Spinal/Neuro
A nurse delegates care for a client with Parkinson disease to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement should the nurse include when delegating this clients care? a. Allow the client to be as independent as possible with activities. b. Assist the client with frequent and meticulous oral care. c. Assess the clients ability to eat and swallow before each meal. d. Schedule appointments early in the morning to ensure rest in the afternoon.
ANS: A Clients with Parkinson disease do not move as quickly and can have functional problems. The client should be encouraged to be as independent as possible and provided time to perform activities without rushing. Although oral care is important for all clients, instructing the UAP to provide frequent and meticulous oral is not a priority for this client. This statement would be a priority if the client was immune-compromised or NPO. The nurse should assess the clients ability to eat and swallow; this should not be delegated. Appointments and activities should not be scheduled early in the morning because this may cause the client to be rushed and discourage the client from wanting to participate in activities of daily living.
A nurse promotes the prevention of lower back pain by teaching clients at a community center. Which instruction should the nurse include in this education? a. Participate in an exercise program to strengthen muscles. b. Purchase a mattress that allows you to adjust the firmness. c. Wear flat instead of high-heeled shoes to work each day. d. Keep your weight within 20% of your ideal body w
ANS: A Exercise can strengthen back muscles, reducing the incidence of low back pain. The other options will not prevent low back pain.
A nurse obtains a focused health history for a client who is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Which question should the nurse ask? a. Do you live in a crowded residence? b. When was your last tetanus vaccination? c. Have you had any viral infections recently? d. Have you traveled out of the country in the last month?
ANS: A Meningococcal meningitis tends to occur in multiple outbreaks. It is most likely to occur in areas of high- density population, such as college dormitories, prisons, and military barracks. A tetanus vaccination would not place the client at increased risk for meningitis or protect the client from meningitis. A viral infection would not lead to bacterial meningitis but could lead to viral meningitis. Simply knowing if the client traveled out of the country does not provide enough information. The nurse should ask about travel to specific countries in which the disease is common, for example, sub-Saharan Africa.
After teaching a client with a spinal cord injury, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent respiratory problems at home? a. I'll use my incentive spirometer every 2 hours while I'm awake. b. I'll drink thinned fluids to prevent choking. c. I'll take cough medicine to prevent excessive coughing. d. I'll position myself on my right side so I don't aspirate.
ANS: A Often, the person with a spinal cord injury will have weak intercostal muscles and is at higher risk for developing atelectasis and stasis pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps the client expand the lungs more fully and prevents atelectasis. Clients should drink fluids that they can tolerate; usually thick fluids are easier to tolerate. The client should be encouraged to cough and clear secretions. Clients should be placed in high-Fowlers position to prevent aspiration.
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from anterior cervical discectomy and fusion. Which complication should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? a. Auscultated stridor b. Weak pedal pulses c. Difficulty swallowing d. Inability to shrug shoulders
ANS: A Postoperative swelling can narrow the trachea, cause a partial airway obstruction, and manifest as stridor. The client may also have trouble swallowing, but maintaining an airway takes priority. Weak pedal pulses and an inability to shrug the shoulders are not complications of this surgery.
A nurse witnesses a client with late-stage Alzheimer's disease eat breakfast. Afterward the client states, I am hungry and want breakfast. How should the nurse respond? a. I see you are still hungry. I will get you some toast. b. You ate your breakfast 30 minutes ago. c. It appears you are confused this morning. d. Your family will be here soon. Lets get you dressed.
ANS: A Use of validation therapy with clients who have Alzheimer's disease involves acknowledgment of the clients feelings and concerns. This technique has proved more effective in later stages of the disease, when using reality orientation only increases agitation. Telling the client that he or she already ate breakfast may agitate the client. The other statements do not validate the clients concerns.
A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which clients should the nurse identify as at risk for secondary seizures? (Select all that apply.) a. A 26-year-old woman with a left temporal brain tumor b. A 38-year-old male client in an alcohol withdrawal program c. A 42-year-old football player with a traumatic brain injury d. A 66-year-old female client with multiple sclerosis e. A 72-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
ANS: A, B, C Clients at risk for secondary seizures include those with a brain lesion from a tumor or trauma, and those who are experiencing a metabolic disorder, acute alcohol withdrawal, electrolyte disturbances, and high fever. Clients with a history of stroke, heart disease, and substance abuse are also at risk. Clients with multiple sclerosis or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are not at risk for secondary seizures.
A nurse is caring for a client with meningitis. Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify potential complications of this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Sodium level b. Liver enzymes c. Clotting factors d. Cardiac enzymes e. Creatinine level
ANS: A, C Inflammation associated with meningitis can stimulate the hypothalamus and result in excessive production of antidiuretic hormone. The nurse should monitor sodium levels for early identification of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. A systemic inflammatory response (SIR) can also occur with meningitis. A SIR can result in a coagulopathy that leads to disseminated intravascular coagulation. The nurse should monitor clotting factors to identify this complication. The other laboratory values are not specific to complications of meningitis.
A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Tape a halo wrench to the clients vest. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the clients oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown.
ANS: A, B, E A special halo wrench should be taped to the clients vest in case of a cardiopulmonary emergency. The nurse should assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins and for complications from the halo. The nurse should also increase fluids and fiber to decrease bowel straining and assess the clients chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest.
A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing a cluster headache. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Ipsilateral tearing of the eye b. Miosis c. Abrupt loss of consciousness d. Neck and shoulder tenderness e. Nasal congestion f. Exophthalmos
ANS: A, B, E Cluster headache is usually accompanied by ipsilateral tearing, miosis, rhinorrhea or nasal congestion, ptosis, eyelid edema, and facial sweating. Abrupt loss of consciousness, neck and shoulder tenderness, and exophthalmos are not associated with cluster headaches.
After teaching a client with a spinal cord tumor, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statements by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Even though turning hurts, I will remind you to turn me every 2 hours. b. Radiation therapy can shrink the tumor but also can cause more problems. c. Surgery will be scheduled to remove the tumor and reverse my symptoms. d. I put my affairs in order because this type of cancer is almost always fatal. e. My family is moving my bedroom downstairs for when I am discharged home.
ANS: A, B, E Although surgery may relieve symptoms by reducing pressure on the spine and debulking the tumor, some motor and sensory deficits may remain. Spinal tumors usually cause disability but are not usually fatal. Radiation therapy is often used to shrink spinal tumors but can cause progressive spinal cord degeneration and neurologic deficits. The client should be turned every 2 hours to prevent skin breakdown and arrangements should be made at home so that the client can complete activities of daily living without needing to go up and down stairs.
A nurse evaluates the results of diagnostic tests on a clients cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Which fluid results alerts the nurse to possible viral meningitis? (Select all that apply.) a. Clear b. Cloudy c. Increased protein level d. Normal glucose level e. Bacterial organisms present f. Increased white blood cells
ANS: A, C, D In viral meningitis, CSF fluid is clear, protein levels are slightly increased, and glucose levels are normal. Viral meningitis does not cause cloudiness or increased turbidity of CSF. In bacterial meningitis, the presence of bacteria and white blood cells causes the fluid to be cloudy.
A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which manifestations should the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation
ANS: A, C, D Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension.
A nurse assesses a client who recently experienced a traumatic spinal cord injury. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain to assess the clients coping strategies? (Select all that apply.) a. Spiritual beliefs b. Level of pain c. Family support d. Level of independence e. Annual income f. Previous coping strategies
ANS: A, C, D, F Information about the clients preinjury psychosocial status, usual methods of coping with illness, difficult situations, and disappointments should be obtained. Determine the clients level of independence or dependence and his or her comfort level in discussing feelings and emotions with family members or close friends. Clients who are emotionally secure and have a positive self-image, a supportive family, and financial and job security often adapt to their injury. Information about the clients spiritual and religious beliefs or cultural background also assists the nurse in developing the plan of care. The other options do not supply as much information about coping
A nurse plans care for a client with epilepsy who is admitted to the hospital. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Have suction equipment at the bedside. b. Place a padded tongue blade at the bedside. c. Permit only clear oral fluids. d. Keep bed rails up at all times. e. Maintain the client on strict bedrest. f. Ensure that the client has IV access.
ANS: A, D, F Oxygen and suctioning equipment with an airway must be readily available. The bed rails should be up at all times while the client is in the bed to prevent injury from a fall if the client has a seizure. If the client does not have an IV access, insert a saline lock, especially for those clients who are at significant risk for generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The saline lock provides ready access if IV drug therapy must be given to stop the seizure. Padded tongue blades may pose a danger to the client during a seizure and should not be used. Dietary restrictions and strict bedrest are not interventions associated with epilepsy. The client should be encouraged to eat a well-balanced diet and ambulate while in the hospital.
A nurse assesses a client after administering prescribed levetiracetam (Keppra). Which laboratory tests should the nurse monitor for potential adverse effects of this medication? a. Serum electrolyte levels b. Kidney function tests c. Complete blood cell count d. Antinuclear antibodies
ANS: B Adverse effects of levetiracetam include coordination problems and renal toxicity. The other laboratory tests are not affected by levetiracetam.
A nurse assesses a client with Huntington disease. Which motor changes should the nurse monitor for in this client? a. Shuffling gait b. Jerky hand movements c. Continuous chewing motions d. Tremors of the hands
ANS: B An imbalance between excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters leads to uninhibited motor movements, such as brisk, jerky, purposeless movements of the hands, face, tongue, and legs. Shuffling gait, continuous chewing motions, and tremors are associated with Parkinson disease.
A nurse is teaching a client who experiences migraine headaches and is prescribed a beta blocker. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Take this drug only when you have prodromal symptoms indicating the onset of a migraine headache. b. Take this drug as ordered, even when feeling well, to prevent vascular changes associated with migraine headaches. c. This drug will relieve the pain during the aura phase soon after a headache has started. d. This medication will have no effect on your heart rate or blood pressure because you are taking it for migraines
ANS: B Beta blockers are prescribed as prophylactic treatment to prevent the vascular changes that initiate migraine headaches. Heart rate and blood pressure will also be affected, and the client should monitor these side effects. The other responses do not discuss appropriate uses of the medication
A nurse assesses the health history of a client who is prescribed ziconotide (Prialt) for chronic back pain. Which assessment question should the nurse ask? a. Are you taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug? b. Do you have a mental health disorder? c. Are you able to swallow medications? d. Do you smoke cigarettes or any illegal drugs?
ANS: B Clients who have a mental health or behavioral health problem should not take ziconotide. The other questions do not identify a contraindication for this medication.
A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a spinal fusion. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients postoperative instructions? a. Only lift items that are 10 pounds or less. b. Wear your brace whenever you are out of bed. c. You must remain in bed for 3 weeks after surgery. d. You are prescribed medications to prevent reject
ANS: B Clients who undergo spinal fusion are fitted with a brace that they must wear throughout the healing process (usually 3 to 6 months) whenever they are out of bed. The client should not lift anything. The client does not need to remain in bed. Medications for rejection prevention are not necessary for this procedure.
A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Atenolol (Tenormin) b. Lorazepam (Ativan) c. Phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Lisinopril (Prinivil)
ANS: B Initially, intravenous lorazepam is administered to stop motor movements. This is followed by the administration of phenytoin. Atenolol, a beta blocker, and lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, are not administered for seizure activity. These medications are typically administered for hypertension and heart failure.
An emergency department nurse cares for a client who experienced a spinal cord injury 1 hour ago. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Intrathecal baclofen (Lioresal) b. Methylprednisolone (Medrol) c. Atropine sulfate d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
ANS: B Methylprednisolone (Medrol) should be given within 8 hours of the injury. Clients who receive this therapy usually show improvement in motor and sensory function. The other medications are inappropriate for this client.
A nurse assesses a client with a history of epilepsy who experiences stiffening of the muscles of the arms and legs, followed by an immediate loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities. How should the nurse document this activity? a. Atonic seizure b. Tonic-clonic seizure c. Myoclonic seizure d. Absence seizure
ANS: B Seizure activity that begins with stiffening of the arms and legs, followed by loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities, is characteristic of a tonic-clonic seizure. An atonic seizure presents as a sudden loss of muscle tone followed by postictal confusion. A myoclonic seizure presents with a brief jerking or stiffening of extremities that may occur singly or in groups. Absence seizures present with automatisms, and the client is unaware of his or her environment.
A nurse cares for a client with advanced Alzheimer's disease. The clients caregiver states, She is always wandering off. What can I do to manage this restless behavior? How should the nurse respond? a. This is a sign of fatigue. The client would benefit from a daily nap. b. Engage the client in scheduled activities throughout the day. c. It sounds like this is difficult for you. I will consult the social worker. d. The provider can prescribe a mild sedative for restlessness
ANS: B Several strategies may be used to cope with restlessness and wandering. One strategy is to engage the client in structured activities. Another is to take the client for frequent walks. Daily naps and a mild sedative will not be as effective in the management of restless behavior. Consulting the social worker does not address the caregivers concern.
. A nurse obtains a health history on a client prior to administering prescribed sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex) for migraine headaches. Which condition should alert the nurse to hold the medication and contact the health care provider? a. Bronchial asthma b. Prinzmetals angina c. Diabetes mellitus d. Chronic kidney disease
ANS: B Sumatriptan succinate effectively reduces pain and other associated symptoms of migraine headache by binding to serotonin receptors and triggering cranial vasoconstriction. Vasoconstrictive effects are not confined to the cranium and can cause coronary vasospasm in clients with Prinzmetals angina. The other conditions would not affect the clients treatment.
. A nurse is teaching a client with multiple sclerosis who is prescribed cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) and methylprednisolone (Medrol). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge teaching? a. Take warm baths to promote muscle relaxation. b. Avoid crowds and people with colds. c. Relying on a walker will weaken your gait. d. Take prescribed medications when symptoms occur.
ANS: B The client should be taught to avoid people with any type of upper respiratory illness because these medications are immunosuppressive. Warm baths will exacerbate the clients symptoms. Assistive devices may be required for safe ambulation. Medication should be taken at all times and should not be stopped.
A nurse witnesses a client begin to experience a tonic-clonic seizure and loss of consciousness. Which action should the nurse take? a. Start fluids via a large-bore catheter. b. Turn the clients head to the side. c. Administer IV push diazepam. d. Prepare to intubate the client.
ANS: B The nurse should turn the clients head to the side to prevent aspiration and allow drainage of secretions. Anticonvulsants are administered on a routine basis if a seizure is sustained. If the seizure is sustained (status epilepticus), the client must be intubated and should be administered oxygen, 0.9% sodium chloride, and IV push lorazepam or diazepam.
A nurse assesses a client who has encephalitis. Which manifestations should the nurse recognize as signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a complication of encephalitis? (Select all that apply.) a. Photophobia b. Dilated pupils c. Headache d. Widened pulse pressure e. Bradycardia
ANS: B, D, E Increased ICP is a complication of encephalitis. The nurse should monitor for signs of increased ICP, including dilated pupils, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respirations, and less responsive pupils. Photophobia and headache are not related to increased ICP
A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic headaches. Which statements about headache triggers should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Increase your intake of caffeinated beverages. b. Incorporate physical exercise into your daily routine. c. Avoid all alcoholic beverages. d. Participate in a smoking cessation program. e. Increase your intake of fruits and vegetables
ANS: B, D, E Triggers for headaches include caffeine, smoking, and ingestion of pickled foods, so these factors should be avoided. Clients are taught to eat a balanced diet and to get adequate exercise and rest. Alcohol does not trigger chronic headaches but can enhance headaches during the headache period
A nurse cares for a client with a lower motor neuron injury who is experiencing a flaccid bowel elimination pattern. Which actions should the nurse take to assist in relieving this clients constipation? (Select all that apply.) a. Pour warm water over the perineum. b. Provide a diet high in fluids and fiber. c. Administer daily tap water enemas. d. Implement a consistent daily time for elimination. e. Massage the abdomen from left to right. f. Perform manual disimpaction.
ANS: B, D, F For the client with a lower motor neuron injury, the resulting flaccid bowel may require a bowel program for the client that includes stool softeners, increased fluid intake, a high-fiber diet, and a consistent elimination time. If the client becomes impacted, the nurse would need to perform manual disimpaction. Pouring warm water over the perineum, administering daily enemas, and massaging the abdomen would not assist this client.
A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing an absence seizure. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Intermittent rigidity b. Lip smacking c. Sudden loss of muscle tone d. Brief jerking of the extremities e. Picking at clothing f. Patting of the hand on the leg
ANS: B, E, F Automatisms are characteristic of absence seizures. These behaviors consist of lip smacking, picking at clothing, and patting. Rigidity of muscles is associated with the tonic phase of a seizure, and jerking of the extremities is associated with the clonic phase of a seizure. Loss of muscle tone occurs with atonic seizures.
A nurse cares for several clients on a neurologic unit. Which prescription for a client should direct the nurse to ensure that an informed consent has been obtained before the test or procedure? a. Sensation measurement via the pinprick method b. Computed tomography of the cranial vault c. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid sampling d. Venipuncture for autoantibody analysis
ANS: C A lumbar puncture is an invasive procedure with many potentially serious complications. The other assessments or tests are considered noninvasive and do not require an informed consent.
A nurse assesses a client with Alzheimer's disease who is recently admitted to the hospital. Which psychosocial assessment should the nurse complete? a. Assess religious and spiritual needs while in the hospital. b. Identify the clients ability to perform self-care activities. c. Evaluate the clients reaction to a change of environment. d. Ask the client about relationships with family members
ANS: C As Alzheimer's disease progresses, the client experiences changes in emotional and behavioral affect. The nurse should be alert to the clients reaction to a change in environment, such as being hospitalized, because the client may exhibit an exaggerated response, such as aggression, to the event. The other assessments should be completed but are not as important as assessing the clients reaction to environmental change
A nurse is teaching a client with chronic migraine headaches. Which statement related to complementary therapy should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Place a warm compress on your forehead at the onset of the headache. b. Wear dark sunglasses when you are in brightly lit spaces. c. Lie down in a darkened room when you experience a headache. d. Set your alarm to ensure you do not sleep longer than 6 hours at one time.
ANS: C At the onset of a migraine attack, the client may be able to alleviate pain by lying down and darkening the room. He or she may want both eyes covered and a cool cloth on the forehead. If the client falls asleep, he or she should remain undisturbed until awakening. The other options are not recognized therapies for migraines.
A nurse delegates care for a client with early-stage Alzheimer's disease to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement should the nurse include when delegating this clients care? a. If she is confused, play along and pretend that everything is okay. b. Remove the clock from her room so that she doesn't get confused. c. Reorient the client to the day, time, and environment with each contact. d. Use validation therapy to recognize and acknowledge the clients concerns
ANS: C Clients who have early-stage Alzheimer's disease should be reoriented frequently to person, place, and time. The UAP should reorient the client and not encourage the clients delusions. The room should have a clock and white board with the current date written on it. Validation therapy is used with late-stage Alzheimer's disease
A nurse prepares to discharge a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which statement should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for this clients caregiver? a. Allow the client to rest most of the day. b. Place a padded throw rug at the bedside. c. Install deadbolt locks on all outside doors. d. Provide a high-calorie and high-protein diet.
ANS: C Clients with Alzheimer's disease have a tendency to wander, especially at night. If possible, alarms should be installed on all outside doors to alert family members if the client leaves. At a minimum, all outside doors should have deadbolt locks installed to prevent the client from going outdoors unsupervised. The client should be allowed to exercise within his or her limits. Throw rugs are a slip and fall hazard and should be removed. The client should eat a well-balanced diet. There is no need for a high-calorie or high-protein diet.
A nurse is teaching the daughter of a client who has Alzheimer's disease. The daughter asks, Will the medication my mother is taking improve her dementia? How should the nurse respond? a. It will allow your mother to live independently for several more years. b. It is used to halt the advancement of Alzheimer's disease but will not cure it. c. It will not improve her dementia but can help control emotional responses. d. It is used to improve short-term memory but will not improve problem solving.
ANS: C Drug therapy is not effective for treating dementia or halting the advancement of Alzheimer's disease. However, certain drugs may help suppress emotional disturbances and psychiatric manifestations. Medication therapy may not allow the client to safely live independently.
A nurse assesses a client with early-onset multiple sclerosis (MS). Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Hyper-responsive reflexes b. Excessive somnolence c. Nystagmus d. Heat intolerance
ANS: C Early signs and symptoms of MS include changes in motor skills, vision, and sensation. Hyper-responsive reflexes, excessive somnolence, and heat intolerance are later manifestations of MS.
A nurse assesses a client who has a history of migraines. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse identify as an early sign of a migraine with aura? a. Vertigo b. Lethargy c. Visual disturbances d. Numbness of the tongue
ANS: C Early warning of impending migraine with aura usually consists of visual changes, flashing lights, or diplopia. The other manifestations are not associated with an impending migraine with aura
A nurse assesses a client with multiple sclerosis after administering prescribed fingolimod (Gilenya). For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor? a. Peripheral edema b. Black tarry stools c. Bradycardia d. Nausea and vomiting
ANS: C Fingolimod (Gilenya) is an antineoplastic agent that can cause bradycardia, especially within the first 6 hours after administration. Peripheral edema, black and tarry stools, and nausea and vomiting are not adverse effects of fingolimod.
A nurse plans care for a client with lower back pain from a work-related injury. Which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. Encourage the client to stretch the back by reaching toward the toes. b. Massage the affected area with ice twice a day. c. Apply a heating pad for 20 minutes at least four times daily. d. Advise the client to avoid warm baths or shower
ANS: C Heat increases blood flow to the affected area and promotes healing of injured nerves. Stretching and ice will not promote healing, and there is no need to avoid warm baths or showers.
A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, I do not understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better. How should the nurse respond? a. If you don't want to participate in the rehabilitation program, Ill let the provider know. b. Rehabilitation programs have helped many clients with your injury. You should give it a chance. c. The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability. d. When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first.
ANS: C Participation in rehabilitation programs has many purposes, including prevention of disability, maintenance of functional ability, and restoration of function. The other responses do not meet this clients needs.
A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The clients blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Place the client in a supine position. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker
ANS: C The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tight clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury. Precipitating conditions should be eliminated and the physician notified. The other actions would not be appropriate.
A nurse cares for a client with a spinal cord injury. With which interdisciplinary team member should the nurse consult to assist the client with activities of daily living? a. Social worker b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Case manager
ANS: C The occupational therapist instructs the client in the correct use of all adaptive equipment. In collaboration with the therapist, the nurse instructs family members or the caregiver about transfer skills, feeding, bathing, dressing, positioning, and skin care. The other team members are consulted to assist the client with unrelated issues.
A nurse assesses clients at a community center. Which client is at greatest risk for lower back pain? a. A 24-year-old female who is 25 weeks pregnant b. A 36-year-old male who uses ergonomic techniques c. A 45-year-old male with osteoarthritis d. A 53-year-old female who uses a walker
ANS: C Osteoarthritis causes changes to support structures, increasing the clients risk for low back pain. The other clients are not at high risk.
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from the implantation of a vagal nerve stimulation device. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess as common complications of this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Bleeding b. Infection c. Hoarseness d. Dysphagia e. Seizures
ANS: C, D Complications of surgery to implant a vagal nerve stimulation device include hoarseness (most common), dyspnea, neck pain, and dysphagia. The device is tunneled under the skin with an electrode connected to the vagus nerve to control simple or complex partial seizures. Bleeding is not a common complication of this procedure, and infection would not occur during the recovery period.
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a lumbar laminectomy. Which complications should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Surgical discomfort b. Redness and itching at the incision site c. Incisional bulging d. Clear drainage on the dressing e. Sudden and severe headache
ANS: C, D, E Bulging at the incision site or clear fluid on the dressing after a laminectomy strongly suggests a cerebrospinal fluid leak, which constitutes an emergency. Loss of cerebral spinal fluid may cause a sudden and severe headache, which is also an emergency situation. Pain, redness, and itching at the site are normal.
After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of this injury? (Select all that apply.) a. I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner. b. I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury. c. Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before. d. I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection. e. I should be able to have an erection with stimulation
ANS: C, D, E Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the clients partner will not get an infection.
. A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the clients hips and sacrum. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Re-position the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair once a day. e. Obtain a low-air-loss mattress to minimize pressure.
ANS: C, E Appropriate interventions to relieve pressure on these areas include frequent re-positioning and a low-air-loss mattress. Reddened areas should not be rubbed because this action could cause more extensive damage to the already fragile capillary system. Barrier cream will not protect the skin from pressure wounds. ROM exercises are used to prevent contractures. Sitting the client in a chair once a day will decrease the clients risk of respiratory complications but will not decrease pressure on the clients hips and sacrum.
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a discectomy 6 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse address first? a. Sleepy but arouses to voice b. Dry and cracked oral mucosa c. Pain present in lower back d. Bladder palpated above pubis
ANS: D A distended bladder may indicate damage to the sacral spinal nerves. The other findings require the nurse to provide care but are not the priority or a complication of the procedure.
A nurse cares for a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The client states, I do not want to be placed on a mechanical ventilator. How should the nurse respond? a. You should discuss this with your family and health care provider. b. Why are you afraid of being placed on a breathing machine? c. Using the incentive spirometer each hour will delay the need for a ventilator. d. What would you like to be done if you begin to have difficulty breathing?
ANS: D ALS is an adult-onset upper and lower motor neuron disease characterized by progressive weakness, muscle wasting, and spasticity, eventually leading to paralysis. Once muscles of breathing are involved, the client must indicate in the advance directive what is to be done when breathing is no longer possible without intervention. The other statements do not address the clients needs.
After teaching the wife of a client who has Parkinson disease, the nurse assesses the wife's understanding. Which statement by the clients wife indicates she correctly understands changes associated with this disease? a. His masklike face makes it difficult to communicate, so I will use a white board. b. He should not socialize outside of the house due to uncontrollable drooling. c. This disease is associated with anxiety causing increased perspiration. d. He may have trouble chewing, so I will offer bite-sized portions
ANS: D Because chewing and swallowing can be problematic, small frequent meals and a supplement are better for meeting the clients nutritional needs. A masklike face and drooling are common in clients with Parkinson disease. The client should be encouraged to continue to socialize and communicate as normally as possible. The wife should understand that the clients masklike face can be misinterpreted and additional time may be needed for the client to communicate with her or others. Excessive perspiration is also common in clients with Parkinson disease and is associated with the autonomic nervous systems response.
After teaching a client who is diagnosed with new-onset status epilepticus and prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin), the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. To prevent complications, I will drink at least 2 liters of water daily. b. This medication will stop me from getting an aura before a seizure. c. I will not drive a motor vehicle while taking this medication. d. Even when my seizures stop, I will continue to take this drug
ANS: D Discontinuing antiepileptic drugs can lead to the recurrence of seizures or status epilepticus. The client does not need to drink more water and can drive while taking this medication. The medication will not stop an aura before a seizure
A nurse plans care for a client with Parkinson disease. Which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. Ambulate the client in the hallway twice a day. b. Ensure a fluid intake of at least 3 liters per day. c. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing techniques. d. Keep the head of the bed at 30 degrees or greater
ANS: D Elevation of the head of the bed will help prevent aspiration. The other options will not prevent aspiration, which is the greatest respiratory complication of Parkinson disease, nor do these interventions address any of the complications of Parkinson disease. Ambulation in the hallway is usually implemented to prevent venous thrombosis. Increased fluid intake flushes out toxins from the clients blood. Pursed-lip breathing increases exhalation of carbon dioxide.
A nurse assesses a client with a neurologic disorder. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as a late manifestation of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? a. Dysarthria b. Dysphagia c. Muscle weakness d. Impairment of respiratory muscles
ANS: D In ALS, progressive muscle atrophy occurs until a flaccid quadriplegia develops. Eventually, the respiratory muscles are involved, which leads to respiratory compromise. Dysarthria, dysphagia, and muscle weakness are early clinical manifestations of ALS.
A nurse teaches a client with a lower motor neuron lesion who wants to achieve bladder control. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Stroke the inner aspect of your thigh to initiate voiding. b. Use a clean technique for intermittent catheterization. c. Implement digital anal stimulation when your bladder is full. d. Tighten your abdominal muscles to stimulate urine flow.
ANS: D In clients with lower motor neuron problems such as spinal cord injury, performing a Valsalva maneuver or tightening the abdominal muscles are interventions that can initiate voiding. Stroking the inner aspect of the thigh may initiate voiding in a client who has an upper motor neuron problem. Intermittent catheterization and digital anal stimulation do not initiate voiding or bladder control.
A nurse prepares a client for prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which action should the nurse implement prior to the test? a. Implement nothing by mouth (NPO) status for 8 hours. b. Withhold all daily medications until after the examination. c. Administer morphine sulfate to prevent claustrophobia during the test. d. Place the client in a gown that has cloth ties instead of metal snap
ANS: D Metal objects are a hazard because of the magnetic field used in the MRI procedure. Morphine sulfate is not administered to prevent claustrophobia; lorazepam (Ativan) or diazepam (Valium) may be used instead. The client does not need to be NPO, and daily medications do not need to be withheld prior to MRI.
A nurse cares for a client who presents with an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis (MS). Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Baclofen (Lioresal) b. Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) c. Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) d. Methylprednisolone (Medrol)
ANS: D Methylprednisolone is the drug of choice for acute exacerbations of the disease. The other drugs are not used to treat acute exacerbations of MS. Interferon beta-1b is used to treat and control MS, decrease specific symptoms, and slow the progression of the disease. Baclofen and dantrolene sodium are prescribed to lessen muscle spasticity associated with MS.
An emergency room nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy. d. Evaluate respiratory status
ANS: D The first priority for a client with a spinal cord injury is assessment of respiratory status and airway patency. Clients with cervical spine injuries are particularly prone to respiratory compromise and may even require intubation. The other assessments should be performed after airway and breathing are assessed
After teaching a client newly diagnosed with epilepsy, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I will wear my medical alert bracelet at all times. b. While taking my epilepsy medications, I will not drink any alcoholic beverages. c. I will tell my doctor about my prescription and over-the-counter medications. d. If I am nauseated, I will not take my epilepsy medication
ANS: D The nurse must emphasize that antiepileptic drugs must be taken even if the client is nauseous. Discontinuing the medication can predispose the client to seizure activity and status epilepticus. The client should not drink alcohol while taking seizure medications. The client should wear a medical alert bracelet and should make the doctor aware of all medications to prevent complications of polypharmacy.
A nurse cares for a client who has been diagnosed with the Huntington gene but has no symptoms. The client asks for options related to family planning. What is the nurses best response? a. Most clients with the Huntington gene do not pass on Huntington disease to their children. b. I understand that they can diagnose this disease in embryos. Therefore, you could select a healthy embryo from your fertilized eggs for implantation to avoid passing on Huntington disease. c. The need for family planning is limited because one of the hallmarks of Huntington disease is infertility. d. Tell me more specifically what information you need about family planning so that I can direct you to the right information or health care provider.
ANS: D The presence of the Huntington gene means that the trait will be passed on to all offspring of the affected person. Understanding options for contraception and conception (e.g., surrogacy options) and implications for children may require the expertise of a genetic counselor or a reproductive specialist. The other statements are not accurate.
A nurse prepares to provide perineal care to a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which personal protective equipment should the nurse wear? (Select all that apply.) a. Particulate respirator b. Isolation gown c. Shoe covers d. Surgical mask e. Gloves
ANS: D, E Meningeal meningitis is spread via saliva and droplets, and Droplet Precautions are necessary. Caregivers should wear a surgical mask when within 6 feet of the client and should continue to use Standard Precautions, including gloves. A particulate respirator, an isolation gown, and shoe covers are not necessary for Droplet Precautions.
