Rad easy patient care

Symptoms associated with a mild to moderate allergic reaction to contrast media include 1. sneezing. 2. hoarseness. 3. wheezing. A 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 onlv C 2 and 3 only (D 1,2, and 3

(D 1,2, and 3 All these symptoms are related to a respiratory reaction. There also may be urticaria, scratchy throat, nasal congestion. The patient who has received contrast media should be watched closely. If any symptoms arise, the radiologist should be notified immediately.

When radiographing young children, it is helpful to 1. let them bring a toy. 2. keep explanations simple and honest. 3. be cheerful and unhurried. A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

What should you do if you discover while taking patient history that the patient scheduled for an intravenous urogram (IVU) takes metformin hydrochloride daily but has no evidence of AKI and with eGFR >30 mL/1.732 ? 1 Proceed with the examination if kidney function is normal. 2. Instruct the patient to withhold the metformin for 48 hours after the examination. 3. Reschedule the examination until the patient has been off metformin for 48 hours.

1 Current (2018) American College of Radiology (ACR) recommendations state that "there have been no reports of lactic acidosis following intravenous iodinated contrast medium administration in patients properly selected for metformin use". The ACR recommends that metformin (Glucophage) patients be classified in two ways. Category 1 patients taking metformin are those with no evidence of AKI and with eGFR ≥30 mL/l.732 ; these patients need not discontinue metformin before or after receiving contrast, and it is not required that renal function be reassessed following the exam. Category 2 patients taking metformin are those having AKI or severe chronic kidney disease as indicated by eGFR, or that will be undergoing an arterial catheter study; these patients should temporarily discontinue metformin at time of (or prior to) the procedure, and withhold metformin for 48 hours after the procedure. Metformin should be reinstituted only after renal function studies have been reevaluated and found to be acceptable.

If extravasation occurs during an IV injection of contrast media, correct treatment includes which of the following? 1. Remove the needle. 2. Apply pressure to the vein. 3. Lower arm below heart level. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

1 and 2 only Extravasation (also referred to as infiltration) of contrast media into surrounding tissue is potentially very painful. If it does occur, the needle should be removed and the extravasation cared for immediately, applying pressure to affected vein (before looking for another vein). The arm should be elevated and pressure should be applied to the vein until bleeding stops. There is conflicting information regarding application of warm vs cold compress. Cold seems to alleviate pain better, while warm seems to encourage absorption and improve blood flow. It is therefor the prerogative of the radiologist or departmental routine.

The radiographer is required to perform which of the following procedures prior to entering a contact isolation room with a mobile x- ray unit? 1. Put on gown and gloves only. 2. Put on gown, gloves, mask, and cap. 3. Clean the mobile x-ray unit. A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

1 only When performing bedside radiography in a contact isolation room, the radiographer must wear a gown and gloves. The IPs are prepared for the examination by placing a pillowcase over them to protect them from contamination. Whenever possible, one person should manipulate the mobile unit and remain "clean," whereas the other handles the patient. The mobile unit must be cleaned with a disinfectant upon exiting the patient's room

Which of the following is/are requirements regarding patient demographic information? 1. Workstations that display images with patient demographic information should be located in controlled access areas of the facility. 2. Technologists should be able to alter information contained in the image file sent to PACS to correct errors without documenting the change. 3. Technologists should be able to change patient information as an error prevention step post processing before sending images to PACS. 4. At a minimum, demographic information should include the following: patient name or ID number, exam date, side marker, and facility name where the exam was performed.

1, 3, 4 The accuracy and maintenance of privacy of patient demographics is crucial to the safe, ethical practice of radiologic technology. Computer workstations should be placed in areas the general public cannot access, and also have tools in place to preserve privacy, like screen savers and polarizing filters. Technologists should double check patient identifiers displayed on the image in post-processing before sending to PACS. If an error is caught at this step, it can be corrected easily. To provide the radiologist and ordering physician confirmation of patient identity and chronology of care, the patient's name or ID number, side marker, date of the exam, and facility should is the minimum info required on each image. Physicians have several hundred patients they are caring for simultaneously; crucial information reduces confusion that leads to suboptimal care (C). The only choice that is false is that technologists should be able to alter information contained in the image file sent to PACS to correct errors without documenting the change (A, B, and D). Anytime changes are made to the patient's medical record, it is a legal and ethical requirement to document the change and the reason it was made. Unscrupulous practitioners could cover up negligence and other liabilities if this requirement was not in place.

Which of the following situations warrant the use of a nasoenteric tube rather than a nasogastric tube? 1. Reduced gastric peristalsis with normal intestinal peristalsis 2. Removal of gas or fluid from bowel obstruction 3. Overactive gastric emptying, preventing adequate nutrient absorption

1. Reduced gastric peristalsis with normal intestinal peristalsis 2. Removal of gas or fluid from bowel obstruction

A diabetic patient who has prepared for a fasting radiographic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1. shaking and nervousness. 2. cold, clammy skin. 3. cyanosis.

1. shaking and nervousness. 2. cold, clammy skin.

Which of the following would be a reason for performing an orbits series? 1. Hemolytic anemia 2. Prior employment as a steel worker 3. Orthopedic implants A 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

2 only One major benefit of general radiography is the ability to detect metal debris in various anatomical regions. Prior work in the steel or mechanical industries (2) can result in metal debris in the body, and some patients come into the Radiology Department to receive an orbits series to determine if there are any metal particles in the eyes (A). The debris can go unnoticed or ignored for years, leaving very little visible trace. Joint replacements (3) and hemolytic anemia (1) are not visible (B, C, and D).

Compared to oral temperature, which of the following temperature sites would result in slightly higher values: (1) Rectal (2) Axillary (3) Forehead A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1 and 2 only

A Choosing a site to measure temperature is dependent on patient age, ability, and condition. While oral temperatures tend to be the most frequent, for infants and those who cannot keep a thermometer under their tongue, other routes are preferable such as the axillary, rectal, temporal lobe, and forehead. The rectal temperature (1) will yield a reading 0.5-1.0°F higher than an oral temperature reading. Both axillary and forehead readings can be 0.5-1.0°F lower than oral temperature readings.

Which of the following techniques can help prevent falls during patient transfers? A Utilize a gait belt to help grasp onto the patient while assisting them to a standing position B To move the patient's trunk, hold onto their upper arm to support them C Bring the patient's weaker side closest to the table before having them stand for a transfer D Position yourself behind the wheelchair as the patient stands

A When performing a transfer, gait belts (A) are useful in providing an area to grip while helping a patient stand. The gait belt can be adjusted for the patient's size. When manipulating a patient's trunk to reposition them, it is best to position your hands in between the chest and upper extremity; avoid grasping onto their arm, it can cause discomfort and instability (B). The patient's stronger side should be positioned closest to the table to allow them to pivot into position (C). When transferring a patient to and from a wheelchair, it is best to stand in front of the patient and to position the wheelchair behind them. This way, if they are unstable and move backward, they sit back into the wheelchair, and if they stumble forward, the technologist is there to stabilize them (D).

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous glandular breasttissue? A A postpubertal adolescent B A 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy C A menopausal woman D A postmenopausal 65-year-old

A A postpubertal adolescent

To prevent disease transmission, linens used for patients should 1. Be only used once per patient 2. Be folded inward after use before removing from a surface 3. Be shaken to remove any loose debris before placing in the hamper A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1.2. and 3

A 1 and 2 only Preventing disease transmission is a critical part of the cleanup process in a medical setting. With linens, it is important to use them only once per patient, and to fold the outside corners toward the middle (2) to keep the most soiled areas contained (A). It is important to avoid shaking the linens (3), which could loosen debris and pathogens into surrounding areas (B, C, and D)

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a two-member team performing mobile radiography on a patient with RSA precautions? 1. One radiographer remains "clean" - that is, he or she has no physical contact with the patient. 2. The radiographer who positions the mobile unit also makes the exposure. 3. The radiographer who positions the cassette also retrieves the cassette and removes it from its plastic protective cover. A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1.2, and 3

A 1 and 2 only When a two-member team of radiographers is performing mobile radiography on a patient with contact precautions, such as an MRSA patient, one radiographer remains "clean"—that is, he or she has no physical contact with the patient. The clean radiographer will position the mobile unit and make the exposure. The other ("dirty") member of the team will position the IP and retrieve the IP. As the IP's protective plastic cover is folded down, the "clean" radiographer will remove the cassette from the plastic. Both radiographers should be protected with gowns, gloves, and masks if the patient is on contact precautions. In addition, after the examination is completed, the mobile unit should be cleaned with a disinfectant. Conditions requiring the use of contact precautions also include hepatitis A and varicella infection.

Physical changes characteristic of gerontologic patients usually include 1. loss of bone calcium. 2. loss of hearing. 3. loss of mental alertness. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only c 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only Gerontology, or geriatrics, is the study of the elderly. While bone demineralization and loss of muscle mass occur to a greater or lesser degree in most elderly individuals, the radiographer must not assume that all gerontologic patients are hard of hearing, clumsy, or not mentally alert. Today many elderly people remain very active, staying mentally and physically agile well into their so-called golden years. The radiographer must keep this in mind as he or she provides age-specific care to the gerontologic patient.

Which of the following would be useful for an examination of a patient suffering from Parkinson disease? 1. Short exposure time 2. High ratio grid 3. Compensating filtration A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only The shortest possible exposure should be used as a matter of routine. Parkinson disease is characterized by uncontrollable tremors, and the resulting unsharpness can destroy image resolution. High ratio grid will absorb a higher percentage of scattered radiation but increase patient dose. Compensating filtration is unrelated to the problem and is not indicated here.

For newborns (0-3 months of age), which pulse rate range is normal: A 100-150 BPM B 70-130 BPM C 40-60 BPM D 60-100 BPM

A 100-150 BPM Pulse rate decreases as we age, with newborns measuring at an average of 100-150 beats per minute (A). Children ages 1 to 10 measure an average of 70-130 beats per minute (B), well-conditioned athletes range at 40-60 beats per minute (C), and adults measure at 60-100 beats per minute. Varying factors such as overall health, medications, and stress can impact pulse rate.

What is the needle angle usually recommended for intramuscular drug injection? A 90° B 75° C 45° D 150

A 90° Medications can be administered in a number of ways. Parenteral administration refers to drugs administered via intramuscular, subcutaneously, intravenously, or intrathecally—that is, any way other than by mouth. Intramuscular drug injections usually require that the needle form a 90° angle of injection. For subcutaneous injections the needle should form a 45° angle. Intradermal injections generally require that the needle form about a 15° angle with the arm.

Benefits of proper body ergonomics include: (select 3) A Maintenance of balance B Reduction of stress on joints and soft tissue C Increased use of energy D Decreased risk of injury E Decreased safety during transfers

A B D Radiography is a physically demanding branch of the medical field. Radiographers frequently transfer patients from wheelchairs and stretchers to the examination tables and move heavy equipment daily. The use of proper body mechanics/ergonomics ensures that balance has been maintained (A) through widening the base of support, less stress has been put on the joints and soft tissue (B) and there is a decreased risk of injury (D) during movement of heavy machinery and transfers of patients. Raising the examination table to hip height, lifting with the legs instead of the back, and pushing machinery instead of pulling are all ways in which proper body ergonomics are beneficial for the radiographer. Proper body ergonomics will also reduce the energy expended (C) and increase safety in the workplace.

Which three of the following are physiologic changes associated with advanced age: A Increased skin tears B Decreased balance C Increased bone density Increased cognitive capacity E Decreased muscle mass Increased connective tissue elasticity

A B E

Which situations may result in a lower than average resting heart rate: (choose 3) A Age over 65 years B Low temperatures C Decreased fitness conditioning High temperatures E Emotional stress F Increased fitness conditioning G Age younger than 10 years

A B F

As health care professionals aspire to design their actions to always benefit their patients, to only bring about good for their patients, they are aspiring to what moral principle? A Beneficence B Nonmaleficence C Autonomy D Veracity

A Beneficence There are many medicolegal terms with which the radiographer should be familiar. Beneficence refers to decisions and actions made to bring about good, ie, to benefit the patient. Nonmaleficence refers to the prevention of harm to the patient. Autonomy refers to the right of every individual to act with personal self-reliance. Veracity refers to telling the truth.

When all of the following exams are necessary, in which order should they be scheduled: A Cystogram, upper Gl with SBFT, esophagogram B Upper Gl with SBFT, esophagogram, cystogram C Esophagogram, upper Gl with SBFT, cystogram D Cystogram, esophagogram, upper GI with SBFT

A Cystogram, upper Gl with SBFT, esophagogram When scheduling multiple studies that require contrast administration, it is important to schedule them in a specific order so that the exam prep, follow-up, and contrast movement of each exam does not interfere with the next. For the exams above: The first exam should be the cystogram since the contrast agent is water-soluble and leaves the system quickly. Additionally, the cystogram requires a scout image of the abdomen/pelvis and any residual barium could be superimposed on necessary anatomy. The second exam should be the upper GI with small bowel follow through. If the esophagogram is performed before the upper GI, then residual contrast will make its way through the digestive tract prior to scout imaging and without proper fluoroscopic imaging of how it moves throughout the stomach. The last exam would be the esophagogram, since the prior exams would not interfere with the results. Therefore, the proper order would be answer A.

A technologist is performing an assisted transfer from wheelchair to radiographic exam table with adjustable height. The patient has previously suffered a CVA and presents with left- side weakness. Which four of the following six options will best achieve a successful transfer with reduced chance of injury for both patient and technologist? A The technologist should discuss the steps of the transfer with the patient beforehand to make sure the patient understands. B The wheelchair seat should be parallel to the exam table and the table should be elevated to a height 5 inches taller than the seat of the chair. C The wheelchair should be turned toward the table at a 45 degree angle, with the patient's weak side closest to the table. D The technologist should squat at the knee and the hip, keeping the back straight offering support and standing with the patient. E The wheelchair should be turned toward the table at a 45

A D E F Before beginning any activity with a patient under your care, take the time to explain what you are about to do with them. Ask some assessment questions to determine patient ability and give the patient a chance to relieve any confusion they might have about the process. Prepare the equipment and the area to ensure a safe lift. Footrests will trip a patient, and should be out of the way during a transfer. A conventional exam table of telescoping height should be brought as low or lower that the height of the wheelchair seat if possible. Finally, position patients with hemiparesis so that their strong side is closer to the destination of transfer, and their weak side is facing you. They will lean into their strong side as they transfer, and many post CVA patients require little help from the caregiver. The motion of the patient should be to stand, turn toward you, and sit. Try to get them sitting again as soon as possible. While they rest with their feet of the side of the exam table, back the wheelchair out, step back in close, and rock them into a supine position with a scoop maneuver under the back of their knees. Be sure to cradle the patient's head with the other arm.

Which of the following is the term used to describe any infection that is acquired in a hospital? A Nosocomial B latrogenic C Idiopathic D Purulent

A Nosocomial Hospital-acquired infections are known as nosocomial infections. An inpatient suffering from a pre-existing condition may also acquire an additional condition caused by pathogens existing in the facility. The majority of nosocomial infections are urinary tract infections (most common), surgical site infections, bloodstream infections, and pneumonia (A). An iatrogenic infection is one acquired by the patient from their treating physician. This type of infection can be acquired whether the patient is in the hospital or not. For example, a patient may develop an infection after a physician performs a liver biopsy (B). An idiopathic infection is one of unknown origin or cause (C). A purulent infection is one that contains pus, a biproduct of white blood cells attacking infectious microorganisms in a wound (D).

A small glass container containing a single medication dose is called a(n) A ampule B vial C vacutainer D medicine bottle

A ampule Drugs used for parenteral administration during radiographic procedures come in two types of containers: ampules and vials. An ampule of medication is intended for a single drug administration use, whereas a vial may be used for multiple injections. An ampule is usually made of clear glass and has a conical-type top that has a scored (etched out and thinned) colored neck, which enables the radiographer to break off the top using a dry gauze pad wrapped around the neck. When inserting a needle (which must be of the filter type) to withdraw the medication, the radiographer must use caution to avoid contaminating the needle with the edges of the broken glass. The withdrawal procedure is most safely performed when one person opens the ampule, and another withdraws the medication using both free hands. After the medication is withdrawn, the needle must be removed and replaced with a non-filtered needle. This ensures that glass particles are not injected into the patient (A). A vial is a small glass or plastic container with a vacuum sealed rubber stopper at the top. These containers are intended to be used multiple times, as the rubber cap seal maintains a sterile environment within the container (B). A vacutainer is a blood collection tube used during phlebotomy. It is either a sterile glass or plastic tube container with a rubber cap stopper, which maintains a vacuum seal within the tube. Because of the container's vacuum, a predetermined amount of a blood sample may be withdrawn (C). A medicine bottle is a container for either medicine pills or liquid and may be made of either glass or plastic. It typically has a pop-off or screw-on cap and contains multiple doses of pills or liquid medicine (D).

A radiographer who tells the patient that he or she will have to repeat this uncomfortable examination if the patient does not try harder to cooperate can be accused of A assault. B battery. C false imprisonment. D defamation.

A assault Assault is the threat of touching or laying hands on someone. If a patient feels threatened by a practitioner, either because of the tone or pitch of the practitioner's voice or because the practitioner uses words that are threatening, the practitioner can be accused of assault. A radiographer who performs the wrong examination on a patient may be charged with battery. Battery refers to the unlawful laying of hands on a patient. The radiographer also could be charged with battery if a patient were moved about roughly or touched in a manner that is inappropriate or without the patient's consent. False imprisonment may be considered if a patient is ignored after stating that he or she no longer wishes to continue with the procedure or if restraining devices are used improperly or used without a physician's order. The accusation of defamation can be upheld when patient confidentiality is not respected, and as a result, the patient suffers embarrassment or mockery.

Imaging the incorrect patient qualifies as A battery B assault C false imprisonment D slander

A battery It is incredibly important for the technologist to confirm that they have the correct patient before beginning an x-ray examination. Confirmation includes checking the patient's full name, date of birth, and reason for the exam. Battery refers to contact with another individual without their consent. Therefore, performing an x-ray examination on the incorrect patient would be considered battery (A)

In her studies on death and dying, Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross described the first stage of the grieving process as A denial. B anger. C bargaining. D depression.

A denial Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross explains that loss requires gradual adjustment and involves several steps. The first is denial or isolation, where the individual often refuses to accept the thought of loss or death. The second step is anger, as the individual attempts to deal with feelings of helplessness. The next is bargaining, in which the patient behaves as though "being good" like a "good patient" will be rewarded by a miraculous cure or return of the loss. Once the individual acknowledges that this is not likely to happen, depression is the next step. This depression precedes acceptance, where the individual begins to deal with fate or loss.

A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of A invasion of privacy. B slander. C libel. D defamation.

A invasion of privacy

The legal doctrine respondeat superior relates to which of the following? A Let the master answer. B The thing speaks for itself. C A thing or matter settled by justice. D A matter settled by precedent.

A let the master answer

Which of the following radiographic procedures uses an intrathecal route of introducing a drug or contrast medium? A Myelogram B Arteriogram C Esophagram D Excretory urogram

A myelogram The administration of drugs or contrast media into the subarachnoid space using a needle is called an intrathecal injection. During myelography, a radiographic procedure performed to demonstrate the spinal cord and its peripheral nerve branches, an intrathecal injection of a water-soluble iodinated contrast medium is used to provide an artificial subject contrast to visualize these and surrounding structures (A). An arteriogram is a radiographic procedure performed with an arterial injection of a water-soluble iodinated contrast medium directly into an artery using a needle or intraarterial catheter (B). An esophagram is a radiographic procedure performed to examine the esophagus using an oral route of administration of a barium sulfate suspension or water-soluble iodinated contrast medium (C). An excretory urogram is a radiographic procedure performed to examine the internal kidney structures, ureters, and urinary bladder using an intravenous route of administration of a water-soluble iodinated contrast medium. The antecubital vein is a common injection site (D). The student radiographer must also understand that out of the selections given, all but the esophagram utilize a parenteral route of administration, which means the drug or contrast medium is administered by a route other than the alimentary tract.

Hirschsprung disease, or congenital megacolon, is related to which of the following age groups? A Neonate B Toddler C Adolescent D Adult

A neonate Hirschsprung disease, or congenital megacolon, is caused by the absence of some or all of the bowel ganglion cells—usually in the rectosigmoid area but occasionally more extensively. Hirschsprung disease is the most common cause of lower GI obstruction in neonates and is treated surgically by excision of the affected area followed by reanastomosis with normal, healthy bowel. Hirschsprung disease is diagnosed by barium enema or, in mild cases, by rectal biopsy.

A patient who is diaphoretic is experiencing A profuse sweating. B hot, dry skin. C dilated pupils. D warm, moist skin.

A profuse sweating Observation is an important part of the evaluation of acutely ill patients. The patient who is diaphoretic is experiencing profuse sweating. Diaphoresis can be associated with elevated body temperature, exposure to heat, physical exertion, or emotional stress. Hot, dry skin accompanies fever. Warm, moist skin may be a result of anxiety or simply of being in a warm room. The pupils dilate in dimly illuminated places in order to allow more light into the eyes.

An autoclave provides which method of pathogenic removal? A Surgical asepsis B Microbial dilution C Disinfection D Chemical sterilization

A surgical asepsis Autoclaves provide surgical asepsis (A) through the application of steam heat to sterilize medical equipment. Microbial dilution (B) refers to a decrease in organism concentration. Both chemical sterilization (D) and disinfection (C) refer to removing organisms using chemicals, and while both destroy the pathogens, chemical sterilization results in surgical-grade pathogen removal and the instruments/surfaces are then protected in coverings or pouches to prevent contamination.

Droplet precautions protect against all of the following EXCEPT A tuberculosis B whooping cough C bacterial meningitis D influenza

A) tuberculosis Tuberculosis is classified by airborne transmission; the distinction is that it can be transmitting by the normal breathing process

Which of the following apply to informed consent? (select the three that apply) A Patients who sign their own informed consent must be competent to do so B Parents and legal guardians can sign informed consent for minors C Consent is transferable between providers (i.e., if a patient signs consent and the provider of the procedure changes, they can still use the signed consent form) D All areas of the consent form must be filled out prior to patient and/or guardian signing E Patients cannot refuse care after signing informed consent

A, B, D Informed consent is a necessary and mandatory component of a patient's visit. All parties who sign informed consent must be competent to do so; therefore, intoxication and mental incapacities can impact eligibility to sign consent (A). Minors must have a parent or legal guardian sign consent for medical care (B). All consent forms must be completely filled out before the patient signs to avoid legal disputes (D). Consent is not transferrable between providers; all changes made to procedures require a new consent form, especially changes in providers (C). Patients have the right to refuse treatment at any point during their visit (E).

Which of the following are aspects of informed consent: (choose 3) A The provider must discuss the procedure/treatment with the patient and describe what it will entail B Alternative procedures and treatments are presented and discussed C Information on informed consent documents can be filled out after the patient has provided a signature D The patient must be informed of any risks associated with the procedure or treatment

A, B, D Informed consent is required when performing any medical treatment on a patient. Informed consent is a process that includes discussing the procedure or treatment with the patient (A), presenting alternative treatments (B), discussing risks associated with the treatment (D), and allowing the patient to consent to or refuse the treatment discussed

Which of the following should be avoided during patient transfers: (choose 3) A Jerking movements B Twisting C Tightening of the core D Use of short lever upper extremities E Bending of the lower back

A, B, E When performing a patient transfer, in order to prevent injury, smooth fluid movements should be used rather than jerking movements (A), you should always look ahead rather than twisting your body (B), and the back should always remain in neutral lordosis when lifting. Tightening of the core and using the upper extremities as short levers by maintaining close centers of gravity can also help protect the back from injury.

Positive contrast agents are associated with (select the five that apply): A iodine B negative contrast C high atomic number D radiopacity E positive contrast F air G radiolucency H barium

A, C, D, E, H

Which of the following factors may result in an increased respiratory rate: (choose 3) A Age younger than 3 years B Exercise C Decreased emotional distress D Age over 65 years E Lower altitudes

A. Age younger than 3 years B. Exercise D. Age over 65 years

A device used to restrict the free movement of a patient or a body part during the performance of a medical imaging exam is: A Classified as immobilization, is meant to be temporary, and does not require a separate physician's order. B Classified as a restraint, can remain in place after the exam is over, and does not require a physician's order. C Not recommended for use with pediatric patients. D Can be utilized in place of effective communication with the patient to reduce total exam time.

A. Classified as immobilization, is meant to be temporary, and does not require a separate physician's order. Immobilization is a utilization of positioning aids and communication techniques to reduce voluntary and involuntary motion on the part of the patient during a radiographic exposure, improving image quality and reducing the need for repeat exposures in the process. Restraints are similar devices that restrict the free movement of a patient or body part but for a different purpose; the patient is a risk to themselves or others. Patient restraints are ordered by a physician and those orders must be reevaluated every twenty-four hours. Immobilizers should be removed after the necessary projections have been completed.

According to the AHA's Patient Care Partnership, a patient considering options for treatment should be provided which 3 of the following 6 pieces of information: A The benefits and risks of each treatment. B Details regarding outcomes of other patients who have had the same treatments. C The institution's liability insurance policy. D Whether the treatment is part of a research study. E Financial obligations for utilizing an uncovered treatment option. F A record of recent medical errors at the facility that involved the treatments being considered.

A. The benefits and risks of each treatment. D. Whether the treatment is part of a research study. E. Financial obligations for utilizing an uncovered treatment option. The Patient Care Partnership (formerly Patient Bill of Rights) is a set of guidelines for healthcare institutions to concerning reasonable expectations about how patients are to be treated, what information they should have access to, and how they can make decisions about their healthcare. When a patient is considering treatment options, the physician and the institution should describe the benefits and risks of each treatment, disclose whether a treatment is experimental or part of a research study, and inform the patient of financial burdens for treatments that are not covered by the patient's health insurance. Liability coverage, other patient outcomes, and medical errors involving other patients are private business of the respective parties and would not be disclosed.

If prosecuted by the US Department of Justice, what is the criminal penalty for knowingly disclosing a patient's protected health information (PHI)? A $100,000 fine B $50,000 fine and up to 1 year imprisonment C $100,000 fine and up to 5 years imprisonment D $250.000 fine and up to 10 years imprisonment

B $50,000 fine and up to 1 year imprisonment Criminal violations of HIPAA are referred from the Department of Health and Human Services to the Department of Justice for prosecution. Individuals or covered entities can be liable for a $50,000 fine and up to 1 year of imprisonment for the criminal violation of obtaining or disclosing PHI (B). Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect as per the previous explanation.

Chemical substances that are used to kill or deactivate pathogenic bacteria are called 1. antiseptics 2. disinfectants 3. toxins A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only Antiseptics and disinfectants are used to deactivate or kill pathogenic microorganisms. Antiseptics (like alcohol) are used to stop the growth/spread of pathogenic microorganisms, especially on living tissue. Disinfectants are used especially on hard surfaces. Sterilization is another associated term; it refers to the killing of all microorganisms and their spores. A toxin is a poison.

Maslow's hierarchy of basic human needs includes which of the following? 1. Self-esteem 2. Love and belongingness 3. Death with dignity A 1 only B 1 and 2 onlv C 2 and 3 onlv (D) 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only Psychologist Abraham Maslow described a hierarchy, or pyramid, of needs with primary (physiologic) needs at the base and secondary (nonphysiologic) needs at higher levels. Maslow postulated that as the most basic survival needs are met, new needs emerge. At the bottom of the hierarchy are physiologic needs such as food, water, air, rest, and so on. One step up in the hierarchy is safety and security. Next is love and belongingness, followed by self-esteem and the esteem of others. Last is self-actualization, which is a kind of spiritual growth, satisfaction from life achievement, the feeling of leaving one's mark.

Which of the following factors can cause an increase in blood pressure: (1) Anxiety (2) Younger age (3) Exercise A 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 3 only Blood pressure increases in times of high stress and anxiety (1), during exercise (3), with certain medications, with increased age, with increased blood volume, and with artery condition. Younger patients (2), medications to treat hypertension, increased athleticism and cardiovascular health, and lower blood volume are all contributing factors to lower blood pressure.

The risk of inoculation with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is considered high for the following: 1. Broken skin 2. Shared needles 3. Coniunctiva A 1 only B 1 and 2 only c 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1, 2 The overall chance that a person will become infected with HIV is high with entry sites such as the anus, broken skin, shared needles, infected blood products, and perinatal exposure. Low-risk entry methods include oral and nasal, conjunctiva, and accidental needle stick.

The following diseases are characterized by vector mode transmission 1. Malaria 2. Measles 3. TB 4. Lyme disease 5. Mumps A 1.2.5 B 1.4 C 3,4 D 2,3,5

B 1, 4 The main routes of transmission are direct contact and indirect contact. Direct contact involves touch. Indirect contact involves transportation of infectious organisms via airborne, droplet, vector, fomite, and vehicle. An example of a vector is an infected insect (for example, mosquito) whose bite can carry disease. Examples of diseases caused by vector transmission include malaria, lime disease, and bubonic plague. Measles and tuberculosis have airborne modes of transmission. Mumps is characterized by droplet transmission.

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously include all the following except 1. a warm, flushed feeling. 2. altered taste. 3. a few hives. A 1only B 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 3 only Nonionic, low-osmolality iodinated contrast agents are associated with far fewer side effects and reactions than ionic, higher osmolality contrast agents. A side effect is an effect that is on unintended tissues, but possibly expected, and fundamentally not harmful. An adverse reaction is a harmful unintended effect. Possible side effects of iodinated contrast agents include a warm, flushed feeling, a metallic taste in the mouth, nausea, headache, and pain at the injection site. Adverse reactions include itching, anxiety, rash or hives, vomiting, sneezing, dyspnea, and hypotension.

The frequency of cardiac ventricular contractions is reported in which value: A BPH B BPM C BPS D BPI

B BPM The frequency of cardiac ventricular contractions, or heart rate, is reported in beats per minute. Beats per minute is often abbreviated to beats/min or BPM. Normal resting heart ranges in adults are between 60-100 BPM. Variations can occur due to physical fitness levels, heart conditions, and age.

_____ is a mild allergic reaction______ is considered a moderate allergic reaction symptom A warmth; flushing B nausea; urticaria C bronchospasm; dysphagia D bronchial edema; metallic taste

B nausea; urticaria Allergic reaction symptoms can range from mild to severe. Mild reactions include nausea (B), metallic taste (D), warmth (A), flushing (A), and coughing. Moderate symptoms include urticaria (B), erythema, and bronchospasm (C). Vasovagal response symptoms are diaphoresis, bradycardia, and hypotension, while a severe reaction, also referred to as anaphylaxis, includes dysphagia (C), laryngeal and bronchial edema (D), cardiac arrest, seizures, and even death if not treated immediately.

When caring for the elderly, it is important to remember that, as one ages, there is often a decrease in: 1. reaction time 2 strength 3. long-term memory A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only Aging is a broad concept that certainly includes physical change, but is a very individual and variable process. The major complaints of the elderly include weight gain, fatigue, decreased bone mass, joint stiffness, and loneliness. As we observe elderly patients we must be mindful that they might experience some decrease in balance, coordination, strength, and reaction time. A decrease in short-term memory can be demonstrated in the elderly, while they still retain remarkable long-term memory.

Patients' rights include which of the following? 1. The right to refuse treatment 2. The right to confidentiality 3. The right to possess his or her radiographs A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only The American Hospital Association identifies 12 important areas in its Patient Care Partnership (formerly Patient Bill of Rights). These include the right to refuse treatment (to the extent allowed by law), the right to confidentiality of records and communication, and the right to continuing care. Other patient rights identified are the right to informed consent, privacy, respectful care, access to and/or copies of their records (not ownership), refuse to participate in research projects, and an explanation of the hospital bill.

Pulse is commonly measured at: (1) Radial artery (2) Carotid artery (3) Mandibular artery A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only The most common locations to measure pulse are the following arteries: radial, carotid, brachial, temporal, popliteal, dorsal pedal, femoral, and posterior tibial. The radial artery (A) is located on the anterior side of the wrist just medial to the stylus process of the radius. The carotid artery (2) is located below the mandiublar angle and is not referred to as the mandibular artery (3).

Before bringing each patient into the radiographic room throughout the day, the radiographer should 1. clean the x-ray table and change the pillowcase. 2. assemble the accessories needed for the examination. 3. warm the x-ray tube anode. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1. 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only The patient naturally will feel more comfortable and confident if brought into a clean, orderly, x-ray room that has been prepared appropriately for the examination to be performed. A disorderly, untidy room and a disorganized radiographer hardly inspire confidence; more likely, they will increase anxiety and apprehensiveness. The x-ray tube's anode only needs to be warmed when it is cold, at the beginning of the day, not before every patient.

With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently helpful to 1 elevate the head slightly with a pillow. 2. perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position. 3. place a support under the knees. A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1,2, and 3

B. 1 and 3 only Strain on the abdominal muscles may be minimized by placing a pillow under the patient's head and a support under the patient's knees. The pillow also relieves neck strain, reduces the chance of aspiration in the nauseated patient, and allows the patient to observe his or her surroundings. The Trendelenburg position causes the diaphragm to assume a higher position and can cause a patient to become short of breath.

the blood pressure reading 140/75 mmHg, what does 140 represent? 1. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue 2. The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue 3. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only The normal blood pressure range for men and women is a 90 to 120 mmHg systolic reading (left number) and a 60 to 80 mmHg diastolic reading (right number). Systolic pressure is the contraction phase of the left ventricle, and diastolic pressure is the relaxation phase in the heart cycle.

Unlawful touching of a person without his or her consent is termed A assault B battery C false imprisonment D invasion of privacy

B. Battery Battery refers to the unlawful laying of hands on a patient. Battery could be charged if a patient were moved about roughly or touched in a manner that is inappropriate or without the patient's consent. Assault is the threat of touching or laying hands on. If a patient feels threatened by a health care provider either because of the provider's tone or pitch of voice or because of words that are threatening, an assault charge may be made. False imprisonment may be considered if a patient states that he or she no longer wishes to continue with a procedure and is ignored or if restraining devices are used improperly or used without a physician's order. Invasion-of-privacy issues arise when there has been a disclosure of confidential information

Which of the following could be a side effect from antiarrhythmic medications? A Tachycardia B Bradycardia C Diarrhea D Constipation

B. Bradycardia Antiarrhythmic medications aim to relieve cardiac dysrhythmia/arrhythmia. Side effects include bradycardia and congestive heart failure (B). Tachycardia, diarrhea, and constipation are not common side effects for these types of medications (A, C, and D).

Which corrective action should be taken when receiving a requisition for a right knee study when the patient is complaining of pain in the mid tibial shaft? A Take the x-ray examination ordered; the referring physician knows what they are looking for B Contact the referring physician to clarify the order C Take the exam of the body part the patient is complaining about, then call the referring physician to amend the order D Send the patient home and tell them to return with a clarified order

B. Contact the referring physician to clarify the order As technologists it is important to have efficient questioning skills. This can help determine whether or not the orders we are following are correct. In this situation, it is important to contact the ordering physician to clarify the order before performing an examination (B). If at that point you are unable to get in touch with the ordering physician, it is in the best interest of all involved parties to postpone the exam until clarification is provided. The other answer choices are incorrect as per the previous explanation

Which of the following medications would most likely be prescribed for a patient suffering from congestive heart failure or hypertension? A Cathartic B Diuretic C Antihistamine D Anticholinergic

B. Diuretic A diuretic medication increases the amount of urine excreted by the kidneys, thus reducing blood volume. This reduces strain on the heart and peripheral arteries in cases of congestive heart failure and high blood pressure, respectively (B). A cathartic medication causes the bowel to be purged during patient preparation for gastrointestinal and urinary tract procedures, or to relieve constipation (A). An antihistamine medication such as diphenhydramine, or Benadryl, inhibits release of histamine in a patient suffering from an allergic reaction to a water-soluble iodinated contrast agent (C). An anticholinergic medication such as atropine increases heart rate, which increases blood pressure (D).

Which of the following can impede verbal communication effectiveness: (choose 3) A Decreased distance between the sender and receiver B Excessive background noise C Cultural differences D Increased eye contact E Increased message complexity

B. Excessive background noise C. Cultural differences E. Increased message complexity Many factors can hinder the effectiveness of verbal communication. Ideally, the distance between the sender and receiver of the information should be minimal (A); this will help reduce the impact of background noise (B). Cultural differences (C) can also cause interruptions in verbal communication. Idiomatic expressions are not universal, and certain phrases or terms can be interpreted as disrespectful depending on the receiver's cultural background. Non-verbal cues can also contribute to the effectiveness of verbal communication, such as eye contact. Decreased eye contact (D) can muddle the message and its meaning, while increased eye contact can demonstrate effectiveness and care. Lastly, the best communication style for patients to understand is clear and concise. Increased message complexity (E) increases the odds that the information can be misconstrued.

The moral principle of preventing harm to a patient is called A negligence B nonmaleficence C veracity D fidelity

B. Nonmaleficence Nonmaleficence means doing no harm and is a moral and ethical responsibility of the radiographer. The radiographer must never perform or allow acts that may harm a patient (B). Negligence is a failure of the radiographer to use such care as a reasonably prudent radiographer would use under like or similar circumstances (A). Veracity refers to telling the truth, another moral and ethical responsibility of the radiographer in the performance of their duties (C). Fidelity refers to being faithful, also a moral and ethical responsibility of the radiographer, in performing acts that observe covenants or promises to deliver the best care for their patients (D)

The moral principle that describes the radiographer's aspiration to do no harm or to allow no act that might cause harm to the patient is termed A beneficence. B nonmaleficence. C autonomy. D veracity.

B. Nonmaleficence There are many medicolegal terms with which the radiographer should be familiar. Beneficence refers to decisions and actions made to bring about good, ie, to benefit the patient. Nonmaleficence refers to the prevention of harm to the patient. Autonomy refers to the right of every individual to act with personal self-reliance. Veracity refers to telling the truth

Which nonverbal communication term refers to "the demonstration of a movement or gesture": A Touch B Pantomime C Posture D Appearance

B. Pantomime When working with a patient who has a language or communication barrier, nonverbal communication can often be the best route to obtain the desired movements necessary in the medical field. Pantomime (B) refers to the demonstration of a movement or gesture; for example, showing the patient how to position themselves for a lateral chest x-ray by positioning yourself for one first. Touch (A) is contact with the patient used to palpate for landmarks, for positioning, or to help the patient with transfers. Posture (C) is how we hold our bodies; rigid or loose shoulders, erect spine or slouching. Appearance (D) is conveyed through cleanliness, grooming, clothing choices. Both posture and appearance are crucial nonverbal cues that can demonstrate our personalities and demeanor to others.

Some patients, such as infants and children, are unable to maintain the necessary radiographic position without assistance. If mechanical restraining devices cannot be used, which of the following should be requested or permitted to hold the patient? A Transporter B Patient's father C Patient's mother D Student radiographer

B. Patient's father If mechanical restraint is impossible, a relative or friend accompanying the patient should be requested to hold the patient in position. A male parent or friend should be the first choice so as to avoid the possibility of subjecting a newly fertilized ovum to even scattered radiation. A non-pregnant female parent or friend should be second choice; male/non-pregnant hospital personnel (non-radiology) may be asked for help. Protective apparel, such as lead apron and gloves, must be provided to the person(s) holding the patient. Radiology personnel should not assist in holding patients, and the individual assisting must never be in the path of the primary beam.

An Advanced Health Care Directive, or living will, is in effect when: A One physician has verified that the patient cannot make medical decisions on their own B The patient's condition complies with the state's living will law C Physical conditions have improved but were previously such that the patient could not make health care decisions D The patient is of sound mind but refuses treatment

B. The patient's condition complies with the state's living will law An Advanced health Care Directive, or living will, is a legal document outlining a patient's treatment preferences that would go into effect when they can no longer make health care decisions on their own. Living wills can be specific or general and therefore have specific requirements for them to be put into effect. A patient's condition must comply with the state's particular living will law (B). Two physicians must verify that the patient is unable to make their own health care decisions (A), and if their condition improves and allows them to regain the ability to do so the living will would no longer be in effect (C). A living will is not implemented if a patient simply refuses treatment but is otherwise of sound mind (D).

The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following? A Let the master answer. B The thing speaks for itself. C A thing or matter settled by justice. D A matter settled by precedent.

B. The thing speaks for itself The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur relates to a thing or matter that speaks for itself. For instance, if a patient went into the hospital to have a kidney stone removed and ended up with an appendectomy, that speaks for itself, and negligence can be proven. Respondeat superior is the phrase meaning "let the master answer" or "the one ruling is responsible." If a radiographer were negligent, there may be an attempt to prove that the radiologist was responsible, because the radiologist oversees the radiographer. Res judicata means a thing or matter settled by justice. Stare decisis refers to a matter settled by precedent.

Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as A battery B slander C libel D assault

B. slander A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of invasion of privacy. If the disclosure is in some way detrimental or otherwise harmful to the patient, the radiographer may be accused of defamation. Spoken defamation is slander; written defamation is libel. Assault is to threaten harm; battery is to carry out the threat.

For medicolegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include all the following information except A the patient's name and/or identification number. B the patient's birth date. C a right- or left-side marker. D the date of the examination.

B. the patient's birth date. Every radiographic image must include (1) the patient's name or ID number, (2) the side marker, right or left; (3) the date of the examination; and (4) the identity of the institution or office. Additional information may be included: the patient's birth date or age, name of the attending physician, and the time of day. When multiple examinations (e.g., chest examinations or small bowel images) of a patient are made on the same day, it becomes crucial that the time the radiographs were taken be included on the image. This allows the physician to track the patient's progress.

When interviewing a patient, what is it that the health care professional can observe? A Symptoms B History C Objective signs D Chief complaint

C

A patient suffering from hematuria A is vomiting blood B has excessive waste urea in the bloodstream C tests positive for blood in their urine D exhibits urine output that is visibly clear

C tests positive for blood in their urine

A diabetic patient who has taken insulin while preparing for a fasting radiologic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1. fatique 2. cyanosis 3. restlessness A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 1 and 3 only The diabetic patient who has taken their insulin, but not eaten food, can develop hypoglycemia/low blood sugar. Hypoglycemic reactions can be very severe and should be treated with an immediate dose of sugar in the form of juice or candy. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include fatigue, restlessness, irritability, and weakness. Diabetic patients who have taken their insulin prior to a fasting examination should be given priority, and their examinations should be expedited as quickly as possible.

When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to 1. move them quickly to expedite the exam. 2. address them by their full name. 3. give straightforward instructions. A) 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1,2, and 3

C 2 and 3 only Elderly patients (actually, most people) dislike being rushed or hurried along. They appreciate the radiographer who is caring and respectful enough to take the extra few moments necessary to progress at a slower speed. Some elderly patients are easily confused, and it is best to address them by their full name and keep instructions simple and direct. The elderly require the same respectful, dignified care as all other patients.

The ART Rules of Ethics are 1. aspirational. 2. mandatory. 3. minimally acceptable standards. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 2 and 3 only The ARRT Standards of Ethics is a three-part document. Following the Preamble, it consists of the Code of Ethics, the Rules of Ethics, and Administrative Procedures. The Code of Ethics serves as a guide that imaging professionals use to direct their conduct and growth—it addresses humanistic behavior, delivery of care without bias, good judgment, minimizing exposure to ionizing radiation, assuming responsibility, not attempting to diagnose or interpret, etc. The Code of Ethics is aspirational. The Rules of Ethics are minimally acceptable mandatory and enforceable standards required of all imaging professionals to ensure quality patient care. Violation of the Code of Ethics renders the individual subject to sanction. The Rules of Ethics cover issues such as fraud/deceit regarding individual ARRT certification; subversion/attempt to the subvert the certification examination process; conviction of a crime; failure to report charges concerning the individual's permit, license, or certification; engaging in unethical conduct; etc. There are 20 Rules of Ethics with which the imaging professional should be familiar.

What is the first treatment, following needle removal, for extravasation of contrast media during an IV injection? A Apply a hot compress. B Apply a cold compress. C Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops. D Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.

C Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops. Extravasation of contrast media into surrounding tissue is potentially very painful. If it does occur, the needle should be removed and the extravasation cared for immediately (before looking for another vein). First, pressure should be applied to the vein until bleeding has stopped. Application of cold pack to the affected area helps to relieve pain and to constrict local blood vessels.

A patient undergoing a routine radiographic exam of the shoulder has a few questions for the technologist post exam. The patient's orthopedic surgeon has scheduled them for a contrast MR study of the shoulder joint, post arthrogram. The patient is nervous about the MR procedure and wants to know what it's like, having never had one before. The technologist should do which of the following? A Tell the patient about their cousin who suffers from claustrophobia and how her MR exam was a nightmare B Explain how the MR scanner will use high frequency sound waves and capture the echo created by the tissues of the shoulder to create an image C Explain that while there is a strong magnetic field in the MR exam, the staff carefully screens patients as part of a strict safety protocol and that the most troubling part is typically the noise, as the machine makes a jackhammer sound during imaging D Explain that the patient will be injected with a small dose of radioactive isotope and gamma emissions will be captured by a scintillator and an array of photomultiplier tubes

C Explain that while there is a strong magnetic field in the MR exam, the staff carefully screens patients as part of a strict safety protocol and that the most troubling part is typically the noise, as the machine makes a jackhammer sound during imaging Even a novice technologist should be able to give some information and insight about examinations in other modalities. A rudimentary knowledge of other imaging technologies is necessary in order to ensure that you do not mislead a patient with less than accurate information. Equally important is a technologist's ability to use common language and avoid technical jargon while giving these explanations. MR imaging technology utilizes strong magnetic fields, which may be dangerous if safety protocols are not followed, and a radio wave transmitter/receiver. During imaging, the radio transmitter makes a high-speed repetitive thumping sound, similar to the sound of a jackhammer, a device used in construction and demolition (C).

Radiographs are the property of the A radiologist. B patient. C healthcare institution. D referring physician.

C healthcare institution. Radiographs are the property of the health-care institution and are a part of every patient's permanent medical record. They are often retained on file for about 7 years or, in the case of pediatric patients, until the patient reaches maturity. They are not the personal property of either the radiologist or the referring physician. If a patient changes doctors or needs a second opinion, copies can be requested. The patient may also borrow the originals, which must be returned, or he or she may pay for copies

Nitroglycerin resulting in blood vessels, blood flow. A relaxes; decreased B constricts: decreased C relaxes; increased D constricts; increased

C relaxes; increased Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can be used to increase blood flow to heart muscle. To increase blood flow, vasodilators act by relaxing the walls of the blood vessels, which increases the amount of blood that can be transported to necessary tissues. A constriction of blood vessels that would decrease blood flow would be caused by vasoconstrictors, such as epinephrine.

A radiographer has recently joined your staff. You are aware that this individual has had her ART certification revoked. Realizing that your state requires certification, you speak to a supervisor about the matter. Your supervisor replies that he knows but made an exception "because we are so short staffed." You should A report this to the next supervisor in charge. B report this to the facility administrator. C report this directly to the ARRT. D do and/or say nothing.

C report this directly to the ARRT. The ARRT Rules of Ethics are mandatory minimum professional standards for all RTs and candidate RTs. Violators, and individuals who permit violation, of these Rules are subject to sanctions. Rules of Ethics numbers 15 and 21 specifically refer to those who knowingly assist another without proper certification to engage in the practice of radiologic technology, and/or those who fail to promptly report such activity to the ARRT—as being subject to sanction.

All the following are part of the Patient Care Partnership except A the right to refuse treatment. B the right to review one's records. C the right to order an x-ray procedure. D the right to have an advance directive.

C the right to order an x-ray procedure.

A consent form, signed by the patient and the physician, is necessary prior to performing all of the following procedures EXCEPT A myelogram B cardiac catheterization C upper Gl series D interventional vascular procedure

C upper Gl series Informed consent is a legal standard for all procedures that are classified as invasive. An invasive procedure is defined as any procedure in which the patient's skin is pierced with a needle or blade. All invasive procedures carry additional risk—at a minimum, the risk of infection. Informed consent must precede these procedures, and must contain the following elements, conducted by the performing physician: • An explanation of the procedure and the risks associated with the procedure • Information regarding alternative methods/ exams that are available to the patient • An opportunity for the patient to ask questions and potentially refuse the procedure Myelograms, interventional vascular procedures, and cardiac catheterizations all involve piercing the patient's skin with a needle, and thus require informed consent (A, B, and D). The UGI only involves the patient drinking barium contrast, typically, and does not require a documented consultation before beginning (C). General consent, for all non-invasive procedures, is given when the patient is registered and signs a "permission to treat" document. The right to refuse care is absolute regardless of circumstance, and the patient may revoke consent, both general and informed, at any time.

A signed consent form is necessary prior to performing all the following procedures except A myelogram. B cardiac catheterization. C upper Gl series. D) interventional vascular procedure.

C upper Gl series.

From the following protocols for infection prevention, which apply to airborne precautions? 1. Have the patient wear a surgical mask 2. Personnel must wear an N95 filtered mask 3. Personnel must wear gowns for all interactions with infected patients A 1 only B 3 only C 1 and 2 only D 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only With airborne precautions, protection must be in place to prevent organisms suspended in the air from reaching nasal and oral cavities. In order to reduce the spread of airborne diseases, the patient should wear a surgical mask (1) as much as possible to stop particles from entering the air around them (A). Personnel should then wear an N95 filtered mask (2) to prevent any particles from entering their airway (C). Gowns do not need to be worn (3) for airborne precautions alone; however, care should be taken to ensure that the contagious pathogen is not both air and contact precautions (B and D)

A site where an infectious organism can remain viable and from which transmission can occur is called 1. a reservoir 2. an autoclave 3. a carrier A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only A reservoir is a site where an infectious organism can survive and from which infectious transmission may occur. A carrier is a person who serves as a reservoir, and who does not display the disease symptoms, but who can transmit the infectious organism to others (C). An autoclave is a device used in central sterile departments to sterilize surgical instruments. This device uses hot steam under pressure to kill vegetative cells and endospores (B and D).

Which of the following statements would be true regarding tracheostomy patients? 1. Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking. 2. A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy tubing to be rotated out of view. 3. Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D) 1,2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only The tracheostomy patient will have difficulty speaking as a result of redirection of the air past the vocal cords. Gurgling or rattling sounds coming from the trachea indicate an excess accumulation of secretions, requiring suction with sterile catheters. Any rotation or movement of the tracheostomy tube may cause the tube to become dislodged, and an obstructed airway could result.

Honor Code violations that can prevent a radiography student from meeting ARRT certification requirements include 1. failing one or more courses in the radiography program 2. being suspended from the radiography program 3. being dismissed/expelled from a radiography program A 1 only B) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only The word honor implies regard for the standards of one's profession, a refusal to lie/deceive, an uprightness of character or action, a trustworthiness and incorruptibility. Other words used to describe these qualities are honesty, integrity, and probity. These are qualities required of students and health care professionals. This honor/integrity can only be achieved in an environment where intellectual honesty and personal integrity are highly valued—and where the responsibility for communicating and maintaining these standards is widely shared. The ARRT publishes an important document regarding Honor Code violations. In order to meet ARRT certification requirements, candidates for the ARRT exam must answer the question: "Have you ever been suspended, dismissed, or expelled from an educational program that you have attended?" ... in addition to reading and signing the "Written Consent under FERPA," allowing the ARRT to obtain specific parts of their educational records concerning violations to an honor code if the student has ever been suspended, dismissed, or expelled from an educational program attended. If the applicant answers "yes" to that question he or she must include an explanation and documentation of the situation with the completed application for certification. If the applicant has any doubts, he or she should contact the ARRT Ethics Requirements Department at (651) 687-0048, ext. 8580.

Early symptoms of anaphylaxis include all EXCEPT which of the following? A Itching of palms and soles B Dysphagia C Cool skin D Tingling

C. Cool skin

The mode of pathogenic transmission associated with sneezing and coughing is: A Vector B Fomite C Droplet D Direct contact

C. Droplet The spread of infectious microbes by coughing or sneezing is considered droplet transmission. Vectors are vermin and insects that carry pathogens, fomites are inanimate objects, like doorknobs and x-ray markers. Direct contact is when a caregiver touches a patient's skin, body fluids, or secretions in transmission of the pathogenic agent.

Which of the following situations would be considered an act of health care fraud? A Sharing information about a patient's condition with an individual not involved in the patient's care B Performing a radiographic procedure without the patient's permission C Erasing a CR image plate to cover up a mistake of performing an x-ray procedure on the wrong body part D Restraining a patient against their will

C. Erasing a CR image plate to cover up a mistake of performing an x-ray procedure on the wrong body part Willful and intentional misrepresentation of facts constitutes health care fraud. For example, erasing a CR image plate to cover up a mistake of performing an x-ray procedure on the wrong body part would be a fraudulent act (C). Sharing information about a patient's condition with an individual not involved in the patient's care describes a violation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) as it relates to privacy of records (A). Performing a radiographic procedure without the patient's permission is considered battery (B). Restraining a patient against their will describes false imprisonment (D).

Which of the following is not a sign of extravasation? A Site redness B Pain C Hives around the injection site D Cooling of the skin surrounding the fluid

C. Hives around the injection site Extravasation occurs when a contrast agent or medication is injected or leaks into the surrounding soft tissue rather than the vessel. Symptoms include redness of surrounding tissue (A), pain (B), edema, cooling of the surrounding skin (D), and lack of blood flow to the area. Hives are an allergic reaction to the injection and are not typical of extravasation (C).

Select the 3 correct completions. To reduce the back strain that can result from moving heavy objects, the radiographer should A. Hold the object away from his/her body B. Bend at the waist to lift C. Lift with bent knees and straight back D. Push or roll a heavy object E Provide a broad base of support

C. Lift with bent knees and straight back D. Push or roll a heavy object E. Provide a broad base of support

Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in A sonography B computed tomography (CT) C magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D nuclear medicine

C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for MRI. MRI does not use radiation to produce images but instead uses a very strong magnetic field. All patients must be screened prior to entering the magnetic field to be sure that they do not have any metal on or within them. Proper screening includes questioning the patient about any eye injury involving metal, cardiac pacemakers, aneurysm clips, insulin pumps, heart valves, shrapnel, or any metal in the body. This is extremely important, and if there is any doubt, the patient should be rescheduled for a time after it has been determined that it is safe for him or her to enter the room. Patients who have done metalwork or welding are frequently sent to diagnostic radiology for screening images of the orbits to ensure that there are no metal fragments near the optic nerve. Any external metallic objects, such as bobby pins, hair clips, or coins in the pocket, must be removed, or they will be pulled by the magnet and can cause harm to the patient. Credit cards and any other plastic cards with a magnetic strip will be wiped clean if they come in contact with the magnetic field.

Which of the following patient identifiers is not considered protected information: A Address B Date of Birth C Medical Record Number D Social Security Number

C. Medical record number The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act outlines rules to protect health care information. Common identifiers are considered protected information and cannot be included in email or text correspondence and cannot be given to those who are not directly involved in the patient's care. The patient's name, address (A), date of birth (B), and social security number (D) are all considered protected identifiers. The medical record number (C), however, is location-specific and does not link directly to the patient if it is on its own. Therefore, the medical record number is not considered protected information and can be included in digital correspondence.

The condition of low neutrophils is termed: A Neutrogenic B Neutropathic C Neutropenic D Neutroemic

C. Neutropenic Neutropenic (C) is defined as having low neutrophils, a type of white blood cell that has key functions in immunity. The suffix -penia refers to lack of or deficiency. Neutropenic patients require safety precautions to prevent them from contracting infections. This condition is often seen in patients undergoing treatment for certain forms of cancer

Hand gestures, pantomime, and facial expressions are all forms of which type of communication: A Verbal B Audible C Nonverbal D Attentive listening

C. Nonverbal When working with patients, both verbal and nonverbal skills can come together to create effective communication. Examples of nonverbal communication include hand gestures (A), pantomime (B), facial expressions (C), appearance/cleanliness of the caregiver, body positions and movements, posture, and touch. Examples of verbal communication include tone of voice, use of idiomatic expressions, speed of speaking, and volume of speech. Attentive listening (D) is a nonverbal skill that is used when receiving verbal communication.

The term "health care proxy" is synonymous with: A Living will B DNR C Power of Attorney D AHA

C. Power of attorney The term "health care proxy" refers to an individual chosen by the patient to carry out medical decisions for them when they are physically unable to make decisions on their own. The health care proxy can also be referred to as a power of attorney (C), and can refuse or request treatment on behalf of the patient. Both the living will (A) and DNR, or "do not resuscitate" (B) are legal documents known as advance health care directives. These documents provide instructions on treatment requests or refusals when patients can no longer actively participate in their own healthcare decisions (such as in a state of unconsciousness). The AHA (D), or American Hospital Association, is a nationally recognized organization aimed at serving hospital and healthcare networks.

Which ethical principle is related to sincerity and truthfulness? A Beneficence B Autonomy C) Veracity D Fidelity

C. Veracity Veracity (i.e., sincerity) is not only telling the truth but also not practicing deception. Autonomy is the ethical principle that is related to the theory that patients have the right to decide what will or will not be done to them. Beneficence is related to the idea of doing good and being kind. Fidelity is faithfulness and loyalty.

Contrast agents that can be used during excretory urography include all of the following except A omnipaque B isovue c barium sulfate D visipaque

C. barium sulfate The answer is C. For excretory urography exams, contrast agents that are water-soluble must be utilized. The contrast agent needs to incorporate with blood to visualize the kidneys. Water-soluble contrast is typically iodine-based, and includes omnipaque (A), isovue (B), and visipaque (D). Barium sulfate

Each of the following statements regarding respiratory structures is true except A the left lung has two lobes B the lower portion of the lung is the base C each lung is enclosed in peritoneum D the main stem bronchus enters the lung hilum

C. each lung is enclosed in peritoneum

The ethical principle that aspires never to, above all, do harm describes A fidelity. B veracity. C nonmalficence. D beneficence.

C. nonmalficence Fidelity, veracity, nonmalficence, and beneficence are all ethical principles. Nonmalficence is the principle that refers to the prevention of harm. Beneficence is the ethical principle that refers to bringing about good or benefiting others. Fidelity refers to faithfulness, and veracity refers to truthfulness.

According to the CDC, all the following precaution guidelines are true except A airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask B gowns are indicated when caring for patients on MRSA precautions. C patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room. D gloves are indicated when caring for a patient on droplet precautions.

C. patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room. Category-specific isolations have been replaced by transmission-based precautions: airborne, droplet, and contact. Under these guidelines, some conditions or diseases can fall into more than one category. Airborne precautions are employed with patients suspected or known to be infected with tubercle bacillus (TB), chickenpox (varicella), or measles (rubeola). Airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask to avoid the spread of bronchial secretions or other pathogens during coughing. If the patient is unable or unwilling to wear a mask, the radiographer must wear one. The radiographer should wear gloves, but a gown is required only if flagrant contamination is likely. Patients under airborne precautions require a private, specially ventilated (negative-pressure) room. A private room is also indicated for all patients on droplet precautions, that is, with diseases transmitted via large droplets expelled from the patient while speaking, sneezing, or coughing. The pathogenic droplets can infect others when they come in contact with mouth or nasal mucosa or conjunctiva. Rubella ("German measles"), mumps, and influenza are among the diseases spread by droplet contact; a private room is required for the patient, and health care practitioners should use gowns and gloves. Any diseases spread by direct or close contact, such as methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), conjunctivitis, and hepatitis A, require contact precautions. Contact precautions require a private patient room and the use of gloves and gowns for anyone coming in direct contact with the infected individual or his or her environment.

The medical abbreviation meaning "every hour" is A tid. B qid C qh. D pc.

C. qh The abbreviation for every hour is qh. The abbreviation tid means three times a day, and qid means four times a day. After meals is abbreviated pc.

When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that A the patient appears to have a productive cough. B the patient has a blood pressure of 130/95 mm Hg. C the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position. D the patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast.

C. the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position. Obtaining a complete and accurate history from the patient for the radiologist is an important aspect of a radiographer's job. Both subjective and objective data should be collected. Objective data include signs and symptoms that can be observed, such as a cough, a lump, or elevated blood pressure. Subjective data relate to what the patient feels and to what extent. A patient may experience pain, but is it mild or severe? Is it localized or general? Does the pain increase or decrease under different circumstances? A radiographer should explore this with the patient and document the information on the requisition for the radiologist.

The medical term for hives is A vertigo. B epistaxis. C urticaria. D) aura.

C. urticaria Urticaria is a vascular reaction resulting in dilated capillaries and edema and causing the patient to break out in hives. The medical term for nosebleed is epistaxis. Vertigo refers to a feeling of "whirling" or a sensation that the room is spinning. Some possible causes of vertigo include inner ear infection and acoustic neuroma. An aura may be classified as either a feeling or a sensory response (such as flashing lights, tasting metal, or smelling coffee) that precedes an episode such as a seizure or a migraine headache.

Which of the following is a concept of proper body ergonomics: A Reducing the base of support by bringing your feet closer together creates a more stable foundation when lifting objects over your head B Increasing distance between your center of gravity and the center of gravity for the object you are moving will increase the leverage needed to perform the action C Pulling objects is easier on the joints and expends less energy than pushing an object D Decreased the distance between yourself and

D Two concepts of body mechanics/ergonomics are necessary before moving, lifting, or carrying objects: widen the base of support (A) and bring your center of gravity close to the objects center of gravity (B, D). Increasing the base of support by widening your stance helps to increase balance and utilize your core for stability. Pushing an object will be easier and expend less energy than pulling an object (C) because it allows you to engage your core and put your weight behind an object for movement, such as with the c-arm and c-arm tower. It is also safer to push an object so that you can see what is ahead, rather than twisting your body to see what is behind you during movement.

A technologist encountering a patient that experiences vertigo should: A Administer oxygen at a rate of at least 3 liters/minute. B Begin CPR. C Bring the patient a cold compress to place against their forehead. D Guide the patient to a sitting or recumbent position.

D Vertigo is dizziness and is often a precursor to syncope. A patient who experiences vertigo should be guided to a sit or lie down, which avoids injury from falling. Oxygen requires a physician's order and may be an appropriate follow-up step. Cold compresses effectively neutralize nausea. CPR should only be administered if the patient is unresponsive and does not exhibit a pulse or respirations.

Which of the following must be included in a patient's medical record or chart? 1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2. Medical history 3. Informed consent A 1 and 2 onlv B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, 3 The Joint Commission [formerly the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Health-care Organizations (JCAHO)] is the organization that accredits health care organizations in the United States. The Joint Commission sets forth certain standards for medical records. In keeping with these standards, all diagnostic and therapeutic orders must appear in the patient's medical record or chart. In addition, patient identification information, medical history, consent forms, and any diagnostic and therapeutic reports should be part of the patient's permanent record. The patient's chart is a means of communication between various health care providers

Which of the following medical devices and/or implants are visible on radiographic images? 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) 2. Inner ear prosthesis 3. Aneurysm clips A 2 only B 3 only C 1 and 3 onlv D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3 Image production is reliant on differential absorption of x-ray particles; therefore, any items that contain metal are visible on radiographs and fluoroscopic images. For surgical and medical implants, such as intrauterine devices (1), certain inner ear prostheses (2), aneurysm clips (3), and orthopedic replacements, removal is not possible and exam pre-screening can indicate when these are present (D). Unfortunately, some devices and implants will obstruct necessary anatomy, such as with pacemakers and shoulder imaging; however, nothing can be done to avoid these situations. The other answer choices are incorrect as per the previous explanation

The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the 1. advance health care directive. 2. living will. 3. health care proxy. A 1 only B 1 and 2 onlv c) 2 and 3 only D 1,2, and 3

D 1,2, and 3 The patient's rights can be exercised on the patient's behalf by a designated surrogate or proxy decision maker if the patient lacks decision-making capacity, is legally incompetent, or is a minor. Many people believe that potential legal and ethical issues can be avoided by creating an advance health care directive or living will. Since all persons have the right to make decisions regarding their own health care, this legal document preserves that right in the event an individual is unable to make those decisions. An advance health care directive, or living will, names the health care proxy authorized to make all health care decisions and can include specifics regarding DNR (Do not resuscitate), DNI (Do not intubate), and/or other end-of-life decisions.

For a patient who has just had a fluoroscopic barium enema, which post-examination instructions should be given: 1) Drink plenty of fluids 2) Eat a high fiber diet 3) Limit caffeine A 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 onlv D 1. 2. and 3

D 1. 2. and 3 When recovering from a barium enema, it is important to notify the patient that barium is a drying substance and requires fluid and fiber to help flush it out of the digestive tract. The patient should be instructed to drink plenty of fluids over the next several days (1), however it is important to note that caffeine should be avoided (3). Caffeine is a diuretic and will cause rapid expelling of fluids before they can help flush out the barium. Eating foods high in fiber can also help increase motility (2). Some patients are prescribed a laxative by their physician to help with this process as well.

Which of the following diastolic pressure readings can indicate hypertension? A 40 mm Ha B 60 mm Hq C 80 mm Hg D 100 mm Hg

D 100 mm Hg The diastolic number is the bottom (right) number in a blood pressure reading. The normal range for diastolic pressure is considered to be 50 to 70 mm Hg. A diastolic pressure reading of 80 can be considered pre-hypertension and a reading of 110 mmHg can indicate hypertension. A diastolic pressure of 40 mm Hg might indicate shock. The systolic number is the top (left) number in a blood pressure reading. The normal systolic pressure range is 90 to 120 mm Hg.

In what order should the following contrast examinations be performed on the same patient? 1. Upper Gl series 2. IVU 3. BE A 3,1.2 B 1,3,2 C 2,1.3 D 2.3,1

D 2, 3, 1 When scheduling more than one contrast examination on the same patient, it is important to avoid the possibility of residual contrast medium covering areas that will be of interest on later examinations. The IVU [also referred to as an intravenous pyelogram (IVP)] should be scheduled first because the contrast medium used is excreted rapidly. The BE should be scheduled next. Finally, the upper GI series is scheduled. There should not be enough barium remaining from the previous BE to interfere with the examination of the stomach or duodenum, although a preliminary scout image should be taken in each case.

You are about to perform an arthrogram on a non-English speaking patient. Which of the following communication techniques is likely to be most effective at bridging the language barrier as you give the patient instructions and a brief description of the exam? A Use common English rather than medical jargon to describe the procedure, stopping frequently to confirm that the patient understands. B Look up a translation of your explanation on a web-based translation software. Do your best to read the passage to the patient. C Invite the patient's daughter, who happens to speak both languages, into the exam, to translate your instructions. D Call the recommended telephone translator on the designated phone, supplied by the hospital for scenarios such as this. Explain to the translator what you wish to communicate and hand the phone to the patient, so that the translator can convey the information.

D Call the recommended telephone translator on the designated phone, supplied by the hospital for scenarios such as this. Explain to the translator what you wish to communicate and hand the phone to the patient, so that the translator can convey the information. Language barriers are a communication issue that can quickly lead to a patient safety issue. Telephonic translators are a common resource in hospitals and imaging centers nationwide. The translators who answer these lines have been educated and certified in not just common terms and phrases but have also learned medical terminology as well. For this reason, they are more reliable than patient's family members and software translations available on the internet, both of which may not translate some of the medical terms correctly. By far, choice A is the worst choice, as the health care professional seems to be just ignoring the language barrier.

Joseph Luckett Jr, is a competent second-year student. He has been imaging patients under indirect supervision for most of the day. All CR images are viewed at the workstation on the computer monitor, before being sent to the radiologist. After taking posteroanterior (PA) and lateral chest projections on a patient with a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test, Joseph notices that he has "clipped" the apices on the PA projection. As per the policy of the department and program. he must consult with a technologist before repeating any images. The technologist takes a quick glance at his image and says, "It looks fine. Send it." "But what about the apices?" Joseph asks. He knows that imaging the apices is extremely important in suspected cases of TB. The technologist does not take a second look. "That's okay. It's just a routine. Send it." What is the most appropriate immediate action for Joseph to take? A Ignore the technologist's advice and repeat the PA view. B Send the images as suggested by the technologist. C Send the images but, without informing the technologist, add the following comment: "Technologist advised against a repeat." D Explain the clinical history to the techn

D Explain the clinical history to the technologist and stress that he is uncomfortable sending a suboptimal study. Wrong action, also vindictiveness or malice. Ethically, sending the image would not be beneficial to the patient, and the ethical principle of beneficence suggests that our actions always should benefit the patient. In a worse-case scenario, the patient could have TB, but because of the missing apices, the radiologist could read the image as negative. The radiologist might request that the patient return for a repeat image—further inconveniencing the patient and adding to his or her stress. Adding a negative comment to the study without first consulting with the technologist implies malice or vindictiveness. Repeating the image against the technologist's advise would be a definite violation of department and program policy. Joseph should not discredit his own judgment or intuitions. He should first attempt to resolve the matter by discussing it with the technologist.

When medications are administered parenterally, they are given A orally B orally or intravenously C intravenously or intramuscularly D by a route other than via the Gl tract

D by a route other than via the Gl tract Some medications cannot be taken orally. They may be destroyed by the GI juices or may irritate the GI tract. Medications that are administered by any route other than orally are said to be given parenterally. This can include intravenous, intramuscular, topical, intrathecal, or subcutaneous modes of medication administration.

All the following are part of the Patient Care Partnership except the right to A voluntary participation in proposed research studies. B continuity of care. C considerate and respectful care. D review any hospital/institutional records.

D review any hospital/institutional records.

During the various stages of infection, the host can be contagious during A latency B incubation C Illness D all stages of the infection cycle

D) all stages of the infection cycle During the infection cycle, the contagiousness of a pathogen is dependent on many different factors, including its characteristics and mode of transmission. The host can be contagious during any stage of infection (D). The other choices are incorrect as per the previous explanation (A, B, and C).

Functions of the Swan-Ganz catheter include(s) evaluation of 1. Oxygen saturation 2. Medication effects 3. Ventricular failure A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

If a contrast agent is considered to have high viscosity, it can also 1. Require increased pressure during injections 2. Utilize smaller gauge needle sizes 3. Possess a thick, syrupy texture A 1 only B 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following drugs may be used as a vasoconstrictor for a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction? 1. Adrenalin 2. Vasopressin 3. Atropine A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D) 1,2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations? 1. Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation 2. Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination 3. Performing an examination on the wrong patient A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1,2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3 A tort is an intentional or unintentional act that involves personal injury or damage to a patient. Allowing a patient to be exposed to unnecessary radiation, either by neglecting to shield the patient or by performing an unwanted examination, would be considered a tort, and the radiographer would be legally accountable. Discussing a patient's condition with a third party undoubtedly would be considered a serious intentional tort.

A substance or method used to cleanse the large bowel prior to a barium enema is called 1. a cathartic 2. a cleansing enema 3. a purgative A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3 Purgation is also known as catharsis. Purgation uses a variety of laxatives including castor oil, bisacodyl, or magnesium citrate to evacuate fecal material from the bowel. A purgative is a laxative substance that causes catharsis in a patient. A cathartic is a substance that also causes the bowel to be purged. It is important for the patient's bowel to be properly cleansed before a barium enema procedure, as retained fecal matter can either simulate, or hide, pathology. Radiographers must provide patient education regarding the standardized bowel preparation used at their institution. A cleansing enema is employed to promote defecation. The fluid used in a cleansing enema breaks apart fecal masses, stretches the rectal wall, and stimulates defecation. Several types of solutions may be used including tap water (hypotonic solution), hypertonic solutions, saline, a soapsuds solution, and oil-based solutions (D). The remainder of the selections are incorrect, as they do not include all appropriate answers (A, B, and C).

Which of the following must be included in the patient's medical record or chart? 1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2. Medical history 3. Informed consent A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3 The Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) is the organization that accredits health-care organizations in the United States. The JCAHO sets forth certain standards for medical records. In keeping with these standards, all diagnostic and therapeutic orders must appear on the patient's medical record or chart. Additionally, patient identification information, medical history, consent forms, and any diagnostic and therapeutic reports should also be part of the patient's permanent record. The patient's chart is a means of communication between various health-care providers.

Patient preparation for an Upper GI with small bowel follow through includes: 1) NPO 8 hours before the exam 2) Low-residue diet 48 hours before the exam 3) Avoidance of tobacco products during NPO period A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only (D 1,2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3 The goal of an upper GI with small bowel follow through is to see the barium as it travels through the GI tract; the end point is the ileocecal valve at the junction of the small and large intestine. For this exam to be properly completed, the patient must be NPO for at least 8 hours before the exam (1) including water, chewing gum, and nicotine products (3). Patients should also follow a low-residue diet for 48 hours before the exam (2) to ensure that the digestive tract is clear for the barium to travel.

Which blood pressure range is typical for adolescents: A 90-100/60-67 B 130-139/80-89 C 120-140/80-90 D 100-120/65-75

D. 100-120/65-75

Which of the following is a normal BUN level: A 0.25 mg/100mL B 4 mg/100mL C 6.5mg/100mL D 10mg/100ml

D. 10mg/100mL Before undergoing a study that requires contrast agents, patients should receive bloodwork to determine if their kidneys can properly filter the contrast. The bloodwork necessary includes the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Normal BUN levels range from 8mg/100mL to 25mg/100mL. Therefore, 10mg/100mL is on the lower end of the value range, however (A), (B), and (C) would all be too low.

When lifting a patient from a wheelchair: (1) Bend down and place your arms underneath their arms, then use your back to straighten out until they are in a standing position (2) Use your legs to push yourself up as you stand while maintaining normal lumbar lordosis and tightening of the core (3) When lifting with two or more persons, discuss the transfer before attempting it to reduce confusion and strain A 2 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only When a patient is being transferred from a wheelchair, unless the patient can safely stand on their own, a 2-person transfer is best to reduce risk of injury to both the patient and medical workers. Using proper body ergonomics/mechanics by utilizing the legs to push your body up while maintaining proper lordosis and core tightening will reduce the risk of back injuries (2). When using more than one person in the transfer, be sure to clearly communicate the role each will play in the transfer before beginning (3); this will reduce improper lifting techniques, confusion, and injury. Never use your back muscles to lift a patient, this could result in serious injury (1). Keep your back straight and squat down rather than bending down.

For patients with a perforated bowel, which contrast media could be used for a barium enema: 1) Barium sulfate 2) Omnipaque 3) Isovue A 1 only B 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only When a perforated bowel is suspected, it is important for patients to be given water-soluble contrast agents for all GI studies so that if the contrast seeps into the abdominal cavity, it can be absorbed and excreted by the kidneys. Barium sulfate (1) cannot be absorbed through the bloodstream and should not be used in these situations. It could cause harm if it leaks through the perforation and enters the peritoneal cavity.. Water-soluble contrast agents such as omipaque (2) and isovue (3) are useful for perforated bowel.

The infection streptococcal pharyngitis ("strep throat" is caused by a A virus. B fungus. C protozoon. D bacterium.

D. A bacterium Streptococcal pharyngitis ("strep throat") is caused by bacteria. To know this, you have to remember that bacteria are classified according to their morphology (i.e., size and shape). The three classifications are spirals, rods (bacilli), and spheres (cocci). Viruses, unlike bacteria, cannot live outside a human cell. Viruses attach themselves to a host cell and invade the cell with their genetic information. Various fungal infections may grow on the skin (cutaneously), or they may enter the skin. Fungal infections that enter the circulatory or lymphatic system can be deadly. Protozoa are one-celled organisms classified by their motility. Ameboids move by locomotion, flagella use their protein tail, cilia possess numerous short protein tails, and sporozoans actually are not mobile.

You receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left fourth and fifth metatarsals; however, the requisition asks for a left ankle examination. What should you do? A Perform a left foot examination. B Perform a left ankle examination. C Perform both a left foot and a left ankle examination. D Check with the referring physician.

D. Check with the referring physician. Although it is never the responsibility of the radiographer to diagnose a patient, it is the responsibility of every radiographer to be alert. The patient should not be subjected to unnecessary radiation from an unwanted examination. Rather, it is the radiographer's responsibility to check with the referring physician and report the patient's complaint

You are working in the outpatient department and receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the right hip joint; however, the requisition asks for a left femur examination. What should you do? A Perform a right hip examination. B Perform a left femur examination. C Perform both a right hip and a left femur examination. D Check with the referring physician.

D. Check with the referring physician. Although it is never the responsibility of the radiographer to diagnose a patient, it is the responsibility of every radiographer to be alert. The patient should not be subjected to unnecessary radiation from an unwanted examination. Rather, it is the radiographer's responsibility to check with the referring physician and report the patient's complaint.

What is the appropriate action if a patient has signed consent for a procedure but, once on the radiographic table, refuses the procedure? A Proceed-the consent form is signed. B Send the patient back to his or her room. C Honor the patient's request and proceed with the next patient. D Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient's request.

D. Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient's request. According to the Patient Care Partnership (formerly Patient Bill of Rights), the patient's verbal request supersedes any prior written consent. It is not appropriate to dismiss the patient without notifying the referring physician and the radiologist. The patient may very well need a particular radiographic examination to make a proper diagnosis or for preoperative planning, and the radiographer must inform the physician of the patient's decision immediately.

legal doctrine respondeat superior means which of the following? A A matter settled by precedent. B A thing or matter settled by justice. C The thing speaks for itself. D) Let the master answer.

D. Let the master answer. Respondeat superior is a phase meaning "let the master answer" or "the one ruling is responsible." If a radiographer were negligent, there may be an attempt to prove that the radiologist was responsible because the radiologist oversees the radiographer. The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur relates to a thing or matter that speaks for itself. For instance, if a patient went into the hospital to have a kidney stone removed and ended up with an appendectomy, that speaks for itself, and negligence can be proven. Res judicata means a thing or matter settled by justice. Stare decisis refers to a matter settled by precedent.

Which of the following routes of administration is NOT parenteral? A Intradermal B Subcutaneous C Transdermal D) Nasogastric

D. Nasogastric The parenteral route for administration involves directly injecting the medication into the body, therefore negating the need for the medication to pass through the gastrointestinal system. Parenteral injections include intradermal (A), subcutaneous (B), transdermal (C), intra-arterial, and intrathecal. Nasogastric (D) is an enteral route because the medication is administered directly into the G.I. tract via a nasogastric tube.

Contact precautions are required when handling patients with all of the following except A C. difficile B adenovirus C VRE D rubeola

D. rubeola Contact precautions are required for pathogenic diseases that can be acquired through touch. When handling the patient for transfers, performing diagnostic imaging, and other situations in which you would have physical contact with them, healthcare workers must wear protective gowns and gloves. C. difficile, adenovirus, and VRE are all transferrable through contact, while rubeola is transmitted through the air via coughing and sneezing (A, B, C, and D). Rubeola particles can stay suspended in the air for up to 2 hours, requiring additional airborne precautions in which the healthcare worker would need to wear an N95 fitted mask.

The needle angle usually used for subcutaneous iniection is A 15 degrees B 45 degrees C 90 degrees D 180 degrees

Drugs and medications may be administered either orally or parenterally. Parenteral administration refers to any route other than via the digestive tract and includes topical (i.e., applied to the surface), subcutaneous (i.e., beneath the skin), intradermal (i.e., within the dermis/skin), intramuscular (i.e., within a muscle), intravenous (IV; i.e., within a vein), and intrathecal (i.e., within the spinal canal) administrations. The needle angle for an intravenous injection is 15 degrees, for a subcutaneous injection it is 45 degrees, and it is 90 degrees for an intramuscular injection (A, B, and C).

A vasodilator would most likely be used for A angina. B cardiac arrest. C bradycardia. D antihistamine.

The Correct Answer is: A Anginal pain, caused by constriction of blood vessels, may be relieved with the administration of a vasodilator such as nitroglycerin. Bradycardia (abnormally slow heartbeat) and cardiac arrest are treated with vasoconstrictors such as dopamine or epinephrine to increase blood pressure. Antihistamines such as diphenhydramine (Benadryl) are used to treat allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock

Difficulty in breathing precipitated by stress and causing bronchospasm best describes A asthma. B anaphylaxis. C myocardial infarct. D rhinitis.

The Correct Answer is: A Asthma is characterized by difficulty in breathing, causing bronchospasm. It is often precipitated by stress, and although dyspnea is a symptom, oxygen is not administered. Asthmatics carry a nebulizer that contains a medication to relieve the bronchospasm, thereby relieving their breathing distress. Anaphylaxis is an acute reaction characterized by sudden onset of urticaria, respiratory distress, vascular collapse, or systemic shock; it sometimes leads to death. It is caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent such as a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or by an insect bite. Asthma and rhinitis are examples of allergic reactions.

The condition that results from a persistent fetal foramen ovale is A an atrial septal defect B a ventricular septal defect C a patent ductus arteriosus D coarctation of the aorta

The Correct Answer is: A Atrial septal defect is a small hole (the remnant of the fetal foramen ovale) in the interatrial septum. It usually closes spontaneously in the first months of life; if it persists or is unusually large, surgical repair is necessary. The ductus arteriosus is a short fetal blood vessel connecting the aorta and pulmonary artery that usually closes within 10 to 15 hours after birth. A patent ductus arteriosus is one that persists and requires surgical closure. Ventricular septal defect is a congenital heart condition characterized by a hole in the interventricular septum that allows oxygenated and unoxygenated blood to mix. Some interventricular septal defects are small and close spontaneously; others require surgery. Coarctation of the aorta is a narrowing or constriction of the aorta

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the A right main stem bronchus B left main stem bronchus C esophagus D proximal stomach

The Correct Answer is: A Because the right main stem bronchus is wider and more vertical, aspirated foreign bodies are more likely to enter it than the left main stem bronchus, which is narrower and angles more sharply from the trachea. An aspirated foreign body does not enter the esophagus or the stomach because they are not respiratory structures. The esophagus and stomach are digestive structures; a foreign body would most likely be swallowed to enter these structures.

Which of the following sites are commonly used for an intravenous injection? 1. Antecubital vein 2. Basilic vein 3. Popliteal vein A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: A Either the antecubital vein or the basilic vein, both found in the elbow region, may be used for an IV injection. Other veins in the area include the cephalic and accessory veins. The popliteal vein, found in the area of the knee, is not commonly used for an IV injection

An emetic is used to A induce vomiting B stimulate defecation C promote elimination of urine D) inhibit coughing

The Correct Answer is: A Emetics, such as ipecac, function to induce vomiting. Cathartics are used to stimulate defecation (bowel movements). Diuretics are used to promote urine elimination in individuals whose tissues are retaining excessive fluid. And antitussives are used to inhibit coughing

Accidental injection of medication or contrast medium into tissues around a vein is termed A extravasation. B hematoma. C venipuncture. D collateral circulation.

The Correct Answer is: A Extravasation occurs when medication or contrast medium is injected into the tissues surrounding a vein rather than into the vein itself. It can happen when the patient's veins are particularly deep and/or small. If this happens, the needle should be removed, pressure applied to prevent formation of a hematoma, and then moist heat applied to the affected area to help relieve pain. The antecubital vein is the most commonly used venipuncture site for contrast medium administration.

The most frequent site of hospital- acquired infection is the A urinary tract. B blood. C respiratory tract. D digestive tract.

The Correct Answer is: A Hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) are also referred to as nosocomial. Despite the efforts of infectious disease departments, HAIs continue to be a problem in hospitals today. This is at least partly due to there being a greater number of older, more vulnerable patients and an increase in the number of invasive procedures performed today (i.e., needles and catheters). The most frequent site of HAI is the urinary tract, followed by wounds, the respiratory tract, and blood.

When caring for a patient with an IV line, the radiographer should keep the medication A 18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein. B 18 to 20 inches below the level of the vein. C 28 to 30 inches above the level of the vein. D 28 to 30 inches below the level of the vein.

The Correct Answer is: A It is generally recommended that the IV bottle/bag be kept 18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein. If the container is too high, the pressure of the IV fluid can cause it to pass through the vein into surrounding tissues, causing a painful and potentially harmful condition. If the IV container is too low, blood may return through the needle into the tubing, form a clot, and obstruct the flow of IV fluid.

Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about A 1 1/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip B 1 1/2 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip C 3 in. superior to the xiphoid tip D 3 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip

The Correct Answer is: A Location of the heels of the hands is of great importance during CPR. They should be placed about 1 1 / 2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip. In this way, the heart will receive the compressions it requires without causing internal injuries. Rib fractures can depress and cause injury to the lung tissues within the rib cage.

Which of the following blood pressure measurements might indicate shock? A Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg B Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg C Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg D Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg

The Correct Answer is: A Shock is indicated by extremely low blood pressure, that is, a systolic blood pressure reading lower than 60 mmHg (below 90 mmHg is considered low blood pressure). Normal blood pressure is 110 to 140 mmHg systolic and 60 to 80 mmHg diastolic. High blood pressure is indicated by systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg and diastolic pressure higher than 90 mmHg.

A patient whose systolic blood pressure is consistently greater than 140 mm Hg usually is considered A hypertensive. B hypotensive. C average/normal. D baseline.

The Correct Answer is: A Systolic blood pressure describes the pressure during contraction of the heart. It is expressed as the top (left) number when recording blood pressure. Diastolic blood pressure is the reading during relaxation of the heart and is placed on the bottom (right) when recording blood pressure. A patient is considered hypertensive when the systolic pressure is consistently above 140 mm Hg and hypotensive when the systolic pressure is lower than 90 mm Hg.

Chest drainage systems should always be kept 1. below the level of the patient's chest. 2. above the patient's chest. 3. at the level of the patient's diaphragm. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1,2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: A The chest drainage system unit always should be kept below the level of the patient's chest. Chest tubes are used to remove air, blood, or fluid from the pleural cavity. By draining fluid from the pleural cavity, a collapsed lung, or atelectasis, may be relieved. By relieving the pressure from air in the pleural cavity, a pneumothorax may be reduced. Radiographers must take care that the tubes of the chest drainage unit do not kink and do not get caught on IV poles or radiographic equipment. It is imperative that the unit remain below the level of the chest. The chest drainage system has several components. One component is a chamber that collects the draining fluid. Another component is the suction control chamber. A third component is the water-seal chamber, which prevents air from the atmosphere from entering the system. The last component is the water-seal venting chamber, which allows air to leave the system, thus preventing pressure buildup. In order for the unit to work properly, it must remain below the level of the chest

The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is A hemoptysis B hematemesis C chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) D bronchitis

The Correct Answer is: A The expectoration of blood from the larynx, trachea, bronchi, or lungs is termed hemoptysis. Hemoptysis can occur in several diseases, including pneumonia, bronchitis, pulmonary tuberculosis, and others. Hematemesis is vomiting of blood—this can occur with gastric ulcers, gastritis, esophageal varices, and other conditions.

The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a A defibrillator. B cardiac monitor. C crash cart. D resuscitation bag.

The Correct Answer is: A The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac ventricular rhythm is a defibrillator. The two paddles attached to the unit are placed on a patient's chest and used to introduce an electric current in an effort to correct the dysrhythmia. Automatic implantable cardioverter defibrillators (AICDs) are devices that are implanted in the body and that deliver a small shock to the heart if a life-threatening dysrhythmia occurs. A cardiac monitor is used to display, and sometimes record, electrocardiographic (ECG) readings and some pressure readings. A crash cart is a supply cart with various medications and equipment necessary for treating a patient who is suffering from a myocardial infarction or some other serious medical emergency. It is checked and restocked periodically. A resuscitation bag is used for ventilation, such as during CPR.

An iatrogenic infection is one caused by A physician intervention. B blood-borne pathogens. C chemotherapy. D infected droplets.

The Correct Answer is: A The prefix iatr- is from the Greek iatros, meaning "physician." An iatrogenic infection is one caused by physician intervention or by medical or diagnostic treatment/procedures. Examples include infection following surgery and nausea or other illness following prescribed drug use.

During a grand mal seizure, the patient should be A protected from injury. B placed in a semiupright position to prevent aspiration of vomitus. C allowed to thrash freely. D given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury.

The Correct Answer is: A When a patient is experiencing a seizure, he or she should be protected from striking any hard surfaces or falling. The patient exhibits uncontrollable body movements. Any attempt to place the patient in a semierect position or to administer a sedative would prove futile. Following the seizure, it is important to place the patient on his or her side to prevent aspiration of any vomitus or oral secretions.

Tracheotomy is an effective technique most commonly used to restore breathing when there is A respiratory pathway obstruction above the larvnx B crushed tracheal rings owing to trauma. C respiratory pathway closure owing to inflammation and swelling D all the above

The Correct Answer is: A The respiratory passageways include the nose, pharynx, larynx (upper respiratory structures), trachea, bronchi, and lungs (lower structures). If obstruction of the breathing passageways occurs in the upper respiratory tract, above the larynx (i.e., in the nose or pharynx), tracheotomy may be performed to restore breathing. Intubation can be done into the lower structures, larynx, and trachea, moving aside any soft obstruction and restoring the breathing passageway.

Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome? A Intentional misconduct B Contributory negligence C Gross negligence D Corporate negligence

The Correct Answer is: B A circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contribute to an injurious outcome is termed contributory negligence. An example would be a patient who fails to follow the physician's orders or fails to show up for follow-up care and then sues when the condition causes permanent damage. Another example would be a patient who deliberately gives false information about the ingestion of drugs, leading to adverse effects from medications administered. Most states do not completely dismiss injury if there has been negligence on the part of the health care institution, even if the patient's actions contributed substantially to the injury. Rather, comparative negligence is applied, where the percentage of the injury owing to the patient's actions is compared with the total amount of injury. A jury may decide that a physician was negligent in his or her actions, but because the patient lied about using an illegal street drug that contributed to the injurious outcome, the patient is 80% responsible for his or her condition. The party suing may be awarded $100,000 for injuries but actually would receive only $20,000. Gross negligence occurs when there is willful or deliberate neglect of the patient. Assault, battery, invasion of privacy, false imprisonment, and defamation of character all fall under the category of intentional misconduct. Corporate negligence occurs when a corporation (i.e. hospital) fails to meet its legal obligations to its clients (patients)

An acute reaction caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent describes A asthma B anaphylaxis C myocardial infarction D rhinitis

The Correct Answer is: B Anaphylaxis is an acute reaction characterized by sudden onset of urticaria, respiratory distress, vascular collapse, or systemic shock; it sometimes leads to death. It is caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent such as a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food or by an insect bite. Asthma is characterized by difficulty in breathing, causing bronchospasm. It is often precipitated by stress, and although dyspnea is a symptom, oxygen is not administered. Asthmatics carry a nebulizer that contains a medication to relieve the bronchospasm, thereby relieving their breathing distress. Asthma and rhinitis are examples of allergic reactions

Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or after an insect bite, best describes A asthma. B anaphylaxis. C myocardial infarction. D rhinitis.

The Correct Answer is: B Anaphylaxis is an acute reaction characterized by the sudden onset of urticaria, respiratory distress, vascular collapse, or systemic shock, sometimes leading to death. It is caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent such as a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or by an insect bite. Asthma and rhinitis are examples of allergic reactions. Myocardial infarction (MI) is caused by partial or complete occlusion of a coronary artery.

Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food or after an insect bite best describes A asthma B anaphylaxis C myocardial infarction D rhinitis

The Correct Answer is: B Anaphylaxis is an acute reaction characterized by the sudden onset of urticaria, respiratory distress, vascular collapse, or systemic shock, sometimes leading to death. It is caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent such as a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or by an insect bite. Asthma and rhinitis are examples of allergic reactions. Myocardial infarction (MI) is caused by partial or complete occlusion of a coronary artery.

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of anemia? 1. Decreased number of circulating red blood cells 2. Decreased hemoglobin 3. Hematuria A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: B Anemia is a blood condition characterized by a decreased number of circulating red blood cells and decreased hemoglobin; it has many causes. Adequate hemoglobin is required to provide oxygen to the body. Anemia is treated according to its cause. Hematuria is the term used to describe blood in the urine and is unrelated to anemia.

Skin discoloration owing to cyanosis may be observed in the 1. gums. 2. earlobes. 3. corneas. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 3 only D 1,2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: B Cyanosis is a condition resulting from a deficiency of oxygen circulating in the blood. It is characterized by bluish discoloration of the gums, nailbeds, earlobes, and the area around the mouth. Cyanosis may be accompanied by labored breathing or other types of respiratory distress

Bone densitometry is often performed to 1. measure degree of bone (de) mineralization 2. evaluate the results of osteoporosis treatment/therapy 3. evaluate the condition of soft tissue adjacent to bone A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: B DXA imaging is used to evaluate bone mineral density (BMD). Bone densitometry (i.e., DXA) can be used to evaluate bone mineral content of the body, or part of it, to diagnose osteoporosis or to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments for osteoporosis. It is the most widely used method of bone densitometry—it is low-dose, precise, and uncomplicated to use/perform. DXA uses two photon energies—one for soft tissue and one for bone. Since bone is denser and attenuates x-ray photons more readily, their attenuation is calculated to represent the degree of bone density. Soft tissue attenuation information is not used to measure bone density

The term dysplasia refers to A difficulty speaking. B abnormal development of tissue. C malposition. D difficult or painful breathing.

The Correct Answer is: B Dysplasia refers to abnormal development of tissue—often demonstrated radiographically in skeletal imaging. Difficulty in speaking is termed dysphasia. Malposition refers to an anatomic structure located in a place other than the norm, for example, situs inversus. Difficult or painful breathing is termed dyspnea.

Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons? 1. To promote rapid response 2. To administer parenteral nutrition 3. To achieve a local effect A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: B Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously to achieve a more rapid response to the medication than if it were delivered orally or intramuscularly. The IV route is also often used to deliver parenteral nutrition to patients who cannot take their meals by mouth. Medications that are administered topically, such as calamine lotion, achieve a local effect

Graves disease is associated with A thyroid underactivity B thyroid overactivity C adrenal underactivity D adrenal overactivity

The Correct Answer is: B Graves disease is the most frequently occurring form of hyperthyroidism. Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder whose symptoms include enlargement of the thyroid gland and exophthalmos (protrusion of the eyes resulting from fluid buildup behind them). Hypothyroidism can result in cretinism in the child and myxedema in the adult. Adrenal overactivity produces Cushing syndrome; underactivity causes Addison disease

Hemovac or Penrose drains are used for A bile duct drainage. B tissue drainage of wounds or postoperative drainage. C decompression of the gastrointestinal tract. D feeding patients who are unable to swallow food.

The Correct Answer is: B Hemovac or Penrose drains are used for tissue drainage of wounds or in postoperative drainage. Drainage tubes help prevent the formation of infection or fistulas in wounds and postoperative sites with large amounts of drainage. Bile duct drainage, when necessary, is performed with a T-tube, and radiographers often perform radiographic examinations of the T-tube to verify patency. Nasogastric and nasoenteric tubes may be used either for decompression of the gastrointestinal tract or to feed patients who are unable to swallow food normally. In addition, radiographic examination of the gastrointestinal tract may be performed by introducing a contrast agent into a nasogastric or nasoenteric tube

Examples of means by which infectious microorganisms can be transmitted via indirect contact include 1. a fomite. 2. a vector. 3. nasal or oral secretions. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2. and 3

The Correct Answer is: B Infectious microorganisms can be transmitted from patients to other patients or to health care workers and from health care workers to patients. They are transmitted by means of either direct or indirect contact. Direct contact involves touch. Diseases transmitted by direct contact include skin infections such as boils and sexually transmitted diseases such as syphilis and AIDS. Direct contact with droplets of nasal or oral secretions from a sneeze or cough is referred to as droplet contact. Indirect contact involves transmission of microorganisms via airborne contamination, fomites, and vectors. Pathogenic microorganisms expelled from the respiratory tract through the mouth or nose can be carried as evaporated droplets through the air or dust and settle on clothing, utensils, or food. Patients with respiratory tract infections or disease transported to the radiology department therefore should wear a mask to prevent such transmission during a cough or sneeze; it is not necessary for the health care worker to wear a mask (as long as the patient does). Many microorganisms can remain infectious while awaiting transmission to another host. A contaminated inanimate object such as a food utensil, doorknob, or IV pole is referred to as a fomite. A vector is an insect or animal carrier of infectious organisms, such as a rabid animal, a mosquito that carries malaria, or a tick that carries Lyme disease. They can transmit disease through either direct or indirect contact.

Each of the following is an example of a fomite except A a doorknob. B a tick. C a spoon. D an x-ray table.

The Correct Answer is: B Many microorganisms can remain infectious while awaiting transmission to another host. A contaminated inanimate object such as a food utensil, doorknob, or IV pole is referred to as a fomite. A vector is an insect, rodent, or other animal carrier of infectious organisms, such as a rabid animal, a mosquito that carries malaria, or a tick that carries Lyme disease. They can transmit disease through either direct or indirect contact.

Techniques that function to reduce the spread of microbes are termed A surgical asepsis. B medical asepsis. C sterilization. D disinfection.

The Correct Answer is: B Medical asepsis refers to practices that reduce the spread of microbes, and therefore the chance of spreading disease or infection. Washing your hands is an example of medical asepsis. It reduces the spread of infection, but it does not eliminate all microorganisms. Disinfection involves the use of chemicals to either inactivate or inhibit the growth of microbes. The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed sterilization. Surgical asepsis refers to the technique used when performing procedures to prevent contamination

Logrolling is a method of moving patients having suspected A head injury. B spinal injury. c bowel obstruction. D extremity fracture.

The Correct Answer is: B Patients arriving at the emergency department (ED) with suspected spinal injury should not be moved. Anteroposterior (AP) and horizontal lateral projections of the suspected area should be evaluated and a decision made about the advisability of further images. For a lateral projection, the patient should be moved along one plane, that is, rolled like a log. It is imperative that twisting motions be avoided.

A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time is termed A an IV push. B an infusion. C a bolus. D) a hypodermic.

The Correct Answer is: B Quantities of medication can be dispensed intravenously over a period of time via an IV infusion. A special infusion pump may be used to precisely regulate the quantity received by the patient. An IV push refers to a rapid injection; the term bolus refers to the quantity of material being injected. The term hypodermic refers to administration of medication by any route other than oral

The radiographic accessory used to measure the thickness of body parts in order to determine optimum selection of exposure factors is the A gantry. B caliper. C collimator. D ruler.

The Correct Answer is: B Radiographic technique charts are highly recommended for use with every x-ray unit. A technique chart identifies the standardized factors that should be used with that particular x-ray unit, for various examinations/positions, of anatomic parts of different sizes. To be used effectively, these technique charts require that the anatomic part in question be measured correctly with a caliper. A gantry is a component of a computed tomography imaging system, a collimator is used to determine the size of the x-ray field

The Heimlich maneuver is used if a patient is A in cardiac arrest. B choking. C having a seizure. D suffering from hiccups.

The Correct Answer is: B The Heimlich maneuver is used when a person is choking. If you suspect that an individual is choking, be certain that the airway is indeed obstructed before attempting the Heimlich maneuver. A person with a completely obstructed airway will not be able to speak or cough. If the person cannot speak or cough, then the airway is obstructed, and the Heimlich maneuver should be performed. The proper method is to stand behind the choking victim with one hand in a fist, thumb side in, midway between the navel and the xiphoid tip. Place the other hand over the closed fist with the palm open and apply pressure in and up. Repeat the thrust several times until the object is dislodged. For an infant, the procedure is modified. Four back blows are given midway between the scapulae using the heel of the hand. If the object is not dislodged, the baby is turned over (being very careful to support the baby's head and spine), and four chests thrusts are performed just below the nipple line using several fingers.

The medical term for nosebleed is A vertigo. B epistaxis. C urticaria. D aura.

The Correct Answer is: B The medical term for nosebleed is epistaxis. Vertigo refers to a feeling of "whirling" or a sensation that the room is spinning. Some possible causes of vertigo include inner ear infection and acoustic neuroma. Urticaria is a vascular reaction resulting in dilated capillaries and edema and causing the patient to break out in hives. An aura may be classified as either a feeling or a sensory response (such as flashing lights, tasting metal, smelling coffee) that precedes an episode such as a seizure or a migraine headache

The most commonly used method of low-flow oxygen delivery is the A oxygen mask. B nasal cannula. C respirator. D oxyhood.

The Correct Answer is: B The most commonly used method of low-flow oxygen delivery is the nasal cannula. It can be used to deliver oxygen at rates from 1 to 4 L/min at concentrations of 24% to 36%. The nasal cannula also provides increased patient freedom to eat and talk, which a mask does not. Masks are used for higher-flow concentrations of oxygen, over 5 L/min; depending on the type of mask, they can deliver anywhere from 35% to 60% oxygen. Respirators and ventilators are high-flow delivery mechanisms that are used for patients who are in severe respiratory distress or are unable to breathe on their own. Oxyhoods or tents generally are used for pediatric patients who may not tolerate a mask or cannula. The amount of oxygen delivered is somewhat unpredictable, especially if the opening is accessed frequently. Oxygen delivery may be between 20% and 100%.

Which of the following patient rights is violated by discussing privileged patient information with an individual who is not involved with the patient's care? 1. The right to considerate and respectful care 2 The right to privacy 3 The right to continuity of care A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

The Correct Answer is: B The patient's right to privacy refers to his or her modesty and dignity being respected. It also refers to the professional health-care worker's obligation to respect the confidentiality of privileged information. Communication of privileged information to anyone but health-care workers involved with the patient's care is inexcusable.

A MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient who has A a herniated disk. B aneurysm clips. C dental fillings. D subdural bleeding.

The Correct Answer is: B The presence of aneurysm clips is contraindication for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI); even a slight shift can cause damage. MRI can be performed for a herniated disk and subdural bleeding. Dental fillings do not contraindicate MRI.

Which of the following medication routes refers to the term parenteral? 1. Subcutaneous 2. Intramuscular 3. Oral A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: B The term parenteral denotes any medication route other than the alimentary canal (by mouth). Examples of parenteral routes are subcutaneous, intravenous, intramuscular, and intracardiac. The speed of absorption varies with the route used.

Adverse reactions to high osmolality water-soluble contrast media that are classified as mild, include 1. nausea. 2. pallor. 3. dyspnea. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: B Use of high osmolality (ionic) water-soluble contrast media can result in adverse physiological effects. These effects are usually classified as mild, moderate, or severe. Mild effects include warmth, itching, flushing, nausea, pallor, hives, anxiety, chills. Mild reactions are usually temporary and transient. The radiographer should reassure the patient and should observe and communicate with the patient to be certain that the mild reaction is resolved. Treatment is usually not necessary for mild reactions. Moderate adverse effects include hypertension, dyspnea, hypotension, bronchospasm. Patients must be closely observed for possible worsening of reaction; treatment might be required depending on progression of the reaction. Severe reactions include arrhythmia, cardiopulmonary arrest, laryngeal edema. Clearly, severe reactions require immediate recognition and treatment.

A patient developed hives several minutes after injection of an iodinated contrast agent. What type of drug should be readily available? A Analgesic B Antihistamine C Anti-inflammatory D Antibiotic

The Correct Answer is: B When a contrast medium is injected, histamines are produced to protect the body from the foreign substance. An antihistamine (such as diphenhydramine [Benadryl]) blocks the action of the histamine and reduces the body's inflammatory response to the contrast medium. An analgesic (such as aspirin) relieves pain. An anti-inflammatory drug (such as ibuprofen) suppresses the inflammation of tissue. Antibiotics (such as penicillin) help fight bacterial infections.

While measuring blood pressure, the first pulse that is heard is recorded as the A diastolic pressure. B systolic pressure. C venous pressure. D valvular pressure.

The Correct Answer is: B With the blood pressure cuff wrapped snugly around the patient's brachial artery and the pump inflated to approximately 180 mm Hg, the valve is opened only slightly to release pressure very slowly. With the stethoscope over the brachial artery, listen for the pulse while watching the mercury column (gauge). Note the point at which the first pulse is heard as the systolic pressure. As the valve is opened further, the sound is louder; the point at which it suddenly becomes softer is recorded as the diastolic pressure.

Which of the following is (are) symptom(s) of shock? 1. Pallor and weakness 2. Increased pulse 3. Fever A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1.2. and 3

The Correct Answer is: B A patient who is going into shock may exhibit pallor and weakness, a significant drop in blood pressure, and an increased pulse. The patient may also experience apprehension and restlessness and may have cool, clammy skin. A radiographer recognizing these symptoms should call them to the physician's attention immediately. Fever is not associated with shock.

When a patient with an arm injury needs help in undressing, the radiographer should A remove clothing from the injured arm first. B remove clothing from the uninjured arm first. C always remove clothing from the left arm first. D always cut clothing away from the inured extremity.

The Correct Answer is: B When assisting the patient in changing, first remove clothing from the unaffected side. If this is done, removing clothing from the affected side will require less movement and effort. The patient's clothing should be cut away only as a last resort in cases of extreme emergency and with the patient's consent

Which of the following conditions describes a patient who is unable to breathe easily while in the recumbent position? A Dyspnea B Apnea C Orthopnea D Oligopnea

The Correct Answer is: C A patient with orthopnea is unable to breathe while lying down. When the body is recumbent, the diaphragm and abdominal viscera move to a more superior position. It is therefore more difficult to breathe deeply. Patients with orthopnea must be examined in an erect or semierect position. Dyspnea refers to difficulty breathing in any body position. Apnea describes cessation of breathing for short intervals. Oligopnea is infrequent breathing—as slow as 6 to 10 respirations per minute.

Which of the following is another name for an intermittent injection port? A Hypodermic needle B Butterfly needle C Heparin lock D Intravenous (IV) infusion

The Correct Answer is: C Another name for an intermittent injection port is a heparin lock. As the name suggests, heparin locks are used for patients who will require sporadic injections. An intravenous catheter is placed in the vein, and an external adapter with a diaphragm allows for repeated injections. Heparin locks provide more freedom than an IV infusion, which also allows for repeated access. Hypodermic needles are usually used for drawing blood or drawing up fluids, whereas a butterfly needle is usually used for venipuncture.

Guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces include which of the following? 1. Clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated areas. 2. Clean in a circular motion, starting from the center and working outward. 3. Clean from the top down. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1,2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: C Because hospitals are the refuge of the sick, they can also be places of disease transmission unless proper infection control guidelines are followed. When cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces such as the radiographic table, it is important to clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated area and from the top down. Soiled gowns and linens should be folded from the outside in and disposed of properly. When the patient's skin is being prepared for surgery, it is often cleaned in circular motion starting from the center and working outward; however, this motion is not used for objects or surfaces.

Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs? A Pneumothorax B Atelectasis C Pulmonary embolism D Hypoxia

The Correct Answer is: C Blood pressure in the pulmonary circulation is relatively low, and therefore, pulmonary vessels can easily become blocked by blood clots, air bubbles, or fatty masses, resulting in a pulmonary embolism. If the blockage stays in place, it results in an extra strain on the right ventricle, which is now unable to pump blood. This can result in congestive heart failure. Pneumothorax is air in the pleural cavity. Atelectasis is a collapsed lung or part of a lung. Hypoxia is a condition of low tissue oxygen.

Which of the following pathologic conditions would require a decrease in exposure factors? A Congestive heart failure B Pneumonia C Emphysema D Pleural effusion

The Correct Answer is: C Emphysema is abnormal distension of the pulmonary alveoli (or tissue spaces) with air. The presence of abnormal amounts of air makes a decrease from normal exposure factors necessary to avoid excessive receptor exposure. Congestive heart failure, pneumonia, and pleural effusion all involve abnormal amounts of fluid in the chest and, therefore, would require an increase in exposure factors.

Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements? 1. Hepatitis B immunizations must be made available to all hospital employees. 2. Puncture-proof containers must be provided for all used needles. 3. Follow-up care must be provided to any staff accidentally exposed to blood splash/needle stick. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: C Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by OSHA, require development of policies conforming to OSHA guidelines and instruction in their application/use. These regulations also require provision of hepatitis B immunization (free of charge) for all staff who might be exposed to blood/body substances, follow-up care for any staff accidentally exposed to blood/body fluids and/or needle stick injuries, and readily accessible personal protective equipment (PPE) and impermeable puncture-proof containers for used needles/syringes. It also requires that all health care workers and their employers follow/enforce standard precautions, transmission-based precautions, and these OSHA guidelines under penalty of law.

An illness of unknown or obscure cause is said to be A systemic. B epidemic. C idiopathic. D pathogenic.

The Correct Answer is: C Idiopathic refers to a disease of unknown or unclear cause. The term systemic refers to or concerns a (body) system. An epidemic describes a disease that swiftly affects a large number of people in a particular geographic region. Anything that is or can be disease-producing is termed pathogenic

A nosocomial infection is a(n) A infection acquired from frequent handshaking. B upper respiratory tract infection. C infection acquired in a hospital. D type of rhinitis.

The Correct Answer is: C Nosocomial diseases are those acquired in hospitals, especially by patients whose resistance to infection has been diminished by their illness. Cleanliness is essential to decrease the number of nosocomial infections. The x-ray table must be cleaned and the pillowcase changed between patients. The most common nosocomial infection is the urinary tract infection (UTI).

the four stages of infection, which is the stage during which the infection is most communicable? A Latent period B Incubation period C Disease phase D Convalescent phase

The Correct Answer is: C Of the four stages of infection, the stage during which the infection is most communicable is the disease phase. In the initial phase, the latent period, the infection is introduced and lies dormant. As soon as the microbes begin to shed, the infection becomes communicable. The microbes reproduce (during the incubation period), and during the actual disease period signs and symptoms of the infection may begin. The infection is most active and communicable at this point. As the patient fights off the infection, and the symptoms regress, the convalescent (recovery) phase occurs

Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile technique? A Gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms. B Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist level. C Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face. D A sterile field should not be left unattended.

The Correct Answer is: C Persons in sterile dress should not pass each other face to face. Rather, they should pass each other back to back to avoid contaminating each other. Gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms. Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist level. If the hands are accidentally lowered or placed behind the back, they are no longer sterile. A sterile field should not be left unattended. Sterile fields should be set up immediately prior to a procedure and should be covered with a sterile drape if a few moments are to elapse before the procedure can begin. A sterile field should be monitored constantly to be certain that it has not been contaminated.

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered A rectally. B orally. C intrathecally. D through a nasogastric tube.

The Correct Answer is: C Sterile technique is required for the administration of contrast media by the IV and intrathecal (intraspinal) methods. Sterile technique is also required for injection of contrast media during arthrography. Aseptic technique is used for administration of contrast media by means of the oral and rectal routes, as well as through the nasogastric tube.

In reviewing a patient's blood chemistry, which of the following blood urea nitrogen (BUN) ranges is considered normal? A 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL B 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL C 8 to 25 mg/100 mL D) Up to 50 mg/100 mL

The Correct Answer is: C The BUN level indicates the quantity of nitrogen in the blood in the form of urea. The normal concentration is 8 to 25 mg/100 mL. BUN and creatinine blood chemistry levels should be checked prior to beginning an IVU. An increase in the BUN level often indicates decreased renal function. Increased BUN and/or creatinine levels may forecast an increased possibility of contrast media-induced renal effects and poor visualization of the renal collecting systems. The normal creatinine range is 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL.

The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed A surgical asepsis. B medical asepsis. C) sterilization. D disinfection.

The Correct Answer is: C The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed sterilization. Surgical asepsis refers to the technique used to prevent contamination when performing procedures. Medical asepsis refers to practices that reduce the spread of microbes, and therefore the chance of spreading disease or infection. Hand washing is an example of medical asepsis. It reduces the spread of infection, but does not eliminate all microorganisms. Disinfection involves the use of chemicals to either inactivate or inhibit the growth of microbes.

Which of the following statements regarding the human gonadal cells is (are) true? 1. The female oogonia reproduce only during fetal life. 2. The male spermatogonia reproduce continuously. 3. Both male and female stem cells reproduce only during fetal life. A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 3 only

The Correct Answer is: C The development of male and female reproductive stem cells has important radiation protection implications. Male stem cells reproduce continuously. However, female stem cells develop only during fetal life; women are born with all the reproductive cells they will ever have. It is exceedingly important to shield children whenever possible because they have their reproductive futures ahead of them.

The higher the gauge number of an intravenous (IV) needle, A the larger is its diameter. B the greater is its length. C the smaller is its diameter. D the shorter its length

The Correct Answer is: C The diameter of a needle is the needle's gauge. The higher the gauge number, the smaller is the diameter and the thinner is the needle. For example, a very tiny-gauge needle (25 gauge) may be used on a pediatric patient for an IV injection, whereas a large-gauge needle (16 gauge) may be used for donating blood. The hub of a needle is the portion of the needle that attaches to a syringe. The length of the needle varies depending on its use. A longer needle is needed for intramuscular injections, whereas a shorter needle is used for subcutaneous injections. The bevel of the needle is the slanted tip of the needle. For IV injections, the bevel always should face up

Where is the "sterile corridor" located? A Just outside the surgical suite B Immediately inside each operating room door C Between the draped patient and the instrument table D At the foot end of the draped patient

The Correct Answer is: C When radiographs in the surgical suite are required, the radiographer is responsible for ensuring that surgical asepsis is maintained. This requires proper dress, cleanliness of equipment, and restricted access to certain areas. An example of a restricted area is the "sterile corridor," which is located between the draped patient and the instrument table and is occupied only by the surgeon and the instrument nurse

Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure? 1. Pulse oximeter 2. Stethoscope 3. Sphygmomanometer A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1.2. and 3

The Correct Answer is: C A stethoscope and a sphygmomanometer are used together to measure blood pressure. The first sound heard is the systolic pressure, and the normal range is 90 to 120 mm Hg. When the sound is no longer heard, the diastolic pressure is recorded. The normal diastolic range is 60 to 80 mm Hg. Elevated blood pressure is called hypertension. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not of concern unless it is caused by injury or disease; in that case, it can result in shock. A pulse oximeter is used to measure a patient's pulse rate and oxygen saturation level.

Blood pressure may be expressed as 120/95. What does 95 represent? 1. 2. 3. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue A higher-than-average diastolic pressure A 1 onlv B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D) 2 and 3 only

The Correct Answer is: C The normal blood pressure range for men and women is 90 to 120 mmHg systolic reading (top number) and 60 to 80 mmHg diastolic reading (bottom number). Systolic pressure is the contraction phase of the left ventricle, and diastolic pressure is the relaxation phase in the heart cycle.

All the following are central venous lines except A a Port-a-Cath. B a PICC. C a Swan-Ganz catheter. D a Salem-sump.

The Correct Answer is: D A catheter placed in a large vein is called a central venous line. It can be used to deliver frequent medications or nutrition or to monitor cardiac pressures. Catheters can vary in size and number of lumens depending on intended use. The Port-a-Cath is a totally implanted access port, and the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) is a peripherally inserted central catheter—they both permit long-term intravenous treatment. The Swan-Ganz catheter is advanced to the pulmonary artery and is used to measure the pumping ability of the heart, to obtain pressure readings, and to introduce medications and IV fluids. The Levin and Salem-sump tubes are NG tubes used for gastric decompression. The Salem-sump tube is radiopaque and has a double lumen. One lumen is for gastric air compression, and the other is for removal of fluids

Anaphylaxis is the term used to describe A an inflammatory reaction. B bronchial asthma. C acute chest pain. D allergic shock.

The Correct Answer is: D A severe allergic reaction affecting several tissue functions is referred to as anaphylaxis or anaphylactic shock. It is characterized by dyspnea (difficulty breathing) caused by rapid swelling of the respiratory tract and a sharp drop in blood pressure. Individuals who are sensitive to bee stings and certain medications, including iodinated contrast agents, are candidates for this reaction

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include 1. a few hives 2. nausea 3. a flushed face A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D Adverse reactions to the intravascular administration of iodinated contrast medium are not uncommon, but although the risk of a life-threatening reaction is relatively rare, the radiographer must be alert to recognize and deal effectively with a serious reaction should it occur. Flushed appearance and nausea, occasionally vomiting, and a few hives characterize a minor reaction. Early symptoms of a possible anaphylactic reaction include constriction of the throat, possibly owing to laryngeal edema, dysphagia (difficulty in swallowing), and itching of the palms and soles. The radiographer must maintain the patient's airway, summon the radiologist, and call a "code."

The decision as to whether to deliver ionic or nonionic contrast medium should include a preliminary patient history including, but not limited to 1. patient age. 2. history of respiratory disease. 3. history of cardiac disease. A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D All the choices listed in the question should be part of a preliminary patient history before deciding to inject ionic or nonionic contrast media. As patients age, their general health decreases, and they are, therefore, more likely to suffer from adverse reactions. Patients with a history of respiratory disease, such as asthma or emphysema and COPD, are more likely to have a reaction and to suffer greater distress in the event of a reaction. Patients with cardiac disease run an increased risk of changes in heart rate and myocardial infarction. Patients also should be screened for decreased renal or hepatic function, sickle-cell disease, diabetes, and pregnancy

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy? 1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason. 2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated. 3. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between. A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D All the statements in the question are true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy. If a tracheostomy needs to be touched for any reason, sterile technique should be employed to avoid the possibility of infection. Patients with tracheostomies require frequent suction. This is usually not performed by the technologist, but radiographers may be called on to assist with suctioning, especially for patients who must be in the radiology department for lengthy procedures. Patients who are to be suctioned should be aerated beforehand (i.e., oxygen should be administered prior to suctioning). It is also important that patients be permitted to rest during suctioning. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds; check breath sounds with a stethoscope to ensure that the airway is clear. It is the radiographer's responsibility to check the work area and ensure that the suction is working and that ample ancillary supplies (i.e., suction kit, catheters, and tubing) are available

Which of the following effects does an antibiotic have on the body? A Decreases pain B Helps delay clotting C Increases urine output D) Combats bacterial growth

The Correct Answer is: D An analgesic is any drug, such as aspirin, which functions to relieve pain. An anticoagulant (e.g., heparin) is used to prevent clotting of blood. A diuretic is used to increase urine output. And an antibiotic (e.g., penicillin) fights the growth of bacterial microorganisms.

Body substances and fluids that are considered infectious or potentially infectious include 1. sputum 2. synovial fluid 3. cerebrospinal fluid A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D Body substance precaution procedures identify various body fluids as infectious or potentially infectious. These body substances include pleural, pericardial, peritoneal, and amniotic fluids; synovial fluid; CSF; breast milk; and vaginal secretions, as well as semen, nasal secretions, tears, saliva, sputum, feces, urine, and wound drainage

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV may be transmitted 1. by sharing contaminated needles. 2. from mother to child during birth. 3. by intimate contact with body fluids. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D Epidemiologic studies indicate that human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can be transmitted only by intimate contact with body fluids of an infected individual. This can occur through the sharing of contaminated needles, through sexual contact, and from mother to baby at childbirth (perinatal). HIV can also be transmitted by transfusion of contaminated blood

Extravasation occurs when A there is an absence of collateral circulation B there is a multitude of vessels supplying one area C excessive contrast medium is injected D contrast medium is injected into surrounding tissue

The Correct Answer is: D Extravasation occurs when medication or contrast medium is injected into the tissues surrounding a vein rather than into the vein itself. It can happen when the patient's veins are particularly deep and/or small. If this happens, the needle should be removed, pressure applied to prevent formation of a hematoma, and then hot packs applied to relieve pain.

Improper support of a patient's fractured lower leg (tibia/fibula) while performing radiography could result in 1. movement of fracture fragments. 2. tearing of soft tissue, nerves, and blood vessels. 3. initiation of muscle spasm. A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D Improper support of a patient's fractured lower leg (tibia/fibula) while performing radiography could result in movement of the fracture fragments, which can cause tearing of the soft tissue, nerves, and blood vessels. In addition, lack of support may cause muscle spasm, which can make closed reduction of some fractures difficult. (

Lyme disease is caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by A droplet contact. B a vehicle. C the airborne route. D a vector.

The Correct Answer is: D Lyme disease is a condition that results from the transmission of an infection by a vector (in this case, a deer tick). Vectors are insects and animals carrying disease. Droplet contact involves contact with secretions (from the nose, mouth, or eye) that travel via a sneeze or cough. The airborne route involves evaporated droplets in the air that transfer disease. A vehicle can transmit infection via contaminated water, food, blood, or drugs.

Some proteins in latex can produce mild to severe allergic reactions. Medical equipment that could contain latex includes 1. tourniquets. 2. enema tips. 3. catheters. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D Medical equipment that could contain latex includes disposable gloves, tourniquets, blood pressure cuffs, stethoscopes, IV tubing, oral and nasal airways, enema tips, endotracheal tubes, syringes, electrode pads, catheters, wound drains, and injection ports. It should be noted that when powdered latex gloves are changed, latex protein/powder particles get into the air, where they can be inhaled and come in contact with body membranes. Studies have indicated that when unpowdered gloves are worn, there are extremely low levels of the allergy-producing proteins presented

When disposing of contaminated needles, they are placed in a special container using what procedure? A Recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle. B Do not recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle. C Recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe. D Do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe.

The Correct Answer is: D Most needle sticks occur during attempts to recap a needle. Proper disposal of contaminated needles and syringes is becoming more vital as HIV infection, AIDS, and HBV infection reach epidemic proportions. To prevent the spread of any possible infection, handle contaminated materials as little as possible. Therefore, do not attempt to recap a needle; instead, dispose of the entire syringe with the needle attached in the special container that is available.

All the following statements regarding oxygen delivery are true except A oxygen is classified as a drug and must be prescribed by a physician. B the rate of delivery and mode of delivery must be part of a physician order for oxygen. C oxygen may be ordered as continuously or as needed (prn). D none of the above; they are all true.

The Correct Answer is: D None of the statements in the question is false; all are true. Oxygen is classified as a drug and must be prescribed by a physician. The rate and mode of delivery of oxygen must be specified in the physician's orders. It can be ordered to be delivered continuously or as needed

Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension? 1. Obesity 2. Smoking 3. Stress A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1,2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D Normal blood pressure is 110 to 140 mmHg systolic and 60 to 80 mmHg diastolic. High blood pressure (hypertension) is indicated by systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg and diastolic pressure higher than 90 mmHg. Hypertension can be identified as extreme or moderate. Extreme hypertension can result in brain damage within just a few minutes. Moderate hypertension can cause damage to organs: the lungs, kidneys, brain, heart, and so on. Various disease processes can produce hypertension as well as contributing factors such as medications, obesity, smoking, and stress.

All the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true except A for radiography of the kidneys, the CR should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis. B if a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than in the standard PA projection. C chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position. D radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.

The Correct Answer is: D Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the prone position rather than in the routine supine position. The supine position would put unnecessary pressure on the protrusion of the meninges and spinal cord. All the other statements in the question are true. The anatomic dimensions of children are different from those of adults, and this must be kept in mind when performing pediatric radiography. The liver occupies a larger area of the abdominal cavity in a child than in an adult. This causes the kidneys to be in a lower position. Generally, the kidneys will be midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis. Chest radiography for the pediatric patient varies depending on the age of the child. Neonates are routinely radiographed in the supine position. Although infants also may be examined in the supine position, it is preferable to examine them by placing the infant securely in a support device to obtain a good PA erect radiograph. Exceptions to this rule are made if the infant is in respiratory distress. To avoid aggravating the respiratory distress, an erect AP radiograph usually is obtained.

An autoclave is used for A dry heat sterilization. B chemical sterilization. C gas sterilization. D steam sterilization.

The Correct Answer is: D Sterilization is the complete elimination of all living microorganisms, and it can be accomplished by several methods. Pressurized steam, in an autoclave, is probably the most familiar means of sterilization; the pressure allows higher temperatures to be achieved. Gas or chemical sterilization is used for items that are unable to withstand moisture and/or high temperatures. Other methods of sterilization include dry heat, ionizing radiation, and microwaves (nonionizing radiation).

Radiographers should wear gloves when they might come in contact with 1. wounds 2. mucous membrane. 3. body fluids containing blood. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1,2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has established rules that serve to protect health care workers. The CDC states that human blood and certain body fluids must be treated as though they contain pathogenic microorganisms. Therefore health care workers wear gloves whenever they might come in contact with blood, synovial fluid, mucous membrane, CSF, seminal or vaginal fluid, wounds, and any surface or body fluid containing blood. If there is any concern of spray or splash of these body fluids, a gown and eye shields should also be worn.

All drug packages must provide certain information required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Some of the information that must be provided includes 1 the generic name. 2. contraindications. 3. the usual dose. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D The U.S. Food and Drug Administration mandates that certain information be included in every drug package. Some of the information that drug companies are required to provide is trade and generic names, indications and contraindications, usual dose, chemical composition and strength, and any reported side effects.

The cycle of infection includes which of the following components? 1. Reservoir of infection 2. Susceptible host 3. Means of transmission A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D The cycle of infection includes four components: a susceptible host, a reservoir of infection, a pathogenic organism, and a means of transmission. Pathogenic organisms are microscopic and include bacteria, fungi, and viruses. The reservoir of infection is the environment in which the microorganism thrives; this can be the human body. A susceptible host may have reduced resistance to infection. The means of transmission is either direct (i.e., touch) or indirect (i.e., vector, fomite, or airborne).

Symptoms of impending diabetic coma include 1. increased urination. 2. sweet-smelling breath. 3. extreme thirst. A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The Correct Answer is: D When a diabetic patient misses an insulin injection, the body loses its ability to metabolize glucose, and ketoacidosis can occur. If this is not corrected quickly, the patient may become comatose. Symptoms of impending coma include increased urination, sweet (fruity) breath, and extreme thirst. Other symptoms are weakness and nausea.

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to assisting a patient from a wheelchair to an x-ray table? A The wheelchair should be parallel with the x-ray table. B The patient's weaker side should be closer to the x-ray table. C The wheelchair should directly face the X-ray table. D The patient's stronger side should be closer to the x-ray table.

The Correct Answer is: D When helping a patient in or out of a wheelchair, it must first be locked. Then the footrests must be moved up and aside to prevent the patient from tripping over them or tilting the wheelchair forward. The wheelchair should be placed at a 45-degree angle with the x-ray table or bed, with the patient's stronger side closest toward the x-ray table or bed. Once the patient is seated, the footrests should be lowered into place for the patient's comfort

Symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply include 1. dyspnea. 2. cyanosis. 3. retraction of intercostal spaces. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1.2. and 3

The Correct Answer is: D Oxygen is taken into the body and supplied to the blood to be delivered to all body tissues. Any tissue(s) lacking in or devoid of an adequate blood supply can suffer permanent damage or die. Oxygen may be required in cases of severe anemia, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and shock. Symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply include dyspnea, cyanosis, diaphoresis, retraction of intercostal spaces, dilated nostrils, and distension of the veins of the neck. The patient who experiences any of these symptoms will be very anxious and must not be left unattended. The radiographer must call for help, assist the patient to a sitting or semi-Fowler position (the recumbent position makes breathing more difficult), and have oxygen and emergency drugs available.

All the following are rules of good body ergonomics except A keep back straight, avoid twisting B keep the load close to the body C push, do not pull, the load D keep a narrow base of support

The Correct Answer is: D Proper body ergonomics/mechanics can help to prevent painful back injuries by making proficient use of the muscles in the arms and legs. Proper body ergonomics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is the part of the body in touch with the floor or other horizontal plane. The back always should be kept straight; twisting increases the chance of injury. When lifting a load, keep it as close to the body as possible to avoid back strain. Always push a load (such as a mobile x-ray machine) rather than pull it.

type of shock results from loss of blood? A Septic B Neurogenic c Cardiogenic D Hypovolemic

The Correct Answer is: D Shock caused by an abnormally low volume of blood in the body is termed hypovolemic shock. Neurogenic shock can be caused by some kind of trauma to the nervous system, that is, spinal cord injury or extreme psychological stress. Cardiogenic shock is related to the heart and caused by failure of the heart to pump adequate blood to the body's vital organs. Septic shock can result when the body is invaded by bacteria; there are signs of acute septicemia and hypotension

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, no detectable pulse, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should A begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths. B proceed with the Heimlich maneuver. C begin external chest compressions at a rate of 70-80 compressions/min. D begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

The Correct Answer is: D The long tradition of ABC'c (airway, breathing, chest compressions) has been changed to CAB (chest compressions, airway, breathing). If the victim is unable to be roused, the rescuer should start with 30 compressions, at a rate of 100 compressions per minute. The victim's airway should then be opened and rescue breathing begun. This is accomplished by tilting back the head and lifting the chin. However, if the victim may have suffered a spinal cord injury, the spine should not be moved, and the airway should be opened using the jaw-thrust method. The rescuer next listens to breathing sounds and watches for the rise and fall of the chest to indicate breathing. If there is no breathing, the rescuer pinches the victim's nose and delivers two full breaths via mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing.

When considering blood return from the lungs via the pulmonary veins, which of the following statements are true? (select the two that apply) A The blood is well oxygengated B The blood is deoxygenated C The blood enters the right atrium D The blood enters the left atrium

The answer is A and D. Any student preparing for a career in health care should be familiar with the physiology of the heart and the path of blood flow through the organ. Upon return from the pulmonary cycle, the blood will be well oxygenated, as the purpose of the lungs is to exchange oxygen for carbon dioxide (A). It may seem counterintuitive, but only if the student is not classifying veins correctly. Veins are not the vessels that carry deoxygenated blood, they are the vessels that return to the heart (B). The pulmonary veins deliver blood to the left atrium, which empties to the left ventricle (D). The left ventricle pumps blood into the aorta, which begins the somatic cycle. Blood returning from the somatic cycle does so via the superior and inferior vena cava. It enters the right atrium, then to the right ventricle, which pumps blood to the pulmonary arteries, back to where we started just above (C). Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood. They are arteries because they carry blood away from the heart

Which of the following items are categorized as vital signs? (select the four that apply A Blood pressure B Electrocardiograph (ECG or EKG) C Respiratory rate D Pulse rate E Complete blood count (CBC) F Temperature

The answer is A, C, D, and F. Vital signs are measurements taken to assess body functionality. Vital signs include blood pressure (A), respiratory rate (C), pulse rate (D), and temperature (F) measurements. Electrocardiograms (B) and a complete blood count (E) are tests that can be performed on the patient to determine specific irregularities in functionality, such as changes in cardiac activity (ECK/EKG) and red blood cell count (CBC), but are not measures considered vital signs.

From the following list, select 4 appropriate choices for safe lifting of a heavy object from the floor to a table. A Bend your knees and keep your back straight. B Walk toward the table as you lift, to save time. C Lift the object to a standing position, and then walk the object to the table. D Hold your breath as you brace to lift E Bend at the waist. F Keep your feet apart, slightly wider than your shoulders. G Bring the object in close to your body. H Stand slightly to the left or the right of the object and twist as you reach for it.

The answer is A, C, F, and G. Safe lifting and handling techniques are a foundational concept to adopt as a novice student technologist. Preventing back injuries is vital for the longevity of a technologist's career. Proper technique is to get as close as you can to the object, and squared up to it, so that your left and right arms and legs will each lift half the weight (G). Keeping your feet apart widens your base of support and makes you less likely to lose your balance during the lift (F). Bend at the knee and keep the back straight; the back muscles are design for support, while the quadriceps are designed to lift heavy weight(A and E). The lifter should get to a fully upright position before walking with the load, to ensure balance is maintained, and should breathe through the lifting process (B and C). Holding your breath through a lift is a warning sign that the object may be too heavy for an individual lifter; if the lifter proceeds, they may succumb to orthostatic hypotension as they stand (D).

Which of the following devices is used to determine blood oxygenation levels? A Pulse oximeter B Sphygmomanometer C Stethoscope D Cardiac telemeter

The answer is A. A pulse oximeter is a light-emitting probe commonly taped or lightly clamped on the patient's finger. It may also be placed on the patient's foot, toe, earlobe, temple, nose, or forehead. This device determines both the hemoglobin oxygen saturation (SpO2) in the peripheral blood and the pulse rate by measuring absorption of selected wavelengths of light by the circulating blood beneath the skin (A). A sphygmomanometer is a device used to measure the blood pressure in peripheral arteries (B). A stethoscope is a device used to listen to sounds (auscultation) from the heart, lungs, or other organs (C). A cardiac telemeter detects the transmission of radiofrequency signals from cardiac electrical impulses coming from a patient wearing the device to remotely monitor their cardiac activity (D).

A technologist brings the portable machine to the ED, preparing to take a portable chest x-ray on the patient in critical bay 4. As you approach, the nursing assistant is already in the room with a sphygmomanometer at the bedside. What is she about to measure? A Blood pressure B Oxygen concentration in the blood C Respiration exhalation force D Cerebral spinal fluid pressure

The answer is A. Vital signs are a basic skill set expected of all health care professionals. A sphygmomanometer measures blood pressure (A). A pulse oximeter measures oxygen concentration in the blood (B). Respiration exhalation force is not a vital sign, but is part of a recovery regimen for pneumonia and other lower respiratory pathology (C). Cerebral spinal fluid pressure, also not a vital sign, can be measured as part of a lumbar puncture to correlate suspicion of meningitis (D).

To compensate for gerontological body changes, reducing exposure factors would help to compensate for 1. Decreased muscle mass 2. Increased bone density 3. Weight loss 4. Reduced alertness A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 2,3, and 4 only

The answer is B. As patients enter the geriatric stage of life, there are a few common characteristics that may arise: a loss of muscle mass, decreased bone density, reduce mental alertness, and overall weight loss. A reduction in exposure technique may prove beneficial to maintain appropriate receptor exposure and reduce unnecessary dose. Conditions that would require a reduction in technique selection include loss of muscle mass, decreased bone density, and weight loss. Increased bone density and decreased mental alertness would not necessitate a reduction in technique.

Disinfecting agents that function to stop bacterial growth are classified as A bactericidal B bacteriostatic C antiseptics D sterilizers

The answer is B. Bacteriostatics are chemicals that arrest the growth of a bacterial pathogen (B). By contrast, a bactericidal is a chemical agent that kills the single-celled organism (A). Antiseptics are chemical agents that are safe to apply directly to the skin (C). Chemical sterilization agents, such as ethylene oxide,completely removethe presence of pathogens (D).

Emphysema is a destructive pathology, requiring an adjustment in radiographic technique for adequate exposure. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of emphysema? A Barrel-like diameter of chest B Depression of shoulders C Retraction of neck muscles D Wheezing

The answer is B. Emphysema is marked by a loss of elasticity in the lung tissue, preventing adequate exhalation. This causes air to remain in the chest cavity, which increases intrathoracic volume and causes the barrel-like appearance of the chest (A). The increased thoracic diameter also causes an elevation of the shoulders and retraction of cervical muscles (C). The patient can also display symptoms such as wheezing (D) and cyanosis of the lips and fingernails due to decreased oxygen absorption.

Where should a urine drainage bag be in relationship to the patient's bladder? A Above the level of the bladder B Between the patient's legs C Well below the level of the bladder, but not touching the floor D On top of the patient's abdomen

The answer is C. A urinary drainage (collection) bag should be positioned at a point well below the level of the patient's bladder, but not touching the floor (C). This location uses the influence of gravity to drain the urine down into the bag. Placing the bag above the level of the bladder would cause reflux of the drained urine back into the bladder, increasing the chances of infection and inhibiting the drainage of additional urine (A). Placing the bag between the patient's legs is not low enough to enable adequate drainage of urine and the collection tubing may become tangled or kinked under the patient's legs when the patient moves (B). Placing the bag on top of the patient's abdomen, such as when a patient is being transferred from a bed to a stretcher, would allow urine in the bag to reflux back into the bladder, increasing the chances of a bladder infection. The radiographer must resist the temptation to place the bag on the patient's abdomen as a convenient locatio

Which of the following is a medication included in an emergency cart that increases heart rate? 1. Atropine 2. Diphenhydramine 3. Epinephrine A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

The answer is C. Bradycardia refers to a slow, or decreased, heart rate. Conversely, tachycardia refers to a fast, or increased, heart rate. In emergency situations, severe bradycardia may be treated withatropine, an anticholinergic drug, which increases heart rate.Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, also increases heart rate. It may be administered either intramuscularly or intravenously and is used in cases of anaphylactic shock, an adverse reaction that may follow an intravenous injection of a water-soluble iodinated contrast agent (C).Diphenhydramine, also known as Benadryl, is a sedating antihistamine available in oral and parenteral forms. It is administered intramuscularly for moderately severe allergic reactions, which may occur following intravenous injection of water-soluble iodinated contrast media (B). Atropine, diphenhydramine, and epinephrine are included in emergency carts, which are located in medical imaging departments (A and D). Radiographers must be readily prepared to secure the cart and assist with emergency patient care during adverse events.

Cyanosis is blueish hue to the skin due to which of the following? A Decreased blood flow B Increased oxygenation C Decreased oxygenation D Increased blood flow

The answer is C. Skin color is an important quality to observe in patients, as changes during an exam can imply medical emergencies. Skin color can also represent a medical condition. With respiratory illnesses, such as emphysema, the patient might have a blueish hue to their nailbeds and lips called cyanosis. This is indicative of a lack of oxygenation (C). The other answer choices are incorrect as per the previous explanation (A, B, and D)

A radiographer is performing a radiographic procedure and notices that the patient has a labored and difficult breathing pattern. This respiratory pattern indicates which of the following conditions? A Eupnea B Apnea c Hyperventilation D) Dyspnea

The answer is D. Dyspneais labored or difficult breathing and is often associated with hypoventilation, which means slow or shallow respirations (D).Eupnearefers to a normal breathing pattern or respiratory rate, which in a healthy adult should be 12-20 breaths per minute. Healthy children under the age of ten have slightly higher rates of 20-30 breaths per minute, whereas healthy infants may have normal respiratory rates of 30-60 breaths per minute (A).Apnearefers to cessation of breathing, whether it be intermittent such as during sleep apnea or a complete lack of breathing for a prolonged period, which is calledrespiratory arrest, a medical emergency (B).Hyperventilation, also referred to astachypnea, refers to rapid respirations and is usually associated with physical exertion or occurs during stressful or hysterical psychological events (C).

Of the following, which patient(s) would present an increased risk of barium aspiration during an upper GI series? A Stroke patients B Mentally challenged patients C Patients with altered mental status D All the above

The answer is D. Aspiration occurs when a patient inhales a liquid or solid matter through the nose, throat, or trachea into the lungs. Stroke patients may have anoxic or hypoxic damage to a part of the brain that causes dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, thereby increasing the risk of aspiration through an incompletely closed epiglottis (A). Mentally challenged patients may be unable to understand the radiographer's directions and, therefore, may take in a breath at the same time they are drinking barium, thus allowing the barium to enter their lungs through an open epiglottis (B). The same is possible for patients with altered mental status (C). The radiographer must properly assess the patient's condition prior to an upper gastrointestinal procedure and observe closely during the procedure to respond quickly in the event of aspiration. If aspiration occurs, the radiographer should turn the patient on their side immediately and be prepared to assist with suctioning of the airw

Common blood vessels utilized for pulse detection are 1. Radial 2. Parietal 3. Dorsalis pedis 4. Temporal A 2 only B 1 and 4 only C 1, 2, and 3 only D 1,3, and 4 only

The answer is D. Pulse rate can be taken at various locations on the body. While the radial (1) pulse is the most common to measure, it is not always the strongest or easily accessible dependent on the patient's quality or injury (B). Other common pulse locations are the dorsalis pedis (3), located on the instep of the foot; the carotid, beneath the mandibular angle; the temporal pulse (4), located at the temple of the skull; and the apical pulse, located at the apex of the heart (D). There is not a pulse location near the parietal (2) portion of the skull (A and C).

A patient arrives at the ED with a knife wound to the abdomen; the patient's shirt and pants are soaked with blood. The patient's blood pressure has dropped to 90/40 mm Hg and her pulse is 134 bpm. What type of shock is the patient experiencing? A Cardiogenic B Neurologic C iatrogenic D Hypovolemic

The answer is D. Shock is a physiologic reaction that is classified by root causes. Cardiogenic shock manifests as a result of acute cardiac or respiratory pathology, such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolus (A). Neurologic shock is caused by damage to the brain or spinal cord, preventing the transmission of nervous system signals to various body processes (B). Hypovolemic shock, which is the correct answer, is caused by a loss of significant blood volume (D). In this case, the loss of blood was the result of the stab wound. Iatrogenic refers to transmission of infectious pathogens by physician and is not a type of shock (C)

If an inpatient experiences a syncopal episode during a radiographic procedure in the medical imaging department, how should the radiographer respond? 1. Assist the patient into a dorsal recumbent position and elevate their feet and legs above the level of their head 2. Loosen any tight clothing on the patient 3. Apply a moist compress to the patient's forehead and have them remain recumbent until they feel capable of undergoing the remainder of the procedure or returning to their room A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The answer is D. Syncope is a temporary condition of shock due to lack of blood flow to the brain and is considered a minor medical emergency. The radiographer should place the patient in a dorsal recumbent position, either on the floor if the patient was standing or on the radiographic table, stretcher, or bed. The patient's feet should be elevated above the level of the patient's head using supportive devices such as sponges or pillows. Alternatively, if the patient is lying on a tilting radiographic table, the patient's head should be lowered into a Trendelenburg position. This increases the blood flow to the patient's head, which helps to alleviate the syncopal episode. Additionally, by loosening any tight clothing the patient may be wearing, systemic blood can more freely flow from the body into the heart and therefore a larger blood volume can be pumped to the patient's brain. Finally, by placing a cool moist compress on the patient's head, this alleviates stress and assists in the patient's recovery until they feel capable of either completing the procedure or returning to their room (D). The other choices are incorrect as per the previous explanation (A, B, and C).

Air and gas can be used as contrast agents in which of the following procedures? 1. Arthrography 2. Myelography 3. Fluoroscopy A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1,2, and 3

The answer is D. Air and gas provides negative contrast to imaging studies. Since air and gas do not absorb many x-rays, they show up as dark substances during x-ray studies. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is often used as a negative contrast agent. Studies in which a negative contrast agent can be beneficial include GI studies under fluoroscopy (3) and general x-ray, arthrography (1), and myelography (2) (A, B, C, and D)

All the following rules regarding proper hand washing technique are correct except A keep hands and forearms higher than elbows. B use paper towels to turn water off. C wash to 1 inch above the wrists D carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers.

The correct answer is: (A) Frequent and correct hand hygiene is an essential part of medical asepsis; it is the best method for avoiding the spread of microorganisms. If the faucet cannot be operated with the knee or a foot pedal, it should be opened and (especially) closed using paper towels. Care should be taken to wash all surfaces of the hand and between the fingers thoroughly. All hand surfaces should be washed to about 1 inch above the wrists. The hands and forearms always should be lower than the elbows. Unbroken skin prevents the entry of microorganisms. Any exposed break in the skin should be covered with a waterproof protective covering.

The risk of inoculation with HIV is considered high for which of the following entry sites? 1. Broken skin 2. Perinatal exposure 3. Accidental needle stick A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

The correct answer is: (B) The overall chance that a person will become infected with HIV is high with entry sites such as the anus, broken skin, shared needles, infected blood products, and perinatal exposure. Low-risk entry methods include oral and nasal, conjunctiva, and accidental needle stick

During measurement of blood pressure, which of the following occurs as the radiographer controls arterial tension with the sphygmomanometer? A The brachial vein is collapsed. B The brachial artery is temporarily collapsed. C The antecubital vein is monitored. D Oxygen saturation of arterial blood is monitored.

The correct answer is: (B) A stethoscope and a sphygmomanometer are used together to measure blood pressure. The sphygmomanometer's cuff is placed around the midportion of the upper arm. The cuff is inflated to a value higher than the patient's systolic pressure to temporarily collapse the brachial artery. As the inflation is gradually released, the first sound heard is the systolic pressure; the normal range is 110 to 140 mmHg. When no more sound is heard, the diastolic pressure is recorded. The normal diastolic range is 60 to 90 mm Hg. Elevated blood pressure is called hypertension. Hypotension, low blood pressure, is not of concern unless it is caused by injury or disease; in that case, it can result in shock

The term used to describe an individual with a core temperature higher than 100 F: A Pyrexic B Hypoexemic C Anemic D Anaerobic

When a person is running a fever, they are termed "pyrexic" (A), which translates to a temporary increase in normal core temperature (98.6°F). Hypoxemic (B) related to low blood oxygenation, while Anaerobic (D) translates to "without oxygen" and is typically used to describe cellular functions or exercise. Anemic (C) or anemia is a disorder of the red blood cells.

Syncope is a result of 1. A drop in blood pressure 2. A narrowing of blood vessels 3. A decrease in heart rate 4. Increased oxygen to brain tissue (A) 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only Cl 2 and 4 only (D 2, 3, and 4 only

answer is B. Syncope, or fainting, can be a result from shock, decreased food intake due to medical procedure guidelines, pain, or any additional stress placed on the nervous system. A drop in blood pressure (1) can occur due to dilation of the blood vessels combined with a decreased heart rate (3), which results in decreased oxygen supply to brain tissue. Hyperventilation can also cause syncope due to an imbalanced oxygen/carbon dioxide ratio

A radiographer who discloses confidential patient information to unauthorized individuals can be found guilty of A libel. B invasion of privacy. C Slander. D defamation.

b. invasion of privacy A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of invasion of privacy. If the disclosure is in some way detrimental or otherwise harmful to the patient, the radiographer may also be accused of defamation. Spoken defamation is slander; written defamation is libel.

When referencing respiration, which of the following terms is used to describe the amount of air exchanged: A Rhythm B Rate C Depth D Character

c. depth The depth (C) of respiration is a measurement of the amount of air exchanged with each inhalation and exhalation. The rhythm (A) is the pattern of respiration, the rate (B) is the frequency of breaths, and the character (D) details when the respiration is out of the norm. Examples of character differences are increased effort needed for respiration, or a presence of wheezing.

To "excuse" suboptimal images, a radiographer makes a note on the exam requisition claiming that the patient "was uncooperative." That radiographer can legally be found guilty of A battery. B slander. C libel. D tort.

c. libel Battery refers to the unlawful use of force against a person. If a health care professional communicates false information to a third party, that health care professional can be found guilty of defamation. Spoken defamation is slander; written defamation is libel.

Methods of parenteral drug administration include all the following, EXCEPT A topical B subcutaneous C oral D intramuscular E intrathecal

c. oral Drugs and medications may be administered either orally or parenterally (C). Parenteral administration refers to any route other than via the digestive tract and includes topical (i.e., applied to the surface), subcutaneous (i.e., beneath the skin), intradermal (i.e., within the dermis/skin), intramuscular (i.e., within a muscle), intravenous (IV; i.e., within a vein), and intrathecal (i.e., within the spinal canal) administrations (A, B, D, and E).

Which of the following refers to infiltration of a contrast agent into soft tissues during an intravenous injection? A Flocculation B Attenuation C Diaphoresis D Extravasation

d. extravasation During an intravenous injection of a contrast agent, improper insertion of the needle may cause perforation of the vein wall. Therefore, when the fluid is injected, it may infiltrate into the surrounding tissues, a condition also called extravasation. If this occurs, the needle should be withdrawn, and pressure should be applied to the injection site. Moist heat should also be applied to relieve any discomfort (D). Flocculation refers to the clumping of a barium sulfate suspension solution within the patient's alimentary tract, which can mimic pathology or otherwise interfere with an accurate diagnosis (A). Attenuation in radiography refers to the scattering (Compton interaction) and absorption (photoelectric interaction) of x-rays as they pass through a patient (B). Diaphoresis is the medical term for sweating. A patient who is sweating would be described as diaphoretic (C).

A variety of information is utilized to determine a patient's health status and to reach a diagnosis. Some are subjective, like the patient's narrative, their perception of pain, and the physician's bedside observations, as two physicians may come away with two distinct impressions from the same patient interview. Some data are objective, like blood pressure, heart rate, oxygen saturation, and blood glucose level. The use of the word objective here means which of the following? A. Predictable B. Having a "normal" range C. Latent/occult D. Measurable

d. measurable.

Streptococcus pyogenes, Candida albicans, Bordetella pertussis, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are pathogens that cause disease in which body system? A Blood B Genitourinary tract C Skin D Respiratory tract

d. respiratory tract Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat. Candida albicans causes pneumonia and causes thrush in infants. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough. Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis. All of these are diseases that affect the respiratory system (D). Choices (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect as per the previous explanation.

In order to prevent glass fragments from entering a drug, which type of needle is necessary to draw injectables from a glass ampule? A Filtration B Subcutaneous C Intramuscular D Intradermal

filtration