QUIZ 8 MEDSURG
A client receiving antiretroviral therapy reports "not urinating enough." What is the nurse's best action? A. Assess blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. B. Assess liver function tests. C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids. D. Administer fluids 100 mL/hour IV.
A
A client who has AIDS reports having diarrhea after every meal, and wants to know what can be done to stop this symptom. What should the nurse advise? A. Avoid fibrous foods, lactose, fat, and caffeine. B. Increase intake of iron and zinc. C. Consume large, high-fat meals. D. Reduce food intake.
A
A client who is HIV positive is experiencing severe diarrhea. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to find? A. Hypokalemia B. Proteinuria C. Hypernatremia D. Urine specific gravity of 1.010
A
A client who is being treated for AML has bruises on both legs. What is the nurse's mostappropriate action? A. Evaluate the client's platelet count. B. Keep the client on bed rest. C. Ask the client whether they have recently fallen. D. Evaluate the client's INR.
A
A 77-year-old male is admitted to a unit with a suspected diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). When planning this patients care, the nurse should be aware of what epidemiologic fact? 1. Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes. 2. Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%. 3. Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%. 4. Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patients pre-illness level of health.
3 Feedback: The 5-year survival rate for patients with AML who are 50 years of age or younger is 43%; it drops to 19% for those between 50 and 64 years, and drops to1.6% for those older than 75 years. Early diagnosis is beneficial, but is nonetheless not associated with good outcomes or high survival rates. Preillness health is significant, but not the most important variable.
A nurse would identify that a colleague needs additional instruction on standard precautions when the colleague exhibits which of the following behaviors? A) The nurse wears face protection, gloves, and a gown when irrigating a wound. B) The nurse washes the hands with a waterless antiseptic agent after removing a pair of soiled gloves. C) The nurse puts on a second pair of gloves over soiled gloves while performing a bloody procedure. D) The nurse places a used needle and syringe in the puncture-resistant container without capping the needle.
Ans: C Feedback: Gloves must be changed after contact with materials that may contain high concentration of microorganisms, even when working with the same patient. Each of the other listed actions adheres to standard precautions.
A nurse is implementing appropriate infection control precautions for a client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The nurse knows which body fluid is not a means of transmission? A. Semen B. Urine C. Blood D. Breast milk
B
The nurse is performing a health history with a new client in the clinic. What is the mostcommon reason for a client to seek medical attention for arthritis? A. weakness B. stiffness C. pain D. joint swelling
C Other common symptoms include joint swelling, limited movement, stiffness, weakness, and fatigue
A client is to have a hip replacement in 3 months and does not want a blood transfusion from random donors. What option can the nurse discuss with the client? A. Sign a refusal of blood transfusion form so the client will not receive the transfusion. B. Ask people to donate blood. C. Use volume expanders in case blood is needed. D. Bank autologous blood.
D
Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is diagnosed through A. visual assessment. B. skin scraping. C. computed tomography. D. biopsy.
D
The nurse recognizes the clinical assessment of a patient with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) includes observing for signs of infection early. What nursing action will most likely help prevent infection? A. Maintain contact precautions. B. Monitor the client's temperature every shift. C. Encourage increased fluid consumption. D. Practice vigilant handwashing.
D
What is the function of the thymus gland? A. Produce stem cells B. Programs B lymphocytes to become regulator or effector B cells. C. Develop the lymphatic system D. Programs T lymphocytes to become regulator or effector T cells.
D
What test will the nurse assess to determine the client's response to antiretroviral therapy? A. Complete blood count B. Western blotting C. Enzyme immunoassay D. Viral load
D
The nurse completes a history and physical assessment on a client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) who was admitted to the hospital with respiratory complications. The nurse knows to assess for what common infection (80% occurrence) in persons with AIDS? A. Cytomegalovirus B. Legionnaire's disease C. Pneumocystis pneumonia D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C
Which of the following indicates that a client with HIV has developed AIDS? A. Herpes simplex ulcer persisting for 2 months B. Severe fatigue at night C. Pain on standing and walking D. Weight loss of 10 lb over 3 months
A A diagnosis of AIDS cannot be made until the person with HIV meets case criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The immune system becomes compromised. The CD4 T-cell count drops below 200 cells and develops one of the opportunistic diseases, such as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, candidiasis, cytomegalovirus, or herpes simplex.
A nurse is assessing a client with multiple myeloma. Due to this condition, what will this client be at risk for? 1. pathologic bone fractures. 2. acute heart failure. 3. hypoxemia. 4. chronic liver failure.
1 Clients with multiple myeloma are at risk for pathologic bone fractures secondary to diffuse osteoporosis and osteolytic lesions. Also, clients are at risk for renal failure secondary to myeloma proteins by causing renal tubular obstruction. Liver failure and heart failure aren't usually sequelae of multiple myeloma. Hypoxemia isn't usually related to multiple myeloma.
serum uric acid level
2.5-8.0 mg/dL ***PER PREPU: Hyperuricemia, a serum uric acid concentration above 6.8 mg/dL (0.40 mol/L) can cause urate crystal deposition which can lead to gout.***
A nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma. Which laboratory value is the nurse most likely to see? 1. Hypernatremia 2. Hyperkalemia 3. Hypercalcemia 4. Hypermagnesemia
3 Calcium is released when bone is destroyed, causing hypercalcemia. Multiple myeloma doesn't affect potassium, sodium, or magnesium levels.
A client that is HIV+ has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumonia caused by P. jiroveci. What medication does the nurse expect that the client will take for the treatment of this infection? A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole B. Fluconazole C. Nystatin D. Amphotericin B
A
A client with rheumatoid arthritis arrives at the clinic for a checkup. Which statement by the client refers to the most overt clinical manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis? A. "My finger joints are oddly shaped." B. "I have pain in my hands." C. "I have trouble with my balance." D. "My legs feel weak."
A
The clinic nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with leukopenia. What does the nurse know this client has? A. A general reduction in all white blood cells B. A general reduction in neutrophils and basophils C. Too many erythrocytes D. A decrease in granulocytes
A
The nurse is assisting the client with multiple myeloma to ambulate. What is the most important nursing intervention to help prevent fractures in the client? A. Promote safety. B. Increase mobility. C. Encourage adequate nutrition. D. Provide adequate hydration.
A
The nurse is caring for a client with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) with high uric acid levels. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering that will prevent crystallization of uric acid and stone formation? A. Allopurinol B. Filgrastim C. Asparaginase D. Hydroxyurea
A
The nurse is reviewing the diagnostic test findings of a client with rheumatoid arthritis. What would the nurse expect to find? A. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate B. Increased C4 complement C. Increased albumin levels D. Increased red blood cell count
A
Which is usually the most important consideration in the decision to initiate antiretroviral therapy? A. CD4+ counts B. Western blotting assay C. HIV RNA D. ELISA
A
Which of the following cell types are involved in humoral immunity? A. B lymphocytes B. Helper T lymphocyte C. Memory T lymphocyte D. Suppressor T lymphocyte
A
A client asks the nurse how their rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed. The nurse knows that which finding from diagnostic tests can be used to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis? A. Boney erosions on x-ray B. Evidence of healed fractures on MRI C. Atherosclerotic plaques on an arteriogram D. Reduced muscle mass on CT scan
A The American College of Rheumatology and the European League Against Rheumatism have established criteria for classifying RA. These criteria are based on a point system where a total score of 6 or greater is required for the diagnosis of RA. Clients diagnosed with RA who are excluded from these diagnostic criteria include those with bony erosions on X-ray. RA is not diagnosed by CT scans, MRIs, or arteriograms, however CT scans and MRIs can be used to detect bone erosions and inflammatory changes of rheaumatoid arthritis.
A patient has undergone treatment for septic shock and received high doses of numerous antibiotics during the course of treatment. When planning the patients subsequent care, the nurse should be aware of what potential effect on the patients immune function? A) Bone marrow suppression B) Uncontrolled apoptosis C) Thymus atrophy D) Lymphoma
A Feedback: Large doses of antibiotics can precipitate bone marrow suppression, affecting immune function. Antibiotics are not noted to cause apoptosis, thymus atrophy, or lymphoma.
A patient with leukemia has developed stomatitis and is experiencing a nutritional deficit. An oral anesthetic has consequently been prescribed. What health education should the nurse provide to the patient? A) Chew with care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue. B) Use the oral anesthetic 1 hour prior to meal time. C) Brush teeth before and after eating. D) Swallow slowly and deliberately.
A If oral anesthetics are used, the patient must be warned to chew with extreme care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue or buccal mucosa. An oral anesthetic would be metabolized by the time the patient eats if it is used 1 hour prior to meals. There is no specific need to warn the patient about brushing teeth or swallowing slowly because an oral anesthetic has been used.
A client has a serum study that is positive for the rheumatoid factor. What will the nurse tell the client about the significance of this test result? A. It is suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. B. It is diagnostic for systemic lupus erythematosus. C. It is diagnostic for Sjögren's syndrome. D. It is specific for rheumatoid arthritis.
A Rheumatoid factor is present in about 70% to 80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, but its presence alone is not diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis, and its absence does not rule out the diagnosis. The antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is used to diagnose Sjögren's syndrome and systemic lupus erythematosus.
A client with suspected exposure to HIV has been tested with the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) with positive results twice. The next step for the nurse to explain to the client for confirmation of the diagnosis is to perform a: A. Western blot test for confirmation of diagnosis. B. p24 antigen test for confirmation of diagnosis. C. T4-cell count for confirmation of diagnosis. D. polymerase chain reaction test for confirmation of diagnosis.
A The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test, an initial HIV screening test, is positive when there are sufficient HIV antibodies; it also is positive when there are antibodies from other infectious diseases. The test is repeated if results are positive. If results of a second ELISA test are positive, the Western blot is performed. The p24 antigen test and the polymerase chain reaction test determine the viral load, and the T4-cell count is not used for diagnostic confirmation of the presence of HIV in the blood.
A client has discussed therapy for his HIV-positive status. What does the nurse understand is the goal of antiretroviral therapy? A. Bring the viral load to a virtually undetectable level B. Reverse the HIV+ status to a negative status. C. Eliminate the risk of AIDS. D. Treat mycobacterium avium complex.
A The goal of antiretroviral therapy is to bring the viral load to a virtually undetectable level. This level is no more than 500 or 50 copies, depending on the sensitivity of the selected viral load test. It is not possible to reverse the status to a negative, and it cannot eliminate the risk of AIDS but can help with prolonging the asymptomatic stage of HIV. Antiretroviral therapy does not treat mycobacterium avium complex.
The hospitalized client is experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding with a platelets at 9,000/mm³. The client is receiving prednisone and azathioprine. What action will the nurse take? A. Perform a neurologic assessment with vital signs. B. Request a prescription of diphenoxylate and atropine for loose stools. C. Use contact precautions with this client. D. Teach the client to vigorously floss the teeth to prevent infections.
A With platelets less than 10,000/mm³ there is a risk for spontaneous bleeding, including within the cranial vault. The nurse performs a neurologic examination to assess for this possibility. Though the client is receiving immunosuppressants, it is not necessary to use contact precautions with this client. Contact precautions are used with clients who have known or suspected transmittable illnesses. Diphenoxylate and atropine can cause constipation and inhibit accurate assessment of the client's gastrointestinal bleeding. If the client strains when having a bowel movement, the client could bleed even more. The client is not to floss vigorously; doing so can cause bleeding.
A patients decreased mobility is ultimately the result of an autoimmune reaction originating in the synovial tissue, which caused the formation of pannus. This patient has been diagnosed with what health problem? A) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) B) Systemic lupus erythematosus C) Osteoporosis D) Polymyositis
A Feedback: In RA, the autoimmune reaction results in phagocytosis, producing enzymes within the joint that break down collagen, cause edema and proliferation of the synovial membrane, and ultimately form pannus. Pannus destroys cartilage and bone. SLE, osteoporosis, and polymyositis do not involve pannus formation.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is prescribed a topical analgesic medication to help reduce joint pain. Which information will the nurse emphasize with the client about this medication? Select all that apply. A. Avoid contact with mucous membranes. B. Use the medication sparingly. C. Wash hands after applying the medication. D. Avoid areas of open skin. E. Wrap gauze over the area after applying.
A, B, C, D
Which assessment findings indicate to the nurse a the client is experiencing manifestations of acute myeloid leukemia (AML)? Select all that apply. A. Ecchymosis B. Headache C. Vomiting D. Fever E. Gingival hyperplasia
A, D, E
The nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client with Crohn's disease. What medication would the nurse include when asking about what medications the client has taken for suppression of the inflammatory and immune response? A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE-I) C. Corticosteroids D. Diuretics
C
A clinic nurse is caring for a patient admitted with AIDS. The nurse has assessed that the patient is experiencing a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are most likely related to the onset of what complication? A) HIV encephalopathy B) B-cell lymphoma C) Kaposis sarcoma D) Wasting syndrome
Ans: A Feedback: HIV encephalopathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. The other listed complications do not normally have cognitive and behavioral manifestations.
An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patients most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance? A) Hypercalcemia B) Hyperproteinemia C) Elevated serum viscosity D) Elevated RBC count
Ans: A Feedback: Hypercalcemia may result when bone destruction occurs due to the disease process. Elevated serum viscosity occurs because plasma cells excrete excess immunoglobulin. RBC count will be decreased. Hyperproteinemia would not be present.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute leukemia. What assessment most directly addresses the most common cause of death among patients with leukemia? A) Monitoring for infection B) Monitoring nutritional status C) Monitor electrolyte levels D) Monitoring liver function
Ans: A Feedback: In patients with acute leukemia, death typically occurs from infection or bleeding. Compromised nutrition, electrolyte imbalances, and impaired liver function are all plausible, but none is among the most common causes of death in this patient population.
A patient with a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is being treated with induction therapy on the oncology unit. What nursing action should be prioritized in the patients care plan? A) Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions B) Provision of a high-calorie, low-texture diet and appropriate oral hygiene C) Including the family in planning the patients activities of daily living D) Monitoring and treating the patients pain
Ans: A Feedback: Induction therapy causes neutropenia and a severe risk of infection. This risk must be addressed directly in order to ensure the patients survival. For this reason, infection control would be prioritized over nutritional interventions, family care, and pain, even though each of these are important aspects of nursing care.
An oncology nurse is providing health education for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukemia. What should the nurse explain about commonalities between all of the different subtypes of leukemia? A) The different leukemias all involve unregulated proliferation of white blood cells. B) The different leukemias all have unregulated proliferation of red blood cells and decreased bone marrow function. C) The different leukemias all result in a decrease in the production of white blood cells. D) The different leukemias all involve the development of cancer in the lymphatic system.
Ans: A Feedback: Leukemia commonly involves unregulated proliferation of white blood cells. Decreased production of red blood cells is associated with anemias. Decreased production of white blood cells is associated with leukopenia. The leukemias are not characterized by their involvement with the lymphatic system.
A 60-year-old patient with chronic myeloid leukemia will be treated in the home setting and the nurse is preparing appropriate health education. What topic should the nurse emphasize? A) The importance of adhering to the prescribed drug regimen B) The need to ensure that vaccinations are up to date C) The importance of daily physical activity D) The need to avoid shellfish and raw foods
Ans: A Feedback: Nurses need to understand that the effectiveness of the drugs used to treat CML is based on the ability of the patient to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed. Adherence is often incomplete, thus this must be a focus of health education. Vaccinations normally would not be administered during treatment and daily physical activity may be impossible for the patient. Dietary restrictions are not normally
A nurse is caring for a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma at the oncology clinic. The nurse should be aware of what main goal of care? A) Cure of the disease B) Enhancing quality of life C) Controlling symptoms D) Palliation
Ans: A Feedback: The goal in the treatment of Hodgkin lymphoma is cure. Palliation is thus not normally necessary. Quality of life and symptom control are vital, but the overarching goal is the cure the disease.
A woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is being treated aggressively with a chemotherapeutic regimen. As a result of this regimen, she has an inability to fight infection due to the fact that her bone marrow is unable to produce a sufficient amount of what? A) Lymphocytes B) Cytoblasts C) Antibodies D) Capillaries
Ans: A Feedback: The white blood cells involved in immunity (including lymphocytes) are produced in the bone marrow. Cytoblasts are the protoplasm of the cell outside the nucleus. Antibodies are produced by lymphocytes, but not in the bone marrow. Capillaries are small blood vessels
A nurse is working with a patient with rheumatic disease who is being treated with salicylate therapy. What statement would indicate that the patient is experiencing adverse effects of this drug? A) I have this ringing in my ears that just wont go away. B) I feel so foggy in the mornings and it takes me so long to wake up. C) When I eat a meal thats high in fat, I get really nauseous. D) I seem to have lost my appetite, which is unusual for me.
Ans: A Feedback: Tinnitus is associated with salicylate therapy. Salicylates do not normally cause drowsiness, intolerance of high-fat meals, or anorexia.
A patients exposure to which of the following microorganisms is most likely to trigger a cellular response? A) Herpes simplex B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Beta hemolytic Streptococcus
Ans: A Feedback: Viral, rather than bacterial antigens, induce a cellular response.
An HIV-infected patient presents at the clinic for a scheduled CD4+ count. The results of the test are 45 cells/mL, and the nurse recognizes the patients increased risk for Mycobacterium aviumcomplex (MAC disease). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug? A) Azithromycin B) Vancomycin C) Levofloxacin D) Fluconazole
Ans: A Feedback: HIV-infected adults and adolescents should receive chemoprophylaxis against disseminatedMycobacterium avium complex (MAC disease) if they have a CD4+ count less than 50 cells/L. Azithromycin (Zithromax) or clarithromycin (Biaxin) are the preferred prophylactic agents. Vancomycin, levofloxacin, and fluconazole are not prophylactic agents for MAC.
Since the emergence of HIV/AIDS, there have been significant changes in epidemiologic trends. Members of what group currently have the greatest risk of contracting HIV? A) Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men B) Recreational drug users C) Blood transfusion recipients D) Health care providers
Ans: A Feedback: Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men remain the population most affected by HIV and account for 2% of the population but 61% of the new infections. This exceeds the incidence among drug users, health care workers, and transfusion recipients.
A nurse is performing the admission assessment of a patient who has AIDS. What components should the nurse include in this comprehensive assessment? Select all that apply. A) Current medication regimen B) Identification of patients support system C) Immune system function D) Genetic risk factors for HIV E) History of sexual practices
Ans: A, B, C, E Feedback: Nursing assessment includes numerous focuses, including identification of medication use, support system, immune function and sexual history. HIV does not have a genetic component.
An oncology nurse recognizes a patients risk for fluid imbalance while the patient is undergoing treatment for leukemia. What relevant assessments should the nurse include in the patients plan of care? Select all that apply. A) Monitoring the patients electrolyte levels B) Monitoring the patients hepatic function C) Measuring the patients weight on a daily basis D) Measuring and recording the patients intake and output E) Auscultating the patients lungs frequently
Ans: A, C, D, E Feedback:Assessments that relate to fluid balance include monitoring the patients electrolytes, auscultating the patients chest for adventitious sounds, weighing the patient daily, and closely monitoring intake and output. Liver function is not directly relevant to the patients fluid status in most cases.
A nurse is completing a nutritional status of a patient who has been admitted with AIDS-related complications. What components should the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply. A) Serum albumin level B) Weight history C) White blood cell count D) Body mass index E) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
Ans: A,B,D,E Feedback: Nutritional status is assessed by obtaining a dietary history and identifying factors that may interfere with oral intake, such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, oral pain, or difficulty swallowing. In addition, the patients ability to purchase and prepare food is assessed. Weight history (i.e., changes over time); anthropometric measurements; and blood urea nitrogen (BUN), serum protein, albumin, and transferrin levels provide objective measurements of nutritional status. White cell count is not a typical component of a nutritional assessment.
A nurse is planning patient education for a patient being discharged home with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been prescribed antimalarials for treatment, so the nurse knows to teach the patient to self-monitor for what adverse effect? A) Tinnitus B) Visual changes C) Stomatitis D) Hirsutism
Ans: B Feedback: Antimalarials may cause visual changes; regular ophthalmologic examinations are necessary.Tinnitus is associated with salicylate therapy, stomatitis is associated with gold therapy, and hirsutism is associated with corticosteroid therapy.
A patient is undergoing testing to determine the overall function of her immune system. What test can be performed to evaluate the functioning of the patients cellular immune system? A) Immunoglobulin testing B) Delayed hypersensitivity skin test C) Specific antibody response D) Total serum globulin assessment
Ans: B Feedback: Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity tests include the delayed hypersensitivity skin test, since this immune response is specifically dependent on the cellular immune response. Each of the other listed tests assesses functioning of the humoral immune system.
A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority? A) Oral temperature of 100F B) Tachypnea and restlessness C) Frequent loose stools D) Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday
Ans: B Feedback: In prioritizing care, the pneumonia would be assessed first by the nurse. Tachypnea and restlessness are symptoms of altered respiratory status and need immediate priority. Weight loss of 1 pound is probably fluid related; frequent loose stools would not take short-term precedence over a temperature or tachypnea and restlessness. An oral temperature of 100F is not considered a fever and would not be the first issue addressed.
A nurse is explaining how the humoral and cellular immune responses should be seen as interacting parts of the broader immune system rather than as independent and unrelated processes. What aspect of immune function best demonstrates this? A) The movement of B cells in and out of lymph nodes B) The interactions that occur between T cells and B cells C) The differentiation between different types of T cells D) The universal role of the complement system
Ans: B Feedback: T cells interact closely with B cells, indicating that humoral and cellular immune responses are not separate, unrelated processes, but rather branches of the immune response that interact. Movement of B cells does not clearly show the presence of a unified immune system. The differentiation between types of T cells and the role of the complement system do not directly suggest a single immune system.
An adult patients abnormal complete blood count (CBC) and physical assessment have prompted the primary care provider to order a diagnostic workup for Hodgkin lymphoma. The presence of what assessment finding is considered diagnostic of the disease? A) Schwann cells B) Reed-Sternberg cells C) Lewy bodies D) Loops of Henle
Ans: B Feedback: The malignant cell of Hodgkin lymphoma is the Reed-Sternberg cell, a gigantic tumor cell that is morphologically unique and thought to be of immature lymphoid origin. It is the pathologic hallmark and essential diagnostic criterion. Schwann cells exist in the peripheral nervous system and Lewy bodies are markers of Parkinson disease. Loops of Henle exist in nephrons.
A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patients diarrhea? A) Zithromax B) Sandostatin C) Levaquin D) Biaxin
Ans: B Feedback: Therapy with octreotide acetate (Sandostatin), a synthetic analogue of somatostatin, has been shown to be effective in managing chronic severe diarrhea. Zithromax, Levaquin, and Biaxin are not used to treat chronic severe diarrhea.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a patient with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and observes multiple areas of ecchymosis and petechiae. What laboratory study should the nurse be concerned about? A. Hematocrit of 38% B. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL C. Platelet count of 9,000/mm3 D. WBC count of 4,200 cells/uL
C
A nurse is providing care for a patient who has just been diagnosed as being in the early stage of rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should anticipate the administration of which of the following? A) Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) B) Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) C) Allopurinol (Zyloprim) D) Prednisone
Ans: B Feedback: In the past, a step-wise approach starting with NSAIDs was standard of care. However, evidence clearly documenting the benefits of early DMARD (methotrexate [Rheumatrex], antimalarials, leflunomide [Arava], or sulfasalazine [Azulfidine]) treatment has changed national guidelines for management. Now it is recommended that treatment with the non-biologic DMARDs begin within 3 months of disease onset. Allopurinol is used to treat gout. Opioids are not indicated in early RA. Prednisone is used in unremitting RA.
A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patients needs for physical activity? A) Teach the patient about the risks of immobility and the benefits of exercise. B) Assist the patient to a chair during awake times, as tolerated. C) Collaborate with the physical therapist to arrange for stair exercises. D) Teach the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.
Ans: B Feedback: Sitting is a chair is preferable to bed rest, even if a patient is experiencing severe fatigue. A patient who has debilitating fatigue would not likely be able to perform stair exercises. Teaching about mobility may be necessary, but education must be followed by interventions that actually involve mobility. Deep breathing and coughing reduce the risk of respiratory complications but are not substitutes for physical mobility in preventing deconditioning.
A patient with cystic fibrosis has received a double lung transplant and is now experiencing signs of rejection. What is the immune response that predominates in this situation? A) Humoral B) Nonspecific C) Cellular D) Mitigated
Ans: C Feedback: Most immune responses to antigens involve both humoral and cellular responses, although only one predominates. During transplantation rejection, the cellular response predominates over the humoral response. Neither a mitigated nor nonspecific cell response is noted in this situation. *T-CELLS=CELLULAR* **B=HUMMORAL i.e Anaphylaxis/sepsis**
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis comes into the clinic for a routine check-up. On assessment the nurse notes that the patient appears to have lost some of her ability to function since her last office visit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action? A) Arrange a family meeting in order to explore assisted living options. B) Refer the patient to a support group. C) Arrange for the patient to be assessed in her home environment. D) Refer the patient to social work.
Ans: C Feedback: Assessment in the patients home setting can often reveal more meaningful data than an assessment in the health care setting. There is no indication that assisted living is a pressing need or that the patient would benefit from social work or a support group.
Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following? A) Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications B) Radiation therapy on a daily basis C) Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation D) An aggressive course of chemotherapy
Ans: D Feedback: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy, called induction therapy, which usually requires hospitalization for several weeks. Induction therapy is not synonymous with radiation, stem cell transplantation, or targeted therapies.
A patients rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has failed to respond appreciably to first-line treatments and the primary care provider has added prednisone to the patients drug regimen. What principle will guide this aspect of the patients treatment? A) The patient will need daily blood testing for the duration of treatment. B) The patient must stop all other drugs 72 hours before starting prednisone. C) The drug should be used at the highest dose the patient can tolerate. D) The drug should be used for as short a time as possible.
Ans: D Feedback: Corticosteroids are used for shortest duration and at lowest dose possible to minimize adverse effects. Daily blood work is not necessary and the patient does not need to stop other drugs prior to using corticosteroids.
A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what? A) AML B) CML C) MDS D) ALL
Ans: D Feedback: In acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL), manifestations of leukemic cell infiltration into other organs are more common than with other forms of leukemia, and include pain from an enlarged liver or spleen, as well as bone pain. The central nervous system is frequently a site for leukemic cells; thus, patients may exhibit headache and vomiting because of meningeal involvement. Other extranodal sites include the testes and breasts. This particular presentation is not closely associated with acute myeloid leukemia (AML), chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), or myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS).
A community health nurse is performing a visit to the home of a patient who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). On what aspect of the patients health should the nurse focus most closely during the visit? A) The patients understanding of rheumatoid arthritis B) The patients risk for cardiopulmonary complications C) The patients social support system D) The patients functional status
Ans: D Feedback: The patients functional status is a central focus of home assessment of the patient with RA. The nurse may also address the patients understanding of the disease, complications, and social support, but the patients level of function and quality of life is a primary concern.
Allopurinol (Zyloprim) has been ordered for a patient receiving treatment for gout. The nurse caring for this patient knows to assess the patient for bone marrow suppression, which may be manifested by which of the following diagnostic findings? A) Hyperuricemia B) Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate C) Elevated serum creatinine D) Decreased platelets
Ans: D Feedback: Thrombocytopenia occurs in bone marrow suppression. Hyperuricemia occurs in gout, but is not caused by bone marrow suppression. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate may occur from inflammation associated with gout, but is not related to bone marrow suppression. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate renal damage, but this is not associated with the use of allopurinol.
A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) informs the nurse of difficulty eating and swallowing, and shows the nurse white patches in the mouth. What problem related to AIDS does the nurse understand the client has developed? A. Kaposi's sarcoma B. Candidiasis C. MAC D. Wasting syndrome
B Candidiasis, a fungal infection, occurs in almost all clients with AIDS and immune depression (Durham & Lashley, 2010). Oral candidiasis is characterized by creamy-white patches in the oral cavity and, if left untreated, can progress to involve the esophagus and stomach. Associated signs and symptoms include difficult and painful swallowing and retrosternal pain.
A nurse is monitoring the client's progression of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What debilitating gastrointestinal condition found in up to 90% of all AIDS clients should the nurse be aware of? A. Nausea and vomiting B. Chronic diarrhea C. Oral candida D. Anorexia
B Chronic diarrhea is believed related to the direct effect of HIV on cells lining the intestine. Although all gastrointestinal manifestations of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) can be debilitating, the most devastating is chronic diarrhea. It can cause profound weight loss and severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care? A) There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma. B) Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status. C) The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia. D) The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma.
B Leukocytosis is most often the result of infection. It is only considered pathologic (and suggestive of leukemia) if it is persistent and extreme. Multiple myeloma and lymphoma are not likely causes of this constellation of symptoms.
The nurse is discussing the new medication that a client will be taking for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Which disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) will the nurse educate the client about? A. Methylprednisolone B. Methotrexate C. Celecoxib D. Mercaptopurine azathioprine
B Methotrexate is a DMARD that reduces the amount of joint damage and slows the damage to other tissues as well.
Which type of cell is capable of recognizing and killing infected or stressed cells and producing cytokines? A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Natural killer cells C. Memory cells D. Null lymphocytes
B Natural killer cells are a class of lymphocytes that recognize infected and stressed cells and respond by killing these cells and by secreting macrophage-activating cytokine. Natural killer cells defend against microorganisms and some types of malignant cells. Null lymphocytes do not produce or active cytokine they are stimulated to attack tumor or viral infected cells. Memory cells are important to the immune system but produces memory B cells not cytokine. Cytotoxic -T cells leads to apoptosis ,causing death in infectious cells, however they do not produce cytokine.
A patient with rheumatic disease is complaining of stomatitis. The nurse caring for the patient should further assess the patient for the adverse effects of what medications? A) Corticosteroids B) Gold-containing compounds C) Antimalarials D) Salicylate therapy
B Stomatitis is an adverse effect that is associated with gold therapy. Steroids, antimalarials, and salicylates do not normally have this adverse effect.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is being evaluated for medication therapy. Which testing will the nurse anticipate the client will need before medications are started? Select all that apply. A. Serum electrolytes B. Tuberculin skin test C. Liver function tests D. Testing for hepatitis C E. Testing for hepatitis B
B, C, D, E Liver function tests are recommended for most disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARD) because it can cause elevation of the liver enzymes. A tuberculin (TB) skin test should be done prior to the initiation of certain medications to rule out tuberculosis. In the event the client has latent TB and has never been treated, the infection can be reactivated. The client should also be assessed for hepatitis B and hepatitis C, which could impact treatment strategies if positive. If the client tests positive for hepatitis, the infection should be treated prior to starting medication. Serum electrolytes are not identified as being routinely done before beginning medication therapy for RA because it is not part of the pharmacological side effects or adverse effects of DMARDs.
A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. What should the nursing priority be? A. Supplying adaptive devices, such as a zipper-pull, easy-to-open beverage cartons, lightweight cups, and unpackaged silverware B. Providing comprehensive client teaching; including symptoms of the disorder, treatment options, and expected outcomes C. Administering ordered analgesics and monitoring their effects D. Performing meticulous skin care
C
The spleen acts as a filter for old red blood cells, holding a reserve of blood in case of hemorrhagic shock. It is also an area where lymphocytes can concentrate. It can become enlarged (splenomegaly) in certain hematologic disorders and cancers. To assess an enlarged spleen, the nurse would palpate the area of the: A. Lower right abdomen. B. Upper mediastinum. C. Upper left quadrant of the abdomen. D. Lower margin around the liver.
C
When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean which of the following? A. He has not been infected with HIV. B. Antibodies to HIV are present in his blood. C. Antibodies to HIV are not present in his blood. D. He is immune to HIV.
C A negative test result indicates that antibodies to HIV are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn. A negative test result should be interpreted as demonstrating that if infected, the body has not produced antibodies (which take from 3 weeks to 6 months or longer). Therefore, subsequent testing of an at-risk patient must be encouraged. The test result does not mean that the patient is immune to the virus, nor does it mean that the patient is not infected. It just means that the body may not have produced antibodies yet. When antibodies to HIV are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.
A nurse is reviewing a patients medication administration record in an effort to identify drugs that may contribute to the patients recent immunosuppression. What drug is most likely to have this effect? A)An antibiotic B)A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) C)An antineoplastic D)An antiretroviral
C Chemotherapy affects bone marrow function, destroying cells that contribute to an effective immune response and resulting in immunosuppression. Antibiotics in large doses cause bone marrow suppression, but antineoplastic drugs have the most pronounced immunosuppressive effect. NSAIDs and antiretrovirals do not normally have this effect.
A client with AML has pale mucous membranes and bruises on the legs. What is the primary nursing intervention? A. Check the client's history. B. Assess the client's pulse and blood pressure. C. Assess the client's hemoglobin and platelets. D. Assess the client's skin.
C Clients with AML may develop pallor from anemia and a tendency to bleed because of a low platelet count. Assessing the client's hemoglobin and platelets will help to determine whether this is the cause of the symptoms. This would be the priority above assessing pulses, blood pressure, history, or skin.
A nurse is performing the health history and physical assessment of a patient who has a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). What assessment finding is most consistent with the clinical presentation of RA? A) Cool joints with decreased range of motion B) Signs of systemic infection C) Joint stiffness, especially in the morning D) Visible atrophy of the knee and shoulder joints
C Feedback: In addition to joint pain and swelling, another classic sign of RA is joint stiffness, especially in the morning. Joints are typically swollen, not atrophied, and systemic infection does not accompany the disease. Joints are often warm rather than cool.
A young adult patient has received the news that her treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma has been deemed successful and that no further treatment is necessary at this time. The care team should ensure that the patient receives regular health assessments in the future due to the risk of what complication? A) Iron-deficiency anemia B) Hemophilia C)Hematologic cancers D)Genitourinary cancers
C Feedback: Survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma have a high risk of second cancers, with hematologic cancers being the most common. There is no consequent risk of anemia or hemophilia, and hematologic cancers are much more common than GU cancers.
A client with acute myeloid leukemia has a fever. What pathophysiological process does the nurse recognize is the cause of the client's fever? A. Anemia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Neutropenia D. Pancytopenia
C Fever and infection result from a decrease in neutrophils (neutropenia). Decreased red blood cells (anemia) cause weakness, fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, and pallor in AML. Pancytopenia, an overall decrease in all blood components, is not cause of fever in clients with AML. Decreased platelet count (thrombocytopenia) causes petechiae and bruising in AML.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, the nurse should implement what intervention? A) Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). B) Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. C) Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day. D) Assign responsibility for the patients nutrition to the patients friends and family.
C For patients experiencing difficulties with oral intake, the provision of small, easily chewed meals may be beneficial. This option would be trialed before resorting to tube feeding or TPN. The family should be encouraged to participate in care, but should not be assigned full responsibility.
A client asks the nurse how to identify rheumatoid nodules with rheumatoid arthritis. What characteristic will the nurse include? A. nonmovable B. tender to the touch C. located over bony prominence D. Reddened
C Rheumatoid nodules usually are nontender, movable, and evident over bony prominences, such as the elbow or the base of the spine. The nodules are not reddened.
A client suspected of having human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has blood drawn for a screening test. What is the first test generally run to see if a client is, indeed, HIV positive? A. Complete blood count (CBC) B. Schick C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) D. Western Blot
C The ELISA test, an initial HIV screening test, is positive when there are sufficient HIV antibodies; it also is positive when there are antibodies from other infectious diseases. If the ELISA is positive twice then the Western Blot test is run. A CBC and a Schick test are not screening tests for HIV.
A client is awaiting test results to diagnose Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse knows that which result is the hallmark for the diagnosis of this condition? A. Elevated platelet count B. Increased basophils C. Misshaped red blood cells D. Reed-Sternberg cells
C The malignant cell of Hodgkin lymphoma is the Reed-Sternberg cell, a gigantic tumor cell that is morphologically unique and thought to be of immature lymphoid origin. These cells arise from the B lymphocyte. They may have more than one nucleus and often have an owl-like appearance. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is the pathologic hallmark and essential diagnostic criterion. Basophils, platelets, or red blood cells are not used to diagnose Hodgkin lymphoma.
A client is beginning highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The client demonstrates an understanding of the need for follow up when scheduling a return visit for viral load testing at which time? A. 18 weeks B. 24 weeks C. 6 weeks D. 12 weeks
C Viral load tests are measured immediately before initiating antiretroviral therapy and then again in 2 to 8 weeks. In most clients, adherence to a regimen of potent antiretroviral agents should result in a large decrease in the viral load by 2 to 8 weeks. Therefore, a return visit at 6 weeks would be in this time frame. By 16 to 20 weeks, the viral load should continue to decline, dropping below detectable levels.
The clinical nurse educator is presenting health promotion education to a patient who will be treated for non-Hodgkin lymphoma on an outpatient basis. The nurse should recommend which of the following actions? A) Avoiding direct sun exposure in excess of 15 minutes daily B) Avoiding grapefruit juice and fresh grapefruit C) Avoiding highly crowded public places D) Using an electric shaver rather than a razor
C Feedback: The risk of infection is significant for these patients, not only from treatment-related myelosuppression but also from the defective immune response that results from the disease itself. Limiting infection exposure is thus necessary. The need to avoid grapefruit is dependent on the patients medication regimen. Sun exposure and the use of razors are not necessarily contraindicated.
A nurses plan of care for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis includes several exercise-based interventions. Exercises for patients with rheumatoid disorders should have which of the following goals? A) Maximize range of motion while minimizing exertion B) Increase joint size and strength C) Limit energy output in order to preserve strength for healing D) Preserve and increase range of motion while limiting joint stress
D Exercise is vital to the management of rheumatic disorders. Goals should be preserving and promoting mobility and joint function while limiting stress on the joint and possible damage. Cardiovascular exertion should remain within age-based limits and individual ability, but it is not a goal to minimize exertion. Increasing joint size is not a valid goal.
A client is receiving radiation therapy for lesions in the abdomen from non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Because of the effects of the radiation treatments, what will the nurse assess for? A. Laryngeal edema B. Adventitious lung sounds C. Hair loss D. Diarrheal stools
D Side effects of radiation therapy are limited to the area being irradiated. Clients who have abdominal radiation therapy may experience diarrhea. If the lesions were in the upper chest, then the client may experience adventitious lung sounds or laryngeal edema as side effects. Hair loss is associated more with chemotherapy than radiation therapy.