Random Questions

Where is the main site of action for monocytes after diapedesis? a) Peripheral blood b) Body tissues c) Bone marrow d) Digestive tract

b) Body tissues

What is the half-life of immunosuppressive drugs cyclosporine and tacrolimus? a) 2-4 hours b) 4-6 hours c) 8-10 hours d) 10-12 hours

d) 10-12 hours

Auer rods are most commonly present in which of the following conditions? a) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) b) Plasma cell leukemia c) Erythroleukemia d) Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)

d) Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)

Which of the following is a true statement about aminoglycoside antibiotics? a) Aminoglycosides have a half-life of 1-2 hours and are metabolized by the liver. b) Aminoglycosides are anitbiotics used to treat only Gram-negative bacterial infections. c) Aminoglycosides are antibiotics used to treat only Gram-positive bacterial infections. d) Aminoglycosides can be toxic antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections when such bacteria are resistant to less-toxic antibiotics.

d) Aminoglycosides can be toxic antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections when such bacteria are resistant to less-toxic antibiotics.

Which complement component is found in both the classical and alternative pathways? a) C1 b) C4 c) Factor B d) C3

d) C3

Infections with all of the following viruses could cause malignant disease, except: a) Human papillomavirus (HPV) b) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) c) Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) d) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

d) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Corneal tissue transplantation has an extremely high success rate for a variety of reasons, including all of the following with the exception of: a) Avascularity b) Reasonably low concentration of class I antigens c) An essential absence of class II antigens d) Eccentrically place grafts

d) Eccentrically place grafts

Identify the nucleated blood cell: a) Lymphocyte b) Neutrophil c) Basophil d) Monocyte

d) Monocyte

A CLIA waived test requires that operators: a) Must perform QC daily b) Demonstrate competency annually c) Must attend training seminar d) Must follow manufacturer's instructions

d) Must follow manufacturer's instructions

Fetal lung maturity can be determined from amniotic fluid because the surfactant is PRIMARILY composed of: a) Protein b) Cholesterol c) Glycerol d) Phosphatidylcholine and other phospholipids

d) Phosphatidylcholine and other phospholipids

Which of the following types of molecules is most likely to be antigenic/immunogenic? a) Nucleic acids b) Carbohydrates c) Lipids d) Proteins

d) Proteins

The reactions observed in this Kligler Iron Agar slant (left) and Christensen's urease slant (right) provide the presumptive identification of: a) Citrobacter freundii b) Edwardsiella tarda c) Salmonella typhimurium d) Proteus mirabilis

d) Proteus mirabilis

A dilution commonly used for a routine sperm count is: a) 1:2 b) 1:20 c) 1:200 d) 1:400

b) 1:20

If an Rh group (DCe/dce) man marries an Rh group (dce/dce) woman, what is the probability that their first child will be D negative? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

b) 50%

Units of A-negative, B-negative, and O-negative red blood cells are shipped to your transfusion service. What testing MUST be performed by your facility prior to placing these units into your inventory? a) ABO b) ABO and Rh c) ABO, Rh and antibody screen d) ABO, Rh and Weak D to confirm negative status

b) ABO and Rh

Which of the following is the MOST likely discrepancy seen when a person demonstrates an "acquired B-antigen" phenomenon? a) Forward typing appears to be B, but reverse group type is O. b) Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is A. c) Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is B. d) Forward typing appears to be B, but reverse group type is AB.

b) Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is A.

A patient has a probable anti-Fya; however, anti-c and anti-K have not been excluded. Which of the following cells would be the most useful cell to exclude both anti-c and anti-K efficiently in this patient? a) Fya-; Fyb+; C+c+; K+k+ b) Fya-; Fyb+; C-c+; K+k- c) Fya-; Fyb+; C+c+; K+k- d) Fya+; Fyb-; C-c+; K+k-

b) Fya-; Fyb+; C-c+; K+k-

Which of the following casts might be found in the urine of a healthy individual after strenuous exercise? a) Epithelial cell casts and granular casts b) Hyaline casts and granular casts c) Granular casts waxy casts d) Waxy casts and hyaline casts

b) Hyaline casts and granular casts

Procedures that may enhance the recovery of Streptococcus pyogenes from throat cultures include: a) Extraction of streptococcal grouping antigen b) Incorporation of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in the culture media c) Incubation at 42° C d) Use of culture media with increased concentrations of glucose

b) Incorporation of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in the culture media

When is a trough blood sample for therapeutic drug monitoring usually obtained? a) Just after the dose is administered b) Just before the next scheduled dose c) At the peak time calculated after a dose d) After one half-life of the drug

b) Just before the next scheduled dose

Methotrexate is a highly toxic medication that blocks DNA synthesis in all cells. What medication needs to be administered after methotrexate to prevent cytotoxic effects in normal cells of the body? a) Theophylline b) Leucovorin c) Digoxin d) Vancomycin

b) Leucovorin

All of the following would be included in a hemolytic transfusion reaction investigation, EXCEPT: a) ABO/Rh check of post-transfusion sample b) Leukocyte antigen studies c) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on post-transfusion sample d) Clerical check

b) Leukocyte antigen studies

After reviewing this cytospin from a pleural fluid, identify the cells that would be the appropriate to report? a) Macrophages, neutrophils and red blood cells b) Mesothelial cells, neutrophils and red blood cells c) Tumor cells, neutrophils and red blood cells d) Plasma cells, neutrophils and red blood cells.

b) Mesothelial cells, neutrophils and red blood cells

Of the following anticonvulsant medications, which one does not rely soley on the liver to metabolize it for excretion? a) Valproic acid b) Phenobarbital c) Phenytoin d) Carbamazepine

b) Phenobarbital

The condition most likely to predispose a person to septicemia by viridans streptococci is: a) Hypertrophy of the prostate gland b) Poor oral hygiene c) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d) Indwelling catheter

b) Poor oral hygiene

a) roteus vulgaris b) Serratia marcescens c) Providencia stuartii d) Citrobacter koseri

b) Serratia marcescens

An MCV is reported by the instrument as 82 fL. The MCV is flagged with a delta check alert as the previous MCV reported on this patient 12 hours earlier was 97 fL. What is a possible cause for this discrepancy? a) Transfusion b) The specimens are not from the same patient c) Acute hemorrhage d) The second specimen was hemolyzed

b) The specimens are not from the same patient

What is the lower reference limit for progressive motility of spermatozoa when performing a semen analysis? a) 12% b) 22% c) 32% d) 40%

c) 32%

Which of the following is the cause of the most severe life-threatening hemolytic transfusion reactions? a) Anti-D b) Anti-M c) Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-A, B d) Anti-Fya

c) Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-A, B

What is the term used to describe a clinical syndrome caused by heart disease, represented by abnormal sodium and water retention and breathlessness, usually resulting in edema? a) Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) b) Angina c) Congestive heart failure (CHF) d) Myocardial ischemia

c) Congestive heart failure (CHF)

Which of the following is true regarding a normal distribution curve? a) Data points are randomly dispersed within the distribution curve. b) Data tend to cluster at the top and bottom of the distribution curve. c) Data are more likely to fall closer to the mean. d) No predictions can be made about data distribution.

c) Data are more likely to fall closer to the mean.

In an extreme emergency, if the ABO and Rh type are unknown, which of the following should be given to the patient? a) Group O, Rh positive blood b) Group AB, Rh negative blood c) Group O, Rh negative blood d) Any blood type is OK

c) Group O, Rh negative blood

What sero-marker is the first marker to become positive in Hepatitis B and is associated with the infective stage? a) HBc antibody b) Hbe antigen c) HBs antigen d) Hbs antibody

c) HBs antigen

From the fungi listed below, which is considered to be a true pathogen that also infects immunocompromised patients? a) Scopulariopsis species b) Penicillium species c) Histoplasma capsulatum d) Fusarium species

c) Histoplasma capsulatum

A small spill of blood has occurred that involves broken glass. Into which type of container should this be disposed? a) Regular trash bag b) Biohazard bag c) Sharps container d) Heavy duty trash bag

c) Sharps container

The slide coagulase test is a rapid method for identifying which of the following organisms? a) Staphylococcus hominis b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

c) Staphylococcus aureus

All of the following crystals can be exclusively found in acidic urine EXCEPT: a) Calcium oxalates b) Acid urates c) Triple phosphates d) Amorphous urates

c) Triple phosphates

These 3 tubes of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are delivered to the laboratory for analysis. The tube labeled #1 was the first tube collected. Which one of the tubes should be used by the hematology department for cell count and differential? a) Tube #1 b) Tube #2 c) Tube #3 d) Any one of the tubes can be used

c) Tube #3

Which two of the following tests are helpful for documenting previous streptococcal throat and skin infections? a) ASO titer & anti-DNase b) B CAMP & PYR c) Coagulase & catalase d) Bacitracin & SXT

a) ASO titer & anti-DNase

What form of immunity is expected to provide long-term protection after hepatitis B vaccine (HBV) is administered to an immunocompetent person? a) Active b) Passive c) Adaptive d) Innate (Natural)

a) Active

All of the following tests are affected by the pneumatic tube system transport, EXCEPT? a) Albumin b) Potassium c) Plasma hemoglobin d) Acid phosphatase

a) Albumin

A cell count is ordered on a CSF sample that is bloody. Which of the following procedures would improve count accuracy? a) Dilute the sample to minimize the number of red blood cells in the squares being counted. b) Use Spinal Diluting Fluid, a mixture of acetic acid and crystal violet. c) Use an automated hematology cell counter. d) Use of electronic cell counter.

a) Dilute the sample to minimize the number of red blood cells in the squares being counted.

All of the following are true about hybridization in PCR procedures, EXCEPT? a) Hybridization cannot happen between a strand of DNA and a strand of RNA b) Hybridization is the process of single strands of nucleic acid bonding together to form double strands c) Hybridization can also be called annealing d) Complementary bases link together with hydrogen bonds

a) Hybridization cannot happen between a strand of DNA and a strand of RNA

Select the true statement regarding lipids and heart disease. a) Increased level of LDL-C indicates an increased risk for cardiovascular disease b) Increased level of HDL-C indicates an increased risk for cardiovascular disease c) Lipids are not involved in atherosclerotic plaque formation d) Lipids are no longer measured in evaluating cardiac disease risk

a) Increased level of LDL-C indicates an increased risk for cardiovascular disease

When administering fresh frozen plasma (FFP), which one of the following is considered standard blood bank practice? a) Should be ABO compatible with the recipient's red blood cells b) Must be the same Rh type as the recipient c) Is appropriate for use as a volume expander d) Component should remain frozen when it is issued

a) Should be ABO compatible with the recipient's red blood cells

What does the equation in parenthesis measure? (TN/TN+FP) a) Specificity b) Sensitivity c) Precision d) Variance

a) Specificity

Which of the following infections is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis? a) Trachoma, a major cause of preventable blindness in the world. b) Zoonosis in birds and the cause of parrot fever in humans. c) A skin disease found predominantly in tropical areas. d) Pneumonia with pleural effusion.

a) Trachoma, a major cause of preventable blindness in the world.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding blood bank adverse event reporting to the FDA? a) All patient deaths while being transfused must be reported to the FDA, even when it has been confirmed that the death was not related to the transfusion. b) When a transfusion reaction is the result of an error it must be reported to the FDA in writing. c) A transfusion-related death must be reported to the FDA within 24 hours of the patient's death. d) The initial notification to the FDA of a transfusion-related death must be made by fax, telephone, express mail, or electronically as soon as possible after the death is confirmed to be associated with the transfusion.

d) The initial notification to the FDA of a transfusion-related death must be made by fax, telephone, express mail, or electronically as soon as possible after the death is confirmed to be associated with the transfusion.

Which of the following statements about hepatitis C virus (HCV) is true? a) There is vaccination against infection with HCV. b) The primary route of infection with HCV is airborne transmission. c) Patients infected with HCV will always have observable symptoms. d) The majority of individuals who are infected with HCV and develop antibodies in their serum (seroconvert) will develop a chronic infection and active liver disease.

d) The majority of individuals who are infected with HCV and develop antibodies in their serum (seroconvert) will develop a chronic infection and active liver disease.

What causes polyacrylamide gels to have greater resolution of proteins than agarose gels? a) Polysaccharide composition b) Electroendosmosis c) Transparency d) Varying pore size in each polyacrylamide layer

d) Varying pore size in each polyacrylamide layer