Quiz 3 Patho
12. A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is....WHAT?
Bence Jones proteins in the urine.
11. Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?
CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
36. Risk factors for atherosclerosis include.....ALL FACTORS EXCEPT!!
Elevated HDL cholesterol
14. Which viruses have been implicated as cancer-causing agents? (Select all that apply.)
Epstein-Barr Human T-cell leukemia Human immunodeficiency
10. Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with...WHAT?
Epstein-Barr virus.
7. The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) measure the integrity of???????
Extrinsic pathway
27. What is involved in the release of plasminogen activators? (Select all that apply.)
Factor XIIc HMWK Kallikreine Thrombin
13. A patient is diagnosed with CML (chronic myeloid leukemia). The patient may experience which of these symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
Fatigue Weight loss Abdominal discomfort Sweats
18. Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count?
Hemolytic anemia
19. Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?
Hypovolemia
38. The pain characteristics of chronic venous insufficiency include (Select all that apply.)
aching and cramping in the affected area relief with elevation to the area relief with ambulation if pain is in the legs.
6. While in the hospital for management of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL), a patient develops severe thrombocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition is..WHAT?
activity restriction
23. The most effective therapy for anemia associated with kidney failure is..WHAT?
erythropoietin
26. A deficiency of the von Willebrand factor impairs_______WHAT?________.
Platelet adhesion to injured tissue
25. The megakaryocyte is a precursor to_______WHAT?_______.
Platelets
8. A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?
iron deficiency
20. The cause of the most common form of anemia is..WHAT?
iron deficiency anemia
21. The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is WHAT?
measures to improve oxygenation.
30. A patient presents to the physician's office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin. The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years.
4 and 7
35. Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome?
Absent peripheral pulses
34. Peripheral edema is a result of...WHAT?
An increase in venous resistance
32. Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
Christmas Disease
9. The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is..WHAT?
IgA deficiency.
1. The major cause of death from leukemic disease is..WHAT?
Infection
29. Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to DO WHAT?
Inhibit clotting factor consumption
37. The relationship between blood flow and resistance is a(n) ________ one.
Inverse
17. The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by ....WHICH ORGAN?
Kidneys
40. Blood flow is measured as a given number of (Select all that apply.)
Liters
28. Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency?
Liver
2. Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?
Myeloma due to hyperproteinemia Bence Jones protein Hypercalcemia Hyperuricemia
22. What laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia?
Pancytopenia
24. Hapten mechanisms are found in which medications? (Select all that apply.)
Penicillind Cephalosporinse Tetracycline
31. Which diseases may be associated with a bleeding problem? (Select all that apply.)
a- Renal failure b- Cirrhosis c- Systemic lupus erythematosus d- Ovarian cancer
3. The final step in clot formation is.....WHAT?
clot retraction.
16. A patient is diagnosed with hairy cell leukemia. The patient's lab results would most likely indicate a decrease in (Select all that apply.)
granulocytes platelets red blood cells
5. RhoGAM (an Rh antibody) would be appropriate in an Rh-_____ woman with an _____ Rh-_____ antibody titer carrying an Rh-_____ fetus....DO YOU REMEMBER IN CLASS?
negative; negative; positive
4. Which causes vasoconstriction?...ALL THE CAUSES VASOCONSTRICTION
nonepinephrine
15. A patient is diagnosed with stage IIA Hodgkin disease. This patient's clinical stage was most likely determined by (Select all that apply.)
patient history CT scan physical examination
33. The goal of heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to DO WHAT?
prevent further clot formation.
39. The primary functions of the circulatory system are (Select all that apply.)
transport oxygen transport nutrients remove metabolic waste.