P/S Questions

What declines with cognitive aging?

- Recall - harder for older adults to generate response without cues - New episodic (declarative) memories - Processing speed - Divided attention

What improves with cognitive aging?

- Semantic memory - knowledge of words and their meaning, objects, concepts, and facts; knowledge of people - improves till the age of 60 and then decline - Crystallized intelligence - using knowledge and experience - Emotional reasoning

Partial report technique

- Study by Sterling found that iconic memory (momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli) has a large capacity after asking participants to recall 3 rows of 4 letters based on a different tone for each line. - A method of testing memory in which only some of the total information presented is to be recalled. For example, if several rows of letters are shown to the participant, a cue given afterward may prompt recall of only one particular row.

Operational span testing

- Test to see the general capacity of working memory tasks, patients are asked to read and verify a simple math problem (is 4/2 - 1 = 1?) then read a word after such as SNOW, after doing a series of problems and words they are asked to recall the word that followed each operation. - Predicts verbal abilities and reading comprehension even though the subject is solving a math problem. - Argues that it implies a general pool of resources that is used in every type of working memory situation

What remains stable during cognitive aging?

- Implicit memory (procedural memory) - Recognition - able to remember information learned in the past

What is the life course approach?

A holistic perspective that calls attention to developmental processes and other experiences across a person's life. For example, early life exposure to the Stroke Belt can influence later disease risk (increase incidence of strokes).

According to Mead, which behavior is an expression of the Me component of the Self? A. An individual studying for an exam instead of going to a party B. An individual skipping work because they want to go to a concert D. An individual ignoring the emotional needs of a significant other D. An individual dressing inappropriately for a job interview

A. An individual studying for an exam instead of going to a party Studying for an exam instead of going to a party represents the socialized and conforming aspect of self, described by Mead as the ME component of Self. Wrong Answers: B, C, & D: reflect aspects of Mead's I, the spontaneous, less socialized component of the Self.

Which psychological process is best represented in the hypothetical example at the end of the passage? Passage: "For example, family members may enact cultural preferences when asking a provider to withhold aspects of a cancer diagnosis from a patient. If the provider fulfills this request, he or she may struggle to reconcile that action with norms favoring disclosure." A. Cognitive dissonance B. A self-fulfilling prophecy C. Confirmation bias D. The fundamental attribution error

A. Cognitive dissonance Negotiating how to handle diagnosis and treatment can take on added complexity when patients and providers come from different cultural backgrounds. As the passage suggests, a provider may feel tension after fulfilling a family's request (to withhold aspects of a diagnosis) that conflicts with professional norms favoring disclosure. The resulting experience of psychological discomfort identifies cognitive dissonance, which can occur when there is a discrepancy among attitudes or an inconsistency between an attitude and a behavior.

Participants who reported personal memories about particular songs were retrieving which type of information? A. Episodic B. Semantic C. Implicit D. Sensory

A. Episodic Episodic information consists of the declarative information people have of specific experiences.

Which concept takes into account the negative impact of long-term exposure to stressful events addressed in the first paragraph? Passage: "Stressful events are associated with a risk for first onset and recurrence of depression, particularly in those with preexisting vulnerabilities to depression. This interaction is further complicated by the negative impact of long-term exposure to stressful events." A. General adaptation syndrome B. Fight-or-flight response C. Activation-synthesis model D. Long-term potentiation

A. General adaptation syndrome General adaptation syndrome (GAS) is a model of the body's stress response that consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. An individual enters the stage of exhaustion only after that individual has encountered the stressor for a prolonged period of time. Wrong Answers: B. Fight-or-flight response is an automatic sympathetic response to stress. After a period of time passes, the stress response is reduced and the parasympathetic "rest and digest" kicks in. C. Activation-synthesis model is associated with dreams depicting neural activation. D. Long-term potentiation is the strengthening of synapses based on repeated patterns of activity.

If the researchers were focused on an evolutionary perspective of human motivation, what aspect of the study results would be of most interest to them? Passage: "Levels of morbid obesity are rising throughout the western world. This increase has been attributed to easy access to high caloric foods and the advertising of those foods to children, particularly between the ages of 5 to 7 years." A. Hunger ratings for images of food B. Fasting plasma glucose concentrations C. Activity in the anterior cingulate cortex D. Negative and positive affects

A. Hunger ratings for images of food From an evolutionary standpoint, humans have developed a preference for high caloric foods because they are a good source of fuel in the form of fat. Fat can sustain bodily functions through periods of time when food is scarce (a common problem throughout evolution).

Negative priming requires which type of memory process? Passage: "...negative priming (slow, error-prone responses to stimuli that were previously ignored)...To assess negative priming, participants focused on a central fixation point on a computer screen and indicated, as quickly as they could, the location of the letter "O" while being distracted by the letter "X". A. Implicit memory B. Declarative memory C. Iconic memory D. Explicit memory

A. Implicit memory Implicit (procedural) memory refers to the ability to subconsciously use previous experiences to aid in future tasks. Implicit memory takes no effort, such as remembering how to drive a car. Explicit memory on the other hand, takes conscious effort. Priming is a key player in implicit memory; priming occurs when exposure to a stimulus influences the response to another stimulus. Positive priming speeds up the reaction to the stimulus, while negative priming slows down the reaction to the stimulus. In this problem, it looks like the letter X is slowing down the time it takes to react to the letter O. Now lets stay that there were two Os next to the larger O which helps you find the location of "O" faster, this is positive priming. An example I found on the internet for positive priming states that if you see the color yellow, you think of bananas faster. Since X slows down the time it takes to react to O, this is negative priming.

The experience that the items in Panel D are arranged in columns is best attributed to which principle of perceptual organization? Passage: "One example of the human tendency for perceptual organization is evident in Panel D of Figure 1. People tend to see the items arranged in columns of squares and circles, rather than rows of alternating shapes." A. Similarity B. Proximity C. Closure D. Continuity

A. Similarity The principle of grouping by similarity states that things that look alike are more likely to be grouped together during perceptual processing. Thus, in this panel, people see columns of the same items.

The discussion of which topic in the passage is most consistent with social cognitive theory's emphasis on modeling? Passage: "Norms against tobacco use can become established in a community when children and adolescents regularly observe health behaviors that are inconsistent with smoking." A. Smoking prevention by establishing norms against tobacco use B. Understanding the treatment implications of cultural differences C. Obtaining the skills and education required to practice medicine D. Supplementing the biomedical approach with other perspectives

A. Smoking prevention by establishing norms against tobacco use Social cognitive theory (originally referred to as social learning theory) suggests that behaviors are learned through observing others and modeling their actions. Observational learning and modeling is consistent with the passage's discussion of smoking prevention. In that discussion, community norms against tobacco use are described as becoming established when children and adolescents observe health behaviors that are inconsistent with smoking.

Which major developmental milestone best explains the difference between the results seen for the 6- versus 9-month olds in Study 1? Passage: "The results showed that the 3-month-old infants demonstrated recognition for own-race and all three other-race faces, the 6-month-old infants were able to recognize own-race and one of the other-race faces, and the 9-month-old infants' recognition was restricted to own-race faces." A. Stranger anxiety B. Critical period C. Object permanence D. Autonomy

A. Stranger anxiety Stranger anxiety is the fear of strangers (or other-race faces in the case of this passage) that infants commonly begin to express around 8 months of age.

The researchers' conclusion in Study 2 is most consistent with which public health strategy in SB states? Passage: "Results showed that specific age ranges and length of time were both associated with increased stroke risk. After adjusting for demographic factors, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risks, the strongest association with stroke incidence was found for SB exposure during adolescence (ages 13-18). The researchers concluded that the significance of adolescence may be related to establishing social norms that will affect stroke risk in adulthood." A. Targeting the formation of health behaviors in social networks B. Eliminating prejudice and ethnocentrism in health care delivery C. Reducing role conflict and supporting psychosocial development D. Increasing social and cultural capital in low income communities

A. Targeting the formation of health behaviors in social networks Based on the Study 2 findings, the researchers concluded that the significance of adolescence may be related to establishing social norms that will affect stroke risk in adulthood. This conclusion suggests targeting the formation of norms during adolescence. Relationships and interactions in adolescents' social networks will establish norms related to health that may become long-standing. Targeting the formation of health behaviors could involve the norms in adolescents' peer networks, family networks, and community networks.

The following population pyramid best supports which projected demographic outcome? A. The overall size of the population is likely to decrease. B. The mortality rate of the population is unlikely to change. C. The median age of the population is unlikely to change. D. The birth rate of the population is likely to increase.

A. The overall size of the population is likely to decrease. Population pyramids illustrate the age and sex distribution of a population. The population pyramid in the question shows an aging population, as the size of the population increases with age (until the age groups at the top of the figure, where mortality rates are highest). Because of the "inverse" pyramid shape represented in the figure, with the older age groups being larger than the younger age groups, the overall size of the population is likely to decrease over time.

Which term is used to describe a memory report that is inaccurate, but expressed with extreme confidence? A. Autobiographical memory B. False memory C. Amnesia D. Recovered memory

B. False memory So-called false memories can be observed both in real-world and laboratory settings, and they are generally given with high confidence.

Two friends accept internships with a city council member even though they do not agree with many of the council member's policies. Which is most likely to happen if they are in a state of dissonance? The students will: A. adapt their attitudes to be more in line with the council member. B. quit the internships after a period of time. C. continue in the internships but retain their original beliefs. D. do as little work as possible so as not to advance the council member's agenda.

A. adapt their attitudes to be more in line with the council member. According to the cognitive dissonance theory, the feelings of discomfort experienced from cog. dissonance can lead to alterations in our beliefs/behaviors. A person wants to maintain internal harmony when making decisions, in their thoughts, actions, and words. 4 things to reduce dissonance: 1. Modify cognitions (a smoker would say, "I really don't smoke that much") 2. Add more cognitions ("I exercise so much it doesn't matter.) 3. Deny the facts ("Smoking and cancer are not linked.") 4. Trivialize - make less important ("Evidence is weak that smoking causes cancer.") Two friends accept internships with a city council member even though they do not agree with many of the council member's policies. Which is most likely to happen if they are in a state of dissonance? The students will:

As described in the passage, performance-approach outcomes: Passage: "Goal orientation theory states that one engages in learning activities in order to pursue particular goals. These goals are mastery (e.g., to enhance one's knowledge), performance-approach (e.g., to receive rewards or recognition), and performance-avoidance (e.g., to avoid negative feedback). A. can be conceptualized as formal or informal sanctions. B. are often the result of latent functions. C. can be associated with role exit in social interactions. D. are direct manifestations of the individual's ascribed status.

A. can be conceptualized as formal or informal sanctions. Sanctions are like praises or penalties and can be formal (gold medal awarded / jail sentence) or informal (pat on the back / verbal warning). So "rewards or recognitions" from the passage fits this description. AAMC Explanation: The answer to this question is option A because the rewards or recognition of performance-approach outcomes most directly parallel formal and informal sanctions, which can be either rewards or punishments. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to use scientific reasoning to associate the receiving rewards or recognition component of performance-approach goals (a psychological concept) with the sociological concepts of sanctions, which can be either rewards or punishments. Wrong Answers: B. Latent functions - unrecognized and unintended consequences of any social pattern. A latent function is something that is not intended as in "learning the value of working hard." To get a reward for your performance would be manifest (intended consequence) since performance-approach is a goal oriented process and to partake in it means you are working towards that goal (direct intention). C. Role exit would be performance-avoidance (to avoid negative feedback) D. Ascribed status - a social position assigned to a person by society without regard for the person's unique talents or characteristics. Therefore, giving reward or recognition would in fact give regard to the individuals talent/characteristics.

Which statement is consistent with a symbolic interactionist interpretation of the findings in Study 2? The stigmatizing example: Passage: "The scene was introduced by a synopsis either supporting the protagonist (by suggesting a difficult childhood) or stigmatizing him (by suggesting he was a "scoundrel"). Results indicated that subjects who were given the stigmatizing example applied a higher number of shocks than subjects who were given the sympathetic portrayal. A. created a negative label the participants interpreted and responded to in their behavior. B. operated as an effective sorting mechanism for administering shocks. C. inequitably predisposed certain participants toward receiving additional shocks. D. supports a rational basis for differentially administering shocks to participants.

A. created a negative label the participants interpreted and responded to in their behavior. The symbolic interactionist perspective, which is predicated on interaction and interpretation, the stigmatizing example created a negative label to which the participants interpreted and responded.

A researcher finds a +0.38 correlation between a test of verbal intelligence and a test of spatial intelligence. Speculating about a common factor, "g," the researcher concludes that: A. performance on both tests is partly determined by "g." B. the two tests measure different things, which does not include a "g" component. C. both of the tests are excellent measures of "g." D. that "g" is a statistical artifact with no real-world validity.

A. performance on both tests is partly determined by "g." A correlation of +0.38 shows a potential common factor, but with a significant degree of potential error. Correlations can range from 0 to 1, (0 is absent, 1 is very strong). So, this factor g may account for something needed in both spatial and verbal intelligence (perhaps working memory), but not so much that I would call either test an excellent measure of g.

Which is a plausible reason for assessing participants' fluid intelligence in the study? Fluid intelligence will: Passage: "A measure of fluid intelligence was included to investigate whether any relationships between symptoms and cognitive functioning were maintained despite differences in general cognitive ability...Fluid intelligence was significantly positively correlated with verbal fluency only in the SPD group." A. positively influence performance on the cognitive tasks and should be controlled for in the study. B. positively influence scores on the APNS scale and should be controlled for in the study. C. negatively influence performance on the cognitive tasks and should be controlled for in the study. D. negatively influence scores on the APNS scale and should be controlled for in the study.

A. positively influence performance on the cognitive tasks and should be controlled for in the study. Fluid intelligence is the ability to think on one's feet, be adaptable, and solve problems using deductive and inductive reasoning. Fluid intelligence is key to cognitive functioning and it was positively correlated with verbal fluency in the SPD group.

Which scenario is NOT an accurate representation of the McDonaldization of society? A. A customer cleaning their table and disposing of waste after eating at a restaurant B. A doctor seeing a patient at his or her residence rather than at a medical facility C. A supermarket chain using self-scan machines at check-outs, in place of employees D. A chain of coffee shops offering the same menu and décor across the United States

B. A doctor seeing a patient at his or her residence rather than at a medical facility The answer to this question is option B because it does not represent the elements of McDonaldization which include efficiency (option A), calculability, uniformity (option D), and technological control (option C)

Based on the passage, incentive theory is most closely aligned with which theoretical framework in sociology? Passage: "Later studies in the 1950s focused on conditioning and rewards, and showed that animals were motivated to engage in behaviors that produced rewards or incentives. Indeed, the development of incentive theory is predicated on the notion that organisms must be aware that their behavior will produce a particular reinforcer. Researchers proposed that an organism's drive state increases neural activity, which prompts motor activity facilitated by an incentive." A. Conflict theory B. Exchange theory C. Structure functionalism D. Symbolic interaction

B. Exchange theory Exchange theory addresses decision making via cost-benefit analyses; similarly, incentive theory argues that individuals are motivated to engage in behaviors that produce rewards or incentives. Wrong Answers: A. Conflict Theory - the idea that conflict between competing interests (resources) is the basic, animating force of social change and society in general C. Structure functionalism - a sociological theory that attempts to explain why society functions the way it does by focusing on the relationships between the various social institutions that make up society D. Symbolic Interaction - a micro-level theory in which shared meanings, orientations, and assumptions form the basic motivations behind people's actions

Under certain circumstances, such as having received news about something traumatic on a particular day, many people claim that they remember every detail of what they were doing when they received the news. Psychologists use which term to describe this unusual phenomenon? A. Repression B. Flashbulb memory C. Recency effect D. Spacing effect

B. Flashbulb memory Brown and Kulik (1977) coined the term "flashbulb memory" when they found that people claimed to remember detail of what they were doing when they received news about an emotionally arousing event.

As described in the passage, a medical student's sense of self-efficacy and confidence regarding patient interactions is most likely to manifest via which phenomenon? Passage: "In a study from 2012, researchers applied goal orientation theory to medical students' sense of self-efficacy and confidence regarding their patient interactions and their ability to tolerate frustration...Findings from the study showed that students with a mastery goal were more likely to rate themselves as being able to handle patient interactions well, and were less likely to report maladaptive coping with stressful situations." A. The Thomas theorem B. Impression management C. Back stage self D. Hawthorne effect

B. Impression management Impression management: conscious or subconscious process in which people attempt to influence the perceptions of others about a person, object or event by regulating and controlling information in social interaction. Manifest = intended consequences AAMC Explanation: Impression management in the only concept listed that addresses how individuals actively manifest their sense of self in social interactions. Wrong Answers: A. The Thomas Theorem - " If men define situations as real, they are real in their consequences. " In other words, the interpretation of a situation causes the action. Question stem deals with medicals student and patient interaction, not just medical student interpreting themselves. C. Back Stage Self - refers to how an individual will behave in front of those they are comfortable with or when alone. There is no audience present. Front stage self would fit better because people alter their behavior to suit the audience. D. Hawthorne effect - a change in a subject's behavior caused simply by the awareness of being studied. This is more involved in experimental or observational studies in which someone changes their behavior such as working out more when they know they will be weighed for the experiment.

In which situation is neurotransmitter release from a presynaptic cell most likely to stimulate an action potential in a postsynaptic cell? A. In any excitable cell, if neurotransmitter binding opens ligand-gated channels at the synapse B. In a postsynaptic neuron where a depolarizing change in membrane potential exceeds threshold C. In a postsynaptic neuron that expresses a high density of neurotransmitter receptors D. In any excitable cell, if the neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft is acetylcholine

B. In a postsynaptic neuron where a depolarizing change in membrane potential exceeds threshold Action potentials are only generated in postsynaptic neurons when the depolarization stimulus exceeds threshold.

Which statement best characterizes how a proponent of the SG hypothesis will describe the direction of the relationship between stress and depression? A. Both independent and dependent stressors are unidirectionally related to depression. B. Independent stressors are unidirectionally related to depression, and dependent stressors are reciprocally related to depression. C. Dependent stressors are unidirectionally related to depression, and independent stressors are reciprocally related to depression. D. Both independent and dependent stressors are reciprocally related to depression.

B. Independent stressors are unidirectionally related to depression, and dependent stressors are reciprocally related to depression. An independent stressor is something that causes stress and is our of our control; such as a category 5 hurricane approaching Miami. A dependent stressor can lead to stress or be caused by stress and is mediated by behavior. For example, a person who is stressed lashes out on his or her family which further adds stress to her life. The answer to this question is B because an independent stressor is assumed to occur independently of any influence from the person experiencing the stress. This is a unidirectional relationship (stressor leads to depressive symptoms). Dependent stressors, on the other hand, not only influence depression but could themselves be influenced by depression (i.e., a reciprocal relationship).

Which phenomenon will an animal trainer most likely try to avoid when training a rabbit for a television commercial? A. Operant extinction B. Instinctual drift C. Stimulus generalization D. Partial reinforcement

B. Instinctual drift Instinctual drift is the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors. So the learned behavior "drifts" to the organism's species-specific (instinctual) behavior.

In a study of college students, a correlation was found between those reporting high rates of insomnia and reduced hit rates for detecting the sounds of birds chirping. This represents what type of correlation, and what phenomenon was described? A. Positive, signal detection B. Negative, signal detection C. Positive, difference threshold D. Negative, difference threshold

B. Negative, signal detection the relationship between rates of insomnia (high) and the hit rate (reduced) describes a negative correlation. In addition, according to signal detection theory the detection of a stimulus is not only dependent on its strength, but also on the psychological state (tired) of the individual.

The researchers determined that two participants in the S group were taking medication that may have exacerbated their negative symptoms. Which classification of medication were these participants most likely taking? A. Atypical antipsychotics B. Neuroleptics C. Hallucinogens D. Stimulants

B. Neuroleptics Atypical antipsychotics relieve both positive and negative symptoms, but neuroleptics tend to only relieve positive and either worsen or maintain negative symptoms. AAMC Explanation: Neuroleptics are the first generation antipsychotic drugs used to treat schizophrenia and though they are effective in treating positive symptoms, their side effects include cognitive dulling, which can exacerbate negative symptoms.

The researchers' conclusion in Study 1 draws most directly on which developmental concept? Passage: "The researchers concluded these findings were consistent with other studies that suggest a link between early development and physiological or behavioral changes that increase the risk of stroke decades later." A. Insecure attachment B. Sensitive period C. Assimilation D. Modeling

B. Sensitive period The question refers to the conclusion in Study 1, which suggests a link between early development (prenatal, infancy, or childhood) and physiological or behavioral changes that increase stroke risk decades later. This conclusion in the passage is most directly relevant to the concept of sensitive period (also referred to as a critical period), which identifies a point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life.

A patient being treated for chronic pain receives weekly doses of morphine from the same doctor, with whom the patient enjoys conversing. On another occasion, the patient is treated at another location and finds that the same dose is ineffective. What may have caused this change in effectiveness? A. The morphine interacted with another medicine the patient was taking. B. The morphine was given in a new environment. C. The doctor's office used a different drug manufacturer. D. The patient's body became sensitized to the same dose of morphine.

B. The morphine was given in a new environment. The only thing changed in the question stem is the environment which led to unsuccessful morphine treatment. The patient's regular morphine treatments that were successful were the result of the interaction of the treatment dose and the positive association with the doctor; therefore, the dose was not as effective in a new location where there was no positive association with the new doctor

Based on the concept of the looking-glass self, which reaction is most likely for a person who acquires a stigmatized illness? A. The person will seek out other people with the same stigmatized illness. B. The person will internalize the perceived stigmatization against him or her. C. The person will redirect feelings of stigmatization toward out-group members. D. The person will become stigmatized by his or her secondary group members.

B. The person will internalize the perceived stigmatization against him or her. The looking-glass self suggests that the self-concept is influenced by how we perceive that others are viewing us. Based on the looking-glass self, a person who acquires a stigmatized illness is likely to internalize the stigmatization directed against him or her.

What experimental set-up is most likely to result in a person with a severed corpus callosum saying "ball" after a researcher asks, "What do you see?" A. The letter b is projected to the left visual field, followed almost immediately by "all," at the same location. B. The word "ball" is projected to the right visual field, while "room" is presented to the left visual field. C. The word "base" is projected to the right visual field, while "ball" is projected to the left visual field. D. The word "basketball" is projected to the left visual field.

B. The word "ball" is projected to the right visual field, while "room" is presented to the left visual field. REMEMBER: THE OPTIC TRACT SEND INFORMATION TO THE CONTRALATERAL SIDE OF THE BRAIN AND DOESN'T PASS THRU THE CORPUS CALLOSUM. Information visualized thru the side eye will reach the left hemisphere of the brain and be processed by the language center. But if asked to describe the ball, the patient would not be able to because the connection form the left to the right hemisphere which is more "creative" is severed.

What modification to Study 2 would add to evidence suggesting that both the film clip and the judgment-based introduction of the protagonist were the reason for the different proportion of shocks? Passage: "Two groups of college students were shown a boxing scene in which a male protagonist was severely beaten. The scene was introduced by a synopsis either supporting the protagonist (by suggesting a difficult childhood) or stigmatizing him (by suggesting he was a "scoundrel"). After viewing the boxing scene, subjects were then asked to apply an appropriate number of shocks to a compatriot for poor or superior performance on a drawing task. Results indicated that subjects who were given the stigmatizing example applied a higher number of shocks than subjects who were given the sympathetic portrayal." A. Question each subject beforehand relative to their involvement in contact sports. B. Use violent and nonviolent clips, with positive and negative protagonist introductions. C. Show a boxing clip with an indeterminate outcome between opponents. D. Allow subjects to choose whether they want to shock or punch the compatriot.

B. Use violent and nonviolent clips, with positive and negative protagonist introductions. The answer to this question is B because by isolating what the subject sees qualitatively, categories designated as more or less aggressive. By doing this, the researchers are able to determine if both the film clip and the judgment-based introduction were the reason for the different proportion of shock.

The study in the passage best supports identifying popular culture as: A. a subset of counterculture B. an agent of socialization C. a subset of material culture D. an agent of social reproduction

B. an agent of socialization Music is an important part of popular culture, which is an agent of socialization. Besides popular culture, other agents of socialization include schools, family, and religion. Sociologists use the term agents of socialization to refer to parts of society that are important for socialization (the process of learning the norms and values in a society)

Based on the passage, the data from the 2012 study was MOST likely: Passage: "In a study from 2012, researchers applied goal orientation theory to medical students' sense of self-efficacy and confidence regarding their patient interactions and their ability to tolerate frustration...The students completed an assessment after completing a course of physician-patient communications" A. longitudinal. B. cross-sectional. C. ethnographic. D. experimental.

B. cross-sectional. Cross-sectional study is a study in which a subset of the population (medical students) is tested or surveyed (assessment after the course) at one specific time (2012). AAMC Explanation: The data from the self-assessment completed at the end of the communications course would be cross-sectional data. Wrong Answers: A. Longitudinal study - research in which the same people are restudied and retested over a long period. C. Ethnographic study - a qualitative method where researchers completely immerse themselves in the lives, culture, or situation they are studying. They are often lengthy studies. (An in-depth description and interpretation of behavior in an ethnic or a cultural group that includes direct involvement with the participants) D. Experimental study - the researcher manipulates one of the variables and tries to determine how the manipulation influences other variables

Which technique was most likely used to measure increased neural activation of specific brain regions when viewing the images of food? A. MRI B. fMRI C. CT D. PET

B. fMRI fMRI is an imaging technique that measures brain activity by detecting associated changes in blood flow. Used for literally everything else dealing with structure/function of the brain. Think of simple studies you may not have thought of, the sexual studies use fMRI, among others like memory retention for example. Wrong answers: A. MRI: used for structure not function; more sensitive than a CT because it can see body structure and soft tissue, but again compared to other scans pretty nonspecific. C. CT: used for structure not function; looking at things inside the body with/without contrast. Uses H+ D. PET: used for both structure & function by tracing glucose (metabolic activity); nearly used for tumor/cancer scans, plus uses some type of metabolically active compound. Because tumors are metabolically active.

A group of students takes the same test of visual perception at the same time on two consecutive days. The students' scores are very different each time. This suggests that the test is not: A. valid. B. standardized. C. reliable. D. generalizable.

C. reliable. Reliability is the degree to which an assessment tool produces stable and consistent results. Valid test - accurately measures what it is intended to measure

The aggression scale in Study 1 allowed the researchers to isolate socially-influenced aggressive behaviors. Which alternative method would best determine if aggression was actually being modeled as opposed to already learned? Passage: "In a landmark study (Study 1), researchers found that aggressive behavior in children is closely tied to observing such behaviors in others. The researchers noted that while the children in the study had previously not engaged in aggressive behavior, these behaviors would be imitated after observing a model performing similar behaviors." A. The observations of teachers unfamiliar with the children B. A different rating scale including relational aggression and obedience C. A biographical sketch of the children's social life up until the study D. A heritability ratio for aggression as determined by behavioral genetics

C. A biographical sketch of the children's social life up until the study The question stem is asking: what would best determine if aggression was actually being modeled or if it had already been learned. Knowing the biographical account of the child's social interactions would let someone know if the child had already been exposed to and already learned that aggressive behavior. If it had been learned earlier in the child's life then we could say the child's behavior is not just exclusively modeling someone else's behavior in Study 1. AAMC Explanation: This is a Psychology question that falls under content category "Social interactions." The answer to this question is C because a biographical sketch of the children's sociality is most useful because prior research has found that aggression is very much environmentally influenced. Wrong answers: D. Modeling behavior is due to environmental observation of individuals around you. It wouldn't be tested with genetics.

Similar activation levels in which brain region were LEAST likely in S and TSD participants when they were viewing the images presented in the study? Passage: "The TSD group exhibited increased levels of activity in the right anterior cingulate cortex in response to food images compared to the S group." A. Nucleus accumbens B. Hypothalamus C. Cerebellum D. Amgydala

C. Cerebellum The cerebellum is not a primary structure of the reward system. It functions to coordinate movement. Wrong answers: A. Nucleus Accumbens: is a part of the reward system of our brain. It plays an important role in the analysis and processing of the reward and reinforcing stimuli. B. Hypothalamus: important for coordinating an individual's interest in rewards with the body's physiological state. This region integrates brain function with the physiological needs of the organism. D. Amygdala: emotion center; region that mediates the rewarding effects of natural rewards and drugs of abuse

Which memory process is most likely to affect the validity of participants' responses to the survey questions described in studies 1 and 2? Passage: "Study 1: Participants reported their current state of residence and their primary state of residence during childhood. Study 2: Participants were asked to provide a detailed residential history from birth until the present." A. Proactive interference B. Source amnesia C. Decay in episodic memory D. Decay in semantic memory

C. Decay in episodic memory Remembering past personal events, such as state of residence in childhood (asked of participants in Study 1) and residential history since birth (asked of participants in Study 2), requires retrieval of episodic information from memory. For some of the participants in both studies, decay is likely to affect the retrieval of that information from memory (probably more so with the detailed residential history in Study 2). If this information is not accurately reported by some participants, it will affect the validity of the measures of Stroke Belt exposure. Wrong answers: - Proactive interference: the disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information - Source amnesia: attributing to the wrong source an event we have experienced, heard about, read about, or imagined - Semantic memory: a network of associated facts and concepts that make up our general knowledge of the world

Which of the following is a negative symptom of S? A. Delusions B. Hallucinations C. Emotional flattening D. Disorganized speech

C. Emotional flattening Negative symptoms are defined as the absence of appropriate behaviors and emotion.

In mammals, which brain area is LEAST involved in the abilities mentioned in the first paragraph? Passage states: Research using animal models indicates that cocaine exposure during pregnancy: (1) reduces oxygen levels and blood flow to the uterus, (2) interferes with neural proliferation and synaptogenesis, (3) alters functioning of 3 neurotransmitters (dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine) in offspring during gestation, and thereafter, (4) impairs post-weaning discrimination learning and attention skills. A. Frontal lobe B. Hippocampus C. Hypothalamus D. Thalamus

C. Hypothalamus The hypothalamus is largely concerned with maintaining homeostatic equilibrium. Therefore, damage to the hypothalamus would be unlikely to interfere with discrimination learning or attention skills. Wrong answer choices: A. Frontal lobe is involved in learning skills and attention B. Hippocampus is involved in memory and memory affects learning skills. D. Thalamus guides stimulus to different parts of the brain (relay center) which would also affects learning and attention if damaged.

Which psychological theory best explains the role of community values in the preliminary studies of tobacco cessation? Passage: "Preliminary studies suggest that tobacco cessation is more successful when individuals are motivated by culturally consistent values that support their efforts to quit smoking. Culture plays a role in smoking prevention as well. Norms against tobacco use can become established in a community when children and adolescents regularly observe health behaviors that are inconsistent with smoking." A. Drive theory B. Humanistic theory C. Incentive theory D. Psychoanalytic theory

C. Incentive theory As described in the passage, the preliminary studies suggest that smoking cessation can be successful when individuals are motivated by culturally consistent values that support quitting. The incentive theory of motivation calls attention to how factors outside of individuals, including community values and other aspects of culture, can motivate behavior. The other options would be more likely to look for motivational factors within the individual. Wrong answers: A. Drive reduction theory: the idea that a physiological need creates an aroused tension state (a drive) that motivates an organism to satisfy the need B. Humanistic theory: an explanation of behavior that emphasizes the entirety of life rather than individual components of behavior and focuses on human dignity, individual choice, and self-worth D. Psychoanalytic theory: a theory developed by Freud that attempts to explain personality, motivation, and mental disorders by focusing on unconscious determinants of behavior

Which finding from the follow-up studies proposed by the researchers in Study 1 would best support the hypothesis about genetic predispositions to stroke? Passage: "The researchers also considered the hypothesis that genetic predispositions to stroke may be more likely among people living in the SB. To test this hypothesis, they proposed follow-up studies using twins who were born in SB states but who were adopted into different families." A. Monozygotic twins who were raised in the same state outside of the SB both have decreased risk of stroke in adulthood. B. Dizygotic twins who were raised in the same state inside of the SB both have excess risk of stroke in adulthood. C. Monozygotic twins who were raised in different states, one twin inside the SB and one twin outside, both have excess risk of stroke in adulthood. D. Dizygotic twins who were raised in different states, one twin inside the SB and one twin outside, both have excess risk of stroke in adulthood.

C. Monozygotic twins who were raised in different states, one twin inside the SB and one twin outside, both have excess risk of stroke in adulthood. Dizygotic twins have different genes while monozygotic twins have identical genes. The finding that monozygotic twins who were raised apart (in different states inside and outside of the SB), and have a similar outcome (excess risk of stroke), is consistent with the hypothesis in the passage. The finding in option C suggests that genetic factors influenced stroke risk beyond that of the environment, supporting the hypothesis about genetic predispositions in the passage. The incorrect options either do not provide data relevant to the hypothesis being tested, or do not separate the influence of the environment from that of genetics.

Which methodology will best show how perceptual illusions impact our judgments of the nature of stimuli such as those in Panel A? Passage: "Humans experience a variety of visual illusions, highlighting that their perception of the world can differ from how the world really is. For example, the introduction of other stimuli around the perimeter of two central dots, as shown in Panel A, can lead to the misperception of the central dot in the left half of the figure as being smaller than the central dot in the right half of the figure." A. Partial report technique B. Word association testing C. Psychophysical discrimination testing D. Operational span testing

C. Psychophysical discrimination testing Psychophysical testing methods (such as the Method of Limits) directly assess our perception of stimuli in relation to their true physical properties. The nature of the illusions discussed in the passage suggests that individuals would be prone to either over- or under-state the size of items like those in Panel A.

Which basic cognitive process was used by flight cadets who were required to repeat certain digits? Passage states: "Participants were instructed to repeat immediately any digits they heard in the attended ear". A. Divided attention B. Sensory memory C. Selective attention D. Sensory coding

C. Selective attention Participants were asked to focus on just one thing and block everything else out. Wrong answer choices: A. Divided attention - focusing on multiple things at the same time B. Sensory memory - short term memory that lasts ~3 seconds. Participants were not asked to memorize anything, they were just repeating digits immediately after they were heard. D. Sensory coding - awareness of it

Which sociological concept is suggested by the passage's discussion of the knowledge, skills, and education required for practicing medicine? Passage: "The knowledge, skills, and education required to practice medicine are associated with high social status in the United States. Patient-provider interactions are partially structured by status differences that are also based in culture." A. The social capital of physicians B. The hidden curriculum of medicine C. The cultural capital of physicians D. The ascribed status of medicine

C. The cultural capital of physicians Cultural capital refers to knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics that are used to make social distinctions and that are associated with differences in social status. This description is referenced in the passage, which suggests that status differences based in cultural capital are involved in structuring patient-provider interactions. Wrong answers: A. Social capital: the networks of relationships among people who live and work in a particular society, enabling that society to function effectively. B. Hidden curriculum: standards of behavior that are deemed proper by society and are taught subtly in schools. D. Ascribed status: a position an individual either inherits at birth or receives involuntarily later in life

What is the dependent stressor associated with the need for reassurance? Passage: The SG hypothesis provided the first theoretical framework for the role of negative life events that are influenced by the individual's behavior. These are called independent and dependent stressors, respectively...Excessive reassurance-seeking and difficulties being assertive predict interpersonal dependent stressors in adult children of parents with a history of depression and underlie interpersonal behavioral factors." A. The need for reassurance B. Interpersonal tension caused by the need for reassurance C. The isolation resulting from others being driven away D. The depression that results from the isolation

C. The isolation resulting from others being driven away The answer to this question is C because the dependent stressor is the isolation resulting from people being driven away. The need for reassurance is an individual characteristic that leads to the isolation. The stressor depends on this need for this isolation to manifest itself. A dependent stressor is manifested by individual behavior. Therefore, isolation (behavior) leads to driving others away and as a result can cause depression. B is incorrect because interpersonal tension is not a behavior, it is an attitude or internal characteristic that cannot be controlled easily.

Based on the study results, how is the relationship between inadequate sleep and hunger best described? Passage: "An additional factor that may contribute is chronic sleep deprivation, which stimulates appetite and increases food intake. This observation suggests that an increased sensitivity of the reward system to food in sleep-deprived individuals may contribute to obesity....the TSD (sleep deprived) group reported higher hunger ratings for the images of high-caloric foods and higher levels of negative affect, compared to the S group." A. There is a direct cause and effect relationship between sleep and increased feelings of hunger. B. There is a positive correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep. C. There is evidence that inadequate sleep causes hunger. D. There is a negative correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep.

C. There is evidence that inadequate sleep causes hunger. Those in the TSD group (who were sleep deprived) expressed higher ratings of hunger compared to those in the S group (normal amounts of sleep).

According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, a person giving which reason for moral behavior is at the highest level? A. To gain acceptance B. To follow rules C. To promote social welfare D. To avoid disapproval

C. To promote social welfare - During the preconventional level, a child's sense of morality is externally controlled. Children accept and believe the rules of authority figures, such as parents and teachers, and they judge an action based on its consequences. - During the conventional level, an individual's sense of morality is tied to personal and societal relationships. Children continue to accept the rules of authority figures, but this is now because they believe that this is necessary to ensure positive relationships and societal order. - During the postconventional level, a person's sense of morality is defined in terms of more abstract principles and values. People now believe that some laws are unjust and should be changed or eliminated. Wrong answers: A. To gain acceptance - conventional stage B. To follow rules - preconventional stage D. To avoid disapproval - conventional stage

The brain imaging technique used in Study 2: Passage: "Adult participants viewed other-race and own-race faces while their brain activity was measured using functional magnetic resonance imaging." A. measures increased levels of glucose. B. records increases in electrical activity. C. reveals areas of increased blood flow. D. measures increases in neurotransmitter levels.

C. reveals areas of increased blood flow. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), which uses magnetic fields and radio waves to look at brain function and measures blood flow and not glucose.

A person looking at the night sky notices she no longer sees a dim star when her gaze remains fixated on it, but the dim star reappears when she shifts her gaze to one side of the star. What is the most likely cause of the reappearance of the dim star in her vision? Shifting her gaze moved the image of the dim star: A. away from the blind spot where no photoreceptors are present. B. to a region of the retina where photoreceptors have a higher threshold for light detection. C. away from the fovea toward the periphery of the retina. D. to a region of the eye where photoreceptors contain more than one type of retinal pigment.

C. away from the fovea toward the periphery of the retina. The fovea is the part of the retina that contains a high density of cones for daytime vision, whereas, the periphery of the retina contains a high density of rods which are more photosensitive and can detect dim light. A is incorrect because the blind spot "blinds" you from seeing the image and the question stem states that "she no longer sees a dim star when her gaze remains fixated on it". If she was looking thru her blindspot, she wouldn't have been able to see the "dim star" initially.

The passage's description of delivering culturally competent care advocates for: Passage: "To deliver culturally competent care, providers need to be aware of their own cultural standards and biases while understanding that patients may have different cultural standards and biases. These differences can have major implications during cancer treatment." A. social support rather than social stigma. C. cultural relativism rather than ethnocentrism. C. symbolic culture rather than material culture. D. the front stage self rather than the back stage self.

C. cultural relativism rather than ethnocentrism. Ethnocentrism involves relying too heavily on one's own cultural standards to judge those from another culture. Cultural relativism, on the other hand, raises awareness of the fact that cultures have different standards and biases.

In operant conditioning studies, the subject's motivational state is most typically operationally defined by: A. observing the subject's behavior over a long period of time. B. using a type of reinforcement that the experimenter knows the subject usually likes. C. depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time. D. using a novel stimulus that the subject is sure to like.

C. depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time. Any variable a researcher wants to measure must be operationally defined such that the researcher knows what the variable should look like, how it could be described qualitatively/quantitatively, how it could be measured, etc. And in order to determine these things, conditions must be set so that the variable can actually be observed. You want to know what someone's like when they're motivated, what drives them to do something to get something, you have to take away something they're motivated to get.

A constructionist understanding of gender asserts that categories of gender are: A. biologically determined and immutable. B. binary and the product of ingrained socialization processes. C. fluid and subject to social processes of meaning-making. D. binary, yet interchangeable depending on context.

C. fluid and subject to social processes of meaning-making. Gender is a socially constructed concept of what it means to be a man or a woman (ie. men like sports and women like dresses). Since this is determined by the culture you live in, it is fluid and subject to social processes (option C). This is why different cultures have different ideas about what it means to be a man or a woman. Social Constructionism - a sociological theory that argues that people actively shape their reality through social interaction; it is therefore something that is constructed, not inherent; it looks to uncover the ways in which individuals and groups participate in the construction of their perceived social reality. Society places meaning on certain objects. For example, our society has given money as a form of an agreed concept of currency. However, a society living in the jungle wouldn't necessarily think of paper money as currency. Wrong Answers: A. Sex is biologically determined not gender. Gender is determined by culture and society. B/D. Binary - a state characterized by two mutually exclusive conditions, such as on or off, true or false, male or female. Gender is not binary, it exists along a spectrum.

The combination of drive-reduction and incentive theory allows for explaining behavior motivated by secondary reinforcers, which can include: A. water. B. sexual activity. C. money. D. food.

C. money. Money is a secondary reinforcer since it requires a pairing or association with a primary reinforcer for it to have value.

How would participants with Alzheimer's disease (AD) perform on the verbal fluency and negative priming tasks?AD will: Passage: "...verbal fluency (the ability to retrieve specific information within restricted search parameters) and negative priming (slow, error-prone responses to stimuli that were previously ignored)...To measure verbal fluency, participants produced as many words as possible beginning with the letters F, A, and S, each within a one-minute time span. To assess negative priming, participants focused on a central fixation point on a computer screen and indicated, as quickly as they could, the location of the letter "O" while being distracted by the letter "X"." A. have no effect on performance on either of the verbal fluency or negative priming tasks. B. have no effect on performance on the verbal fluency task and negatively affect performance on the negative priming task. C. negatively affect performance on both the verbal fluency and negative priming tasks. D. negatively affect performance on the verbal fluency task and have no effect on the negative priming task.

C. negatively affect performance on both the verbal fluency and negative priming tasks. Both schizophrenia and Alzheimer's disease are characterized by cognitive dysfunction particularly in tasks of verbal fluency and negative priming.

The researchers in Study 1 restricted the emotions on the faces presented to the infants to those found to be universally expressed emotions; therefore, they did NOT present faces expressing: A. fear. B. surprise. C. pain. D. disgust.

C. pain The universal emotions include fear, anger, surprise, happiness, disgust, and sadness.

An example of intersectionality is the relationship between: A. micro and macro levels of analysis. B. symbolic and material culture. C. race/ethnicity and social class. D. cultural values and social norms.

C. race/ethnicity and social class. Intersectionality calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification. For example, an individual's position within a social hierarchy is determined not only by his or her social class, but also by his or her race/ethnicity. Intersectionality can also refer to intersections involving other identity categories such as age, gender, or sexual orientation

The reminiscence bump is best described as an example of: A. culture lag B. cultural assimilation C. culture shock D. cultural transmission

D. cultural transmission Cultural transmission addresses how culture is learned. Culture is passed along from generation to generation through various childrearing practices, including when parents expose children to music. As illustrated by the reminiscence bump, parents' musical preferences affected their children's memory of music.

A manuscript reviewer requested that the researchers in this study justify counterbalancing the tasks. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate justification for counterbalancing? A. Participants may become fatigued causing performance to decline as the experiment progresses. B. Some tasks may be more exciting or boring than others and may affect how participants respond to subsequent tasks. C. It is an effective method for controlling the order in which stimuli are presented. D. It ensures that all participants are presented with the same variables.

D. It ensures that all participants are presented with the same variables. All participants will be presented with the same variables however, the order in which they are presented may or may not affect the dependent variable due to fatigue or boredom. Counterbalancing is a method to control for any effect that the order of presenting stimuli might have on the dependent variable.

Which observation disconfirms the theory that the hunger drive is based on a person's interpretation of stomach contractions, while satiety is based on stomach distension? A. Stomach contractions do not correlate with the experience of hunger. B. Stomach distension does not correlate with satiety. C. Rats without stomachs cannot learn mazes when rewarded with food. D. People whose stomachs have been removed still experience hunger.

D. People whose stomachs have been removed still experience hunger. The answer to this question is D because such patients, who are incapable of interpreting any signals from a nonexistent stomach, do experience hunger (Janowitz & Grossman, 1950).

What is shadowing?

In cognitive testing, a task in which a participant repeats aloud a message word for word at the same time that the message is being presented, often while other stimuli are presented in the background. It is mainly used in studies of attention. Example from passage: "Researchers used a task in which participants were required to focus attention on one of two different messages, presented simultaneously, one to each ear...Digits were presented to a specific ear and participants were instructed to repeat immediately any digits they heard in the attended ear".

Which concept CANNOT explain the ability of the participants in both studies to visually process the faces they were shown? A. Parallel processing B. Interposition C. Accommodation D. Place theory

D. Place theory Place theory posits that one is able to hear different pitches because different sound waves trigger activity at different places along the cochlea's basilar membrane. Therefore, it is a concept that does not involve the visual system. Wrong answers: A. Parallel processing: the processing of many aspects of a problem simultaneously; the brain's natural mode of information processing for many functions, including vision. B. Interposition: monocular visual cue in which two objects are in the same line of vision and one partially conceals the other, indicating that the first object concealed is further away C. Accommodation: the process by which the eye's lens changes shape to focus near or far objects on the retina

According to Piaget's theory, in what stage of cognitive development are the children who are targeted by advertisements for high caloric foods? Passage: "This increase has been attributed to easy access to high caloric foods and the advertising of those foods to children, particularly between the ages of 5 to 7 years." A. Formal operational B. Sensorimotor C. Preoperational D. Concrete operational

D. Preoperational Children in Piaget's preoperational stage are typically between the ages of 2-6 or 7.

Which of the following experiences is NOT related to any of the principles of perceptual organization that are described in the passage? Passage: "For example, the introduction of other stimuli around the perimeter of two central dots, as shown in Panel A, can lead to the misperception of the central dot in the left half of the figure as being smaller than the central dot in the right half of the figure. Similarly, when looking at the image in Panel B, people tend to believe that there are more white dots in the array than black dots, even though the number of dots of each color is the same. Finally, people will report seeing things that do not really exist, such as the bright, illusory triangle pointing downward in Panel C." A. Seeing a portion of food served on a large plate as being smaller than the same portion of food served on a small plate B. Seeing birds flying in the same direction as being part of an integrated flock C. Seeing cars lined up in a parking lot as being in long rows, rather than in pairs facing each other with a gap between each pair D. Seeing a word with a missing letter and being able to identify the word, based on the sentence in which it is contained

D. Seeing a word with a missing letter and being able to identify the word, based on the sentence in which it is contained The answer to this question is D because it is the only option that describes a perceptual experience that results from a form of top down processing (i.e., context effects), but is neither a perceptual illusion nor the result of one of the Gestalt principles of perceptual grouping.

Which of the following perspectives is most likely to satisfy the researchers' call for studies that supplement the biomedical approach to cancer? Passage: "Some researchers have called for more studies that supplement the biomedical approach to cancer with perspectives that incorporate the social determinants of disease. These types of studies could lead to better understanding of how culture influences health behaviors and patient-provider interactions." A. Exchange-rational choice B. Symbolic interactionism C. Social constructionism D. Social epidemiology

D. Social epidemiology Social epidemiology focuses on the contribution of social and cultural factors to disease patterns in populations. It is also well positioned to supplement the biomedical approach because social epidemiology is a sub-field of epidemiology.

Based on the findings of the 2012 study, medical students were MOST likely to report engaging in which coping strategy? Passage: "In a study from 2012, researchers applied goal orientation theory to medical students' sense of self-efficacy and confidence regarding their patient interactions and their ability to tolerate frustration. Goal orientation theory states that one engages in learning activities in order to pursue particular goals. Findings from the study showed that students with a mastery goal (enhance one's knowledge) were more likely to rate themselves as being able to handle patient interactions well, and were less likely to report maladaptive coping with stressful situations." A. Status-seeking B. Aggression C. Dependence D. Support-seeking

D. Support-seeking The question is asking for the least maladaptive coping strategy, aka the most adaptive response to stress. Maladaptive means to develop coping strategies that reduce the symptoms of the stress, rather than deal with it head on. It is not characterized by social support. AAMC Explanation: The answer to this question is option D, as support-seeking is the only adaptive coping response and the findings indicate that respondents were less likely to report maladaptive coping with stressful situations and thus more likely to report adaptive coping strategies. Wrong Answers: A,B,&C are all maladaptive coping strategies (look at picture)

Researchers design a study to explore how healthcare providers establish rapport, show empathy, and navigate disagreements with their patients. Based on this description, the researchers are most likely taking a theoretical approach that is consistent with which sociological paradigm? A. Functionalism B. Exchange-rational choice C. Conflict theory D. Symbolic interactionism

D. Symbolic interactionism Symbolic interactionism examines small scale (or micro level) social interactions, focusing attention on how shared meaning is established among individuals or small groups. Clinical encounters involving patient-provider communication are consistent with the analysis of social interaction at the micro level. In addition, the study of rapport, empathy, and disagreements involves the interpretation of meaning among social actors. Overall, the scenario suggests that the theory of symbolic interactionism is consistent with the researchers' approach. Wrong answers: A. Functionalism: a school of psychology that focused on how our mental and behavioral processes function - how they enable us to adapt, survive, and flourish. B. Exchange-rational choice: an individual's acts = balance of costs and benefits to maximize the individual's advantage C. Conflict theory: a theory that looks at society as a competition for limited resources

Which statement about the media's influence on aggressive behaviors is consistent with the findings of Study 2? Passage Study 2: "Two groups of college students were shown a boxing scene in which a male protagonist was severely beaten. The scene was introduced by a synopsis either supporting the protagonist (by suggesting a difficult childhood) or stigmatizing him (by suggesting he was a "scoundrel"). After viewing the boxing scene, subjects were then asked to apply an appropriate number of shocks to a compatriot for poor or superior performance on a drawing task. Results indicated that subjects who were given the stigmatizing example applied a higher number of shocks than subjects who were given the sympathetic portrayal." A. Media has little effect on the development or learning of aggression. B. Aggression may be lessened via the influence of the media. C. Aggression is fostered via the influence of the media. D. The impact of media on aggression is situationally dependent.

D. The impact of media on aggression is situationally dependent. The findings indicated that viewing the film had a differential impact on subsequent aggressive behavior (number of shocks given) based on the description provided of the protagonist. The protagonist had a lower number of administered shocks due students sympathizing with his difficult childhood. The stigmatizing person was given more shocks due to its negative connotation of being "scoundrel" (mean person).

Which statement best describes the statistical adjustment that was performed in studies 1 and 2? Passage: "The excess risk remained after statistical adjustment for demographic characteristics, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risk factors." A. The adjustment determined whether the results from the sample were generalizable. B. The researchers controlled for factors such as social capital and cultural capital. C. The adjustment determined whether the measures of stroke risk were reliable. D. The researchers controlled for factors such as race/ethnicity and education.

D. The researchers controlled for factors such as race/ethnicity and education. Studies 1 and 2 were first described with unadjusted results, followed by results after adjusting for demographic characteristics, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risk factors. Statistical adjustment refers to controlling for variables that could affect the relationship between the independent variable (in this case, Stroke Belt residence) and the dependent variable (stroke incidence). Possible control variables based on the description in the study include race/ethnicity (a demographic characteristic) and education (an aspect of socioeconomic status).

An individual who previously worked as a salaried corporate attorney loses his or her job. Subsequently, the individual now works as an hourly wage employee at a retail store. This individual has experienced which type of social mobility? A. Intragenerational B. Intergenerational C. Horizontal D. Vertical

D. Vertical Vertical mobility is the "best fit answer" because it is short term like losing a job while intragenerational mobility is within a lifetime. The individual has experienced downward, or vertical, social mobility after moving from a salaried professional position to an hourly position. Wrong Answers: A. Intragenerational mobility - movement up or down a social stratification hierarchy within the course of a personal career or lifetime (college to job to retirement). B. Intergenerational mobility - movement up or down a social stratification hierarchy from one generation to another. For example: wealthy parents lost their job during the depression and now live in poverty. C. Horizontal mobility - the movement of an individual from one social position to another of the same rank

Research on cognitive aging has demonstrated that, in general, aging does NOT diminish a person's: A. capacity for acquiring new declarative information B. capacity for controlling his or her memory processes C. ability to cope with Alzheimer's Disease D. ability to retrieve general information

D. ability to retrieve general information Capacity for retrieving general information (i.e., semantic memory, crystallized intelligence) is unaffected by aging.

In Study 2, the researchers hypothesize that media functions as: Passage: "This landmark study in social learning led other researchers to posit that aggressive behavior could also be learned vicariously, such as through watching violent films. One hypothesis suggested that violent films were cathartic, relieving individuals of hostile impulses. Another hypothesis situated film violence as an instigator of violence" A. the looking-glass self. B. the generalized other. C. social capital. D. an agent of socialization.

D. an agent of socialization. The researchers hypothesize that film violence operates as an instigator to real violence. In this context, the media is an institution that is transmitting values and beliefs about acceptable behaviors, thus operating as an agent of socialization. Wrong Answers: A. Looking-glass self - an image of yourself based on what you believe others think of you. It is unclear how watching violence on TV will result in the viewer thinking differently about oneself. B. Generalized other - integrated conception of the norms, values, and beliefs of one's community or society. Media violence and its effect on behavior is not a norm in the passage, it is the effect being studied. C. Social capital - the networks of relationships among people who live and work in a particular society, enabling that society to function effectively. Media is not a person or animal and therefore cannot make a relationship with the viewer.

The types of perceptual experiences, illustrated in Panel A, that are not relevant to a person's judgment and decision making processes, but can still have a biasing impact on those processes, are best described as: Passage: "Psychologists have investigated how humans organize their perceptual experiences in ways that allow them to quickly understand the meaning of those experiences. However, in many cases, people's perceptions of objects, scenes, and events in the world differ from the stimulus that is registered by the sensory receptors....Humans experience a variety of visual illusions, highlighting that their perception of the world can differ from how the world really is." A. recall cues. B. context effects. C. feature detectors. D. practice effects.

D. context effects Context effects - alter our perception due to surrounding information The phenomena discussed in the passage reflect how both the context in which stimuli are presented and the processes of perceptual organization contribute to how people perceive those stimuli (and also that the context can establish the way in which stimuli are organized). The question is looking for something that biases our decision, therefore there should be a cognitive aspect. Wrong answers: A. Recall cues - trigger that helps retrieve a memory C. Feature detectors - specialized cells that code for specific stimuli D. Practice effects - alter our performance (usually for the better) due to prior practice

Which scenario best represents the results of Study 2? When encountering a stranger, an individual: Passage: "Studies suggest that this evaluation occurs along two dimensions: one that involves relatively automatic associative and perceptual processes that operate without conscious awareness, followed by another that involves conscious and controlled cognitive processes....When the faces were presented for 30 milliseconds, activation in the amygdala was greater for the other-race than for the own-race faces. After the same faces were presented for 525 milliseconds, this difference was significantly reduced, and regions of the frontal cortex showed greater activation for the other-race than the own-race faces." A. is fearful of contact with the stranger if experienced in a new environment. B. initially displays a frown, and then proceeds to greet the stranger. C. mentally compares the stranger to family members, which gives them a feeling of comfort. D. experiences a brief increase in heart rate before starting to relax.

D. experiences a brief increase in heart rate before starting to relax. The study results support the premise described in the passage that the evaluation of strangers involves automatic and unconscious processes that are then followed by conscious and controlled cognitive processes. An increase in heart rate is an automatic uncontrolled process and the decrease in heart rate occurs after conscious controlled processing.

Without conscious effort, people are unlikely to automatically visually process: A. spatial information. B. temporal information. C. the frequency of specific events. D. novel information.

D. novel information. Novel = new Due to the brain's capacity for parallel processing, information about space, time and frequency of events is automatically processed; however, conscious effort is needed to process novel information.

The technical term for the type of stimulus registered by the sensory receptors, mentioned in the first paragraph, is: Passage: "Psychologists have investigated how humans organize their perceptual experiences in ways that allow them to quickly understand the meaning of those experiences. However, in many cases, people's perceptions of objects, scenes, and events in the world differ from the stimulus that is registered by the sensory receptors." A. incentive stimulus. B. sensory stimulus. C. distal stimulus. D. proximal stimulus.

D. proximal stimulus Proximal stimuli is the transduction of an external stimulus, such as the phototransduction pathway caused by receiving light into the eye. It is the stimulation that actually occurs when your sensory receptors are activated (neural activity) AAMC Explanation: The proximal stimulus is the stimulus registered by the sensory receptors (e.g., the pattern of light falling on the retina), which is referred to in the first paragraph. Wrong answers: A. The incentive theory states that through an external factors, you can cause motivation in a person's behavior.. These external factors can include community, cultural values, social networks. B. Sensory stimulus is more referring to the type of information being received by your receptors which elicits a response... ie: light, heat, touch, sound, etc. C. Distal stimuli is the source of the external stimulus, in the example of the phototransduction pathway it can be the sun. It is the actual stimulus or object in the real world that you end up sensing and then perceiving, which results in the proximal stimulus.

Word association testing

Projective test in which the interviewer says a word and the respondent must mention the first thing that comes to mind

What is the Exchange-rational choice theory?

believes that decisions are made by rational beings who have weighed all aspects of the problem, and who the proceed to make the rational choice