Study Exam #5

Sue et al. (1991) found that ethnic matching was associated with improved treatment outcomes for: Select one: A.Hispanic clients B.Black clients C.Asian clients D.Clients of all races Clear my choice

A.

Research on women working outside the homes suggests that combining work and family roles is most associated with: Select one: A.stress-related illness B.reduced involvement in family roles C.enhanced self-esteem D.low job commitment Clear my choice

C

A psychologist who has been seeing a prison inmate in therapy is asked by the parole board to evaluate the inmate to determine his readiness for parole. The psychologist should ___________. Select one: A.agree to do so since she is already familiar with the inmate's readiness for parole B.agree to do so only if the inmate agrees and signs a waiver of confidentiality C.agree to do so only if she has the expertise necessary to make an informed parole recommendation D.decline to conduct the evaluation because doing so would constitute a multiple relationship

Feedback The correct answer is A. This area is one of the exceptions to multiple relationships. As explained in APA Ethics Code 3.05, often psychologists are in the position of being both a therapist and an evaluator for parole in forensic settings and this is a permitted multiple relationship. Answer B: It is not required to obtain a waiver of confidentiality (aka a release of information) for conducting a parole evaluation. Answer C: The psychologist already has the knowledge and expertise required for a parole evaluation as she is currently seeing the inmate as her client. Answer A better addresses the question at hand and is more in line with the content in the ethics code than answer C. Answer D: Although this situation technically is considered a multiple relationship, it is an allowable multiple relationship according to the ethics code. The correct answer is: agree to do so since she is already familiar with the inmate's readiness for parole

The stress response stage that includes successful activation of the appropriate response systems and the reestablishment of homeostatic balance is called __________. Select one: A.alarm reaction B.adaptation stage C.activation stage D.exhaustion stage

Feedback The correct answer is B.The adaptation stage is the second stage of Selye's "scheme," describing reactions to stress. This stage includes the successful activation of the appropriate response systems and the reestablishment of homeostatic balance.Answer A: The alarm reaction is the initial stress response. This is also known as the "fight or flight" response.Answer C: According to Hans Selye, the three stages of his stress response scheme includes alarm reaction, adaptation stage, and the exhaustion stage.Answer D: The exhaustion stage is a stage in response to stress that is caused by prolonged or frequently repeated stress and is characterized by increased susceptibility to disease. The correct answer is: adaptation stage

Dr. Nillson, a behavioral psychologist, is teaching clinical psychology at a university. She does not use, nor can she tolerate the use of, psychodynamic principles and interventions in psychotherapy. She refuses to teach psychodynamic therapy in her classes and actually makes fun of it in front of her students during informal gatherings. Her behavior is _______________________. Select one: A.unethical, because she has an obligation to provide accurate and objective information about the topic she is teaching. B.ethical, because she has the freedom of choice to teach whatever she wants in her classes. C.acceptable, she should not teach a topic if she is poorly trained in that area. D.ethical, but she should not be making fun of any psychological practice in front of her students.

The correct answer is A. Dr. Nillson's behavior violates Standard 7.03 of the Ethics Code, which calls for accuracy in teaching, as well as General Principle C (Integrity), which encourages "accuracy, honesty, and truthfulness." Answer B. This answer is incorrect. As a psychologist, Dr. Nillson has an ethical duty to teach objectively, fully, and accurately. Answer C. This answer is incorrect. Dr. Nillson is ethically obligated to make sure her choice of topics is not biased by her own personal beliefs. If she is unqualified to teach certain areas, she could arrange to have someone else do so. Answer D. This answer is incorrect. Dr. Nillson's behavior is biased and, therefore, is unethical. The correct answer is: unethical, because she has an obligation to provide accurate and objective information about the topic she is teaching.

Which of the following represents a phoneme? Select one: A.BCorrect B.Ing C.Go D.Mama

The correct answer is A.A phoneme is the smallest unit of sound in a language. English has 26 letters but 44 phonemes since the same letter alone or combined with others can represent more than one sound.Answer B: This is a morpheme (the smallest unit of sound that conveys meaning).Answer C: Go is not a phoneme. Answer D: Mama is not a phoneme. The correct answer is: B

____________ has frequently been cited as a primary problem for gay and lesbian adolescents? Select one: A.Isolation B.Academic difficulties C.Social anxiety D.Dysphoria

The correct answer is A.Adolescents who are gay or lesbian face similar problems as their heterosexual peers, however, their identity development is also complicated by stigmatization which may lead to social withdrawal. Thus, isolation is frequently cited as a primary problem for these adolescents, and Martin and Hetrick (1988) found it to be the single-most frequent presenting problem (A. D. Martin and E. S. Hetrick, The stigmatization of the gay and lesbian adolescent, Journal of Homosexuality, 15(1-2), 163-183, 1988).Answer B: While adolescents who are gay or lesbian may experience academic difficulties as a result of the societal stressors they face, this is typically not a primary presenting problem. Answers C and D: While anxiety and dysphoria are common among adolescents who are gay and lesbian, the above mentioned study found that isolation was the primary presenting problem for these youth. The correct answer is: Isolation

Gary previously felt confused about his sexual orientation, but now that he is certain that he is gay, he is considering adopting an openly gay life. Gary is currently best categorized as being in which of Troiden's four stages of identity development? Select one: A.Identity Assumption B.Sensitization/ Feeling Different C.Self-Recognition/Identity Confusion D.

The correct answer is A.Attention to a few keywords and familiarity with the four stages of Troiden's Homosexual Identity Development Model may have helped you identify the correct answer. Identity Assumption is the third stage of Troiden's model. During this stage, which typically occurs during middle childhood, individuals become more certain of their sexual orientation.Answer B: This is the first stage of Troiden's model and is characterized by feeling different from one's peers.Answer C: This is the second stage of Troiden's model. During this stage, which typically begins at the onset of puberty, an individual experiences confusion and turmoil as feelings of same-sex attraction are realized. Gary appears to have recently emerged from this stage.Answer D: This is the fourth and final stage of Troiden's model. It appears that Gary may be on the verge of entering this stage as he contemplates publicly disclosing his sexual orientation. The correct answer is: Identity Assumption

A 22-month old refers to all vehicles - e.g., cars, buses, and trucks - as "cars." However, when asked to point to a picture of a bus or truck, she is able to do so. This represents: Select one: A.represents normal language development B.giftedness in the area of language development C.an early sign of autism D.an early sign of a language production disorde

The correct answer is A.Children's production and comprehension of language develop at different rates. Overextension (applying a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate) is a normal part of language acquisition. In addition, young children exhibit greater understanding (comprehension) of language than is suggested by their production of language.Answer B: The child is displaying a normal level of language development and thus is not gifted.Answer C: This pattern does not suggest autism.Answer D: This pattern does not suggest any language disorder. The correct answer is: represents normal language development

For Carl Jung, transference is: Select one: A.a form of projection B.sexual "acting out" C.symbolization D.a fantasy

The correct answer is A.For Jung, transference is a specific form of the more general process of projection. Jung believed that, when transference occurs in therapy, elements of the client's personal and collective (transpersonal) unconscious are projected onto the therapist.Answer B: Jung disagreed with Freud's belief that transferences are inherently sexual in nature.Answer C: Although symbols are an important part of Jung's theory, he did not describe transference as "symbolization."Answer D: Jung did not describe transference as a form of fantasy. The correct answer is: a form of projection

A low selection ratio and a moderate base rate are useful for: Select one: A.maximizing incremental validity B.reducing the likelihood of adverse impact C.increasing discriminant validity D.reducing measurement error

The correct answer is A.For the exam, you want to have the terms selection ratio and base rate linked to the concept of incremental validity. A predictor is most likely to increase decision-making accuracy (i.e., have good incremental validity) when there are many applicants to choose from (a low selection ratio) and when the current technique produces a moderate number of correct decisions (moderate base rate).Answer B: Selection ratio and base rate are not directly related to adverse impact.Answer C: Discriminant validity refers to low correlations between measures that assess different traits. It is used as evidence of construct validity.Answer D: Selection ratio and base rate are not relevant to the extent of measurement error. The correct answer is: maximizing incremental validity

Freud's psychosexual theory of development is based on the premise that in each stage: Select one: A.efforts to obtain pleasure center on a different part of the body B.a different psychological need is "prepotent" C.the source of anxiety is related to a different psychosocial conflict D.the source of anxiety is related to a different psychic need

The correct answer is A.Freud's psychosexual theory emphasizes the impact of the sex drive (libido) on development. In each stage of development, a different part of the body is most sensitive to erotic stimulation.Answers B, C, and D: Freud's psychosexual theory of development is based on the premise that in each stage efforts to obtain pleasure center on a different part of the body. The correct answer is: efforts to obtain pleasure center on a different part of the body

You conduct a research study to compare the effects of four weight-loss programs. To compare the average weight lost by participants in the four groups, you could conduct either a series of t-tests or a one-way ANOVA. You decide to use the one-way ANOVA because its use _____. Select one: A.will decrease the likelihood that you will make a Type I error B.will decrease the likelihood that you will make a Type II error C.will allow you to control the effects of an extraneous variable D.will allow you to assess both main and interaction effects

The correct answer is A.If you conduct separate t-tests in this study, you will have to make many comparisons: Treatment 1 vs. Treatment 2, Treatment 1 vs. Treatment 3, Treatment 1 versus Treatment 4, Treatment 2 vs. Treatment 3, etc. As the number of comparisons in a study increases, so does the probability of making a Type I error. An advantage of the one-way ANOVA is that it helps control the "experiment-wise error rate" (i.e., the probability of making a Type I error). If alpha is set at .05 for this study, for instance, the probability of making a Type I error would remain at 5%. In contrast, if the individual t-tests were conducted, each at the .05 level, the probability of making a Type I error would be much higher.Answer B: The opposite is actually true because of the inverse relationship between Type I and Type II errors.Answer C: The analysis of covariance is useful for this purpose.Answer D: A study must include at least two independent variables to assess interaction effects. This study seems to have only one independent variable. The correct answer is: will decrease the likelihood that you will make a Type I error

A normal distribution of raw scores has a mean of 106 and a standard deviation of 10. In this distribution, which of the following scores is equivalent to a raw score of 126? Select one: A.a percentile rank of 98 B.a T-score of 55 C.a z-score of +2.5 D.a stanine score of 6

The correct answer is A.In the distribution described in this question, a raw score of 126 is two standard deviations above the mean. In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 98 is about two standard deviations above the mean.Answer B: A T-score of 55 is one-half standard deviation above the mean.Answer C: Z-scores are interpreted directly in terms of standard deviation units, which means that a z-score of +2.5 is 2-1/2 standard deviations above the mean.Answer D: A stanine score of 6 is between the mean and the score that is one standard deviation above the mean. The correct answer is: a percentile rank of 98

The primary advantage of manual-guided treatment is that the use of manuals: Select one: A.standardizes treatment delivery so that, in research, treatment effects can be more clearly ascertained B.substantially improves treatment outcomes across different clients, diagnoses, and contexts C.reduces the legal liability of clinicians for "treatment errors" D.ensures that the procedures used to evaluate treatment effectiveness are valid

The correct answer is A.Manual-guided treatments provide manuals that specify the theoretical underpinnings of the treatment and treatment goals and present specific therapeutic guidelines and strategies. Treatment manuals were initially developed to standardize treatments so that their effects could be empirically evaluated and to provide training guidelines for therapists.Answer B: The research on this issue is inconsistent but has generally not found manual-guided treatments to have substantially better outcomes than treatments that are not guided by the use of a manual.Answer C: This has not been identified as an outcome of the use of treatment manuals.Answer D: This is not one of the benefits of treatment manuals. The correct answer is: standardizes treatment delivery so that, in research, treatment effects can be more clearly ascertained

Research examining the relationship between mild depression and autobiographical memory has demonstrated that in comparison to the memories of people who are nondysphoric, the memories of people who are experiencing dysphoria are: Select one: A.less detailed and more negative B.more detailed and more negative C.less detailed and more neutral D.more detailed and more neutral Clear my choice

The correct answer is A.Not surprisingly, studies have linked depression to an increased memory for negative events. People who are experiencing dysphoria are also likely to have autobiographical memories that are less detailed than those of people who are nondysphoric (Williams J.M., Scott J. Autobiographical memory in depression. Psychological Medicine. 1988 Aug;18(3):689-95).Answer B: See explanation for answer A.Answer C: See explanation for response A.Answer D: See explanation for answer A. The correct answer is: less detailed and more negative

Among the groups listed below, admission rates for psychiatric hospitalization are highest for which of the following? Select one: A.Never married men B.Married men C.Divorced men D.Widowers

The correct answer is A.Of the choices given, never married men have the highest rate of psychiatric hospitalization for both men and women. Other factors to consider for admission rates include age (with the highest proportion between age 25 to 44) and race (with whites representing the largest number of psychiatric inpatients).Answers B, C, and D: Research suggests that individuals who have never been married are more likely than those who are married, divorced, and widowed to be admitted to a psychiatric facility. The correct answer is: Never married men

It is important when choosing a treatment approach for a client belonging to a particular ethnic or other minority group to remember that individuals belonging to the same group exhibit diverse characteristics. However, research does suggest that, overall, Asian and Asian American clients may prefer: Select one: A.a directive, structured counseling approach. B.an unstructured, insight-oriented counseling approach. C.a client-centered counseling approach. D.a self-directed counseling approach.

The correct answer is A.Past research with Asian and Asian American individuals (see, e.g., Higginbotham, 1977; Sue and Sue, 1983) suggests that these populations under-utilize mental health services for several reasons. One reason cited by researchers is a dislike of ambiguous, unstructured counseling processes. Asian and Asian American clients tend to prefer more direct counseling services such as academic and vocational counseling over psychiatric services.Answer B: Based on research, an unstructured approach would typically not be advised with this population.Answer C: This would not be recommended as this approach is less structured and more ambiguous than other forms of treatment.Answer D: The opposite is generally recommended with this population. The correct answer is: a directive, structured counseling approach.

Sue et al. (1991) found that ethnic matching was associated with improved treatment outcomes for: Select one: A.Hispanic clients B.Black clients C.Asian clients D.Clients of all races

The correct answer is A.Sue et al (1991) found a correlation between ethnic matching and improved treatment outcomes for Hispanic clients only.Answers B: Sue et al. (1991) did not find a correlation between ethnic matching and treatment outcomes for Black clients.Answer C: The researchers of this study found a correlation between ethnic matching and reduction of premature termination for Asian clients; however, ethnic matching was not found to improve treatment outcomes for this population.Answer D: The researchers of this study only found a correlation between ethnic matching and treatment outcomes for Hispanic clients. The correct answer is: Hispanic clients

Which cortex uses working memory to guide thoughts and behavior, regulate attention, monitor the effects of our actions, and organize plans for future actions? Select one: A.Prefrontal cortex B.Parahippocampal cortex C.Subgenual anterior cingulate cortex D.Sensory association cortex

The correct answer is A.The prefrontal cortex helps individuals set and achieve goals. It receives input from multiple regions of the brain to process information and adapts accordingly.Answer B: The parahippocampal cortex is a region of the limbic cortex adjacent to the hippocampal formation that, along with the perirhinal cortex, relays information between the entorhinal cortex and other regions of the brain.Answer C: The subgenual anterior cingulate cortex is a region of the medial prefrontal cortex located below the "knee" at the front of the corpus callosum. This cortex plays a role in the symptoms of depression.Answer D: The sensory association cortex is those regions of the cerebral cortex that receive information from regions of the primary sensory cortex. The correct answer is: Prefrontal cortex

With regard to information revealed by a client in the context of the client-therapist relationship, who is the "holder of the privilege"? Select one: A.The client B.The therapist C.The court D.Both the client and the therapist

The correct answer is A.The psychotherapist-patient privilege refers to the legal right of the client to have his/her psychotherapy records and disclosure withheld in a legal proceeding. This privilege is state law in all 50 states, though the laws related to privilege and exceptions to privilege vary somewhat from state to state.Answer B. This answer is incorrect. The therapist does not hold the privilege.Answer C. This answer is incorrect. The client is ordinarily the holder of the privilege.Answer D. This answer is incorrect. In all states, the client is ordinarily the holder of the privilege, which means that it is up to the client to decide whether to exercise or waive the privilege. The correct answer is: The client

The process by which a neurotransmitter is repackaged into synaptic vesicles is called _________. Select one: A.pinocytosis B.reuptake C.varicosity D.degradation

The correct answer is A.The repackaging of released transmitter molecules into vesicles is called pinocytosis. Pinocytosis occurs in most cells in the body to recycle the components of the cell membrane and maintains the size of the cell.Answer B: Reuptake is the process by which released synaptic transmitter molecules are taken up and reused by the presynaptic neuron, thus stopping synaptic activity.Answer C: The axonal swelling from which the neurotransmitter diffuses in a nondirected synapse is termed varicosity.Answer D: Degradation is the process by which neurotransmitter molecules are broken down into inactive metabolites. The correct answer is: pinocytosis

A region of the brain implicated in the control of many behaviors, including thermoregulation, sexual behavior, and gonadotropin secretion is called __________. Select one: A.ventromedial hypothalamus B.medial preoptic area C.medullary reticular formation D.medial amygdala

The correct answer is A.The ventromedial hypothalamus is a hypothalamic region involved in eating and sexual behaviors.Answer B: The medial preoptic area is responsible for regulation body temperature, fluid balance, and water intake. Answer C: The medullary reticular formation is the hindmost portion of the brainstem reticular formation and is implicated in motor control and copulatory behavior.Answer D: The medial amygdala is a portion of the amygdala that receives olfactory and pheromonal information. The correct answer is: ventromedial hypothalamus

The review process used by managed care organizations (MCOs) to ensure that providers meet and maintain the requirements to participate in a health plan is referred to as ___________. Select one: A.concurrent review. B.credentialing. C.quality management. D.clinical audit.

The correct answer is B. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the managed care terms listed in the answers to this question. Credentialing is a formal process for determining whether or not a provider meets and maintains qualification standards and provides some legal protection for the MCO. Answer A. Concurrent review is the term used for utilization reviews conducted during the course of treatment. Answer C. Quality management is another name for quality assurance. Answer D. Clinical audit is a method of quality assurance. The correct answer is: credentialing.

Although it is necessary to avoid stereotypes when providing services to members of ethnic and racial minority groups, generalizations are often made in the literature. For example, past research suggests that when working with Hispanic and Hispanic American clients, it is important to keep in mind all of the following except: Select one: A.different levels of acculturation among Hispanic clients can influence their perceptions of and responses to therapy. B.family therapy is often contraindicated because of the hierarchical nature of many Hispanic family. C.behavioral and other active, problem-oriented therapies are usually more acceptable than insight-oriented therapies. D.gender-roles tend to be demarcated clearly and are fairly rigid.

The correct answer is B. Generalizations about the treatment of Hispanic and Hispanic American clients have been made in the literature, and you will need to be familiar with these generalizations for the licensing exam. Although Hispanic families do tend to be hierarchical, this does not preclude them from family therapy. In fact, family therapy is often the treatment-of-choice because of the close relationships between family members. Answer A: This is true. There are different levels of acculturation not only between families but also within families (i.e., younger members of the family tend to be more acculturated to the white middle-class way of life). Answer C: Past research has substantiated this finding. Answer D: According to past research, this is also generally true. The correct answer is: family therapy is often contraindicated because of the hierarchical nature of many Hispanic family.

In the context of the Rorschach test, form quality refers to: Select one: A.what aspect of the inkblot determined the response. B.the degree of congruence between the response and reality. C.the extent to which the response is based on an unusual or common detail. D.the extent to which form is well integrated with other determinants.

The correct answer is B. Most scoring and interpretation systems for the Rorschach involve looking at the examinee's responses in regard to location, determinants, form quality, content, and popularity/frequency of occurrence. Form quality refers to the degree to which an examinee's response matches the actual form (shape) of the inkblot and provides information on the degree of congruence between the examinee's response and reality. Answer A: This response refers to determinants. Answer C: This response refers to location. Answer D: This response refers to developmental quality. The correct answer is: the degree of congruence between the response and reality.

You go out for a drink with a psychologist who is a co-worker of yours at a mental health clinic. After several beers, he accidentally lets it slip that he is currently having a sexual relationship with one of his clients. Your best course of action would be to _______________________. Select one: A.discuss the matter with the clinic director as soon as possible. B.discuss the issue with the psychologist when he has not been drinking. C.make an appointment with the client to discuss the issue with her. D.file a formal complaint against the psychologist with the Ethics Committee. Clear my choice

The correct answer is B. This is the best response since it is most consistent with Standard 1.04 (Informal Resolution of Ethical Violations) of the Ethics Code and does not violate the client's confidentiality. As noted in the Ethics Code, any attempt at resolving a potential ethical violation by a psychologist must include consideration of the client's confidentiality. Answer A. This answer is incorrect. Although this may be appropriate, this answer does not mention the issue of confidentiality. Consequently, it is not the best answer of those given. Answer C. This answer is incorrect. This would not be an appropriate course of action since there is nothing in the question to imply that you already have a therapeutic relationship with the client. Answer D. This answer is incorrect. It does not address the issue of client confidentiality. The correct answer is: discuss the issue with the psychologist when he has not been drinking.

A "communality" is best described as: Select one: A.the proportion of variance accounted for by a single factor in multiple variables B.the proportion of variance accounted for by multiple factors in a single variable C.the proportion of variance accounted for by multiple factors in multiple variablesIncorrect D.the total proportion of variance in a set of variables that is attributable to error

The correct answer is B.A communality is a measure of "common variance." When conducting a factor analysis, a separate communality is calculated for each variable (test). The communality represents the total amount of variability accounted for in a test by the identified factors and is a reflection of the amount of variance that the test has in common with the other measures included in the factor analysis.Answers A & C are incorrect, as communalities account for the proportion of variance accounted for in a single variable, or test, not multiple variables.Answer D: This describes measurement error in factor analysis. The correct answer is: the proportion of variance accounted for by multiple factors in a single variable

You receive a subpoena duces tecum requiring you to testify about a current client at a trial and to bring specific documents from the client's file. You contact the client who states that he does not want you to testify or release his records. You should __________. Select one: A.notify the court that you will not be appearing at the trial because the client has not given you permission to do so B.contact the attorney who issued the subpoena to request that you be released from it C.advise the attorney who issued the subpoena that you will not be appearing at the trial because the client has not given permission for you to release confidential information D.do nothing further until you receive an order from the court

The correct answer is B.A subpoena legally requires a psychologist to appear at a designated time at a deposition or trial. When the client invokes the privilege, the subpoena is still valid and the psychologist must appear unless he/she has been released from it. This issue is addressed by S. H. Behnke and J. T. Hilliard (The essentials of Massachusetts mental health law, W. W. Norton, New York, 1998). They note that, when the client invokes the privilege, the psychologist should contact the client's attorney or his/her own attorney to discuss the matter. In addition, the psychologist can contact the attorney who issued the subpoena to request to be released from it. Unless the psychologist receives a written release, he/she must appear as requested (but, of course, will not reveal confidential information without the client's consent). Additional information about responding to a subpoena is provided in the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials.Answer A: The psychologist should contact either the attorney who issued the subpoena, the client's attorney, or his or her own attorney for guidance.Answer C: A psychologist must be released from the subpoena. It is not sufficient to simply notify the attorney the psychologist will not appear.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The psychologist should initiate contact with one of the attorneys as recommended in the explanation for Answer B. The correct answer is: contact the attorney who issued the subpoena to request that you be released from it

According to Gyorgy Gergely (1994), visual feature representation is a necessary precondition for: Select one: A.gender identity development B.mirror self-recognition C.attachment D.social referencing

The correct answer is B.According to Gergely, the ability to recognize oneself in the mirror (which occurs between 1-1/2 and 2 years in humans) requires a certain level of cognitive development. One cognitive prerequisite is the construction of "a visual feature representation of the typical physical appearance of the not-directly-visible parts of ... [the] body" [(Gergely, G. (1994).From self-recognition to theory of mind. in S. T. Parker et al., (Eds.). Self-awareness in animals and humans. Boston: Cambridge University Press, p. 55.]Answer A: Incorrect. Gender identity is not related to visual feature representation.Answer C: Incorrect. Attachment is not related to visual feature representation.Answer D: Incorrect. Social referencing is not related to visual feature representation. The correct answer is: mirror self-recognition

According to the APA's General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services, the term "psychological services" applies to all of the following except _________________________________. Select one: A.administration and scoring of psychological tests B.teaching psychology at a university C.supervising delivery of psychological services D.conducting psychotherapy in private practice

The correct answer is B.As noted in the ethics and professional issues chapter of the written study materials, teaching psychology at a university is not listed as a psychological service in the General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services.Answer A. This answer is incorrect, as the administration and scoring of psychological tests is a psychological service.Answer C. This answer is incorrect. Supervision of psychological services is considered a psychological service. Answer D. This answer is incorrect. Psychotherapy is considered a psychological service. The correct answer is: teaching psychology at a university

Criterion deficiency is most likely to result in: Select one: A.high validity B.low validity C.no reliability D.low reliability

The correct answer is B.Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which a criterion measure fails to measure all aspects of the ultimate (conceptual) criterion. A criterion measure can have high reliability but low validity - i.e., it can give consistent results but measure only some aspects of the ultimate criterion.Answers A, C, and D: A criterion measure can have high reliability but low validity. The correct answer is: low validity

From the perspective of Freudian psychoanalytic theory, the defense mechanism of _______________ is viewed as underlying all other defense mechanisms. Select one: A.regression B.repression C.sublimation D.projection

The correct answer is B.Defense mechanisms function to keep unwanted thoughts and impulses out of conscious awareness. Repression involves pushing unacceptable id impulses into the unconscious. Repression can be viewed as the most "basic" of the defense mechanisms since the goal of all defense mechanisms is to make unwanted impulses unconscious.Answer A: Regression occurs when an individual reverts to behaviors characteristic of an earlier stage in life in order to avoid anxiety-producing impulses.Answer C: Sublimation involves channeling unwanted impulses into socially-acceptable endeavors. It is considered the most "advanced" of the defense mechanisms.Answer D: Projection occurs when an individual attributes his/her unwanted impulses to other people. The correct answer is: repression

A handwriting disorder that is characterized by difficulties in learning to write, and/or writing that is accurate but slow, or of poor quality, is referred to as which of the following? Select one: A.Anosognosia B.Dysgraphia C.Agnosia D.Dyslexia

The correct answer is B.Dysgraphia is a learning disability that affects writing abilities. It can manifest as difficulties with spelling, poor handwriting, and trouble putting thoughts on paper.Answer A: Anosognosia is a lack of ability to perceive the reality of one's neurological symptoms or disorder.Answer C: Agnosia is the loss of the ability to recognize objects, faces, voices, or places.Answer D: Dyslexia is a learning disorder that involves difficulty reading due to problems identifying speech sounds and learning how they relate to letters and words (decoding). Dyslexia affects areas of the brain that process language. The correct answer is: Dysgraphia

A series of meta-analyses by Eagly and her colleagues regarding research on gender differences in leadership style (initiating structure and consideration) found that: Select one: A.men and women differ significantly with regard to leadership style B.men and women do not differ significantly with regard to leadership style C.men and women differ significantly with regard to leadership style and women leaders are consistently evaluated less favorably than male leaders by superiors and co-workers D.men and women do not differ significantly with regard to leadership style but women leaders are consistently evaluated less favorably than male leaders by superiors and co-workers

The correct answer is B.Eagly et al.'s meta-analyses of the research focused on gender differences in leadership style, leadership emergence, and leadership evaluation. A. H. Eagly and B. T. Johnson found little difference between men and women with regard to leadership style, emergence, or evaluation (Gender and leadership style: A meta-analysis, Psychological Bulletin, 108,233-256, 1990).Answers A, C, and D: Eagly et al. found little difference between men and women with regard to leadership style, emergence, or evaluation. The correct answer is: men and women do not differ significantly with regard to leadership style

__________ is a meaningful relationship between two variables, designed to indicate how well variability in one measure can account for variability in another measure. Select one: A.Base rate B.Effect size C.Coefficient of determination D.Coefficient of equivalence

The correct answer is B.Effect size is the meaningfulness of a relationship between two variables. Effect sizes are interpreted as indicating the practical significance of a research finding.Answer A: Base rate is the unconditional probability of an event or category for a specified time, condition, or place.Answer C: Coefficient of determination is the square of the correlation between two measures, or an index of how much variance is shared between the two measures.Answer D: The coefficient of equivalence is used to compute the reliability of alternate forms of a test, based either upon two administrations or on a single administration with odd and even items constituting separate forms. The correct answer is: Effect size

Experts on cross-cultural counseling note that, when working with African American families, it is important to recognize that their ongoing experiences in a racist society are likely to foster feelings of powerlessness. Consequently, a good strategy for a therapist is to adopt a: Select one: A.non-directive, less active approach B.problem-solving, time-limited approach C.color-blind approach D.neutral, educative approach

The correct answer is B.In general, past research in the field of cross-cultural counseling has suggested that goal-directed therapies are most effective with members of most racial minority groups. According to M. K. Ho, "Regardless of the nature of the family's problem(s), Black families are likely to be most responsive to problem-solving, time-limited family therapy approaches" (Family therapy with ethnic minorities, Newbury Park, Sage Publications, 1987).Answer A: Past research suggests that the opposite approach is likely to be more effective.Answer C: This would not be culturally competent.Answer D: This is not endorsed by research. The correct answer is: problem-solving, time-limited approach

The owner of a company has decided that, to determine how well employees are performing, employees will be watched while performing their jobs for a predetermined period of time. Based on the relevant research, you predict that the employees' performance during the period of observation will: Select one: A.be inhibited if the task is easy B.be inhibited if the task is complex C.be enhanced whether the task is easy or complex D.be inhibited whether the task is easy or complex

The correct answer is B.It has been found that, in certain circumstances, the presence of others inhibits task performance (social inhibition), while in other circumstances, the presence of others facilitates task performance (social facilitation). The presence of others tends to inhibit performance when the task is complex or unfamiliar.Answer A: When the task is simple or well-learned, the presence of others tends to enhance task performance.Answer C: The answer, "be enhanced whether the task is easy or complex", is incorrect. See explanation for response B.Answer D: The answer, "be inhibited whether the task is easy or complex", is incorrect. See explanation for response B. The correct answer is: be inhibited if the task is complex

According to Maslow's need hierarchy theory, once a person's physiological needs have been satisfied, that person will be motivated by their __________ needs. Select one: A.social B.safety C.existence D.esteem

The correct answer is B.Maslow's need hierarchy theory predicts that humans have five basic needs that emerge in a hierarchical order. The five needs, in order, are physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization. Need hierarchy theory predicts that physiological needs are the first needs to act as motivators; once they are satisfied, safety needs become the source of motivation; and so on.Answer A: Social needs are the focus after physiological and safety needs are met.Answer C: Existence is one of the needs in Alderfer's ERG Theory.Answer D: Esteem needs are not motivators until physiological, safety, and social needs have been satisfied. The correct answer is: safety

During the first therapy session with a new client, you realize that he is the father of a young woman you have been seeing in therapy for three months. The daughter is 22 years old and no longer lives with her parents. The most relevant ethical issue in this situation is ___________. Select one: A.confidentiality B.multiple relationship C.nonmaleficence D.informed consent

The correct answer is B.Multiple relationships occur when a psychologist is involved in more than one role with a person (and at least one role is a professional relationship) or has a professional relationship with one person and becomes involved in a relationship with another individual who is related to that person. In most situations, multiple relationships should be avoided. This is a straightforward question that may have seemed "too obvious." When taking the exam, be sure not to sabotage your ability to choose the correct response to an easy item by assuming that it is a "trick question."Answer A: Confidentiality is less of a concern in this case than multiple relationships.Answer C: Nonmaleficence is not a central concern in this situation.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The greater concern is related to the therapist creating multiple relationships given her clients are related. The correct answer is: multiple relationship

Which type of assessment focuses on inter-unit information that allows for comparison of a specific unit of analyses (e.g., teams, organizations) to data gathered from similar assessments across multiple units on an identified construct of interest (e.g., anxiety symptoms)? Select one: A.Multimethod assessment B.Nomothetic assessment C.Idiographic assessment D.Functional assessment

The correct answer is B.Nomothetic assessments involve establishing generalizations that apply to all individuals. Clinicians who adopt this approach study what individuals share with others (e.g., similarities between people).Answer A: A multimethod assessment refers to a clinical assessment that emphasizes the importance of obtaining information from different informants, in a variety of settings, using a variety of procedures that include interviews, observations, questionnaires, and tests.Answer C: Idiographic assessment is the measurement of variables and functional relations that have been individually selected, or derived from assessment stimuli or contexts that have been individually tailored, to maximize their relevance for the particular individual.Answer D: Functional assessments are indirect methods of assessment, such as interviews and questionnaires. The correct answer is: Nomothetic assessment

n terms of group therapy, premature termination has been found to depend most on the members': Select one: A.locus of control B.expectations C.psychological mindedness D.diagnosis

The correct answer is B.One of the most consistent findings of the research on group therapy is that people who terminate prematurely from group treatment are those who have unrealistic expectations and unfavorable attitudes.Answers A, C, & D: Because of the relationship between unrealistic expectations and premature termination, experts suggest that, to ensure the success of a therapy group, members should be selected through prescreening or should be given some type of pregroup training. The correct answer is: expectations

During Piaget's heteronomous stage, children's moral judgments are based on: Select one: A.the intentions behind the act B.the seriousness of the consequences of the act C.the status or authority of the actor D.the events leading up to the act

The correct answer is B.Piaget proposed a sequence of moral development involving three stages: premoral, moral realism, and moral relativism. Rules and the consequences of violating a rule are the basis of moral judgment during the stage of moral realism (which is also called the heteronomous stage).Answer A: This is more characteristic of moral relativism (which is also known as the autonomous stage).Answer C: Incorrect.Answer C: Incorrect. The correct answer is: the seriousness of the consequences of the act

The rotating shift is associated with a number of adverse consequences including fatigue, concentration, and performance errors. The negative effects can be reduced, however, when: Select one: A.the rotation is clockwise and weekly B.the rotation is clockwise and either rapid (every 3 days) or slow (every 3 weeks) C.the rotation is counterclockwise and weekly D.the rotation is counterclockwise and either rapid (every 3 days) or slow (every 3 weeks)

The correct answer is B.Several factors contribute to the impact of the rotating shift on worker health and performance. There is evidence that the rotating shift has fewer negative consequences when the rotation is clockwise (morning, afternoon, night) and is either rapid or slow. Weekly rotations are generally most detrimental because they do not allow resynchronization of circadian rhythms (which slow rotations do) and are long enough to allow for the build-up of a sleep deficit (which fast rotations do not do). See, e.g., O. Van Reeth, Sleep and circadian disturbances in shift work: Strategies for their management, Hormone Research, 49, 158-162, 1998.Answer A: Weekly rotations do not reduce the negative effects of fatigue, concentration difficulties, and performance errors.Answer C: Weekly counterclockwise rotations are the worst possible rotation for the adverse effects of fatigue, concentration difficulties, and performance errors.Answer D: Counterclockwise rotations yield the adverse effects of fatigue, concentration difficulties, and performance errors. The correct answer is: the rotation is clockwise and either rapid (every 3 days) or slow (every 3 weeks)

The APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct ____________________________. Select one: A.clearly prohibits a psychologist from having sexual relationships with students and supervisees under any circumstances B.clearly prohibits a psychologist from having sexual relationships with a student or supervisee when he/she is in a position of authority over that person C.prohibits a psychologist from having sexual relationships with students and supervisees indirectly through the "dual relationship" clause D.does not address the issue of sexual relationships with students and supervisees

The correct answer is B.Standard 7.07 states that "Psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority." For the exam, you want to be familiar with the provisions of the Ethics Code regarding sexual relations with supervisees and students so that you can answer questions like this. For additional information on this issue, see the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials.Answer A: This answer is incorrect. It is important to consider whether the psychologist is or is likely to be working in a capacity where the psychologist will have evaluative authority over the student.Answer C: This answer is incorrect. While sexual relationships are included under statements regarding dual or multiple relationships, the Ethics Code offers specific guidance regarding students and supervisees.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The Code provides specific guidelines regarding students and supervisees. The correct answer is: clearly prohibits a psychologist from having sexual relationships with a student or supervisee when he/she is in a position of authority over that person

An undergraduate student is asked by a professor to assist in a new research project. The student will help with the literature review and data analysis. According to the Ethics Code, when the research is published, the student should, at a minimum ____________________________________. Select one: A.be listed as a co-author B.be mentioned in an introductory statement or a footnote C.be mentioned in the abstract D.receive a letter of recommendation from the professor

The correct answer is B.The Ethics Code mandates that contributors to research be given appropriate credit. At a minimum, the student should be acknowledged for his/her assistance in a footnote or introductory statement.Answer A: This answer is incorrect. The researcher has the option to list the student as a co-author but this is not required.Answer C: This answer is incorrect because the abstract is not an appropriate section to recognize research assistants. An abstract provides the reader with a brief summary of the research and its results.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Although it is possible that the student may request a letter of recommendation, the teacher is not ethically bound to comply with the students' wishes because of his/her assistance in the research project. The correct answer is: be mentioned in an introductory statement or a footnote

A strategic family therapist is working with a family in which the husband and wife have avoided their own conflicts by focusing their attention on the problems of their 9-year old son. The therapist in this situation is most likely to: Select one: A.educate the parents about "triangulation." B.obtain a detailed family history from the husband and wife to identify the pattern of interactions in their families of origin. C.give the husband and wife a homework assignment designed to foster recognition of the conflicts that exist between them. D.use "circular questions" to help family members gain insight into each other's perspectives.

The correct answer is C. As its name implies, strategic family therapy involves the use of "strategies." Of the responses given, this one is the best example of the techniques used by a strategic family therapist. The therapist is assigning the couple a task that will help them face their own conflicts. Answer A: Triangulation is associated with structural family therapy. Answer B: This is not characteristic of strategic family therapy. Answer D: This is more consistent with Milan Systemic Family Therapy. The correct answer is: give the husband and wife a homework assignment designed to foster recognition of the conflicts that exist between them.

The purpose of the ________ is to identify parents in need of guidance, parent-child relationship support, and identify children at risk for emotional and behavioral developmental problems. Select one: A.Stress Index for Parents of Adolescents (SIPA) B.Parenting Stress Index-Fourth Edition (PSI-4) C.Behavior Assessment System for Children-Third Edition (BASC-3) D.Conners' Parent Rating Scale-Revised (CPRS-R)

The correct answer is B.The PSI-4 screens for stress in the parent-child relationship, identifying dysfunctional parenting, and child adjustment problems. This assessment is appropriate for parents of children aged one month to 12 years.Answer A: The SIPA is a screening and diagnostic instrument that identifies areas of stress in parent-adolescent interactions, allowing examination of the relationship of parenting stress to adolescent characteristics, parent characteristics, and stressful life circumstances.Answer C: The BASC-3 applies a triangulation method for gathering information by analyzing a child's behavior from three perspectives: self, teacher, and parent. The Parent Rating Scales (PRS) measure both adaptive and problem behaviors in the community and home setting.Answer D: The CPRS-R is appropriate for use with parents of children and adolescents ages 3 through 17. It is a clinical tool for obtaining parental reports of childhood behavior problems. The correct answer is: Parenting Stress Index-Fourth Edition (PSI-4)

The age of onset of separation anxiety varies from child to child but is usually between six and eight months of age. It then peaks in intensity at about ______ months and thereafter declines. Select one: A.10 to 14 B.14 to 18 C.18 to 24 D.24 to 28

The correct answer is B.The age at which developmental milestones are reached vary considerably from child to child, so it is difficult to make generalizations. Most authorities list it as beginning at about 6 to 8 months of age. The intensity of separation anxiety continues to increase during the first half of the second year (14 to 18 months) and subsequently declines.Answers A, C, and D: The age at which separation anxiety peaks in intensity is at about 14 to 18 months and thereafter declines. The correct answer is: 14 to 18

As defined in Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a person who has contradictory appreciating and depreciating attitudes toward both his/her own culture and the dominant (majority) culture is in which of the following stages? Select one: A.resistance B.dissonance C.conformity D.disintegration

The correct answer is B.The stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model are defined by different combinations of attitudes towards oneself, one's own racial/cultural minority group, other minority groups, and the dominant (majority) group. The dissonance stage is characterized by conflicting attitudes towards one's own group and the majority group.Answer A: The resistance and immersion stage is characterized by appreciating attitudes for one's own group.Answer C: A person in the conformity stage has positive attitudes towards and a preference for the dominant group.Answer D: Disintegration is not one of the stages in the Atkinson, Morten, and Sue model. The correct answer is: dissonance

Structural family therapy entails three overlapping steps or stages. Which of the following techniques is/are most useful during the first step? Select one: A.Reframing and relabeling B.Tracking and mimesis C.Constructing a family map D.Enactment

The correct answer is B.The three steps in structural family therapy are joining, evaluating/diagnosing, and restructuring. Tracking (identifying and using the family's values, life themes, etc.) and mimesis (adopting the family's affective and behavioral style) are methods used to join the family system. Joining is the initial step in structural family therapy.Answer A: Reframing and relabeling are restructuring techniques.Answer C: A family map is used to facilitate the structural diagnosis of the family.Answer D: Enactment is a technique used to facilitate diagnosis and restructuring of the family. The correct answer is: Tracking and mimesis

Studies investigating stepparent-stepchild relationships indicate that: Select one: A.stepparent-stepchild relationships are less likely to be conflictual when the child is in early adolescence when the remarriage occurs B.stepfathers tend to be distant and disengaged from their stepchildren C.stepmothers tend to be more authoritative in parenting style than stepfathers D.stepfather-stepchild relationships tend to be more difficult for boys than for girls

The correct answer is B.This finding is often cited in the literature and is particularly true for stepfathers who do not have biological children. [Santrock, J.W., Sitterle, K.A. and Warshak, R.A. (1988). Parent-child relationships in stepfather families in P. Bronstein and C. P. Cowan (Eds.) Fatherhood today. New York,: Wiley.]Answer A: In most cases, this is the opposite of what is true: relationships with stepparents are most difficult when remarriage occurs when the child is in early adolescenceAnswer C: There is some evidence that stepparents tend to be more authoritarian (not authoritative) than biological parents are.Answer D: This is the opposite of what has been found to be true. The correct answer is: stepfathers tend to be distant and disengaged from their stepchildren

From the perspective of Vygotsky's sociocultural theory, "private speech" is: Select one: A.a manifestation of a young child's egocentrism B.self-directed speech that guides the child's behavior C.evidence that language acquisition is a creative (rather than imitative) process D.unrelated to cognitive development

The correct answer is B.Vygotsky believed that private (self-directed) speech is essential for cognitive development and is a source of self-guidance for young children. This refers to a preschool child's talking aloud to him/herself while engaging in daily activities.Answer A: This is Piaget's interpretation of private speech.Answer C: This describes figurative speech (the deliberate use of words in a figurative, rather than literal, way).Answer D: Vygotsky believed that self-directed speech is essential for cognitive development. The correct answer is: self-directed speech that guides the child's behavior

The relationship between authoritative parenting and children's academic achievement: Select one: A.is stronger for children who had an easy temperament as babies B.is observed for children but not for adolescents whose school performance is more highly affected by peers C.is observed as positive among children as well as among adolescents D.is stronger among children who have lower levels of intelligen

The correct answer is C.Of the four parenting styles, authoritative parenting has consistently been linked with the most positive child outcomes including better academic achievement. The benefits of authoritative parenting appear to persist into adolescence. [e.g., Dornbusch et al. (1987). The relationship of parenting style to adolescent school performance, Child Development, 58, 1244-1257.]Answers A, B, and D: The relationship between authoritative parenting and children's academic achievement is observed as positive among children as well as among adolescents. The correct answer is: is observed as positive among children as well as among adolescents

With regard to the care and use of animals in research, a psychologist who is the principal investigator __________________________________. Select one: A.can designate which employees or assistants are responsible for the animals. B.can designate which employees or assistants are responsible for the animals as long as the psychologist has provided them with appropriate training. C.is ultimately responsible for the animals him/herself. D.shares equal responsibility for the animals with the employees and assistants.

The correct answer is C. Standard 8.09(b) states that "Psychologists trained in research methods and experienced in the care of laboratory animals supervise all procedures involving animals and are responsible for ensuring appropriate consideration of their comfort, health, and humane treatment." The Ethics Code is not "crystal clear" about this issue, but it does seem to imply that the psychologist maintains responsibility for the care and treatment of animal subjects. Answer A: This answer is incorrect. While the psychologist may designate others to care and maintain the animals, the animals' welfare is ultimately the responsibility of the psychologist. Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Providing designees proper training is certainly necessary, but the responsibility for animals' well-being resides with the psychologist. Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Standard 8.09(b) states that psychologists supervise, and are therefore responsible for, animal care. The correct answer is: is ultimately responsible for the animals him/herself.

A 15-year old client who you have been seeing for several months says he's been thinking about killing himself. In response to your concern, he says he's "just kidding" and asks that you not tell his parents. Your best course of action would be to ___________________________. Select one: A.tell the boy that you need to contact his parents and then do so. B.tell the boy that you won't tell his parents as long as he signs a "no suicide" contract. C.continue to discuss the matter to determine if the boy is, in fact, at risk for suicide. D.do nothing since he was "just kidding" but ask him about the issue during the next session.

The correct answer is C. This is pretty straightforward. The boy's welfare is your first concern, and you would want to make sure that he is not at risk for suicide. Suicide threats and ideation should always be taken seriously. Before notifying his parents, however, you'd want to determine how serious his thoughts about suicide are. Answer A. This answer is incorrect. You would want to talk with the boy and determine whether his comments were serious. A thorough suicide assessment is warranted. Answer B. This answer is incorrect. Notifying his parents may be a reasonable option, but the psychologist should gather more information first. Answer D. This answer is incorrect. Suicide threats should always be taken seriously. The psychologist should talk with the boy to obtain more information. The correct answer is: continue to discuss the matter to determine if the boy is, in fact, at risk for suicide.

"Sampling error" is due to: Select one: A.the unreliability of the test. B.the invalidity of the test. C.random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample. D.non-random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample.

The correct answer is C. Whenever a researcher draws a sample from a population, there is a good chance that the sample will not be entirely representative of that population. As a result of random (chance) factors, the sample may not "mirror" the population in terms of important characteristics. This is referred to as sampling error. Answer A: Test reliability refers to the degree to which a test measures a characteristic consistently and dependably. Sampling error is the result of random (chance) factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample. Answer B: Test validity refers to the degree to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure. Sampling error is the result of random (chance) factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample. Answer D: Sampling error is a result of random (chance) factors, NOT non-random factors that produce a non-representative sample. The correct answer is: random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample.

Anosognosia is best described as an impairment in __________. Select one: A.coordination B.speech C.self-awareness D.visual perception

The correct answer is C.Anosognosia is a lack of ability to perceive the realities of one's condition. More specifically, an individual's inability to accept that they have a formal diagnosis.Answer A: Ataxia describes a lack of muscle control or coordination of voluntary movements.Answer B: Aphasia is a condition that affects speech and typically occurs after a stroke or head injury.Answer D: Prosopagnosia is a type of cognitive disorder of visual perception known as face blindness. The correct answer is: self-awareness

Youngsters begin to describe themselves in terms of personality attributes - e.g., "I'm smart," "I'm friendly," "I'm shy": Select one: A.in early childhood (ages 2-6) B.at the beginning of middle childhood (ages 7-8) C.toward the end of middle childhood (ages 10-12) D.in early adolescence (ages 13-14)

The correct answer is C.Children's descriptions of themselves are affected by their self-concept, which develops in a predictable way during childhood. Toward the end of middle childhood, a child's self-concept becomes increasingly based on personality traits.Answer A: In early childhood, children describe themselves primarily in terms of specific behaviors.Answer B: At the beginning of middle childhood, children start to describe themselves in terms of their physical competencies - e.g., "I'm good at ..."Answer D: Children begin to describe themselves in terms of personality traits prior to adolescence. The correct answer is: toward the end of middle childhood (ages 10-12)

_______ is the degree to which an obtained measure of effect has a practical value or can guide clinical judgments. Select one: A.Diagnostic efficiency B.Clinical utility C.Clinical significance D.Likelihood ratio

The correct answer is C.Clinical significance is the degree to which measures contribute meaningful information and aid clinical judgment.Answer A: Diagnostic efficiency is the degree to which established test cut-off scores accurately identify persons diagnosed with or without a disorder, as identified by an external criterion.Answer B: Clinical utility is the degree to which the results of an instrument assist the clinician in making judgments about a client or enhance the validity of those judgments.Answer D: The likelihood ratio is the degree to which the odds of a correct classification are increased by the use of the assessment data. The correct answer is: Clinical significance

To evaluate the concurrent validity of a new selection test for salespeople, you would: Select one: A.conduct a factor analysis to confirm that the test measures the attributes it was designed to measure B.have sales managers ("subject matter experts") rate test items for relevance to success as a salesperson C.administer the test to a sample of current salespeople and correlate their scores on the test with their recently assigned performance ratings D.administer the test to salespeople before and after they participate a sales training program and correlate the two sets of scores

The correct answer is C.Concurrent and predictive validity are types of criterion-related validity. To evaluate a test's criterion-related validity, scores on the predictor (in this case, the selection test) are correlated with scores on a criterion (measure of job performance). When scores on both measures are obtained at about the same time, they provide information on the test's concurrent validity.Answer A: This technique would be used to evaluate the test's construct validity.Answer B: This would help establish the test's content validity.Answer D: This procedure would not provide information on the test's concurrent validity. The correct answer is: administer the test to a sample of current salespeople and correlate their scores on the test with their recently assigned performance ratings

Results of Pope's (1992) survey of APA members indicated that which of the following issues was cited most frequently as being ethically troubling or challenging? A. Fees B.Sexual matters C.Confidentiality D.The conduct of colleagues

The correct answer is C.Confidentiality was listed by 18% of respondents as an ethically troubling issue. This is a straightforward question. Unfortunately, it requires you to be familiar with the results of a specific survey by S. Pope (Ethical dilemmas as encountered by members of the APA: A national survey, "American Psychologist, 47(3), pp. 397-411, 1992), although you might have been able to rely on your own experience and those of your colleagues."Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Fees were mentioned by 14% of respondents as being ethically troublesome.Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Only 4% of respondents listed sexual issues as a problem.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The conduct of colleagues was listed as a problem by 4% of respondents. The correct answer is: Confidentiality

Penny Pallid is an Anglo American teacher and Cameron Chroma, her student, is African American. According to Helms's interaction model, Ms. Pallid will be LEAST effective in teaching Cameron if she is in the __________ stage of racial identity development and Cameron is in the __________ stage. Select one: A.reintegration; pre-encounter B.pseudo-independent; pre-encounter C.contact; immersion D.pseudo-independent; encounter

The correct answer is C.Helms believed that outcomes in clinical and other relationships are affected by the stage of racial identity development of each participant. A pair is said to be in a crossed interaction when the statuses of the therapist and client represent opposite attitudes towards race. The crossed interaction is the most conflicted type and is characterized by disharmony, fear, and "warfare". It is least likely to promote the student's growth.Answer A: This represents a parallel interaction and is likely to result in a stable, harmonious interaction.Answer B: This is an example of a progressive interaction. It provides the greatest opportunity for growth for the student.Answer D: This is another example of a progressive relationship. The correct answer is: contact; immersion

Individuals who are diagnosed with Antisocial Personality Disorder fail to conform to social norms and: Select one: A.have a history of Conduct Disorder or Oppositional Defiant Disorder B.have a history of Conduct Disorder before 12 years of age C.have a history of Conduct Disorder before 15 years of age D.do not have a history of Conduct Disorder

The correct answer is C.Individuals who are diagnosed with Antisocial Personality Disorder must be at least 18 years of and have a history of Conduct Disorder before 15 years of age.Answer A: The DSM-5 does not require a history of ODD for a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder; however, it does require a history of Conduct Disorder.Answer B and D: For a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, Conduct symptoms must be present before 15 years of age. The correct answer is: have a history of Conduct Disorder before 15 years of age

Latent class analysis (LCA) is most similar to which of the following techniques? Select one: A.Multitrait-multimethod matrix B.Cluster sampling C.Latent trait analysis D.ANCOVA

The correct answer is C.LCA is used to identify the underlying latent structure of a set of observed data. Latent trait analysis (LTA) is also used to identify the underlying latent structure of a set of observed data. A primary difference between the two techniques is that, in LCA, the latent variable that determines the structure is nominal; in LTA, the latent variable is continuous.Answer A: The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to assess construct (convergent and divergent) validity.Answer B: LCA is similar to cluster analysis, not cluster sampling, which is a sampling technique that entails selecting clusters (groups) of participants rather than individual participants.Answer D: The ANCOVA (analysis of covariance) is a type of analysis of variance that is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable (the covariate) on the dependent variable so it is easier to detect the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. The correct answer is: Latent trait analysis

Dr. Callow is a licensed psychologist who has recently been hired by a mental health clinic. Several of his new patients are members of a culturally diverse group that he has not worked with before. His training, however, is appropriate for the services he will provide. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Callow should _____________________________. Select one: A.refuse to work with these patients B.take a relevant APA-approved continuing education course C.obtain consultation from a therapist who does have experience with members of this group D.see the patients and seek consultation only if he experiences any problems during the course of therapy Clear my choice

The correct answer is C.Of the answers given, this one seems to represent the most ethical course of action. It is consistent with the requirements of Standard 2.01(c), which states that "Psychologists planning to provide services, teach, or conduct research involving populations, areas, techniques, or technologies new to them undertake relevant education, training, supervised experience, consultation, or study." Several Standards of the Ethics Code apply to this situation. For example, Standard 2.01(b) states that when differences in race or ethnicity might affect a psychologist's ability to work, he/she obtains "the training, experience, consultation, or supervision necessary to ensure the competence of [his/her] services." Even though he has had no prior experience with members of this group, consultation would be the best course of action for Dr. Callow because he is competent to provide the type of treatment.Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Because it appears that expertise in working with members of this culturally diverse group is important for his position at the mental health clinic, it would be better for Dr. Callow to gain that expertise.Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Taking a course does not seem to be sufficient in this situation.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It would be better for Dr. Callow to seek consultation prior to treating these populations, and not "only" if a problem arises. The correct answer is: obtain consultation from a therapist who does have experience with members of this group

When implementing the transtheoretical model, clinicians utilize __________ change processes that are matched with the client's stage of change. Select one: A.six distinct B.two primary C.ten different D.five overlapping

The correct answer is C.Prochaska and DiClemente analyzed 18 major approaches to therapy from which they identified 10 different empirically supported change processes (i.e. interventions): consciousness-raising, self-liberation, social liberation, dramatic relief, self-reevaluation, counterconditioning, environmental reevaluation, reinforcement management, stimulus control, and helping/supportive relationships. They proposed that these interventions are most effective when matched with one's stage of change.Answer A: The transtheoretical model distinguishes between six stages of change (precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination), and is premised upon 10 change processes (interventions).Answer B & D: Practitioners of the model utilize 10 change processes that are matched to one's stage of change. The correct answer is: ten different

Which of the following terms refers to a test's degree of stability, consistency, and predictability? Select one: A.Confidence interval B.Validity C.Reliability D.Content validity

The correct answer is C.Reliability addresses the extent to which scores obtained by an individual is, or would, be the same if he/she is reexamined by the same test on different occasions.Answer A: A confidence interval is a range of values that expresses to what degree a score is accurate. For example, most psychological tests report at a 95% confidence interval.Answer B: Validity is the most crucial issue in test construction and assesses whether a test truly measures the trait it is supposed to measure.Answer D: Content validity refers to the representativeness and relevance of the assessment instrument to the construct being measured. The correct answer is: Reliability

: Smith, Glass, and Miller's (1980) use of meta-analysis involved: Select one: A.counting the number of psychotherapy outcome studies that found a statistically significant difference between treatment and no-treatment groups B.statistically comparing the number of psychotherapy outcomes studies that did and did not find significant treatment effects C.determining the average magnitude of the outcome of psychotherapy across a large number of outcome studies D.using initial symptom severity and type and duration of treatment to predict average treatment outcome

The correct answer is C.Smith, Glass, & Miller (1980) combined the results of 475 studies on the effectiveness of psychotherapy. Through meta-analysis, the researchers were able to determine the average magnitude of the outcome of psychotherapy across the 475 combined studies. When using meta-analysis, the outcomes of each study are converted to a common metric - i.e., an effect size - and an average effect size is calculated.Answer A: This response describes the "box score" method, not meta-analysis.Answer B: This response describes using an inferential statistical test to compare outcome data for two groups.Answer D: This response describes the use of multiple regression. The correct answer is: determining the average magnitude of the outcome of psychotherapy across a large number of outcome studies

A licensed psychologist who is working in an isolated rural community finds that some of his clients have problems that are beyond his training and expertise. The psychologist should ______________________. Select one: A.continue seeing the clients only if there is no other psychologist available B.use only those interventions he feels competent to use in treating the clients C.obtain appropriate consultation by phone D.refuse to see the clients until he receives adequate training

The correct answer is C.The Ethics Code requires psychologists to provide only services that are within "the boundaries of their competence." However, it is acceptable to provide new services when certain conditions are met (Standard 2.01). It is perfectly acceptable for psychologists to acquire new skills during the course of their practice as long as they obtain adequate training, supervision, or consultation. Of course, consultation might not be sufficient in certain situations, but, of the responses given, this is the best choice. Note that nothing in the Code suggests that consultation must be in-person. None of the responses to this question is optimal, so you have to pick the best one of those given.Answer A. This answer is incorrect. The lack of another psychologist is certainly a consideration in this situation, but, even in the absence of another psychologist, seeing the clients without getting necessary supervision or consultation would not be acceptable.Answer B. This answer is incorrect. This would not be acceptable if more effective treatments for the clients' problems were available.Answer D. This answer is incorrect. Not providing services at all would not be the best course of action in most situations if the clients had no other professional they could see. The correct answer is: obtain appropriate consultation by phone

The duty to warn/protect established by the Tarasoff decision applies to ___________. Select one: A.clients who are a danger to themselves B.clients who have committed a past crime against a person or property C.clients who are a danger to an identifiable person or, in some jurisdictions, an identifiable class (group) of persons D.clients who may pose a danger to others because of past violent behavior or their current mental state

The correct answer is C.The application of the Tarasoff decision remains controversial and continues to be modified by case law. This response best describes the current status of Tarasoff. Most jurisdictions require psychologists to warn/protect an identifiable potential victim of a client; and, in some jurisdictions, this has been extended to an identifiable class of victims. Additional information about the Tarasoff decision is provided in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Answer C more accurately describes how Tarasoff impacts clinical practice.Answer B: Tarasoff applies to the likelihood of future harm, rather than past.Answer D. This answer is incorrect. Tarasoff applies to future behavior and in most circumstances, refers to a client's threats to inflict harm. The correct answer is: clients who are a danger to an identifiable person or, in some jurisdictions, an identifiable class (group) of persons

Damage to which part of the brain blunts emotions in most regards, impairs decision making, and causes impulsive decisions without pausing to consider the consequences? Select one: A.Cingulate gyrus B.Amygdala C.Hypothalamus D.Prefrontal cortex

The correct answer is D.Individuals with damage to the prefrontal cortex tend to perform poorly on tasks that require the use of long-term strategies and the inhibition of impulses. Short-term memory deficits and difficulties with planning are often displayed.Answer A: The cingulate gyrus helps to regulate autonomic motor function. Damage to this area may result in cognitive, emotional, and behavioral disorders.Answer B: Damage to the amygdala causes problems with memory formulation and emotional sensitivity in addition to learning and remembering.Answer C: Damage to the hypothalamus results in disruptions in body temperature regulation, growth, weight, milk production, emotions, and sleep cycles. The correct answer is: Prefrontal cortex

In their meta-analysis of the research on the impact of flextime on job outcomes, Baltes et al. (1999) found that this schedule has the greatest impact on: Select one: A.productivity B.job satisfaction C.absenteeism D.self-rated performance Clear my choice

The correct answer is C.The meta-analysis by B. Baltes and colleagues found that flextime has beneficial effects on a variety of job outcomes, although its impact is stronger for some outcomes than others. For additional information on the results of this analysis, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. The largest effect size - .93 - was obtained for flextime and absenteeism.Answer A: Baltes et al. obtained a mean weighted effect size of .45 for flextime and productivity.Answer B: These authors obtained an effect size of .15 for flextime and satisfaction (which is lower than the effects reported in earlier studies).Answer D: The lowest effect size - .04 - was obtained for flextime and self-rated job performance. The correct answer is: absenteeism

The use of a collection agency to collect delinquent fees from a former client is: Select one: A.unethical and illegal B.unethical but legal C.ethical under certain circumstances D.always ethical

The correct answer is C.The use of a collection agency is not unethical as long as certain precautions are taken. Ideally, the client should be told at the outset of therapy what the therapist's policy is regarding the collection of delinquent fees. Even more important, the client should be notified of the intention to use a collection agency if delinquent fees are not paid within a specified period of time (See Standard 6.04(e) in the Ethics Code).Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Psychologists, like other professionals, have a right to be paid for their services.Answer B: This answer is incorrect. The APA Ethics Code permits psychologists to use a collection agency provided certain conditions are met.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Psychologists must let clients know their policies regarding collection at the outset of therapy and should be given an opportunity to pay delinquent fees before a collection agency is employed. The correct answer is: ethical under certain circumstances

The only time a client is able to see you is during her lunch hour, which requires her session to be limited to 30 minutes because of the distance she must travel to get to your office. When you bill her insurance company, however, you bill for the entire hour. This is ________________________. Select one: A.ethical since the shorter sessions are being provided at the client's request B.ethical since your policy is to always bill clients for an entire hour C.unethical D.a legal, but not an ethical, issue

The correct answer is C.This is the best answer of those given. Providing any inaccurate information to the insurance company would represent insurance fraud.Answer A: Psychologists must accurately report their time spent with clients/patients.Answer B: Even if this were the policy of the psychologist, they are still acting unethically and illegally. Answer D: This answer is incomplete. The action described in this question represents insurance fraud which is both illegal and unethical. The correct answer is: unethical

You are working as a school psychologist. A teacher asks you to evaluate one of her students. After talking with the teacher and the student, you begin to suspect that the teacher is a significant part of the problem. As an ethical psychologist, you would ______________________________. Select one: A.file a formal report with the School Board B.discuss the problem with the child's parents immediately C.talk to the teacher about your suspicions D.report the teacher to the local ethics committee Clear my choice

The correct answer is C.This is the most "conservative" of the responses given and most consistent with the "spirit" of the Ethics Code, which requires psychologists to attempt to informally resolve problems first rather than immediately contacting the ethics committee or other authority.Answer A. This answer is incorrect. Initial steps toward resolution should involve parties closer to the problem. Answer B. This answer is incorrect. Although this problem is not dealt with directly by the Ethics Code, it does recommend an informal resolution with other psychologists whenever appropriate. Presumably, this would apply to other professionals as well.Answer D. This answer is incorrect. Trying to resolve the issue directly is the preferred approach. The correct answer is: talk to the teacher about your suspicions

The function of the state licensing boards is probably best described as ___________________________. Select one: A.ensuring that psychologists provide clients with effective services B.ensuring that only competent psychologists become and remain licensed C.setting entry-level qualifications for licensure and monitoring the conduct of licensed psychologists D.defining the services that can be legitimately provided by licensed psychologists

The correct answer is C.This is the most accurate description of the function of the licensing boards. As you are likely aware, the state licensing boards set the minimum requirements for licensure.Answer A. This answer is incorrect. Although this may be a desired outcome of the licensing requirements, it can't be assumed that licensure will result in the provision of effective services.Answer B. This answer is incorrect. Licensing boards cannot guarantee competence.Answer D. This answer is incorrect, because it fails to describe the role of state licensing boards. The correct answer is: setting entry-level qualifications for licensure and monitoring the conduct of licensed psychologists

A psychologist is asked to evaluate a prisoner for the purpose of making a recommendation about the prisoner's readiness for parole. To be consistent with ethical guidelines, the psychologist should ______________________. Select one: A.refuse to do the evaluation since making a recommendation in this situation is prohibited B.conduct the evaluation but base his recommendation on the results of standardized tests only C.conduct the evaluation as long as the prisoner has been told the purpose of the evaluation and has been warned about the limits on confidentiality D.conduct the evaluation after obtaining a consent from the prisoner's legal representative and report the results without making a recommendation

The correct answer is C.This response is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.03(a) of the Ethics Code and Paragraph 6.03 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2012). Special precaution is required when conducting evaluations and making recommendations in forensic settings.Answer A. This answer is incorrect. Making a recommendation is not prohibited by APA guidelines.Answer B. This answer is incorrect. The techniques used by psychologists must be valid, but there is nothing that says a psychologist can only use standardized tests.Answer D. This answer is incorrect. Again, a recommendation is not prohibited, so this response is less desirable. The correct answer is: conduct the evaluation as long as the prisoner has been told the purpose of the evaluation and has been warned about the limits on confidentiality

To construct the 68% confidence interval for an examinee's obtained test score, you would need the examinee's score and: Select one: A.the test's mean B.the standard deviation C.the standard error of measurement D.the standard error of estimate

The correct answer is C.To construct a confidence interval around an obtained test score, you need the standard error of measurement (which is calculated from the test's standard deviation and reliability coefficient). To construct a 68% confidence interval, you add and subtract one standard error of measurement to and from the examinee's obtained test score.Answer A: The mean is not needed to construct a confidence interval.Answer B: The standard deviation is one of the elements needed to calculate the standard error of measurement but, by itself, cannot be used to construct a confidence interval.Answer D: The standard error of an estimate is used to construct a confidence interval around a predicted criterion score. The correct answer is: the standard error of measurement

According to Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, the final stage of identity development involves: Select one: A.assimilating into the dominant culture. B.adopting a self-identity that is rooted in their racial/cultural background. C.adopting an identity that is independent of the minority and majority cultures. D.adopting a multicultural perspective.

The correct answer is D. Atkinson et al.'s (1993) model consists of five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance-immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. Like most cultural/racial identity development models, the Atkinson et al. model describes the final stage as one of integration - i.e., of accepting one's own minority culture while also recognizing and incorporating the positive contributions of the majority culture. This is described as adopting a multicultural perspective. Answer A: Atkinson et al. do not view assimilation as the outcome of successful identity development. Answer B: Successful identity development doesn't necessarily involve developing an identity that is rooted in one's cultural/racial background. Instead, the individual chooses which elements they want to incorporate into their identity. Answer C: Atkinson et al. do not propose that being "culture-free" is an optimal state. The correct answer is: adopting a multicultural perspective.

Helms's (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six statuses, with each status being associated with a different information processing strategy (IPS). For example, the "flexibility and complexity" strategy is characteristic of the __________ status. Select one: A.internalization B.integrative awareness C.reintegration D.autonomy

The correct answer is D. Helms's six identity statuses are: contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion/emersion, and autonomy. Flexibility and complexity in processing information are characteristic of the final status of Helms's model. The attributes of the autonomy status include awareness of one's own Whiteness, role in perpetuating racism, and commitment to abandoning a sense of White entitlement. Answer A: Internalization is the final stage in Cross's Black Racial Identity Development Model. Answer B: Integrative-awareness is the final stage of the Racial/ Cultural Identity Development Model. Answer C: Reintegration is the third status in Helm's model. The IPS for this status is selective perception and negative out-group distortion. The correct answer is: autonomy

In the process of establishing rapport and maintaining a child's cooperation during an interview or assessment, which technique would be most useful? Select one: A.Praise the child when they give correct answers. B.Tell the child not to sit on the floor. C.Ask simple "yes" or "no" questions. D.Tell the child they are doing a good job.

The correct answer is D. There are two important goals when interviewing and assessing children: establishing rapport and maintaining the child's cooperation. It has been suggested that using descriptive statements, using reflection, providing labeled praise, and avoiding critical statements can be helpful. Providing labeled praise indicates approval and helps guide and encourage the child to behavior in a particular way. Answer A: Praising the child upon giving correct answers is equivalent to giving the child feedback during the assessment, which could potentially invalidate the outcome. This differs from labeled praise, as labeled praise guides behavior without responding to specific answers. Answer B: Criticism elicits negative emotional reactions and defensiveness from children and disrupts the development of rapport. Better tactics for altering undesirable behavior are to make rule-based corrections ("One of the rules in this room is that ..."), to make invitational statements ("Come and sit at the table"), and to ignore the behavior. Answer C: Using closed-ended questions can be unhelpful, unless you are trying to clarify a response, as they can be leading and limit information obtained. Open-ended questions are more helpful, as they elicit a greater amount of information from the child and reduce the likelihood that they will be led to accept the interviewer's conclusions. The correct answer is: Tell the child they are doing a good jo

Multiple regression analysis has several advantages over the analysis of variance including all of the following except_____. Select one: A.it eliminates the need for a two-stage analysis involving a global significance test that is followed, when appropriate, by "fine grain" significance tests B.it is not limited to categorical (or categorized continuous) variables C.it enables the researcher to determine if entering additional independent variables affects the dependent variable beyond the effects found for previously entered variables D.it allows the researcher to estimate the effects of the independent variables on the dependent variable with the effects of measurement error removed

The correct answer is D. This is the only response that does not describe an advantage of either multiple regression or the ANOVA, which makes it the correct response. At least one reason for R. A. Fisher's development of the ANOVA was to have a mathematically simpler alternative to multiple regression for analyzing the effects of qualitative variables. However, with the availability of computers, the need for the ANOVA has been questioned. Answer A: This is an advantage of multiple regression. All of the information is provided with a single analysis as opposed to the two-step process required when using the ANOVA. Answer B: This is also an advantage of multiple regression. It can be used for independent variables measured on any scale of measurement and doesn't require that continuous variables be categorized (which has the effect of reducing the usefulness of the data). Answer C: The "stepwise" method of multiple regression does have this advantage. The correct answer is: it allows the researcher to estimate the effects of the independent variables on the dependent variable with the effects of measurement error removed

A psychologist has just started seeing a third grader who has been exhibiting behavioral problems at school and home. The psychologist suspects that the child has dyslexia but has had no training in the evaluation of this disorder. The child's parents want the psychologist to conduct the evaluation because of the good rapport she has with the child. The psychologist should ________________________________. Select one: A.conduct the evaluation only after informing the parents of their options and obtaining an informed consent. B.conduct the evaluation only after attending a workshop on Learning Disorders. C.conduct the evaluation only if available assessment instruments do not require extensive training to administer. D.refer the child to a colleague who has experience in Learning Disorders for the evaluation.

The correct answer is D. This question addresses the issue of competence. The Ethics Code clearly prohibits psychologists from working outside their scope of competence and expertise. Although psychologists can (and should) add to their skills, doing so requires special care so that the welfare of a client is not jeopardized. Mislabeling a child as learning disabled (or not learning disabled) can have very serious and long-lasting consequences, so this response is the best of those given. Answer A. This answer is incorrect. The psychologist should refer the child to a psychologist competent in the assessment of Learning Disorders. Answer B. This answer is incorrect. Learning to conduct evaluations requires training and supervision beyond a workshop. Answer C. This answer is incorrect. A qualified provider should deliver the assessment. The correct answer is: refer the child to a colleague who has experience in Learning Disorders for the evaluation.

_______ is associated with the emergence or re-emergence of symptoms that were absent or controlled while taking medication but appear when the same medication is discontinued or reduced in dosage. Select one: A.therapeutic effect B.side effect C.therapeutic index D.rebound effect

The correct answer is D.A rebound effect occurs if the condition the drug was used to treat re-emerges stronger when the drug is discontinued or losses its effectiveness.Answer A: Therapeutic effects refer to the response after a treatment of any kind, the results of which are judged to be useful or favorable.Answer B: Side effects, also known as adverse events, are unwanted or unexpected events or reactions to a drug. Side effects can vary from minor problems like a runny nose to life-threatening events, such as a heart attack.Answer C: The therapeutic index is used to compare the therapeutically effective dose to the toxic dose of a pharmaceutical agent. The correct answer is: rebound effect

Based on her study of preschoolers and their parents, Diana Baumrind (1967, 1971) concluded that children of __________ parents tend to be aggressive, mistrusting, dependent, and "conflicted-irritable." Select one: A.instrumental B.permissive C.authoritative D.authoritarian

The correct answer is D.Baumrind originally categorized parents as authoritarian, authoritative, permissive, or rejecting-neglecting. Baumrind's research linked authoritarian parenting with children who are "conflicted-irritable" - i.e., fearful, moody, easily annoyed, and aimless.Answer A: This is not one of the categories identified by Baumrind.Answer B: Baumrind found that children of permissive parents tend to be "impulsive-aggressive."Answer C: Baumrind found that children of authoritative parents are most often "energetic-friendly." The correct answer is: authoritarian

The various approaches to behavior family therapy differ with regard to goals and strategies but most share a focus on which of the following? Select one: A.Helping family members develop new meanings for problematic behaviors. B.Using resistance and paradox to alter maladaptive behaviors. C.Altering transactional patterns as a means of fostering insight. D.Enhancing problem-solving and communication skills.

The correct answer is D.Behavioral approaches to family therapy combine principles of operant conditioning, social learning theory, and social exchange theory. Behavioral family therapies focus on observable behaviors and use contingent reinforcement and other behavioral techniques to modify behaviors, especially those related to problem-solving and communication.Answer A: This sounds like reframing which is a technique employed by structural family therapists.Answer B: Paradoxical interventions are employed by strategic family therapists.Answer C: This strategy would be employed by a structural family therapist. The correct answer is: Enhancing problem-solving and communication skills.

An organizational psychologist conducts a(n) _________ to determine the relative worth of a job compared to other jobs. Select one: A.utility analysis B.needs assessment C.performance appraisal D.job evaluation

The correct answer is D.For the exam, you want to be familiar with several "vocabulary words" that describe important activities in organizational settings. Job evaluations are conducted for the purpose of establishing the worth of a job so that an appropriate wage can be defined for that job.Answer A: Utility refers to the feasibility of a measure, often in terms of its costs.Answer B: A needs assessment (analysis) is conducted to identify training needs.Answer C: A performance appraisal is an assessment of an employee's job performance. The correct answer is: job evaluation

According to Gerald Patterson and his colleagues, which of the following is a key contributor to Conduct Disorder? Select one: A.The child's temperament B.The child's cognitive skills C.The strength of the parent-child attachment D.The parent's child-rearing skills

The correct answer is D.Gerald Patterson and his colleagues take a social learning approach to explain aggressive behavior in children and adolescents. His "coercion hypothesis" focuses on interactions between parents and their children and identifies the parents' child-rearing skills as a key determinant of the nature of these interactions. [e.g., Smith, J. D., Dishion, T. J., Shaw, D. S., Wilson, M. N., Winter, C. C., & Patterson, G. R. (2014). Coercive family process and early-onset conduct problems from age 2 to school entry. Development and Psychopathology, 26(4 Pt 1), 917932.]Answers A, B, and C: Patterson and his colleagues believe parent's childrearing skills are a key contributor to Conduct Disorder. Their research did not investigate child temperament, the child's cognitive skills, or parent-child attachment. The correct answer is: The parent's child-rearing skills

Research on infantile amnesia has shown that: Select one: A.children do not develop memories for autobiographical events until age 3 or 4 B.the loss of early memories is universal and is unrelated to gender, culture, or type of event C.memories for autobiographical events that occurred prior to age 3 or 4 remain stable over the lifespan D.the ability to recall memories for autobiographical events that occurred prior to age 3 or 4 varies over the lifespan

The correct answer is D.Infantile amnesia refers to a person's inability to recall events that occurred prior to about age 3 or 4. While early research suggested that the loss of early memories is absolute, subsequent studies indicate that many older children, adolescents, and adults are able to recall some events that took place prior to age 3 or 4. In addition, the recall of early memories varies across the lifespan. Rybash and Hrubi, for example, found that older adults typically have later-occurring first memories than younger adults do [ Rybash, J.M. and Hrubi, K.L. (1997). Psychometric and psychodynamic correlates of first memories in younger and older adults, Gerontologist, 37, 581-587].Answer A: Children under the age of 3 do develop memories for autobiographical events, but many of these memories are "lost" in subsequent years.Answer B: There is evidence that the loss of memory is, in fact, related to gender, cultural background, type of event, and other factors.Answer C: Research on infantile amnesia has actually shown that the ability to recall memories for autobiographical events that occurred prior to age 3 or 4 varies over the lifespan. The correct answer is: the ability to recall memories for autobiographical events that occurred prior to age 3 or 4 varies over the lifespan

A client of yours is currently suing her employer for race discrimination. You receive a subpoena from the employer's attorney requiring you to appear at a deposition to provide information about the client. When you discuss this with the client, she tells you she does not want you to provide the employer with any information from her therapy sessions. You should _____________________________. Select one: A.provide the requested information at the deposition since privilege is waived in this situation B.attend the deposition but provide only that information you believe to be germane to the case C.refuse to attend the deposition without a court order D.ask your attorney to contact the employer's attorney to discuss the situation

The correct answer is D.Of the responses given, this is the best choice. When a client does not want confidential information revealed, the requesting party can be contacted to see if the request can be rescinded or modified, thereby avoiding further legal steps. Of course, another alternative would be to attend the deposition and assert the privilege, but this may be less desirable than first attempting to work out a compromise that is agreeable to all parties and it is not given as an option.Answer A: This answer is incorrect as there is no indication that privilege has been waived.Answer B: This answer is incorrect, given the client has not waived her privilege.Answer C: This answer is incorrect. It is better to try to negotiate an agreement that is acceptable to all prior to the deposition. The correct answer is: ask your attorney to contact the employer's attorney to discuss the situation

You suspect a colleague of violating ethical guidelines. To be consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code, you should ________________________________. Select one: A.report the colleague to the local Ethics Committee immediately B.report the colleague to the local Ethics Committee only if the ethical violation is a serious one C.attempt to handle the situation informally by discussing the violation with the colleague and file a report only if he is uncooperative D.either handle the situation informally or file a report, depending on which course of action you believe is most appropriat

The correct answer is D.Psychologists can either attempt to resolve an ethical infraction informally or file a complaint with the Ethics Committee, depending on which course of action they deem most appropriate. It is always necessary to consider client confidentiality first before taking any action, but none of the responses given address this issue.Answer A: This answer is incorrect. The provisions of the Ethics Code allow psychologists to use their own discretion about the best course of action in cases where another psychologist is suspected of acting unethically.Answer B: This answer is incorrect, because it fails to account for the fact that psychologists are granted flexibility in responding to ethical complaints toward colleagues.Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Depending on the specific circumstances, a psychologist may decide to file a formal complaint before, after, or in lieu of discussing the matter with the other psychologist. The correct answer is: either handle the situation informally or file a report, depending on which course of action you believe is most appropriate

Research comparing younger and older workers has found that: Select one: A.younger workers tend to be more satisfied than older workers are. B.younger workers have more realistic expectations about their jobs than older workers do. C.younger workers are more concerned about pay and job security than older workers are. D.younger workers expect more personal fulfillment from their jobs than older workers do.

The correct answer is D.Research has generally shown that job satisfaction tends to increase with age, especially among White employees. The lower satisfaction of younger employees has been attributed to their greater expectations for personal fulfillment from their jobs.Answer A: The answer, "younger workers tend to be more satisfied than older workers are", is the opposite of what is true.Answer B: The answer, "younger workers have more realistic expectations about their jobs than older workers do", is the opposite of what is true.Answer C: The answer, "younger workers are more concerned about pay and job security than older workers are", is not what has been found by the research. The correct answer is: younger workers expect more personal fulfillment from their jobs than older workers do.

Dr. Strait is invited to a holiday party at a fellow psychologist's house. While there, he notices that one of the guests is a current therapy client of the psychologist. Dr. Strait's best course of action would be to _________________________. Select one: A.leave the party in protest B.contact the ethics committee as soon as possible C.discuss the issue with the psychologist immediately D.discuss the issue with the psychologist at a later time

The correct answer is D.Standard 1.04 of the Ethics Code requires psychologists to take action when they believe another psychologist has acted unethically. The information provided in the question suggests that the psychologist is engaging in a multiple (dual) relationship with a client. Dr. Strait should discuss the matter with the psychologist to determine the circumstances (e.g., the client may have come to the party without an invitation).Answer A: This answer is incorrect, as it does not address the actions specified by the Ethics Code.Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Strait would have to obtain permission from the client before revealing his/her name to the Ethics Committee, which makes this a less desirable answer.Answer C: This answer is incorrect. It would be better to have a conversation with the psychologist when the circumstances of the client's presence can be discussed privately. The correct answer is: discuss the issue with the psychologist at a later time

An intern at a large mental health clinic decides to work at another agency and makes appointments to see several of the clinic's clients at her new place of employment. Her actions are ______________________. Select one: A.commendable since it makes it possible for the clients to have continuity in therapy B.ethical as long as adequate supervision is available at the agency C.unethical because she has previously worked with the clients D.unethical because the clients are already receiving services from the clinic

The correct answer is D.Standard 10.04 of the APA's Ethics Code states that, "in deciding whether to offer or provide services to those already receiving mental health services elsewhere, psychologists carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client's/patient's welfare, psychologists discuss these issues with the client/patient in order to minimize the risk of confusion and conflict, consult with the other service providers when appropriate, and proceed with caution and sensitivity to the therapeutic issues." This response is most in line with Standard 10.04. By going ahead and making the appointments, the intern is not taking steps to minimize the risk of confusion and conflict and is not consulting with the other service providers.Answer A. This answer is incorrect. As suggested by this Standard, interns should not take clients from a previous place of employment without considering the professional relationships involved, the therapeutic issues, and the welfare of the clients.Answer B. This answer is incorrect. Interns should not see clients without supervision. However, even if appropriate supervision is available, an intern should not offer his/her services to clients of a previous place of employment.Answer C. This answer is incorrect. This response really does not make sense. The correct answer is: unethical because the clients are already receiving services from the clinic

Dr. Xi has been asked to administer a psychological test to an individual who requires special accommodations because of a physical disability. The test was not developed or normed for individuals with this disability. The APA's Guidelines for Test User Qualifications recommend that, in this situation, psychologists ____________. Select one: A.refuse to administer the test B.refuse to administer the test unless there are no alternative methods of assessment C.exercise "special care" when administering and scoring the test and interpreting its results D.obtain legal advice on relevant legal requirements regarding the administration and use of the tes

The correct answer is D.The APA's position on this issue is summarized by S. M. Turner, S. T. DeMers, H. R. Fox, and G. M. Reed in APA's Guidelines for Test User Qualifications: An executive summary (American Psychologist, 56, pp. 1099-1113, 2001). In their summary, Turner et al. note that there may be legal requirements that apply to the administration and use of tests when an individual requires special accommodations. To ensure that these requirements are met, psychologists should consider them and, when appropriate, "obtain legal advice on legal and regulatory requirements regarding appropriate administration of tests and use of test data when assessing individuals with disabilities" (p. 1103). Note that Standard 10.2 of the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing also addresses this issue and requires test users who do not have adequate knowledge or experience in modifying tests for individuals with disabilities to seek guidance from a consultant or supervisor who has expertise.Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Simply refusing to administer the test is insufficient. Dr. Xi should seek consultation.Answer B: This answer is incorrect. The correct course of action is to seek the advice of a consultant and to consider whether there are legal issues that should be taken into account.Answer C: Taking "special care" is not a sufficient response. The psychologist should seek consultation and consider legal implications. The correct answer is: obtain legal advice on relevant legal requirements regarding the administration and use of the test

When using the analysis of variance, calculation of the F-ratio involves_____. Select one: A.comparing group means directly to each other B.comparing each group mean to a total mean C.comparing true (experimental) variability to error variability D.comparing between-group variability to within-group variability

The correct answer is D.The F-ratio is a measure of treatment effects plus measurement error divided by a measure of measurement error only. This is the best description of the F-ratio since the numerator is a measure of between-group variability, while the denominator is a measure of within-group variability.Answer A: Unlike the t-test, the ANOVA compares means indirectly rather than directly.Answer B: Some of the calculations for the ANOVA do involve comparing group means to a "grand mean," but this is not used to derive the F-ratio itself.Answer C: This doesn't describe the F-ratio. The correct answer is: comparing between-group variability to within-group variability

Joey tells his school-based counselor that "No one in my family gets me. They're completely clueless and have no idea what I'm going through!" According to Elkind, Joey's feelings are an example of _____: Select one: A.the imaginary audience B.delusional egocentrism C.the vulnerability aspect D.the personal fable

The correct answer is D.The personal fable is the belief that one is special and unique, so much so that no one can understand what the adolescent is going through or that they are so special that the rules don't apply to them or they will not incur the same consequences as others.Answer A: The imaginary audience is the belief that one is always the center of attention or that all eyes are on them.Answer B: While egocentrism is at the core of the personal fable and the imaginary audience and it may appear that adolescents hold these beliefs with delusional intensity, delusional egocentrism isn't a concept posited by David Elkind.Answer C: The concept associated with the personal fable is the invulnerability aspect, not the vulnerability aspect. It is one of the characteristics of the personal fable with the other being feelings of uniqueness. The correct answer is: the personal fable

A psychology intern administers tests to clients of a mental health clinic, but her supervisor scores the tests and interprets their results. When preparing the psychological report, the supervisor does not indicate that the intern administered the tests. This is __________. Select one: A.ethical as long as the client was informed that the examiner is a psychology intern and was given the supervisor's name B.ethical since the supervisor is ultimately responsible for the accuracy of the psychological report C.unethical since the intern should not be administering psychological tests D.unethical since the intern should be listed as the examiner in the report

The correct answer is D.This issue is not directly addressed in the Ethics Code or the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing. However, this response is most consistent with the provisions of the APA's guidelines. See, for example, Standard 5.01(b) of the Ethics Code, which prohibits psychologists from making misleading statements, and Standard 6.06, which requires psychologists to provide accurate information to payors and funding sources. Answer A. This answer is Incorrect. Informing the client the examiner is an intern and providing the supervisor's name are necessary, but not sufficient in reference to this question.Answer B. To adhere to the standards noted in the explanation for Answer D, the psychologist should include the intern's name as the person who delivered the assessment.Answer C. Provided the intern had the proper training and was supervised by the psychologist, it is not unethical for the intern to deliver the assessment. The correct answer is: unethical since the intern should be listed as the examiner in the report

Which of the following would be most useful when a test administrator wants to use test scores to determine how much a person has learned during the course of a six-week training program? Select one: A.Expectancy tables B.Stanine scores C.Percentile ranks D.Percentage scores

The correct answer is D.When the goal of testing is to determine the amount of content an individual has mastered, criterion-referenced (or content-referenced) scores are most useful. A percentage score indicates the percentage of test content that the examinee has mastered. Assuming that the test content is a good sample of what is taught in the training program, a percentage score would be useful in this situation.Answer A: Although an expectancy table is a method of criterion-referenced interpretation, it is used when scores on one measure (the predictor) are used to predict performance on another measure (the criterion).Answer B: Stanine scores are a type of norm-referenced score, which indicate an individual's standing relative to other examinees.Answer C: Percentile ranks are also a type of norm-referenced score. The correct answer is: Percentage scores