Reduce Risk Potential Quiz 2

Which complication of severe preeclampsia necessitates diligent monitoring of the client's BP? a. Stroke b. Hemorrhage c. Precipitous labor d. DIC

a. Stroke Likelihood of Stroke increases with a rising BP

A pregnant woman with severe hyperemesis grafidarum is receiving TPN without intralipids. Which potential complication would the nurse monitor this client for? a. dehydration b. hypoglycemia c. allergic reaction d. DI

a. dehydration

The nurse is assessing a client with a history of marijuana use. Which long-term effects are associated with marijuana? SATA a. Lung cancer b. Emphysema c. Heart disease d. Laryngeal disease e. Stroke f. Chronic nasal irritation

a. lung cancer b. emphysema d. heart disease

After the nurse has taught a client about the use of a metered-dose inhaler with a spacer, which statement indicates the need for further teaching? a. "I will wait for at least 1 min between puffs" b. I will shake the whole unit vigorously one or two times c. I will hold my breath for at least 10 seconds after each puff d. I will clean the spacer with warm water at least once a week

b. "I will shake the whole unit vigorously one or two times" MDI should be shaken vigorously for a minimum of 3 or 4 times for proper mixing of content

Which information would the nurse include when explaining the purpose of a thallium scan to the client who has a hx of chest pain? a. It monitors action of heart valves b. it assesses Myocardial ischemia and perfusion c. it visualizes ventricular systole and diastole d. it identifies the adequacy of the conduction system

b. It assesses myocardial ischemia and perfusion

Which finding would the nurse expect in the urinalysis report of a client with DI? a. pH of urine: 9 b. Specific gravity of urine: 0.4 c. RBCs in urine: 6 hpf d. WBCs in urine: 8 hpf

b. Specific gravity of urine: 0.4

Which lab value would the nurse use to determine whether a client is receiving a therapeutic dose of IV heparin? a. INR is between 2-3 b. PT is 2.5x control value c. APTT is 70 seconds d. ACT is between 70-120

c. APTT is 70 seconds on IV heparin the APTT should be 1.5-2x the normal APTT of 40 seconds INR and PT are used for Warfarin

In which medical condition would the nurse expect the client's Cl level in the 24 hour urine sample test to increase? SATA a. HF b. Emphysema c. Hypokalemia d. Pyloric Obstruction e. Adrenal Insufficiency

c. Hypokalemia e. Adrenal Insufficiency

Which diagnostic study would the HCP use to investigate the cause of an inflamed joint and determine a client's response to anti-inflammatory medication therapy? a. Duplex venous doppler b. Plethysmography c. Thermography d. Somatosensory evoked potential

c. Thermography uses an infrared detector that measures the degree of heat radiating from the skin's surface

A client who has cancer of the sigmoid colon is scheduled to have an abdominoperineal resection with a permanent colostomy. Before surgery, a low-residue diet is prescribed. Which is the nurses explanation for the necessity of this diet? a. to limit production of flatus in the intestine b. to prevent irritation of the intestinal mucosa c. to reduce the amount of large stool in the large bowel d. to lower the bacterial count in the GI tract

c. to reduce the amount of stool in the large bowel this diet is low in fiber

Parents of a toddler with a right ventriculoperitoneal shunt for treatment of hydrocephalus are taught about postop positioning. the nurse concludes that they understand the teaching when they state they will place the toddler in which position? a. in a position that is most comfortable b. on the back with a small support beneath the neck c. on the abdomen with the head turned to the left d. flat on the left side with head and back supported

d. flat on the left side with head and back supported side lying on the unaffected side prevents pressure on the shunt

Central venous pressure is the same as what?

Right atrial pressure

Normal lymphocyte count for AIDS pt? a. 3000 cells b. 5000 cells c. 7000 cells d. 9000 cells

a. 3000

When teaching a client with type II DM which statement by the nurse reflects accurate information about preparing for a serum glucose test? a. Eat your usual breakfast b. have a clear liquids for breakfast c. take your medication before the test d. do not ingest anything before the test

d. do not ingest anything before the test

which assessment finding in a client signifies a mild form of hypocalcemia? a. seizures b. hand spasms c. severe muscle cramps d. numbness around the mouth

d. numbness around the mouth seizures, hand spasms, and severe muscle cramps are associated with SEVERE hypocalcemia

Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

indirect measure of left ventricular end diastolic pressure