Supervisor Course IFTC
However, there is a statutory defence (for Section 85), which states what?
"However, a person shall not be guilty of an offence under Section 85 in respect of the entry of any matter into the water or any discharge if; The entry is caused or permitted, or the discharge is made, in any emergency in order to avoid danger to life or health; The person takes all such steps as are reasonably practicable in the circumstances for minimising the extent of the entry or discharge and of its polluting effects; and: Particulars of the entry or discharge are furnished to the Agency as soon as reasonably practicable after the entry occurs.
The part of the Water Resources Act where Airport Fire Services could find themselves in trouble is Section 85, which states what?
"A person has committed an offence if he/she causes or knowingly permits any poisonous, noxious or polluting matter, or any solid waste matter to enter any controlled waters". The term "controlled waters" includes all drains and water courses.
What are the minimum discharge rates for complementary media?
1.35kgs/second, although up to 2kgs/sec may be required to deal with large aircraft engine fires.
At all aerodromes up to a maximum of 50% of the complementary extinguishing agents may be substituted for water for the production of foam meeting performance level B What are the substitution rates?
1kg of dry powder/hydrocarbon =1 litre; 2kg CO2 = 1 litre.
What are the reserve % supply of foam concentrate and complementary extinguishing agent required as stipulated in table 8.2?
200% reserve supply of foam concentrate; 100% reserve supply of complementary extinguishing agent.
How long will the records for exposure to radiation be maintained?
50 years.
Where the main complementary extinguishing agent is Hydro carbon or CO2, what shall be the minimum quantity of dry powder required for running fuel fires?
9kgs. Where there is an additional quantity of dry powder provided in hand held extinguishers of a minimum capacity of 9kgs, it will not be necessary to comply with the discharge rate of 1.35kg/2kgs per second.
What should be immediately promulgated during temporary depletion?
A NOTAM and radio message.
By which factors should the categorisation of aerodromes be based?
A business needs analysis; An analysis of aircraft movements; The dimensions of the aircraft operating at the aerodrome; Variances of the published operations - seasonal, weekly & time of day; Task analysis for each RFFS category; CAP 168 chapter 8.
Name the minimum facilities to which RFFS personnel should have regular access to for training.
A facility, which permits training in heat, humidity, smoke and confined spaces. Pressured fed running fuel fires. An aircraft mock up for fire-fighting, positioning, entry, rescue and casualty handling. Facilities for creating intense radiated heat. Engine and undercarriage incidents. Ground level fuel fires. Lecture and visual aid facilities.
Define the aerodrome services sitting on the emergency planning committee.
Aerodrome police; Aerodrome Security; Airline operations; Customs and excise; Medical; Mechanical transport; RFFS; Telecommunications; Works department.
What hazards do aerodromes bring?
Aerodromes are a necessary part of 21st century life. Whether they are small airfields training the pilots of the future, regional airports that form part of the local economic and transport network or a large global hub, they are here to stay and they are growing in size and complexity. Although necessary, they bring with them many hazards. These hazards have the potential to, and on occasions have, caused harm to: The aerodrome workforce. Aircraft crew / pax. Local community. Aircraft. The environment.
Define the local authority and other services sitting on the emergency planning committee.
Ambulance; Coast guard and off shore rescue; Doctors; Fire service; First aid organisations; Hospitals; Police; Press; Religious leaders.
Damage potential & protection requirements for each radiation type.
An Alpha particle is comprised of 2 protons & 2 neutrons. They travel 30 - 40 mm before stopping. They can be stopped by a sheet of paper. They do not penetrate the skin. A Beta particle has only 1 electron. It travels 1 metre before stopping. Heavy clothing can stop a Beta particle. It can penetrate skin to reach the sensitive tissues of the body. A Gamma ray is a ray of energy that can travel several hundred metres. It can be stopped by dense material such as lead. It can penetrate the whole body.
Define an aircraft crash/ aircraft crash imminent.
An aircraft accident, which has occurred or is inevitable on, or in the vicinity of the aerodrome.
Give the unforeseen circumstances of temporary depletion.
An in service mechanical failure of a vehicle or piece of equipment or the sudden illness of a member of staff.
Reports have been made of PED's interfering with aircraft systems. What kind of problems have been noted?
An overweight takeoff due to excessive fuel. A flight with insufficient fuel. Navigational errors. A degradation of confidence in the aircraft fire warning systems.
When should distress to wearer procedures apply?
Any breathing apparatus malfunction should be reported provided that the malfunction occurred whilst the set: was in use; or during testing immediately prior to use in such a way that had the malfunction occurred whilst the apparatus was in use it would have posed a danger to the health and safety of the user.
At the operational level of management name the 4 non human resources that should be considered?
Appliances; Media, Equipment (incl. media); Support resources.
If a hazard cannot be removed, how can risks be reduced?
As some of the hazards cannot be removed, the level of risk arising from them must be reduced to acceptable levels. This is normally achieved by having: Procedures Equipment Controls Education and Training Competent staff at all levels Emergency plans Audit and reviews Positive safety culture
CAP 700 will assist the aerodrome licensee to?
Be satisfied that persons within the management structure possess the relevant operational safety competence. Identify the post and person that have accountability for a specific task. Identify gaps that may exist in the areas of competence for their particular aerodrome. Develop job specifications, and in recruitment and succession planning, provide for aerodrome licensing purposes the safety assurance sought by the CAA.
What is the purpose of CAP642?
CAP642 is 'accepted good practice' and represents an acceptable way of doing things. It illustrates how risks might be identified and provides advice about how airside safety can be placed within the context of a systematic and structured management approach - a Safety Management System.
List the eight considerations for the re-establishment of RFFS category.
Crewing considerations - Relief crews may have to be called in due to illness, fatigue or stress; Decontamination of PPE - To avoid delays here, consideration should be given to providing spare sets of PPE; Replacement of PPE - Any PPE damaged at the incident will have to be replaced - A small store would be beneficial; Decontamination of equipment; Testing of equipment - After use testing in accordance with the home office/manufacturer's instructions; Replacement of damaged or lost equipment - Full inventories will need to be conducted to establish any deficiencies. Replenishment of media - Media reserves can be utilised to re-establish minimum levels. This should be supported by pre-planned emergency arrangements with suppliers for prompt delivery of replacement stocks; Refueling of vehicles & equipment.
What is DSEAR?
Dangerous Substances & Explosive Atmosphere Regulations. They define the hazardous zones / areas around an aircraft or refuelling equipment. The zones are classified on the basis of the frequency & duration of the occurrence of an explosive atmosphere.
What types of RPE exist?
Equipment such as face masks with filters and powered respirators that take in contaminated air from the workroom and filter or clean it before it is inhaled. All such devices are called respirators. Equipment such as air-fed hoods and self-contained breathing apparatus which deliver uncontaminated air from an independent source to the wearer
Name the five elements of initial assessment of risk.
Evaluate the situation, task and persons at risk. Select safe systems of work. Assess the chosen system of work. Introduce additional control measures. Re-assess systems of work and additional control measures.
What exceptions should be made?
Exceptions should be made for emergency landings and for occasions when, in the pilot's opinion, a diversion or hold may introduce a more significant hazard.
Name the 9 classification of dangerous goods.
Explosives; Gases; Flammable solids; Flammable liquids; Oxidizers & organic peroxide; Toxic & infectious substances; Radioactive substances; Corrosives; Miscellaneous dangerous goods.
The philosophy of the fire services approach to risk assessment can be summed up as....?
FF's will take some risk to save saveable lives. FF's will take a little risk to save saveable property. FF's will take no risk to save lives or property that is already lost.
As the incident develops, circumstances may make the original course of action inappropriate. For example...?
Fire fighting tactics may change from defensive to offensive. New hazards and their associated risks may arise. Existing hazards may be present different risks. Personnel may become fatigued.
What areas of resources and control can be delegated to crew commanders?
Fire fighting. BA. Water & foam supplies. Decontamination. Casualty care.
Fuel management procedures should include, but not be limited to what elements?
Fuel reception, storage and quality maintenance; The assessment of fuel quality; The safe delivery into an aircraft of fuel fit for the purpose; The taking and storing of fuel samples; The onward distribution of fuel; 'Incident' prevention; 'Incident' management; Preventing or minimising electrostatic discharge during the handling of fuel; Handling fuel during extremes of weather e.g. electric storms in the aerodrome vicinity or in high ambient temperatures; The actions to be taken should fuel be found to be contaminated; and Regular and periodic maintenance and cleaning of fuel installations and equipment.
What preparations would you include while on standby?
Gathering of information. Donning of PPE. Briefing crews. Pre-positioning appliances.
State the current legislation covering BA.
H&S at work act 1974 Control of substances hazardous to health (COSHH) Reporting of injuries, diseases & dangerous occurrences regs (RIDDOR)
State the legislation affecting Fire Service Operations involving HazMats.
H&SAW Act.
What guidance covers the use of RPE?
HS(G) 53 - A practical guide for BA users. TB 1/1997 - Breathing Apparatus command and control procedures. CAP 168 - Chapter 8, Paragraph 16, Paragraph 19 Appendix 8J.
What specifications cover the use of RPE?
HSE AL FW2 - Specifications for fully wrapped, composite cylinders. BS-EN 137 - Specifications for respiratory protective devices. BS-EN 4275 - Guide to implementing an effective respiratory protective device programme.
Where the main complementary extinguishing agent is dry powder, what shall be the required minimum quantity of hydrocarbon or CO2?
Hydrocarbon - 9kgs; CO2 - 18kgs.
What are the key elements of any risk assessment?
Identification of the hazards. Assessment of the risks associated with the hazard. Identification of who is at risk. The effective application of measures that control the risk.
What elements contribute to the safety function in incident command?
Identify safety concerns. Initiate corrective action. Maintain safe systems of work. Ensure all personnel are wearing appropriate PPE. Observe the environment. Monitor the physical condition of personnel. Regularly review. CC's & nominated safety officers should update the incident commander of any changing circumstances.
There are no hard and fast rules as to the type of method of recording tests for items of equipment. List the details required to be recorded for an item of equipment in accordance with the PUWER regulations 1998.
Information on the type/model of equipment; Any identification mark or number it has on it. It's normal location; The date that the inspection was carried out; Who carried out the inspection? Any faults; Any action taken; To whom the faults have been reported; The date when repairs or other necessary actions were carried out.
Name the circumstances where emergency decontamination procedures could be instigated?
Initial entry by a crew wearing normal fire kit is exposed to a contaminant unexpectedly. A chemical protection suit is torn inside a contaminated area, with contaminant entering the suit A sudden release of a substance or an unexpected escalation of the situation exposes unprotected personnel to the contaminant Non fire service personnel are found to be contaminated A Breathing Apparatus set develops a fault whilst being used in the risk area.
Name the three separate stages of an incident.
Initial. Developing stage. Closing stage.
Protection For Crews At Radiation Incidents.
It can be seen by the effects of radiation that it is important to ensure the=at the dose a person receives is kept as low as possible. Damage to the body from radiation may occur from either an external or an internal source.
Distance.
Keep as far as practically possible from the radioactive source. External radiation falls of rapidly as the distance is increased - the greater the distance, the greater area over which the radiation is spread.
What should licensees consider with regards to fuel storage, management, handling & distribution?
Licensees should consider: The fire risk associated with the handling of fuel, e.g. fuel leaks, sprays or vapour emissions; The possibility of fuel quality deterioration, e.g. contamination by; other liquids or solid particles; the passage of time; poorly maintained fuel installations and storage equipment and inappropriate handling procedures; and The risk associated with delivery to the aircraft and apron safety.
Name the 3 closing stages of an incident.
Maintaining control. Welfare. Incident debrief.
What should maintenance include?
Maintenance should include: Cleaning; Disinfection; Examination; Repair; Testing; Record keeping.
What are the maximum permissible dose limits for fire-fighters as a result of the ionising radiation regulations 1999.
Male FF - 20 milisieverts in any calendar year. Female FF of reproductive capacity - 13milliseiverts in any consecutive period of 3 months. A female fire-fighter beyond reproductive capacity the dose limits are as per a male fire fighter.
List the 6 do not's in relation to scene management.
Move wreckage unless it is vital; Remove bodies unless vital to do so; Remove or attach personal effects from / to bodies; Handle FDR / CVR's; Move outlying wreckage; Walk / drive over ground impact marks.
Define the method of managing the policies and plan at the operational level.
Organising duty rosters; Maintaining a state of operational readiness; Responding to shortfalls/defects in accordance with station procedures; Training; Providing feedback to managers regarding the effectiveness of resources and any identified shortfalls.
Name the six areas of resource management that fall into the systematic planning stage?
People; Appliances; Equipment; Media; Premises; Finance.
List the monitoring equipment available to FF's at a radiation incident.
Personal dosimeters are worn by individuals, and are calibrated in milisieverts to record the total dose of Gamma radiation received by the wearer. Survey meters are calibrated to read in milisieverts per hour. They indicate the level of radiation at any source. Some meters are dual read, in microsieverts per hour. Contamination meters are calibrated to read in counts per second, beneficial for checking personal contamination & measures the levels of radioactive contamination at the scene.
What are the 3 associated risks to a PED user?
Physical contact with the aircraft by the distracted PED user could cause damage / injury. Equipment being operated by a distracted PED user could cause damage to an aircraft. PED users, distracted while performing essential checks could leave those tasks incomplete or unattended.
There are a number of critical factors that will require consideration in 'incident command', what are they?
Policy Organising Planning Measuring Auditing & reviewing performance.
What is a PED?
Portable Electronic Device.
What are the post-incident considerations?
Post mortem enquiries and coroners hearings. Accident investigations. Public or judicial enquiries. Litigation. Criminal investigation Incident debriefing and evaluation. Safety issues.
The variation in category could give rise to the complication of RFFS operating circumstances. List the actions that the licensee should ensure.
RFFS resources appropriate to the dimensions of the aircraft operating are available for immediate turnout throughout the operating hours. The details of the operation are clearly promulgated so that pilots are in no doubt about the level of RFFS facilities available. The terms upon which additional operating hours and higher category facilities may be requested, and any period of notice that must be given, are clearly indicated in the AIP.
Define response time.
Response time is the time between the initial call to the RFFS and the time when the first responding vehicle (s) is (are) in position and if required to produce foam at a minimum of 50% of the discharge rate as specified in table 8.2.
List the examples of possible variations.
Seasonal variation in Cat; Weekly variation in Cat; Daily variation in Cat; Extended operating hours with prior notice; Availability of higher category with prior notice.
List the 9 do's in relation to scene management.
Secure the site; Record the location of FDR / CVR; Photograph or sketch equipment which needs to be disturbed for rescue purposes; Keep unauthorized personnel away from the site; Take details from witnesses; Identify any freight hazards; Take action with regards to fuel spills; Collect loose documents; Leave bodies or parts in situ; Make notes of your actions as soon as possible after the incident.
Shielding.
Shield the body from the source wherever possible. A firefighter wearing BA and protective gloves would, under normal circumstances, be protected against Alpha & Beta radiation. Gamma radiation travels further & can penetrate clothing so it is necessary to consider additional precautions.
List the requirements in relation to Media.
Stored as per manufacturer's instructions; Meet relevant specifications; Be supplied with relevant material data safety sheets; Be backed up with reserve quantities that take account of any delivery difficulties; Not exceed specified shelf life; Have a response plan to deal with any spillage; Is risk assessed in terms of storage and handling? Be of a type that is compatible with other media used at the aerodrome.
The bringing together of resources is done at three levels define these levels?
Strategic, Systematic & Operational.
Name the three management tiers adopted by many emergency services?
Strategic; Tactical; Operational.
The emergency planning committee should meet regularly to discuss what?
Tactics; Liaison; Co-operative training; Exercise Planning;
How long should temporary depletion last?
Temporary depletion should not last more than 12 hours overnight at an aerodrome where few movements are expected or two hours at any aerodrome during peak traffic periods.
What are the factors of decontamination of personnel leaving the risk area?
The Hazmat involved; Whether it is wet or dry; Is it reactive to water? Is it sticky? Is the contaminant a gas? Is it corrosive/highly corrosive? Is it a Biohazard? Is it radioactive?
What will the OIC consider when identifying hazards?
The OIC must consider the: nature of the incident; materials involved (or likely to become involved); the nature of the construction of the building; and the importance of the building (or risk area) relative to the hazards to the lives of those entering therein.
An initial call can be divided into two situations, name them.
The RFFS placed on standby. An immediate turnout is required.
State the current legal requirements for RPE.
The RPE must be suitable for the purpose for which it is to be used. It must provide effective protection to the wearer in the circumstances in which it is worn. The RPE must be capable of providing a sufficient quantity of clean air to the wearer. The equipment must fit the wearer. The equipment must be used in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions The equipment must meet a laboratory test specification before it can be used.
What is the response area?
The area including any point of each operational runway and all other areas of the aerodrome where aircraft park or taxi immediately prior to or following any flight required to use a licensed aerodrome.
The use of standard procedures in BA are to ensure what?
The competent use of BA Adequate support and emergency arrangements The safety of the individual BA Wearer The safety of other BA wearers at the same incident The successful conclusion of operational incidents
Name the key elements of incident command.
The incident commander. Strategy, tactics and operations. Resources and control. Briefing and information. Managing crews on the incident ground. Liaison. Post incident considerations. Communications.
Additionally for radioactive material list the additional information displayed on the shipper's declaration?
The name or symbol of the radio nuclide; The activity; The category of the package (e.g. 11 yellow); The transport index (when applicable).
What should the OIC consider when carrying out a risk analysis?
The need for rescues to be undertaken, and the likely number of people requiring rescue or removing from the risk area; resources immediately available and how quickly other support might be obtained; nature and extent of hazards; the stability of the incident; location, number and suitability of the entry points; risk to the public and adjacent properties; information available from people at the scene; and means of access to the risk area.
What is the operational objective of the RFFS?
The operational objective of the RFFS is to respond as quickly as possible to aircraft accidents and or incidents in order to create the maximum opportunity for saving life. The response objective of the RFFS is to achieve a response time of two minutes and not exceeding three to the response area in all circumstances of optimum visibility and surface conditions.
What is the principal objective of the aerodrome RFFS?
The principal objective of the aerodrome RFFS is to save life in the event of an aircraft accident or incident. For this reason, the provision of means of dealing with an aircraft accident or incident occurring at or in the immediate vicinity of an aerodrome assumes primary importance because it is within this area that there are the greatest opportunities of saving lives.
For aircraft emergencies, what information regarding dangerous goods can be obtained from the operator or the flight commander?
The proper shipping name; UN /ID number; The class or division; The compatibility group of explosives; Subsidiary risks; Quantity; Location on the aircraft.
Name 6 factors that affect the degree of biological damage to the body?
The size of the absorbed dose. The period over which the dose was received. The type of radiation. The sensitivity of the tissues receiving the dose. The age of the person. The age of the person.
Time - Limit exposure time.
The total dose of radiation absorbed by an individual is accumulated in the body over the period of time that the individual is exposed to radiation. Therefore it follows that the shorter the exposure time, the lower the dose.
A suitable risk assessment should be made taking account of?
The training aims and objectives. The physical fitness and competence of the trainee. The physical fitness and competence of instructors/safety officers/supervisors. The hazards and risks inherent in the training site. The hazards and risk associated with any equipment, techniques and procedures. The co-operation and co-ordination with others sharing the training site. The hazards and risks involved before, during and after the training event. Effective risk control measures. Contingency measures such as first aid cover, exercise abort signals.
Name the important factors bearing on an effective rescue in a survivable aircraft accident.
The training received. The effectiveness of the equipment. The speed at which competent personnel and equipment designated for rescue and fire-fighting purposes can be put to use.
List the nine items of information required by the AAIB in the event that the commander is killed or incapacitated.
The type, model, nationality and registration marks of the aircraft; The name of the owner, operator and hirer (if any) of the aircraft; The name of the commander of the aircraft; The date and time (UTC) of the accident or serious incident; UTC means co-coordinated universal time; The last point of departure and the next point of intended landing; The position of the aircraft by reference to some easily defined geographical point and latitude and longitude; The number of crew and passengers on board and the number killed or seriously injured; The nature of the accident as far as it is known; Brief particulars of the damage to the aircraft.
What are the factors to be taken when siting a decontamination zone?
The wind direction and strength; the safety and comfort of crews; the slope of the ground; the location of grassed areas and drains; the location of pumps to supply hose reels etc; the location of water supplies; where to locate the ECO.
How many areas of competence are there in CAP 700 & what are they?
There are 25 areas of competence detailed in CAP 700, these are: Aerodrome Licensing, Legal Framework Aerodrome Physical Characteristics Airside Safety Management and Flight Safety Risk Assessment Safety Management and Human Factors Airfield Work in Progress Aerodrome Safeguarding Aircraft Operations and Loading Airside Vehicle Operations Runway Surface Friction Snow and Ice Procedures and Runway Contamination Bird Hazard Control Local Airspace Management Integration of Mixed Aircraft Operations Air Traffic Services Radio, Navigation and Approach Aids Aeronautical Information Systems Low Visibility and Night Operations Fire and Rescue Operations
In relation to the principals of zoning to effect overall control at an incident site define Zone 1.
This is the area within which the attending fire service will operate with the aim of establishing fire control and of rescuing the occupants.
In relation to the principals of zoning to effect overall control at an incident site, define Zone 2.
This is the casualty clearance zone and is sited upwind of zone 1. Here medical services will initiate the removal of the injured to hospitals or rest centres as appropriate.
In relation to the principals of zoning to effect overall control at an incident site define Zone 3.
This zone is sited at the nearest hard standing to zone 2 and should be designated the ambulance loading point.
External source: There are three main rules for protection against external radiation.
Time, Distance & Shielding.
What is the purpose of CAP 700?
To enable licensees to assess the level of operational safety management competence existing within their respective organisations including any areas that are contracted out, and to ensure that they have the necessary expertise, at the appropriate level, to formulate and implement systems to adequately manage safety. Some tasks associated with some topic areas may be 'contracted out' by the aerodrome licensee; whilst day-to-day operational management is the responsibility of the contractor, the aerodrome licensee continues to have overall responsibility for the safe integration of contracted activities with the rest of the aerodrome operation.
What are the Environment Agency's guiding principles?
To enforce the act, and to prosecute where necessary; To prevent and minimise pollution; To educate and inform on pollution issues and to influence legislation .
How will departmental managers arrive at decisions for resources and the subsequent requests for finance?
Training needs analysis; Assessment of operational needs; Emergency planning; Incident performance reviews; Risk assessments; Equipment evaluations; Feedback from operational personnel; Lessons Learned and promulgated throughout the industry.
What markings could indicate HazMats?
Tremcard (Transport Emergency Card), Kemler Code.
What are the rules for preventing radiation entering the body?
Wear BA - radioactive materials may be in a gas, liquid or powder form & may cover a wide area such as may occur in the case of a road accident. Precautions must be taken to prevent the inhalation of the radioactive materials. Do not eat, drink or smoke - radioactive materials may be picked up on gloves or clothing & enter the body through the mouth & reach vital organs via the digestive system. Personnel should be thoroughly decontaminated & move away from the contaminated area before being allowed to eat, drink or smoke. Withdraw if you sustain open wounds or damage your PPE - radioactive material may enter the body through open wounds & reach vital organs via the blood stream. Anyone sustaining an open wound should withdraw from the area immediately & wash the injury thoroughly.
Define Local Standby.
When it is known that an aircraft has, or is suspected to have, developed some defect but the trouble would not normally involve any serious difficulty affecting a safe landing.
Define Full Emergency.
When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.
When should we use BA?
When there is a danger of permanent damage to health if BA is not worn in an irrespirable or toxic atmosphere. At any incident the OIC is responsible for ensuring that BA is worn whenever it is determined that its use will facilitate operational activities. BA should be worn whenever discomfort and possible injury to a firefighter's respiratory system can be avoided.
Define Weather Standby?
When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe.
Define Aircraft ground incident.
Where an aircraft on the ground is known to have an emergency situation other than an accident requiring the attendance of the emergency services.
When reaching decisions on the control of risk what must the OIC consider?
Whether BA is required to deal with the incident and the appropriate level of BA control; the adoption of any other appropriate safety precautions required to be implemented in conjunction with the use of BA for a specific risk (eg chemical protective clothing); the siting and number of entry control points; deployment of BA teams, emergency and relief teams, and the need to ensure they are as well briefed as possible on the task and the possible risks involved;the use of BA guide lines; the need for BA communications (radio and/or line); Issue 1 Jul 05 the need to appoint a communications officer; the implementation of the special procedures for BA wearer distress; the experience of BA crews available; and the sufficiency of BA and associated equipment available to deal with the incident and the need to request any additional assistance required. Any of the above duties, with the exception of the first, may be delegated.
List the details recorded on the Dangerous goods transport document/shippers declaration for each item carried?
Whether it is for carriage on passenger aircraft or for cargo aircraft only; The proper shipping name including any technical name; The class or division; The UN number; The packaging group; Any subsidiary risks; The net quantity, the type of packaging and the number of packages; The packing instruction number.
With regards to DSEAR, what are the zones?
Zone 0 - A place of explosive atmosphere consisting of a mix with 'air of dangerous substances' in the form of a gas, vapour or mist is present continuously or for long periods or frequently. Zone 1 - A place of explosive atmosphere consisting of a mix with 'air of dangerous substances' in the form of a gas, vapour or mist is likely to occur in normal operation occasionally. Zone 2 - A place of explosive atmosphere consisting of a mix with 'air of dangerous substances' in the form of a gas, vapour or mist is not likely to occur in normal operation, but I fit does occur, will persist for a short period only.