Review

The functions of automatic beam limitation devices include 1. reducing the production of scattered radiation 2. increasing the absorption of scattered radiation 3. changing the quality of the x-ray beam A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only 1. reducing the production of scattered radiation

Diagnostic x-radiation, compared to fast neutrons and alpha particles, is generally considered to be A low energy, low LET B low energy, high LET C high energy, low LET D high energy, high LET

A low energy, low LET

Tracheotomy is an effective technique most commonly used to restore breathing when there is A respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx B crushed tracheal rings owing to trauma. C respiratory pathway closure owing to inflammation and swelling D all the above

A respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx

All the following positions are used frequently to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except A weight-bearing B RAO C LAO D PA

A weight-bearing

Syncope is a result of 1. A drop in blood pressure 2. A narrowing of blood vessels 3. A decrease in heart rate 4. Increased oxygen to brain tissue A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 4 only D 2, 3, and 4 only

B 1 and 3 only 1. A drop in blood pressure 3. A decrease in heart rate Syncope= fainting

Which of the following expresses the gonadal dose that, if received by every member of the population, would be expected to produce the same total genetic effect on that population as the actual doses received by each of the individuals? A Genetically significant dose B Somatically significant dose C Maximum permissible dose D Lethal dose

A Genetically significant dose

To produce a just perceptible increase in receptor exposure in analog imaging, the radiographer should increase the A mAs by 30% B mAs by 15% C kV by 15% D kV by 30%

A mAs by 30%

Which projection should be performed and evaluated prior to performing a Settegast projection for trauma? A PA oblique projection B Lateral projection C AP projection D PA projection

B Lateral projection **transverse fracture has been ruled out

Place the following anatomic structures in order from anterior to posterior:1.Trachea2.Apex of heart3.Esophagus A Trachea, esophagus, apex of heart B Esophagus, trachea, apex of heart C Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus D Apex of heart, esophagus, trachea

C Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus **makes sense b/c chest sticks out further than neck

For the AP projection of the humerus, a true AP position is identified by: A Lesser tubercle is seen in profile laterally B Humeral head is partially in profile laterally C Bilateral epicondyles seen in profile D Greater tubercle is seen in profile medially

C Bilateral epicondyles seen in profile

Which acute radiation syndrome requires the largest exposure before any effects become apparent? A Hematopoietic B Gastrointestinal C Central nervous system (CNS) D Skeletal

C Central nervous system (CNS)

Which of the following combinations is most likely to be associated with quantum mottle? A Decreased milliampere-seconds, decreased SID B Increased milliampere-seconds, decreased kilovoltage C Decreased milliampere-seconds, increased kilovoltage D Increased milliampere-seconds, increased SID

C Decreased milliampere-seconds, increased kilovoltage

When referencing respiration, which of the following terms is used to describe the amount of air exchanged: A Rhythm B Rate C Depth D Character

C Depth

Of the four stages of infection, which is the stage during which the infection is most communicable? A Latent period B Incubation period C Disease phase D Convalescent phase

C Disease phase

The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the A coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR B midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR C coronal plane 20 degrees to the IR D midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR.

D midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR.

Which of the following is often a cause of gastroesophageal reflux? A Volvulus B Hiatal hernia C Esophageal varices D Intussusception

B Hiatal hernia

Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? A Appendicitis B Intussusception C Regional enteritis D Ulcerative colitis

B Intussusception

Positioning for the PA lateral scapula image below can be corrected by which of the following? A Increasing the patient's rotation to bring the humeral head further into the ribs B Decreasing the patient's rotation to bring the humeral head away from the ribs C Bringing the patient's elbow back to project the humeral shaft onto the scapular body D Use breathing technique and longer exposure time to blur out ribs

***PA lateral scapula*** not scap y B Decreasing the patient's rotation to bring the humeral head away from the ribs

To compensate for gerontological body changes, reducing exposure factors would help to compensate for 1. Decreased muscle mass 2. Increased bone density 3. Weight loss 4. Reduced alertness A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 2, 3, and 4 only

1. Decreased muscle mass 3. Weight loss B 1 and 3 only

Which of the following refers to anatomical shape distortion? 1. Magnification 2. Elongation 3. Foreshortening A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

2. Elongation 3. Foreshortening C 2 and 3 only

The annual dose limit for medical imaging personnel must be tracked and reported, and includes radiation from the following sources 1. occupational exposure 2. background radiation 3. medical x-rays A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only 1. occupational exposure

Which of the following combinations would pose the most hazard to a particular anode? A 0.6 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs B 0.6 mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs C 1.2 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs D 1.2 mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

A 0.6 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs **The most hazardous group of technical factors is group A because it delivers the greatest heat (2,250 HU) with the small focal spot.

Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about A 1 1/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip B 1 1/2 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip C 3 in. superior to the xiphoid tip D 3 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip

A 1 1/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip

Which of the following factor(s) affect the position of an x-ray emission spectrum curve on the x-axis? 1. Tube voltage 2. Target material 3. Tube current A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 and 2 only 1. Tube voltage 2. Target material

Higher kVp settings can provide which of the following benefits? 1. Improved penetration 2. Patient dose reduction 3. Increased spatial resolution A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 and 2 only 1. Improved penetration 2. Patient dose reduction **Higher kVp settings increase x-ray energy, thereby providing improved penetration through tissues, particularly those that are thicker or denser. Improved penetration means less absorption (fewer photoelectric absorption interactions) and less patient dose. Additionally, higher kVp can enable lower mAs settings, also resulting in dose reduction.

As the radiographer increases kilovoltage to compensate for decreased mAs when performing a radiographic procedure, which of the following accompanying changes would be expected? 1. Patient dose would decrease 2. Scatter striking the image receptor would increase 3. Image noise would decrease A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 and 2 only 1. Patient dose would decrease 2. Scatter striking the image receptor would increase

Which of the following sites are commonly used for an intravenous injection? 1.Antecubital vein 2.Basilic vein 3.Popliteal vein A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 and 2 only 1.Antecubital vein 2.Basilic vein antecubital vein & basilic vein, both found in the elbow region popiteal vein = knee

Capacitor-discharge mobile x-ray units use capacitors to power the 1. x-ray tube 2. machine locomotion 3. braking mechanism A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only

The patient usually is required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures?Descending duodenumIliumSplenic flexure A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

A 1 only

What should you do if you discover while taking patient history that the patient scheduled for an intravenous urogram (IVU) takes metformin hydrochloride daily but has no evidence of AKI and with eGFR ≥30 mL/l.732 ? 1.Proceed with the examination if kidney function is normal. 2.Instruct the patient to withhold the metformin for 48 hours after the examination. 3.Reschedule the examination until the patient has been off metformin for 48 hours. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only

Which of the following articulations is/are well visualized in the extension lateral position of the hand? 1. Radiocarpal 2. 1st carpometacarpal 3. Proximal interphalangeal A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only

Compared to oral temperature, which of the following temperature sites would result in slightly higher values: (1) Rectal (2) Axillary (3) Forehead A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1 and 2 only

A 1 only (1) Rectal **The rectal temperature (1) will yield a reading 0.5-1.0°F higher than an oral temperature reading. Both axillary and forehead readings can be 0.5-1.0°F lower than oral temperature readings.

Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur? 1. Patellar surface 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Linea aspera A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only 1. Patellar surface The femoral shaft is bowed slightly anteriorly and presents a long, narrow ridge posteriorly called the linea aspera.

In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? 1. Supine flexion 40 degrees (Merchant) 2. Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast) 3. Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston) A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 only

A 1 only 1. Supine flexion 40 degrees (Merchant) *no quad tension/ contraction **This position also requires patient comfort without muscle tension—muscle tension can cause a subluxed patella to be pulled into the intercondyler sulcus, giving the appearance of a normal patella.

Any images obtained using dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) bone densitometry 1. are used to evaluate accuracy of the region of interest (ROI) 2. are used as evaluation for various bone/joint disorders 3. reflect the similar attenuation properties of soft tissue and bone A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only 1. are used to evaluate accuracy of the region of interest (ROI) **DXA imaging is used to evaluate BMD. It is the most widely used method of bone densitometry—it is low-dose, precise, and uncomplicated to use/perform. DXA uses two photon energies—one for soft tissue and one for bone.

The interaction between x-ray photons and matter shown in the figure below is associated with 1. total energy transfer from photon to electron 2. an outer-shell electron 3. Compton scatter A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only Explanation

A 1 only 1. total energy transfer from photon to electron Scattered radiation, which produces a radiation hazard to the radiographer (as in fluoroscopy), is a product of the Compton scatter interaction occurring with moderate energy x-ray photons.

What is used to account for the differences in ionizing characteristics of various radiations, when determining their effect on biologic material? 1.Radiation weighting factors (W r ) 2.Tissue weighting factors (Wt) 3.Absorbed dose A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only 1.Radiation weighting factors ( W r ) The Radiation Weighting Factor (W r ) is a number assigned to different types of ionizing radiations in order to better determine their effect on tissue (eg, x-ray vs alpha particles). The W r of different ionizing radiations is dependent on the LET of that particular radiation. The Tissue Weighting Factor (W t ) represents the relative tissue radiosensitivity of irradiated material (eg, muscle vs intestinal epithelium vs bone, etc). To determine Effective Dose (E) the following equation is used: Effective Dose (E) = Radiation Weighting Factor (W r ) × Tissue Weighting Factor (W t ) × Absorbed Dose

A positive contrast agentabsorbs x-ray photonsresults in a dark area on the radiographis composed of elements having low atomic number A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only Radiopaque contrast agents appear white on the finished image because many x-ray photons are absorbed. These are referred to positive contrast agents—composed of dense (i.e., high atomic number) material through which x-rays will not pass easily.

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed. 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed. 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only The coracoid and acromion processes should be readily identified separately (not superimposed) in the lateral projection

Which of the following will increase patient dose during fluoroscopy?Decreasing the SSDUsing 2.5 mm Al filtrationRestricting tabletop intensity to less than 10 R/min A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only we can decrease patient dose by increasing the SSD as much as possible. The law states that the SSD must be at least 15 in. with fixed fluoroscopic equipment and at least 12 in.

If 85 kVp, 400 mA, and ⅛ s were used for a particular exposure using single-phase equipment, which of the following milliamperage or time values would be required, all other factors being constant, to produce a similar receptor exposure using high frequency multiphase equipment? A 200 mA B 800 mA C 0.125 s D 0.25 s

A 200 mA

Which of the following projections will visualize a trimalleolar fracture? (select the four that apply) A AP ankle B AP foot C 15° oblique ankle D 45° oblique foot E Lateral ankle F Lateral foot

A AP ankle C 15° oblique ankle E Lateral ankle F Lateral foot

Varus and Valgus deformities of the knee joint are best evaluated with: A AP weight bearing projection B Lateromedial cross-table lateral projection C Holmblad method D Medial oblique projection, patient recumbent

A AP weight bearing projection A weight bearing AP projection is useful in evaluating chronic pathology such as arthritis, associated joint space narrowing, and varus and valgus deformities. Cross table projections should be utilized when the patient has suffered acute trauma. The Holmblad method, along with the Camp-Coventry and Beclere methods, are primarily used to visualize the intercondylar fossa. A medial oblique projection will reveal the lateral compartment of the knee joint and the proximal tibio-fibular joint on the posterolateral aspect of the knee.

Which of the following factors may result in an increased respiratory rate: (choose 3) A Age younger than 3 years B Exercise C Decreased emotional distress D Age over 65 years E Lower altitudes

A Age younger than 3 years B Exercise D Age over 65 years

From the following list, select 4 appropriate choices for safe lifting of a heavy object from the floor to a table. A Bend your knees and keep your back straight. B Walk toward the table as you lift, to save time. C Lift the object to a standing position, and then walk the object to the table. D Hold your breath as you brace to lift. E Bend at the waist. F Keep your feet apart, slightly wider than your shoulders. G Bring the object in close to your body. H Stand slightly to the left or the right of the object and twist as you reach for it.

A Bend your knees and keep your back straight. C Lift the object to a standing position, and then walk the object to the table. F Keep your feet apart, slightly wider than your shoulders. G Bring the object in close to your body.

In order to prevent glass fragments from entering a drug, which type of needle is necessary to draw injectables from a glass ampule? A Filtration B Subcutaneous C Intramuscular D Intradermal

A Filtration

The trauma axial lateral - Coyle method of the elbow for radial head below requires: (choose 3) A Hand pronated B Flexion of 90°° if possible C CR angle of 30°° toward shoulder D Decreased exposure factors for soft-tissue detail E Elbow and shoulder on same plane

A Hand pronated B Flexion of 90°° if possible E Elbow and shoulder on same plane **CR should be angled 45°° toward the shoulder

A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head and associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is called a(an) A Hill-Sachs defect. B Bankart lesion. C rotator cuff tear. D adhesive capsulitis.

A Hill-Sachs defect. Adhesive capsulitis, or "frozen shoulder," causes very diminished shoulder movement as a result of chronic joint inflammation.

The benefits of utilizing a smaller target angle include which of the following? (select the three that apply) A Improved image quality for unequal thickness anatomical parts B Decreased image unsharpness C Increased image unsharpness D Smaller effective focal spot E Larger effective focal spot

A Improved image quality for unequal thickness anatomical parts B Decreased image unsharpness D Smaller effective focal spot

Abnormal accumulation of air in pulmonary tissues, resulting in overdistention of the alveolar spaces, is A emphysema. B empyema. C pneumothorax. D pneumoconiosis.

A emphysema. Empyema = pus in the thoracic cavity; Pneumothorax = air or gas in the pleural cavity. Pneumoconiosis = a condition of the lungs characterized by particulate matter having been deposited in lung tissue

Which of the following statements are true with respect to the accompanying animation? (select the two that apply) A Involves no ionization B Occurs with a low energy incoming photon C Occurs in close proximity to tungsten atom nucleus D Responsible for scattered radiation fog E All the incoming photon energy is absorbed by tissue F Occurs in the tungsten target

A Involves no ionization B Occurs with a low energy incoming photon **COHERENT SCATTER VIDEO This interaction between x-rays and matter occurs with very low energy x-ray photons—energies rarely used in diagnostic radiology (B). When a very low energy x-ray photon interacts with an atom of matter, the photon can "disappear," as it is absorbed by the atom, leaving the atom in an excited state. As the atom returns to its normal state, it releases an x-ray photon of identical wavelength that travels in a direction different from that of the incident photon

Which curvature is located on the right (medial) border of the stomach? A Lesser B Greater C Superior D Inferior

A Lesser

What two rules of electrostatics from the list of five below occur at the focusing cup and function to confine the space charge to a smaller area, thus focusing the beam of electrons onto the target anode? A Opposite charges attract while like charges repel. B An increase in the magnetic flux velocity increases the induced current. C The electrostatic force is proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. D Excess charges gather at the sharpest radius of curvature of an electrified object. E Voltage is the product of Current and Resistance.

A Opposite charges attract while like charges repel. C The electrostatic force is proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Which three of the following six pathologies require a reduction in technique during a radiographic examination: A Osteoarthritis B Pneumonia C Osteopetrosis D Emphysema E Osteomalacia F Atelectasis

A Osteoarthritis D Emphysema E Osteomalacia Osteoarthritis and Osteomalacia both remove the mineral Calcium from the bones. Emphysema manifests as an over inflation of the alveoli of the lungs. When they expand in size, there are less of them per area of lung tissue, and the tissue becomes thinner. Osteopetrosis, pneumonia, and atelectasis are all additive pathologies, meaning that tissue become thicker and therefore more difficult to penetrate. Students should remember that pneumothorax and atelectasis are not the same; pneumothorax is free air in the pleura, and is sometimes, but not always, the cause of collapsed lung, or atelectasis. Pleural effusion or hematoma may also cause a lung to collapse.

Which of the following will provide an AP axial projection of the L5-S1 interspace? A Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle cephalad B Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle caudad C Patient AP with 0-degree angle D Patient lateral, coned to L5

A Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle cephalad

Which of the following conditions must be met when performing a right ventral decubitus abdomen projection? (select the three that apply) A Patient must be placed in the prone position B Vertical x-ray beam C Patient is in the supine position D Horizontal x-ray beam E IR perpendicular to the central ray F Patient's right side is closest to the x-ray tube

A Patient must be placed in the prone position D Horizontal x-ray beam E IR perpendicular to the central ray ***Ventral decub = so shoot through from left side of pt.

The term used to describe an individual with a core temperature higher than 100°F: A Pyrexic B Hypoexemic C Anemic D Anaerobic

A Pyrexic **When a person is running a fever, they are termed "pyrexic"

Which of the following therapeutic methods may be used to reduce intussusception of the small bowel in a child? A Retrograde insufflation of air B Antegrade insufflation of air C High-pressure barium enema D Have the patient ingest a large volume of barium

A Retrograde insufflation of air

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate double contrast of the medial wall of the ascending colon? A Right lateral decubitus B Left lateral decubitus C Erect D Left lateral

A Right lateral decubitus

During knee arthrography, into what space is the contrast medium injected? A Synovial capsule B Meniscus C Medial collateral ligament D Patellofemoral space

A Synovial capsule there exists a bursa (small fluid-filled sac) providing a cushion between the patella and femur.

Which of the following blood pressure measurements might indicate shock? A Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg B Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg C Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg D Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg

A Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg **Shock is indicated by extremely low blood pressure, that is, a systolic blood pressure reading lower than 60 mmHg cold

According to the AHA's Patient Care Partnership, a patient considering options for treatment should be provided which 3 of the following 6 pieces of information: A The benefits and risks of each treatment. B Details regarding outcomes of other patients who have had the same treatments. C The institution's liability insurance policy. D Whether the treatment is part of a research study. E Financial obligations for utilizing an uncovered treatment option. F A record of recent medical errors at the facility that involved the treatments being considered.

A The benefits and risks of each treatment. D Whether the treatment is part of a research study. E Financial obligations for utilizing an uncovered treatment option.

A small glass container containing a single medication dose is called a(n) A ampule B vial C vacutainer D medicine bottle

A ampule = small SEALED container used to store one medication dose B= container used to store medication dose

The condition that results from a persistent fetal foramen ovale is A an atrial septal defect B a ventricular septal defect C a patent ductus arteriosus D coarctation of the aorta

A an atrial septal defect *foramen ovale = small opening btw two chambers of the heart.

A vasodilator (dilator of vessel) would most likely be used for A angina. B cardiac arrest. C bradycardia. D antihistamine.

A angina. = A type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart.

Difficulty in breathing precipitated by stress and causing bronchospasm best describes A asthma. B anaphylaxis. C myocardial infarct. D rhinitis.

A asthma.

Which of the following factors can cause an increase in blood pressure: (1) Anxiety (2) Younger age (3) Exercise A 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 3 only

An advantage of coupling the image intensifier to the TV camera or CCD via a fiber-optic coupling device is its 1. compact size 2. durability 3. ability to accommodate auxilary imaging devices A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only

Characteristics of x-ray photons include 1. a penetrating effect on all matter 2. an ionizing effect on air 3. travelling at the speed of sound A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only

Radiation dose to personnel is reduced by which of the following guidelines?Exposure cords on fixed equipment must be very short.Exposure cords on mobile equipment should be long.Exposure cords on fixed and mobile equipment should be of the coiled, expandable type. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only

Skin discoloration owing to cyanosis may be observed in the 1. gums 2. earlobes 3. corneas A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only

The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate theanterior rim of the right acetabulumright iliac wingright anterior iliopubic column A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only

To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, in the lateral projection, which of the following is (are) recommended? 1. Close collimation 2. Lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. Decreased SID A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) associated with Compton scattering?1.High-energy incident photons 2.Outer-shell electrons 3.Characteristic radiation A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? 1. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders. 2. Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm. 3. The esophagus is visible in the midline. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only

Which of the following x-ray circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of mutual induction? 1.High-voltage transformer 2.Filament transformer 3.Autotransformer A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only

Which of the following types of radiation is (are) considered electromagnetic?X-rayGammaBeta A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only Alpha and beta radiation are particulate radiations; alpha is composed of two protons and two neutrons, and beta is identical to an electron. Gamma and x-radiation are electromagnetic, having wave-like fluctuations like other radiations of the electromagnetic spectrum

In the image below of the Gaynor-Hart method, which positioning improvements should be made: Courtesy of Jayme Scheckler 1) Increase wrist dorsiflexion 2) Align long axis of wrist to IR 3) Decrease wrist dorsiflexion A 2 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1) Increase wrist dorsiflexion 2) Align long axis of wrist to IR

Which of the following conditions require(s) a decrease in technical factors? 1. Emphysema 2. Osteomalacia 3. Atelectasis A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1. Emphysema 2. Osteomalacia emphysema is a pathologic distension of tissues with air; Osteomalacia is a softening of bone so that it becomes flexible, brittle, and deformed. Atelectasis is a collapsed or airless lung; it requires an increase in technical factors.

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? 1. Hepatic flexure 2. Gallbladder 3. Ileocecal valve A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1. Hepatic flexure 2. Gallbladder **The gallbladder is located on the posterior surface of the liver in the right upper quadrant (RUQ). The hepatic (right colic) flexure, so named because of its close proximity to the liver, is also in the RUQ. The cecum, located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ), is continuous with the terminal ileum—forming the ileocecal valve.

Which of the following information is necessary to determine the maximum safe kilovoltage using the appropriate x-ray tube rating chart? 1. Milliamperage and exposure time 2. Focal-spot size 3. Imaging-system speed A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1. Milliamperage and exposure time 3. Imaging-system speed

Which of the following positions is/are most frequently used to demonstrate the sphenoid sinuses? 1. Modified Waters (mouth open) 2. Lateral 3. PA axial A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1. Modified Waters (mouth open) 2. Lateral

Which of the following anomalies is (are) possible if an exposure dose of 400 mGy were delivered to a pregnant uterus in the third week of pregnancy? 1. Skeletal anomaly 2. Organ anomaly 3. Neurologic anomaly A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1. Skeletal anomaly 2. Organ anomaly **first trimestre = neurologic abomaly first 2 weeks = spontaneous abortion after week six to about 8 = 1. Skeletal anomaly & Organ anomaly trimester 2-3 = childhood maglingant disease

As seen in the following image, the base of the 3rd metatarsal articulates with 1. The lateral cuneiform 2. The base of the second metatarsal 3. The medial cuneiform 4. The base of the fifth metatarsal A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 4 only

B 1 and 2 only 1. The lateral cuneiform 2. The base of the second metatarsal

Structures involved in blowout fractures include the 1. orbital floor 2. inferior rectus muscle 3. temporal bone A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1. orbital floor 2. inferior rectus muscle

A backup timer for the AEC serves to 1. protect the patient from overexposure 2. protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat 3. adjust image contrast A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1. protect the patient from overexposure 2. protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat

Which of the following can have an effect on radiographic contrast?1.Beam restriction2.Grids3.Focal spot size A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1.Beam restriction 2.Grids **Focal spot size is one of the geometric factors affecting spatial resolution; it has no effect on the scale of contrast or receptor exposure.

Fluorescent light is collected from the image intensifier output phosphor and converted to an electronic video signal by the 1.TV camera tube. 2.CCD. 3.coaxial cable. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1.TV camera tube. 2.CCD.

Which of the following is (are) accurate criticism(s) of the open-mouth projection of C1-2 seen in Figure A? 1.The MSP is not centered and perpendicular to the midline of the table. 2.The neck should be flexed more. 3.The neck should be extended more. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 3 only D 1 and 3 only

B 1 and 2 only 1.The MSP is not centered and perpendicular to the midline of the table. 2.The neck should be flexed more. **b/c you see base of skull on odontoid

Greater latitude is available to the radiographer in which of the following circumstances?Using high-kV technical factorsUsing a low-ratio gridUsing low-kV technical factors A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

B 1 and 2 only Lower-ratio grids offer more tube-centering latitude than high-ratio grids.

The risk of inoculation with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is considered high for the following: 1.Broken skin 2.Shared needles 3.Conjunctiva A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only NOT* Conjunctiva= the mucous membrane that covers the front of the eye and lines the inside of the eyelids.

Which of the following dose-response curve characteristics represent genetic and some somatic responses to radiation? 1.Linear 2.Nonthreshold 3.Sigmoidal A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only The sigmoidal dose-response curve has a threshold and is thought to be generally correct for most somatic effects.

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of anemia? 1. Decreased number of circulating red blood cells 2. Decreased hemoglobin 3. Hematuria A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only 1. Decreased number of circulating red blood cells 2. Decreased hemoglobin Hematuria= the presence of blood in urine.

The average energy of the x-ray beam is increased by which of the following? 1. Increased added filtration 2. Increased generator voltage ripple 3. Increased kilovoltage A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 3 only

Suppose a radiographer would normally use 5 mAs and 65 kVp on a neonate mobile AP abdomen radiograph using a non-grid DR detector array. However, upon arriving to the NICU, it is discovered that the neonate's abdomen is significantly distended due to ascites. The radiographer decides to use an 8:1 slip-on grid to reduce the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR. Based on the condition of the patient and the use of an 8:1 grid, which of the following would be the best selection of technical factors the radiographer should use to maintain the desired exposure to the IR? A 20 mAs, 65 kVp B 10 mAs, 75 kVp C 10 mAs, 65 kVp D 12.5 mAs, 65 kVp

B 10 mAs, 75 kVp

Compared to a high-ratio grid, what benefit(s) would be gained from using a low-ratio grid? 1. Increased amount of scatter radiation produced within the patient 2. Decreased patient dose 3. Reduced scatter fog seen on the radiographic image A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

B 2 only 2. Decreased patient dose **Since low-ratio grids do not absorb as many scattered x-rays as does a high-ratio grid, there would be increased scatter fog seen on the radiographic image (C and D)

When performing a mobile AP chest radiograph on an unconscious trauma patient who is supine with their head and upper thorax angled lower than their lower thorax, what should the radiographer do to ensure a true AP projection? 1. Direct the CR perpendicular to the IR 2. Use a caudal CR angle perpendicular to the anterior surface of the sternum 3. Delay the procedure until the patient can sit upright 4. Use a cephalic CR angle perpendicular to the anterior surface of the sternum A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 4 only E 1, 2, and 3

B 2 only 2. Use a caudal CR angle perpendicular to the anterior surface of the sternum

The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3. at a level 1 inch medial to the ASIS A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1 and 3 only

B 2 only 2. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis coccyx = 10* caudally sacrum = 15* cephalad

What quantity of radiation exposure to the reproductive organs is required to cause temporary infertility? A 1000 mGy B 2000 mGy C 3000 mGy D 4000 mGy

B 2000 mGy Doses as low as 100 mGy can cause menstrual changes in women and decrease the number of sperm in men. At 2000 mGy, temporary infertility is likely, and at 5000 mGy, sterility will result.

The tabletop exposure rate during fluoroscopy shall not exceed A 10 mGya/min/mA B 21 mGya/min/mA C 10 mGya/hr D 5 R/h

B 21 mGya/min/mA

A new full-wave rectified x-ray machine is being installed at the outpatient imaging center downtown. Engineers and electricians from the manufacturer recommend wiring to a 220 V power supply from the building's electrical system. The operator's manual states that the maximum kilovoltage for the unit will be 150 kVp, and the rectifier will contain 4 diodes. It further states that the autotransformer uses 300 turns when it supplies unadjusted line voltage for maximum output to the step up transformer. What is the turns ratio (S:P) for the high voltage transformer for this machine? A 600:1 B 682:1 C 8,250:1 D 440:1

B 682:1 Givens: Vp = 220 V, Vs = 150,000 V Unknowns: Np/Ns (also known as the turns ratio) Equation: Vp/Vs = Np/Ns (The ratio of the voltage input to voltage output is proportional to the turns ratio: The Transformer Law) Substitute: 220/150,000 = Np/Ns Solve: 1/681.81 = Np/Ns Expressed asSecondary to Primary(S:P): 682:1 (B). The 300 turns on the autotransformer and the 4 diodes were extra information unnecessary to the solution.

In an AP abdomen radiograph taken at 105-cm SID during an IVU series, one renal shadow measures 9 cm in width. If the OID is 18 cm, what is the actual width of the kidney? A 5 cm B 7.5 cm C 11 cm D 18 cm

B 7.5 cm image size SID ------------ = --------------------------- object size SOD (SOD = SID - OID)

An exposed image plate will retain its original image quality for about A 2 hours B 8 hours C 24 hours D 48 hours

B 8 hours

What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in Figure 2-22? A Use a perpendicular CR. B Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad. C Angle the CR about 30 degrees caudad. D Angle the MSP 15 degrees toward the affected side.

B Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad.

Which of the following could be a side effect from antiarrhythmic medications? A Tachycardia B Bradycardia C Diarrhea D Constipation

B Bradycardia Antiarrhythmic medications aim to relieve cardiac dysrhythmia/arrhythmia.

The esophagus commences (begins/starts) at about the level of A C3. B C6. C T1. D T11.

B C6. Starts @ c6 & joins proximal stomach @ T1

Which of the following terms describes the amount of electric charge flowing per second? A Voltage B Current C Resistance D Capacitance

B Current Current = the amount of electric charge flowing per second. Voltage = potential difference existing between two points.

When describing the overall efficiency of CR photostimulabe phosphor plates converting x-ray signals into a useful image, which of the following terms best fit this definition? A Modulation transfer function B Detective quantum efficiency C Absorption efficiency D Conversion efficiency

B Detective quantum efficiency **Detective quantum efficiency or DQE, describes the overall efficiency of converting x-ray signals into a useful image. Modulation transfer function or MTF, describes the system's ability to display signal contrast as a function of spatial resolution (

Patient dose increases as fluoroscopic A FOV increases B FOV decreases C FSS increases D FSS decreases

B FOV decreases **as field of view (FOV) decreases, magnification of the output screen image increases, and contrast and resolution improve. Focal spot size (FSS) is unrelated to patient dose.

Which of the waveforms illustrated in the figure below represents single-phase, full-wave rectified equipment? Reproduced with permission from Saia DA. Radiography: Program Review and Examination Preparation, 2nd ed. Stamford, CT: Appleton & Lange, 1999. A Figure 1 B Figure 2 C Figure 3 D Figure 4

B Figure 2 *** correction image = two hill humps (on top half only of chart) *hits zero

Which of the following is a device that can be used in lieu of an image intensifier/charge-coupled device combination in digital fluoroscopy? A Charge-coupled device B Flat panel image receptor C photometer D photomultiplier tube

B Flat panel image receptor **convert the light energy into an electrical signal

Which of the following statements are true with respect to the accompanying animation? (select the two that apply) **VID OF P.E.** A Involves no ionization B Likely occurs in tissues having high atomic number C Responsible for scattered radiation fog D Occurs with the tungsten atom nucleus E All the incoming photon energy is absorbed by tissue F Most likely to produce long scale contrast

B Likely occurs in tissues having high atomic number E All the incoming photon energy is absorbed by tissue

Late or long-term effects of radiation exposure are generally represented by which of the following dose-response curves? A Linear threshold B Linear nonthreshold C Nonlinear threshold D Nonlinear nonthreshold

B Linear nonthreshold Direct, no safe threshold

Carpal tunnel syndrome shows impingement of what nerve? A Radial B Median C Ulnar D Transverse

B Median

NCRP 102 guidelines regarding leaking radiation state the following A Must not exceed 10 mGya/h at 1 m from the x-ray tube B Must not exceed 1 mGya/h at 1 m from the x-ray tube C Must be attenuated by 0.25 mm Pb equiv D Must not exceed 50 mSv/year

B Must not exceed 1 mGya/h at 1 m from the x-ray tube **(100 mR/h)*** Leakage radiation is that which is emitted from the x-ray tube housing in directions other than that of the primary beam. NCRP guidelines state that any leakage radiation from lead-lined x-ray tubes must not exceed 1 mGya/h (100 mR/h) when measured at a distance of 1 m from the x-ray tube (B). Other NCRP recommendations include: Protective lead aprons must be at least 0.25-mm Pb equivalent and must be worn by the workers in the fluoroscopy department. NCRP recommends a 0.5-mm Pb equivalent. Protective lead gloves must be at least 0.25-mm Pb equivalent. The unshielded hand must not be placed in the unattenuated or useful beam. The control panel must somehow indicate when the x-ray tube is energized (i.e., "exposure-on" time) by means of an audible or visible signal. The x-ray exposure switch must be a "dead-man" switch and situated so that it cannot be operated outside the shielded area of the control booth. The other answer choices are incorrect as per the previous explanation

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate reflux in the distal ureters during a retrograde cystogram? (select the three that apply) A Recumbent AP B Obliques C Recumbent PA D Upright AP E AP axial F Lateral

B Obliques E AP axial F Lateral

A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70° (rather than the desired 90°). How should the central ray be directed? A Perpendicular to the IR B Parallel to the floor C 20° caudad D 20° cephalad

B Parallel to the floor **Remember that air or fluid always levels out parallel to the floor.

Consider an upright right lateral humerus projection of a patient who has been injured and insists on supporting their affected side with their contralateral hand to alleviate the pain. Which of the following methods would be best for the radiographer to use? A Patient standing with the posterior surface of the shoulder of the affected side against the wall Bucky and rotating the affected arm medially to place the humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR B Patient standing with the lateral surface of the shoulder of the affected side against the wall Bucky and rotating the body medially so as to place the affected humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR C Patient standing with the anterior surface of the shoulder of the unaffected arm against the wall Bucky and rotating the body laterally so as to place the affected humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR D Patient standing with their body in the lateral position against the wall Bucky with the affected humerus closest to the IR but with no manipulation of the arm

B Patient standing with the lateral surface of the shoulder of the affected side against the wall Bucky and rotating the body medially so as to place the affected humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR

Which of the following is a radiologic procedure that functions to dilate a stenotic vessel? A Percutaneous nephrolithotomy B Percutaneous angioplasty C Renal arteriography D Surgical nephrostomy

B Percutaneous angioplasty **Plaque deposited on arterial walls in cases of atherosclerosis causes arterial stenosis. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) is a procedure that uses a balloon catheter to permanently increase the size of the arterial lumen, thus reopening the vessel and restoring blood flow. A percutaneous nephrolithotomy is a procedure performed to remove a renal calculus from a kidney or proximal ureter. Renal arteriography is the radiologic investigation of the renal arteries. Nephrostomy is the surgical formation of an artificial opening into the kidney

The hypothesis that small amounts of ionizing radiation can actually be beneficial is called A ALARA B Radiation hormesis C Action limits D No threshold

B Radiation hormesis

Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of using a 30-in. SID with a 14 × 17 in. IR to radiograph a fairly homogeneous structure? A Production of quantum mottle B Receptor exposure variation between opposite ends of the IR C Production of scatter radiation fog D Excessively short-scale contrast

B Receptor exposure variation between opposite ends of the IR **Because shorter SIDs and larger IR sizes require greater divergence of the x-ray beam to provide coverage, the anode heel effect will be accentuated

During the processing of the PSP image, what layer of the imaging plate is responsible for sending the emitted blue light toward the processor's light collecting optics and photodetector? A Conductive layer B Reflective layer C Barium fluorohalide phosphor layer D Backing layer

B Reflective layer

The number 1 in the radiograph in Figure A represents which of the following renal structures? **PIC of kidney with labels 1.2.3 (3 closest to ureters) A Vesicoureteral junction B Renal pelvis C Minor calyx D Major calyx

B Renal pelvis

During a dual contrast UGI on a patient with sthenic habitus, the radiologist visualizes a lesion suspicious for ulcer on the AP projection, midway between the fundus and the pylorus of the stomach. Which comparison view will best determine whether the lesion is on the anterior or posterior lining of the stomach? A Left lateral B Right lateral C PA projection D LPO position

B Right lateral

What could be done to improve the mediolateral projection of the knee seen in Figure 2-3? Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology. A Rotate the pelvis slightly forward/anteriorly. B Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly. C Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees cephalad. D Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees caudad.

B Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly.

Which of the following statements are true with respect to the accompanying animation? (select the three that apply) **VID OF COHERENT SCATTER** A Resulting scatter is unmodified B Scattered photon retains much of its original energy C Occurs with inner shell electrons D End products are recoil electron, scattered photon, and positive ion E Occurs with high-speed projectile electrons F Responsible for scattered radiation fog

B Scattered photon retains much of its original energy D End products are recoil electron, scattered photon, and positive ion F Responsible for scattered radiation fog

A test pattern, such as the TG 18-CT test pattern, is used to qualitatively evaluate A Low radiation levels B The luminance response of a digital display monitor C The X-ray exposure field alignment D The exposure rate in an X-ray beam

B The luminance response of a digital display monitor

Which of the following conditions would make tissue more radiosensitive? (select the three that apply) A The tissue is composed of highly specialized cells B The tissue is composed of stem cells C The tissue has a high mitotic rate D The tissue is well oxygenated E The tissue is anerobic

B The tissue is composed of stem cells C The tissue has a high mitotic rate D The tissue is well oxygenated **he Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau states that tissue becomes more radiosensitive when its degree of specialization is low and its mitotic rate is high (A and C). Stem cells are cells that are constantly dividing and making replacement tissue, like the inner lining of the stomach, which continually loses its inner cells to acid damage (

What is the anatomic structure indicated by the number 3 in the radiograph in Figure 6-12? **PIC of cervical oblique neck A Spinous process B Transverse process C Pedicle D Intervertebral foramen Mark for Review

B Transverse process **Spinous process ONLY on thoracic vertebrae or lower cervical vertebrae

Off-focus and scatter radiation outside of the exposure field when using CR can cause: A Narrowing of the histogram B Widening of the histogram C Improper alignment of the exposure field D High contrast

B Widening of the histogram

The term dysplasia refers to A difficulty speaking. B abnormal development of tissue. C malposition. D difficult or painful breathing.

B abnormal development of tissue. **Difficulty in speaking is termed dysphasia. Malposition refers to an anatomic structure located in a place other than the norm, for example, situs inversus.

The x-ray unit of exposure defines which of the following? A Sievert B air kerma C Gyt D Becqueral

B air kerma The SI unit air kerma is used to express kinetic energy released in matter; it is described as the unit of exposure and identifies ionization in air. The SI unit used to describe absorbed dose is Gray (Gyt). The SI unit of measurement to describe dose to biologic material is the Sievert (Sv). Becquerel is used to measure radioactivity.

The structure labeled number 6 in Figure 2-39 is the A left subclavian artery B brachiocephalic artery C right common carotid artery D left vertebral artery

B brachiocephalic artery

The energy of an L characteristic ray is equal to the A difference in energy between the K and L shells. B difference in energy between the L and M shells. C energy of the incoming electron. D energy of the incoming electron minus the energy of the L shell.

B difference in energy between the L and M shells.

The interaction between ionizing radiation and a cell that is most likely to occur within the human body is termed A direct action B indirect action C target action D random action

B indirect action = happens with cellular water ** body 80 % water, therefore indirect happens the most Direct action = interacts with the cell molecule itself

Increasing the overall brightness of a radiographic digital image is accomplished by A raising the window level B lowering the window level C increasing the window width D decreasing the window width

B lowering the window level raising/increasing the window level will decrease brightness and lowering/decreasing the level will increase brightness. Window width = contrast

A focal-spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for A small-bone radiography B magnification radiography C long SID techniques D fluoroscopy

B magnification radiography

For medicolegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include all the following information except A the patient's name and/or identification number. B the patient's birth date. C a right- or left-side marker. D the date of the examination.

B the patient's birth date.

The expansion and recoil of an artery describes a vital sign measurement called A auscultation B the pulse C a bruit D stroke volume

B the pulse

Graves disease is associated with A thyroid underactivity B thyroid overactivity C adrenal underactivity D adrenal overactivity

B thyroid overactivity **Graves disease is the most frequently occurring form of hyperthyroidism. Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder whose symptoms include enlargement of the thyroid gland and exophthalmos

A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time is termed A an IV push. B an infusion. C a bolus. D a hypodermic.

B. an infusion Quantities of medication can be dispensed intravenously over a period of time via an IV infusion. A special infusion pump may be used to precisely regulate the quantity received by the patient. An IV push refers to a rapid injection; the term bolus refers to the quantity of material being injected. The term hypodermic refers to administration of medication under the skin

If the ESE for a particular exposure is 3.0 mGy, what will be the intensity of the scattered beam perpendicular to and 1 m from the patient? A 0.3 mGy B 0.03 mGy C 0.003 mGy D 3.0 mGy

C 0.003 mGy In general, at 1 m from the patient, the intensity is reduced by a factor of 1,000 to about 0.1% of the original intensity. Calculate that 0.1% of 3.0 mGy is 0.003 mGy.

The lateral coccyx image shown in the figure below was made using AEC but is overexposed. This is most likely a result of A incorrect selection of the small focal spot B insufficient backup time C selection of the center photocell D incorrect centering of the part

D incorrect centering of the part

What is the minimum requirement for lead aprons, according to 21 CFR? A 0.05 mm Pb B 0.50 mm Pb C 0.25 mm Pb D 1.0 mm Pb

C 0.25 mm Pb Lead aprons are secondary radiation barriers and must contain at least 0.25-mm Pb equivalent, usually in the form of lead-impregnated vinyl (according to 21 CFR). Many radiology departments routinely use lead aprons containing 0.5 mm Pb (the NCRP recommends 0.5-mm Pb equivalent minimum).

If the exposure rate to an individual standing 7.0 feet from a source of radiation is 0.5 mGy/hr, what will be the dose received after 20 minutes at a distance of 3.0 feet from the source? A 0.07 mGy B 0.21 mGy C 0.90 mGy D 2.72 mGy

C 0.90 mGy

Guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces include which of the following?Clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated areas.Clean in a circular motion, starting from the center and working outward.Clean from the top down. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 1 and 3 only

If the x-ray image exhibits insufficient receptor exposure, this might be attributed to 1. Insufficient kilovoltage 2. Insufficient SID 3. grid cutoff A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) of the skull? 1.The head is rested on the extended chin. 2.The orbitomeatal line (OML) is perpendicular to the (IR). 3.The maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 1 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) located on the distal aspect of the humerus? 1. Capitulum 2. Intertubercular groove 3. Coronoid fossa A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 1 and 3 only 1. Capitulum 3. Coronoid fossa The lateral aspect of the distal humerus presents a raised, smooth, rounded surface, the capitulum, that articulates with the superior surface of the radial head. The trochlea is on the medial aspect of the distal humerus and articulates with the semilunar notch of the ulna. Just proximal to the capitulum and the trochlea are the lateral and medial epicondyles; the medial is more prominent and palpable. The coronoid fossa is found on the anterior distal humerus and functions to accommodate the coronoid process with the elbow in flexion. The intertubercular (bicipital) groove is located on the proximal humerus.

Which of the following will contribute to the production of longer-scale radiographic contrast? 1.An increase in kV 2.An increase in grid ratio 3.An increase in photon energy A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 1 and 3 only 1.An increase in kV 3.An increase in photon energy Increased photon energy is caused by an increase in kVp, resulting in more penetration of the part and a longer scale of contrast. ***Increasing the grid ratio will result in a larger percentage of scattered radiation being absorbed and hence a shorter scale of contrast.

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is likely that an individual will receive more than what fraction of the annual dose limit? A ½ B ¼ C 1/10 D 1/40

C 1/10

Which of the following materials may be used as grid interspace material?LeadPlasticAluminum A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 2 and 3 only

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the figure below?The image was made in the LAO position.The CR should enter more inferiorly. The sternum is projected onto the left side of the thorax. **PIC of sternum with left marker in right hand corner Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology. A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 2 and 3 only

Which of the following radiographic examinations require(s) the patient to be NPO 8-10 hours prior to examination for proper patient preparation? 1. Abdominal survey 2. Upper GI series 3. BE A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 2 and 3 only **no prep for abdominal surgery

What will cause the electrons from the photocathode to be focused on the output phosphor? 1. Light from the input phosphor 2. Electrostatic lenses 3. Concave curvature of the cathode end of the image intensifier A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 2 and 3 only 2. Electrostatic lenses 3. Concave curvature of the cathode end of the image intensifier

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the position illustrated in Figure 2-19? 1. The left (elevated) ureter is parallel to the IR. 2. The left (elevated) kidney is parallel to the IR. 3. The degree of obliquity should be about 30 degrees. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 2 and 3 only 2. The left (elevated) kidney is parallel to the IR. 3. The degree of obliquity should be about 30 degrees. the kidney of the "down" side is perpendicular to the IR and its ureter is parallel to the IR. The kidney of the "up" side is parallel to the IR.

For the AP axial projection of the sigmoid during a barium enema, which CR angulation is recommended: A 15-25°° cephalic B 20-30°° caudad C 30-40°° cephalic D 10-15°° caudad

C 30-40°° cephalic

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation? A AP B Lateral C 30-degree RPO D 45-degree LPO D 45-degree LPO

C 30-degree RPO **30° to 50° to the MSP with the upper portion approximately 50° and the lower portion approximately 30°. L5-S1 The 45-degree oblique position best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints of L1-4.

Which of the following positions/projections of the skull will result in the most shape distortion? A 0° PA B 23° Caldwell C 37° Towne D 25° Haas

C 37° Towne

If 92 kV and 12 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase equipment, what mAs would be required to produce a similar radiograph with three-phase equipment? A 36 B 24 C 6 D 3

C 6

According to the Bohr model, a neutral atom of oxygen (Z = 8), will have how many valence electrons? A 3 B 4 C 6 D 8

C 6 the L shell, with 6 electrons **2 from k shell will move to fill this shell

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition? A Radial flexion/deviation B Ulnar flexion/deviation C AP (medial) oblique D AP (lateral) oblique

C AP (medial) oblique

Which of the following methods is used to focus the electrons on the anode target of the x-ray tube? A Emitting them separately B Focusing them through a narrow port C Electrostatic repulsion D Using a lens system

C Electrostatic repulsion **Because negatively-charged electrons repel each other, the beam of electrons traveling from the cathode filament of the x-ray tube tend to spread out. To correct this, a focusing cup surrounding the cathode filament made of molybdenum or nickel has a negative charge placed on it. This creates an electrostatic repulsion on the electron cloud, formed at the cathode filament and thereby narrowing and constricting the electron beam

Radiation output from a diagnostic x-ray tube is measured in which of the following units of measurement? A Gyt B Sv C Gya D Bq

C Gya

Which of the following is another name for an intermittent injection port? A Hypodermic needle B Butterfly needle C Heparin lock D Intravenous (IV) infusion

C Heparin lock

Which of the following is not a sign of extravasation? A Site redness B Pain C Hives around the injection site D Cooling of the skin surrounding the fluid

C Hives around the injection site

Which of the following positions demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses? A Parietoacanthial B PA axial C Lateral D True PA

C Lateral Parietoacanthial (Waters' method) = maxillary sinuses. PA axial (Caldwell) = frontal and ethmoidal sinus Lateral projection = all the paranasal sinuses.

If your patient is unable to stay erect for a paranasal sinus examination, which of the following alternatives should be chosen? A Recumbent AP B Lateral recumbent C Lateral cross-table recumbent D Recumbent Waters'

C Lateral cross-table recumbent

Which type of dose-response relationship represents radiation-induced leukemia and genetic effects? A Linear, threshold B Nonlinear, threshold C Linear, nonthreshold D Nonlinear, nonthreshold

C Linear, nonthreshold (Direct, no safe dose)

Which surface must be adjacent to the IR to obtain a lateral projection of the fourth finger with optimal recorded detail? A Anterior B Posterior C Medial D Lateral

C Medial

Which of the following patient identifiers is not considered protected information: A Address B Date of Birth C Medical Record Number D Social Security Number

C Medical Record Number *not personal information, rather a placeholder for that sensitive info

The condition of low neutrophils is termed: A Neutrogenic B Neutropathic C Neutropenic D Neutroemic

C Neutropenic

Which of the following conditions describes a patient who is unable to breathe easily while in the recumbent position? A Dyspnea B Apnea C Orthopnea D Oligopnea

C Orthopnea A patient with orthopnea is unable to breathe while lying down. Dyspnea refers to difficulty breathing in any body position. Apnea describes cessation of breathing for short intervals. Oligopnea is infrequent breathing

Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile technique? A Gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms. B Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist level. C Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face. D A sterile field should not be left unattended.

C Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face. **Persons in sterile dress should not pass each other face to face. Rather, they should pass each other back to back to avoid contaminating each other.

The sternoclavicular joint is classified as which type of joint: A Spheroidal B Ginglyumus C Plane D Trochoid

C Plane The sternoclavicular joint is a plane or gliding joint marked by a sliding/gliding motion between the sternum and clavicle (C). This type of joint does not allow for much movement. Spherical or ball-and-socket joints are freely movable and are found in the hip and shoulder joints (A). Ginglymus or hinge joints are found in the interphalangeal and elbow joints (B). Trochoid or pivot joints are found between C1 and C2 and between the radius and ulna (proximal and distal

Which of the following are signs that a lateral projection of the chest is rotated? (select the two that apply) A Sternoclavicular joints are asymmetric to the spine B Trachea is not centered over thoracic vertebral bodies C Posterior ribs are not superimposed D Clavicles are not symmetric E Costophrenic angles are not superimposed

C Posterior ribs are not superimposed E Costophrenic angles are not superimposed

If obtaining multiple images on one image plate, it is important to: A Allow for X-ray tube cooling between successive exposures B Avoid shielding of the image plate at all times to avoid field recognition errors C Properly shield each exposed and unexposed area during the imaging of each individual image D Expose the AP or PA projection in the right lower portion of the image plate

C Properly shield each exposed and unexposed area during the imaging of each individual image

Which of the following has the greatest effect on receptor exposure? A Aluminum filtration B Kilovoltage C SID D Scattered radiation

C SID Aluminum filtration, kilovoltage, and scattered radiation all have a significant effect on receptor exposure, but they are not the primary controlling factors.

The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage? A Endocrine B Integumentary C Skeletal D Muscular

C Skeletal

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it? A Spondylitis B Spondylolysis C Spondylolisthesis D Spondylosis

C Spondylolisthesis Spondylolysis is the breakdown of the pars interarticularis; it may be unilateral or bilateral and results in forward slipping of the involved vertebra—the condition of spondylolisthesis. Inflammation of one or more vertebrae is called spondylitis. Spondylosis refers to degenerative changes occurring in the vertebra.

Occasionally, it is difficult for the radiographer to obtain a diagnostic image of the odontoid (dens) process using the open-mouth technique. An alternative method, called the Fuch's method, may be used where the patient extends their head to place the mental and mastoid plane perpendicular to the image receptor. However, if the patient is unable to obtain the full extension needed, a slight cephalic angulation of the x-ray tube may be warranted. What could be the potential disadvantage of such an angulation of the tube? A The chin would be projected cephalically to prevent superimposition over the odontoid process. B The odontoid process would appear within the opening of the foramen magnum. C The tube angulation could elongate the odontoid process somewhat and distort the fracture gap relationship D The thyroid dose would significantly increase.

C The tube angulation could elongate the odontoid process somewhat and distort the fracture gap relationship

Which of the following equipment is mandatory for performance of a myelogram? A Cine camera B Transducer C Tilting x-ray table D Endoscopy

C Tilting x-ray table

The focal spot-to-table distance, in mobile fluoroscopy, must be A a minimum of 38 cm. B a maximum of 38 cm. C a minimum of 30 cm. D a maximum of 30 cm.

C a minimum of 30 cm. **fixed (stationary) equipment must provide at least 38 cm source to tabletop/skin distance. Mobile fluoroscopic equipment must provide at least 30 cm source-to-tabletop/skin distance.

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be A iodinated contrast evening before examination; water only in the morning. B NPO after midnight. C cathartics and cleansing enemas. D NPO after midnight, cleansing enemas, and filled bladder.

C cathartics and cleansing enemas.

Another name for Hirschsprung's disease, the most common cause of lower GI obstruction in neonates, is A intussusception B volvulus C congenital megacolon D pyloric stenosis

C congenital megacolon

The chest radiograph shown in the figure below demonstrates **PIC of baby chest xray Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology. A motion B focal-spot blur C double exposure D grid cutoff

C double exposure

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the A periosteum. B endosteum. C epiphysis. D diaphysis.

C epiphysis. Long bones have a shaft and two extremities (ends). The shaft (or diaphysis) of long bones is the primary ossification center during bone development. It is composed of compact tissue and covered with a membrane called periosteum. Within the shaft is the medullary cavity, which contains bone marrow and is lined by the membrane called endosteum. The secondary ossification center, the epiphysis, is separated from the diaphysis in early life by a layer of cartilage, the epiphyseal plate.

An illness of unknown or obscure cause is said to be A systemic. B epidemic. C idiopathic. D pathogenic.

C idiopathic. Idiopathic = a disease of unknown or unclear cause. systemic = concerns a (body) system. epidemic = a disease that swiftly affects a large number of people in a particular geographic region. pathogenic = Anything that is or can be disease-producing

At approximately what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate? A Foramen magnum B Trachea C laryngopharynx D nasopharynx

C laryngopharynx

To "excuse" suboptimal images, a radiographer makes a note on the exam requisition claiming that the patient "was uncooperative." That radiographer can legally be found guilty of A battery. B slander. C libel. D tort.

C libel. ** key word written * written defamation is libel.

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the A lateral projection B PA axial (Caldwell method) projection C parietoacanthal (Waters method) projection D AP axial (Towne method) projection

C parietoacanthal (Waters method) projection

Congruence of the x-ray beam with the light field is tested using A a pinhole camera B a star pattern C radiopaque objects D a slit camera

C radiopaque objects **The focal spot should be tested periodically to evaluate its size and its impact on spatial resolution; this is accomplished using a slit camera, a pinhole camera, or a star pattern. To test the congruence of the light and x-ray fields, a radiopaque object such as a paper clip or a penny is placed at each corner of the light field before the test exposure is made. Upon viewing, the corners of the x-ray field should be exactly delineated by the radioopaque objects.

All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except A the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination. B retained fecal material can obscure pathology. C single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions. D double-contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions.

C single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions. **This enables visualization of any intraluminal lesions such as polyps and tumor masses.

Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of a(n) A esophagram. B upper GI series. C small-bowel series. D ERCP.

C small-bowel series.

Filament size can have an effect on image (select the three that apply) A contrast B brightness C spatial resolution D detail E gray scale F unsharpness

C spatial resolution D detail F unsharpness

The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed A surgical asepsis. B medical asepsis. C sterilization. D disinfection.

C sterilization. Disinfection =. the use of chemicals **these use word technique usually*** Surgical asepsis. = killing of all microbes Medical asepsis. = removing of as many microbes

Glossitis refers to inflammation of the A epiglottis B salivary glands C tongue D ossicles

C tongue Inflammation of the tongue is called glossitis. Inflamed salivary glands are usually referred to with reference to the affected gland, as in parotitis (inflammation of the parotid gland). Inflammation of the epiglottis is termed epiglottitis.

Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct? 1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position. 2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation. 3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C 1 and 3

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?Fractured lateral malleolusFractured medial malleolusFractured posterior tibia A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3 **TRI = think 3 things

Which of the following drugs may be used as a vasoconstrictor for a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction? 1. Adrenalin 2. Vasopressin 3. Atropine A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3 1. Adrenalin 2. Vasopressin 3. Atropine This condition is called hypotension. To treat this condition, a vasoconstrictor may be injected, which constricts the blood vessels, thereby increasing the blood pressure.

During ventricular systole, blood flows into which of the following structures? 1. The pulmonary semilunar valve 2. The right atrioventricular valve 3. The mitral valve 4. The aortic semilunar valve A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 4 only

D 1 and 4 only 1. The pulmonary semilunar valve 4. The aortic semilunar valve During ventricular systole, both the right and left ventricles contract, forcing blood out. From the right ventricle, the blood moves through the pulmonary semilunar valve into the pulmonary arteries. From the left ventricle, the blood flows through the aortic semilunar valve to the ascending aorta, coronary arteries, and the remainder of the systemic circulation (D).

An increase in exposure factors usually is required in which of the following circumstances?EdemaAscitesAcromegaly A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Examples of stochastic effects of radiation exposure include 1. radiation-induced malignancy 2. genetic effects 3. leukemia A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only

D 1, 2, and 3

Geometric unsharpness will be least obvious 1. at long SIDs. 2.with small focal spots. 3. at the anode end of the image. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Improper support of a patient's fractured lower leg (tibia/fibula) while performing radiography could result in 1. movement of fracture fragments. 2. tearing of soft tissue, nerves, and blood vessels. 3. initiation of muscle spasm. A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Involuntary motion can be caused by 1.peristalsis. 2.severe pain. 3.heart muscle contraction. A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply include 1. dyspnea. 2. cyanosis. 3. retraction of intercostal spaces. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

The decision as to whether to deliver ionic or nonionic contrast medium should include a preliminary patient history including, but not limited to 1. patient age. 2. history of respiratory disease. 3. history of cardiac disease. A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is theadvance health care directive.living will.health care proxy. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

The structures forming the brain stem includethe 1. pons 2. the medulla oblongata 3. the midbrain A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following are potential undesirable effect(s) of scattered radiation? 1. Image fog 2. Increased patient dose 3. Increased radiographer dose A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following can affect radiographic contrast? 1.LUT 2.Pathology 3.OID A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following can contribute to the image contrast? 1. Tissue density 2. Pathology 3. Muscle development A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the scapulohumeral/glenohumeral relationship ? 1.Scapular Y projection 2.Inferosuperior axial 3.Transthoracic lateral A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following radiation exposure responses exhibit a nonlinear threshold dose-response relationship?1.Skin erythema2.Hematologic depression3.Lethality A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest? 1. The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR. 2. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs. 3. Arms must be raised high to prevent upper-arm soft-tissue superimposition on lung field. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA projection of the paranasal sinuses?OML forms a 15 degree angle with the horizontal beam.The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits.The frontal sinuses are visualized. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy? 1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason. 2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated. 3. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between. A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiograph shown in Figure 4-29? 1. The image exhibits long-scale contrast. 2. The image exhibits soft tissue fold. 3. The image demonstrates motion blur. Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-12? 1. The patient is placed in an RAO position. 2. The midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR. 3. The acromion and coracoid processes form the upper extensions of the "Y". A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3 1. The patient is placed in an RAO position. 2. The midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR. 3. The acromion and coracoid processes form the upper extensions of the "Y".

Component parts of a CT gantry include 1. high-voltage generator 2. multidetector array 3. x-ray tube A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3 1. high-voltage generator 2. multidetector array 3. x-ray tube

Functions of the Swan-Ganz catheter include(s) evaluation of 1. Oxygen saturation 2. Medication effects 3. Ventricular failure A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3 The Swan-Ganz catheter is inserted into the pulmonary artery. While in the pulmonary artery, functions of the Swan-Ganz include the measurement of cardiac output and efficacy of administered cardiac medications (2), to evaluate for ventricular failure (3), to measure oxygen saturation of the blood (1), and to see how stress and/or exercise impact cardiac function

Which of the following is likely to contribute to the radiographic contrast present on an analog x-ray image? 1. Atomic number of tissues radiographed 2. Any pathologic processes 3. Degree of muscle development A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3 The radiographic subject, the patient, is composed of many different tissue types that have varying tissue densities, resulting in varying degrees of photon attenuation and absorption. The atomic number of the tissues under investigation is directly related to their attenuation coefficient. This differential absorption contributes to the various shades of gray (scale of radiographic contrast) on the radiographic image. Normal tissue density may be altered significantly in the presence of pathologic processes. For example, destructive bone disease can cause a dramatic decrease in tissue density (and subsequent increase in receptor exposure). Abnormal accumulation of fluid (as in ascites) will cause a significant increase in tissue density. Muscle atrophy or highly developed muscles similarly will decrease or increase tissue density.

Tangential axial projections of the patella can be obtained in which of the following positions? 1.supine flexion 45° (Merchant) 2.prone flexion 90° (Settegast) 3.prone flexion 55° (Hughston) A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 only

D 1, 2, and 3 only 1.supine flexion 45° (Merchant) 2.prone flexion 90° (Settegast) 3.prone flexion 55° (Hughston)

Which of the following influence the average energy of the primary x-ray beam? 1. kVp 2. mA 3. filtration 4. bremstrahlung interaction A 1 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 3, and 4 only

D 1, 3, and 4 only 1. kVp 3. filtration 4. bremstrahlung interaction

Which of the following is a normal BUN level: A 0.25 mg/100mL B 4 mg/100mL C 6.5mg/100mL D 10mg/100mL

D 10mg/100mL 8- 25 normal range

Using a multifield image intensifier tube, which of the following input phosphor diameters will require the highest patient dose? A 35 cm B 25 cm C 17 cm D 12 cm

D 12 cm As voltage is applied to the electrostatic focusing lenses, the focal point moves back—closer to the input phosphor—and a smaller portion of the input phosphor is utilized. As a result, the FOV decreases and magnification increases, producing better spatial resolution. At the same time, brightness is decreased requiring an increase in mA (therefore increased patient dose). This increase in mA increases image quality. It can be likened to an increase in signal-to-noise ratio (SNR), with mA being the signal.

If the exposure rate to a body standing 8 feet from a radiation source is 70 mGy/min, what will be the dose to that body at a distance of 5 feet from the source? A 27 mGy/min B 43 mGy/min C 112 mGy/min D 179 mGy/min

D 179 mGy/min

Positive beam limitation devices must be accurate to within A 5% of the SID B 2% of the OID C 10% of the mAs D 2% of the SID

D 2% of the SID

If 84 kV and 8 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase equipment, what milliampere-seconds value would be required to produce a similar radiograph with three-phase, 12-pulse equipment? A 24 mAs B 16 mAs C 8 mAs D 4 mAs

D 4 mAs To produce similar receptor exposure, only two-thirds of the original milliampere-seconds would be used for three-phase, six-pulse equipment ( 2 / 3 × 8 = 5.3 mAs). With three-phase, 12-pulse equipment, the original milliampere-seconds would be cut in half ( 1 / 2 × 8 = 4 mAs)

In the AP knee projection of an asthenic patient who measures less than 19 cm from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to tabletop, the CR should be directed A perpendicularly B 5 degrees medially C 5 degrees cephalad D 5 degrees caudad

D 5 degrees caudad >19cm = 5* caudal 19-24cm = perp. <25cm = 5* cephalic

During prolonged use, such as fluoroscopy, the x-ray tube may acquire an abundance of heat. If a three-phase rectified fluoroscopy tube is used with a technique of 90 kVp and 4 mA for a total beam on time of 3 minutes and 5 seconds, what are the total heat units (Joules) produced? A 66,600 HU B 1.946 HU C 740 HU D 93,240 HU

D 93,240 HU HU = kVp × mA × s × VW where kVp is kilovolts peak, mA is milliamperes, s is exposure time, and VW is the voltage waveform correction factor. For single-phase equipment, the correction factor is 1; for three-phase and high frequency equipment, the correction factor is 1.4. Multiplying 90 kV × 4 mA × 185 sec × 1.4 correction factor = 93,240 HU. Minutes were converted to seconds as a preliminary step: (3 × 60) + 5 = 185.

Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture? A Internal and external rotation B AP and tangential C AP and AP axial D AP and scapular Y

D AP & scapular Y **Rotational views must be avoided in cases of suspected fracture.**

Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase in exposure factors? A Pneumoperitoneum B Obstructed bowel C Renal colic D Ascites

D Ascites =the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity A=presence of air or gas in the abdomen B= air and stool in bowel C= Waves of sharp, intense pain caused by kidney dysfunction.

On what principle does the stator located within the x-ray tube housing operate? A Thermal conduction B Line-focus C Kinetic energy D Electromagnetic induction

D Electromagnetic induction

All of the following are daily quality control (QC) steps to ensure optimal diagnostic images on a digital display monitor, except: A Turn on the monitor and allow it to warm up B Evaluate luminance, reflection, noise and glare C Make sure that the monitor is dust-free on the viewing surface D Evaluate the QC patterns at the periphery and verify that all letters and numbers appear

D Evaluate the QC patterns at the periphery and verify that all letters and numbers appear **the QC pattern should be evaluated at the center and corners to verify that all letters and numbers can be visualized, not simply the periphery as

Too much edge enhancement of the image in digital systems can cause an unwanted artifact called the: A Photoelectric effect artifact B Scaling artifact C Hounsfield artifact D Halo effect artifact

D Halo effect artifact **A scaling artifact is not an artifact seen in digital imaging (B). A Hounsfield artifact is not an artifact seen in digital imaging

To radiographically demonstrate the lumbar spine and sacrum in an AP projection, the radiographer should center the spine at the level of the iliac crest, which corresponds with the level of which lumbar vertebra? A L-1 B L-2 C L-3 D L-4

D L-4

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition? A AP B Lateral C Medial oblique D Lateral oblique

D Lateral oblique The lateral oblique projection demonstrates the radial head free of ulnar superimposition. The lateral projection demonstrates the olecranon process in profile. The medial oblique projection demonstrates considerable overlap of the proximal radius and ulna but should clearly demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa.

Identify the structure labeled 1 in the AP projection of the knee shown in Figure 2-16. Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology. A Lateral condyle B Lateral epicondyle C Medial condyle D Medial epicondyle

D Medial epicondyle Condyle = closer to joint of knee epicondyle = on top of condyle, closer to level of patella base

Which of the following statements are true with respect to the accompanying animation? (select the three that apply) ***video about Brems** A Occurs with outer shell electrons B Produces discrete energy photons C Likely occurs with tissues having high atomic numbers D Occurs when high speed electrons are decelerated E Occurs with tungsten atom nuclei F Produces a wide range of x-ray energies

D Occurs when high speed electrons are decelerated E Occurs with tungsten atom nuclei F Produces a wide range of x-ray energies

Which of the following positions would demonstrate the right lumbar zygapophyseal articulations closest to the IR? A LAO B RAO C LPO D RPO

D RPO **saying: UP. cervical UP. thoracic DOWN. lumbar UP.

Referring to Figure 2-38, which of the following positions requires that baseline number 3 be parallel to the IR? ***IOML *** being parallel to IR in pic A Parietoacanthial B PA axial (Caldwell) C AP axial (Towne) D SMV

D SMV

Which of the following sinus groups is best demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth? A Frontal B Ethmoidal C Maxillary D Sphenoidal

D Sphenoidal

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process? A AP axial B Lateral C Parietoacanthial D Submentovertical (SMV)

D Submentovertical (SMV)

There are two types of automatic exposure control: photodiode and the more common parallel plate ionization chamber. How are they positioned? A Both are between the image receptor and the patient B Both are behind the image receptor C The photodiode type is situated between the patient and the image receptor, while the ionization chamber is behind the image receptor D The ionization chamber type is situated between the patient and the image receptor, while the photodiode is behind the image receptor

D The ionization chamber type is situated between the patient and the image receptor, while the photodiode is behind the image receptor

In a routine (mediolateral) lateral projection of the knee, if the fibular head is seen to be completely free from superimposition of the proximal tibia, what positioning error likely occurred? A The patient extended their knee too much. B The patient was rotated posteriorly. C The patient flexed their knee too much. D The patient was rotated anteriorly.

D The patient was rotated anteriorly.

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to assisting a patient from a wheelchair to an x-ray table? A The wheelchair should be parallel with the x-ray table. B The patient's weaker side should be closer to the x-ray table. C The wheelchair should directly face the x-ray table. D The patient's stronger side should be closer to the x-ray table.

D The patient's stronger side should be closer to the x-ray table.

A technologist setting a manual technique on a DR imaging system is contemplating changing mA from 300 down to 150, with no other changes to other factors. Which of the following effects will happen as a result of this change? A The patient dose will double. B The image will have increased brightness. C The image will have a shorter scale of contrast. D The signal-to-noise ratio will decrease.

D The signal-to-noise ratio will decrease.

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, no detectable pulse, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should A begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths. B proceed with the Heimlich maneuver. C begin external chest compressions at a rate of 70-80 compressions/min. D begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

D begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

Radiation doses of 5 Gy to the ovaries A have no effect on fertility B delay menstruation C cause temporary infertility D cause sterility

D cause sterility Doses at 100 mGy could cause a delay in menstruation, while doses of 2 Gy can cause temporary infertility (A, B, and C). Smaller doses of 250‒500 mGy can cause damage to oocytes, but some oocytes survive and repair genetic damage before maturation

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the A costal margin B umbilicus C xiphoid tip D fourth lumbar vertebra

D fourth lumbar vertebra

All the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true except A for radiography of the kidneys, the CR should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis. B if a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than in the standard PA projection. C chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position. D radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.

D radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position. myelomeningocele defect = when they have a cyst/ boul protusion on back

Contact precautions are required when handling patients with all of the following except A C. difficile B adenovirus C VRE D rubeola

D rubeola C. difficile, adenovirus, and VRE are all transferrable through contact, while rubeola is transmitted through the air via coughing and sneezing (A, B, C, and D). Rubeola particles can stay suspended in the air for up to 2 hours, requiring additional airborne precautions in which the healthcare worker would need to wear an N95 fitted mask.

Forms of intentional misconduct include 1. slander 2. invasion of privacy 3. negligence. A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, 3

Place the following areas of the scapula in order from superior/uppermost margin to inferior: Unordered List Lateral border Coracoid Glenoid Acromion Inferior angle

Ordered List Acromion Coracoid Glenoid Lateral border Inferior angle **Think what is most long or reaches lower/ inferiorly