Registry Review: Imaging Procedures Pt. 1
What condition(s) is/ are demonstrated in figure 2-11?
- pneumothorax, - pleural effusion
which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
45-degree internal rotation
the uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the
4th lumbar vertebra
subject/ object unsharpness can result from all of the following except when
anatomic object(s) of interest is/ are in the path of the CR
The lumbar vertebral lamina is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumber spine?
body
patients are instructed to remove all jewerly, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
in figure 2-29, which of the following is represented by the number 9?
medial border
In which of the following projections was the image in figure 2-7 made?
medial oblique
Which of the followng projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?
medial oblique, 15-20 degrees
What is that portion of bone labeled C in the pediatric PA hand image seen in figure 2-1 below?
metaphysis
the ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the
metaphysis
All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metaformin hydrochloride are true except
metformin should be withheld 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies
What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?
spondylolisthesis
During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the
subarachnoid space
which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas and odontoid process?
submentovertical (SMV)
Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 3 in figure 2-14?
submentrovertex projection
with the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the
trendelenburg position
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
trochlea
The term valgus refers to
turned outward
Sternoclavicular articulations are likely to be demosntrated in all of the following except
weight-bearing
The cecum is labeled in figure 2-9 as number?
4
terms used to desrcibe movement include:
- plantar flexion, - valgus
Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?
AP or PA through the foramen magnum
medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
AP projection
narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric croup, can be best visualized in the
AP projection
which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?
horizontal beam lateral
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?
hydronephrosis
the body habitus having short and wide heart and lung area and a high transverse stomach is the
hypersthenic
How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries?
include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-L3?
inferior costal margin
with the patient positioned as illustrated in figure 2-20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?
intercondyloid fossa
in which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?
internal rotation
which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?
internal rotation
Which of the following statements regarding figure 2-4 is correct?
the left kidney is more parallel to the IR
All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except
the left lung has 2 fissures
All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except
the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR
The floor of the cranum includes all of the following bones except
the occipital bone
To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in
the recumbent position
to demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees
toward the affected side
during an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?
transverse colon
which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP axial projection of the cervical spine?
- C3-7 cervical bodies
Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax?
- LAO, - RPO
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
- a foreign body, - soft tissue
The right posterior oblique position (judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the:
- anterior rim of the right acetabulum, - right iliac wing
The upper surface of the foot may be described as the:
- anterior surface, - dorsum
Examples of synovial pivot articulatons include the
- atlantoaxial joint, - radioulnar joint
important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include
- both joints must be included in long bone studies, - two views, at 90-degrees to each other, are required
The radiograph shown in figure 2-15 demonstrates the articulation between the
- calcaneus and the cuboid, - talus and the navicular
Structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) include the following:
- cecum, - vermiform appendix
to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/ DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended?
- close collimation, - lead mat on table posterior to the patient
which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
- condyloid, - sellar
The type(s) of articulations lacking a joint cavity include
- fibrous, - cartilaginous
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed
- following inversion or eversion injuries, - to demonstrate a ligament tear
central ray anulation may be required for
- foreshortening or self-superimposition, - superimposition of overlying structures
which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to the images shown in figure 2-23?
- image A was made with a cephalad angulation
Which of the following is (are) proximal to the tibial plateau?
- intercondyloid fossa
the true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?
- interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR, - infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR
Which of the following is (are) well deomstrated in the lumbar spine pictured in figure 2-8?
- intervertebral foramina, - pedicles
Which of the following statements is/ are true regarding the shoulder image in figure 2-18?
- it provides a lateral view, - it is frequently performed in trauma situations
the scapula shown in figure 2-29 demonstrates
- its posterior aspect
ulnar flexion/ deviation will best demonstrate which carpals?
- lateral carpals, - scaphoid
The structures that would be visulized when obtained as positioned in figure 2-2, could also be visualized when performed with the patient in the following position:
- lateral recumbent, - seated
The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in the following projection(s):
- lateral thoracic spine, - lateral lumbar spine
during atrial systole, blood flows into the
- left ventricle via the bicuspid valve, - right ventricle via the tricuspid valve
Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include
- lesser tubercle in profile, - superimposed epicondyles
A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to
- make the vertebral column parallel with the IR, - place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR
Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?
- manubrium, - 24 ribs
Which of the following statements regarding figure 2-10 is (are) true?
- midphalanges are foreshortened
which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur?
- patellar surface
structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include
- pedicles, - laminae
Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
- prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa, - supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpedicular to tibia
during chest radiography, the act of inspiration
- raises the ribs, - depresses the abdominal viascera
The PA chest radiograph shown in figure 2-13 demonstrates
- rotation, - scapular removed from lung fields
a kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?
- sacral vertebrae, - thoracic vertebrae
which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?
- sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders, - ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm
the position illustrated in the radiograph seen in figure 2-28 may be obtained with the patient
- supine and the CR angled 30-degrees cephalad
in which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?
- supine flexion 45 degrees (merchant)
in the lateral projection of the ankle, the
- talotibial joint is visualized, - tibia and fibula are superimposed
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
- talotibial, - talofibular
during IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate
- the filing of the ureters, - the renal pelvis
The female pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s):
- the male greater/ false pelvis is deep, - the male acetabulum faces more laterally
which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examiantion of the acromioclavicular joints?
- the procedure is performed in the erect position - use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints
valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that
- the radius and ulna be superimposed distally, - the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly
which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of shoulder is (are) true?
- the scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft, - an oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained
which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiograph shown in figure 2-26?
- this projection is performed to evaluate the scapula
Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by:
- trauma or other patholgy, - less than 90-degree flexion
in the lateral projection of the scapula, the
- vertebra and axillary borders are superimposed
elements of correct positioning for PA projection of the chest include
- weight evenly distributed on feet, - elevation of the chin
For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best deomonstrate the knee joint?
0 degree (perpendicular)
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. scapular Y projection, 2. inferosuperior axial, 3. transthoracic lateral
1, 2 and 3
Which of the folowing statements regarding the radiograph in figure 2-6 is (are) true? 1. the position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses, 2. the ethmoid sinsuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits, 3. the perpendicular plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity
1, 2 and 3
in a lateral projection of the normal knee, the: 1. fibular head should be somewhat superimpose on the proximal tibia, 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized, 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed
1, 2 and 3
An accurate critique of the PA projection of the chest seen in figure 2-3 would include the following: 1. the pulmonary apices are demonstrated, 2. the air-filled trachea and carina are demonstrated, 3. 10 posterior ribs are seen above the diaphragm
1, 2, and 3
Hysterpsalpingography may be performed for demonstrated of: 1. uterine tubal patency, 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity, 3. uterine position
1, 2, and 3
Which of the following are mediastinal structures? 1. heart, 2. trachea, 3. esophagus
1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph in figure 2-12? 1. the patient is placed in an RAO position, 2. the midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR, 3. the acromion process is free of superimposition
1, 2, and 3
when evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15-degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see: 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits, 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally, 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids
1, 2, and 3
which of the following statements is (are) true regarding figure 2-30? 1. the image was made in the RAO position, 2. exposure was made during shallow respiration, 3. the sternum is projected onto the left side of the thorax
1, 2, and 3
which of the following statements regarding the norgaard method, "ball-catcher's position", is (are) correct? 1. bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained, 2. it is used for early detection for rheumatoid arthritis, 3. the hands are obliqued about 45-degrees, palm up
1, 2, and 3
With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?
15-30 degrees caudad
with which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
1st metacarpal
The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in an
30-degree oblique
which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation?
30-degree RPO
in the PA projection of the hand seen in figure 2-19, which numeral identifies the proximal interphalangeal joint?
6
at which level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
C4
which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?
LAO
During an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely
LPO
Which of the following projections or positions will be demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocations?
PA oblique scapular Y
A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?
RAO
Which of the following positions is illustrated in figure 2-9?
RPO
The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the
T5
The letter A in figure 2-13 indicates
a left posterior rib
The condition that results from a persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is
a patent ductus arteriosus
Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
adduction
which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly
Which of the following techniques would provide a posteroanterior (PA)projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach?
angle the CR 35-45 degrees cephalad
to better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in figure 2-31, the radiographer should
angle the CR 5-7 degrees cephalad
what should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in figure 2-22?
angle the CR about 30-degrees cephalad
the relationship between the end of fractured long bones is referred to as
apposition
the patients chin should be elevated during chest radiography to
avoid superimposition on the apices
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
avulsion fracture
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the
bregma
Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?
cardiac apex
with the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids
completely within the orbits
in which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
compound
An injury to a structure on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as
contrecoup
in figure 2-29, which of the following is represented by the number 2?
coracoid process
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the eblow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
coronoid process
Figure 2-5 demonstrates which of the following conditions?
dextrocardia
What structure is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis?
dome of the acetabulum
Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?
dorsal decubitus position
Flattening of the hemidiaphragms is characterisitc of which of the following conditions?
emphysema
the seconday center of ossification in long bones is the
epiphysis
which of the following methods was used to obtain the image seen in figure 2-6?
erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degrees from horizontal
the structure labeled 2 in figure 2-14 is the
ethmodial sinus
a type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arisisng from bone marrow is
ewing sarcoma
double-contrast examiantions of the stomach large bowel are performed to better visualize the
gastric or bowel mucosa
in figure 2-27, the structure indicated as number 7 is which of the following?
head of rib
Identify the structure labeled number 10 in the AP projection of the forearm shown in figure 2-16
head of ulna
the term used to describe the presence of blood vomit is
hematemesis
which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?
hepatic flexure
what is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?
high and horizontal
Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the
hilus
All of the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except
intertrochanteric line
in the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the
intervertebral foramina nearest the IR
the long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the
laminae
all elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?
lateral
Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?
lateral decubitus, affected side up
The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in the following projection?
lateral oblique elbow
In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?
lateral oblique foot
the plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
midcoronal plane
the thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the
midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR
to evlaute the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
must be supported parallel to the IR
An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?
myelogram
the most proximal portion of the pharynx is the
nasopharynx
the lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?
nose
Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique position of the hand?
oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees
In the AP axial projection (towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?
occipital bone
Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in figure 2-7?
olecranon process
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity
osgood-schlatter disease
the type of ileus characteried by cessation of peristalsis is termed
paralytic
which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?
patient AP with 30-35 degree angle cephalad
in which of the following positions/ projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?
plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
in which of the following positions was the radiograph shown in figure 2-25 probably made?
prone recumbent
Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?
pulmonary embolism
which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?
radial styloid process
with the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?
rami
all of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except
right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
the ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?
right iliac
During a double contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?
right lateral decubitus
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
right main stem bronchus
Pacemaker electrodes can introduced through a vein in the cheset or upper extremeity, from where they are advanced to the
right ventricle
The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the
serosa
all of the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except
single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions
the number 2 in figure 2-24 indicates the following
spinous process of L1
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
tangential metatarsals/ toes
the projection/ method often used to detect carpal canal defect is
tangential projection wrist, gaynor-hart method
all of the following statements regarding the position shown in figure 2-17 are true except:
the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7
The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/ shaft is
yellow marrow
which of the following strucrtures is illustrated by the number 2 in figure 2-21?
zygomatic arch
