PTT 311 FInal Exam

44) Petellofemoral stress syndrome often occurs A) when the vastus medialis oblique is weak B) when the vastus lateralis is weak C) in elderly individuals D) in adolescent individuals

A) when the vastus medialis oblique is weak

41) A function of the plantar arches is to A) smooth the weight shift to the opposite foot B) support and distribute body weight from the talus to the foot C) enhance the stability of the ankle joint D) to serve as an attatchment for ligaments within the foot

B) support and distribute body weight from the talus to the foot

17) Which of the following characteristics would suggest a cervical sprain rather than a strain A) restricted ROM B) symptoms that persists for several days C) pain D) stiffness

B) symptoms that persists for several days

12) Which of the following muscle primarily resists lateral displacement of the patella A) vastus lateralis B) vastus medialis oblique C) semitendinosus D) semimembranosus

B) vastus medialis oblique

29) A direct blow to the laterla aspect of the knee is a common mechanism of injury for the A) ACL B) PCL C) MCL D) LCL

C) MCL

8. Hypoxia refers to A) death of living cells B) destruction of tissue C) disruption of oxygen supply D) inflammation

C) disruption of oxygen

16) A high-riding patella, a palpable defect over the tendon, and an inability to perform knee extension or perform straight-leg raise are signs and symptoms associate with A) patellar subluxation B) patellar tendinitis C) extensor tendon rupture D) Siding-Larsen-Johansson's disease

C) extensor tendon rupture

37) The weakest component of the femur is the A) femoral head B) femoral shaft C) femoral neck D) supracondylar ridge

C) femoral neck

2. The true shoulder joint is referred to as the: A) coracoclavicular joint B) acromioclavicular joint C) glenohumeral joint D) sternoclavicular joint

C) glenohumeral joint

47) Which of the following limits hip hyperextension A) acetabulum B) ischifemoral ligament C) iliofemoral ligament D) gluteus maximus

C) iliofemoral ligament

28) Locking is a classic sign of injury to the A) patellar bursa B) joint capsule C) medial meniscus D) ACL

C) medial meniscus

43) The functional unit of the spine is called the A) intervertebral disc B) ligamentum nuchae C) motion segment D) vertebrae

C) motion segment

23) If the _______ bursa is inflammed contraction of the hamstring muscles rotational movement of the tibia and direct pressure of the bursa produce pain A) prepatellar B) deep infrapatellar C) pes anserine D) suprapatellar

C) pes anserine

39) The anterior cruciate ligament A) resists posterior displacement of the tibia on the femur B) is the primar stabilezer of the knee C) prevents anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur D) resists varus and valgus forces to the knee

C) prevents the anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur

9. Lifting an object with _____ movements increases compression and shearing forces of spine A) slow and intentional B) slow and jerky C) rapid and jerky D) intermittent

C) rapid and jerky

14) The distribution of force over a given area is called A) axial loading B) force moment arm C) stress D) strain

C) stress

3. A weakened _________ muscle is present in many chronic shoulder problems particularly among throwers A) deltoid B) teres major C) supraspinatus D) biceps femoris

C) supraspinatus

46) The thum has each of the following joint articulations except A) IP B) CM C) MP D) DIP

D) DIP

22) After executing a tackle by leading with his head a fotball player is down on the field. Each of the following suggest an unsteable neck exept: A) the player is unconscious B) the player is conscious and reports numbness in the upper extremities C) the player is conscious neurologically intact and reports neck pain D) all of the above

D) all of the above

24) Which of the following conditions necessitates immediate referral to a physician A) locking of the knee B) excessive joint swelling C) reported souns (pop or click) D) all of the above

D) all of the above

38) The biceps brachii contributes most effectively to flexion when the forearm is A) extended B) flexed C) pronate D) supinated

D) supinated

11) Dynamic strenght involves A) an isotonic contraction B) an isometric contraction C) increased flexibility D) increased endurance

A) an isotonic contraction

34) The central nervous system is composed of the A) brain and spinal cord B) peripheral nerves C) brain D) spinal cord

A) brain and spinal cord

19) What is the most common mechanism of injury for severe cervical spine injuries A) compressive axial loading B) tensile force C) repetitive trauma D) shearing force

A) compressive axial loading

40) Which of the following conditions warrants activation of EMS A) patellar dislocation B) knee dislocation C) tear of the ACL D) all of the above

B) knee dislocation

15) The closed pack position of the knee is A) full extension B) full flexion C) 30 degrees of flexion D) 90 degrees of flexion

A) full extension

42) In the static stretch the action of the _________ enables a safer more effective stretch A) golgi tendon organs B) muscle spindles C) ruffini's corpuscles D) pacinian corpuscles

A) golgi tendon organs

7. The _____ is the main body stabilizer during walking or running A) hallux B) metatarsal arch C) talocrural joint D) subtalar joint

A) hallux

27) An interior glenohumeral dislocation outwardly displays A) a flattened deltoid B) a high riding clavicle C) a depressed sternum D) normal shoulder contours

A) a flattened deltoid

26) Deceleration combined with a cutting motion is a common mechanism of injury for the A) ACL B) PCL C) MCL D) LCL

A) ACL

36) The main function of the rotator cuff muscles is to A) hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid tossa B) perform abduction and external rotation C) perform abduction and interal rotation D) facilitate scapulothoracic motions

A) hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid tossa

10) A strain to the pectoralis major muscle will produce pain on resisted A) horizontal abduction of the shoulder B) horizontal adduction ofthe shoulder C) shoulder flexion D) shoulder abduction

A) horizontal abduction of the shoulder

5. A common mechanism of injury to the PCL is A) hyperextension of knee B) a cutting maneuver C) a direct blow to the posterior aspect of knee D) landing off balance

A) hyperextension of the knee

32) __________ is a condition that involves degeneration of the epiphyseal end plates of the vertebral bodies and typically includes at least three adjacent motion segments A) sciatica B) Scheuerman's disease C) torticollis D) apophysistis

B) Scheuerman's disease

30) The vertebrae that consists of a bony ring with large flat superior articular facets on which the skull rests is the A) annulus fibrosus B) atlas C) axis D) dens

B) atlas

1. As viewed from the side, the thoracic and sacral curves are A) convex anteriorly B) convex posteriorly C) concave anteriorly D) concave posteriorly

B) convex posteriorly

6. Because of the medial and lateral condyles of the femur differ somewhat in size, shape and orientation, the tibia rotates laterally on the femur during the last few degrees of extension. This action is known as A) loose packed position B) screw home mechanism C) gliding D) tibial shift

B) screw home mechanism

25) In a first time glenohumeral dislocation the injured arm arm is usually held in which of the following positions A) slightly abducted and internally rotated B) slightly abducted and externally rotated C) slightly extended and internally rotated D) slightly extended in neutral position

B) slightly abducted and externally rotated

33) Impigments syndrome involves damage to the A) aromion B) subacromial bursa C) deltoid muscle D) clavicle

B) subacromial bursa

45) A shallow patellofemoral groove genu valgum increase Q-angles and excessive foot pronation are potential causes of patellofemoral pain is associated with A) patellar instability B) hypermobility of the patella C) anatomical malalignment D) all of the above

C) anatomical malalignment

4. The hip joint is a classic A) gliding joint B) hinge joint C) ball and socket joint D) saddle joint

C) ball and socket joint

18) True or false? The managment for a "stitch in the side" includes application of cold to the involved region to reduce muscle spasm

false

35) True or false? The type of shoe worn has minimal if any impact on injuries sustained to the knee

false

49) True or false? The terms sport medicine and athletic training can be used interchangeably

false

50) True or false? During acute inflammatory phase heparin is released into the injured area asting as an anticoagulant that results in increased swelling

false

48) True or false? An individual focusing on the development of muscular strength should not work the same muscle groups on successive days in order to allow recovery

true

21) Which of the following is a common region for a stress fracture A) medial tibial plateau B) Gerdy's tubercle C) articular cartilage D) lateral epicondyle

A) medial tibial plateau

31) The two innominate bones of the hip are the A) sacrum and coccyx B) pelvis and coccyx C) sacrum and ischium D) ilium and pelvis

A) sacrum and coccyx

13) A classic sign of Osgood-Schlatter's disease is A) that the tibial tubercle appears enlarged and prominent B) the presence of pain at the inferior pole of the patella C) that the condition is typically seen in individuals over the age of 40 D) decreased range of motion

A) that the tibial tubercle appears enlarged and prominent

20) Damage to the common peroneal nerve could result in A) weakness in dorsiflexion B) weakness in plantar flexion C) weakness in knee flexion D) weakness in knee extension

A) weakness in dorsiflexion