events as learning opportunities b. accepting the fact that the project manager has total decision making authority c. training and equipping workers so that they're willing to take risks d. helping develop specialists who can aid anyone in the organization
B
All of the following practices have proven effective for managing lessons learned in an organization EXCEPT: a. creation of databases, shared folders or wikis that all workers can easily access. b. documenting all lessons learned only at the end of the project. c. coding of lessons learned to facilitate searches by future teams. d. assignment of a lessons learned database "owner" who reviews new lessons and incorporates into existing lessons.
B
All of the following reasons might lead to a contract termination for default EXCEPT: a. problems associated with the project schedule b. changing customer priorities c. a loss of confidence in the contractor performing the project d. problems associated with the project cost
B
Assembling the right quantity and variety of skills and experience for the project team can be quite challenging. One strategy is to staff the project with a combination of experienced and less experienced workers. All of the following are benefits associated with this approach EXCEPT: a. It often costs less to use an inexperienced person. b. The project manager can dominate the more junior team members c. Mentoring within the team helps to achieve organizational learning. d. The more experienced person can help to mentor the more junior person.
B
During which stage of team development do team members attempt to jockey for power, ask many questions and establish dubious goals? a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing
B
Frequently, project managers lack legitimate power based upon position and instead resort to persuading others based upon personal relationships. This type of power is known as: a. coercive power b. referent power c. connection power d. positional power
B
It is argued that project teams progress through five stages of team development. Which of the following sequences best represents this progression? a. forming, norming, storming, performing, reforming b. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning c. forming, storming, norming, performing, reforming d. forming, performing, reforming, norming, adjourning
B
Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to conduct quality planning. All of the following items are consistent with his quality planning guidance EXCEPT: a. identify all customers and their needs b. quality must be inspected into the process c. develop methods to satisfy customer requirements d. develop requirements based on customer needs
B
Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to control quality. Which of the following items is consistent with his quality control guidance? a. identify all team members and their needs b. establish measurement systems c. prove effects d. expend necessary efforts to exceed requirements
B
One useful method of process improvement involves consideration of how another organization performs a process with an eye toward determining how to improve your own performance. This method is known as: a. comparative improvement. b. benchmarking. c. variance analysis. d. sensitivity analysis
B
Some organizations rely upon a formally chartered group of stakeholders responsible for reviewing, evaluating and approving changes to the project. This group is typically known as a: a. stakeholder review board. b. change control board. c. project evaluation committee. d. steering committee
B
The PMBOK process of documenting project procurement decisions, specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers is known as: a. Define supply chain. b. Plan procurement management. c. Schedule procurements. d. Negotiate contracts
B
The four core project quality concepts include which of the following? a. assumption-based management b. stakeholder satisfaction c. benchmarking d. earned value management
B
The personal values of team members on high-performing teams can be enhanced through which of the following team behavior practices? a. independent efforts and emphasis on the individual b. constant focus on improvement c. unilateral initiatives and personal competition d. adherence to formal procedures
B
The process of improving the competencies, team interaction, and the overall team environment to enhance project performance is known as: a. Acquire project team b. Develop project team c. Connect project team d. Manage project team interactions
B
When a project manager asks clarifying questions and paraphrases what is being communicated to them, he or she is using ? a. Passive listening c. Information gathering techniques b. Active listening d. Soft skills
B
Which of the following measures is best suited for determining whether the project is on, ahead or behind schedule? a. Estimate to Complete (ETC) b. Schedule Variance (SV) c. To Complete Performance Index (TCPI) d. Schedule Compliance (SC)
B
During which DMAIC phase would you find the objectives of identify possible root causes, collect data, and confirm root causes through data analysis? a. Define b. Measure c. Analyze d. Improve
C
Which of the following quality management thought leaders is generally credited with contributing the insight that team learning is necessary to improve quality? a. Ishikawa b. Senge c. Taguchi d. Harrington
B
Which of the following terms describes a method for transforming contractual arrangements into a cohesive, collaborative project team with a single set of goals and established dispute resolution procedures? a. a contract unification plan b. partnering c. arbitration d. conflict resolution
B
Which of the following types of contracts involves payment to the seller for the seller's actual costs plus a fee typically representing the seller's profit? a. fixed-price contract b. cost-reimbursable contract c. equitable adjustment contract d. direct cost contract
B
DMAIC is a disciplined process that includes five phases: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control. DMAIC is most typically associated with which of the following quality improvement approaches? a. Malcolm Baldrige b. Total Quality Management (TQM) c. Six Sigma d. ISO 9001:2008
C
After completing detailed planning for a project, it is often helpful for the project manager and team to apply a sanity test to the project plan. Which of the following accurately describes the application of a sanity test? a. It is based largely on the expectations of supervisors and sponsors. b. It is primarily focused on the team members. c. It should include questions to ensure budgets, schedules and resource plans are reasonable and achievable. d. It focuses on whether the project charter should be changed
C
All of the following accurately describe earned value management EXCEPT: a. It is used to make predictions concerning the project schedule and cost control until the project's conclusion. b. It enables a project team to understand progress in terms of both cost and schedule. c. It is good for performance reporting but not for forecasting d. It is used as a decision-making tool.
C
All of the following are among the methods project managers can use to develop individual and team capabilities EXCEPT: a. teach personal responsibility b. demand situational leadership c. utilize coercive powers d. demonstrate personal leadership
C
All of the following are among the steps of the negotiation process EXCEPT: a. clarify both parties interests b. work toward a common goal c. use "good cop / bad cop" technique d. clarify and confirm agreements
C
All of the following are among the types of capabilities that are useful for project team members EXCEPT: a. activity-specific knowledge and skills b. personal learning c. insensitivity towards others d. organizational understanding
C
All of the following items are among the key areas covered by the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award EXCEPT: a. Leadership b. Strategic planning c. Team Learning d. Customer focus
C
All of the following statements accurately describe special cause variation EXCEPT: a. It is not inherent in the system b. It comes from external sources c. It is inherent in the system and is predictable d. It can be quite unpredictable
C
Often a project team will start the selection process by establishing a list of potential suppliers. All of the following information sources are frequently used to identify these potential suppliers EXCEPT: a. supplier catalogs or websites b. sales personnel c. stakeholder register d. trade shows
C
Project partnerships offer all of the following advantages to vendors EXCEPT: a. there is a more dependable stream of work b. the expected outcome is clearly stated c. the buyer gains at the vendor's expense d. greater potential profit
C
Project teams often adopt ground rules to address which of the following relationship topics? a. manage sponsors and senior leaders b. manage customers and clients c. protect confidentiality d. protect the project sponsor
C
The decision process for developing relevant quality standards on a project includes all of the following activities EXCEPT: a. identify all stakeholders b. understand the prioritized stakeholders' requirements c. design work systems d. make tradeoff decisions
C
The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as: a. product acceptance. b. system turnover. c. validate scope d. control scope
C
The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents and project management plan; and communicating their disposition, is known as: a. perform project monitoring. b. variance analysis and control. c. perform integrated change control. d. configuration management
C
The procurement management plan: a. describes how the procurement division will be managed. b. describes how supply chain partners will be managed. c. describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization. d. describes how sellers will be audited by the procurement team.
C
Which of the following activities are typically included in a project kick-off meeting? a. The project manager evaluates team member performance. b. The project team collects lessons learned for use on future projects. c. The project manager outlines the project goals. d. The project sponsor brings in a facilitator to conduct a brainstorming exercise
C
Which of the following contract types is most appropriate when costs are NOT well known and the buyer absorbs all of the cost risk? a. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP) b. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Firm (FPIF) c. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) d. Time and Material (T&M)
C
Which of the following documents describes how the project team will implement the performing organization's quality policy? a. quality benchmarking plan b. quality control plan c. quality management plan d. quality audit plan
C
Which of the following factors should be considered when a project team evaluates a "make or buy" decision to procure services? a. prevailing public opinion regarding the economic impact of outsourcing b. only the direct costs associated with the decision, excluding consideration of indirect costs c. advantages and disadvantages of outsourcing in terms of time, cost and performance control d. project manager's or sponsor's preference
C
Which of the following is true concerning lessons learned on a project? a. Lessons learned can only be gathered from project team members. b. Lessons are only identified at the end of the project after learning has occurred. c. Lessons are the knowledge gained by team members as they perform the project. d. Lessons learned are always provided by the customer.
C
Which of the following serves as an important guideline concerning project inspections? a. inspect after critical or expensive processes to make sure the inputs are good b. inspect immediately after prevention c. inspect at milestones identified in the project charter d. inspect only as a last resort
C
Which of these guidelines should be used to handle project information needs? a. target communications to as many people as possible b. replace communication methods as soon as new methods emerge c. provide information soon enough so that it is useful to the recipient d. use emails as the only form of communications
C
Which quality tool provides a crisp definition of what and how to measure specific performance? a. voice of the customer b. root cause analysis c. quality metrics d. benchmarking
C
While the manage communications process is underway, effective information distribution often requires the project manager and team to accomplish all of the following activities EXCEPT: a. determine any information needs not already uncovered b. establish an information retrieval and distribution system c. develop responses to identifies risks d. report project performance to stakeholders
C
All of the following are among the common task-related sources of project conflict EXCEPT: a. schedule b. project priorities c. technical approach d. personalities
D
All of the following accurately apply to project performance reporting EXCEPT: a. Progress report meetings are a good way to capture lessons learned. b. Performance can be reported at fixed intervals or at key project milestones. c. Progress can be reported at varying degrees of frequency depending on the stakeholders. d. The same report format should be used for all stakeholders
D
All of the following accurately describe the features and characteristics of a contract EXCEPT: a. A contract binds both the seller and the buyer. b. A contract obligates the seller to provide a specified product or service. c. A contract obligates the buyer to pay for a specified product or service. d. The project organization is always a buyer in a contract arrangement
D
All of the following describe benefits associated with celebrating the completion of a project EXCEPT: a. Celebrations can persuade team members to do just a bit more than they might otherwise. b. Celebrations provide an opportunity to recognize team member efforts. c. Celebrations mark transition points as people leave one project for another. d. Celebrations are held in conjunction with team performance reviews
D
All of the following items are generally considered when selecting the right type of contract EXCEPT: a. extent of price competition b. overall degree of cost and schedule risk c. urgency of requirements d. project organization's accounting system
D
All of the following items are valid reasons to conduct a project kick-off meeting EXCEPT: a. to give team members a chance to see how all the parts fit together b. to convince stakeholders that the project leaders will be good stewards of the customer's and organization's assets c. to help involved workers to understand the touch points where work exchanges hands d. to emphasize that all decisions will be made exclusively by the project manager
D
All of the following reasons explain why it is better to design quality into processes than to find problems through inspections EXCEPT: a. The cost of rework can be expensive. b. The time spent on rework aggravates time pressures that already exist on projects. c. Some mistakes are likely to reach the customer. d. The best inspectors should find every variation and defect
D
All of the following represent common methods for making decisions on contemporary project teams EXCEPT: a. The project manager makes the decision. b. One or two team members make the decision. c. The project team votes to make the decision. d. The sponsor is asked to make all of the decisions
D
All of these are factors that could lead to a decision to buy or outsource rather than make or perform in-house, EXCEPT: a. flexibility in procurement b. ability to use specialized suppliers c. inadequate capacity d. more control over quality and time
D
Any of the following attributes can serve as a useful factor for coding lessons learned EXCEPT: a. type of project b. stage in project life cycle c. issue it concerns d. lessons learned owner
D
Closure of a project generally entails all of the following activities EXCEPT: a. ensuring all work has been accomplished b. ensuring all resources have been reassigned c. ensuring all documentation is complete d. updating the project management plan
D
Evaluations of prospective suppliers by project teams often involve all of the following approaches EXCEPT: a. financial condition analysis b. facility visits c. supplier surveys d. prototyping
D
In which of the following tools would a normal or bell-shaped curve be expected if no special conditions are occurring? a. flow chart b. cause and effect diagram c. check sheet d. histogram
D
Project teams often adopt ground rules to address which of the following process topics? a. manage customer's expectations b. manage the firm's project management process c. manage the firm's project reporting process d. manage meetings
D
The personal values of team members on high-performing teams can be enhanced through all of the following beneficial communication practices EXCEPT: a. free sharing of information within and beyond the team b. open discussion of all important topics c. proactive reporting of potential problems d. encouragement of personal conflict
D
Which of the following styles of handling conflict is most appropriate whenever there is enough time, trust can be established, the issue is important to both sides and buy-in is needed? a. forcing / competing b. smoothing / accommodating c. compromising d. collaborating / problem solving
D
A contract is a unilateral document that obligates the seller to provide specified products and services under terms agreeable to the buyer.
F
A high level view of processes and stakeholders, that starts with suppliers and ends with customers, is sometimes referred to as a "Plan-Do-Check-Act" (PDCA) model.
F
A project manager leads by placing the demands of the parent organization and the project above the needs of the project team members.
F
All project teams progress uniformly through five stages of team development.
F
Buying from an outside supplier to meet project needs is a practice that is rarely used, because it invariably proves to be more expensive than obtaining materials and services internally.
F
Early termination can be either for default or for the convenience of the seller.
F
Earned Value (EV) is the authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work.
F
Extensive supplier evaluation approaches such as surveys, facility visits and financial analysis should be applied to first-tier suppliers only.
F
Fixed price contracts provide low risk for the seller, since the buyer will pay a fixed price, regardless of how much the project actually costs the seller.
F
If necessary, the quality policy on a specific project may violate either the quality policies of the parent organization or of a major customer.
F
In agile projects, communication is frequent and rapid. Progress report meetings are held every morning as brief 15 minute standup meetings.
F
In order to determine that a project is progressing adequately, a project manager could use a balanced scorecard approach to evaluate the organization along supplier, external business, risk and human resource perspectives.
F
Information is power. Withholding or distorting project information is a viable and potentially useful approach to increase power for the project manager.
F
Inspection is keeping errors out of process while prevention is trying to find errors so they do not get to the customer.
F
It is often costly, difficult or even impossible to inspect an entire sample. When that is the case, it is best to inspect the population.
F
Leadership within a project team should be demonstrated only by the project manager.
F
On complex projects, despite the importance of factors such as technical capability, managerial capability and previous experience; the selection decision is made mostly or entirely on price.
F
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project.
F
Perform Quality Assurance is monitoring specific results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards.
F
Proactive project managers realize that conducting clear, succinct, one-way communication is a major key to their team's success.
F
Since projects are temporary in nature and the project team disbands upon completion, it is not necessary for project managers to provide ongoing support in the form of training or change management.
F
Supply chain management focuses exclusively upon the parties directly involved in providing supplies to the project team.
F
The "relationship" topics within team ground rules, such as protect confidentiality and avoid misunderstandings, should eliminate the need for conflict management techniques.
F
The Cost Variance (CV) is a measure of cost efficiency of budgeted resources on a project, expressed as the ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC).
F
The control quality process deals with using correct policies and convincing stakeholders that the project team is capable of producing good output.
F
The goal of empowered performance is to improve performance results each and every period.
F
The purpose of a check sheet is to quickly understand the primary causes of a particular problem using the 80/20 rule.
F
The standard approach to making decisions on a project is to clearly and consistently vest decision making authority in the project manager.
F
On some projects, some deliverables remain incomplete at project close-out. Activities that are not complete should be itemized, and responsibility for each should be clearly identified.
T
One important way to build team capacity is to create a desirable team identity.
T
One of the important factors that should influence the selection of contract type is the degree of risk for the seller and the buyer that each contract type contains.
T
Outputs of Plan Procurement Management include the procurement management plan and procurement statement of work.
T
Perform Quality Assurance is the process of auditing the quality requirements, and the results from quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.
T
Project close-out checklists are used by many organizations to assign responsibility to each item concerning project closeout.
T
A method for documenting and sharing lessons must be established in order for an organization to capitalize on lessons learned.
T
A project organization can serve as either the buyer or the seller in a project related contract.
T
A tolerance limit is what the customer will accept, whereas a control limit reflects what the process can consistently deliver when things are behaving normally.
T
Among the disadvantages associated with outsourcing is the gradual loss of special skills for doing some specific activities that have been outsourced.
T
Celebrations of success ease the stress of working hard for a prolonged period of time trying to accomplish a project.
T
Conflict over ideas on how to proceed with a project can lead to more creative approaches.
T
Contract incentives are often used when the buyer wants to maximize some aspect of performance, such as finishing the project early or providing a higher level of quality.
T
Crosby, a well known quality management thought leader, asserts that quality is meeting requirements, not exceeding them.
T
DMAIC is typically used as a method of implementing continuous improvement and can thus be practiced repeatedly.
T
During procurement planning, the project team determines which needs can best be met by acquiring products and services from an outside provider, and which can be accomplished by the team.
T
Effective project partnerships generally require shared responsibilities, shared resources, shared information, shared rights and shared risks between suppliers and customers.
T
Fact-based management requires an understanding of variation, deciding what to measure, working correctly with data, and using the resulting information appropriately.
T
For risk events partially within project control, resolution strategies include working with clients to reprioritize cost, schedule, scope or quality and carefully escalate problems.
T
Great team synergy can make a team's capability better than the individual members' capabilities.
T
Helping good workers to secure good follow-on work is one of the most important things a project manager must do near the end of the project.
T
High-performing project teams will typically persevere despite challenges, produce high quality results and consistently meet or exceed stakeholder expectations.
T
In a control chart, a point that occurs above the upper control limit typically means that some sort of special cause is creating the variation and requires a specific intervention.
T
In many cases, the proposal prepared by the vendor becomes a part of the final contract.
T
Information is a key ingredient at each stage of the project supply chain, as well as within each phase of supply chain decision making.
T
Joseph Juran is credited for developing the Quality Trilogy that includes quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement.
T
Lean purchasing refers to a manufacturing context where just-in-time (JIT) tools are used to ensure that every step in the supply process adds value, while costs are kept to a minimum.
T
Lessons learned can include significant project successes.
T
Logistics is the work required to move and position inventory throughout a supply chain.
T
Many conflicts on projects have multiple causes.
T
Monitoring and controlling project work refers to the processes of tracking, reviewing and reporting progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project plan.
T
More organizations effectively collect lessons learned than effectively disseminate and use them.
T
On long projects it is often better to capture lessons frequently since people may not remember clearly what happened several months previously.
T
On many small, simple projects the quality planning is performed concurrently with other planning and the quality plan is seamlessly incorporated into the project plan.
T
