Semester 2: Unit 1 exam

must be kept below 1.5 mEq/L (1.5 mmol/L) to reduce the risk of toxicity.

Plasma lithium levels should range from 0.8 to 1.4 mEq/L (0.8-1.4 mmol/L)

(in class discussion ) Anxiety must be of a sufficient __________, _____________, and degree of____________________ to be recognizable

intensity duration functional impairment

pregnant female comes in complaining of excessive salvation what is the nurses best response

this is normal Excessive salavation → ptyalism

An adolescent girl who participated in unprotected intercourse requires an emergency contraception. Which drugs could be prescribed? Select all that apply. Uliprestel Misoprostol Mifepristone Methotrexate Levonorgestrel

uliprestel, levonorgestrel, Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved drugs for emergency contraception include uliprestel, levonorgestrel, and a combination of estrogen and progestin. Misoprostol, mifepristone, and methotrexate are used to induce abortion after a pregnancy is confirmed.

Match the following : Cognitive Parameters 1. Orientation: 2. Memory: 3. Attention: 4. Thinking: 5. Language: 6. Praxis: 7. Executive function: A. person, place, time B. ability to direct and coordinate movements C. ability to receive and express a message D.ability to abstract, plan, sequence, and use feedback to guide performance E. ability to attend and concentrate on stimuli F. ability to register, retain, recall information G. ability to organize and communicate ideas

1. A 2. F 3. E 4. G 5. C 6. B 7. D

Match the following (5 A's to Alzheimer diagnosis) 1. Anomia: 2. Apraxia: 3. Agnosia: 4. Amnesia : 5. Aphasia : A. inability to remember names of things B. inability to express oneself through speech C. inability to recognize familiar objects, tastes, sounds, and other sensations D. memory loss E. misuse of objects bc of failure to identify them

1. A 2. E 3. C 4. D 5. B

(Anxiety across the life span) Match the following 1. Toddlers ( 1-3 ) 2. Preschooler (3-5 ) 3. School-age children(6-11) 4. Adolescence (12-18) A. Anger, resentment over depersonalization, and loss of peer support. B. fear separation from parents, intense panic, low frustration tolerance. (reassure parents this is normal) C. Boredom, depression over separation from family, and fear of death. D. Fear of mutilation, out-of-control behavior, regression to overdependency, loss of control caused by physical restriction, loss of routines, and enforced dependency, which may make them feel out of control(they have vague views of body boundaries.)

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A

Powerpoints Paternal adaptation Match the following 1. Announcement phase 2. Moratorium phase 3. Focusing phase A. the father becomes more involved in the pregnancy and the relationship with his child. the developmental tasks is to negotiate with his partner the role he is to play in labor and to prepare for parenthood B. the father adjusts to the reality of the pregnancy C. last a few hours to a few weeks...the first period of paternal adaption, during which the father accepts the biological facts of pregnancy

1.C 2. B 3. A

The patient is having some increased memory and language problems. What diagnostic tests will be done before this patient is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease (select all that apply)? A) Urinalysis B) MRI of the head C) Liver function tests D) Neuropsychologic testing E) Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine

A) Urinalysis B) MRI of the head C) Liver function tests D) Neuropsychologic testing E) Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine

A nurse is caring for an angry, hostile client with the diagnosis of borderline personality disorder. What is probably an issue for this client? A. Low self-esteem B. Inability to test reality C. Disturbed energy field D. Ineffective verbal communication

A. Low self-esteem The client is demonstrating a reaction to low self-esteem with hostile behavior. People with borderline personality disorder often have identity disturbances. There is no evidence of an inability to test reality, a disturbed energy field, or impaired verbal communication.

(power points) Tali becomes anxious on her way to school due to traffic and decides to take an alternate route. She has experienced A. mild anxiety B. moderate anxiety C. severe anxiety D. a panic attack

A. mild anxiety Mild Anxiety→ asscoiasted with the stress of daily living ...helps people with problem solving

(powerpoints) MME tests what? ( select all that apply A. orientation B. executive function C. Registration D. Attention and calculation F. Recall G. language

A. orientation C. Registration D. Attention and calculation F. Recall G. language Clock Drawing Test (CDT) is a useful measure of cognitive function that correlates with executive-control functions on the mini cog

Powerpoints When does gametogenesis occur A. 1st week in utero B. 3rd week in utero C. 5th week in utero D. 10th week in utero

C. 5th week in utero

(additional resources) What is JAMCO

Assess changes in senile dementia→ JAMCO Judgment Affect Memory Cognition Orientation

In order to implement primary prevention of STIs (sexually transmitted infections) a nurse is counseling an adolescent. What would be the priority nursing action? A. Help the adolescent recognize the risk. B. Educate the adolescent about proper preventive measures. C. Provide complete information about STIs. D. Assess the adolescent's sexual risk behaviors.

Assess the adolescent's sexual risk behaviors. The priority step for primary STI prevention is to assess the sexual risk behavior of the adolescent to identify the risk factors and provide appropriate counseling accordingly. With that information in mind, the nurse can then help the adolescent recognize the risk, encourage usage of preventive measures, and provide proper information about STIs.

When providing community health care teaching regarding the early warning signs of Alzheimer's disease, which signs should the nurse advise family members to report (select all that apply)? A) Losing their keys B) Losing sense of time C) Difficulty performing familiar tasks D) Problems with performing basic calculations E) Becoming lost in a usually familiar environment

B) Losing sense of time C) Difficulty performing familiar tasks D) Problems with performing basic calculations E) Becoming lost in a usually familiar environment

The nurse is justified in assessing for sexual dysfunction in patients who are receiving: A: antibiotic B: antihypertensives C: nonsteroidal anti-drugs D: bronchodilators

B: antihypertensives rationale antihypertensives are among the drug implicated in sexual dysfunction. Antibiotics, bronchodilators, and NSAIDs do not typically have this effect.

Which one is not part of the 5 A's to Alzheimer diagnosis A. Anomia B. Abience C. Apraxia D. Aphasia E. Amnesia F. Agnosia

B. Abience

Negative symptoms of depression: (select all that apply) A. Anhedonia B. Physical anergia C. Avolition D. Hallucinations

Behaviors that are absent that should be present, such as deficits of social interaction and emotional expression A. Anhedonia B. Physical anergia C. Avolition

How can a nurse minimize agitation in a disturbed client? A.By ensuring constant staff contact B.By increasing environmental sensory stimulation C.By limiting unnecessary interactions with the client D.By discussing the reasons for the client's suspicions

By limiting unnecessary interactions with the client Limiting unnecessary interactions will decrease stimulation and therefore agitation. Constant client and staff contact increases stimulation and agitation. Increasing environmental sensory stimulation bombards the client's sensorium and increases agitation. Not all disturbed clients are suspicious. This client is unlikely to benefit from this discussion at this time.

(Giddens p.330) All are appropriate questions to ask when obtaining hx on a patient with anxiety EXCEPT A. "Do you find yourself worrying a lot and feel unable to control it?" B. "Do you find it hard to shut off your mind from overthinking?" C. "Do you experience anxiety?" D. "On a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 being no distress and 10 being severe distress, how is your anxiety today?"

C. "Do you experience anxiety?"

(** in class discussion) anti parkinson's medications can cause A. Anxiety B. GERD C. Delirium D. flu like symptoms

C. Delirium

The nurse working at a family planning clinic evaluates a client's risk for complications from oral contraceptives. Which of the following places the client at highest risk? A. Age less than 35 B. Drinks 1 glass of wine daily C. Smokes 1 pack cigarettes per week D. History of diabetes

C. Smokes 1 pack cigarettes per week ( do not smoke cigarettes while you are taking oral contraceptives. Cigarette smoking increases the risk of serious cardiovascular side effects from oral contraceptive use.)

A nurse is teaching a prenatal class regarding the physiologic alterations that occur during the second trimester of pregnancy. What cardiovascular changes should the nurse include? Select all that apply. Cardiac output increases. Blood pressure decreases. The heart is displaced upward. The blood plasma volume peaks. The hematocrit level is lowered.

Cardiac output increases. Blood pressure decreases. The heart is displaced upward. Cardiac output increases during the second trimester due to an increasing plasma volume. The blood pressure decreases because of the enlarged intravascular compartment and hormonal effects on peripheral resistance. As the fetus grows and the enlarging uterus outgrows the pelvic cavity, it displaces the heart upward and to the left. The blood volume starts to increase earlier, but does not peak until the third trimester. The reduction in hematocrit occurs in the first trimester; the erythrocyte increase may not be in direct proportion to the blood volume, lowering hematocrit and hemoglobin levels, which remain lower throughout pregnancy.

When are pregnant women screened for gestational DM?

Gestational Diabetes→ high risk --> screened ASAP average risk --> second trimester, typically 24-28 weeks.

**( in class discussion) A client visits the prenatal clinic because her menstrual period is late. Her last period was April 5. Testing confirms that she is pregnant. According to Nägele's rule, what date should the nurse provide as the expected date of birth (EDB)? A. January 5 B. January 12 C. January 19 D. January 26

January 12 Using Nägele's rule, subtract 3 months and add 7 days from the client's last menstrual period.

When reviewing the medications for a group of clients on a psychiatric unit, the nurse concludes that the pharmacotherapy for anxiety disorders is moving away from benzodiazepines and moving toward which other drug class? A. Anticholinergics B. Lithium carbonate C. Antipsychotic medications D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have better safety profiles and do not carry the risk of substance abuse and tolerance. Anticholinergics are administered concurrently with antipsychotics to minimize extrapyramidal side effects. Lithium carbonate is a drug used to treat bipolar disorder. Antipsychotics are administered to clients with thought disorders.

Why is a Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection particularly troublesome for a female client? A. The medication is expensive. B. It is difficult to treat with antibiotics. C. Symptoms are often overlooked. D. Treatment has many adverse effects.

Symptoms are often overlooked.

Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is caused by Treponema pallidum? Syphilis Gonorrhea Genital warts Vulvovaginitis

Syphilis

When do hcg levels peak and when do they drop?

The hCG level rises until it peaks at 60 to 70 days and then declines to lowest levels at about 100 to 130 days as the placenta becomes the primary source of estrogen and progesterone.

During an assessment, a nurse suspects that a client is in the primary stage of syphilis. Which findings support the nurse's conclusion? Select all that apply. Ulcers on the hands and lips Patchy alopecia on the scalp Headache and a sore throat Firm and enlarged lymph nodes

Ulcers on the hands and lips Firm and enlarged lymph nodes The appearance of ulcers (called chancres) is the first sign of primary syphilis. These chancres commonly appear on the skin and mucous membranes such as the lips, hands, genitalia, nipples, mouth, anus, and rectum. Primary syphilis is a highly infectious stage that may be manifested by large, firm, and painless lymph nodes. The secondary stage of syphilis is characterized by patchy alopecia on the scalp and facial hair and is associated with a headache and sore throat. The presence of gummas on the mucous membranes such as the mouth is the manifestation of the tertiary stage of syphilis.

In assessing patients for STIs, the nurse needs to know that many STIs can be asymptomatic. Which STIs can be asymptomatic (select all that apply)? a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Genital warts d. Genital herpes e. Chlamydial infection

a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Genital warts d. Genital herpes e. Chlamydial infection

A normal male reproductive function that may be altered in a patient who undergoes a orchiectomy (removal of testes) is a. production of GnRH b. production of testosterone. c. production of progesterone. d. production of seminal fluid.

b. production of testosterone.

An abnormal finding noted during physical assessment of the male reproductive system is a. descended testes. b. symmetric scrotum. c. slight clear urethral discharge. d. the glans covered with prepuce

c. slight clear urethral discharge.

Male orgasm is characterized by a. resolution. b. increased testicular size. c. vasodilation and dystonia. d. vasocongestion and myotonia.

d. vasocongestion and myotonia.

Match the following 1. Sex 2. Sexual acts 3. Sexual identity 4. Gender identity 5. Sexual orientation 6. Sexual behavior A. How one views self in terms of emotionally, romantically, sexually, or affectionately attracted to an individual of a particular gender B. Biologic sexual characteristics of male or female C. How one responds to sexual impulses D. Behaviors that include genitalia and erogenous zones E. Perception of one's gender as masculine or feminine F. One of four primary drives (thirst, hunger, avoidance of pain)

1F 2D 3B 4E 5A 6C

Example of overt symptoms of anxiety include the following (select all that apply) A. impaired concentration B. talkativeness C. panic attack D. distractibility E. obsessive compulsion

C. panic attack E. obsessive compulsion Covert --> impaired concentration, talkativeness, distractibility....a novice nurse may not recognize these as signs of anxiety

**(perry and on powerpoints) Pregnant female states "I am going to be a mother"...which phase of maternal adaptations is she experiencing? A. phase 1 B. phase 2 C. phase 3

C. phase 3 speculate about the child's sex (if unknown) and personality traits based on patterns of fetal activity.

(Perry)The most common dermatologic symptom during pregnancy is A. linea nigra B.palmar erythema C. pruritus gravidarum D. Melasma

C. pruritus gravidarum --> Mild pruritus...usually occurs over the abdomen

when are breast ready for full lactation ? A.fourth week of pregnancy B. tenth week of pregnancy C. sixteenth week of pregnancy D. twentieth week of pregnancy

C. sixteenth week of pregnancy

True or false Although cardiac output increases significantly during pregnancy, maternal blood pressure remains the same or increase slightly.

FALSE Although cardiac output increases significantly during pregnancy, maternal blood pressure remains the same or decreases slightly. This is due to reduced SVR caused primarily by the vasodilatory effects of progesterone, prostaglandins, and relaxin.

A woman comes to the office of her healthcare provider reporting shortness of breath and epigastric distress that is not relieved by antacids. To which question would a woman experiencing a myocardial infarction respond differently than a man? A. "Do you have chest pain?" B. "Are you feeling anxious?" C."Do you have any palpitations?" D. "Are you feeling short of breath?

A. "Do you have chest pain?" Females may present with atypical symptoms of myocardial infarction, such as absence of chest pain, overwhelming fatigue, and indigestion. Anxiety, palpitations, and shortness of breath are common clinical manifestations in both males and females who are experiencing a myocardial infarction.

The embryonic period is critical because external and internal structures in the fetus are forming. All teratogens should be avoided from A. 4 to 8 weeks. B. 8 to 12 weeks. C. 12 to 16 weeks. D. 16 to 20 weeks.

A. 4 to 8 weeks. The embryonic period lasts from the beginning of the fourth week to the end of the eighth week. Teratogenicity is a major concern because all external and internal structures are developing in the embryonic period. A woman should avoid exposure to all potential toxins during pregnancy, especially alcohol, tobacco, radiation, and infectious agents. At the end of this period, the embryo has human features. The span of gestation from 8 to 12 weeks, from 12 to 16 weeks, or from 16 to 20 weeks is not within the embryonic stage of fetal development, when teratogenicity is of greatest concern.

(med surg) Ovum can be fertilized up to ______ hours after its release A. 72 B. 74 C. 76 D. 78

A. 72

A pregnant adolescent reports discomfort in her lower abdomen and watery-to-purulent vaginal discharge. The adolescent is diagnosed with a herpes simplex virus infection. Which medication would the nurse expect the primary healthcare provider to prescribe? A. Acyclovir B. Penciclovir C. Famciclovir D. Valacyclovir

A. Acyclovir Of the drugs used to treat herpes simplex virus, acyclovir is the drug of choice. Penciclovir is used for herpes labialis. Famciclovir and valacyclovir are not prescribed for pregnant adolescents due to their potentially teratogenic effects.

A nurse is assessing a client with dementia. Which clinical manifestations are expected? Select all that apply. A. Agitation B. Pessimism C. Short attention span D. Disordered reasoning E. Impaired motor activities

A. Agitation C. Short attention span D. Disordered reasoning E. Impaired motor activities The behavior of clients with dementia tends to be inappropriate, restless, and agitated. Cognitive abilities are impaired, as evidenced by a short attention span, limited ability to focus, and limited judgment and insight. Reasoning is disordered, speech may be incoherent, and memory, particularly short-term memory, is impaired. Impaired motor activity (apraxia) and impaired coordination (ataxia) are associated with dementia. Pessimism is more characteristic of depression, not dementia.

Which are are presumptive signs of pregnancy (select all that apply) A. Amenorrhea B. Fatigue C. N/V D. Hearing fetal heart tone E. breast changes F. quickening G. urinary frequency

A. Amenorrhea B. Fatigue C. N/V E. breast changes F. quickening G. urinary frequency

(self adaptive ) A nursing assistant interrupts the performance of a ritual by a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder. What is the most likely client reaction? A. Anxiety B. Hostility C. Aggression D. Withdrawal

A. Anxiety Because the compulsive ritual is used to control anxiety, any attempt to prevent the action will increase anxiety. Underlying hostility is considered part of the disorder itself, not a reaction to an interruption of the ritual. Aggression is possible only if the anxiety reaches a panic level and causes the person to express anger overtly. Withdrawal is not a pattern of behavior associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder.

female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder has become immobilized by her elaborate handwashing and walking rituals. Which feelings does the nurse recall are often the basis of obsessive-compulsive disorder? A. Anxiety and guilt B. Anger and hostility C. Embarrassment and shame D. Hopelessness and powerlessness

A. Anxiety and guilt Ritualistic behavior seen in this disorder is aimed at controlling feelings of anxiety and guilt by maintaining an absolute set pattern of action. Although the person with an obsessive-compulsive disorder may be angry and hostile, the feelings of anger and hostility do not precipitate the rituals. Although the person with an obsessive-compulsive disorder may be embarrassed and ashamed by the ritual or feel hopeless and powerless to the ritual, the basic feelings precipitating the rituals are usually anxiety and guilt.

(med surg) All of the following are question you should ask when obtaining sexual history pertaining to partners (select all that apply) A. Are you currently sexually active? B. Do you have sex with men, women, or both? C. Do you and your partner(s) use any protection against STIs? D. In the past 2 months, with how many partners have you had sex? E. In the past 12 months, with how many partners have you had sex

A. Are you currently sexually active? B. Do you have sex with men, women, or both? D. In the past 2 months, with how many partners have you had sex? E. In the past 12 months, with how many partners have you had sex

Which aspects of cognitive function are tested when a person is asked to start with 100 and count backward, subtracting 7 each time? Mark all that apply A. Attention B. Concentration C. Thought process D. Immediate recall E. Short-term memory F. Long term memory

A. Attention B. Concentration Asking the patient to count backward from 100, subtracting 7 each time is an assessment of attention and concentration. Attention and immediate recall are tested by asking the patient to repeat a set of numbers both as stated and backward. Thought process is assessed by evaluating conversation for coherence, relevance, logic, and organization. Short-term memory is assessed by asking the patient to remember three stated items and repeat them back in 5 minutes. Long-term memory is tested by asking for information that has been in memory for at least 24 hours

The nurse is assessing the pain level for an Asian adult on the oncology unit who is undergoing treatment for bone cancer. The patient is grimacing and moaning; however, he states that he is not in pain. Which health disparities in this patient does the nurse identify? A. Avoidable and Unacceptable B. Avoidable and acceptable C. Unavoidable and Unacceptable D. Unavoidable and acceptable

A. Avoidable and Unacceptable A health disparity in cancer pain management exists between Asians and whites. This disparity can be avoided and is considered unacceptable. The nurse would assess for this disparity by recognizing that there is a difference in Asian cultural values and attitudes related to cancer pain and pain medications. The nurse would include additional teaching when recognizing this disparity. Avoidable and acceptable disparities are rare. An example would be a natural disaster where only certain populations or regions are affected. Health disparities that are unavoidable and unacceptable are a major concern for nurses. An example would be the high prevalence of diabetes among Hispanic populations might be partially due to genetic factors so that such a disparity in the prevalence of diabetes could be unavoidable. Unavoidable and acceptable examples include patients who present to the healthcare setting with emergencies. The patient's age and gender are unavoidable and an acceptable reason for health disparity.

What is the most common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum in infants born to adolescent mothers? A. Chlamydia B. Gonorrhea C. Human papilloma virus D.Herpes simplex virus

A. Chlamydia Neonatal conjunctivitis, also known as ophthalmia neonatorum, is a form of conjunctivitis and a type of neonatal infection contracted by newborns during delivery. The baby's eyes are contaminated during passage through the birth canal from a mother infected with either Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis. ????

(giddens) Mental action or process of acquiring knowledge and understanding through thought, experience, and the senses A. Cognition B. Therapeutic communication C. Anxiety D. Coping

A. Cognition

(giddens) Individuals with mild cognitive impairment are at higher risk of A. Dementia B. Alzheimer's C. Delirium D. Focal cognitive disorder

A. Dementia

loss of memory, orientation, attention, language, judgment, and reasoning. Agitation, delusions, and hallucinations may occur A. Dementia B. Depression C. Delirium

A. Dementia

Which are are positive signs of pregnancy ( select all that apply) A. Amenorrhea B.Hearing fetal heart tone C. visualization of the fetus D. palpating fetal movement E. visualizing fetal movement F. Braxton hicks contractions

B.Hearing fetal heart tone C. visualization of the fetus D. palpating fetal movement E. visualizing fetal movement

When caring for clients with the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa, it is important that the nurse understand the sociocultural influences related to eating disorders in the United States. What are these influences? Select all that apply. A. Diet industry B. Fashion trends C. Fast food industry D. Over-the-counter medications E. Competitive women's athletics

A. Diet industry B. Fashion trends E. Competitive women's athletics Weight management moved into the mainstream in the 1950s and increased its momentum with the fitness industry in the 1980s and 1990s. In the new century, women are constantly bombarded by the media with products and programs that are designed to help them attain the perfect body, which for most women is unrealistic. Since the 1960s the trend in fashion has been toward thinness, with fabrics that cling and styles that reveal the body. Print and movie media, including advertising, are focused on a thin, perfect ideal that is unattainable for most women. Several women's sports, such as gymnastics and figure skating, emphasize low body weights, and so does ballet. These demands may lead to eating disorders in girls and women who wish to compete. Although some people with bulimia nervosa may eat fast food, the fast food industry is unrelated to the origin of anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa. Although some people with eating disorders use over-the-counter medications, particularly laxatives, over-the-counter medications are unrelated to the origin of eating disorders.

(Giddens) All of the following are risk factors for anxiety EXECPT: A. Environmental B. Personal behaviors C. Temperament D. Genetic variables

A. Environmental C. Temperament D. Genetic variables Risk factors for anxiety --> Environmental Temperament Genetic variables Physiology

A pregnant client's last menstrual period was on February 11. A physical assessment on July 18 should reveal the top of the fundus to be where? A. Even with the umbilicus B. Just above the symphysis pubis C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus D. Halfway between the symphysis and umbilicus

A. Even with the umbilicus Around the 22nd week of gestation the top of the fundus is at the level of the umbilicus. Just above the symphysis pubis is too low for a pregnancy between the fifth and sixth months of gestation. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus is too high for 20 to 22 weeks' gestation. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus is too low for a pregnancy between the fifth and sixth months of gestation.

(powerpoints) Primary prevention specific for delirium (select all that apply) A. Explain and educate the patient on the use and risks of sleeping medications B. Explain the importance of genetic consulting C. Explain and educate the patient on the use and risks of urinary bladder catheter D. Explain and educate the patient on the risks of immobilization.

A. Explain and educate the patient on the use and risks of sleeping medications C. Explain and educate the patient on the use and risks of urinary bladder catheter D. Explain and educate the patient on the risks of immobilization.

The nurse is discussing discharge plans with a client who had a myocardial infarction. The client states, "I'm worried about going home." The nurse responds, "Tell me more about this." What interviewing technique did the nurse use? A. Exploring B. Reflecting C. Refocusing D. Acknowledging

A. Exploring Exploring is a technique used to obtain more information to better understand the nature of the client's statement. Reflecting is a technique used to either reiterate the content or the feeling message. In content reflection (paraphrasing), the nurse repeats basically the same statement; in feeling reflection, the nurse verbalizes what seems to be implied about feelings in the comment. Refocusing is bringing the client back to a previous point; there is no information that this was discussed previously. Acknowledging is providing recognition for a change in behavior, an effort a client has made, or a contribution to a discussion.

(power points) exhibits cognitive behaviors that are considered within the range of normal for age and culture A. Intact B. Impaired C. Basic cognition D. Higher cognition

A. Intact impaired→ noticeable or measurable disturbance in one or more of the cognitive processes resulting from an abnormality within the brain Basic cognition→ perception, pattern recognition, attention Higher order cognition→ learning, comprehensive, insight, reason, decision making, creativity, metacognition

Comprises the subjective and objective manifestation of stress, coping, and anxiety A. Mood and affect B. Coping C. Stress D. Interpersonal Violence

A. Mood and affect

After interacting with a client, a nurse finds that a 23-year-old client has never undergone a Papanicolaou (Pap) test. What should the nurse suggest to the client? Schedule a Pap test immediately Schedule a Pap test during menses Schedule a Pap test every five years Schedule a Pap test and human papillomavirus test

A. Schedule a Pap test immediately The Papanicolaou test (Pap test) is a cytologic study performed annually after the age of 21 years. The nurse should advise a 23-year-old client to undergo a Pap test immediately to rule out precancerous and cancerous cells within the client's cervix. Undergoing a Pap test during menses may interfere with laboratory analysis and results. A human papillomavirus test is performed every 5 years. Pap tests and human papillomavirus tests are recommended in clients between the ages of 30 and 65 years.

The nurse is teaching a class about sexuality at a public health clinic. After class the nurse is approached by Cathleen, a 54-year-old female, who eventually discloses to the nurse that she is having a sexual affair with a female partner. The term for an individual's preference for a partner of a particular gender is which of the following? A. Sexual orientation B. Transsexual C. Transvestite D. Gender role behavior

A. Sexual orientation

The doctor asks the nurse to call in doxycycline to treat a 25 year pregnant female with chlamydial. How should the nurse respond? A. She is pregnant did you want me to call in azithromycin to the pharmacy instead? B. I thought doxycycline is used to treat Trichomoniasis? C. Ok no problem. I will remind her to avoid unnecessary exposure to sunlight, not take with antacids, iron products, or dairy products D. Sure i'll get her pharmacy information from her now

A. She is pregnant did you want me to call in azithromycin to the pharmacy instead? Treatment for chlamydial→ single dose of azithromycin or doxycycline for 7 days. HOWEVER...... Doxycycline (Vibramycin) • Patients on this drug should avoid unnecessary exposure to sunlight. • Do not take with antacids, iron products, or dairy products. • *Pregnant women should not take doxycycline.

While assessing the reproductive health of a female client, the nurse observes age-related changes in the client. Which findings support the nurse's conclusion? Select all that apply. A. Smaller clitoris B. Shrunken vulva C. Dimpling of breasts D. Narrow vaginal opening E. Green discharge from the vulva

A. Smaller clitoris B. Shrunken vulva D. Narrow vaginal opening As females age, changes in the reproductive system occur. The size of the clitoris decreases, atrophy of the vulva occurs, and the vagina becomes narrow and shorter. Dimpling of the breasts is a sign of cancer. Green discharge from the vulva is a clinical manifestation of Trichomonas vaginalis infection.

(power points ) Men are at greater risk of impaired cognition if they have the following factors (select all that apply) A. Stroke B. Diabetes C. Dependency D. Lack of social support E. Insomnia

A. Stroke B. Diabetes

What points should a nurse keep in mind when caring for a client who belongs to a different culture? Select all that apply. A. The nurse should be aware of his or her own cultural values and behavior patterns. B. The nurse should focus on understanding the client's traditions, values, and beliefs. C. The nurse should understand that unique cultural perceptions exist regarding health practices. D. The nurse should know that every client strictly adheres to his or her cultural beliefs and traditions. E. The nurse should know that a client's cultural background does not influence the nurse-client relationship

A. The nurse should be aware of his or her own cultural values and behavior patterns. B. The nurse should focus on understanding the client's traditions, values, and beliefs. C. The nurse should understand that unique cultural perceptions exist regarding health practices. Nurses should be aware of their own cultural values and behavior patterns. This awareness enables them to understand a client's values and beliefs. Nurses should focus on understanding the client's traditions, values, and beliefs and the manner in which these aspects influence his or her health, wellness, and illness. When educating clients about their health issues and treatment plans, nurses should understand that unique perceptions exist about the cause of an illness and its treatment. A nurse should never stereotype clients on the basis of their cultural background and assume that they strictly adhere to cultural traditions and practices. A nurse should understand that the cultural background of a client also influences the nurse-client relationship.

The nurse should identify which potential health disparities when conducting an admission assessment on a hospitalized patient? Select all that apply. A. Unsatisfying, low-paying job B. Frequent smoker C. Comprehensive health insurance D. Recently divorced E. African-American male

A. Unsatisfying, low-paying job B. Frequent smoker D. Recently divorced E. African-American male Determinants of health disparities can assist the nurse in identifying patients at risk. Exposure to stressful living, such as financial insecurity due to a low paying, is a risk factor for health disparity. Smoking is an example of an unhealthy behavior that is chosen. Being recently divorced places the patient at risk due to high stress. Natural, biological variations such as being African-American can be risk factors as African Americans are more prone to hypertension. Lack of health insurance is a disparity; but comprehensive health insurance is a positive attribute leading to improved health.

The nurse understands that which of the following contribute to biases and have the potential to result in a health disparity? (Select all that apply.) A. age B. race or ethnicity C. clinical certainty D. sex or gender E. religion or beliefs

A. age B. race or ethnicity D. sex or gender E. religion or beliefs Clinical decisions are shaped by the attributes of patients (e.g., age, sex, SES, race/ethnicity, language proficiency, religion, nationality, and insurance status), health care providers (e.g., specialty, level of training, clinical experience, age, sex, and race/ethnicity), and practice settings. Health care providers may have bias or prejudice against minorities, greater clinical uncertainty when interacting with minority patients, and beliefs or stereotypes about the health or health behaviors of minority patients.

(Powerpoint) Individual risk factors for impaired cognition ( select all that apply) A. drug use B.participation in high risk activities C. exposure to lead and/or pesticides D. genetic disorders F. Family hx of anxiety

A. drug use B.participation in high risk activities C. exposure to lead and/or pesticides D. genetic disorders • Personal behaviors ( drug use, participation in high risk activities) • Environmental exposure (lead and/or pesticide exposure ) • Congenital and genetic conditions ( maternal substance abuse, genetic condition ) • Health-related conditions ( acute, chronic, or medication related)

(perry) Pinkish red, diffusely mottled, or well-defined blotches are seen over the palmar surfaces is due to what in pregnant women ? A. increased estrogen B. decreased estrogen C. increased progesterone D. decreased progesterone

A. increased estrogen 70% of Caucasian women and 30% of African-American women during pregnancy will experience these color changes, called palmar erythema, are related to increased estrogen levels.

(powerpoint) select all of the following are that are considered basic cognition A. perception B. reason C. pattern recognition D. attention

A. perception C. pattern recognition D. attention

(power points ) Women are at greater risk of impaired cognition if they have the following factors (select all that apply) A. poor health status B. Diabetes C. Dependency D. Lack of social support E. Insomnia

A. poor health status C. Dependency D. Lack of social support E. Insomnia

Powerpoints When should the first prenatal visit be A. soon after the first missed period B. 1 month after first missed period C. during second trimester D. at the end of the second trimester

A. soon after the first missed period

A minority patient has recently had a Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG). The nurse is assessing the patient's likelihood of the patient's ability to adhere to the follow up appointments and therapies that were prescribed. Which of the following will the nurse identify as the highest priority for adhering to the schedule? A. transportation B. income C. communication D. sex or gender

A. transportation Transportation may be a major determinant of follow up care. The poorest one-fifth of U.S. families spend approximately 42% of their income on transportation. This massive expenditure on transportation can wipe out their already limited budget for out-of-pocket medical expenses, nutritious foods, and healthy recreational activities. Income, gender, and communication may play a role in adherence; however, transportation is the most important determinant for follow up care.

(perry) How should you take blood pressure on pregnant women (select all that apply) A. with the woman seated B. supine position C. lateral recumbent position with the arm at heart level D. Seated both of her feet should be planted on a firm surface and crossed

A. with the woman seated C. lateral recumbent position with the arm at heart level Measure BP with the woman seated or in the lateral recumbent position with the arm at heart level. If the woman is seated for BP measurement, both of her feet should be planted on a firm surface (she should not cross her legs) and her back should be supported.

**(in class discussion ) Which physiologic changes may occur during the first trimester of pregnancy? Select all that apply. A.Fatigue B. Increased libido C.Morning sickness D. Breast enlargement E. Braxton Hicks contractions

A.Fatigue C.Morning sickness D. Breast enlargement

Assessment of a newborn reveals congenital cataracts, microcephaly, deafness, and cardiac anomalies. Which infection does the nurse suspect that the newborn's mother contracted during her pregnancy? A.Rubella B. Herpes virus type 2 C. Toxoplasmosis gondii D.Chlamydia trachomatis

A.Rubella Congenital rubella (German measles) syndrome results in abnormalities that vary, depending on the gestational age of the fetus when the maternal infection was contracted; the most severe results occur if the mother was infected during the first trimester, when organogenesis is taking place. Neonatal signs of herpes virus type 2 include fever, coryza, tachycardia, and hemorrhage. Except for microcephaly, the assessments noted by the nurse are not caused by the toxoplasmosis protozoa; this problem is associated with growth retardation, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, thrombocytopenia, jaundice, and fever. A chlamydial infection causes neonatal conjunctivitis and pneumonia.

During a routine physical exam, a male patient informs the nurse that he frequently participates in anal intercourse with his new girlfriend. The nurse discusses this practice with the patient by informing the patient that: A: condoms are recommended for anal intercourse. B: anal intercourse should be avoided C: lubricants should be avoided during anal intercourse D: the rectal mucosa is thick and Withstand vigorous activity.

A: condoms are recommended for anal intercourse. Rationale Condoms are recommended for anal and vaginal intercourse to prevent sexually transmitted diseases. Care should be used to avoid injury to the delicate rectal mucosa, and lubrication is necessary for comfort.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between biologic sex and gender identity? A: sex is chromosomally determined, while gender is a psychosocial construct. B: Biologics sex and gender identity are considered synonymous in nursing practice C: Biologics facts and gender identity are both modifiable by surgery and medical interventions. D: Biologic sex is genetically determined but gender identity is chosen during adolescence.

A: sex is chromosomally determined, while gender is a psychosocial construct. Rationale biologic sex is the term used to denote chromosomal sexual development. Gender identity is the inner sense a person has of being male or female. As such, Biologic sex is amenable to medical intervention, but surgery and hormone therapy will not change individuals inner sense of being male or female. Gender identity is not commonly thought to be chosen or objectively selecting during adolescence.

The nurse is assessing a client for recall memory. Which statements made by the client indicate that the client's recall memory is intact? Select all that apply. A. "I was born in New York city." B. "I came to the hospital in a car." C. "You asked me to repeat the words apple, street, and chair." D. "I was admitted on the 24 th of September at 5 in the evening." E. "I had an appointment with a neurophysician last month."

B. "I came to the hospital in a car." C. "You asked me to repeat the words apple, street, and chair." D. "I was admitted on the 24 th of September at 5 in the evening." E. "I had an appointment with a neurophysician last month." Recall memory can be tested by asking questions related to the recent past, such as mode of transportation to the hospital, time and date of admission, and history of appointments with healthcare providers. Asking the client to repeat words tests recall memory. Remote memory is tested by asking the client about the city of birth or birth date.

A 15-year-old client tearfully states that her father has been sexually abusing her for the past 8 years. What statement should the nurse initially respond with? A. "Which type of incidents preceded the abuse?" B. "Sharing this information is a positive step in getting help." C. "I have to report this to child protective services right now." D. "What kinds of things does he do to you when he abuses you?"

B. "Sharing this information is a positive step in getting help." "Sharing this information is a positive step in getting help" is an emotionally supportive response; it demonstrates that sharing this information is acceptable and provides hope that the client will get help. The client needs support, and asking what incidents preceded the abuse may precipitate or increase feelings of guilt. Telling the client that the abuse must be reported immediately to child protective services is not a priority at this time and may interfere with future sharing; the client needs immediate emotional support. Asking what the father did as part of the abuse implies that the client does not know what she is talking about; the client needs support, whether the abuse is real or imagined.

(Giddens) Which tests would be done at second trimester? (select all that apply) A. Group B strep testing B. 1-Hour glucose tolerance test C. MSAFP screen D. Blood type and Rh factor

B. 1-Hour glucose tolerance test C. MSAFP screen This trimester-->Group B strep testing at approximately 36+ weeks of gestation frist trimester --> Blood type and Rh factor

Pt takes off their shoe and tries to use it as a writing tool This is known as? A. Anomia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Amnesia E. Aphasia

B. Apraxia misuse of objects bc of failure to identify them

The nurse suspects the patient has delirium which test will the nurse use to recognize delirium quickly and accurately A. Mini-cog B. CAM C. MME D. Branden scale

B. CAM

(med surg) sadness, difficulty thinking and concentrating, fatigue, apathy, feelings of despair, and inactivity A. Dementia B. Depression C. Alzheimer's D. Delirium

B. Depression depression is severe, poor concentration and attention may result, causing memory and functional impairment.

(med surg/in class discussion) Which ones are treatable (select all that apply) A. Alzheimer's disease B. Depression C. Delirium D. Dementia caused by hydrocephalus E. Vascular dementia

B. Depression C. Delirium D. Dementia caused by hydrocephalus • Subarachnoid hemorrhage*( treatable) Chronic subdural hematoma*(treatable)

On the third day of a 2-year-old toddler's hospitalization the nurse notes that the child, who had been screaming and crying inconsolably, has begun to regress and is now lying quietly in the crib with a blanket. What stage of separation anxiety has developed? A. Denial B. Despair C. Mistrust D.Rejection

B. Despair The second stage of separation anxiety is despair, in which the child is depressed, lonely, and uninterested in the surroundings. The third stage of separation, denial or detachment, occurs later as hospitalization becomes prolonged. The child is suffering from separation anxiety, which does not include a stage of mistrust or of rejection.

Which are are probable signs of pregnancy (select all that apply) A. quickening B. Goodell's sign C. Chadwicks sign D. Hegar's signs E. ballottement F. positive pregnancy test(serum, urine) G. braxton hicks contractions

B. Goodell's sign) softening of the vaginal portion of the cervix from increased vascularization) C. Chadwicks sign (bluish purple vaginal color change) D. Hegar's signs (compressibility and softening of the lower uterine segment @ about 6 weeks.) E. ballottement (uterus is pushed with a finger to feel whether a fetus moves away and returns again) F. positive pregnancy test(serum, urine) G. braxton hicks contractions (spontaneous tightening or contractions of the uterine muscles and are unrelated to labor. They're often called "false labor" pains because while they feel like a contraction, they don't cause the cervix to dilate, so they're not actually indicative of going into labor)

A nurse is teaching a client about using oral contraceptives and when to report complications. What clinical findings should alert the client to stop taking the contraceptive and notify the primary healthcare provider immediately? Select all that apply. A. Nausea B. Headaches C. Weight loss D. Visual disturbances E. Increased menstrual flow

B. Headaches D. Visual disturbances Headaches, either sudden or persistent, may indicate hypertension or a cardiovascular event. Visual disorders, such as partial or complete loss of vision or double vision, may indicate neuro-ocular lesions, which are associated with the use of some oral contraceptives. Nausea is a side effect that is not life threatening; the dose may need to be adjusted or the product changed to an alternative. Weight gain, not loss, may occur because of fluid retention. Menorrhagia is less likely to occur.

Two populations at greatest risks for problems with reproduction A. Cognitively impaired B. Impoverished C. Adolescents D. People who live in large cities

B. Impoverished C. Adolescents

How does sexual identity aid psychosocial development in the adolescent? Select all that apply. A. It helps them evaluate their own health. B. It helps develop masculine and feminine behaviors. C. It helps them feel a sense of admiration and acceptance. D. It helps them develop decision-making and budgeting skills. E. It helps them lessen the feeling that they are different from peers.

B. It helps develop masculine and feminine behaviors. E. It helps them lessen the feeling that they are different from peers. Physical evidence of maturity encourages the development of masculine and feminine behaviors and enhances sexual identity in the adolescent. Sexual identity assuages the adolescent's fear of being different from his or her peers. Adolescents depend on sexual clues because they want assurance of maleness or femaleness and do not wish to be different from their peers. Health identity helps the adolescent evaluate his or her own health. A group identity helps the adolescent develop a sense of being admired and accepted. A peer group provides the adolescent with a sense of belonging and approval and the opportunity to learn acceptable behavior. A family identity helps the adolescent develop decision-making and budgeting skills.

Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working for a home care agency report a change in the alertness and language of an 82-year-old female patient. The home care nurse plans a visit to evaluate the patient's cognitive function. Which assessment would be most appropriate? A. Mini cog B. MME C. Morse fall scale D. Braden Scale

B. MME

The primary healthcare provider prescribed selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor therapy for a client who survived a bomb blast. During a follow-up visit, the nurse finds that the symptoms did not subside. Which other medications would be beneficial for the client? (Select all that apply.) A. Buspirone B. Phenelzine C. Trazodone D. Mirtazapine E. Imipramine

B. Phenelzine ( MOA) D. Mirtazapine ( MOA) E. Imipramine (Tricyclic) A client who survived a bomb blast would have posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are first-line agents used to treat PTSD. If SSRIs are not effective, then monoamine oxidase inhibitors (such as phenelzine or mirtazapine) or a tricyclic antidepressant (such as imipramine) may be effective in treating PTSD. Buspirone and trazodone are not used to treat PTSD.

A nurse is caring for an anxious, fearful client. Which client response indicates sympathetic nervous system control? A. Dry skin B. Skin pallor C. Constriction of pupils D. Pulse rate of 60 beats/min

B. Skin pallor The sympathetic nervous system constricts the smooth muscle of blood vessels in the skin when a person is under stress, thereby causing skin pallor. The sympathetic system stimulates, rather than inhibits, secretion by the sweat glands. Constriction of pupils is not under sympathetic control; the parasympathetic system constricts the pupils. The parasympathetic system (vagus nerve) slows the pulse, and the sympathetic system increases it.

The nurse conducting research on health disparities applies the idea that the reality of life is based on a mental representation developed from socially shared understandings within a society. Which theoretical framework model is the nurse using? A. Cultural competence B. Structural-constructivist C. Cultural awareness D. Cultural proficiency

B. Structural-constructivist The structural-constructivist model is based on an assumption of dual nature of human existence. The model adopts a constructivist perspective that the reality of life is based on a mental representation constructed socially shared understandings within a society. This perspective/model strongly supports the idea of social and cultural construction of race/ethnicity that frequently results in health disparities observed in healthcare systems and gives direction for nursing research and practice in understanding health disparities in clinical settings and community settings.

A nurse is teaching a class regarding childbearing and contraceptive options. The nurse explains that fertilization of the ovum by the sperm occurs during a very specific time frame. Which statement best describes when fertilization occurs? A. As the ovum leaves the ovary B. When one sperm penetrates the wall of the ovum C. When the ovum reaches the endometrium of the uterus D. As one sperm prevents the ovum from moving along the tube

B. When one sperm penetrates the wall of the ovum Fertilization occurs when one sperm penetrates one ovum, producing a viable zygote. Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube, not when the ovum is expelled from the ovary or in the uterus. After the sperm penetrates the ovum in a fallopian tube, the impregnated ovum travels down the tube to the uterus.

(giddens) Most cognitive tasks occur in the A. diencephalon B. cerebrum C.cerebellum D. brain stem

B. cerebrum

ptyalism means? A. itching B. excessive salivation C. heartburn D. difficulty swallowing

B. excessive salivation heartburn (pyrosis)

Clock Drawing Test (CDT) is a useful measure of cognitive function that correlates with A. short term memory B. executive-control functions C. long term memory D. recall

B. executive-control functions

Becca is unable to concentrate on study guide due to upcoming her nursing exam. She feels tension in her shoulders and is restless throughout the night. She is expreiencing A. mild anxiety B. moderate anxiety C. severe anxiety D. a panic attack

B. moderate anxiety (Giddens)Moderate Anxiety→ -Narrowed perceptional field -Less alert -Decreased concentration -Decreased problem solving -Muscular tension -Restlessness

(power points) Anxiety affects all persons across the life span but which group is has the highest prevalence ? A. 15-18 year old females attending public school B. non-hispanic white females between age 30-44 C. African Americans between the ages 50-60 w/ family hx of alzheimer's D. Hispanic men between age 30-44

B. non-hispanic white females between age 30-44

(powerpoint) select all of the following are that are considered higher cognitive function A. perception B. reason C. pattern recognition D. comprehension E. learning F. insight G. decision making H. creativity J. metacognition

B. reason D. comprehension E. learning F. insight G. decision making H. creativity J. metacognition

a mucous patch is present in the mouth during which stage of syphilis? A. primary stage B. secondary stage C. late stage D. latent

B. secondary stage primary stage→ Painless indurated lesions are present on the skin. secondary stage→ a mucous patch is present in the mouth late stage→ chronic destructive lesions (gummas) are present. latent→ clinical manifestations are absent

A client at 8 weeks' gestation tells the nurse that since becoming pregnant, she has not felt like making love with her husband. She is concerned that her husband does not understand. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? A. "Was this an issue you'd experienced before your pregnancy?" B. "Why don't you feel like making love with your husband anymore?" C. "A decrease in libido is common during the first trimester of pregnancy." D. "I'm sure your husband will understand that this feeling is related to your pregnancy."

C. "A decrease in libido is common during the first trimester of pregnancy." Often the pregnant woman experiences a decrease in sexual desire during the first trimester, probably as a result of nausea and vomiting; if couples are informed about this, they are less likely to become distressed. Calling the situation a problem may cause more anxiety. The client has already stated that the problem began with pregnancy. The client is asking the nurse for information; the client may be unable to tell the nurse. Stating that the client's husband will understand that this feeling is related to the client's pregnancy does not tell the client why this feeling is occurring; furthermore it offers false reassurance.

(Self adaptive) A 4-year-old child being admitted for surgery arrives on the ambulatory surgical unit crying and pulling at the hospital gown while clutching a teddy bear. What is the best response by the nurse? A. "Please stop crying. Nobody will hurt you." B. "Hello, I'm your nurse. Let's go and see your room." C. "I know you feel scared. This must be your special teddy bear." D. "We want you to be happy here. Let's go to the playroom and play.

C. "I know you feel scared. This must be your special teddy bear." Acknowledging that the child is scared and referring to the teddy bear focuses on the child's feelings and a familiar object of security. The child may experience pain as part of the treatment, so the statement that no one will hurt the child is untruthful. Diverting the child's attention will not alleviate fear and anxiety.

Pt is holding their car keys and is unable to recognize what they are. This is known as? A. Anomia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Amnesia E. Aphasia

C. Agnosia inability to recognize familiar objects, tastes, sounds, and other sensations

An alert to the human condition of impending doom, either real or imagined, accompanied by autonomic responses that serve as a protective mechanism. A. Cognition B. Therapeutic communication C. Anxiety D. Coping

C. Anxiety

When utilizing the social-ecological model, the nurse classifies physiological effects of aging within which system? A. Microsystem B. Mesosystem C. Chronosystem D. Exosystem

C. Chronosystem The social-ecological model aims to explain dynamic interrelations among various personal and environmental factors. The chronosystem could be either external or internal. For instance, the timing of a family member's death could be an external chronosystem, and physiological changes due to aging could be an internal chronosystem. The mesosystem is beyond the dyad or two-party relation, and link over two systems that a person lives. Also, mesosystems link the structures of the person's microsystem. This model basically evolved from the ecological systems theory of child development proposing five socially organized subsystems related to human development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.

is a state of disturbed consciousness and altered cognition with a rapid onset occurring over hours or a few days A. Dementia B. Alzheimer's C. Delirium D. Focal cognitive disorder

C. Delirium

A registered nurse is teaching a nursing student about the role of estrogen in adolescents. Which statements made by the nursing student indicates the need for further teaching? Select all that apply. A. High levels of estrogen tend to promote skeletal growth B. Nipples grow and darken under the influence of estrogen C. Estrogen has an inhibitory effect on the growth of axillary hair D. Estrogen is responsible for breast enlargement during adolescence E. Estrogen production results in formation of endometrial lining of uterus

C. Estrogen has an inhibitory effect on the growth of axillary hair A. High levels of estrogen tend to promote skeletal growth

(self assessment) In order to fully understand the concept of sexuality, it is necessary to become familiar with the terms used when discussing this topic. Which term best describes how one views oneself as masculine or feminine? A. Sexual identity B. Sexual orientation C. Gender identity D. Sexual behavior

C. Gender identity Gender identity is socially derived from experiences with family, friends, and society. Sexual identity is defined as whether one is male or female based on biological sexual characteristics. Sexual orientation is how one views oneself in terms of being emotionally, romantically, or sexually attracted to an individual of a particular gender. Sexual behavior is how one responds to sexual impulses and desires.

(self adaptive ) A client tells the nurse, "I am so worried about the results of the biopsy they took today." The nurse overhears the nursing assistant reply, "Don't worry. I'm sure everything will come out all right." What does the nurse conclude about the nursing assistant's answer? A. It shows empathy. B. It uses distraction. C. It gives false reassurance. D. It makes a value judgment.

C. It gives false reassurance. A person cannot know the results of the biopsy until it is examined under a microscope. The response does not allow the client to voice concerns, shuts off communication, and provides reassurance that may not be accurate. This answer does not empathize with the client; it minimizes the client's concerns. This response is not a form of distraction; it minimizes the client's concern and shuts off communication. This response does not contain any value statements.

A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) with an open wound. The healthcare team is unable to understand the patient because she is speaking Chinese. The nurse understands that this can lead to which of the following? A. an increase in preventative services B. a decrease in emergency room visits C. an increase in nonadherence to prescribed plan D. a decrease in nonadherence to prescribed plan

C. an increase in nonadherence to prescribed plan Patients who face language and cultural barriers are less likely than others to have a usual source of medical care. They receive preventive services at reduced rates and have an increased risk of nonadherence to medication.

A student nurse demonstrates effective understanding of health disparities when stating that which disparity is the most significant contributing factor to poor quality of care? A. Language barrier B. Lack of transportation C. Lack of health insurance D. Provider-patient communication

C. Lack of health insurance Health insurance is the most significant contributing factor to poor quality of care. Uninsured people are less likely to get adequate care for disease prevention (e.g., cancer screening, dental care, counseling about diet and exercise, and flue vaccination) and/or for disease management (e.g., diabetes care management) and more likely to visit the emergency department and be admitted to the hospital for ambulatory care-sensitive conditions. Many racial/ethnic, low socioeconomic status, and other minority groups lack adequate health insurance compared with their counterparts. For example, Hispanics and non-Hispanic African Americans have substantially higher uninsured rates, compared with Asian/Pacific Islanders and non-Hispanic whites. Also, minorities are disproportionately enrolled in lower-cost health plans that place greater per-patient limits on healthcare expenditures and available services.

Which antidepressant may cause hypertensive crisis if the client consumes foods rich in tyramine A. Benzonatate B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

Which reactions does a nurse expect of a 4-year-old child in response to illness and hospitalization? A. Anger, resentment over depersonalization, and loss of peer support B. Boredom, depression over separation from family, and fear of death C. Out-of-control behavior, regression to overdependency, and fear of bodily mutilation D. Intense panic, loss of security over separation from parents, and low frustration tolerance

C. Out-of-control behavior, regression to overdependency, and fear of bodily mutilation Preschoolers experience loss of control caused by physical restriction, loss of routines, and enforced dependency, which may make them feel out of control. Preschoolers are also likely to experience feelings of regression or overdependency and fear of bodily mutilation. Anger, resentment over depersonalization, and loss of peer support are typical feelings expressed in adolescence. Boredom, depression over separation from family, and fear of death are typical feelings expressed by school-age children. Intense panic, loss of security over separation from parents, and low frustration tolerance are feelings usually experienced by toddlers.

All of the following are the 5 P's to obtaining sexual history EXCEPT: A. Partners B. Practices C. Priority D. Protection E. Past history F. Prevention of pregnancy

C. Priority

At a routine monthly visit, while assessing a client who is in her 26th week of gestation, the nurse identifies the presence of striae gravidarum. The nurse describes this condition to the client as what? A. Brownish blotches on the face B.Purplish discoloration of the cervix C. Reddish streaks on the abdomen and breasts D. A black line running between the umbilicus and mons veneris

C. Reddish streaks on the abdomen and breasts Reddish streaks on the abdomen and breasts are striae gravidarum; they occur as a result of stretching of the breast and abdominal skin. These are known as "stretch marks." Chloasma refers to the condition where brownish blotches develop on the face. Purplish discoloration of the cervix is Chadwick sign. A black line running between the umbilicus and mons veneris is the linea nigra.

(giddens p.327) When the body parasympathetic nervous system tries to return the body to homeostasis while also ensuring that the body remains alert and ready to respond is which stage of Selye's general adaptation syndrome model A. Alert B. Alarm C. Resistance D. Exhaustion

C. Resistance Selye's general adaptation syndrome model Stage 1—Alarm: the body reacts with an autonomic response that activates the sympathetic nervous system (see Fight-or-Flight Response), thus mobilizing the body's resources to respond to the stressor. Stage 2—Resistance: The parasympathetic nervous system attenuates the reaction, returning many physiological functions to homeostasis while other functions remain hyperactive, ensuring that the body remains alert and ready to respond. Stage 3—Exhaustion: If the nature of the stressor is sufficiently intense or of a protracted nature, it may exceed the body's capacity to compensate, thus exposing susceptibility to disease and death.

A client has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which behavior supports this diagnosis? A. Making huge efforts to avoid "any kind of bug or spider" B. Experiencing flashbacks to an event that involved a sexual attack C. Spending hours each day worrying about something "bad happening" D. Becoming suddenly tachycardia and diaphoretic for no apparent reason

C. Spending hours each day worrying about something "bad happening" Using worrying as a coping mechanism is a behavior characteristic of GAD. Experiencing an accelerated heart rate and perfuse sweating for no apparent reason is consistent with a panic attack. Avoiding bugs and spiders would indicate a phobia. Flashbacks to traumatic events are characteristic of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).

(Med surg p.1227) You are seeing a 28-yr-old woman for the second time in 2 months for recurrent vaginal discharge. The patient states she has not been with anyone else except her regular partner and she says, "I don't know why I have this again. The doctor gave me the pills and I took them." How would you respond? A. The abx was probably not strong enough. Let me talk to your provider about ordering a stronger abx B. The abx probably caused a yeast infection because it killed the good and the bad bacteria. You can take OTC Monastat. C. This may be due to the fact that your sexual partner may not have been treated. This "ping-pong" effect can end only when infected partners are also treated. D. This is normal and the symptoms should resolve in 7 days

C. This may be due to the fact that your sexual partner may not have been treated. This "ping-pong" effect can end only when infected partners are also treated.

A client with a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection reports genital discharge associated with irritation, pain, and itching. Which actions of the client might have lead to this condition? Select all that apply. A. Taking diethylstilbestrol B. Taking iron supplements C. Wearing tight jean pants D. Performing Kegel exercises E. Using antibiotic medications

C. Wearing tight jean pants E. Using antibiotic medications (yeast infections can be caused by sitting in a wet bathing suit for too long or tight fitting clothes....abx kill the healthy flora and may lead to a yeast infection as well)

How long should a diaphragm be kept in after sex A. should be taken out right away B. 30 minutes- 1 hour C. 4. hours D. 6 hours

D. 6 hours Always leave your diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after the last time you had sex — but don't leave it in for more than 24 hours. If you have sex again, leave your diaphragm in but put a new dose of spermicide into your vagina.

(self adaptive ) Before discharge of an anxious client, the nurse should teach the family that anxiety can be recognized as what? A. A totally unique feeling B. Fears specifically related to the total environment C. Consciously motivated actions, thoughts, and wishes D. A pattern of emotional and behavioral responses to stress

D. A pattern of emotional and behavioral responses to stress Anxiety is a human response consisting of both physical and emotional changes that everyone experiences when faced with stressful situations. Anxiety is experienced to a greater or lesser degree by every person. The fear may be related to a specific aspect of the environment rather than the total environment. Anxiety does not operate from the conscious level.

The nurse is caring for a Hispanic older adult in the emergency department who is intoxicated and was found unconscious on the ground outside of a local restaurant. The patient has a medical alert bracelet listing diabetes, hypertension, and epilepsy. Which health disparities in this patient does the nurse identify as unavoidable and acceptable? A. Alcohol use and ethnicity B. Diabetes and age C. Hypertension and gender D. Age and gender

D. Age and gender The health disparities that are unavoidable and acceptable should not be a concern for nurses. For example, in an emergency room, nurses could observe health disparities in emergency visits by age; in general, older people make more emergency visits compared with younger people. In this situation, age becomes a determinant of the disparity, and aging is unavoidable and acceptable. Gender is also unavoidable and acceptable. Alcohol use is avoidable. Diabetes and hypertension may be avoidable conditions dependent on the patient's lifestyle and diet choices.

16 year old female presents to the clinic requesting and abortion. It has been 17 weeks since her last menstrual cycle. What is her option A. Mifepristone (oral drug taken over the next two weeks) B. Copper IUD can be placed C. Vacuum aspiration D. Dilation and curettage

D. Dilation and curettage Mifepristone --> 70 days or less Copper IUD --> 120 hours of intercourse for emergency abortion Vacuum aspiration--> 16 weeks or less after a woman's last menstrual period. dilation and curettage→ later than 16 weeks .. cervix is dilated and the products of conception are removed from the uterus, and dilation and extraction *Abortions after 20 weeks are illegal, but a court may authorize such a late abortion in exceptional circumstances

Which of the following is an essential defining difference between delirium and dementia? A. Occurrence of sundowning syndrome B.Presence of delusions C.Incoherent speech D. Disturbance in consciousness

D. Disturbance in consciousness Delirium is a disorder of disturbed consciousness and altered cognition, whereas dementia is characterized by progressive deterioration in cognitive function with little or no disturbance in consciousness or perception. Sundowning, delusions, and incoherent speech occur with both conditions.

What is associated with the resolution phase of the male sexual response cycle? A. Increased blood flow to the penis B. The ability to begin the excitement phase again C. Intense physical pleasure D. Feelings of relaxation and fulfillment

D. Feelings of relaxation and fulfillment

A nurse assesses a primigravida who has been in labor for 5 hours. The fetal heart rate tracing is reassuring. Contractions, which are of mild intensity, are lasting 30 seconds and are 3 to 5 minutes apart. An oxytocin infusion is prescribed. What is the priority nursing intervention at this time? A. Checking cervical dilation every hour B. Keeping the labor environment dark and quiet C.Infusing oxytocin by piggybacking into the primary line D. Positioning the client on the left side throughout the infusion

D. Infusing oxytocin by piggybacking into the primary line Piggybacking the oxytocin infusion allows it to be discontinued, if necessary, while permitting the vein to remain open by way of the primary intravenous line. Cervical dilation is checked when there is believed to be a change, not on a regular basis. Unless specifically requested by the client, there is no reason to maintain a dark, quiet labor environment. Although positioning the client on her left side is recommended, it is not the primary concern at this time; there are no data to indicate maternal hypotension.

Tool used to prevent health alterations in the older adult patient A. MME B. Mini-cog C. CAM D. SPICES

D. SPICES SPICES is an efficient and effective instrument for obtaining the information necessary to prevent health alterations in the older adult patient . SPICES is an acronym for the common syndromes of the elderly requiring nursing intervention: S is for Sleep Disorders P is for Problems with Eating or Feeding I is for Incontinence C is for Confusion E is for Evidence of Falls S is for Skin Breakdown

The nurse in the family planning clinic is developing a teaching plan for a 22-year-old woman who was treated for pelvic inflammatory disease. What information should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. The need to take the birth control pill B.The importance of calculating monthly periods C. The possibility of changes in secondary sex characteristics D. The increased risk of infertility

D. The increased risk of infertility Pelvic inflammatory disease may cause scarring of the fallopian tubes and result in difficulty in fertilization or implantation of the fertilized egg. Because ovarian function is not affected, the patient will not require hormone therapy, have irregular menstrual cycles, or experience changes in secondary sex characteristics.

Which sexually transmitted infection has the following characteristics: thin, foamy, greenish vaginal discharge that causes itching of the vulva and vagina? A. Herpes simplex 1 B. Herpes simplex 2 C. Nonspecific vaginitis D. Trichomoniasis

D. Trichomoniasis

Ideomotor apraxia is classified as a deficit in which cognitive area? A. Memory B. Language C. Thought process D. Visuospatial

D. Visuospatial Ideomotor apraxia is an abnormality affecting the visuospatial cognitive area. Apraxia is the inability to perform purposeful movements or manipulate objects despite intact sensory and motor abilities. Ideomotor apraxia is a specific type of apraxia in which there is an inability to translate an idea into action.

The community health nurse will be providing community education events for residents in the community. Which of the following data would be most useful for the nurse to determine health disparities? A. How many hospitals are nearby? B. What is the socioeconomic status of the population? C. How many providers are available? D. What illnesses are prevalent in the community?

D. What illnesses are prevalent in the community? Knowing what illnesses are prevalent in the community will not only allow the community health to develop teaching materials but will also give the nurse a sense of which health disparities exist in the community. Access to healthcare, providers available, and socioeconomic status are all important factors related to health disparities; however, these are not the most useful for determining educational needs in this scenario.

You are obtaining hx from a patient with hx of anxiety. During the interview process the patient become agitated, short of breath, and forgets where they are. The patient is experiencing A. mild anxiety B. moderate anxiety C. severe anxiety D. a panic attack

D. a panic attack

(Med Surg) All of the following are High-Risk populations for STIs EXCEPT: A. Women B. Men who have sex with men C. Adolescents and young adults (age <25) D. non-hispanic white females between age 7-13 E. Men and women in correctional facilities F. Victims of sexual assault

D. non-hispanic white females between age 7-13

Which chemical may be responsible for Braxton Hicks contractions occurring during the final weeks of pregnancy? A. Estrogen B. Oxytocin C. Progesterone D. Prostaglandins

D.Prostaglandins During the final weeks of pregnancy, the prostaglandin concentration increases, which causes mild myometrial contractions known as Braxton Hicks contractions. Oxytocin is administered when there are weak contractions to induce labor. Estrogen and progesterone are not involved in causing contractions.

A female patient informs the nurse that her husband is concerned about her sexual response. The patient reports that during stimulation her husband has noticed her clitoris disappears, and he wonders if she is enjoying the experience despite her positive responses to his stimulation. The nurse explains that building excitement and retraction of the clitoris are normal characteristics of which stage of the sexual response cycle? A. excitement phase B. resolution phase C. orgasm D. plateau phase

D: plateau phase rationale during the plateau phase, the intensity of excitement increases but not enough to cause orgasm. The female clitoris reacts and disappears under the clitoral hood. This phase may last for 15 to 20 minutes. The excitement phase is initiated by erotic stimulation and arousal, and physiologic changes begin. Orgasm defines the climax and sexual explosion of the tension that has been building during the preceding phases. The resolution phase is the return to normal body function.

A woman is being seen in the prenatal clinic at 36 weeks' gestation. The nurse is reviewing signs and symptoms that should be reported to the primary healthcare provider with the mother. Which signs and symptoms require further evaluation by the primary healthcare provider? Select all that apply. Decreased urine output Blurred vision with spots Urinary frequency without dysuria Heartburn after eating a fatty meal Contractions that are regular and 5 minutes apart Shortness of breath after climbing a flight of stairs

Decreased urine output Blurred vision with spots Contractions that are regular and 5 minutes apart Decreased urine output, blurred vision, and severe headache may occur with pregnancy-associated hypertension. Contractions that become regular are associated with the onset of labor. Preparatory (Braxton Hicks) contractions ease when the client walks. Urinary frequency occurs in the first trimester and again in the third trimester as the uterus settles back into the pelvis. The weight of the uterus may delay emptying of the stomach and make heartburn a more frequent problem. Shortness of breath would be expected after the client climbs a flight of stairs.

What is the safest and most reliable birth control method for the nurse to recommend to a client with type 1 diabetes? Vaginal sponge Oral contraceptive Rhythm method with a condom Diaphragm with a spermicidal gel

Diaphragm with a spermicidal gel A diaphragm with a spermicidal gel, if used correctly, offers a low risk of conception and a high degree of reliability, and it is the safest contraceptive method for a person with type 1 diabetes. A vaginal sponge may be used by a woman with type 1 diabetes, but it is less reliable than the diaphragm with spermicidal gel. Even a low-dose oral contraceptive increases the risk for vascular complications, and women with type 1 diabetes are already at risk for vascular complications. The rhythm method is not reliable because menses during the postpartum and lactation periods are often irregular; condoms can fail and must be used correctly and consistently throughout sexual intercourse.

17 year old female has unprotected sex last night and is worried she is pregnant. She goes to the store the next day and feels relieved after a negative urine pregnancy test. Why is there still a chance she could be pregnant?

Even the most sensitive urine test can only detect pregnancy 7 to 8 days before the expected menses A common error in performing home pregnancy tests is doing the test too early in pregnancy before a significant rise in hCG level; this can cause a false-negative

A client fears pregnancy despite the use of oral contraceptives. Which blood test would the primary healthcare provider order for the client? A.Prolactin test B. Testosterone test C. Progesterone test D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) test

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) test A human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) test is used to detect pregnancy; therefore, the primary healthcare provider orders an hCG test for the client. A prolactin test is used to detect amenorrhea. A testosterone test is used to determine ovarian dysfunction. A progesterone test is used to determine the occurrence of ovulation.

(med surg) Which patient is most at risk for developing delirium? a. A 50-yr-old woman with cholecystitis b. A 19-yr-old man with a fractured femur c. A 42-yr-old woman having an elective hysterectomy d. A 78-yr-old man admitted to the medical unit with complications related to heart failure

d. A 78-yr-old man admitted to the medical unit with complications related to heart failure

A client in labor is receiving an oxytocin infusion. Which alteration in client status does the nurse recognize as an adverse reaction resulting from prolonged administration? Change in affect Hyperventilation Water intoxication Increased temperature

Water intoxication Oxytocin has an antidiuretic effect, acting to reabsorb water from the glomerular filtrate. Oxytocin does not alter the client's affect. Hyperventilation is caused by an inappropriate breathing pattern, not prolonged use of oxytocin. Fever occurs with infection or dehydration, not prolonged administration of oxytocin

A diagnosis of AIDS is made when an HIV-infected patient has a. a CD4+ T cell count below 200/µL. b. a high level of HIV in the blood and saliva. c. lipodystrophy with metabolic abnormalities. d. oral hairy leukoplakia, an infection caused by Epstein-Barr virus.

a. a CD4+ T cell count below 200/µL.

The nurse is obtaining a subjective data assessment from a woman reported as a sexual contact of a man with chlamydial infection. The nurse understands that symptoms of chlamydial infection in women a. are frequently absent. b. are similar to those of genital herpes. c. include a macular palmar rash in the later stages. d. may involve chancres inside the vagina that are not visible.

a. are frequently absent.

The sister of a Pt w/ AD asks the nurse whether prevention of the disease is possible. in responding, the nurse explains that there is no known way to prevent AD but there are ways to keep the brain healthy. what is included in the ways to keep the brain healthy (select all that apply)? a. avoid trauma to the brain b. recognize and treat depression early c. avoid social gatherings to avoid infections d. do not overtax the brain by trying to learn new skills e. daily wine intake will increase circulation to the brain f. exercise regularly to decrease the risk for cognitive decline

a. avoid trauma to the brain b. recognize and treat depression early f. exercise regularly to decrease the risk for cognitive decline

A Pt w/ AD dementia has manifestations of depression. the nurse knows that treatment of the Pt w/ antidepressants will most likely do what? a. improve cognitive function b. not alter the course of either condition c. cause interactions w/ the drugs used to treat the dementia d. be contraindicated because of the CNS depressant effect of antidepressants

a. improve cognitive function

(med surg) A priority goal of treatment for the patient with AD is to a. maintain patient safety. b. maintain or increase body weight. c. return to a higher level of self-care. d. enhance functional ability over time.

a. maintain patient safety.

what manifestations of cognitive impairment are primarily characteristic of delirium (select all that apply)? a. reduced awareness b. impaired judgments c. words difficult to find d. sleep/wake cycle reversed e. distorted thinking and perception f. insidious onset w/ prolonged duration

a. reduced awareness d. sleep/wake cycle reversed e. distorted thinking and perception

Luteinizing hormone (LH) secretion by the anterior pituitary (select all that apply) a. results in ovulation. b. causes follicles to complete maturation. c. affects development of ruptured follicles. d. directly inhibits both GnRH and FSH secretion e. stimulates testosterone production by interstitial cells of testes.

a. results in ovulation. b. causes follicles to complete maturation. c. affects development of ruptured follicles. . e. stimulates testosterone production by interstitial cells of testes.

(Med surg) Significant information about a person's health history related to the reproductive system should include (select all that apply) a. tobacco use. b. intellectual status. c. current pain level. d. previous history of shingles. e. previous sexually transmitted infections.

a. tobacco use. c. current pain level. e. previous sexually transmitted infections.

Cultures used in the diagnosis of STIs can be obtained from (select all that apply) a. urine. b. vagina. c. urethra. d. rectum. e. endocervix.

a. urine. b. vagina. c. urethra. d. rectum. e. endocervix.

(Giddens) How often should mom be seen during the first, second, and third trimester ?

first and second trimesters--> once a month The third trimester (starting at 28 weeks)--> every 2 weeks At 36 weeks--> weekly until birth.

(med surg) Which statement(s) accurately describe(s) mild cognitive impairment (select all that apply)? a. Always progresses to AD b. Caused by variety of factors and may progress to AD c. Should be aggressively treated with acetylcholinesterase drugs d. Caused by vascular infarcts that, if treated, will delay progression to AD e. Patient is usually not aware that there is a problem with his or her memory

b. Caused by variety of factors and may progress to AD

The wife of a Pt who is manifesting deterioration in memory asks the nurse whether her husband has AD. the nurse explains that a Dx of AD is usually made when what happens? a. a urine test indicates elevated levels of isoprostanes b. all other possible causes of dementia have been eliminated c. blood analysis reveals increased amounts of b-amyloid protein d. a CT scan of the brain indicates brain atrophy

b. all other possible causes of dementia have been eliminated

The individual with the lowest risk for sexually transmitted pelvic inflammatory disease is a woman who uses a. oral contraceptives. b. barrier methods of contraception. c. an intrauterine device for contraception. d. Norplant implant or injectable Depo-Provera for contraception.

b. barrier methods of contraception.

( med surg) HIV antiretroviral drugs are used to a. cure acute HIV infection. b. decrease viral RNA levels. c. treat opportunistic diseases. d. decrease pain and symptoms in terminal disease.

b. decrease viral RNA levels. No cure exists for AIDS, but strict adherence to anti-retroviral therapy (ART)

(med surg) The early stage of AD is characterized by a. no noticeable change in behavior. b. memory problems and mild confusion. c. increased time spent sleeping or in bed. d. incontinence, agitation, and wandering behavior.

b. memory problems and mild confusion.

Provide emotional support to a patient with an STI by a. offering information on how safer sexual practices can prevent STIs. b. showing concern when listening to the patient who expresses negative feelings. c. reassuring the patient that the disease is highly curable with appropriate treatment. d. helping the patient who received an STI from his or her sexual partner in forgiving the partner.

b. showing concern when listening to the patient who expresses negative feelings.

A primary HSV infection differs from recurrent HSV episodes in that (select all that apply) a. only primary infections are sexually transmitted. b. symptoms are less severe during recurrent episodes. c. transmission of the virus to a fetus is less likely during primary infection. d. systemic manifestations such as fever and myalgia are more common in primary infection. e. lesions from recurrent HSV are more likely to transmit the virus than lesions from primary HSV.

b. symptoms are less severe during recurrent episodes. d. systemic manifestations such as fever and myalgia are more common in primary infection.

An age-related finding during the assessment of the older woman's reproductive system is a. dyspareunia. b. vaginal atrophy. c. nipple enlargement. d. increased vulvar skin turgor.

b. vaginal atrophy.

Morgan is a third-year nursing student in her psychiatric clinical rotation. She is assigned to an 80-year-old widow admitted for major depressive disorder. The patient describes many losses and sadness. Morgan becomes teary and says meaningfully, "I am so sorry for you." Morgan's instructor overhears the conversation and says, "I understand that getting tearful is a human response. Yet, sympathy isn't helpful in this field." The instructor urges Morgan to focus on: a. "Adopting the patient's sorrow as your own." b. "Maintaining pure objectivity." c. "Using empathy to demonstrate respect and validation of the patient's feelings." d. "Using touch to let her know that everything is going to be alright."

c. "Using empathy to demonstrate respect and validation of the patient's feelings."

A registered nurse is caring for an older male who reports depressive symptoms since his wife of 54 years died suddenly. He cries, maintains closed body posture, and avoids eye contact. Which nursing action describes attending behavior? a. Reminding the patient gently that he will "feel better over time" b. Using a soft tone of voice for questioning c. Sitting with the patient and taking cues for when to talk or when to remain silent d. Offering medication and bereavement services

c. Sitting with the patient and taking cues for when to talk or when to remain silent

(med surg) Vascular dementia is associated with a. transient ischemic attacks. b. bacterial or viral infection of neuronal tissue. c. cognitive changes secondary to cerebral ischemia. d. abrupt changes in cognitive function that are irreversible.

c. cognitive changes secondary to cerebral ischemia.

For what purpose would the nurse use the Mini-Mental State Examination to eval a Pt w/ cognitive impairment? a. it is a good tool to determine the etiology of dementia b. it is a good tool to eval mood and thought process c. it can help to document the degree of cognitive impairment in delirium and dementia d. it is useful for initial eval of mental status but additional tools are needed to eval changes in cognition over time

c. it can help to document the degree of cognitive impairment in delirium and dementia

the Pt is receiving donepezil (Aricept), lorazepam (Ativan), risperidone (Risperdal), and sertaline (Zoloft) for the management of AD. what benzo medication is being used to help manage this Pt's behavior? a. sertaline (Zoloft) b. donepezil (Aricept) c. lorazepam (Ativan) d. risperidone (Risperdal)

c. lorazepam (Ativan)

(med surg) Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is characterized by a. remissions and exacerbations over many years. b. memory impairment, muscle jerks, and blindness. c. parkinsonian symptoms, including muscle rigidity. d. increased intracranial pressure secondary to decreased CSF drainage.

c. parkinsonian symptoms, including muscle rigidity.

The point of observable anxiety is defined as the____________ ________________is defined as the nurse's ability to recognize anxiety-based symptoms.

clinical threshold Clinical perception

( Med Surg) What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help an HIV-infected patient adhere to a treatment regimen? a. "Set up" a drug pillbox for the patient every week. b. Give the patient a video and a brochure to view and read at home. c. Tell the patient that the side effects of the drugs are bad but that they go away after a while. d. Assess the patient's routines and find adherence cues that fit into the patient's life circumstances.

d. Assess the patient's routines and find adherence cues that fit into the patient's life circumstances.

After determining that the nurses on the psychiatric unit are uncomfortable caring for clients who are from different cultures than their own, the nurse manager establishes a unit goal that by the next annual review the unit will have achieved what? a. Increased cultural sensitivity b. Decreased cultural imposition c. Decreased cultural dissonance d. Increased cultural competence

d. Increased cultural competence Cultural competence encompasses sensitivity as well as knowledge, desire, and skill in caring for those who are different from one's self. The nurses are already somewhat sensitive to those from different cultures and now must move forward in their ability to care for these clients. The nurses are not imposing their culture on the clients; they are avoiding them. There is no clashing of cultures in this situation.

what n-methyl-d-aspartate receptor antagonist is frequently used for a Pt w/ AD who is experiencing decreased memory and cognition? a. Trazodone (Desyrel) b. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) c. Rivastigmine (Exelon) d. Memantine (Namenda)

d. Memantine (Namenda)

The nurse is caring for a patient scheduled for an endometrial biopsy who is having difficulty becoming pregnant. The nurse explains to the woman that a. the outpatient procedure is usually done preovulation. b. bleeding and discharge is common 2 to 4 days after the procedure. c. a small sample of tissue is obtained to diagnose and treat cervical dysplasia. d. common changes in endometrial cells in relation to progesterone levels will be assessed

d. common changes in endometrial cells in relation to progesterone levels will be assessed

9 Med surg) Screening for HIV infection generally involves a. detecting CD8+ cytotoxic T cells in saliva. b. laboratory analysis of saliva to detect CD4+ T cells. c. analysis of lymph tissues for the presence of HIV RNA. d. laboratory analysis of blood to detect HIV antigen or antibody.

d. laboratory analysis of blood to detect HIV antigen or antibody.

(med surg) The clinical diagnosis of dementia is based on a. CT or MRS. b. brain biopsy. c. electroencephalogram. d. patient history and cognitive assessment.

d. patient history and cognitive assessment.

To prevent the infection and transmission of STIs, the nurse's teaching plan would include an explanation of a. the appropriate use of oral contraceptives. b. sexual positions that can be used to avoid infection. c. the necessity of annual Pap tests for patients with HPV. d. sexual practices that are considered high-risk behaviors.

d. sexual practices that are considered high-risk behaviors.

(med surg) Dementia is defined as a a. syndrome that results only in memory loss. b. disease associated with abrupt changes in behavior. c. disease that is always due to reduced blood flow to the brain. d. syndrome characterized by cognitive dysfunction and loss of memory.

d. syndrome characterized by cognitive dysfunction and loss of memory.

Explain to the patient with gonorrhea that treatment will include both ceftriaxone and azithromycin because a. azithromycin helps prevent recurrent infections. b. some patients do not respond to oral drugs alone. c. coverage with more than one antibiotic will prevent reinfection. d. the increasing rates of drug resistance requires the use of at least two drugs.

d. the increasing rates of drug resistance requires the use of at least two drugs.

A 68 y/o man is admitted to the ED w/ multiple blunt trauma following a one-vehicle car accident. he is restless; disorientedx3, and agitated. he resists attempts to at exam and calls out the name "Janice." why should the nurse suspect delirium rather than dementia in this Pt? a. the fact that he wouldn't have been allowed to drive if he had dementia b. his hyperactive behavior, which differentiates his condition from the hypoactive behavior of dementia c. the report of emergency personnel that he was noncommunicative when they arrived at the accident scene d. the report of his family that although he has heart disease and is 'very hard of hearing,' this behavior is unlike him

d. the report of his family that although he has heart disease and is 'very hard of hearing,' this behavior is unlike him

which statement accurately describes dementia? a. overproduction of b-amyloid protein causes all dementia b. dementia resulting from neurodegenerative causes can be prevented c. dementia caused by hepatic or renal encephalopathy cannot be reversed d. vascular dementia can be diagnosed by brain lesions identified w/ neuroimaging

d. vascular dementia can be diagnosed by brain lesions identified w/ neuroimaging

erythromycin eye ointment for newborns to prevent certain sexually dz...this is an example of primary or secondary prevention primary

primary