Review Questions - EEG

456. Again in the sample above, in what channel is a delta wave seen with overriding beta frequencies ? a. ch #1 b. ch #2 c. ch #3 d. ch #4

A. ch #1

360. The endocrine system regulates the body by means of . a. electrical impulses b. hormones c. nerves d. neurotransmitters

B. hormones

58. A malignant tumor primarily seen in children may be . a. pituitary tumor b. medulloblastoma c. acoustic neuroma d. astrocytoma

B. medulloblastoma Tyner et al. 1983, p. 136.

57. Inflammation of the coverings of the brain or spinal cord is called . a. encephalitis b. meningitis c. cerebritus d. myelitis

B. meningitis Dorland's Medical Dictionary, 30th Edition, W.B. Saunders Co., Philadelphia.

406. Identify the blood vessel "D": a. posterior communicating artery b. middle temporal artery c. posterior cerebral artery d. vertebral artery

B. middle temporal artery

294. Two or more independent foci: a. flat b. multifocal c. tracé alternant d. unifocal

B. multifocal

413. In the sample above, what pattern is present in this 11 year old male patient? a. 14 and 6 Hz positive spikes b. occipital slow waves of youth c. wickets d. benign partial epilepsy of childhood

B. occipital slow waves of youth

114. The purpose of the multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) is to . a. observe the patient during hypnagogic hallucinations b. quantify the patient's sleepiness and identify REM onset c. calculate the patient's response to sleep deprivation d. record eye movement

B. quantify the patient's sleepiness and identify REM onset Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 580. Ebersole and Pedley, p. 823

47. Two important functions of the medulla are . a. proprioception and smell b. respiration and regulation of heart rate c. respiration and sleep d. Feeding reflex (suckling) and endocrine system regulation

B. respiration and regulation of heart rate Snell, R.S. (1987): Clinical Neuroanatomy for Medical Students, 2nd ed., Little, Brown and Co., Boston, pp. 194-195.

41. The tracts connecting the right and left hemispheres are called the ____. a. corpus callosum b. internal capsule c. intrahemispheric association fibers d. basal ganglia

A. Corpus callosum Snell, R.S. (1987): Clinical Neuroanatomy for Medical Students. 2nd ed. Little, Brown and Co., Boston, p. 21. Patestas, MA & GartberLP (2006) A Testbookof Neuroanatomy. Blackwell Publishing. p. 69

485. What are 2 types of electrode burns that can occur in the END Lab? a. Electrical and Electrochemical burns b. Laser burns and Radiation burns c. Burns from exposure to ultraviolet light and incandescent light

A. Electrical and Electrochemical burns

3. Which of the following is not a valid expression of Ohm's law? (in this equation E (electromotive force) is the dame as V (Voltage) a. R = E I or (R = V I) b. E = I R or (V = I R) c. I = E / R or (I = V/R) d. R = E / I or (R = V/ I)

A. R = E I or (R = V I)

249. A full term neonate usually enters into sleep in a state. a. REM b. Non-REM

A. REM Fisch 3rd edition, p. 170

459. What description best describes the sample above? a. Right sided PLEDs b. Generalized spike and slow wave complexes c. Pacemaker artifact d. Alpha coma

A. Right sided PLEDs

13. An EEG record has three per second spike/wave discharges. Both the spike and the slow wave have voltages of 100 V. If this discharge is recorded with a low frequency filter of 5 Hz and a sensitivity of 10 V/mm, what would be the deflection of the spike and the wave? a. spike 10 mm, wave 6 mm b. spike 6 mm, wave 10 mm c. spike 10mm, wave 10 mm d. spike 6 mm, wave 6 mm

A. Spike 10 mm, wave 6 mm

201. is a fatal genetic lipid storage disorder seen in infants in which harmful quantities of fatty substance called ganglioside, build up in the tissues and nerve cells in the brain. After normal development during the first few month of life, there is progressive deterioration including seizures, deafness, blindness, and paralysis. a. Tay-Sachs Disease b. Progressive Supranuclear Palsy c. Moyamoya Disease d. Paget's Disease

A. Tay-Sachs Disease The National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke: http://www.ninds.nih.gov/disorders/taysachs/taysachs.htm

186. The sample below illustrates: a. Sleep spindles b. Accentuation of Alpha on eye closing c. Diffuse Beta activity d. Onset of REM sleep

B Accentuation of Alpha on eye closing Stern & Engel, p. 30

363. The suffix -itis means . a. inflammation b. excision c. incision d. tumor

A. inflammation

60. Which infection is most likely to produce headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, coma, and death? a. meningitis b. herpes simplex encephalitis c. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis d. Creutzfeldt Jacob disease

A. meningitis Tyner et al. 1983, p. 199.

149. A longer time constant results in . a. more slow frequencies recorded b. more slow frequencies attenuated c. the time base/epoch/analysis time/equivalent paper speed is extended d. the amplifier is more responsive to fast frequencies

A. more slow frequencies recorded

443. The dipole of the human eye is at the cornea. a. positive b. negative c. neutral

A. positive

407. Identify the blood vessel "E": a. posterior communicating artery b. basilar artery c. posterior cerebral artery d. vertebral artery

A. posterior communicating artery

503. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) in humans is transmitted by , and called . a. prions, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b. bacteria, Bacterial Meningitis c. microbes, Mad Cow Disease d. prions, Scrapie

A. prions, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

333. The olfactory aura preceding a major seizure is . a. the hallucination of an unpleasant smell b. a false sense of familiarity with the current situation c. a dream-like sense of strangeness d. a continual ringing sound in the patient's ears

A. the hallucination of an unpleasant smell

386. In the sample above, what is the first clue that this is an abnormal sample? a. the sample shows polymorphic delta, and a waking adult should not have delta waves as part of their EEG b. the sample shows triphasic waves that are generalized c. the EKG is irregular d. the sample shows polyspikes

A. the sample shows polymorphic delta, and a waking adult should not have delta waves as part of their EEG

383. In the sample above, what could be the cause of the eye movements being recorded phase reversing at CZ in the last 2 channels? a. there is a faulty ground/common lead located at Fpz and the electrodes are recording input from the ground/common electrode b. the patient has a prosthetic eye c. the Fp1 and Fp2 electrodes are placed at the F3 and F4 locations d. there is a salt bridge (conductive bridge) between Fp1 and Fp2

A. there is a faulty ground/common lead located at Fpz and the electrodes are recording input from the ground/common electrode

293. Stiffening of the muscles is referred to as . a. tonic b. clonic c. apnea d. agraphia

A. tonic

285. Multi-infarct dementia is due to . a. vascular disease b. a bacterial agent c. a viral infection d. chronic pulmonary disease

A. vascular disease

78. QRS complex refers to . a. ventricular excitation of the myocardium b. spinal cord reflex c. herniation of the first 3 cranial nerves d. the tetrad of narcolepsy

A. ventricular excitation of the myocardium Tyner et al. 1983, p. 270-271.

498. Define the term CD-ROM: a. Compact Disk - Right of memory b. Compact Disk - Read only memory c. Compact Disk - Re-recordable memory d. Compact Disk - Random only memory

B. Compact Disk - Read only memory

483. The term used in cardiology to denote a low level of electric current applied directly to the myocardial tissue; as low as 0.1 mA which causes ventricular fibrillation is . a. Macroshock b. Microshock c. Minishock d. Maxishock

B. Microshock

220. The indentation between the forehead and the nose is the . a. inion b. preauricular point c. nasion d. mark for Fpz

C, nasion

4. Which of the following is not a unit for measuring alternating frequencies? a. Cycles per second b. Volts c. Hertz d. Kilocycles

B. Volts

196. EEG pattern of hypsarrythmia. a. Benign Rolandic Epilepsy b. West's Syndrome c. Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy d. Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

B. West's Syndrome The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 137.

190. An autosomal recessive (chromasome 13) disorder of copper metabolism also called hepatolenticular degeneration, with symptoms of behavioral changes, ataxia, dysarthria and abnormal movementsas well as hepatic dysfunction: a. West Syndrome b. Wilson's Disease c. Addison's Disease d. Vasculitis

B. Wilson's Disease

481. In a modern IONM system, is the amplifier box ground (patient ground or common electrode) the same as the IONM Instrument ground? a. Yes b. No

B. Yes

330. Epilepsy is . a. transmitted exclusively through a genetic trait b. a collection of diseases and syndromes united by the occurrence of seizures c. always progressive and debilitating d. the third most common cause of death in America

B. a collection of diseases and syndromes united by the occurrence of seizures

117. The drug phenytoin (Dilantin) will have little effect on the EEG at therapeutic levels, however when approaching toxic levels the drug can cause what EEG change? a. an increase in beta b. a slowing in the background alpha c. frontal beta d. bursts of temporal theta

B. a slowing in the background alpha Kellaway, P. (1990): An orderly approach to visual analysis: Characteristics of the Normal EEG of adults and children. In: Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 143.

355. FIRDA is seen in . a. children b. adults c. full term neonates d. preterm infants

B. adults

437. The function of a differential amplifier is to . a. amplify the sum of electrical potential between 2 inputs b. amplify the difference in electrical potential between 2 inputs c. amplifies the inputs by 100% d. amplifies the inputs by 200%

B. amplify the difference in electrical potential between 2 inputs

403.Identify the blood vessel "B": a. anterior communicating artery b. anterior cerebral artery c. internal carotid d. middle cerebral

B. anterior cerebral artery

449. It is common for a defect in the skull either from surgery or injury to produce which of the following patterns: a. wicket spikes b. breach rhythm c. focal slowing d. mu rthythm

B. breach rhythm

318. In the sample above, what pattern is present? a. Typical generalized 3/sec spike and slow wave b. burst suppression c. Atypical absence seizure activity d. Periodic Lateralized Epileptiform Discharges

B. burst suppression

250. Mu rhythm is highest amplitude in the electrodes. a. frontal b. central c. parietal d. occipital

B. central Fisch 3rd edition, p. 192-193

422. The structure in the illustration above is called and is part of the . a. ventricle, ventricular system b. circle of willis, blood supply to the brain c. dendrite, structure of a neuron d. thalamus, internal capsule

B. circle of willis, blood supply to the brain

51. Thrombosis of the anterior cerebral artery is most likely due to cause . a. nystagmus b. contralateral lower extremity weakness c. contralateral facial weakness d. aphasia

B. contralateral lower extremity weakness Manter & Gatz's 7th ed., 1987, p. 217.

387. Necrosis means: a. inflamed tissue b. dead tissue c. irritated tissue d. swollen tissue

B. dead tissue

102. Intracerebral hemorrhage from the middle cerebral artery would most likely produce an EEG finding of . a. periodic bursts of high amplitude theta activity over the ipsilateral hemisphere. b. delta activity maximal over the frontotemporal area of affected hemisphere c. spike and wave complexes over the affected hemisphere d. alpha coma

B. delta activity maximal over the frontotemporal area of affected hemisphere Niedermeyer, E. and Lopes da Slva, F. (Eds.) (1987): Electroencephalography: Basic Principals, Clinical Applications and Related Fields. 2nd ed. Urban & Schwarzenberg, Baltimore-Munich, p. 282.

54. An action potential is an immediate result of which of the following changes in the neural membrane? a. repolarization b. depolarization c. Hyper polarization d. IPSP

B. depolarization Spehlmann's EEG Primer, 2nd ed. (1991), Fisch, B.J. (Ed.), Elsevier, Amsterdam-New York-Oxford, pp. 10-11. Fisch 3rd edition, p. 8

283. Which of the following EEG patterns is considered a good prognostic sign in a comatose patient? a. burst suppression b. desynchronization of background rhythms in response to noxious stimuli c. no change in background rhythms in response to noxious stimuli d. electrocerebral inactivity

B. desynchronization of background rhythms in response to noxious stimuli

Page 1 of 2 page sample. Sample continued on next page. 371. In the 2 page sample from the same patient above, what is the likely origin of the Delta activity? a. space occupying lesion in the frontal lobe b. eye flutter artifact c. focal epileptiform activity d. post-ictal slowing

B. eye flutter artifact

450. In the sample above, name the abnormality seen and localize it. a. sharp and slow wave, left temporal b. focal slowing, left temporal c. focal slowing, left hemisphere d. focal sharp waves, left temporal

B. focal slowing, left temporal

116. Benzpdiazepines such as Ativan (Lorazepam), at thearapudic levels can cause a. marked diffuse slowing b. frontal central beta c. epileptiform activity d. focal frontal slowing

B. frontal central beta

98. The International Classification of Epilepsies and Epileptic Syndromes places juvenile myoclonic epilepsy under what category? a. localization-related epilepsies b. generalized epilepsies and syndromes c. special syndromes d. epilepsies and syndromes undetermined as to whether they are focal or generalized

B. generalized epilepsies and syndromes Tyner et al. 1983, p. 123.

145. Low frequency filters are also called . a. low pass filters b. high pass filters c. notch filters d. EMG filters

B. high pass filters Ebersole and Pedley, p. 80

140. In a referential montage, with CZ as the reference, what is the most valuable localizing feature? a. phase reversal b. highest voltage discharge c. in phase cancellation d. common mode rejection

B. highest voltage discharge Fisch 3rd edition, p. 78

233. In a referential montage, what is the most valuable localizing feature? a. phase reversal b. highest voltage discharge c. cancellation d. inactivity

B. highest voltage discharge Fisch 3rd edition, p. 78-81

431. The condition illustrated above is called: a. space occupying lesion of the brain b. hydrocephalus c. normal infant brain development d. Alzheimer's Disease

B. hydrocephalus

464. Abnormally high concentration of calcium in the blood is called . a. hyperthyroidism b. hypercalcemia c. hyperkinetic d. hyperbole

B. hypercalcemia

304. The EEG pattern most often seen with infantile spasms is . a. 3/second generalized spike and wave b. hypsarrhythmia c. 14 and 6 positive spikes d. PLEDS

B. hypsarrhythmia

289. The term "complex" in complex partial seizures indicates . a. associated with mental retardation b. impairment of consciousness c. genetically determined d. involving upper and lower extremity muscles

B. impairment of consciousness

263. Dementia is a term for . a. congenital brain damage with low I.Q. b. loss of mental skills in later life c. a form of reversible encephalopathy d. viral infections of the brain and meninges

B. loss of mental skills in later life

94. Photic driving . a. is an abnormal response to photic stimulation b. may or may not be present in a normal EEG recording c. always precedes a photo-convulsive response d. must be of equal amplitude over both hemispheres to be considered normal

B. may or may not be present in a normal EEG recording Tyner et al. 1983, p. 271.

439. We are able to record EEG signals that are very low in amplitude in the midst of 60 Hz noise in the environment because of . a. phase reversal b. of the characteristic of common mode rejection in the differential amplifier c. copper shielding in the patient rooms d. a special coating on EEG electrodes that shield them from 60 Hz activity.

B. of the characteristic of common mode rejection in the differential amplifier

400. In the illustration above, the structures identified as A-D are as follows, A , B , C D . a. cerebral peduncle, medulla oblongata, cerebellum, spinal cord b. olfactory bulb, optic chiasm, pons, medulla oblongata c. olfactory bulb, fourth ventricle, aqueduct, IV nerve d. facial nerve, oculomotor nerve, trigeminal nerve, inferior colliculi

B. olfactory bulb, optic chiasm, pons, medulla oblongata FitzGerald, MD, PhD, DSc, MRIA, M., Neuroanatomy, (1997), W.B.Saunders Co. Ltd., London. P. 25-26.

234. In a chain linked bipolar montage, what is the most valuable localizing feature? a. highest voltage discharge b. phase reversal c. blocking of the pens d. suppression

B. phase reversal Fisch 3rd edition, p. 75-78

320. Which of the following is an abnormal cortical response to photic stimulation? a. bilateral photic driving b. photo-paroxysmal discharges c. harmonic photo-entrainment d. photo-myoclonic discharges

B. photo-paroxysmal discharges

425. In the illustration above, what is the structure labeled "2"? a. primary sensory cortex b. primary motor cortex c. premotor cortex d. Wernicke's area

B. primary motor cortex

92. A common seizure pattern in neonates is . a. generalized spike and wave b. rhythmic focal activity c. beta-delta complexes d. burst suppression

B. rhythmic focal activity Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 228.

223. Lambda can be elicited by . a. contralateral fist clenching b. scanning a complex image c. Stage I sleep d. clapping

B. scanning a complex image Fisch, 3rd edition, p. 193-194

150. Time constant is expressed in . a. mm per sec b. seconds c. cycles per second d. uV per mm

B. seconds Fisch, 3rd edition, p. 49-50

26. The best metals for clinical EEG recording are ____. a. Gold plated lead, nickel or silver b. Silver-silver chloride, platinum or gold c. tin, copper, or silver-silver chloride d. stainless steel, platinum or silver

B. silver-silver chloride, platinum or gold

113. The sleep disorder that occurs most commonly in the adult population is . a. narcolepsy b. sleep apnea c. hypersomnolence d. sleep terrors

B. sleep apnea Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p.565.

255. Which of the following sleep transients is well defined by age 2 to 3 months? a. POSTS b. sleep spindles c. V waves d. K complexes

B. sleep spindles Fisch 3rd edition, p. 171

163. In the sample below, the patient is an adult, alert with eyes open/eyes closed in the middle of the sample(note the eye movement artifacts on opening and then closing 3 seconds later). What do you notice about the EEG sample? a. spike and slow wave b. slow alpha variant c. Rhythmic Mid Temporal Discharge d. MU Rhythm

B. slow alpha variant

93. A recommended method of monitoring infusion motor artifact from intravenous (IV) infusion pumps is the place two electrodes on . a. the IV tubing b. the infusion pump apparatus c. the outer surface of the patient's hand d. the chest

B. the infusion pump apparatus Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 90

357. Alzheimer's disease is . a. caused by a transmissible agent b. the most common form of dementia c. caused by cell loss in the subtantia nigra d. characterized by periodic discharges on the EEG

B. the most common form of dementia

282. A wave with a frequency of 5 hertz falls in what frequency band? a. alpha b. theta c. beta d. delta

B. theta

63. Herniation of the uncus results in compression of which cranial nerve? a. first b. third c. eighth d. twelfth

B. third Tyner et al. 1983, p. 154.

20. According the ACNS Guidelines 2006, the minimum sampling rate for EEG data, should be at least ____ times the highest high frequency filter setting. a. two b. three c. four d. ten

B. three

338. Which one of the following EEG patterns is often seen with liver disease? a. breach rhythm b. triphasic waves c. hypsarrhythmia d. rhythmic mid-temporal discharges

B. triphasic waves

321. An EEG insturment's input impedance should be . a. very low b. very high c. about the same as the electrode impedances d. measured at the beginning of each montage

B. very high

440. Solve for voltage and deflection, the following input scenario. Input 1 receives an input of negative 50 microvolts, and Input 2 receives an input of negative 50 microvolts. What would be the output? a. 50 µV and upward deflection b. 100 µV and downward deflection c. 0 µV and equipotential (no deflection) d. 100 µV and upward deflection

C. 0 µV and equipotential (no deflection)

274. For an ECI recording, inter-electrode distances should be AT LEAST . a. 10 mm b. 5 cm c. 10 cm d. 8 mm

C. 10 cm

152. How much deflection will occur if a 100uV spike is recorded at a sensitivity of 10 µV/mm, and HFF 70 Hz, LFF .5 Hz.? a. 1000 mm b. 100 mm c. 10 mm d. 1 mm

C. 10 mm

229. What is the sensitivity when the input voltage is 100 µV and the pen deflection is 10 mm? a. 2 µV/mm b. 5 µV/mm c. 10 µV/mm d. 20 µV/mm

C. 10 µV/mm

477. Common household breakers are set to trip at what level of current? a. 5 mA b. 10 mA c. 10-30 mA d. 240 A

C. 10-30 mA

445. Positive Occipital Sharp Transients of Sleep are typically found in what age group? a. 1 to 5 year olds b. 6 months of age to 9 year olds c. 13 to 25 year olds d. in patients over the age of 60

C. 13 to 25 year olds

109. Electrocerebral inactivity is defined as no electrical activity greater than . a. 0.5 V b. 1.0 V c. 2.0 V d. 3.0 V

C. 2.0 V American Clinical Neurophysiology Society website: Guidelines www.acns.org

336. Which of the following discharges are most commonly associated with abnormalities on neurological exam? a. 3/second spike-wave b. 6/second spike-wave c. 2/second spike-wave c. Rolandic spikes

C. 2/second spike-wave

227. A neonate is born at 29 weeks gestational age. An EEG is performed when she is 8 weeks old. Her conceptional age is weeks. a. 21 b. 33 c. 37 d. 42

C. 37

14. A high frequency setting of 35 Hz would attenuate 50 Hz muscle activity by approximately what percentage? a. 10% b. 20% c. 40% d. 100%

C. 40%

221. If the measurement from Fp2 to O2 is 24 cm, where should F4 be marked if the zero remains at Fp2? a. 22 cm b. 4.8 cm c. 6 cm d. 12 cm

C. 6 cm

218. If a 10 µV,1 hertz wave was recorded using a 1 hertz low frequency filter, what would the voltage measure in the print out? a. 20 µV b. 10 µV c. 7 µV d. 5 µV

C. 7 µV

211. Cyclically increasing and decreasing respiratory depth and rate, separated by apneic phases, suggesting bilateral deep cerebral hemispheric or diencephalic dysfunction or may be produced by any encephalopathic state: a. Hypopnea b. Obstructive Sleep Apnea c. Cheyne-Stokes respiration d. Central Sleep Apnea

C. Cheyne-Stokes respiration

188. Rapid, involuntary, jerky, arrhythmic movements of muscle groups, that can be generalized, symmetric, asymmetric or unilateral describes what disorder? a. Myelopathy b. Gillain-Barre Syndrome c. Chorea d. Leukoencephalopathy

C. Chorea The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 70.

156. Select from the list below, the false statement about current. a. Current may be AC or DC b. Current flows where there is a source of voltage and a conductive pathway c. Current is measured in coulombs d. Current is movement of electrons in a conductor

C. Current is measured in coulombs

482. All electrodes used in END testing should have . a. 2 mm pin connectors b. 5 mm pin connectors c. DIN 42-802 standard connectors d. Exposed metal pin connectors

C. DIN 42-802 standard connectors

334. Which of the following information is necessary to calculate the sensitivity? a. Montage and Deflection (mm) b. Deflection (mm) and Gain c. Deflection (mm) and Voltage (uV) d. Voltage (uV) and Impedance

C. Deflection (mm) and Voltage (uV)

189. A clinical syndrome characterized by loss of function in multiple cognitive abilities in an individual with previously normal or at least higher intellectual level is called . a. Ataxia b. Aphasia c. Dementia d. Asterixis

C. Dementia The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 93.

373. In the sample above, the activity seen predominantly on the right is most likely . a. 14 and 6 Hz positive spikes b. Wicket spikes c. EMG artifact d. 60 Hz

C. EMG artifact

493. Temporary memory storage that is critical to rapid computer operations: a. ROM b. REM c. RAM d. CD ROM

C. RAM

393. In the illustration above, the arrow marked "E" indicates and the arrow "F" indicates . a. Anterior, Posterior b. Sagittal, Transverse c. Superior, Inferior d. Dorsal, Ventral

C. Superior, Inferior Medical Terminology: A Self Learning Text, Second edition, by Jacqueline Joesph Birmingham, Mosby, 1990. Pg 59

339. Which of the following medications is most likely to produce a paroxysmal discharge in the EEG? a. Depakote b. phenobarbital c. Tegretol d. Ritalin

C. Tegretol

23.Guidelines for recording digital EEG are written by: a. the American Society of Electroneurodiagnostic Technologists (ASET) b. The American Academy of Neurology (AAN) c. The American Clinical Neurphysiology Society (ACNS) d. The Organization of Societies of Electrophysiological Technology (OSET) ACNS Guidelines, www.acns.org

C. The American Clinical Neurphysiology Society (ACNS)

91. Which of the following would not be considered a normal EEG pattern for a full term infant? a. trace alternant b. isolated frontal sharp waves c. persistent focal alpha frequency activity d. beta delta complexes in quiet sleep

C. persistent focal alpha frequency activity Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 204*215

409. Identify the blood vessel "G": a. posterior communicating artery b. basilar artery c. posterior cerebral artery d. vertebral artery

C. posterior cerebral artery

424. In the illustration above, what is the structure labeled "1"? a. primary sensory cortex b. primary motor cortex c. premotor cortex d. Broca's area

C. premotor cortex

231. Input I = +100 µV and Input II = +100 µV. The waveform will . a. deflect upward b. deflect downward c. remain at a flat and neutral position and have no deflection

C. remain at a flat and neutral position and have no deflection

367. Disks, CDs, DVDs as well as portable hard drives provide a form of . a. RAM b. ROM c. secondary portable storage for data files

C. secondary portable storage for data files

381. In the sample above, what is the most outstanding feature of the sample and how would you characterize it? a. generalized spike and slow waves, epileptiform activity b. focal spike and slow waves, clinical seizure activity c. sharply contoured rhythmic theta, "wickets" d. temporal slowing, evidence of CVA

C. sharply contoured rhythmic theta, "wickets"

297. The patient is able to recall events about the seizure itself after a/an . a. absence seizure b. complex partial seizure c. simple partial seizure d. generalized tonic/clonic seizure

C. simple partial seizure

423. The illustration above, shows the crowding of brain tissue after a . a. coma b. contra coupe injury c. subdural hematoma d. focal seizure

C. subdural hematoma

353. Parkinsonism is caused by unknown mechanisms leading to cell death in the . a. occipital lobe b. thalamus c. substantia nigra d. myelinated neurons

C. substantia nigra

291. The periodic pattern seen with Herpes Simplex Encephalitis most often occurs in the . a. frontal lobes b. cerebellum c. temporal lobes d. brainstem

C. temporal lobes

306. If a child has an episode of staring accompanied by 3 hertz generalized spike and wave activity, the technologist should . a. turn off the EEG instrument b. turn the child's head to the side c. test the child's responsiveness d. begin photic stimulation

C. test the child's responsiveness

260. Idiopathic epilepsy means a. there is no cause b. the disease is genetic c. the cause is unknown d. the cause is psychiatric

C. the cause is unknown

144. When 60 Hz interference is seen on an EEG recording, what should be checked first? a. the electrical outlet b. the input impedance of the instrument c. the electrode impedance d. the common mode rejection ratio

C. the electrode impedance

326. Sleep spindles are . a. epileptic b. a sleep disorder c. the onset of Stage 2 sleep d. the beginning of REM sleep

C. the onset of Stage 2 sleep

74. The Glasgow Scale is used to determine . a. the patient's true weight b. the glucose level of the blood c. the patient's degree of consciousness d. the intracranial pressure level

C. the patient's degree of consciousness DeGroot and Chusid 1991, p. 181.

11. Which of the following is most attenuated by a low frequency filter of 1 Hz? a. 0.5 Hz b. 5.0 Hz c. 10.0 Hz d. 0.1 Hz

D. 0.1 Hz

21. In a record with 10 Hz alpha activity. When the display epoch is changed from 10 seconds per display screen to 20 seconds per display screen, the frequency of the activity will be ____. a. 5 Hz b. 15 Hz c. 20 Hz d. 10 Hz

D. 10 Hz

242. The maximum leakage current allowed at the chassis when the ground wire is disabled is . a. 10 µA b. 20 µA c. 50 µA d. 100 µA

D. 100 µA

226. What is 20% of 58 cm? a. .58 cm b. 5.8 cm c. 11.6 mm d. 11.6 cm

D. 11.6 cm

347. If a spike measures 12 millimeters at a sensitivity of 10 µV/mm, the voltage is . a. 1.2 mm b. 120 mm c. 1200 µV d. 120 µV

D. 120 µV

219. How much deflection will occur if a 150 µV spike is recorded at a sensitivity of 10 µV/mm? a. 1500 mm b. 15 cm c. 1.5 mm d. 15 mm

D. 15 mm

281. A sharp wave could have a duration of . a. 20 msec b. 150 µV c. 300 µV d. 160 msec

D. 160 msec

497. Define the term Byte: a. 2 bits of information b. 4 bits of information c. 6 bits of information d. 8 bits of information

D. 8 bits of information

476. What level of constant voltage is likely to cause asystole? a. 1mA b. 3-5 mA c. 50 mA d. >2 A

D. >2 A

488. Most burns associated with END electrodes can be described as skin tissue that is altered from it's normal physiologic state, so the appropriate term for electrode burns is . a. First degree b. Second degree c. Third degree d. A lesion

D. A lesion

492. To prevent problems caused by moisture from blood and fluids contacting electrodes, electrode boxes or cables in the OR: a. Secure all electrode boxes and cables under the OR table b. Place a plastic bag over the electrode boxes to prevent exposure to moisture c. Secure all electrode boxes and cables out of the way of other instruments and surgeons' work areas. d. All of the above

D. All of the above

1. The basic unit for measuring current flow is ____. a. atomic weight b. Coulomb c. Volt d. Ampere

D. Ampere

496. Define the term Terabyte: a. Approximately 1 thousand bytes b. Approximately 1 million bytes c. Approximately 1 billion bytes d. Approximately 1 trillion bytes

D. Approximately 1 trillion bytes

162. In the sample above, the abnormality is consistent with . a. Benign Occipital Epilepsy b. Primary Generalized Epilepsy c. Temporal Lobe Epilepsy d. Benign Rolandic Epilepsy

D. Benign Rolandic Epilepsy Ebersole and Pedley, p. 526-532

398. In the illustration above, A is and B is . a. Brocha's and Wernicke's areas b. Sensory strip, Motor strip c. Anterior temporal and Posterior temporal areas d. Motor strip, Sensory strip

D. Motor strip, Sensory strip

385. In the illustration above, the mannequin has all the electrodes together in one clump at the side of the neck. Why is this an important technique in electrode application? a. to keep the electrodes from being pulled when the patient moves b. to keep the electrodes from being tangled c. to aide Common Mode Rejection by reducing the 60 Hz noise that is picked up by the electrode lead wires, which can act as an antenna. d. all of the above

D. all of the above

435. The relationship between voltage, sensitivity and deflection is . a. deflection is equal to voltage divided by sensitivity b. sensitivity is equal to voltage divided by deflection c. voltage is equal to sensitivity multiplied by deflection d. all of the above

D. all of the above

444. No difference in electrical potential is called: a. equipotential b. in phase cancellation c. common mode rejection d. all of the above

D. all of the above

252. Drowsiness in an 8 year old child is characterized by . a. saw toothed lateral eye movements b. frontal beta c. high voltage occipital delta d. alpha dropout

D. alpha dropout

108. Which of the following is related to an alpha coma pattern? a. reactivity to external stimuli b. usually indicates a good prognosis c. is only present when the patient is alert and oriented d. an atypical distribution of alpha

D. an atypical distribution of alpha Tyner et al. 1983, p. 193. Fisch, p. 426-428

412. In the illustration above, showing a sleeping 13 month old, what is notable about the sample and is it abnormal? a. synchronous sleep spindles, abnormal at this age b. synchronous sleep spindles, normal at this age c. asynchronous sleep spindles, abnormal at this age d. asynchronous sleep spindles, normal at this age

D. asynchronous sleep spindles, normal at this age Daley, D. and Pedley, T., Clinical Practice of EEG (1990) Raven Press, NY. P. 256.

124. The minimum requirements for a monitor to display EEG accurately are met with monitors that have . a. At lease 1.24 data points across the screen b. at least 10.24 data points across the screen c. at least 102.4 data points across the screen d. at least 1024 data points across the screen

D. at least 1024 data points across the screen ACNS Guidelines 2006, Guideline 8 (Display) www.acns.org

236. Hypocapnia causes . a. blood vessels to dilate b. too much oxygen to be carried to the brain c. blood pressure to rise d. blood vessels to constrict

D. blood vessels to constrict

313. Which of the following electrophysiological events is thought to generate the EEG signal? a. IPSP b. EPSP c. action potential d. both EPSPs and IPSPs

D. both EPSPs and IPSPs

415. In the sample above, what pattern is seen? a. wicket spikes b. 14 and 6 Hz positive spikes c. focal epiliptiform discharge d. breach rhythm

D. breach rhythm

455. In the same sample above, in which channels do you see alpha activity? a. ch #1 & 2 b. ch #2 & 4 c. ch #3 d. ch # 1,2, 3, & 4

D. ch # 1,2, 3, & 4

273. When 60 Hz interference appears in two adjacent channels sharing a common electrode, which of the following should you do first? a. replace ground electrode b. change montage and exclude problem electrode c. replace electrode d. check electrode impedance then regel or replace

D. check electrode impedance then regel or replace

59. The most common symptoms of which type of head injury are a temporary loss of consciousness, followed by confusion, severe headache, and possibly amnesia for the accident? a. contusion b. laceration c. contrecoup d. concussion

D. concussion Tyner et al. 1983, p. 227.

372. In the sample above, what is the significance of the activity at the arrow? a. Photic driving b. Photoconvulsive response c. Photomyogenic response d. electroretinogram

D. electroretinogram

349. Lambda differs from POSTS in that lambda is seen during . a. Stage I sleep b. eye closure c. REM sleep d. eye opening

D. eye opening

262. Transient ischemic attacks are . a. a form of partial epilepsy b. always followed by a completed stroke c. never followed by a completed stroke d. fully resolved within 24 hours

D. fully resolved within 24 hours

441. When both the negative and positive ends of a generator are recorded during an EEG it is called . a. polymorphic delta b. paroxysmal event c. triphasic waves d. horizontal or tangential dipole

D. horizontal or tangential dipole

122. Aliasing is caused by: a. improper electrode placement b. 60 Hz interference c. insufficient amplifier gain d. insufficient sampling rate

D. insufficient sampling rate Ref: ASET online course, EEG 104 Understanding and Utilizing Digital EEG, www.aset.org

253. During active sleep, the full term neonate has . a. regular respirations and no eye movements b. regular respirations and no EMG c. irregular respirations and EMG d. irregular respirations and eye movements

D. irregular respirations and eye movements

123. Horizontal resolution refers to the . a. time constant divided by equivalent paper speed (epoch/analysis time/time base) b. amount of time required to return to the horizontal baseline c. amount of space available for storage to disk d. number of data points that are stored to record a signal in each second across time.

D. number of data points that are stored to record a signal in each second across time. ASET online education course, EEG 104 Understanding and Utilizing Digital EEG, www.aset.org

284. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is associated with which of the following EEG patterns? a. prominent beta activity b. bitemporal slowing c. 3/second spike-wave discharges d. periodic complexes

D. periodic complexes

112. What is the EEG pattern seen in the illustration above and most often associated with herpes encephalitis, cerebral vascular accidents, brain abscess, and other forms of acute brain injury? a. repetitive spike and wave b. burst suppression c. benign epileptiform transients of sleep d. periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges

D. periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges Tyner et al. 1983, p. 156. Blume et al, Atlas of Adult EEG 2002, p. 345

410. Identify the blood vessel "H": a. posterior communicating artery b. basilar artery c. posterior cerebral artery d. vertebral artery

D. vertebral artery

33. In the illustration above, which electrode is active and what is the polarity? a. F7 and negative b. A1 and negative c. F8 and negative d. F4 and positive

b. A1 and negative Tyner et al. 1983, p. 149-158

478. What is the maximum intensity of household current in the US? a. 10 A b. 180 A c. 240 A d. 1000 A

c. 240 A

36. Which of the following is not a physiological artifact? a. perspiration b. glossokinetic response c. 60 Hz interference d. eye movement

c. 60 Hz interference Spehlmann, R. (1981): EEG Primer, Elsevier Biomedical, Amsterdam, p. 113. Spehlmann's EEG Primer 2nd ed. (1991), Fisch, B.J. (Ed.), Elsevier, Amsterdam-New York-Oxford, p. 107-120.

434. The serves to insulate the axon and increase the speed of impulses conducted. a. dendrite b. soma c. myelin d. cell body

c. myelin

502. Caused by a transmissible protein called a prion, this disorder causes deterioration of the brain and movement problems that worsen over time. Normal sterilization procedures such as boiling and irradiating materials fail to render these prions non

infective. Name this disorder: a. Bacterial Meningitis b. Viral meningitis c. Human spungiform encephalopathy/Creutzfeldt Jacob disease/Kuru/Gerstmann Straussler Scheinker syndrome d. Progressive supranuclear palsy e. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis *C. Human spungiform encephalopathy/Creutzfeldt Jacob disease/Kuru/Gerstmann Straussler Scheinker syndrome

208. A neurological disorder indicated at birth by seizures accompanied by a large port

wine stain birthmark on the forehead, and cerebral cortex atrophy and increased pressure within the eye on the affected side. a. Syringomyelia b. Sturge-Weber syndrome c. Sub-acte Sclerosing Panencephalitis *B. Sturge-Weber syndrome

494. Define the term Megabyte: a. Approximately 1 thousand bytes b. Approximately 1 million bytes c. Approximately 1 billion bytes d. Approximately 1 trillion bytes

*B. Approximately 1 million bytes

361. LH (Lutenizing Hormone) is produced in the . a. ovaries b. testes c. pituitary gland d. adrenal gland

.C pituitary gland

203. Similar to Alzheimer's, affects the frontal and temporal lobes first, with earliest symptoms showing up as changes in personality, and decline in function at home and at work. a. Reyes Syndrome b. Sturge-Weber syndrome c. Pick's Disease d. Paget's Disease

.C. Pick's Disease

452. In the sample above, the patient is alert, has normal intelligence, and no neurological signs or symptoms. What is the pattern seen? a. Mu rhythm b. Rhythmic mid temporal theta discharge c. Wicket spikes d. Slow Alpha Variant

.D Slow Alpha Variant

115. Of the following, which would be the most beneficial in evaluating suspected narcolepsy? a. pneumoencephalography b. electroencephalography c. all night polysomnography d. multiple sleep latency test

.D multiple sleep latency test Kryger, M.H., Roth, T., and Dement, W.C. (1989): Principles and Practice of Sleep Medicine. W.B.Saunders, Philadelphia/London/Toronto, p. 341.

345. A clinical sign of meningitis is . a. triphasic delta b. cataplexy c. nuchal rigidity d. low voltage alpha

C. nuchal rigidity

167. In the illustration below, give the name of the montage F. a. Circumferential Bipolar b. Longitudinal Bipolar c. Transverse Bipolar e. Ipsilateral Ear Reference

A. Circumferential Bipolar

Input I =

20 µV and Input II = *10 µV 277. In the sample above, what is likely causing the .5 Hz slow activity? a. electrode pops b. glossokinetic artifact c. EMG d. sweat artifact/perspiration *D. sweat artifact/perspiration

499. Define the term CD-RW: a. Compact Disk - ReWritable b. Compact Disk - ReWashable c. Compact Disk - ReWorkable d. Compact Disk - Read Only

A. Compact Disk - ReWritable

475. At what level of constant voltage is a person likely to experience paralysis of respiratory muscles? a. 1 mA b. 6-8 mA c. 16 mA d. 20

50 mA *D. 20*50 mA

Ebersole & Pedley, 3rd edition, p. 76-78 133. How did this change improve the sample? a. Better evaluation of possible focal onset b. Better resolution of morphology and amplitude c. Better localization d. Better display of lateralization

B. Better resolution of morphology and amplitude

489. Mechanical lesions are caused by . a. Exercise, over use of joints b. Pressure, and removing adhesive too quickly c. Repetitive movement d. Working with heavy machinery

B. Pressure, and removing adhesive too quickly

173. In the illustration of the dipole of the eye below, A is the having a charge, and B is the having a charge. a. cornea, positive, retina, negative b. retina, negative, cornea, positive c. cornea, negative, retina, Positive d. retina, positive, cornea, negative

A. cornea, positive, retina, negative

230. Input I = +60 µV and Input II = +20 µV. The waveform will . a. deflect downward b. deflect upward c. remain at a flat and neutral position and have no deflection

A. deflect downward

232. Input I = -100 µV and Input II = -50 µV. The waveform will . a. deflect upward b. deflect downward c. remain at a flat and neutral position and have no deflection

A. deflect upward

213. ACNS has recommended nomenclature for the mid temporal and posterior temporal placements and , which on most instruments is still labeled and . a. (T7, T8 and P7, P8) (T3, T4 and T5, T6) b. (F9, F10 and P9, P10) (T1, T2 and A1, A2) c. (AF7, AF8 and PO7, PO8) (C3, C4 and P3, P4) d. (TP9, TP10 and F9 and F10) (Fz, Cz and Pz, Oz)

A. (T7, T8 and P7, P8) (T3, T4 and T5, T6)

125. ACNS Guidelines 2006 state that vertical scaling on digital EEG instruments should have a minimum of per channel when displaying up to channels. a. 10 mm, 21 b. 20 mm, 16 c. 5 mm, 18 d. 7 mm, 32

A. 10 mm, 21 ACNS Guidelines, Guideline 8, (Display) www.acns.org

474. Using a constant voltage, what is the maximum current a person can grasp and probably still "Let go"? a. 16 mA b. 20 mA c. 50 mA d. >2 A

A. 16 Ma

287. Simple absence seizures are usually characterized by the EEG pattern of . a. 3/second generalized spike and wave b. 14 and 6 Hz positive spikes c. lambda d. rhythmic mid-temporal discharges

A. 3/second generalized spike and wave

29. The distance from Cz to Pz is 6.8 cm. What is the distance from nasion to inion? a. 34 cm b. 35 mm c. 36 mm d. 37 cm

A. 34 cm Tyner et al. 1983, p. 138

84. An asymmetry of the occipital alpha rhythm voltage from the two hemispheres should be no greater than . a. 50% b. 20% c. 30% d. 25%

A. 50% Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 146.

55. The resting potential of a neuron is . a. 50 to 100 mV with the inside of the cell more negative than the outside b. 50 to 100 mV with the inside of the cell more positive than the outside. c. 50 to 100 V with the inside of the cell more positive than the outside d. 50 to 100 V with the inside of the cell more negative than the outside.

A. 50*100 mV with the inside of the cell more negative than the outside Spehlmann's 2nd ed. 1991, p. 9 Fisch 3rd edition, p. 7

170. In the illustrations above what would be the voltage if the sensitivity was set at 5 µV/mm? a. 90 µV b. 97 µV c. 190 µV d. 219 µV

A. 90 µV

290. Infection of the brain is called . a. encephalitis b. myelitis c. meningitis d. hepatitis

A. encephalitis

251. Slow waves of youth attenuate with . a. eye opening b. eye closure c. clapping or other external sounds d. fist clenching of contralateral hand

A. eye opening

165. In the example below, what is the frequency band of the activity in Channel #4? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Theta

A. Alpha Ebersole and Pedley, p. 102

7. A combination of electronic components designed to increase the power, voltage or current of a signal a. amplifier b. line filter c. master gain control d. sensitivity

A. Amplifier

257. Prozac (fluoxetine), Welbutrin (bupropion), Lexapro(escitalopram Oxalate), Zoloft (sertraline), Paxil (paroxetine), Celexa (citalopram), Effexor XL(venlafazine HCI) a. Antidepressants b. Antihypertensives c. Antiepileptics d. Neuromuscular blocking agents

A. Antidepressants

187. Congenital anomalies of the hindbrain with caudal displacement of pons, medulla and cerebellar vermis is called . a. Arnold-Chiari malformation b. Craniosynostosis c. Wilson's Disease d. Cerebral Palsy

A. Arnold-Chiari malformation The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 88.

389. In the illustration above, the arrows "D" incicate and "E" incicate . a. Cephalad and Caudad b. Lateral and Medial c. Anterior and Posterior d. Dorsal and Ventral

A. Cephalad and Caudad Medical Terminology: A Self Learning Text, Second edition, by Jacqueline Joesph Birmingham, Mosby, 1990. Pg 59

193. Spinocerebellar degeneration: a. Friedrick's Ataxia b. Paget's Disease c. Wilson's Disease d. West Syndrome

A. Friedrick's Ataxia The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 392.

394. Localize the slowing in the sample above: a. focal at F7-T3, noted by cancellation b. focal at Cz c. focal in the occipital area d. focal in the right frontal area

A. focal at F7-T3, noted by cancellation

388. In the illustration above, the arrow indicates which of the following: a. Inferior or Caudad b. Transverse plane c. Superior or Cephalad d. Coronal plane

A. Inferior or Caudad Medical Terminology: A Self Learning Text, Second edition, by Jacqueline Joesph Birmingham, Mosby, 1990. Pg 59

276. The deflection will be downward if . a. Input I = +100 µV and Input II = -100 µV b. Input I = +70 µV and Input II = +70 µV c. Input I = -50 µV and Input II = +50 µV

A. Input I = +100 µV and Input II = -100 µV

468. Which of the following EEG patterns does not appear in drowsiness? a. K Complexes b. BETS c. SEMS (Slow "rolling lateral" eye movements of sleep) d. 14 and 6 Hz positive spikes

A. K Complexes

128. In the sample below, the EMG is most likely originating . a. from facial and eye twitching and jerking b. from generalized tonic clonic activity c. from focal twitching of the right wrist d. from photomyogenic response

A. from facial and eye twitching and jerking

2. The basic unit of resistance is ____. a. Ohm b. Coulomb c. Ampere d. Volt

A. Ohm

469. A surface positive event found in the occipital head regions during drowsiness: a. POSTS b. BETS c. 14 and 6 Hz positive Spikes d. sleep spindles

A. POSTS* Questions 470 through 482 are taken from the ASET online course EEG 106B Electrical Safety and Electrical Concepts, by Brett Netherton BS, MS, CNIM, President of Rhythmlink, Int. 470. In modern EEG systems, the ground or common electrode on the patient is the ground in the electrical outlet in which the instrument is plugged. a. the same as b. connected to c. in conjunction with d. isolated from *D. isolated from

202. In , old bone is broken down and replaced at a faster rate than normal. The new bone is larger, softer, weaker, and more easily broken than normal bone. This disease can affect any bones, including the skull, spine, hip, pelvis and limbs. a. Paget's Disease b. Rasmussen's Syndrome c. Reyes Syndrome d. Sturge-Weber syndrome

A. Paget's Disease http://nihseniorhealth.gov/pagetsdiseaseofbone/whatispagetsdiseaseofbone/01.html and http://www.arthritis.ca/types%20of%20arthritis/pagets/default.asp?s=1

137. In the sample above, what abnormality unrelated to the patient's history is seen? a. Premature ventricular contractions b. Burst suppression c. REM onset sleep d. Hypoglycemia

A. Premature ventricular contractions

160. Electromotive force is measured in . a. Volts b. Amperes c. Coulombs d. Ohms

A. Volts

64. Café au lait spots and neurofibromas are associated with . a. Von Recklinghousen's disease b. Sturge-Weber Syndrome c. Friedreich's ataxia d. Spina bifida

A. Von Recklinghousen's disease Chusid, J.G. (1985): Correlative Neuroanatomy and Functional Neurology, 19th ed., Lange Medical, Norwalk, CT, pp. 334-335

473. A resistor: a. Welcomes any current change b. Resists steady state current and welcomes fast current change c. Resists any current change and welcomes any steady current flow d. Is a synonym for capacitor

A. Welcomes any current change

70. A patient with sensory aphasia will have difficulty . a. comprehending the meaning of words or phrases b. forming words normally c. reading and writing d. smelling and tasting

A. comprehending the meaning of words or phrases Dorland's Illustrated Medical Dictionary, 30th ed.

205. A brief period of transient paralysis following a seizure: a. Todd's Paralysis b. Tourette's Syndrome c. Pick's Disease d. Shy-Drager Synddrome

A. Todd's Paralysis

174. In the illustration below, the electrode locations LSC and RIC stand for Left Superior Canthus, and Right Inferior Canthus. a. True b. False

A. True

292. Aphasia is . a. a language disorder b. facial paralysis c. a hearing impairment d. a learning disability

A. a language disorder

337. Rhythmical Mid-temporal Discharges are . a. a normal finding b. associated with temporal lobe seizures c. indicative of temporal lobe lesion d. seen in cerebro-vascular disease

A. a normal finding

325. Breach rhythm is produced by . a. a skull defect b. hyperventilation c. an infection d. eye opening

A. a skull defect

298. A seizure characterized by a stare with no post-ictal confusion is a/an . a. absence seizure b. myoclonic seizure c. infantile spasm d. atonic seizure

A. absence seizure

354. Information carried toward the brain is relayed in pathways. a. afferent b. efferent c. motor d. ictal

A. afferent

FitzGerald, MD, PhD, DSc, MRIA, M., Neuroanatomy, (1997), W.B.Saunders Co. Ltd., London. P. 22-26. The next 9 questions refer to the illustration above: Ref: FitzGerald, MD, PhD, DSc, MRIA, M., Neuroanatomy, (1997), W.B.Saunders Co. Ltd., London. P. 42-52. 402. Identify the blood vessel "A": a. anterior communicating artery b. anterior cerebral artery c. internal carotid d. middle cerebral

A. anterior communicating artery

Ebersole & Pedley, p. 174 228. P.O. stands for: a. by mouth b. half-life c. intramuscular d. the generic name

A. by mouth

38. When recording for electrocerebral inactivity (ECI), the interelectrode distance should be at least ____. a. 7 cm b. 10 cm c. 12 cm d. 14 cm

B. 10 cm American Clinical Neurophysiology Society, (2006): American EEG Society Guidelines in EEG (Revised 2006), J. Clinical Neurophysiology, Guideline 3, Retrieved Feb 23, 2007 from www.acs.org

39. When recording for ECI, interelectrode impedances should be at least ____ ohms, but less than ____ ohms. a. 10, 1000 b. 100, 10,000 c. 500, 5000 d. 1,000, 10,000

B. 100, 10,000 AEEGS Guidelines 2006, www.acns.org

18. A spike is printed out on paper and measures 16 mm peak to peak, the sensitivity of the instrument is 7 V/mm and a calibration signal of 50 V causes a deflection of 7.1 mm. What is the voltage of the spike? a. 1.2 V b. 112 V c. 12 V d. 24 V

B. 112 V

169. In the illustration below, what would be the voltage if the sensitivity was set at 7 µV/mm? a. 116 µV b. 126 µV c. 190 µV d. 216 µV

B. 126 µV

436. Each channel of the EEG instrument has: a. 1 input and a ground or common b. 2 inputs and a ground or common c. 16 inputs and a ground or common d. 32 inputs and a ground or common

B. 2 inputs and a ground or common

480. When a circuit exists for current to flow from one instrument through the patient, to another instrument and then to ground, then back to the first instrument and then cycle through the patient again, this is called . a. A short circuit b. A ground loop c. A resistor in series d. A resistor in parallel

B. A ground loop

433. The illustration above is of and A,B, and C are called , , . a. myelin, axon, dendrites, soma b. a neuron, dendrites, soma, axon c. a dendrite, neuron, axon, soma d. an axon, dendrites, myelin, soma

B. A neuron, dendrites, soma, axon

343. Infantile spasms are treated with . a. dopamine b. ACTH c. Zarontin d. Elavil

B. ACTH

506. In the illustration above, what would be the most likely clinical correlation? a. Attention deficit disorder b. Absence Seizures c. Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease d. Encephalopatic coma

B. Absence Seizures

168. Look closely at the Montage E below. What ACNS Guideline rule for montage development is not followed in the design of Montage E? a. Left over right b. Anterior to posterior order c. No less than 16 channels d. Use of full 21 electrodes of the International 10-20 System

B. Anterior to posterior order ACNS Guideline 6, 2.1 (g). www.acns.org

329. Dilantin a. Chloral derivative b. Antiepileptic c. Psychotherapeutic d. Antidepressant

B. Antiepileptic

365. A form of temporary facial paralysis resulting from damage or trauma to one of the two facial nerves: a. Brachial Plexopathy b. Bell's Palsy c. Carpal tunnel syndrome d. Trigeminal neuralgia

B. Bell's Palsy

258. Ativan (lorazepam), Valium (diazepam), Klonopin (clonazepam) a. Antihypertensives b. Benzodiazepines c. Chloral derivatives d. Neuromuscular blocking agents

B. Benzodiazepines

465. Rare and fatal neurological disorder presenting clinically with cognitive changes, followed by behavioral change, then myoclonic jerks, followed by severe dementia, with a characteristic EEG pattern consisting of periodic short interval diffuse discharges at a rate of 0.5 to 1 sec: a. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis b. Crutzfeldt-Jakob Disease c. Alzheimer's Disease d. Meningitis

B. Crutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

359. The central vertex electrode is . a. C3 b. Cz c. C4 d. Pz

B. Cz

22. Channel A in the figure above has been recorded utilizing standard instrumentation settings. What instrument change has been made to channel B? a. Display epoch length b. Decrease low frequency filter c. Increase high frequency filter d. Sensitivity

B. Decrease low frequency filter

132. The following sample is the same data as the previous sample but reformatted. In the reformatted sample below, what instrument parameter was changed? How did it improve the interpreter's ability to interpret the data? a. Increased sensitivity, make the abnormality larger b. Decreased sensitivity, to better resolve the morphology of the abnormality c. Increased time base (analysis time/display time/paper speed/epoch), to better display the focal onset d. Decreased time base (analysis time/display time/paper speed/epoch), to better display the focal slowing

B. Decreased sensitivity, to better resolve the morphology of the abnormality

267. The ability of the EEG instrument to output the voltage difference between two inputs to a single channel is known as . a. Deflection b. Differential Amplification c. Cancellation d. Phase Reversal

B. Differential Amplification

270. When a patient opens his eyes, the eyeballs roll in which direction? a. Up b. Down c. Left d. Right

B. Down

364. In the sample above, what 2 artifacts can be seen: a. eye movement and respiration artifact b. EMG and artifact from re-applying gel to several electrodes c. pacemaker and sweat artifact d. normal eye blinks with patient who has a prosthetic eye on left, and glossokinetic artifact

B. EMG and artifact from re-applying gel to several electrodes

42. The central sulcus (fissure of Rolando) demarcates the ____. a. left and right hemispheres. b. frontal and parietal lobes c. frontal and temporal lobes d. parietal and occipital lobes

B. Frontal and parietal lobes Snell 1987, p. 21 Tyner, F.S., Knott, J.R., and Mayer, W.B., Jr. (1989): Fundamentals of EEG Technology, Vol. 2, Clinical Correlations, Raven Press, New York, p. 35. Patestas & Gartner, p. 70

212. Interruption of the oculosympathetic nerve pathway somewhere between its origin in the hypothalamus and the eye with classic clinical findings of ptosis, pupillary miosis and facial anhidrosis is known as . a. Homanomous Hemianopsia b. Horner's Syndrome c. Nystagmus d. Electroretinography

B. Horner's Syndrome

155. How will changing the time base/epoch/equivalent paper speed from 10 seconds to 20 seconds alter a 12 Hz alpha rhythm? a. It will become 24 Hz b. It will be compressed (bunched up) c. It will be spread out d. It will make the voltage appear to increase, but not actually

B. It will be compressed (bunched up)

448. When sleep spindles are preceeded by sharp slow waves that can be elicited by sound they are called . a. sleep transients b. K Complexes c. Vertex waves d. Spike and slow wave complexes

B. K Complexes

244. When sleep spindles are preceded by sharp slow waves, which can be elicited in response to sound, they are called . a. POSTS b. K complexes c. Vertex waves d. REM Sleep patterns

B. K complexes

16. The filters creating a very narrow band pass that should rarely be used clinically are ____. a. LF 5.0 Hz and HF 70 Hz b. LF 5.0 Hz and HF 15 Hz c. LF 0.1 Hz and HF 70 Hz d. LF 0.1 Hz and HF 15 Hz

B. LF 5.0 Hz and HF 15 Hz

296. 1 to 2.5 hertz generalized spike and wave is the characteristic pattern of . a. PLEDS b. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome c. Huntington's Chorea d. Alzheimer's Disease

B. Lennox*Gastaut Syndrome

The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 137. 198. is characterized by multiple seizure types that are difficult to control, especially atonic seizures and atypical absences, in addition to generalized convulsions, and an abnormal interictal EEG with generalized 2 to 2.5 Hz slow spike and wave discharges. a. Benign Rolandic Epilepsy b. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome c. Dystonia d. Sub-acute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

B. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 137.

199. is a white matter disease with long tract signs including spasticity, hyperreflexia, and Babinski's Sign, optic atrophy, cortical blindness or deafness and seizures occurring late in the course. a. Spinocerebellopathies b. Leukoencephalopathies c. Polioencephalopathies d. Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

B. Leukoencephalopathies The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 92.

200. is a rare progressive cerebrovascular disorder primarily in children but also adults, caused by blocked arteries in the basal ganglia. The name means "puff of smoke" named for the appearance of a tangle of tiny blood vessels that develop to compensate for the blockage and appear on XRay. Symptoms include stroke and TIAs with associated weakness and paralysis. a. Progressive Supranuclear Palsy b. Moyamoya Disease c. Leukoencephalopathy d. Sub-acute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

B. Moyamoya Disease National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, http://www.ninds.nih.gov/disorders/moyamoya/moyamoya.htm

243. A surface-negative, wicket-type rhythm found in the central head regions is known as . a. Lambda rhythm b. Mu rhythm c. Alpha rhythm d. Beta rhythm

B. Mu rhythm

446. A surface negative wicket-type rhythm of 9 Hz (plus or minus 2 Hz) found in the central head regions is know as: a. Lambda b. Mu rhythm c. Vertex transients of sleep d. Spindles

B. Mu rhythm

192. A biphasic horizontal, vertical, diagonal or rotational ocular oscillation in which at least one phase is slow: a. homonymous hemianopsia b. Nystagmus c. Opthalmoplegia d. Ocular Myopathy

B. Nystagmus The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 299.

129. In the sample below, what is the abnormality seen? a. generalized 3/sec spike and slow wave discharges b. Occipital sharp waves c. Temporal sharp waves d. Occipital slow waves of youth

B. Occipital sharp waves

62. Without dietetic treatment, this hereditary disease may cause mental retardation and infantile spasms. a. Down's syndrome b. Phenylketonuria c. Tay Sach's disease d. Sturge-Weber's disease

B. Phenylketonuria Niedermeyer, E. and Lopes da Slva, F. (Eds.) (1987): Electroencephalography: Basic Principals, Clinical Applications and Related Fields. 2nd ed. Urban & Schwarzenberg, Baltimore-Munich, p. 320.

271. The corneal retinal potential is a relative charge difference between the front and back of the eye. What is the relative charge of the Cornea? a. Negative b. Positive c. Equal

B. Positive

486. A burn with damage to the superficial dermis which is red, painful and often blistering is . a. First degree b. Second degree c. Third degree d. Fourth degree

B. Second degree

46. One benefit to networking EEG instruments is the ability to ____. a. allow unrestricted access to test results b. share test results with patients via their home computer c. allow technologists to access internet sites while recording patient data d. store multiple files on a central server

B. Share test results with patients via their home computer ASET online course EEG 104 Understanding and Utilizing Digital EEG www.aset.org

138. In the sample below, the 22 week old patient is stated to be in Stage II sleep. What is the evidence that the patient is in Stage II sleep? a. Vertex Sharp Waves b. Spindles c. Decreased EMG d. Absence of alpha

B. Spindles Stern & Engel, 2005, p 255-259

376. In the sample above, what is the patient's stage of sleep? a. Drowsy b. Stage I c. Stage III d. REM

B. Stage I

411. In the illustration above, what is the patient's stage of sleep? a. Drowsy b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV

B. Stage II

89. The presence of sleep spindles and V waves in the EEG signals what stage of sleep? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III/IV d. REM

B. Stage II Daly and Pedley 1990, p. 575.

10. Common Mode Rejection is ____. a. the ability of an amplifier to cancel out ECG artifact b. the characteristic of an amplifier that rejects external interference c. is dependent on the sampling rate d. controlled by the 60 cycle notch filter

B. The characteristic of an amplifier that rejects external interference

491. Electrodes should be removed before the patient is taken into the MRI scanner because: a. The electrodes will show up on the MRI scan b. The electrodes can cause burns c. The magnetic force can polarize the electrodes d. The electrodes will be pulled off by magnetic force

B. The electrodes can cause burns

56. If a seizure discharge causes the waveforms in the channels to square off and run into each other, what should be done? a. The calibration input voltage should be decreased b. The sensitivity should be decreased (from 7 uV/mm to 10, 15 uV/mm) c. The analysis time/time base/epoch should be decreased d. The high frequency filter should be decreased

B. The sensitivity should be decreased (from 7 uV/mm to 10, 15 uV/mm) Ebersole and Pedley, p. 76-78

416. In the illustration above, what structure is highlighted in purple? a. The ventricular system b. The limbic system c. The brainstem d. The central nervous system

B. The limbic system

472. Voltage is: a. Flow of electrons through a pathway and the unit is the Ampere b. The potential charge difference between two points and the unit is the Volt c. A measure of the resistance of a material to the flow of direct current and the unit is the Ohm d. A measure of the opposition to the flow of alternating current and the unit is the Ohm

B. The potential charge difference between two points and the unit is the Volt

421. In the illustration above, what system is highlighted in blue? a. The limbic system b. The ventricular system c. The reticular formation d. The internal capsule

B. The ventricular system

269. What is the primary localization technique utilized for identification of a focus in a referential montage? a. Phase Reversal b. Cancellation c. Amplitude d. Contaminated Reference

C. Amplitude

32. In a referential montage, how is the origin of the potential determined? a. morphology b. phase reversal c. amplitude d. polarity

C. Amplitude Fisch & Spehlmann's 3rd ed. 1999, p. 78

256. Zarontin (ethosuximide), Neurontin (gabapentin), Keppra (levetiracetam), Lamictal (lamotrigine), Topomax (topiramate), Gabatril (tiagabine), Trileptal (oxcarbazepine), Zonegran (zonisamide) a. Antidepressants b. Antihypertensives c. Antiepileptics d. Neuromuscular blocking agents

C. Antiepileptics

495. Define the term Gigabyte: a. Approximately 1 thousand bytes b. Approximately 1 million bytes c. Approximately 1 billion bytes d. Approximately 1 trillion bytes

C. Approximately 1 billion bytes

460. How would you best describe the pattern seen in the sample above? a. PLEDs b. Interictal epileptiform discharges c. Burst-suppression d. FIRDA

C. Burst-suppression

392. In the illustration above, the arrow marked "C" indicates and the arrow marked "D" indicates . a. Dorsal, Ventral b. Proximal, Distal c. Cephalad, Caudad d. Anterior, Posterior

C. Cephalad, Caudad Medical Terminology: A Self Learning Text, Second edition, by Jacqueline Joesph Birmingham, Mosby, 1990. Pg 59

490. Calcium and Isopropyl Alcohol can cause: a. Ataxia b. Lethargy c. Chemical skin lesions, contact dermatitis d. Inaccurate recordings from END electrodes

C. Chemical skin lesions, contact dermatitis

6. A circuit that allows some frequencies to pass through it, while others are blocked is a ____. a. resistor b. transistor c. filter d. reactor

C. Filter

146. Of the following filter combinations, which would best record 3/second spike and slow wave discharges? a. HFF 15 Hz/ LFF 5 Hz b. HFF 35 Hz/ LFF 5 Hz c. HFF 70 Hz/ LFF 1 Hz d. HFF 35 Hz/ LFF .5 Hz

C. HFF 70 Hz/ LFF 1 Hz

479. A bird can land on a power line and not be shocked because: a. His feet are insulated b. He weight very little c. He is not grounded d. Feathers are poor conductors

C. He is not grounded

278. In the sample above, what is likely the cause of the .5 Hz slowing and where is the activity localized? a. EMG, frontal polar leads b. Pacemaker, EKG channel c. Head movements from respiration, right occipital electrode d. Eye movements, faulty ground/common electrode or poor impedance

C. Head movements from respiration, right occipital electrode

105. The type of pattern in the illustration above is a very common finding in . a. Wilson's disease b. Parkinson's disease c. Hepatic encephalopathy d. Multiple sclerosis

C. Hepatic encephalopathy Tyner et al. 1983, p. 189. Stern, J., Engel J. Jr., Atlas of EEG Patterns, 2005 p. 282

396. In the illustration above, the arrow "A" indicates and the arrow "B" indicates . a. Anterior, Posterior b. Dorsal, Ventral c. Medial or Proximal, Lateral or Distal d. Superior or Cephalad, Inferior or Caudad

C. Medial or Proximal, Lateral or Distal Medical Terminology: A Self Learning Text, Second edition, by Jacqueline Joesph Birmingham, Mosby, 1990. Pg 59

48. The trigeminal nerve . a. permits eye movement b. aids in swallowing c. is the major sensory nerve of the face d. permits tongue movement

C. is the major sensory nerve of the face Wilson-Pauwels, L., Akesson, E.J., and Stewart, P.A. (1988): Cranial Nerves Anatomy and Clinical Comments. B.C. Becker, Toronto, p.50. Patestas & Gartner, p. 261-265

103. A diagnosis of an astrocytoma in the left frontal lobe is most likely to produce which of the following EEG findings? a. generalized polymorphic delta activity b. focal delta activity in the right hemisphere c. left frontal focal spike activity d. left frontal burst suppression

C. left frontal focal spike activity Tyner et al. 1983, p. 153.

301. should not be performed on a child with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease. a. Photic stimulation b. Sleep c. Hyperventilation d. Eye opening

C. Hyperventilation 302. To aid in the diagnosis of narcolepsy, which of the following tests is performed? a. pneumogram b. glucose tolerance c. prolonged EEG d. multiple sleep latency *D. multiple sleep latency

417. The sample above was taken from a drowsy 7 year old with complaints of headache. What is the pattern seen? a. FIRDA b. OIRDA c. Hypnagogic hypersynchrony d. Primary generalized epileptiform discharges

C. Hypnagogic hypersynchrony

507. In the illustration above is a sample of an EEG recording from an infant diagnosed with infantile spasms. Taking not of the sensitivity setting of 200 microvolts per millimeter, identify the pattern seen. a. PLEDs b. Periodic complexes associated with SSPE c. Hypsarrhythmia d. Benign rolandic central-temporal spikes

C. Hypsarrhythmia

275. The deflection will be upward if . a. Input I = +20 µV and Input II = -20 µV b. Input I = +120 µV and Input I = +50 µV c. Input I = -40 µV and Input II = -20 µV d. Input I = -50 µV and Input II = -50µ

C. Input I = -40 µV and Input II = -20 µV

37. Which of the following is not a source of 60 Hz interference? a. other equipment in the room b. faulty ground connection c. intravenous drip d. defects in the power supply

C. Intravenous drip Spehlmann, R. 1981, p 117 Spehlmann's 2nd ed. 1991, p 119-121. Fisch, B.J. (Ed.) p. 119-120

197. is a genetic epilepsy syndrome whose gene has been mapped to chromosome 6 and becomes evident in normal teenagers with early morning myoclonic jerks and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. a. West's Syndrome b. Benign Rolandic Epilepsy c. Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy of Janz d. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome

C. Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy of Janz

414. In the sample above, define the pattern. a. Primary generalized Epilepsy b. Focal epileptic discharge c. Left frontal focal onset with rapid secondary generalization d. FIRDA

C. Left frontal focal onset with rapid secondary generalization

130. In the sample below, what is the most outstanding feature noted? a. Left temporal spike b. Left temporal sharp wave c. Left temporal slow focus d. Left temporal wicket spikes

C. Left temporal slow focus Blume et al, p. 343, 419

451. In the sample above, paying particular attention to the first 3 channels during the 5th second, what is seen? a. Eye blinks b. Frontal slowing c. Left temporal slowing, with cancellation at F7-T3 d. Diffuse slowing with not focality

C. Left temporal slowing, with cancellation at F7-T3

501. A human disorde related to mad cow disease: a. Scrapie b. Chronic wasting disease c. New variant Creutzfeldt Jacob disease

C. New variant Creutzfeldt Jacob disease

185. The sample below is from a 7 year old patient who has been hyperventilating for 30 seconds. What does the sample show? a. classic Absence seizure activity b. Focal slowing c. Normal build up of slowing during HV d. Slow Alpha Variant

C. Normal build up of slowing during HV Blume et al, p. 84-85

180. In the sample below from an 11 year old patient, how would you describe the activity within the circled areas? a. Focal Delta in the occipital area b. Spike and slow wave complexes in the occipital area c. Occipital Slow Waves of Youth d. Focal sharp waves in the occipital area

C. Occipital Slow Waves of Youth Blume et al, p. 58

195. Sign of increased intracranial pressure: a. increased mean arterial pressure b. homonymous hemianopsia c. Papilledema d. West Syndrome

C. Papilledema The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 318.

71. What term is used to describe brainstem injury in a patient who is completely paralyzed except for vertical eye movements? a. contrecoup b. alpha coma c. locked in syndrome d. diffuse brainstem dysfunction syndrome

C. locked-in syndrome Niedermeyer, E. and Lopes da Slva, F. (Eds.) (1987): Electroencephalography: Basic Principals, Clinical Applications and Related Fields. 2nd ed. Urban & Schwarzenberg, Baltimore-Munich, p. 392.

314. The vestibular system is responsible for the function of . a. audition b. conduction c. maintaining equilibrium d. hearing

C. maintaining equilibrium Patestas & Gartner, p. 318-325

50. The cardiovascular and respiratory centers for automatic control of heart rate and respiration are found in the . a. midbrain b. pons c. medulla d. diencephalons

C. medulla DeGroot and Chusid 1991, p. 200.

344. Cataplexy is seen in . a. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome b. meningitis c. narcolepsy d. Down's Syndrome

C. narcolepsy

139. Cancellation occurs when . a. the two electrodes in a channel are both inactive b. Input 1 is higher in voltage than Input 2 c. The voltage in Input 1 is the same as the voltage in Input 2 d. The reference electrode is truly inactive

C. The voltage in Input 1 is the same as the voltage in Input 2

172. In the samples A and B below, how do the focal events differ? a. They are on opposite sides of the head b. They represent a mirror focus c. They have opposite polarity d. They are both sharp waves

C. They have opposite polarity

204. A disorder of involuntary motor and/or vocal tics, and premonitory urges (the urge to perform a motor activity) usually with onset in childhood or adolescence: a. Reyes Syndrome b. Sturge-Weber syndrome c. Tourette's Syndrome d. Rasmussen's Syndrome

C. Tourette's Syndrome http://www.tsa-usa.org/

166. In the illustration below, give the name for montage B. a. Circumferential Bipolar b. Longitudinal Bipolar c. Transverse Bipolar d. Ipsilateral Ear Reference

C. Transverse Bipolar

500. Define the term USB: a. Universal Systems Bus b. University Systems Bus c. Universal Serial Bus d. University Standard Bus

C. Universal Serial Bus

382. In the sample above, what features are circled? a. spikes and slow waves b. occipital slow waves of youth c. Vertex waves and spindles d. focal slowing and wicket spikes

C. Vertex waves and spindles

194. Syringomyelia: a. weakness associated with receiving an injection b. sacral radiculopathy c. abnormal cavity or cyst in the spinal cord d. Horner's Syndrome

C. abnormal cavity or cyst in the spinal cord The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 390.

340. 3 hertz generalized spike and wave: a. complex partial seizure b. tonic/clonic seizure c. absence seizure d. focal motor seizure

C. absence seizure

312. The parasympathetic nervous system uses only as it's neurotransmitter. a. seratonin b. GABA c. acetylcholine (Ach) d. dopamine

C. acetylcholine (Ach)

all of the above 368. In the sample above, the discharge at T5 in the middle of the page is most likely . a. epileptiform activity b. EKG artifact c. an electrode pop d. EMG artifact

C. an electrode pop

405. The is made up of the vessels labeled in the illustration above as A, B, E, and F. a. foramen of Monro b. aqueduct of Sylvia c. circle of Willis d. falx cerebri

C. circle of Willis

397. Give the name of the anatomical structure illustrated above. a. Frontal Lobe b. Parietal Lobe c. Occipital Lobe d. Cerebellum

D. Cerebellum

100. A family history of epilepsy is especially important to determine the diagnosis of . a. complex partial seizures b. pseudo-seizures c. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome d. Classic absence seizures

D. Classic absence seizures Penry, J.K. (Ed.) (1986): Epilepsy: Diagnosis, Management, Quality of Life. Raven Press, New York, p. 11.

508. In the illustration above, the patient's history shows progressive mental deterioration for 6 months with ataxia and muscle wasting. The pattern seen is consistent with. a. Complex partial seizure disorder b. Parkinsons Disease c. Progressive supranuclear palsy d. Creutzfeldt Jacob disease

D. Creutzfeldt Jacob disease

110. The pattern in the illustration above is associated with which of the following viral diseases? a. herpes simplex encephalitis b. acquired immune deficiency syndrome c. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis d. Creutzfeldt Jacob disease

D. Creutzfeldt Jacob disease Tyner et al. 1983, p. 207. Stern & Engel, Atlas of EEG Patterns, 2005, p. 218 Blume, et al. Atlas of Adult EEG, 2002, p. 464

134. In the sample below, the same data is modified and reformatted again. What parameter changed in the following sample? How does this help? a. Decreased sensitivity to better resolve the spikes b. Increased sensitivity, to better resolve the low amplitude activity c. Increased time base (analysis time/display time/epoch) or decrease paper speed, to scrunch up the waveforms to better resolve focal slowing d. Decreased time base (analysis time/display time/epoch) or increase paper speed, to spread out the waveforms to better resolve the fast activity and spikes.

D. Decreased time base (analysis time/display time/epoch) or increase paper speed, to spread out the waveforms to better resolve the fast activity and spikes.

12. Time constant is defined as the time required ____. a. for the deflection to fall (decay) to 47% of the peak deflection b. for the deflection to fall (decay) 57% of the peak deflection c. for the deflection to fall (decay) 77% of the peak deflection d. for the deflection to fall (decay) to 37% of the peak deflection

D. For the deflection to fall (decay) to 37% of the peak deflection

305. Temporal spikes and/or sharp waves occurring at a rate of one every 1 to 3 seconds are seen with . a. Reye's Syndrome b. SSPE c. absence seizures d. Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

D. Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

61. The "dance like" movements of the head and extremities may be exhibited in a patient with which hereditary degenerative disease? a. Parkinson's disease b. Multiple sclerosis c. Pick's disease d. Huntington's chorea

D. Huntington's chorea Tyner et al. 1983, p. 218.

458. Use the legend in the sample above, to help you determine the pattern seen in this drowsy 6 yr old. a. FIRDA b. OIRDA c. Mu Rhythm d. Hypnagogic Hypersynchrony

D. Hypnagogic Hypersynchrony

90. Which of the following is not a characteristic of REM sleep? a. low voltage mixed frequency EEG activity b. reduced EMG activity c. saw tooth waves d. K Complexes

D. K*Complexes Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 575. Fisch, p. 203-204

225. Which one of the following filters would most effectively filter out slow waves resulting from sweat artifact? a. HFF = 70 hertz b. HFF = 15 hertz c. LFF = 1 hertz d. LFF = 5 hertz

D. LFF = 5 hertz

447. What occipital pattern can be elicited by having the patient scan a complex image? a. Alpha rhythm b. POSTS c. Posterior Slow Waves of Youth d. Lambda

D. Lambda

161. In the sample below, localize the abnormality. a. Left temporal b. Left occipital c. Left parietal d. Left central

D. Left central

68. Which of the following conditions is characterized by rigidity, tremors and festination? a. Huntington's chorea b. Alzheimer's disease c. Friedreich's ataxia d. Parkinson's disease

D. Parkinson's disease Manter & Gatz's Essentials of Clinical Neuroanatomy and Neurophysiology. 7th ed., (1987), Gilman, S. and Newman, S.W. (Eds.), F.A. Davis, Philadelphia 1987, p. 158.

183. The sample below illustrates: a. Photomyoclonic Response b. Photoparoxysmal Response c. Photomyogenic Response d. Photic Driving Response

D. Photic Driving Response Blume et al, p. 94-95 Stern & Engel, P. 235-237

429. In the illustration above, what is the structure labeled "6"? a. Wernicke's area b. Broca's area c. Visual cortex d. Primary auditory cortex

D. Primary auditory cortex

377. Based on the illustration above, what stage of sleep do you think the patient is in at the moment of this sample? a. Drowsy b. Stage I c. Stage III D. REM

D. REM

210. In the sample below, the patient's state is as evidenced by the presence of . a. awake, alpha b. Stage II sleep, Vertex waves c. Stage IV sleep, greater than 50% slow waves d. REM sleep, Saw toothed, rapid lateral eye movements

D. REM sleep, Saw toothed, rapid lateral eye movements Stern & Engel, p. 251-254 Blume et al, p.. 151-152

207. A disease of unknown cause, usually following a viral infection in children who have taken aspirin, and resulting in vomiting, listlessness, personality changes, disorientation, seizures and loss of consciousness: a. Rassmussen's Encephalitis b. Todd's Paralysis c. Paget's Disease d. Reyes Syndrome

D. Reyes Syndrome

136. The sample below is from a 32 year old patient with confused state, left arm and left facial twitching. What is seen in the sample that is consistent with the patient's history? a. PVCs b. Excessive EMG activity c. Normal background rhythms d. Right temporal-central epileptiform activity

D. Right temporal-central epileptiform activity Stern & Engel, 2005 p. 161

375. In the sample above, what 2 artifacts are present? a. sweat artifact and eye flutter b. pulse and electrode pops c. pacemaker and EMG d. SEMS (Slow "Rolling lateral" Eye Movements of Sleep) and EKG

D. SEMS (Slow "Rolling lateral" Eye Movements of Sleep) and EKG

25. Three basic computer ports are: a. Intranet, Internet and Extranet b. Internal, External, and Bifid c. Serial, paradoxical, and US d. Serial, parallel and USB

D. Serial, parallel and USB

209. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease In the sample below, the EEG shows that the patient's state is as evidenced by the presence of . a. awake, alpha b. stage III sleep, slow waves c. drowsy, attenuation of alpha d. Stage II Sleep, Vertex waves

D. Stage II Sleep, Vertex waves

332. Status epilepticus . a. is a neuromuscular disorder b. is common to all epileptic patients c. does not require medical intervention d. a clinical or sub-clinical seizure which continues for 30 minutes or more without stopping

D. a clinical or sub-clinical seizure which continues for 30 minutes or more without stopping

264. Alzheimer's disease is a term for . a. any patient with dementia b. forgetfulness in retirement-aged patients c. the end-state of mental retardation d. a dementia with amyloid plaques and neuronal tangles

D. a dementia with amyloid plaques and neuronal tangles

341. Generalized tonic/clonic seizures which continue for 30 minutes or more are . a. characterized by a normal EEG b. treated by oral medications c. characterized by 14 and 6 hertz positive spikes d. a medical emergency

D. a medical emergency

34. A patient can become the pathway for least resistance and therefore electrically susceptible to shock when ____. a. the recording instrument is turned on. b. the electrode test is utilized c. depth electrodes are used d. the patient has an indwelling heart catheter

D. The patient has an indwelling heart catheter Tyner et al. 1983, p. 75

461. Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with what EEG pattern? a. hypnagogic hypersynchrony b. PLEDs c. OIRDA d. Triphasic waves

D. Triphasic waves

505. How would you describe the waveforms shown in illustration #105? a. 3 Hz Spike and slow wave b. Diffuse slowing c. FIRDA d. Triphasic waves

D. Triphasic waves

427. In the illustration above, what is the structure labeled "4"? a. primary motor cortex b. Wernicke's area c. Broca's area d. Visual cortex

D. Visual cortex

35. Eye leads placed at the outer canthus of each eye will record ____. a. all eye movements b. horizontal and vertical eye movements c. only vertical eye movements d. mainly horizontal eye movements

E. Mainly horizontal eye movements Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 91.

319. An area of brain injury that occurs on the opposite side of a head injury is called

. a. cancellation b. phase-reserval c. contra coup d. contusion *C. contra coup

430. In the illustration above, what is the structure labeled "7"? a. Wernicke's area b. Broca's area c. Visual cortex d. Primary auditory cortex

.A Wernicke's area

442. A electrical field is created when the human eye is looking in the direction of one of the anterior temporal electrodes. a. positive b. negative c. equipotential

.A positive

238. By changing from a time constant = .05 seconds to a time constant = .1 second, the EEG instrument will . a. record more slow frequencies b. record more high frequencies c. altenuate more high frequencies d. altenuate more slow frequencies

.A record more slow frequencies

466. Rare and fatal neurological disorder, thought to be associated with the measles virus, usually developing in children or adolescents with progressive dementia, myoclonic jerks and seizures with a characteristic EEG pattern of diffuse periodic complexes seen early in the development of the disease and having a long interval between complexes from 4 - 15 seconds. a. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis b. Crutzeldt-Jakob Disease c. Bacterial Meningitis d. Mycosis

.A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

147. How would a 15 Hz HFF affect 15 Hz sleep spindles? a. decrease amplitude by 30% b. no change in amplitude c. decrease amplitude by 70% d. boost amplitude by 10%

.A. decrease amplitude by 30%

175. In the EEG sample below, how would you describe the patterns seen? a. generalized onset of 3 per second spike and wave b. Right anterior temporal focal onset of 3 per second spike and wave with secondary generalization c. Focal onset of spike and slow wave with secondary lateralization d. Photomyogenic Response

.B Right anterior temporal focal onset of 3 per second spike and wave with secondary generalization

317. When Input I = -60 µV and Input II =-60 µV, then . a. summation occurs b. cancellation occurs c. there is no deflection d. the deflection is downward

.B cancellation occurs

265. The term used to describe the result of differential amplification when both inputs are of equal voltage values is . a. Summation b. Field Distribution c. Cancellation d. Localization

.C Cancellation

248. The conceptional age is defined as the . a. chronological age plus two weeks b. time from the first day of the mother's last menstrual period to birth c. gestational age plus the chronological age d. time since birth

.C gestational age plus the chronological age Ebersole and Pedley, P. 174

462. What disorder is associated with an increase in frequency of posterior alpha activity? a. hyperactivity b. hypoglycemia c. hyperthyroidism d. hypochondria

.C hyperthyroidism

261. No alteration in consciousness is characteristic of what type of seizure? a. complex partial b. absence c. simple partial d. tonic/clonic

.C simple partial

224. Which one of the following filters would most effectively reduce bitemporal 40 hertz muscle artifact? a. HFF = 35 hertz b. HFF = 70 hertz c. HFF = 50 hertz d. LFF = 5 hertz

A. HFF = 35 hertz

44. The diencephalon is composed of ____. a. hypothalamus and thalamus b. basal ganglia and pons c. thalamus and medulla d. midbrain and pons

A. Hypothalamus and thalamus Manter & Gatz's Essentials of Clinical Neuroanatomy and Neurophysiology. 7th ed., (1987), Gilman, S. and Newman, S.W. (Eds.), F.A. Davis, Philadelphia 1987, p. 173. Patestas & Gartner, p. 23

504. A disorder often confused with Parkinsons disease at the onset, with more aggressive symptoms is called . a. Progressive Supranuclear Palsy b.Bell's Palsy c.Creutzfeldt Jacob Disease d.Carpal tunnel syndrome

A. Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

43. The homunculus is a ____. a. representation of the motor and sensory cortex of the brain b. gyrus found in the temporal lobe c. lateral loss of vision in one eye d. type of tumor

A. Representation of the motor and sensory cortex of the brain Tyner et al. 1989, pp. 36-37. Patestas & Gartner

182. change the epoch/time base/equivalent paper speed to 15 (20 seconds per screen) and change the HFF to 15 Hz The sample below illustrates: a. Resolution of a discharge of 3/sec spike and slow wave b. Onset of frontal slowing c. Onset of frontal Delta focus d. Normal build up of slow activity during HV

A. Resolution of a discharge of 3/sec spike and slow wave

307. A facial port-wine is seen in . a. Sturge-Weber syndrome b. tuberous sclerosis c. spina bifida d. fetal alcohol syndrome

A. Sturge-Weber syndrome

268. What term describes the resulting output when two inputs of opposite polarity are subtracted during the differential amplification process? a. Summation b. Cancellation c. Field Distribution d. Differential Amplification

A. Summation

390. In the illustration above, the arrow indicates: a. Superior or Cephalad b. Inferior or Caudad c. Anterior or Posterior d. Ventral or Dorsal

A. Superior or Cephalad Medical Terminology: A Self Learning Text, Second edition, by Jacqueline Joesph Birmingham, Mosby, 1990. Pg 59

30. The electrode site that is located 1 cm above, one third the distance out from the left external auditory meatus toward the left outer canthus is called . a. T1 or F9 b. F7 or F8 c. F5 d. LOC

A. T1 or F9 Tyner et al. 1983, p. 144

366. Neurological syndrome caused by long term use of neuroleptic drugs characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements: a. Tardive Dyskinesia b. Hemifacial spasm c. Trigeminal Neuralgia d. Bell's Palsy

A. Tardive Dyskinesia

120. Which of the following medications can commonly cause increased theta and beta activity at therapeutic doses? a. antidepressants b. chloral hydrate c. analgesics d. antihistamines

A. antidepressants Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p.491.

331. A partial seizure . a. arises from a localized area of abnormality in one part of the brain b. is so minor it is of no practical consequences c. usually produces a brief mental "absence" d. only occurs with high temperatures in infants

A. arises from a localized area of abnormality in one part of the brain

49. A subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs . a. between 2 layers of the meninges b. below the cerebellum c. within the ventricles d. above the tentorium.

A. between 2 layers of the meninges Chusid, J.G. (1985): Correlative Neuroanatomy and Functional Neurology, 19th ed., Lange Medical, Norwalk, CT, p. 341. DeGroot, J. and Chusid, J.G. (1991) : Correlative Neuroanatomy and Functional Neurology, 21st ed., Appleton & Lange, Norwalk, CT.p. 139.

217. In the sample below, the artifact seen is likely caused by . a. cardiac pacemaker b. respiration artifact c. EMG d. eye flutter

A. cardiac pacemaker

72. The term "xanthochromic" is usually used in reference to . a. cerebral spinal fluid b. dysmorphic features c. ventricular size d. nerve conduction time

A. cerebral spinal fluid Dorland's Illustrated Medical Dictionary, 30th ed.

454. In the sample above, which channel shows beta activity? a. ch #1 b. ch #2 c. ch #3 d. ch #4

A. ch #1

181. In the sample below, what 2 instrument changes would better illustrate the abnormality? a. change the epoch/time base/equivalent paper speed to 60 mm/sec (5 seconds per screen) to better illustrate the onset and decrease the sensitivity to better resolve the amplitude of the spikes b. change the montage to a circumferential bipolar and increase the sensitivity to 20 uV full scale c. change the epoch/time base/equivalent paper speed to 15 mm/sec (20 seconds per screen) to see the entire discharge on one screen and change the LFF to .3 Hz to enhance slow activity

A. change the epoch/time base/equivalent paper speed to 60 mm/sec (5 seconds per screen) to better illustrate the onset and decrease the sensitivity to better resolve the amplitude of the spikes

418. In the illustration above, the structures labeled A-C are: a. cingulare gyrus, corpus callosum, pituitary b. corpus callosum, thalamus, mamillary body c. hypothalamus, thalamus, pons d. midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

A. cingulare gyrus, corpus callosum, pituitary

315. The Circle of Willis provides . a. collateral blood circulation b. neuronal connections between right and left hemispheres c. pathway for seizure discharges d. cerebrospinal fluid circulation

A. collateral blood circulation Patestas & Gartner, p. 110-112

99. The use of nasopharyngeal or T1/T2 aka F9/F10 electrodes are most helpful in recording epileptiform discharges associated with . a. complex partial seizures b. absence seizures c. partial motor seizures d. tonic clonic seizures

A. complex partial seizures Tyner et al. 1983, p. 69.

87. The pattern in the illustration above, recorded from a drowsy 6 yr old, is . a. hypnagogic hypersynchrony, a normal finding for age. b. Indicative of a generalized seizure disorder c. Indicative of a focal seizure disorder d. An awake ictal seizure event

A. hypnagogic hypersynchrony, a normal finding for age. Tyner, F.S., Knott, J.R., and Mayer, W.B., Jr. (1983): Fundamentals of EEG Technology, Volume 1, Basic Concepts and Methods, Raven Press, New York, p. 242. Ebersole and Pedley, p. 133-136

121. Sampling skew is a problem with early digital EEG instruments caused by . a. inability to simultaneously sample multiple channels of EEG b. improper pen alignment c. uncorrected shifts in electrical baseline d. in phase cancellation

A. inability to simultaneously sample multiple channels of EEG ASET online education course, EEG 104 Understanding and Utilizing Digital EEG, www.aset.org

119. Increasing depth of anesthesia causes which of the following sequences of EEG changes? a. increased beta then intermixed theta then delta, with burst suppression if anesthesia is deep enough b. burst suppression then delta then theta c. loss of alpha then increased theta then widespread beta d. delta then widespread beta then burst suppression

A. increased beta then intermixed theta then delta, with burst suppression if anesthesia is deep enough Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 508.

215. Recent cardiac illness, recent stroke, distressed breathing, extreme hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, severe asthma, Moyamoya disease, Sickle Cell Anemia, and intra-cranial or extra-cranial hemorrhage are all: a. indications to omit hyperventilation from the EEG procedure b. indications to cancel the EEG procedure and send the patient to the E.R. c. indications to omit photic stimulation from the EEG procedure d. indications for immediate admission to the hospital

A. indications to omit hyperventilation from the EEG procedure

352. REM sleep . a. is characterized by loss of muscle tone b. begins about 6 to 9 minutes after sleep onset c. is characterized by high voltage slow waves d. is characterized by an increase of muscle tone

A. is characterized by loss of muscle tone

158. Impedance . a. is the opposition to the flow of alternating current b. is measured in Farads c. is the opposition to the flow of direct current d. is rarely used in EEG, since resistance is the measurement of choice in evaluating electrode connectivity.

A. is the opposition to the flow of alternating current

295. The importance of knowing the gestational age and the chronological age in any particular neonate is because . a. it helps to determine what EEG rhythms are normal for a particular age group b. it determines whether the patient can have seizures c. it rules out abnormalities in any records with activity less than 2µV d. it can predict the outcome of any high-risk neonate

A. it helps to determine what EEG rhythms are normal for a particular age group

52. Thrombosis of the right middle cerebral artery would most likely cause . a. left sided paralysis, primarily of the face and arm b. left sided paralysis, primarily of the leg c. aphasia d. right homonymous hemianopsia

A. left sided paralysis, primarily of the face and arm Niedermeyer, E. and Lopes da Slva, F. (Eds.) (1987): Electroencephalography: Basic Principals, Clinical Applications and Related Fields. 2nd ed. Urban & Schwarzenberg, Baltimore-Munich, p. 276.

17. During the recording of cerebral activity, the calibration input voltage is changed from 50 V to 100 V. What will be the result? a. no effect on the activity being recorded b. a two-fold increase in amplitude c. a one half reduction of amplitude d. clipping of the waveform

A. no effect on the activity being recorded

106. Which of the following EEG patterns carries a poor prognosis and is often the result of a respiratory or cardiac arrest? a. nonreactive continuous alpha b. hypsarrhythmia c. frontal intermittent rhythmic delta (FIRDA) d. continuous spindles

A. nonreactive continuous alpha Tyner et al. 1983, p. 193. Fisch, p. 426

432. The illustration above shows: a. normal circulation of cerebrospinal fluid b. hydrocephalus c. normal pressure hydrocephalus d. spina bifida

A. normal circulation of cerebrospinal fluid

79. When performing an EEG for evaluation of a central nervous system disease that may have infectious etiology, the technologist should . a. observe universal precautions b. reschedule the procedure until a definite diagnosis has been made c. not be concerned with any precautionary measures d. request that the electroencephalographer to perform the study

A. observe universal precautions Tyner et al. 1983, p. 208. Altman, C. Infection Control: 200 Review and Update for END Technologist, AJET 40:73-97

53. The foramen of Munro is the . a. opening between lateral ventricles and third ventricle of the brain b. opening at the base of he skull c. opening between the ventricles of the heart d. opening between the third ventricle and the fourth ventricle of the brain

A. opening between lateral ventricles and third ventricle of the brain Manter & Gatz's 7th ed. 1987, p. 232. Patestas & Gartner, p. 96

324. Impedance is . a. opposition to AC current b. opposition to DC current c. measured in farads d. irrelevant in EEG recording

A. opposition to AC current

104. This type of EEG activity most often appears in association with rapidly growing tumors such as glioblastoma multiforme and cerebral metastatic lesions. a. polymorphic delta activity b. beta asymmetry c. spike and wave d. epileptiform discharges

A. polymorphic delta activity Tyner et al. 1983, p. 156. Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 347-351.

426. In the illustration above, what is the structure labeled "3"? a. primary sensory cortex b. primary motor cortex c. premotor cortex d. Visual cortex

A. primary sensory cortex

328. During quiet sleep, a normal 44 week CA has . a. regular respirations and no eye movements b. irregular respirations and no EMG c. regular respiration and eye movements d. irregular respirations and EMG

A. regular respirations and no eye movements

Paestas & Gartner, p. 52 311. The parasympathetic nervous system is activated by . a. relaxation b. taking this exam c. excitation

A. relaxation

31. Due to a central scalp lesion, C4 has to be relocated 4 mm anteriorly. The technologist should ___. a. relocate C3 4 mm anteriorly b. make no other placement changes c. relocate P3 4 mm anteriorly d. relocate all electrodes in the right parasagittal plane 4 mm anteriorly.

A. relocate C3 4 mm anteriorly Harner, P.F. and Sannit, T. (1974): A Review of the International Ten-Twenty System of Electrode Placement. Grass Instrument Co. Quincy, MA, p. 13

348. Time constant is measured in . a. seconds b. millimeters c. microvolts/millimeter d. microvolts

A. seconds

350. POSTS differ from lambda in that POSTS are . a. seen in light sleep b. negative c. abnormal d. maximal bitemporally

A. seen in light sleep

222. The onset of Stage 2 sleep is indicated by the appearance of . a. sleep spindles b. POSTS c. V-waves d. high amplitude delta.

A. sleep spindles

131. In the sample below, what is the abnormality seen? a. sudden onset of spikes and polyspikes b. classic 3 per second spike and slow wave c. movement artifact d. sweat artifact

A. sudden onset of spikes and polyspikes Stern & Engel 2005, p. 181 Blume et al, 2002, p. 262-265

399. In the illustration above, the structure defined by the red line is . a. the Falx cerebri b. the lateral sulcus c. the Intraparietal sulcus d. the Insula

A. the Falx cerebri

471. Current is: a. the flow of electrons through a pathway and the unit is the Ampere b. the potential (charge) difference between two points and the unit is the Volt c. the measure of the resistance of a material to the flow of direct current and the unit is the Ohm d. a measure of the opposition to the flow of alternating current and the unit is the Ohm

A. the flow of electrons through a pathway and the unit is the Ampere

322. Correct location of the nasion is . a. the indentation between the forehead and the nose b. eyebrow level c. the ridge or knob at the back of the head d. the indentation just above the tragus

A. the indentation between the forehead and the nose

88. Symmetry of sleep spindles, when present, is important in the evaluation of . a. the physiological maturation of an infant b. seizures which occur during sleep c. REM sleep d. Spindle coma

A. the physiological maturation of an infant Westmorland and Stockard 1977, p. 198.

143. An EEG instrument's common mode rejection ratio should be . a. very high b. very low c. as close to "0" as possible d. equal to the input impedance

A. very high

154. If the epoch/time base/equivalent paper speed is set for 20 second per screen, one screen would be divided into 10 subdivisions and each subdivision would equal . a. 1 second b. 2 seconds c. 5 seconds d. 10 seconds

B. 2 seconds

358. At an equivalent paper speed of 30 mm/sec, one page of printed EEG represents 10 seconds. At an equivalent paper speed of 15 mm/sec, one page of printed EEG represents . a. 15 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 5 seconds d. 10 seconds

B. 20 seconds

153. What sensitivity should be used to resolve the morphology of a 500 uV spike discharge? a. 7 µV/mm b. 50 µV/mm c. 250 µV/mm d. 500 µV/mm

B. 50 µV/mm

164. In the example below (below question 165), what is the frequency band of the activity in the second 1 second segment in Channel #1? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Theta

B. Beta Ebersole and Pedley, p. 109-111

135. How did this change improve the sample above in question 134 ? a. Better localization of focus b. Better resolution of spike morphology and anterior dominance c. Enhanced analysis of EKG monitor d. Better display of lateralization

B. Better resolution of spike morphology and anterior dominance

15. According to ACNS Guidelines, Recording Clinical EEG on Digital Media requires monitors to have ____. a. Between 25 and 35 mm/second horizontal scaling and a maximum of 1000 data points/second to accurately display EEG on the monitor screen. b. Between 25 and 35 mm/second horizontal scaling and a minimum of 100 data points /second to accurately display EEG on the monitor screen. c. Between 25 and 35 mm/second horizontal scaling and a maximum of 100 data points/second to accurately display EEG on the monitor screen. d. Between 25 and 35 mm/second horizontal scaling and a minimum of 1000 data points/second to accurately display EEG on the monitor screen.

B. Between 25 and 35 mm/second horizontal scaling and a minimum of 100 data points /second to accurately display EEG on the monitor screen.

428. In the illustration above, what is the structure labeled "5"? a. Wernicke's area b. Broca's area c. Visual cortex d. Primary auditory cortex

B. Broca's area

The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 434. 191. A patient with symptoms of stroke which include, contralateral hemiparesis (face and arm greater than leg) horizontal gaze palsy, hemisensory deficits, homonymous hemianopsia, language and cognative deficits (aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, neglect) is likely to have had . a. Common carotid artery (CCA) infarction b. Middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarction c. Cerebellar infarction d. Brainstem infarction

B. Middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarction The Little Black Book of Neurology, 3rd edition, page 205.

259. Thorazine (chlorpromazine), Haldol (haloperidol), Stelazine (trifluoperazine), Mellaril (thioridazine), Clozapine (clozaril), Risperdal (risperdone), Zyprexa (olanzapine) a. Antihypertensives b. Psychotherapeutics c. Barbiturates d. Chloral derivatives

B. Psychotherapeutics

206. A rare chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease usually affecting only one hemisphere of the brain characterized by frequent and severe seizures, loss of motor and speech as well as hemiparesis and mental deterioration. Onset is common in childhood and rare in adolescents and adults: a. Reyes Syndrome b. Rassmussen's Encephalitis c. Shy-Drager Syndrome d. Todd's Paralysis

B. Rassmussen's Encephalitis

107. The pattern in the illustration above, seen in a ten-year-old exhibiting progressive deterioration of mental function and myoclonic seizures, may indicate . a. Creutzfeldt Jacob disease b. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis c. Huntington's chorea d. Alzheimer's dementia

B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis Kiloh, L.G., McComas, A.J., and Osselton, J.W. (1972): Clinical Encephalography. 3rd ed. Butterworth's, London. P. 144-145 Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 387-389.

27. Which electrodes do not record directly from the brain? a. depth b. subdermal c. subdural d. epidural

B. Subdermal

316. What term is used to describe an interruption in blood to the brain causing neurological symptoms, but with full recovery within 24 hours? a. CVA b. TIA c. Thrombus d. Embolism

B. TIA

279. TIA: a. Temporarily Infected Area b. Transient Ischemic Attack c. Trans-Ictal Activity d. Temporal Inferior Artery

B. Transient Ischemic Attack

9. The EEG amplifier is designed so that when input 1 is more negative than input 2, the deflection will be ____. a. downward b. upward c. absent d. sinusoidal

B. Upward

484. What do END technologists do to skin that makes it at a higher risk to electric current? a. Place plastic adhesive electrodes on the skin b. Use skin prep to lower the impedance of the electrodes c. Wash the skin with antibacterial soap and water d. Remove adhesives and tape on the skin too quickly

B. Use skin prep to lower the impedance of the electrodes

395. In the illustration above, "A" indicates and "B" indicates . a. Cephalad, Caudad or Superior, Inferior b. Ventral or Anterior, Dorsal or Posterior c. Midline, Midsagittal planes d. Proximal, Distal

B. Ventral or Anterior, Dorsal or Posterior Medical Terminology: A Self Learning Text, Second edition, by Jacqueline Joesph Birmingham, Mosby, 1990. Pg 59

118. Sodium amytal is used for . a. truth serum b. Wada test c. Cerebral angiogram d. To induce seizures

B. Wada test Niedermeyer, E. and Lopes da Slva, F. (Eds.) (1987): Electroencephalography: Basic Principals, Clinical Applications and Related Fields. 2nd ed. Urban & Schwarzenberg, Baltimore-Munich, p. 598.

159. The smallest structure that maintains its chemical character is the . a. nucleus b. atom c. electron d. proton

B. atom

101. The EEG of an aphasic patient who's computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a subdural hematoma is most likely to show . a. right temporal spike and wave focus b. attenuation of background in the left hemisphere c. left hemispheric PLEDs d. generalized polyspikes

B. attenuation of background in the left hemisphere Tyner et al. 1983, p. 231.

408. Identify the blood vessel "F": a. posterior communicating artery b. basilar artery c. posterior cerebral artery d. vertebral artery

B. basilar artery

308. The middle cerebral artery supplies blood to the . a. pons b. brain's lateral surface c. occipital lobe d. face

B. brain's lateral surface Patestas & Gartner, p. 105-107

77. This test is useful in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis, pontine angle tumors, coma and brain death. a. visual evoked potential b. brainstem auditory evoked potential c. myelogram d. angiogram

B. brainstem auditory evoked potential Spehlmann, R. (1985): Evoked Potential Primer, Butterworth's, Boston*London, p. 223.

453. In the illustration above, is being measured. a. parasagittal b. central transverse c. circumferential d. frontal polar

B. central transverse

157. Resistance . a. is the same as conductance b. describes the forces opposing direct current flow c. describes the forces opposing alternating current flow d. is a term that is interchangeable with the term "impedance"

B. describes the forces opposing direct current flow

379. In the sample above, what best describes the pattern seen? a. primary generalized epileptiform discharge b. right temporal focal discharge with secondary generalization c. RMTD (Rhythmic Mid-Temporal Theta Discharge) d. Wicket Spikes

B. right temporal focal discharge with secondary generalization

76. Positron emission tomography (PET) is used for . a. treatment of leukemia b. visualizing the metabolism of the brain c. visualizing the ventricular system d. treatment of spinal injuries.

B. visualizing the metabolism of the brain Tyner et al. 1983, p. 45-47.

171. Midway through the sample the epoch/time base/equivalent paper speed is changed from 30 mm/sec to 60 mm/sec. What is the activity seen in the sample below? a. Beta of cerebral origin b. EMG of muscular origin c. 60 Hz electrical interference d. Lateral rectus spikes

C. 60 Hz electrical interference

370. In the sample above, the artifact is , and you can be sure of this because . a. EKG, because it is in sync with the EKG monitor b. Respiration, because it is at a frequency which is similar to normal breathing patterns c. 60 Hz noise and electrode popping, the display time base has been changed to better identify the sinusoidal morphology and frequency of 60 Hz, and the mirrored phase reversing which is not reflected in adjacent electrodes would indicate electrode popping/artifact. d. EMG, the morphology and frequency suggests EMG aftifact

C. 60 Hz noise and electrode popping, the display time base has been changed to better identify the sinusoidal morphology and frequency of 60 Hz, and the mirrored phase reversing which is not reflected in adjacent electrodes would indicate electrode popping/artifact.

384. In the illustrations above, what do we call the section that is being measured, between Fp1 and O2? a. Coronal b. Circumferential c. Parasagittal d. Transverse

C. Parasagittal

65. Substantia nigra is affected in what disorder? a. Horner's b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c. Parkinsonism d. Meniere's

C. Parkinsonism Tyner et al. 1983, p. 218.

288. PLEDS: a. Primary Lateralized Encephalitic Disease b. Paroxysmal Lengthy Epileptic Discharges c. Periodic Lateralized Epileptiform Discharges d. Parietal Lobe Encephalitic Dementia

C. Periodic Lateralized Epileptiform Discharges

391. In the illustration above the arrow marked "A" indicates and the arrow "B" indicates . a. Dorsal, Ventral b. Anterior, Posterior c. Proximal, Distal d. Transverse and Sagittal

C. Proximal, Distal Medical Terminology: A Self Learning Text, Second edition, by Jacqueline Joesph Birmingham, Mosby, 1990. Pg 59

127. In the sample above, what action should be taken? a. Give the patient orange juice and repeat hyperventilation b. Photic Stimulation c. Replace or reapply the electrode at Cz d. Sedation

C. Replace or reapply the electrode at Cz

The next questions are over the 3 pages of EEG sample starting below: 378. The 3 sample pages above are from the same patient and in sequence. What best describes the pattern seen? a. FIRDA b. ORDA c. SREDA d. Lamda

C. SREDA

327. POSTS are seen during . a. Stage IV sleep b. photic stimulation c. Stage I sleep d. eye opening

C. Stage I sleep

184. The sample below shows a patient who is . a. awake b. drowsy c. Stage II Sleep d. Stage III Sleep

C. Stage II Sleep

272. Electrodes placed on the dorsum of the hand monitor . a. galvanic response b. pulsation of veins c. artifact induced from surroundings d. electroretinogram

C. artifact induced from surroundings

82. Six to seven Hz theta activity is typically seen in a normal adult in which of the following? a. in the occipital regions b. in the centro temporal regions during photic stimulation c. at the onset of drowsiness d. in low voltage, paroxysmal bursts over the frontal regions

C. at the onset of drowsiness Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 152.

85. When seen in the waking records of adolescents, posterior slow waves of youth . a. are a non specific abnormality b. are diagnostic of migraine headaches c. attenuate when the patient opens his/her eyes d. attenuate with fist clenching

C. attenuate when the patient opens his/her eyes Westmorland, B.F. and Stockard, J.E. (1977): The EEG in infants and children: Normal patterns. Am. J. EEG Technol., 17:187-206. Reprinted in ASET reprint book number VII: Neonatal EEG and EP. (Revised in 2007)

178. In the sample below, how do we know that the high amplitude Delta waves at F7 and F8 are lateral eye movements? a. because they are reflected in the eye monitor channels b. because they are seen also at Fp1 and Fp2 c. because they have a saw-toothed morphology and alternating polarity when left and right sides are compared d. we actually don't know that, they are probably of cortical origin

C. because they have a saw-toothed morphology and alternating polarity when left and right sides are compared Stern and Engel, p. 84 Blume et al, p 21-24

299. Stage I and Stage II sleep frequently increase the incidence of spikes in a patient with . a. Alzheimer's Disease b. sickle cell anemia c. benign focal epilepsy d. Huntington's Chorea

C. benign focal epilepsy

45. The midbrain, pons and medulla comprise the ____. a. red nucleus b. reticular activating system c. brainstem d. limbic system

C. brainstem Manter & Gatz's 7th edition 1987, pp.71-86 Patestas & Gartner, p. 80-82

438. The desirable characteristic of a differential amplifier in which like signals are cancelled is called . a. phase reversal b. electrocerebral inactivity c. common mode rejection d. patient isolation transformer

C. common mode rejection

300. Automatisms are most likely to be seen during . a. generalized tonic/clonic seizures b. simple partial seizures c. complex partial seizures d. myoclonic seizures

C. complex partial seizures

245. Hyperventilation would be considered abnormal in the following conditions(s) when the build up . a. is frontally predominant. b. returns to baseline within 30 to 60 seconds c. consists of focal delta d. is of high amplitude up to 150 µV

C. consists of focal delta

420. What characteristic of head injury, when the injury to the brain is opposite the blow to the head, is illustrated above? a. subdural hematoma b. coma c. contra coupe d. skull fracture

C. contra coupe

309. Which of the following cerebral structures interconnects symmetrical areas of the right and left hemispheres? a. fornix b. internal capsule c. corpus callosum d. thalamus

C. corpus callosum

335. What structure will most likely be affected first by an anoxic insult? a. brainstem b. spinal cord c. cortex d. cerebellum

C. cortex

86. A normal waking and sleeping adult EEG recording will not include this feature. a. rhythmic temporal theta b. diffuse low amplitude beta c. delta range activity during alert states d. vertex sharp waves

C. delta range activity during alert states Westmorland, B.F. (1982): Normal and benign EEG patterns. Am. J. EEG Technol., 22:3-31. Reprinted in ASET reprint booklet: Sleep

241. Resistance . a. is the same as conductance b. decreases as temperature increases c. describes the forces opposing direct current flow d. is present only with alternating current

C. describes the forces opposing direct current flow

Patestas & Gartner, p. 69 310. The substantia nigra supplies the neurotransmitter . a. GABA b. serotonin c. dopamine d. HGH

C. dopamine

254. High voltage diffuse rhythmic theta in a 1 year old child indicates that the child is . a. awake b. in REM c. drowsy d. in Stage IV sleep

C. drowsy Fisch 3rd edition, p. 173

96. Interictal discharges in patients with complex partial seizures are most likely to be recorded in the EEG . a. during the waking record. b. during photic stimulation c. during Stage I sleep d. during REM sleep

C. during Stage I sleep Spehlmann's 2nd ed. 1991, p. 255.

246. Slow, rolling eye movements are seen . a. only during the alert EEG b. in narcolepsy c. during drowsiness d. in Stage III sleep

C. during drowsiness

247. Which of the following does not attenuate alpha rhythm? a. active mental concentration b. drowsiness c. eye closing d. eye opening

C. eye closing

280. What are the two major classifications of seizure types? a. motor and sensory b. ictal and inter-ictal c. generalized and partial d. petit mal and grand mal

C. generalized and partial

362. The root word "cardio" means . a. interior b. head c. heart d. chest

C. heart

97. When recorded from over or near a burr hole, the EEG may show . a. no asymmetries b. lower amplitude activity over the affected area c. higher amplitude activity over the affected area d. slower frequencies over the affected area

C. higher amplitude activity over the affected area Tyner, F.S., Knott, J.R., and Mayer, W.B., Jr. (1989): Fundamentals of EEG Technology, Vol 2, Clinical Correlations, Raven Press, New York, p. 231.

303. A child is referred for an EEG to rule out absence seizures. The awake EEG is normal. It is important that the EEG technologist have the child perform which of the following? a. eye opening b. fist clenching c. hyperventilation d. sleeping

C. hyperventilation

95. Activation of an absence seizure is most consistently obtained during . a. sleep b. photic stimulation c. hyperventilation d. eye opening and closing

C. hyperventilation Tyner et al. 1983, p. 267.

81. Normal alpha, in an adult, should not be seen . a. in the central and temporal head regions b. with the eyes closed c. in the frontal head regions d. in the occipital head regions

C. in the frontal head regions Daly, D.D. and Pedley, T.A. (Eds.) (1990) Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography, Raven Press, New York, p. 147

73. Fasciculation refers to . a. abnormal sensation b. quick repetitive speech c. involuntary twitching of muscle fibers d. lacking fine motor skills

C. involuntary twitching of muscle fibers Dorland's Illustrated Medical Dictionary, 30th ed.

111. The triad of cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic hallucinations is seen in . a. apoplexy b. sleep apnea c. narcolepsy d. temporal lobe epilepsy

C. narcolepsy Lewis, J.A. (1974): Sleep and its disorders, Am. J. EEG Technol., 14:218 . 224.

401. The structures identified by A-D in the illustration above, are as follows, A , B , C , D . a. trochlear nerve, vestibulocochlear nerve, pons, midbrain b. lateral olfactory stria, facial nerve, midbrain, pons c. olfactory bulb, pituitary, pons, medulla oblongata d. olfactory bulb, midbrain, medulla oblongata, thalamus

C. olfactory bulb, pituitary, pons, medulla oblongata

67. A Megabyte of memory is approximately equal to . a. one hundred bytes b. one thousand bytes c. one million bytes d. one billion bytes

C. one million bytes ASET online education course EEG 104 Understanding and Utilizing Digital EEG, www.aset.org

323. The correct location of the inion is . a. the indentation between the forehead and the nose b. eyebrow level c. the ridge of knob at the back of the head d. the indentation just above the tragus

C. the ridge of knob at the back of the head

177. In the sample below, what causes you to have some question about the origin of the slow focus at C4? a. the patient appears to be asleep b. the age of the patient is not listed c. the timing is in sync with the EKG, raising the possibility it could be pulse artifact, and there is no spread of the slowing to adjacent electrodes d. there is some EMG artifact on the left side

C. the timing is in sync with the EKG, raising the possibility it could be pulse artifact, and there is no spread of the slowing to adjacent electrodes Stern and Engel, p. 60

351. Glossokinetic artifact is caused by movement of the . a. eye b. heart c. tongue d. lung

C. tongue

83. Which of the following best descries lambda waves? a. 8 10 Hz activity present in the central regions b. posterior, polyphasic waves seen in adolescents c. transients in the occipital regions present with visual scanning d. delta waves that phase reverse at the vertex

C. transients in the occipital regions present with visual scanning Daley and Pedley 1990, p. 163. Fisch, p. 193

40. When recording for ECI, it is recommended that the sensitivity be ____ uV/mm and the low filter should not be higher than ____ Hz for at least ____ mins. of recording. a. 3, 5.0, 20 b. 3, 0.1, 15 c. 2, 5.0, 45 d. 2, 1.0, 30

D. 2, 1.0, 30 AEEGS Guidelines 2006, www.acns.org

19. What input voltage is necessary to give a calibration deflection between 5 and 10 mm if the sensitivity is 30V/mm? a. 10V b. 50V c. 100V d. 200V

D. 200V

239. At a sensitivity of 3 µV/mm, how much voltage is represented by a 7 mm deflection? a. 21 mm b. 2.1 µV c. 210 mm d. 21 µV

D. 21 µV

148. How much voltage would be recorded if 25 uV beta activity is recorded using a LFF of 1 Hz? a. 1 uV b. 7.5 uV c. 17.5 uV d. 25 uV

D. 25 Uv

80. The ratio of chest compressions to breaths in one person CPR is . a. 5:1 b. 5:2 c. 10:1 d. 30:2

D. 30:2 American Heart Association, (2007) retrieved February 12, 2007 form website: http://circ.ahajournals.org/content/vol112/24_suppl/

346. The distance from Fz to Pz is . a. identical to the distance from C3 to P3 b. 20% of the distance between the nasion and the inion c. identical to the distance from the nasion to Fz d. 40% of the distance between the nasion and the inion

D. 40% of the distance between the nasion and the inion

266. Phase Reversal is an electrical event used for localization in which type of montage? a. Linked Ears b. Referential c. Non-Cephalic Reference d. Bipolar

D. Bipolar

487. A fourth degree burn involves . a. Blistering b. Dryness c. Leathery appearance d. Bone and other tissue

D. Bone and other tissue

179. In the sample below, what is the prominent feature? a. focal spikes b. focal slowing c. sweat artifact d. EKG artifact

D. EKG artifact Blume et al, p. 33 Stern & Engel, p. 58

126. In the sample below, how would you best characterize the activity seen in at Cz? a. Vertex wave b. Sweat artifact c. Central spike d. Electrode pop

D. Electrode pop Stern & Engel 2005 p. 62 Blume et al, p. 8-9

8. A small fluctuating output recorded by the EEG instrument even when there is no input signal is called ____. a. output voltage b. linear distortion c. 60 Hz interference d. Noise

D. Noise

28. Which of the following is not related to measuring electrode resistance? a. opposition to direct current flow b. measurement while the electrode is unattached to the scalp c. measurement with an ohmmeter d. opposition to alternating current flow

D. Opposition to alternating current flow Spehlmann 1981 p 27 Spehlmann, 2nd ed. 1991, p 29

380. In the illustration above, what stage of sleep would you say the patient is in based on this sample? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV

D. Stage IV

66. Port wine stain is associated with . a. retinitis pigmentosa b. Epstein's syndrome c. Herpes simplex encephalitis d. Sturge-Weber syndrome

D. Sturge-Weber syndrome

24. The term RAM means: a. read only memory used for archiving data b. the amount of data that can be stored on a rewritable CD c. the amount of data that can be stored on a DVD d. temporary memory storage that is critical to rapid computer operations

D. Temporary memory storage that is critical to rapid computer operations

457. What is the title of the system illustrated above? a. The Highly Expanded Measurement System b. The British Head Measurement System c. The North American Congressional System d. The 10-10 System

D. The 10*10 System

240. After application of electrodes, the impedance of every electrode should be measured. Impedances . a. should be between 3000-5000K ohms, and equal b. of subdermal electrodes will be lower due to the limited surface area c. are measured by using 10-30 Hz direct current d. above 5000 ohms should be reduced by adding electrolyte or replacing the electrode

D. above 5000 ohms should be reduced by adding electrolyte or replacing the electrode

356. Huntington's Disease is characterized by . a. encephalitis b. temporal spikes c. nuchal rigidity d. chorea movements

D. chorea movements

151. A short time constant results in . a. increase in fast frequencies b. decrease in fast frequencies c. increase in slow activity d. decrease in slow activity

D. decrease in slow activity Ebersole and Pedley, p. 80-85

142. What kind of amplifiers are used to record biological signals? a. bifurcated b. referential c. bipolar d. differential

D. differential

237. What kind of amplifiers are used to record biological signals? a. single ended b. referential c. bipolar d. differential

D. differential

69. A patient complaining of right hemiplegia will have . a. difficulty moving all extremities b. nonpurposeful movements of the right side of the body c. no vision in the right eye d. difficulty moving the right half of the body

D. difficulty moving the right half of the body Chabner, Davi-Ellen (1985): The Language of Medicine, W.B. Saunders Co., Philadelphia and London, P. 248.

369. In the sample above, the focal activity at T5 is most likely . a. focal slowing from a space occupying lesion b. post-ictal slowing from a focal seizure c. focal sharp wave activity d. electrode artifact

D. electrode artifact

342. Focal facial clonic movements without loss of consciousness are called . a. absence seizures b. partial complex seizures c. generalized tonic/clonic seizures d. focal motor seizure

D. focal motor seizure

463. Abnormally low concentration of sodium in the blood is called . a. hypercalcemia b. hyporthyroidism c. hypocalcemia d. hypoatremia

D. hyponatremia

286. The time of the seizure itself is called . a. Pre-ictal b. interictal c. post-ictal d. ictal

D. ictal

404. Identify the blood vessel "C": a. anterior communicating artery b. anterior cerebral artery c. internal carotid d. middle cerebral

D. middle cerebral

235. What is the most likely EEG finding during a psychogenic nonepileptic seizure? a. normal sleep activity b. focal slowing c. epileptiform discharges d. normal awake rhythms

D. normal awake rhythms Ebersole and Pedley, p. 595

419. In the illustration above, the structures labeled D-F are: a. pituitary, pons, medulla oblongata b. thalamus, hypothalamus, cerebellum c. pons, hypothalamus, cerebrum d. pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum

D. pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum

467. Mu rhythm is blocked by: a. eye opening b. visually scanning a pattern c. covering one eye d. real or imagined contralateral motor activity

D. real or imagined contralateral motor activity

75. Wada testing is done to determine . a. balance b. hearing c. vision d. speech dominance

D. speech dominance Kiloh et al. 1972 p. 97.

5. Which of the following describes the action of a capacitor? a. opposes changes in current flow b. converts alternating current to direct current c. creates a direct current resistance d. stores energy

D. stores energy

176. In the sample below, the presence of slow waves in the frontal leads suggests . a. the patient is sweating b. the patient has an anterior space occupying lesion c. the patient is in REM sleep d. the patient is drowsy

D. the patient is drowsy Stern & Engel, p. 91 Blume et al, p. 114-118

141. In an EEG instrument, what component transforms alternating current into direct current? a. the input cable b. the galvanometers c. the A to D converter d. the power supply

D. the power supply

214. At a sensitivity of 30uV/mm, how much voltage is represented by 10 mm of deflection? a. 300 uV b. 100 uV c. 20 uV d. 3 Uv

a. 300 uV

216. In the sample below, what is the likely source of Delta activity in the frontal leads? a. eye flutter b. FIRDA (Frontal Intermittent Rhythmic Delta) c. glossokinetic artifact d. respiration artifact

c. glossokinetic artifact