RAD tech exam part 4 procedures

105. In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A)

106. All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position? (A) AP (B) Lateral (C) Acute flexion (D) AP partial flexion

(A)

117. Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include 1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 ouly (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A)

124. Narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric croup, can be best visualized in the (A) AP projection (B) lateral projection (C) axial projection (D) lordotic projection

(A)

128. Structures located proximal to the carpal bones include (A) distal interphalangeal joints (B) proximal interphalangeal joints (C) metacarpals (D) radial styloid process

(A)

131. The most proximal portion of the pharynx is the (A) laryngopharynx (B) nasopharynx (C) epiglottis (D) oropharynx

(A)

132. With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20° cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized? (A) Symphysis (B) Rami (C) Body (D) Angle

(A)

133. During IV urography, the prone position is gener- ally recommended to demonstrate 1. ureteral filling 2. the renal pelvis 3. superior calyces (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1,2, and 3

(A)

134. The plane passing vertically through the body and dividing it into anterior and posterior halves is the (A) median sagittal plane (MSP) (B) midcoronal plane (C) sagittal plane (D) transverse plane

(A)

142. Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following, except when (A) object shape does not coincide with the shape of x-ray beam (B) object plane is not parallel with x-ray tube and/or IR (C) anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR (D) anatomic object(s) of interest is/are at a distance from the IR

(A)

143. Patients are instructed to remove all jewlery, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in (A) sonography (B) computed tomography (CT) (C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) nuclear medicine

(A)

144. The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR 2. MSP perpendicular to the IR 3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1,2, and 3

(A)

145. The radiograph shown in Figure 2-25 was most likely made in the following position: (A) supine recumbent (B) prone recumbent (C) PA upright (D) supine Trendelenburg

(A)

150. The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions? (A) Right iliac (B) Left iliac (C) Right lumbar (D) Hypogastric

(A)

152. A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is (A) Ewing sarcoma (B) multiple myeloma (C) enchondroma (D) osteochondroma

(A)

153. With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the (A) Trendelenburg position (B) Fowler position (C) decubitus position (D) Sims position

(A)

156. Which of the following is/are located on the anterior aspect of the femur? 1. Patellar surface 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Linea aspera (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A)

157. In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadri- ceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? 1. Supine flexion 45° (Merchant) 2. Prone flexion 90° (Settegast) 3. Prone flexion 55° (Hughston) (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 only

(A)

166. Which aspect(s) of the scapula are demonstrated in Figure 2-29? 1. Its posterior aspect 2. Its costal surface 3. Its sternal articular surface (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A)

168. Which of the following is represented by the number 9 in Figure 2-29? (A) Medial border (B) Lateral border (C) Inferior angle (D) Superior angle

(A)

171. Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position? (A) Hepatic/right colic flexure (B) Splenic/left colic flexure (C) Sigmoid colon (D) Ileocecal valve

(A)

174. In the PA axial oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the (A) intervertebral foramina nearest the IR (B) intervertebral foramina furthest from the IR (C) interarticular joints (D) intervertebral joints

(A)

176. In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed. 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed. 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A)

179. The AP axial projection of the cervical spine demonstrates the following: 1. C3-C7 cervical bodies 2. Intervertebral foramina 3. Zygapophyseal joints (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A)

182. Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is (A) respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx (B) crushed tracheal rings owing to trauma (C) respiratory pathway closure owing to inflammation and swelling (D) all of the above

(A)

185. For the average patient. the CR for a lateral projection of a barium filled stomach should enter (A) midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface (B) midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen (C) at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest (D) perpendicular to the level of L2

(A)

190. The structure labeled1 in Figure 2-32 is the (A) zygapophyseal joint (B) intervertebral foramen (C) intervertebral disc space (D) vertebral body

(A)

194. Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following? (A) AP projection, left lateral decubitus position (B) AP projection, right lateral decubitus position (C) PA recumbent position (D) AP recumbent position

(A)

195. Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle? (A) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins (B) Arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venules (C) Veins, venules, capillaries, arteries, arterioles (D) Venules, veins, capillaries, arterioles, arteries

(A)

102. Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture? (A) Pyelonephrosis (B) Nephroptosis (C) Hydronephrosis (D) Cystourethritis

(B)

103. Important considerations for radiographic exam- inations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies 3. two views, at 90° to each other, are required (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

110. In the PA projection of the hand seen in Figure 2-19, which numeral identifies the head of the fifth metacarpal? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

(B)

111. In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head? (A) AP (B) External rotation (C) Internal rotation (D) Neutral position

(B)

112. With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated? (A) Patella (B) Patellofemoral articulation (C) Intercondyloid fossa (D) Tibial tuberosity

(B)

114. Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? 1. Condyloid 2. Sellar 3. Gomphosis (A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1,2, and 3

(B)

116. What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in Figure 2-22? (A) Use a perpendicular CR (B) Angle the CR about 30° cephalad (C) Angle the CR about 30° caudad (D) Angle the MSP 15° toward the affected side

(B)

121. The long, flat structures that project from the pedicles are the posteromedially (A) transverse processes (B) vertebral arches (C) laminae (D) pedicles

(B)

123. The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is (A) PA projection wrist, radial deviation (B) PA axial projection wrist, Stecher method (C) AP oblique hands/Norgaard method (D) tangential projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method

(B)

125. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the images shown in Figure 2-23? 1. Image A was made with cephalad angulation 2. Image B was made with caudal angulation 3. Images A and B were made with CR 15° cephalad (A) I only (B) I and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

136. The number 2 in Figure 2-24 indicates (A) body of 12 (B) spinous process of L1 (C) spinous process of L3 (D) transverse process of 13

(B)

139. Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dor- soplantar projection of the foot? (A) Invert the foot (B) Evert the foot (C) Angle the CR 10° posteriorly (D) Angle the CR 10° anteriorly

(B)

146. A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following? 1. Sacral vertebrae 2. Thoracic vertebrae 3. Lumbar vertebrae (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(B)

147. To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers (A) rest on the IR for immobilization (B) must be supported parallel to the IR (C) are radiographed in natural flexion (D) are radiographed in palmar flexion

(B)

151. Which of the following is/are true regarding radio- graphic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints 3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

(B)

155. Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to the radiograph shown in Figure 2-26? 1. The acromion process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib 2. This projection is performed to evaluate the scapula 3. This projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only

(B)

158. In Figure 2-27, the structure indicated as number 2 is which of the following? (A) Neck of rib (B) Tubercle of rib (C) Transverse process (D) Head of rib

(B)

159. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projec- tion of the chest for lungs? 1. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders 2. Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm 3. The esophagus is visible in the midline (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1,2, and 3

(B)

160. In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized? (A) Dorsoplantar projection of the foot (B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis (C) Medial oblique position of the foot (D) Lateral foot

(B)

162. The position illustrated in the radiograph in Figure 2-28 may be obtained with the patient 1. supine and the CR angled 30° caudad 2. supine and the CR angled 30° cephalad 3. prone and the CR angled 30° cephalad (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

(B)

173. What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient? (A) High and vertical (B) High and horizontal (C) Low and vertical (D) Low and horizontal

(B)

180. With which of the following does the trapezium articulate? (A) Fifth metacarpal (B) First metacarpal (C) Distal radius (D) Distal ulna

(B)

184. For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? 1. Patency of the biliary ducts 2. Biliary tract calculi 3. Duodenal calculi (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1,2, and 3

(B)

186. When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? 1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular (A) I only (B) I and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

192. Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? 1. Clavicular body 2. Acromioclavicular joint 3. Sternocostal joint (A) I only (B) I and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

198. Causes of death in 70% of people older than 65 years include 1. stroke 2. heart disease 3. digestive disorders (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

199. Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? (A) Appendicitis (B) Intussusception (C) Regional enteritis (D) Ulcerative colitis

(B)

101. Elements of correct positioning for PA projection of the chest include 1. weight evenly distributed on feet 2. elevation of the chin 3. shoulders elevated and rolled forward (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

107. The term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is (A) hemoptysis (B) hematemesis (C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) (D) bronchitis

(C)

115. Which of the following carpal(s) is best demon- strated by ulnar flexion/deviation? 1. Medial carpals 2. Lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

118. In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin? (A) Closed (B) Compound (C) Compression (D) Depressed

(C)

120. Which of the following is/are recommended in order to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lum- bosacral region? 1. Close collimation 2. Lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. Decreased SID (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1,2, and 3

(C)

122. Which type of ileus is characterized by cessation of peristalsis? (A) Mechanical (B) Paralytic (C) Asymptomatic (D) Sterile

(C)

129. The following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is/are true: 1. the midsagittal plane should be about 60° to the IR 2. the scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft 3. an oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

130. The following position is used to demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation: (A) AP (B) lateral (C) 30° RPO (D) 45° LPO

(C)

135. To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45° (A) toward the affected side (B) away from the affected side (C) with the arm at the side in the anatomic position (D) with the arm in external rotation

(C)

138. Central ray angulation may be required for 1. magnification of anatomic structures 2. foreshortening or self-superimposition 3. superimposition of overlying structures (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and3

(C)

140. Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm require that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly (A) 1 only (B) I and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

148. That portion of long bones where lengthening growth takes place is the (A) diaphysis (B) epiphysis (C) metaphysis (D) apophysis

(C)

149. How should a mobile chest examination be per- formed to demonstrate air-fluid levels on a patient seated semi-upright about 70°? (A) With CR directed 20° caudad (B) With CR directed 20° cephalad (C) With CR parallel to the floor (D) With CR perpendicular to coronal plane

(C)

161. In the lateral projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized 2. talofibular joint is visualized 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

163. All the following positions are likely to be used for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel, except (A) lateral rectum (B) AP axial rectosigmoid (C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen (D) RAO and LAO abdomen

(C)

165. During atrial systole, blood flows into the 1. right ventricle via the mitral valve 2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve 3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

167. Which of the following is represented by the number 2 in Figure 2-29? (A) Acromion process (B) Superior angle (C) Coracoid process (D) Apex

(C)

169. With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting image will demonstrate the petrous pyramids (A) below the orbits (B) in the lower third of the orbits (C) completely within the orbits (D) above the orbits

(C)

175. During chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

178. To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in Figure 2-31, the radiographer should (A) flex the knee more acutely (B) flex the knee less acutely (C) direct the CR 5°-7° cephalad (D) direct the CR 5°-7° caudad

(C)

181. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. The OML is elevated 15° from the horizontal 2. The petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits 3. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

187. Which of the following is/are appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts 2. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient 3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

188. Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the parellofemoral articulation? (A) AP knee (B) Lateral knee (C) Tangential patella (D) Tunnel view

(C)

191. Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux? (A) Retrograde urogram (B) Intravenous urogram (IVU) (C) Voiding cystourethrogram (D) Retrograde cystogram

(C)

193. In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated? (A) AP (B) Lateral oblique (C) Medial oblique (D) Lateral

(C)

200. With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the IR, the OML forming a 37° angle with CR perpendicular and exiting the of the following is best demonstrated? acanthion, which the IR, and the (A) Occipital bone (B) Frontal bone (C) Facial bones (D) Basal foramina

(C)

104. All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true, except (A) the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination (B) retained fecal material can obscure pathology (C) single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions (D) double-contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions

(D)

108. Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the (A) position of the organ (B) size and shape of the organ (C) diverticula (D) gastric or bowel mucosa

(D)

109. Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially? (A) AP (B) External rotation (C) Internal rotation (D) Neutral position

(D)

113. Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in Figure 2-21? (A) Maxillary sinus (B) Coronoid process (C) Zygomatic arch (D) Coracoid process

(D)

119. The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demon- strated with the (A) coronal plane 90° to the IR (B) midsagittal plane 90° to the IR (C) coronal plane 20° to the IR (D) midsagittal plane 20° to the IR

(D)

126. Which body habitus type is characterized by a short and wide heart and lung area and a high transverse stomach? (A) Asthenic (B) Hyposthenic (C) Sthenic (D) Hypersthenic

(D)

127. Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine? (A) Oblique cervical spine, seated (B) AP cervical spine, recumbent (C) Horizontal beam lateral (D) Laterals in flexion and extension

(D)

137. During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized in the AP recumbent position? (A) Transverse colon (B) Descending colon (C) Ascending colon (D) Left and right colic flexures

(D)

141. Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace? (A) Patient AP with 30°-35° angle cephalad (B) Patient AP with 30°-35° angle caudad (C) Patient AP with 0° angle (D) Patient lateral, coned to L5

(D)

154. The following skull position will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odont- oid process: (A) AP axial (B) lateral (C) parietoacanthial (D) submentovertical (SMV)

(D)

164. Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position," is/are correct? 1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained 2. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis 3. The hands are obliqued about 45°, palm up (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D)

170. When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skuli with a 15° caudal angle, the following should be demonstrated: 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids (A) 1 and 2 only (B) I and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1,2, and 3

(D)

172. The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the (A) costal margin (B) umbilicus (C) xiphoid tip (D) fourth lumbar vertebra

(D)

177. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Figure 2-30? 1. It demonstrates RAO sternum 2. Exposure was made during shallow respiration 3. Sternum is projected in the left thorax (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D)

183. During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on 1. the respiratory phase 2. body habitus 3. patient position (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1,2, and 3

(D)

189. The structure labeled 4 in Figure 2-32 is the (A) anterior arch of C1 (B) body of C1 (C) body of C2 (D) odontoid process

(D)

196. Which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition? (A) AP (B) Lateral (C) Medial oblique (D) Lateral oblique

(D)

197. An acromioclavicular separation will be best demonstrated in the following projection: (A) AP recumbent, affected shoulder (B) AP recumbent, both shoulders (C) AP erect, affected shoulder (D) AP erect, both shoulders

(D)