Rads 465 RR #1
If the objective is to produce two radiographs with the same density, solve for the missing factor in the second set of factors. 200 mA, 1/10 sec., 80 kVp, 100 speed screens, 8:1 grid to ______mA, 1/20 sec., 68 kVp, 200 speed screens, 16:1 grid A. 600 B. 800 C. 500 D. 3 E. 113
600
Determine the missing factor that will produce the same density as the original set of exposure factors: 200 mA, .70second, 100 kVp, 5:1 grid, 72 inch SID, to 400 mA, ______second, 115kVp, non-grid, 50 inch SID A. .02 second B. .04 second C. .10 second D. .20 second E. .30 second
.04 second
If the objective is to produce two radiographs with the same density, solve for the missing factor in the second set of factors. 100 mA, .50 sec., 55 kVp, 100 speed screen, 50" SID to 50 mA,_______sec., 63 kVp, 200 speed screen, 40 " SID A. .32 B. .16 C. .12 D. 8
.16
An exposure of 400 mA, .05 sec. at 90 kV is made at a 100 cm SID. What new time setting can be used to maintain the film density at a 200 cm SID? a. .025 sec. b. .10 sec. c. .20 sec. d. .40 sec.
.20 sec
As a radiographer you are ask to produce a radiograph that will result in the greatest amount of recorded detail. Which of the following focal spot sizes would produce your objective? A. 1.5 mm B. 1.8 mm C. .3 mm D. .3 cm
.3 mm
The dose equivalent limit during pregnancy is _____________ rem with respect to the embryo/fetus for the gestation period. a. .001 B. 5 C. .5 D. .05
.5
The lead apron shall have a minimum amount of lead content equivalent to_____mm of lead. A. 0.25 B. 0.5 C. 0.75 C. 0.75 E. 1.5
0.5
Exposed CR imaging plates should be processed within _____ hour(s) to avoid any loss of image quality because of fading. A. 1 B. 5 C. 24 D. 48
1
The amount of size distortion in an object is affected by: 1. source image receptor distance 2. object image-receptor distance 3. focal spot size a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 & 2 only e. 1, 2, & 3
1 & 2 only
The advantages of beam restriction include: 1. less scattered radiation is produced 2. less biological material is irradiated 3. less total filtration will be necessary A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
1 and 2 only
The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates: 1. an oblique projection of the shoulder 2. anterior or posterior dislocation 3. a lateral projection of the shoulder a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
1 and 2 only
Which of the following should be considered to determine the contrast medium dosage for pediatric intravenous urography? 1. patient age 2. patient weight 3. patient gender A. 1 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct? 1. spinal puncture can be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position 2. contrast medium distribution is regulated through table angulation 3. the patien's head must be in acute flexion during trendelenburg positions a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
1 and 2 only
Which of the following has (have) an effect on recorded detail? 1. focal spot size 2. type of rectification 3. source-image-distance A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
1 and 3 only
A radiograph of the kidneys is obtained during an IVP exam utilizing the following exposure factors: 50 mAs, 70 kV, 200 speed screens, 40" SID, 8:1 grid and a 1.2 mm focal spot If mAs was reduced to 25, which of the following would be decreased? 1. density 2. contrast 3. distortion 4. penumbra A. 1 & 2 B. 1 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2, & 3 E. 1, 2, 3, & 4
1 only
Foreshortening may be caused by: 1. the radiographic object being placed at an angle to the film 2. excessive distance between the object and the image receptor 3. insufficient distance between the focus and the film a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1, 2, and 3
1 only
Which of the following examinations require(s) catheterization of the ureters? 1. retrograde urogram 2. cystogram 3. voiding cystogram a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
1 only
Which is a common method of the indirect spread of infectious agents? (1) air transmission (2) fomite transmission (3) vector transmission a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 & 3 only e. 1, 2 & 3
1, 2 & 3
Advantages of digital radiography (computed radiography) include which of the following: 1. compensate for exposure factors 2. make changes in contrast characteristics 3. improve geometric detail (recorded detail) 4. store images in binary form a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 4 only e. 1, and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recembent projection of a stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate: 1. barium-filled fundus 2. double-contrast body and antral protions 3. retrogastric portion of the duodenum a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
1, 2, and 3
In the medial oblique projection of the ankle, the: 1. tibofibular joint is visualized 2. talotibial joint is visualized 3. plantar surface should be vertical a. 1 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
1, 2, and 3
Methods of reducing radiation exposure to patients and/or personnel include: 1. Beam restriction 2. Shielding 3. high kv, low mAs factors A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
1, 2, and 3
Which of the following can communicate specific message to the patient? 1. tone of voice 2. eye contact 3. appearance of radiographer a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
1, 2, and 3
Which of the following is (are) important for patient protection during fluoroscopic procedures? 1. intermittent fluoroscopy 2.Fluoroscopic field size 3. Source to table distance A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
1,2, and 3
A person receives an exposure of 10 R/min. at a 300 cm Source-skin-distance (SSD). What is this person's exposure if the distance were increased to a 700 cm SSD? a. 1.2 R/min. b. 1.8 R/min. c. 4.3 R/min. d. 23.3 R/min.
1.8 R/min
In reviewing your personnel monitoring report you decide there is a need to reduce your occupational exposure. As a radiographer subscribing to the ALARA concept you decide to reduce your time spent in fluoroscopy to one-half and standing twice as far from the source, Your occupational exposure for fluoroscopy would be reduced to ____ of the original. A. 2 B. 1/4 C. 1/8 D. 0.1%
1/8
A patient had an injury to the metatarsals of the right foot. The foot is positioned with the plantar surface in contact with the IR. How is the central ray directed to better demonstrate the metatarsal joint spaces of the midfoot? a. 10 degrees toward the calcaneus b. 15 degrees toward the calcaneus c. 10 degrees toward the distal toes d. perpendicular to the metatarsals
10 degrees toward the calcaneus
Determine the missing factor that will produce the same density as the original set of exposure factors: 1200 mA, 1/60 second, 70 kV, 12:1 grid, 200 speed screens to __________mA, 1/15 second, 80 kV, 6:1 grid, 100 speed screens, Patient is 5 years old A. 100 mA B. 200 mA C. 300 mA D. 400 mA E. 600 mA
100 mA
You are a new radiographer and ask to sign or initial your first ann cumulative personnel monitoring report. The radiographer must make sure the DOSE EQUIVALENT LIMIT reported is less than: A. 100 millirems/week B. 1 rem/week C. 0.5 rem/week D. 1 rem/year
100 millirems/week
All tube housings must be constructed so that leakage radiation at a distance of 1 meter from the target cannot exceed ___ when the tube is operated at any of its specified ratings. A. 1 mr/hr. B. 10 mr/hr. C. 100 mr/hr. D. 1 R/hr. E. 10 r/hr.
100 mr/hr.
The dose equivalent limit for the general public who are continuously or frequently exposed is: a. A. 100 mrem/yr b. B. 10 mrem/yr c. C. 5000 mrem/yr d. D. 50 mrem/yr
100 mrem/yr
What is the dose equivalent if the dose is 5 rads of Alpha radiation.? A. 5 rads B. 20 rads C.100 rads D. 20 rem E. 100 rem
100 rem
If the objective is to produce two radiographs with the same density, solve for the missing factor in the second set of factors. 200 mA, .10 sec., 75 kVp, 5:1 grid to 200 mA, .25 sec., 75 kVp,______grid A. non-grid B. 12:1 C. 6:1 D. 5:1
12:1
In the posteroanterior projection of the sinuses (Caldwell) in order to have the central ray exit at the nasion, it is directed ____ to the orbitomeatal line. a. 10 degrees caudad b. 15 degrees caudad c. 23 degrees caudad d. 37 degrees cephalic
15 degrees caudad
Employing a fixed kVp technique chart, determine the following change: 66 kVp, 25 mAs, 15 cm thickness to 66 kvp, 37.5 mAs,____cm thickness A. 9 B. 21 C. 18 D. 15
18
A patient is having a cystogram. For the AP Axial projection, at what transverse level does the central ray enter the patient? a. at the iliac crest b. at the ASIS c. at the symphysis pubis d. 2 inches superior to the symphysis pubis
2 inches superior to the symphysis pubis
In what order should the following exams be performed? 1. upper GI 2. IVU 3. Barium Enema A. 3, 1, 2 B. 1, 3, 2 C. 2, 1, 3 D. 2, 3, 1
2, 3, 1
Place the following in proper sequence for image intensified fluoroscopy. 1. electron to light 2. x-ray to light 3. light to electron 4. focusing of electrical signal
2, 3, 4, 1
Federal law requires aluminum filters in the path of the primary beam. The thickness of these filters is: A. 1 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 2.5 mm D. 3 mm
2.5 mm
1 R = A. 3.7 x 10 to the10th ionizations/sec B. 2.08 x 10 to the 9th C/kg C. 2.58 x 10 to-4power ionizations/sec D. 2.58 X 10-4power C/kg
2.58 X 10-4power C/kg
You have just completed a radiograph which demonstrates a lesion measuring 30 cm at the widest diameter. The radiograph was taken 40 cm from the source using a SID of 60 cm. The size of the actual object was: A. 20 cm. B. 40 cm. C. 50 cm D. 60 cm
20 cm
Which of the following sets of exposure factors will produce the greatest contrast? a. 200 mA, .25 sec., 80 kVp, 6:1grid b. 200 mA, .25 sec., 80 kVp, 12:1grid c. 400 mA, .15 sec., 90 kVp, 8:1grid d. 400 mA, .15 sec., 90 kVp, 10:1 grid
200 mA, .25 sec., 80 kVp, 12:1grid
In the anteroposterior oblique projection of the sacroiliac joints, the joint space is best visualized when the patient is rotated ______ to the plane of the film. a. 15 degrees b. 25 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 70 degrees
25 degrees
A secondary barrier primarily protects the technologist from which of the following types of radiation? 1. leakage radiation 2. Primary radiation 3. Scattered radiation A. 2 B. 3 C. 2 &3 D. 1, 2, & 3
3
The FDA requires that the x-ray field and the light field be aligned within + or -____ of the SID. a. .30 b. 3% c. .10 d. 10% e. 2% f. 5%
3%
Which of the following sets of technical factors will produce the greatest density? a. 400mA, .1sec., 84kVp, 100 speed screen b. 200 mA, .1sec., 92 kVp, 50 speed screen c. 300 mA, .25sec., 82kVp, 100 speed screen d. 100mA, .25sec., 94 kvp, 50 speed screen
300 mA, .25sec., 82kVp, 100 speed screen
The LD 50/30 for humans is closest to: A. 100 rads B. 200 rads C. 300 rads D. 500 rads
300 rads
If the objective is to produce two radiographs with the same density, solve for the missing factor in the second set of factors. 150 mAs, 100 speed screen, 60" SID to ____mAs, 200 speed screens, 40" SID A. 75 B. 150 C. 33.3 D. 66.6
33.3
The radiographer positions the patient for the AP Axial projection: Butterfly position for the BE examination. What is the central ray direction and angulation for this position? a. 35 degrees cephalic b. 35 degrees caudal c. perpendicular to the ASIS d. perpendicular and 2 inches distal to the ASIS
35 degrees cephalic
A spin-top test is made on a fully rectified x-ray at a 1/30 sec. exposure. How many dots should appear? a. 2 dots b. 4 dots c. 6 dots d. 12 dots
4 dots
A radiation worker receives an exposure of 5 mR/hr. at a 200 cm from the source. In order to reduce this exposure to 1.25 mR/hr., he/she should stand _____from the source: a. 50 cm b. 100 cm c. 400 cm d. 800 cm
400 cm
A satisfactory radiograph is made at a 100 cm SID using 400 mA, .05 sec., 82 kV exposure. What factors will produce a similar radiographic density if a 140 cm SID is employed? a. 400 mA, .03 sec., 82 kV b. 400 mA, .08 sec., 82 kV c. 400 mA, .18 sec., 82 kV d. 400 mA, .24 sec., 82 kV e. 400 mA, .098 sec., 82 kV
400 mA, .098 sec., 82 kV
A technique of 400 mA, 1/20 sec., 70 kVp, 40" FFD was used for a film using a 200 speed screen. In order to maintain the same density, which of the following factors would mostly likely be used with a 100 speed screen? A. 400 mA, 1/40 sec., 70 kVp, 40" SID B. 400 mA, 1/10 sec., 70 kVp, 40" SID C. 200 mA, 1/10 sec., 70 kVp, 40" SID D. 100 mA, 1/10 sec., 70 kVp, 40" SID
400 mA, 1/10 sec., 70 kVp, 40" SID
Which of the following would deliver the least amount of exposure to the patient? A. 400 ma, 0.25 sec, 90 kVp B. 600 mA, .33 sec, 90 kVp C. 800 mA, .5 sec, 90 kVp D. 800 mA, 1 sec, 90 kVp
400 ma, 0.25 sec, 90 kVp
You are requested to perform a cross table lateral hip. Which of the following grids ratios would absorb least amount of secondary radiation: A. 5:1 B. 8:1 C. 12:1 D. 16:1
5:1
Employing a fixed kVp exposure chart, solve for the following change: 80 kVp, 30 mAs, 15 cm thickness to 80 kVp,______mAs, 21 cm thickness A. 60 B. 22.5 C. 45 D. 15
60
The dose of x-rays necessary to produce an erythema in half those exposed is about: A. 100 rad B. 300 rad C. 600 rad D. over 1000 rad
600 rad
If the objective is to produce two radiographs with the same density, solve for the missing factor in the second set of factors. 300 mA, 1/15 sec., 50 speed screen, 8:1 grid to ____mA, 1/10 sec., 200 speed screen, 12:1 grid A. 62.5 B. 250 C. 31.25 D. 70 E. 56
62.5
It is reported on the annual survey by the radiation physicist the exposure rate 5 meters from the tube is 250 mR/hr. You are asked by your supervisor to determine the exposure at a location 10 meters from the tube. A. 125 mR/hr B. 62.5 mR/hr C. 6.25 mR/hr D. 500 mR/hr
62.5 mR/hr
How many individual detectors will a typical flat panel detector have in its matrix of detectors? A. 9 hundred B. 9 thousand C. 9 million D. 9 billion
9 million
Which of the following projections of the skull will best demonstrate the occipital bone? a. AP b. AP Axial c. PA d. lateral
AP Axial
The radiologist is reading a PA and Lateral chest exam. He notices a suspicious density in the apical area of the right lung just under the clavicle. Which of the following would he ask the radiographer to perform? a. RAO position of the chest b. AP Axial Projection: Lordotic Position c. LPO position of the chest d. Right lateral decubitus chest
AP Axial Projection: Lordotic Position
A patient sustained an injury to the lateral side of the foot. The ER physician asked the radiographer to demonstrate the tarsal bones and their intrespaces on the injured side. Which of the following would the radiographer perform to best demonstrate the tarsals on the lateral side of the foot? a. AP Oblique Projection: medial rotation b. AP Oblique Projection: lateral rotation c. AP projection central perpendicular d. lateral projection with injured side in contact with the IR
AP Oblique Projection: medial rotation
The radiographer performs an elbow examination. The radiologist would like to see the radial head free of superimposition. Which of the following would best demonstrate the radial head free of superimposition? a. AP oblique projection: medial rotation of the elbow b. AP oblique projection: lateral rotation of the elbow c. AP projection: partial flexion d. Stecher Method
AP oblique projection: lateral rotation of the elbow
A patient has an injury to the elbow. The ER doctor wants an additional image to demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition. Which of the following would best demonstrate the coronoid free of superimposition? a. lateral projection b. AP oblique projection: lateral rotation of the elbow c. AP oblique projection: medial rotation of the elbow d. AP projection acute flexion of the elbow
AP oblique projection: medial rotation of the elbow
The patient arrives in the department from ER c/o difficulty swallowing. The ER orders a soft tissue neck. The exam should be performed with the patient a. 40" SID b. at the end of exhalation c. at the end of expiration d. At the end of full inhalation
At the end of full inhalation
One of your colleagues has gone on vacation and his father, who has become ill, has just been admitted to the hospital in which you work. Your colleague phones you from his vacation and asks if you can find out more about what is happening with his father. Which of the following would be the best response to the situation? Which of the following would be the least appropriate in this situation? A. You simply refuse to answer your colleague's question B. You speak to the Nurse or Hospital Social Worker over the patient and explain the situation and ask them to contact your friend with the information they are requesting. C. You politely tell your colleague that you cannot do what he is asking you to do because it is not trust policy. D. You ask the father if he gives permission for you to ask the Nurse about him. E. You retrieve the father's notes and give the information to the colleague
B. You speak to the Nurse or Hospital Social Worker over the patient and explain the situation and ask them to contact your friend with the information they are requesting., E. You retrieve the father's notes and give the information to the colleague
The image receptor for computed radiograhy (CR) is composed of: A. Amorphous selenium B. Amorphous silicon C. Silver bromide D. Barium fluorohalide
Barium fluorohalide
Sue Ryan is a radiographer at a small community hosptial. In the break room one lunch hour, a coworker named John mentioned to Sue and other staff that after he had performed an IV injection that morning, he thinks he may have nicked himself while disposing of the needle. He thought he felt a stick, but did not notice any blood. He throughly washed his hands, and left it at that. Sue knew that the only patient scheduled for an IVP was an acquaintance form high school who was a drug used. Although Sue did not socialize with this patient, she had friends who did - it was common knowledge that the pateint had tested positive for HIV. Sue suggested to John that he go to the ER to be checked, just as a matter of routine procedure. When John shrugged it off as unnecessary, Sue said, "Just to be safe, you really should be checked. It's hospital policy, and besides you never know what disease a patient may have." John still said that he really was not concerned. She knew that policy required staff to report unintended needle sticks to the Employee Health Service. Sue went to the supervisor that both she and John reported to and informed the supervisor about the needle stick without revealing any thing about the patient. The supervisor indicated that it was up to John whether to take action or not, and that since she did not witness the event , there was nothing for her to do about it. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for Sue to take? What is the least appropriate action for Sue to take? Select one or more: A. Sue should go to John and say something like, "John you really must be thoroughly checked for the needle stick. I can't say exactly why, but I went to high school with that patient and he is a known drug user. I won't say more, but get it checked" B. Sue should realize there are many reasons for the supervisor to take no action: John said he might have nicked himself so there is a good chance that he didn't. Even if he did, the odds of HIV transmission are extremely slim. And, from an ethical point of view, this really is between John and his conscience. C. Sue should call the patient later that night and explain what happened then should ask the patient for permission to let John know the potential seriousness of the situation. D. Sue should go back to her supervisor, point out hospital policy regarding needle sticks, and say that she is very concerned that the incident gets reported to Employee Health Services.
C. Sue should call the patient later that night and explain what happened then should ask the patient for permission to let John know the potential seriousness of the situation., D. Sue should go back to her supervisor, point out hospital policy regarding needle sticks, and say that she is very concerned that the incident gets reported to Employee Health Services.
A patient request contains contradictory information, eg. right hand is injured but request asks for left hand. The radiographer should: a. Do the ordered exam without question. b. Do the ordered exam and opposite hand also. c. Call the ordering physician or station and get proper information. d. Perform the exam you feel is appropriate.
Call the ordering physician or station and get proper information.
Which of the interactions between x-rays and matter involves the production of secondary and scatter radiation? a. Thompson b. Compton c. Photoelectric d. Pair production
Compton
What is the major difference between computed Radiography and conventional film-screen radiography? A. Cost B. Computed radiography is more efficient C. Computed radiography uses less radiation D. Computed radiography has greater exposure latitude
Computed radiography has greater exposure latitude
What occurs when the exit radiation interacts with a photostimulable imaging plate? A. Fluorescence B. Energy absorption C. Phosphorescence D. Photoemission
Energy absorption
If the whole body is exposed to a dose of 1,000 - 5,000 rads, which of the syndrome would primarily result if this were from a single exposure? A. GI B. CNS C. Hemopoietic D. Cardiovascular
GI
The basic types of gonadal shield are: I. flat contact II. shaped contact III. shadow A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III
I, II and III
A possible cause of under-replenished solutions in a processor is: I. faulty microswitches II. faulty replenisher pump III. air in replenisher lines IV. misaligned rollers a. I & II b. I only c. I & III d. I, II, & III e. I, II, III, & IV
I, II, & III
Which of the following in considered an early (acute) local tissue effect to radiation? I. skin erythema II. cataracts III. transient sterility IV. epilation A. I, II, III & IV B. I, III & IV C. II only D. III & IV
I, III & IV
Which of the following are types of personnel monitoring? I. film badges II. routine blood examinations III. pocket ionization chambers IV. thermoluminescence dosimeter (TLD) A. I and IV B. II and IV C. I, II and III D. I, III and IV
I, III and IV
Concerning the correct density selection with automatic exposure timers, it is only acceptable to select other than the "N" position when: I. the screen speed has been changed II. the patient size varies III. the film speed has been changed IV. performing barium studies V. the patient has a pathological condition increasing or decreasing the body density or thickness A. I, II, & V B. I, III, & V C. I, II, IV, & V D. I, II, III, IV, & V
I, III, & V
The patient is having an UGI examination. The patient is positioned supine, rotated toward the left side, obliqued 30-60 degrees. At what transverse level does the central ray enter the body? a. ASIS b. xiphoid process c. iliac crest d. L1/L2
L1/L2
A radiographic image for the lateral projection of the facial bones is presented for review. The mandibular rami are rotated. For this to occur which of the following baselines were not positioned correctly? a. IOML b. OML c. AML d. MSP
MSP
____has an annual dose equivalent limit of .001 rem. A. fetal dose B. general public C. student under the age of 18 D. NIRL
NIRL
For the parietoacanthial projection to visualize the nasal bones which baseline forms an angle of 37 degrees? a. MML b. AML c. IOML d. OML
OML
To visualize the maxillary sinuses completely free of the petrous ridges, the following baseline should be perpendicular. a. OML b. IOML c. MML d. AML
OML
Which of the following personnel monitoring devices incorporates the use of aluminum oxide? A. Film badge Incorrect B. Pocket dosimeter C. Thermoluminescence dosimeter D. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter
Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter
Which of the following groups have been link to Radiation induced bone cancer? A. Cyclotron physicists B. Radium dial painters C. Children of Rongelap Atoll D. Ann Arbor Group
Radium dial painters
The exposure cords for mobile equipment shall be: A. 6ft B. 12 ft C. Shall allow the operator to stand 12 ft from the patient D. Shall allow the operator toe stand 6 ft from the patient
Shall allow the operator toe stand 6 ft from the patient
An enema tip is generally inserted with the patient on his/her side, leaning forward, and the right knee flexed. This describes the: a. Sims position b. Billings position c. Lithotomy position d. Chassord position
Sims position
Jill has had difficulty with movement in her jaw where when she chews the jaw pops and is difficult to close. The doctor tells her that she needs to have her jaw x-rayed. The physicians office calls the technologist at the hospital to verify which exam should be ordered that would best evaluate her problem. The exam that would best demonstrate the patient's problem is a. Mandible b. Facial bones c. Panorex (Orthopantomogram d. TM jts.
TM jts.
A radiographer views a requisition for facial bones. The routine of the hospital are an AP Axial, PA Caldwell, Parietoacanthial, VSM, and Parietoorbital projections of the orbit. Upon viewing the images, the radiologist notes a suspicious finding near the rt. zygomatic arch. The technologist is then instructed to take more specific projections to view the suspicious area. What projection would best demonstrate the area of interest? a. Tangential with the head rotated 15 degrees to the right. b. Tangential with the head rotated 15 degrees to the left c. Tangential (May Method) with head rotated 15 degrees toward the left d. Tangential (May Method) with head rotated 15 degrees toward the right
Tangential (May Method) with head rotated 15 degrees toward the left
Diaphragmatic (hiatal) hernias are a common gastrointestinal problem and can be best demonstrated with the patient in the: a. erect position b. Trendelenberg position c. sims position d. Billings position
Trendelenberg position
Which of the following QC test would check for "BB" alignment? A. Bucky Grid Motion and Centering C. Template test D. Image receptor alignment E. X-ray beam perpendicularity
X-ray beam perpendicularity
A diabetic has taken an insulin injection but is NPO for a GI series examination. You note excessive sweating and dizziness. This person may be experiencing: a. a hypoglycemic reaction b. a hyperglycemic reaction c. ketoacidosis d. cardiac failure
a hypoglycemic reaction
Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by: A. droplet contact B. a vehicle C. the airborne route D. a vector
a vector
A patient injured his first digit. Which of the following must be demonstrated for the radiograph to be acceptable? a. anatomy to include from tip of thumb to trapezium b. anatomy to include from tip of thumb to radius c. anatomy to include from tip of thumb to cuboid d. anatomy to include from tip of thumb to midpoint of the first metacarpal
anatomy to include from tip of thumb to trapezium
For which of the following radiographic examinations is a consent form usually required? 1. angiogram 2. GI series 3. skeletal survey
angiogram
During a ventral decubitus examination of the abdomen using a horizontal beam, free fluid will accumulate on the patient's: a. right side b. left side c. anterior aspect d. posterior aspect
anterior aspect
Any unwanted marks on a film are classified as: a. glitches b. pilines c. artifacts d. scatter
artifacts
Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase in exposure factors? a. pneumoperitoneum b. obstructred bowel c. renal colic d. ascites
ascites
The practice that helps reduce the spread of micro-organisms is termed: a. lethargy b. contracture c. asepsis d. isolation
asepsis
The key factor in lifting objects or patients is to keep the center of gravity: a. as low as possible b. as high as possible c. neither of the above d. at waist level
at waist level
All of the following rules regarding proper handwashing technique are correct except: A. Keep hands and forearms lower than elbows B. use paper towels to turn water on C. avoid using hand lotions whenever possible D. carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers
avoid using hand lotions whenever possible
The oblique projection of the ribs is commonly employed to demonstrate conditions of the: a. axillary border b. costovertebral joints c. head of the ribs d. vertex
axillary border
A sphygmomanometer is a device that is employed in the evaluation of: a. respiration b. cardiac sounds c. pulse rate d. blood pressure
blood pressure
The patient is positioned for an RAO of the stomach. In what part of the stomach is the barium located? a. duodenum b. fundus c. body and pylorus d. greater curvature
body and pylorus
The radiologists reviewed a thoracic spine exam that was done on a outpatient. He calls the technologist because he has called the patient to come back for repeat images. The physician shows the technologist the lateral projection of the thoracic spine. The vertebral bodies are not blocked shape and the intervertebral disc spaces are not well demonstrated in profile. What changes should the radiographer make that would best demonstrate the structures the radiologist need to visualize? a. angle the tube 15 degrees cephalic b. angle the tube 10 degrees cephalic c. angle the tube 10 degrees caudal d. build up the lower thorax to ensure the spine is parallel to the table.
build up the lower thorax to ensure the spine is parallel to the table
Characteristic x rays in the diagnostic range are produced in tungsten: A. When the projectile electron interacts with an outer shell electron. B. When a valence electron is removed. C. by excitation of a K-shell electron. D. by ionization of a K-shell electron.
by ionization of a K-shell electron
A patient comes to the radiology department from the ER for an IVU exam. The patient has increased BUN and creatinine levels. What would the radiographer do? a. hydrate the patient and proceed with the exam b. cut the contrast media dosage in half and proceed with the exam c. call the ER physician or nurse and discuss the increased levels before proceeding with the exam d. continue with the exam as these levels do not affect the IVU exam
call the ER physician or nurse and discuss the increased levels before proceeding with the exam
Which portion of the automatic exposure device can result in as much as a 10% error in exposure? a. relay b. thyristors c. thyratron d. capacitor
capacitor
At the elbow the head of the radius articulates with the: a. trochlea b. capitellum c. acromion d. semilunar notch
capitellum
The negative electrode of an x-ray tube is commonly called the: a. cathode b. anode c. target d. diaphragm
cathode
The amount of space charge created at the cathode is primarily controlled by the: a. impressed amperage b. impressed kilovoltage c. tube current d. hysterisis
impressed amperage
What is the best way to be sure you have the correct patient for an x-ray examination? a. ask the receptionist to identify the patient b. call the patient's name c. check the patient's hospital identification d. ask the radiologist to identify the patient
check the patient's hospital identification
The PA oblique projections (Barium Enema) will demonstrate the flexure: a. closest to the film b. farthest from the film c. both flexures d. neither flexure
closest to the film
The distance at which a focused grid can be used is directly related to the: a. grid ratio b. grid frequency c. convergence line (focusing bisection) d. interspacing material
convergence line (focusing bisection)
The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the: a. coronal plane 45 degree to the image receptor b. midsagittal plane 45 degrees to the image receptor c. coronal plane 70 degree to the image receptor d. midsagittal pane 70 degree to the image receptor
coronal plane 70 degree to the image receptor
The anteroposterior internal oblique projection of the elbow is useful in the evaluation of the free of superimposition. a. lateral epicondyle b. coracoid process c. coronoid process d. radial tuberosity
coronoid process
During processing, the film is guided from the developer to the fixer tank by the: a. squeegee rollers b. master roller c. crossover roller d. microswitches
crossover roller
A device used to measure the levels of x and gamma radiation present is: A. oscilloscope B. ballistics meter C. penetrometer D. Cutie pie
cutie pie
A patient presents to the ER with hematuria and painful urination. The ER physician orders an examination of the urinary bladder. The urinary bladder is filled with an iodinated contrast media via a urinary catheter. What would be the name of this exam? a. intravenous cholangiogram b. cystogram c. Intravenous Urogram d. retrograde pyelogram
cystogram
A satisfactory lumbar spine radiograph is performed using 60 mAs at 85 kV. If a cone down view of L3 is done using the same technique, the film density will _______and contrast will _______. a. increase/decrease b. decrease/increase c. increase/increase d. decrease/decrease
decrease/increase
A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of: a. assault b. battery c. intimidation d. defamation
defamation
A patient has an examination of the shoulder. The technologist fails to place internal and external lead markers on each of the radiographs. By examining the radiographic anatomy, which of the following would be the external rotation of the shoulder? a. demonstration of the lesser tubercle in profile pointing medially b. demonstration of the greater tubercle in profile c. the humeral head located inferior and anterior to the glenoid fossa d. the epicondyles of the elbow demonstrated perpendicular to the IR
demonstration of the greater tubercle in profile
A satisfactory radiograph of the lateral skull has been taken, using the following factors: 70 kVp, 40 mAs(100 mA and 4/10 sec), 40 " SID, collimated to a 10" X 12" field size, 100 speed screens, regular film, 1 mm focal spot, 2 mm Al filtration, developed for 90 SEC. at 95 degrees, and minimal object film distance, 8:1 grid. The kVp is increased to 80 and the mAs is decreased to 30. This would primarily increase: A. density B. distortion C. contrast D. recorded detail E. magnification
density
When disposing of contaminated needles, they are placed in special containers in which of the following manners? A. recap the needle, remove the syringe and dispose of B. do not recap needle, remove from syringe and dispose of C. recap the needle, dispose of entire syringe D. do not recap needle, dispose of entire syringe
do not recap needle, dispose of entire syringe
Which of the following pathologic conditions will normally require a decrease in techniques? a. empyema b. emphysema c. pulmonary edema d. silicosis
emphysema
At what stage of image intensified fluoroscopy is the number of photons lowest? a. entering the input phosphor b. leaving the output phosphor c. entering the photocathode d. leaving the output phosphor e. leaving the photocathode
entering the input phosphor
The best projection for the evaluation of lateral scoliosis on the first series (not follow-ups) is the: a. recumbent AP projection b. erect AP projection c. recumbent lateral projection d. erect lateral projection
erect AP projection
During radiography of the lungs, the diaphragm moves to its lowest position during: a. erect inspiration b. erect expiration c. supine inspiration d. supine expiration
erect inspiration
Using an automatic exposure controlled (phototimed) unit, if the distance is increased with no other technical changes made, which is most likely to occur? a. film density increases b. film density decreases c. exposure time increases d. contrast decreases
exposure time increases
Aluminum filters are placed in the path of the primary beam to: A. filter out hard, penetrating rays B. increase the penetrating power of the rays C. filter out soft rays D. increase milliamperage
filter out soft rays
In the anterioposterior projection of the lumbar spine, the normal lordotic curvature can be reduced by: a. inverting the feet b. flexing the knees c. abducting the thighs d. extending the legs
flexing the knees
It is recommended that radiographs of the paranasal sinuses be taken erect in order to demonstrate the existence of: a. fracture fragments b. layering of stones c. duct obstructions d. fluid levels
fluid levels
All of the following affect patient dose except. A. inherent filtration B. added filtration C. source-image receptor distance D. focal spot size
focal spot size
An inanimate object aht has been in contact with an infectious microorganism is termed a: A. vector B. fomite C. host D. reservior
fomite
In the adult skull, the immovable articulation between the parietal and occipital bones is called the: a. squamosal suture b. lambdoidal suture c. sagittal suture d. coronal suture
lambdoidal suture
A radiographer is performing a radiograph of the hand. When the hand is positioned on the cassette, he notices that the fingers are elevated off the cassette about 3 inches because of the bandage that has been applied. During the final positioning of the hand the fingers are elevated 3 inches and the wrist area is flat against the cassette. The radiographer makes the exposure using a central ray that is perpendicular to the cassette. The resultant radiograph will exhibit: A. an increase in recorded detail in area of the fingers B. foreshortening of the metacarpals C. elongation of the metacarpals D. no radiographic distortion
foreshortening of the metacarpals
The two most common and effective methods of sterilization for use in a hospital are: a. pressurized steam and dry heat b. droplet contact c. gas and pressurized steam d. chemical and dry heat
gas and pressurized steam
A whole-body dose equivalent of 3000 rem would probably cause death in 4 - 10 days from which of the following syndromes: A. hematologic B. gastrointestinal C. Central nervous system D. hiccups
gastrointestinal
A radiation-induced mutation that appears in the offspring of the exposed individual is termed a/an: a. acute mutation b. long term mutation c. genetic mutation d. somatic mutation
genetic mutation
The anteroposterior projection of the shoulder in external rotation will demonstrate a profile view of the: a. greater tuberosity b. deltoid tubercle c. lesser tuberosity d. acromioclavicular joints
greater tuberosity
In the right posteroanterior oblique projection of the sternum, visualization is improved by the superimposition of the: a. breast shadows b. heart shadow c. dorsal spine d. rib shadows
heart shadow
Due to the high density of barium, it is advisable to use a technique to insure proper visualization when performing a GI or BE radiograph. a. low kV b. low mAs c. high mAs d. high kV
high kV
Bremsstrahlung radiation is produced when: A. high speed electrons are attracted by a tungsten nucleus and decelerated. B. orbital electrons move from an outer shell to fill an inner shell vacancy. C. orbital electrons move form an inner shell to fill an outer shell vacancy. D. an outer shell electron is ejected from orbit.
high speed electrons are attracted by a tungsten nucleus and decelerated
When radiographing for the presence of fluid in the semi-erect patient, the central ray should be directed: a. perpendicular to the floor b. horizontal to the floor c. perpendicular to the patient d. horizontal to the patient
horizontal to the floor
The patient is positioned for an RPO position for a BE. At what transverse level does the central ray enter the patient's body? a. angle of the ribs b. 2 inches below the ASIS c. iliac crest d. ASIS
iliac crest
A patient is scheduled for a right hip examination. The patient had right hip replacement surgery 6 weeks prior. Which of the following is the correct evaluation criteria for this examination? a. include the orthopedic appliance in its entirety b. include from the iliac crest to the lesser trochanter c. the lesser trochanter should be visualized in its entirety d. the femoral neck will be demonstrated foreshortened
include the orthopedic appliance in its entirety
When kVp is increased, x-ray quantity: A. increases as the square of the kVp. B. increases proportionately. C. decrease proportionately. D. decreases as the square of the kVp.
increases as the square of the kVp
When the mAs is increased, x-ray quantity: A. increases as the square of the mAs. B. increases proportionately. C. decrease proportionately. D. decreases as the square of the mAs.
increases proportionately
Which of the following parenteral routes is most often used for administration of contrast agents in the radiology department? Select one: A. subcutaneous B. intravenous C. intramuscular D. intradermal
intravenous
The best reason why the soft tissue neck is performed with the above breathing instructions is because a. it allows for no motion of the patient b. allows for better visualization of the spine c. it allows for air filled trachea with the nasopharynx and laryngeal structures visualized d. it allows for visualization of the hyoid bone.
it allows for air filled trachea with the nasopharynx and laryngeal structures visualized
An increase in radiographic contrast occurs as: a. OID decreases b. recorded detail decreases c. kV decreases d. FSS decreases
kV decreases
Which of the following projections of the cervical spine best demonstrate the apophyseal jts in profile? a. right anterior oblique b. rt. posterior oblique c. lt. posterior oblique d. lateral
lateral
A patient presents to the radiology department with severe abdominal pain, and a distended abdomen. The patient had surgery the day before and cannot stand up. The physician is looking for free air in the peritoneal cavity. What exam would the radiographer perform? a. right lateral decubitus chest b. left lateral decubitus chest c. right lateral decubitus abdomen d. left lateral decubitus abdomen
left lateral decubitus abdomen
The NCRP dose limiting recommendation are based on_______dose relationships. A. linear, threshold B. nonlinear, threshold C. linear, non- threshold D. nonlinear, non-threshold
linear, non- threshold
If the radiographer is unable to achieve a short object image distance due to structure of the body part or patient condition, which of the following adjustments can be made to minimize magnification distortion? a. smaller foal spot size should be employed b. longer source image distance should be employed c. faster intensifying screens should be elmployed d. slow intensifying screen should be employed
longer source image distance should be employed
The radiographer just produced a radiograph that shows a small differences in attenuation of the beam, This radiograph would have: A. low contrast B. high density C. high resolution D. poor definition
low contrast
A radiograph is produced of a high tissue density structure. The area of the film corresponding to this structure will show a: a. high radiographic density b. low radiographic density c. tissue density is not related to radiographic density d. mottled radiographic density
low radiographic density
The unit used to measure the tube current is ____, which is associated with the quantity of x-rays produced. A. kVp B. kV C. mA D. Seconds
mA
The greatest hazard to the embryo or fetus occurs during: A. the first trimester B. the second trimester C. the third trimester
the first trimester
What is the purpose of the thin film transistor in a flat panel detector? A. moves electrons to the capacitor B. stores electrons until the readout electronics is activated C. Converts x-ray energy to light D. allows the active readout of the charge stored in the capacitor
moves electrons to the capacitor
A posterior-anterior chest radiograph delivers a dose of approximately 15 ___________ to the patient. A. mR B. mrad C. rem D. Curies E. eV
mrad
An increase in mAs during an exposure, assuming no other changes are made, will increase the: a. frequency of the photons b. wavelength of the photons c. number of the photons d. quality of the photons
number of the photons
When classifying intravenous contrast agents, the total number of particles in solution per kilogram of water defines: A. toxicity B. miscibility C. visocity D. osmolality
osmolality
The fluoroscopic tube should not be positioned closer than 38 cm to the tabletop because the: A. geometric unsharpness would increase. B. patient dose would be excessive. C. heat load on the tube would increase. D. resulting magnification would be objectionable
patient dose would be excessive
A patient with right pleural effusion is scheduled to have a PA and Lateral chest. However, the patient is unable to sit or stand for the erect chest. What would the radiographer do? a. cancel the exam b. perform a left lateral decubitus of the chest c. perform a right lateral decubitus chest d. AP projection of the chest with the patient supine
perform a right lateral decubitus chest
The patient is brought to the radiology dept for an examination of the knee. The physician wants an intercondylar fossa view. With the patient prone, and the knee flexed 50 degrees, how is the central ray directed? a. angled 50 degrees cephalic to enter the knee joint b. perpendicular to the femur entering the knee joint c. perpendicular to the knee joint d. perpendicular to the lower leg entering the knee joint
perpendicular to the lower leg entering the knee joint
If an insufficient angle exists between the orbitomeatal line and the plane of the film during parietocanthal (Waters method) projection, the_____will obscure the _____. a. frontal sinuses/orbits b. zygomatic arches/maxillary sinuses c. teeth/nasal septum d. petrous ridges/maxillary sinuses
petrous ridges/maxillary sinuses
In the image intensifier tube photoemission takes place at the: a. input phosphor b. photocathode c. output phosphor d. accelerating anode
photocathode
Guide shoe artifacts will be found on the edge at every 3.14 cm on the radiographs caused from the rollers of the automatic processor and are called: a. crown static b. wet pressure sensitization c. curtain effect d. pi lines
pi lines
PACS stands for: A. picture access computer system B. patient access and computer system C. picture archiving and communication system D. pictures accessed by computers
picture archiving and communication system
The _______ is a type of beam restriction that is a light-localizing collimator and is automatic. a. extension cone b. positive beam limiting device (PBL) c. extension cylinder d. variable aperture collimator
positive beam limiting device (PBL)
A radiograph of the kidneys is obtained during an IVP exam utilizing the following exposure factors: 50 mAs, 70 kV, 200 speed screens, 40" SID, 8:1 grid and a 1.2 mm focal spot If one changes to a 12:1 grid and compensates appropriately in mAs to maintain radiographic density, what would be the resultant effect on contrast? A. production of a shorter scale contrast B. production of a longer scale contrast C. contrast would not be affected
production of a shorter scale contrast
A patient is having an IVU; however, the patient cannot stand for the erect position which will demonstrate contrast filling the ureters. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the ureters filled with contrast? a. supine b. RPO c. LPO d. prone
prone
What does the CR reader use to release the energy stored in the image plate? A. red laser light B. infrared heat C. photomultiplier tube D. Green visible light
red laser light
Personnel monitoring reports will be express in ___, and the maximum length of time between personnel monitoring reports is ___. A. rad or gy, monthly B. rad or gy, quarterly C. rem or sievert, monthly D. rem or sievert, quarterly
rem or sievert, quarterly
A patient from the ER is to have an erect abdominal exam. The radiographer performs the erect AP projection. Upon reviewing the finished radiograph, the radiographer sees that the right hemidiaphragm is not visualized on the radiograph. What would the radiograph do? a. not repeat the exam as the right hemidiaphragm does not need to be demonstrated b. repeat the exam centering higher to include the right hemidiaphragm c. perform a PA projection of the chest d. perform a supine AP projection centering at the iliac crest
repeat the exam centering higher to include the right hemidiaphragm
Patient dose in fluoroscopy shall be minimized by: A. leaving the shutters as wide open as possible B. increasing the mA to about 10 C. restricting the beam size D. bringing the focal spot nearer to the table top
restricting the beam size
In an air-contrast study of the colon, what are the best positions for demonstrating the presence of polyps in the colon? A. right and left decubitus B. right and left oblique C. supine and prone D. lateral rectum and Chassard-Lapine E. Trendelenburg and upright
right and left decubitus
A patient is brought to the Radiology Department from a car accident with a weak, rapid pulse, low blood pressure, and feels cold and lacks color. The patient is showing signs of: a. tetanus b. shock c. cardiovascular disease d. crypts of lieberkuhn
shock
Why is it preferable to use intensifying screens when using a Bucky or grid: A. shorter exposure time B. longer exposure time C. less magnification D. less detail
shorter exposure time
In the lateral projection of the knee, the maximum value of the joint space is shown when the knee is: a. fully extended b. slighlty flexed c. fully flexed d. hyperflexed
slightly flexed
A three phase timer can be tested for accuracy using a synchronous spinning top. The resulting image looks like a: a. series of dots or dashes, each representative of a radiation pulse b. solid arc, the angle (in degrees) representative of the exposure time c. series of gray tones, form white to black d. multitude of small mesh-like squares of uniform sharpness
solid arc, the angle (in degrees) representative of the exposure time
To calculate the gross fog + 1.0 is how the_________is determined: A. density difference (contrast index) B. low density C. high density D. speed point (mid density)
speed point (mid density)
A beam-splitting mirror is required in the fluorography-television chain to allow for: a. video recording of the image b. static recording of the c. kymographic recording d. kineoscopic recording
static recording of the
Lower leg venography requires an injection of iodinated contrast medium into the: a. superficial veins of the foot b. deep veins of the foot c. femoral vein d. popliteal vein
superficial veins of the foot
When demonstrating the axiolateral oblique projection for the mandible for the mandibular symphysis, what prevents the central part of the mandibular body from being clearly demonstrated? a. superimposition of the spine b. caudal angulation of the CR c. Increased OID
superimposition of the spine
Intrathecal contrast media administration may be performed in all of the following positions except: A. Prone with pillows under the abdomen B. Supine C. Seated and bent forward D. lying on the side with knees pulled up to chest and head tucked
supine
The radiographer is performing a small bowel study on a patient. On the 1 hour radiograph, the radiographer sees that there is barium in the cecum. What does this indicate? a. that several more radiographs will be taken b. that the small bowel examination is complete c. that the patient needs to drink water d. that there is a small bowel obstruction
that the small bowel examination is complete
The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur relates to which of the following? A. let the master answer B. the thing speaks for itself C. a thing or matter settled by justice D. a matter settled by precedent
the thing speaks for itself
In the anteroposterior projection of the lower cervical vertebrae, the central ray is directed 15-20 degrees cephalad and enters at the: a. mental point b. gonion c. thyroid cartilage d. manubrial notch e. hyoid bone
thyroid cartilage
The spread of microbes from person to person is most frequently caused by: a. touching b. droplet contact c. endogenous contact d. sexual contact
touching
A patient presents to the ER with an injury to the proximal humerus. The patient is positioned with the affected proximal humerus in contact with the upright bucky. The unaffected humerus is raised above the patient's head. Using a 10X12 IR LW, the central is perpendicular to the surgical neck of the affected humerus. What is the projection? a. AP projection b. lateral projection c. Lawrence Method d. transthoracic lateral projection
transthoracic lateral projection
During Fluoroscopy the bucky slot cover should be positioned to protect the operator(s). A. True B. False C. There is no such device
true
Which of the following projections is employed for the demonstration of the sella turcica and posterior clinoids? a. parietoacanthial projection b. posterior profile projection c. parieto-orbital projection d. true lateral projection
true lateral projection
Which of the following changes the density level in a digital image? A. Window leveling B. Window width C. Window stacking D. Window clearing
window leveling
Which of the following changes the dynamic range of a digital image? A. Window level B. Window width C. Window clearing D. Window stacking
window width
The 9 coin test or the template test are QC evaluations for the: A. CR perpendicularity B. Bucky centering, grid motion C. x-ray field to light field D. X-ray waveform
x-ray field to light field