RAD REVIEW: PC1: Ethical And Legal Aspects
Q 33: A radiographer who tells the patient that he or she will have to repeat this uncomfortable examination if the patient does not try harder to cooperate can be accused of A) assault. B) battery. C) false imprisonment. D) defamation.
(A) assault
Q 15: The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following? A) Let the master answer. B) The thing speaks for itself. C) A thing or matter settled by justice. D) A matter settled by precedent.
(B) The thing speaks for itself.
Q 40: Radiographs are the property of the A) radiologist. B) patient. C) health-care institution. D) referring physician.
(C) health-care institution.
Q 5: The legal doctrine "respondeat superior" means which of the following? A) A matter settled by precedent. B) A thing or matter settled by justice. C) The thing speaks for itself. D) Let the master answer.
(D) Let the master answer
The moral principle of preventing harm to a patient is called A. negligence B. nonmaleficence C. veracity D. fidelity
B. nonmaleficence
Q 28: Honor Code violations that can prevent a radiography student from meeting ARRT certification requirements include: 1) Failing one or more courses in the radiography program 2) Being suspended from the radiography program 3) Being dismissed/expelled from a radiography program A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
Q 39: As health care professionals aspire to design their actions to always benefit their patients, to only bring about good for their patients, they are aspiring to what moral principle? A) Beneficence B) Nonmaleficence C) Autonomy D) Veracity
(A) Beneficence
Q 31: The legal doctrine respondeat superior relates to which of the following? A) Let the master answer. B) The thing speaks for itself. C) A thing or matter settled by justice. D) A matter settled by precedent.
(A) Let the master answer.
Q 20:Imaging the incorrect patient qualifies as A) battery B) assault C) false imprisonment D) slander
(A) battery
Q 6: A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of A) invasion of privacy. B) slander. C) libel. D) defamation.
(A) invasion of privacy.
Q 29: If prosecuted by the US Department of Justice, what is the criminal penalty for knowingly disclosing a patient's protected health information (PHI)? A) $100,000 fine B) $50,000 fine and up to 1 year imprisonment C) $100,000 fine and up to 5 years imprisonment D) $250,000 fine and up to 10 years imprisonment
(B) $50,000 fine and up to 1 year imprisonment
Q 38: Patients' rights include which of the following? 1.The right to refuse treatment 2.The right to confidentiality 3.The right to possess his or her radiographs A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Q 30: Which of the following patient rights is violated by discussing privileged patient information with an individual who is not involved with the patient's care?: 1.The right to considerate and respectful care 2.The right to privacy 3.The right to continuity of care A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 2 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
Q 35: Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome? A) Intentional misconduct B) Contributory negligence C) Gross negligence D) Corporate negligence
(B) Contributory negligence
Q 2: Unlawful touching of a person without his or her consent is termed A) assault B) battery C) false imprisonment D) invasion of privacy
(B) battery
Q 8: An RT (ARRT) is the supervising manager of a short-staffed imaging facility in a State having legislation that requires professional certification. A job applicant arrives whose ARRT certification has lapsed. The manager hires him to fill a 20-hour position doing chest and extremity radiography. The supervisor is guilty of A) breaking the ARRT Code of Ethics. B) breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics. C) malpractice. D) nothing, because position responsibilities are limited.
(B) breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics.
Q 25: A radiographer who discloses confidential patient information to unauthorized individuals can be found guilty of A) libel. B) invasion of privacy. C) slander. D) defamation.
(B) invasion of privacy.
Q 21: The moral principle that describes the radiographer's aspiration to do no harm or to allow no act that might cause harm to the patient is termed A) beneficence. B) nonmaleficence. C) autonomy. D) veracity.
(B) nonmaleficence.
Q 23: Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as A) battery B) slander C) libel D) assault
(B) slander
Q 3: For medicolegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include all the following information except A) the patient's name and/or identification number. B) the patient's birth date. C) a right- or left-side marker. D) the date of the examination.
(B) the patient's birth date.
Q 36: Forms of intentional misconduct include 1. slander. 2. invasion of privacy. 3. negligence. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 2 only
Q 7:What are the requirements of a hospital or imaging center regarding patient demographic information that appears on a digital image? 1) Workstations that display images with patient demographic information should be located in controlled access areas of the facility. 2) Technologists should be able to alter information contained in the image file sent to PACS to correct errors without documenting the change. 3) Technologists should be able to change patient information as an error prevention step post processing before sending images to PACS. 4) At a minimum, demographic information should include the following: patient name, DOB, exam date and time, and facility name where the exam was performed. A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 1, 3, and 4 D) 1, 2, and 4
(C) 1, 3, and 4
Q 14: Facsimile transmission of health information is 1. not permitted. 2. permitted for urgently needed patient care. 3. permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Q 26: The ARRT Rules of Ethics are 1. aspirational. 2. mandatory. 3. minimally acceptable standards. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Q 24: Which ethical principle is related to sincerity and truthfulness? A) Beneficence B) Autonomy C) Veracity D) Fidelity
(C) Veracity
Q 9: To "excuse" suboptimal images, a radiographer makes a note on the exam requisition claiming that the patient "was uncooperative." That radiographer can legally be found guilty of A) battery. B) slander. C) libel. D) tort.
(C) libel.
Q 4: The ethical principle that aspires never to, above all, do harm describes A) fidelity. B) veracity. C) nonmalficence. D) beneficence.
(C) nonmalficence.
Q 27: A radiographer has recently joined your staff. You are aware that this individual has had her ARRT certification revoked. Realizing that your state requires certification, you speak to a supervisor about the matter. Your supervisor replies that he knows but made an exception "because we are so short staffed." You should A) report this to the next supervisor in charge. B) report this to the facility administrator. C) report this directly to the ARRT. D) do and/or say nothing.
(C) report this directly to the ARRT.
Q 1: A signed consent form is necessary prior to performing all the following procedures except A) myelogram. B) cardiac catheterization. C) upper GI series. D) interventional vascular procedure.
(C) upper GI series
Q 10: The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the 1. advance health care directive 2. .living will. 3. health care proxy. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Q 12: A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations? Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination Performing an examination on the wrong patient A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Q 16: Which of the following must be included in the patient's medical record or chart? 1.Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2.Medical history 3.Informed consent A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Q 22: For which of the following can a radiographer be found liable for a negligent tort? Radiographer images the wrong forearm. Patient is injured while being positioned on the x-ray table. Radiographer fails to question patient about possible pregnancy before performing x-ray examination. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Q 32: Which of the following must be included in a patient's medical record or chart? 1) Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2) Medical history 3) Informed consent A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Q 19: You receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left fourth and fifth metatarsals; however, the requisition asks for a left ankle examination. What should you do? A) Perform a left foot examination. B) Perform a left ankle examination. C) Perform both a left foot and a left ankle examination. D) Check with the referring physician.
(D) Check with the referring physician.
Q 37: You are working in the outpatient department and receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the right hip joint; however, the requisition asks for a left femur examination. What should you do? A) Perform a right hip examination. B) Perform a left femur examination. C) Perform both a right hip and a left femur examination. D) Check with the referring physician.
(D) Check with the referring physician.
Q 11: Joseph Luckett Jr, is a competent second-year student. He has been imaging patients under indirect supervision for most of the day. All CR images are viewed at the workstation on the computer monitor, before being sent to the radiologist. After taking posteroanterior (PA) and lateral chest projections on a patient with a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test, Joseph notices that he has "clipped" the apices on the PA projection. As per the policy of the department and program, he must consult with a technologist before repeating any images. The technologist takes a quick glance at his image and says, "It looks fine. Send it." "But what about the apices?" Joseph asks. He knows that imaging the apices is extremely important in suspected cases of TB. The technologist does not take a second look. "That's okay. It's just a routine. Send it." What is the most appropriate immediate action for Joseph to take? A) Ignore the technologist's advice and repeat the PA view. B) Send the images as suggested by the technologist. C) Send the images but, without informing the technologist, add the following comment: "Technologist advised against a repeat." D) Explain the clinical history to the technologist and stress that he is uncomfortable sending a suboptimal study.
(D) Explain the clinical history to the technologist and stress that he is uncomfortable sending a suboptimal study.
Q 18: What is the appropriate action if a patient has signed consent for a procedure but, once on the radiographic table, refuses the procedure? A) Proceed—the consent form is signed. B) Send the patient back to his or her room. C) Honor the patient's request and proceed with the next patient. D) Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient's request.
(D) Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient's request.
Q 13: All the following are part of the Patient's Bill of Rights except the right to A) participate in proposed research studies. B) continuity of care. C) considerate and respectful care. D) review any institutional records.
(D) review "any" institutional records.
A device used to restrict the free movement of a patient or a body part during the performance of a medical imaging exam is: A. Classified as immobilization, is meant to be temporary, and does not require a separate physician's order. B. Classified as a restraint, can remain in place after the exam is over, and does not require a physician's order. C. Not recommended for use with pediatric patients. D. Can be utilized in place of effective communication with the patient to reduce total exam time.
A. Classified as immobilization, is meant to be temporary, and does not require a separate physician's order.
Which of the following apply to informed consent? (select the three that apply) A, Patients who sign their own informed consent must be competent to do so B. Parents and legal guardians can sign informed consent for minors C. Consent is transferrable between providers (i.e., if a patient signs consent and the provider of the procedure changes, they can still use the signed consent form) D. All areas of the consent form must be filled out prior to patient and/or guardian signing E. Patients cannot refuse care after signing informed consent
A. Patients who sign their own informed consent must be competent to do so B. Parents and legal guardians can sign informed consent for minors D. All areas of the consent form must be filled out prior to patient and/or guardian signing
According to the AHA's Patient Care Partnership, a patient considering options for treatment should be provided which 3 of the following 6 pieces of information: A. The benefits and risks of each treatment. B. Details regarding outcomes of other patients who have had the same treatments. C. The institution's liability insurance policy. D. Whether the treatment is part of a research study. E. Financial obligations for utilizing an uncovered treatment option. F. A record of recent medical errors at the facility that involved the treatments being considered.
A. The benefits and risks of each treatment. D. Whether the treatment is part of a research study. E. Financial obligations for utilizing an uncovered treatment option.
Which of the following are aspects of informed consent: (choose 3) A. The provider must discuss the procedure/treatment with the patient and describe what it will entail B. Alternative procedures and treatments are presented and discussed C. Information on informed consent documents can be filled out after the patient has provided a signature D. The patient must be informed of any risks associated with the procedure or treatment
A. The provider must discuss the procedure/treatment with the patient and describe what it will entail B. Alternative procedures and treatments are presented and discussed D. The patient must be informed of any risks associated with the procedure or treatment
An Advanced Health Care Directive, or living will, is in effect when: A. One physician has verified that the patient cannot make medical decisions on their own B. The patient's condition complies with the state's living will law C. Physical conditions have improved but were previously such that the patient could not make health care decisions D. The patient is of sound mind but refuses treatment
B. The patient's condition complies with the state's living will law
Which of the following situations would be considered an act of health care fraud? A. Sharing information about a patient's condition with an individual not involved in the patient's care B. Performing a radiographic procedure without the patient's permission C. Erasing a CR image plate to cover up a mistake of performing an x-ray procedure on the wrong body part D. Restraining a patient against their will
C. Erasing a CR image plate to cover up a mistake of performing an x-ray procedure on the wrong body part
A patient undergoing a routine radiographic exam of the shoulder has a few questions for the technologist post exam. The patient's orthopedic surgeon has scheduled them for a contrast MR study of the shoulder joint, post arthrogram. The patient is nervous about the MR procedure and wants to know what it's like, having never had one before. The technologist should do which of the following? A. Tell the patient about their cousin who suffers from claustrophobia and how her MR exam was a nightmare B. Explain how the MR scanner will use high frequency sound waves and capture the echo created by the tissues of the shoulder to create an image C. Explain that while there is a strong magnetic field in the MR exam, the staff carefully screens patients as part of a strict safety protocol and that the most troubling part is typically the noise, as the machine makes a jackhammer sound during imaging D. Explain that the patient will be injected with a small dose of radioactive isotope and gamma emissions will be captured by a scintillator and an array of photomultiplier tubes
C. Explain that while there is a strong magnetic field in the MR exam, the staff carefully screens patients as part of a strict safety protocol and that the most troubling part is typically the noise, as the machine makes a jackhammer sound during imaging
Which of the following patient identifiers is not considered protected information: A. Address B. Date of Birth C. Medical Record Number D. Social Security Number
C. Medical Record Number
Q 34: All the following are part of the patient's bill of rights except A) the right to refuse treatment. B) the right to review one's records. C) the right to order an x-ray procedure. D) the right to have an advance directive.
C. the right to order an x-ray procedure.
the term "health care proxy" is synonymous with: a) living will b) DNR c) Power of attorney d) AHA
c) Power of Attorney
