TransNH_CompTIA 220-901_PRACTICE EXAM 2

Where is the MBR stored? a. BIOS b. CMOS c. hard disk d. paging file

Explanation: The Master Boot Record (MBR) is contained in a partition's master boot sector, which is the first sector of a computer's hard disk or a system floppy disk. MBRs contain two primary components: executable code and a partition table. Executable code in the MBR is responsible for locating the appropriate operating system from the partition table and loading it into RAM to make the operating system active. Partition tables identify each partition that resides on a specific disk.

What is the maximum data transmission speed for Bluetooth technology? a. 3 Mbps b. 11 Mbps c. 54 Mbps d. 100 Mbps

Explanation: The maximum data transmission speed for Bluetooth is 3 Mbps. Bluetooth is used for short-range wireless connections. For example, Bluetooth will be used to connect wireless devices, such as the keyboard and mouse, to the computer.

Every time a Windows Vista computer boots, you receive an error message stating that the cover was previously removed. You want to prevent this alert from being displayed. In which location should you disable this alert? a. in the System Configuration utility b. in Event Viewer c. in the BIOS d. in Device Manager

c. in the BIOS Explanation: To prevent an alert regarding the cover being removed from displaying, you should disable the chassis intrusion detection, no matter which operating system you are running. Chassis intrusion detection is always configured in the system BIOS. Chassis intrusion detection is a method of physical intrusion detection. It provides an alert the next time that the computer is booted that tells the user that the chassis has been opened. Often hackers will physically open a computer to insert hardware that is used to capture confidential or sensitive information.

A computer receives a parity check error message. Which component should you check first? a. hard drive b. motherboard c. video card d. memory

d. memory Explanation: You should first check the memory. A parity check error can be caused by the computer's RAM, motherboard, memory, or a hardware adapter on the computer.

You are troubleshooting a problem with a Windows XP Professional computer. When you boot up the computer, you hear the hard disks start, the computer beeps once, and everything appears normal except the display. The display is blank. You confirm that the monitor's power switch is on and the monitor is plugged in. What should you do next to troubleshoot this problem? Replace the monitor. Replace the video card. Replace the power supply. Install new video display drivers.

Replace the monitor. Explanation: A screen that stays blank through the entire boot process usually indicates a problem with the monitor. If you encounter this situation, you should first ensure that there is not a problem with the monitor's power or cables. If you confirm that the monitor is getting enough power from the power outlet, the monitor is turned on, and the power and video cables are connected properly, you should replace the monitor with a known good unit.

What does an inkjet printer use to push ink onto paper? a. a nozzle b. a moving pin c. a piezoelectric crystal d. an electrostatic charge

a piezoelectric crystal Explanation: Inkjet printers use either of two methods to push ink onto the print medium, typically paper. One method is to precisely vibrate a piezoelectric crystal, which then pumps ink through a nozzle. The other method is to apply a voltage to a resistor, which heats ink to the boiling point. When the ink boils, the vaporization pressure pushes the ink through fixed-position nozzles and onto paper. The first method is referred to as mechanical vibration, and the second method is referred to as thermal shock. A given inkjet printer will only use one of these ink deposition techniques.

What is the network prefix that is used to denote an unsubnetted Class C IP address? /8 /16 /24 /32

/24 Explanation: The network prefix /24 is used to denote an unsubnetted Class C IP address. Class-based IP addresses were the first types of addresses assigned on the Internet. The first octet of a Class A IP address is from 1 through 126 in decimal notation; the first octet of a Class A IP address is the network address. The first octet of a Class B IP address is from 128 through 191 in decimal notation; the first two octets of a Class B IP address are the network address. The first octet of a Class C IP address is from 191 through 223; the first three octets of a Class C IP address are the network address.

What is the operating range for Class 2 Bluetooth devices? 10 meters or 33 feet 1 meter or 3 feet 100 meters or 328 feet 200 meters or 656feet

10 meters or 33 feet Explanation: The operating range for Class 2 Bluetooth devices is up to 10 meters or 33 feet. Bluetooth is a technology that is used to establish a wireless connection between devices such as computers, printers, wireless keyboards and wireless mice, mobile phones, and other Bluetooth-supported devices.

Which radio frequency band does the 802.11b standard use? 1.9 GHz 2.4 GHz 4.3 GHz 5.0 GHz

2.4 GHz Explanation: The 802.11b standard is a wireless standard that operates in the 2.4 GHz radio frequency band. This frequency range (2.400 - 2.483 GHz) of the radio spectrum was intentionally set aside for wireless networking by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) in 1985. It is known as the Instrumentation, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) frequency band. The ISM band offers as many as 14 channels. However, in the United States, there are 11 channels available for use. Operating in this band means that the user does not need to obtain a radio operator's license.

You want to use Enhanced Intel SpeedStep Technology in a laptop. Which components must support this technology to use it? (Choose all that apply.) A. motherboard B. BIOS C. software drivers D. operating system

A. motherboard B. BIOS D. operating system Explanation: If you want to use Enhanced Intel SpeedStep Technology in a laptop, the motherboard , BIOS, and operating system must support SpeedStep. In addition, the chipset and processor must support the technology.

PICTURE You are troubleshooting a network connectivity problem on a Windows 7 computer. You issue the following command at a command prompt in command prompt window: nbtstat -r Which screen is displayed as a result of issuing this command? A. B. C. D. NetBios Resolution and Registration Statistics Resolve the broadcast Resolve the name server register the broadcast register by name server

Answer: Explanation: A table of NetBIOS names resolution and registration statistics will be displayed when you issue the nbtstat -r command. This screen displays NetBIOS connection statistics, such as the number of NetBIOS names resolved by broadcast and the number of NetBIOS names resolved by a NetBIOS name server. This screen also displays the NetBIOS names that have been resolved.

Which type of address does a hardware vendor assign? a. Internet zip code b. Logical network address c. Physical device address d. Physical Internet address

Physical device address Explanation: The physical device, or hardware, address is also referred to as the Media Access Control (MAC) address. A MAC address is a unique number that is assigned to a network interface card (NIC) when the card is manufactured. No two computers on a network can have the same MAC address. The Data Link layer of the OSI model uses these addresses to communicate between devices on local network segments. Although these addresses are considered permanently assigned, some protocols enable them to be changed. An example of a MAC address is 00-AA-00-62-A1-09.

You clear a paper jam from the tray in a laser printer. However, the printer still indicates a jam. What step should you perform next? Run the diagnostic software. Physically open and close the top assembly. Look for another jam in the paper tray. Look for another jam in the pressure roller area.

Physically open and close the top assembly. Explanation: Opening and closing the printer cover will cause the printer to reset itself and should clear the "printer jammed" message. There is usually a sensor or switch located in the cover to clear the printer error. The same effect can be produced by turning the power to the printer off and back on again.

In the past year, several hard drives in your company's computers failed without warning. All of the failed drives were replaced, but management is concerned that this will become an increasing problem because of the number of older computers in use. They have asked you to implement a technology that detects failing hard drives by analyzing the hard drive and providing a warning of impending failure. Which technology should you implement? S.M.A.R.T. throttling overclocking hyper-threading

S.M.A.R.T. Explanation: Self-Monitoring Analysis and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T.) is a technology that detects failing hard drives through analyzing the hard drive. It provides a warning of impending hard drive failure. If a S.M.A.R.T. error is reported when the computer boots, the hard drive is failing.

You are required to print a large number of pages on an inkjet printer in the minimum possible time. What should you do? a. Specify low-resolution printing. b. Specify high-resolution printing. c. Change page orientation of all pages to Portrait. d. Change page orientation of all pages to Landscape.

Specify low-resolution printing. Explanation: You should specify low-resolution printing for the pages to print. Printer resolution specifies the quality of printer output. Dots per inch (DPI) measures printer resolution. The higher the DPI of a printer, the higher the quality of the printer output. For example, the DPI of dot-matrix printers is lower than the DPI of laser printers. However, a higher DPI printer will consume more computer memory and will require more time to process print jobs. Therefore, in scenarios where you want to print documents at high speed with low quality, you should specify low-resolution printing.

You administer computers on an Ethernet 100BaseTX network, which uses the TCP/IP network communications protocol. The network uses an unsubnetted Class A IP address range. A computer on the network named Admin1 has the IP address 12.10.100.3, and a computer on the network named Marketing1 is configured with the IP address 12.10.100.4. Both computers are configured with the subnet mask 255.0.0.0 and the default gateway address 12.10.100.5. The network is connected to the Internet. RemoteWkst is a computer on a remote network that is connected to the Internet. Normally, Marketing1 and Admin1 can connect to RemoteWkst. You recently discovered that Marketing1 can connect to Admin1 and Admin1 can connect to Marketing1, but neither of these computers can connect to RemoteWkst. You suspect that there is a problem with one of the routers between RemoteWkst and the network you administer. Which TCP/IP utility should you use to troubleshoot this connectivity problem? a. the arp utility b. the ipconfig utility c. the nslookup utility d. the tracert utility

Tracer Utility Explanation: To test the routers between your network and RemoteWkst, you should use the tracert utility. To use the tracert utility, you should type the tracert command at a command prompt and either an IP address or a Domain Name System (DNS) name variable after the command, as in the following example: tracert dnsname or d. The tracert ipaddress The tracert utility will then display the IP address and DNS name of every node that a data packet passes through on its way to the remote computer. The tracert command will also display the time required for a data packet to travel through each node, and an error message if a router on the path is experiencing problems. In this scenario, the tracert command will display an error message if a router is experiencing a problem between either Admin1 or Marketing1 and RemoteWkst. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used in TCP/IP to resolve media access control (MAC) addresses to IP addresses. MAC addresses are configured on each NIC on an Ethernet network so that the nodes can be identified on the network. ARP enables the MAC addressing that Ethernet requires to interoperate with the IP addressing that TCP/IP requires. You can use the arp utility to view and manage the ARP cache on a computer. The ARP cache contains the IP address-to-MAC address resolutions on a computer. To use the arp utility, you can issue the arp command with various switches at a command prompt.

You are the network administrator for your company. You are installing a new printer in the network. When you check the print server properties, it displays the following error: Server properties cannot be viewed. The print spooler service is not running. What should you do to resolve the issue using the least administrative effort? a. Run the net stop spooler command. b. Run the net start spooler command. c. Use the Services program in Administrative Tools to start the printer spooler service. d. Click Start and Run. Type services.msc to start the printer spooler

Answer: Run the net start spooler command. Explanation: You should run the net start spooler command. This command is used from the command prompt to restart the Printer Spooler service.

Which command should you run from Server B to determine whether the default gateway address is properly configured? PICTURES a. ipconfig /all b. ipconfig /renew c. ipconfig ServerB d. ipconfig 129.68.0.1

Answer: ipconfig /all Explanation: The ipconfig /all command lists all the TCP/IP configuration parameters for the computer on which it is run. This includes the default gateway address for the Server B network. By examining the output from ipconfig /all, you will be able to determine if the configured default gateway address is correct. This command displays the IP address, default gateway, subnet mask, MAC address, and other networking data.

Which type of cable can operate at up to 10 gigabits per second (Gbps)? a. CAT3 b. CAT5 c. CAT5e d. CAT6

CAT6 Explanation: CAT6 cable can operate at up to 10 Gbps in 55-meter segments. It is often referred to as Gigabit Ethernet. CAT6 UTP standards support up to 1000 Mbps at 100-meter segments. CAT6a supports up to 10 Gbps and 250 MHz at 100-meter segments. CAT 7 known as F type cabling supports the same speed and length but up to 600 MHz. CAT3 cable can operate at up to 10 megabits per second (Mbps). CAT5 cable can operate at up to 100 Mbps. CAT 5e cable can operate at up to 1 Gbps. CAT5e networks can also be referred to as Gigabit Ethernet, but Gigabit Ethernet is more often used to refer to CAT 6 networks.

Cheryl is an avid gamer. She needs to purchase a new laptop for personal use, but she is a bit confused about which type of display to order. She needs a display that is the best suited for gaming, but she does not want to spend more than necessary. Which display type or feature should you recommend? a. TN (TTL type) b. IPS c. LED d. OLED

Explanation: A Twisted Nematic (TN) LCD displays provide the fastest refresh rate of the options listed. It is popular in 3D gaming. TN is the most affordable LCD technology. The TN display panel is the most popular LCD and has a low manufacturing cost. TN monitors also offer high brightness and draw less power than competing technologies. Although they have fast refresh rates, they have limited viewing angles and issues with color reproduction. Because a gaming laptop will only be viewed from one angle, this is not a consideration.

Which biometric authentication device scans the pattern of blood vessels in the back of the eye? a. an iris scanner b. a retinal scanner c. a face recognition scanner d. a signature scanner

Explanation: A retinal scanner uses a laser to scan the blood vessels in the back of the eye to authenticate a person's identity. All biometric devices are considered input devices. An iris scanner is typically implemented with a camera that takes a picture of the iris. The iris scanner determines whether the iris picture matches iris data that is already on file.

Which built-in laptop device below would be of the most use when conducting a meeting with a person in another location? a. Digitizer b. Wi-Fi antenna c. Webcam d. Microphone

Explanation: A webcam would be of the most use when conducting a meeting with a person in another location. Most laptops come fully equipped with built-in webcams. A webcam is a small video camera installed in the laptop lid. People use webcams for telecommunication purposes, chatting online with colleagues and loved ones, or training users on devices in another location. Drivers are preinstalled with no extra configuration needed to set them up. A Webcam allows you to communicate with another person over a network connection, including conducting a meeting. Many webcams include a built-in microphone to carry audio signal. A digitizer is a device used to convert analog signals into digital signals. A Wi-Fi antenna is installed in a laptop to allow it to connect to wireless networks. A microphone allows a user to speak to someone via the computer. While this would allow audio communication with someone else, it is not the best choice. Webcams are better because they provide both audio and video.

Which type of keyboard does NOT change the Num Lock status LED when you toggle the key? a. wireless keyboard b. multimedia keyboard c. keyboard on a portable computer d. keyboard on a tablet PC

Explanation: A wireless keyboard does not change the Num Lock status LED when you toggle the Num Lock key. The LED status light changes on the wireless receiver. This behavior preserves the battery life. Keyboards are input devices.

You need to install several USB devices on a server. You have been asked to attach USB hubs to the computer. Only one USB port is available. How many hubs can you daisy chain using the single port? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Explanation: According to the USB specifications, you can daisy chain up to five hubs. Daisy chaining means that the hubs are attached to each other in a line. While the specification does allow chaining of up to five hubs, you may experience problems configuring more than two hubs in a line. None of the other options is correct.

Which unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable supports data transfer up to 100 Mbps? a. CAT5 b. CAT4 c. CAT3 d. CAT2

Explanation: CAT5 UTP cable supports a data transfer rate of up to 100 Mbps. The CAT5e and CAT6 UTP standards support up to 1000 Mbps at 100-meter segments or 10 Gbps at 55-meter segments. CAT6a supports up to 10 Gbps and 250 MHz at 100-meter segments. CAT 7, known as F type cabling, supports the same speed and length but up to 600 MHz. If you try to use a splitter on Ethernet networks, it would dramatically reduce the signal and is not recommended. This splitter effect applies to coaxial cable types as well.

You are responsible for performing all routine maintenance on your company's dot-matrix printers. Which of the following is NOT considered as part of routine maintenance for these printers? a. Replace the paper. b. Replace the print head. c. Replace the ribbon. d. Calibrate the printer.

Explanation: Calibrating the printer is NOT part of routine maintenance for dot-matrix printers. Dot-matrix printers do not require any type of calibration. Ink-jet and laser printers require calibration to ensure that the print alignment and colors are configured correctly.

You are responsible for performing all routing maintenance on your company's thermal printers. Which of the following is NOT part of routine maintenance for these printers? a. Replace the paper. b. Calibrate the printer. c. Clean the heating element. d. Remove debris.

Explanation: Calibrating the printer is NOT part of routine maintenance for thermal printers. Ink-jet and laser printers require calibration to ensure that the print alignment and colors are configured correctly. Routine maintenance of thermal printers includes replacing the paper, cleaning the heating element, and removing debris.

Which network medium is the least susceptible to EMI or signal capture? a. coaxial b. fiber-optic c. shielded twisted-pair d. unshielded twisted-pair

Explanation: Fiber-optic cable carries its signals in the form of modulated pulses of light. Because fiber-optic cables use light pulses rather than electric signals, it is virtually impossible to intercept the signal on a fiber-optic cable without interrupting it and thus being detected.

Identify the floppy disk drive connection on the motherboard.

Explanation: In the exhibit given, the floppy disk drive (FDD) connection is located near the bottom. It is a black, 34-pin connector

On a network that you administer, you cannot use a Windows computer named Wkst1 to connect to an Internet host with the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) www.transoft.com. You want to determine whether a WAN link between Wkst1 and www.transoft.com is down. You know that data normally passes through 10 hops in transit from Wkst1 to www.transoft.com. Which command should you use to test connectivity? a. arp www.transoft.com b. nbtstat www.transoft.com c. tracert www.transoft.com d. ipconfig www.transoft.com

Explanation: Of the listed commands, you should use the tracert www.transoft.com command to determine whether a WAN link between Wkst1 and www.transoft.com is broken. The tracert computername command or tracert IP-Address command starts the tracert utility. The tracert utility displays the path that data travels through a network. The path begins at the host, which is the computer on which the utility is started, and ends at the host specified in the computername or IP-Address variables. In this scenario, the tracert www.transoft.com command will display the route that data travels between Wkst1 and www.transoft.com. Each host that data traverses on its route to the destination host is referred to as a hop. The tracert utility numbers each hop and displays the following information for each hop: time required for the data to travel through the host, the FQDN of the host, and the IP address of the host.

A computer uses an LCD monitor. You need to deploy the highest resolution available for a high-end application. Which of the list LCD technology will provide this? a. XGA b. QXGA c. SXGA d. UXGA e. WXGA

Explanation: Of the options listed, QXGA provides the highest resolution. QXGA stands for Quad Extended Graphics Array. This LCD technology provides a maximum resolution of 2048 x 1536. XGA stands for Extended Graphics Array. This LCD technology provides a maximum resolution of 1024 x 768. SXGA stands for Super Extended Graphics Array. This LCD technology provides a maximum resolution of 1280 x 1024. UXGA stands for Ultra Extended Graphics Array. This LCD technology provides a maximum resolution of 1600 x 1200. WXGA stands for Wide Extended Graphics Array. This LCD technology provides a maximum resolution of 1366 x 768. The native resolution is the measurement of the number of pixels an LCD monitor can display without the image appearing distorted.

Which technology has the LONGEST amount of latency? a. F1 b. dial-up c. satellite d. DSL

Explanation: Of the technologies listed, satellite has the most (or longest) latency. Latency is defined as the amount of delay a network can experience. Latency can be affected by distance, the number of routers between two hosts, and the amount of traffic on the network. None of the other technologies have latencies as high as satellite. Of the technologies listed, an F1 line has the lowest latency.

You are instructing new IT technicians on the reasons why a computer's complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) battery should be replaced. Which event is an early indication that you may need to replace it? a. Parity errors occur at startup. b. A hard disk on the computer fails. c. The computer's power supply fails. d. The computer's internal clock loses time at startup.

Explanation: Often, your earliest indication of a failing CMOS battery is loss of time at startup. You can monitor the accuracy of the computer's clock over several days to make this determination. After each startup, type the system command time at a command prompt, press Enter, and then compare the time value the computer displays to a known standard.

Which RAID level duplicates a partition on another physical disk, providing two identical copies of the data? a. Level 0 b. Level 1 c. Level 2 d. Level 3 e. Level 4 f. Level 5

Explanation: RAID Level 1, also known as disk mirroring, duplicates the original disk and this duplicate is placed on a separate disk, creating a "mirror." Disk mirroring requires two disks of equal size. It is simple to implement and offers fast recovery if a single disk fails. However, because disk mirroring requires the duplication of the initial partition, only 50% of the total available disk space is used. RAID Level 1 is less efficient when performing disk writes.

Which benefit does the Hyperthreading (HT) technology in a processor provide? a. reduces workload capacity b. allows the resources to sit idle c. uses virtual processors to perform multitasking d. uses two or more physical processors to function

Explanation: The Hyperthreading (HT) technology in a processor provides the benefit of using a virtual processor to perform multitasking. A processor with HT enabled uses a single processor to create another virtual processor to simultaneously perform multiple tasks. A computer with HT enabled will virtually have two processors running. One processor is physically present in the computer, and another processor is a virtual processor. The HT capability of a processor allows the processor to perform multiple tasks without causing any delay by keeping multiple processes waiting in queue.

Which built-in component of a processor prevents the processor from having to wait for code and data from the main memory? a. Level 1 (L1) cache b. Level 2 (L2) cache c. Address bus d. Front-side bus

Explanation: The Level 1 (L1) cache is always built into the processor and prevents the processor from waiting for code and data from the main memory. The modern PC processors use two levels of memory caches, named L1 and Level 2 (L2). L1 is a high-speed cache that runs at the same speed as the core. The L1 cache is very fast memory that holds some of the current working set of code and data built into the processor. Since system RAM is slower than CPU, the cache memory reduces system bottleneck. The L1 cache improves the performance of CPU by determining the data required by the processor and constantly retrieving that data from the main memory and fetching the data to the CPU so that the CPU does not have to wait. The front-side bus is also referred to as the processor bus, and is the pathway between the CPU and motherboard chipset. The front-side bus transfers data between the CPU and L2 memory cache.

You are explaining the significance of the wires running from a power supply. The Power Good signal sends power to the motherboard to indicate that the electrical power is sufficient, and can prevent the computer from booting. Which voltage is used by the Power Good signal? a. +3.3 b. -5 c. +5 d. -12 e. +12

Explanation: The Power Good signal is a +5 voltage sent over a specific wire in the connector. This wire sends power from the power supply to the motherboard. If the motherboard does not receive the signal, the computer will not boot. If this is occurring, the only solution is to replace the power supply. The +5 voltage provides power to the motherboard. It also provides power to older CD/DVD drives, hard drives, PCI cards, and Pentium III and earlier processors. The -5 voltage provides power to the ISA or AT bus adapter cards. The -12 voltage provides power to some older network adapters and serial ports. The +12 voltage provides power to newer CD/DVD drives, hard drives, and Pentium 4 and Athlon processors. A Molex connector is the power connector that is larger than the connector used for floppy diskette drives and is commonly used with PATA drives. A Berg connector is used with floppy disk drives.

Your computer has been operating without problems for some time, but on your most recent startup, nothing appears on the monitor screen. The lights for the keyboard, floppy drive, and hard disk flash at startup. Your computer has an American Megatrends, Inc. (AMI) BIOS program, and the computer generates one long beep followed by eight short beeps at startup. Which item is most likely to be defective? a. the hard disk b. the video card c. the floppy disk d. the central processing unit (CPU)

Explanation: The beep code generated by the power-on self-test (POST) in this situation indicates a missing or defective video card. First, you should reseat the video card. If you continue to receive the error, then you should replace the video card. If the card is internal to the computer's system board, then the system board may need replacement. AMI Flasher is a utility program that helps you to update your BIOS - the code that runs the first moment you boot your PC. It was created by AMI to support flashing AMI BIOS based data files.

Which component is always located on the CPU and accelerates the processing of instructions? a. the L1 cache b. the L2 cache c. the heat sink d. the address bus

Explanation: The central processing unit (CPU) uses cache memory to accelerate the processing of instructions and data. CPUs have contained cache memory as part of the chip architecture since the introduction of the 486; this cache memory is known as Level 1 (L1) cache, or internal cache. The amount of L1 cache is fixed because it is located on the processor itself. The L1 cache operates at the same speed as the processor. Some processors have two L1 caches; one cache stores instructions, and the other cache stores data.

You want to ensure that a computer has a 64-bit architecture and is able to fully utilize 64-bit computing. Which component is NOT important for this purpose? a. processor b. operating system c. memory d. device drivers

Explanation: The computer's memory is not important. A benefit of using 64-bit processors is that the maximum amount of RAM that can be used increased from four gigabytes to one terabyte (1,000 gigabytes). For a computer to provide a full 64-bit architecture, the computer must have a 64-bit processor installed. In addition, a 64-bit operating system and 64-bit device drivers must be used to ensure that the 64-bit processor is fully utilized. When the 64 designation is used in a processor name, it means that the processor provides a 64-bit register. 64-bit processors allow computers to use memory over 4 gigabytes (GB). To fully utilize a 64-bit architecture, all components need to support it. Otherwise, those components that do not support the 64-bit architecture will operate in 32-bit mode.

What is the purpose of configuring printer availability on the Advanced tab of a printer's Properties dialog box? a. It configures the orientation that is available. b. It configures the paper and print quality that is available. c. It configures the days and times that a printer is available. d. It configures the users to whom the printer is available.

Explanation: The purpose of configuring printer availability on the Advanced tab of a printer's Properties dialog box is to configure the days and times that a printer is available.

You have to interconnect a notebook computer and a cell phone. The notebook computer supports Bluetooth, USB, FireWire, and IEEE 1294 connections. However, you do not have any cables to connect the two devices and do not want to purchase any. What should you do? a. Enable USB technology on both the computer and the cell phone, and then connect the two. b. Enable Bluetooth technology on both the computer and the cell phone, and then connect the two. c. Enable FireWire technology on both the computer and the cell phone, and then connect the two. d. Enable IEEE 1284 technology on both the computer and the cell phone, and then connect the two.

Explanation: To interconnect a notebook and a cell phone, you should enable Bluetooth technology on both the computer and cell phone and then connect the two. Bluetooth wireless technology can be used to interconnect notebook computers and cell phones for data synchronization. Bluetooth technology is a built-in feature in notebook computers and cell phones. Bluetooth technology is also used to connect many wireless devices, such as cell phone headsets, tablet PCs, and printers. Bluetooth would create a personal area network (PAN).

You have recently been tasked with configuring several customers' computers. You must ensure that each computer receives the configuration that will best meet the individual customer's needs. Match the hardware configurations on the left to the correct computer on the right. PICTURE TABLE

Explanation: When designing computers, you need to install the hardware based on the role that the computer will perform. The computers given in the scenario should be configured as follows: CAD/CAM Workstation - Powerful processor, high-end video, maximum RAM Home Server - RAID array, Gigabit NIC. Home Theater PC - Surround-sound audio, TV tuner, HDMI output. Virtualization Workstation - Maximum RAM and CPU cores. Always fully analyze the role that the computer will be performing to determine the minimum hardware requirements.

You perform several hardware upgrades on a user's computer. You notice that the computer has an AMI BIOS. After completing the upgrades, you boot the computer. You hear seven short beeps. Which component should you check? a. video card b. memory c. CPU d. keyboard

Explanation: When you boot a computer with an AMI BIOS and hear seven short beeps, it is an indication that something is wrong with the CPU. Most likely, the CPU was not properly seated during the upgrade. When a system boots, the Power-On Self Test (POST) will check the devices for functionality. If a device fails during the POST, a series of beep codes will sound to indicate the problem. BIOS beep codes can usually be traced to four sources: memory, video, keyboard, or CPU. If you are unfamiliar with the particular beep code, you should consult the computer's maintenance manual or the Web site of the BIOS manufacturer. The codes that are used vary based on the manufacturer of the BIOS.

A user needs to connect to a wireless network. Which information must be provided to connect? a. access point (AP) b. Service Set Identifier (SSID) c. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) d. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)

Explanation: You must provide the service-set identifier (SSID) to a wireless device to enable it to connect to a wireless network. The SSID in a wireless network is the name of the network to which a wireless device connects. Only one SSID can be associated with an access point. When a wireless device sends data packets over a wireless network, each data packet contains a 32-character identifier that is used to identify the wireless network. The 32-character identifier is the SSID of the wireless network. Wireless networks are differentiated by SSID. By default, the SSID is broadcast. To provide better security, you should configure the wireless access point to NOT broadcast the SSID. The AP, WEP and WPA information does not need to be provided to a wireless device to enable the device to connect to a wireless network. An AP acts as a hub between the wireless devices and the local area network (LAN), which is typically a wired network. In most cases, a wireless device automatically detects an AP and connects to the AP and subsequently, to the wired network.

A user complains that his computer is taking a long time to boot. During the boot process, you observe that the hard drive activity light is staying on. You discover that the hard drive is nearing its maximum capacity. The computer contains a single 150-GB hard drive. What should you do? a. Add an identical hard drive, and configure a RAID-0 volume. b. Add an identical hard drive, and configure a RAID-1 volume. c. Add an identical hard drive, and configure a RAID-5 volume. d. Defragment the hard drive.

Explanation: You should add an identical hard drive and configure a RAID-0 volume. RAID 0 is disk striping. In this configuration, the two drives will appear as a single drive to the user. Data will be striped across the two drives. Anytime you experience long boot times and the hard drive activity light stays on during the boot, the most likely cause is that the hard drive is nearing its maximum capacity.

Denise has decided to start a workout regimen to improve her health. Her doctor recommends that she keep track of her workout regimen more efficiently. Which device(s) below would you recommend? (Choose all that apply.) a. smart watch b. fitness monitor c. smart glasses d. smartphone

Explanation: You should recommend a fitness monitor or smart watch. Fitness monitors are available in all shapes and sizes and can be worn on your wrist, ankle, or neck. They use a Bluetooth wireless connection to communicate with an application located on a computer or portable device, such as a laptop. Fitness monitors are designed to read body temperature, heart rates, sleep cycles, and blood pressure. They can also track the distance you run or walk, and sometimes your elevation changes. An example of a fitness monitor is shown in the following exhibit: Some people use their smart watches as fitness monitors. A special device installed inside the smart watch tracks their movement and records their activity levels. Pictured below are some of the popular devices categorized as wearables that are available as of 2015.

You administer a TCP/IP network. You want to enable the hosts on your network to be automatically configured with IP configurations, such as IP address, subnet mask and default gateway address. The IP configurations should be leased to the clients for a limited period. Which protocol should you use to accomplish this task? a. BOOTP b. DHCP c. HTTP d. IPP e. SMTP

Explanation: You should use Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) to automatically configure the hosts on your network with IP configurations. DHCP was designed to automatically configure frequently moved, fully boot-capable computers, such as laptop computers, with IP configurations. You can use DHCP to configure such IP settings as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address. Typically, DHCP information is leased to a client for a limited period. DHCP clients usually release DHCP information when they are shut down. When a DHCP client retrieves IP configurations from a DHCP server, the DHCP client does not necessarily have the same IP configurations that it was configured with on previous occasions. BOOTstrap Protocol (BOOTP) is a host configuration protocol that was designed before DHCP. BOOTP was designed to configure diskless workstations with IP configurations. BOOTP does not lease IP configuration as DHCP does. Instead, a BOOTP server permanently assigns IP configurations to a BOOTP client. When a BOOTP client is started, the BOOTP server always assigns the same IP configurations to the BOOTP client. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is used to transfer Web pages on a TCP/IP network. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to transfer e-mail messages on a TCP/IP network. Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is used to enable network printing through a TCP/IP network such as the Internet. HTTP, SMTP and IPP are not used to automatically configure hosts on a TCP/IP network with IP settings.

You are creating a crossover cable. You know that each end of the crossover cable must be configured differently. Which pins contain the Blue wire? Pin 3/Pin 1 Pin 6/Pin 2 Pin 4/Pin 4 Pin 5/Pin 5

Pin 4/Pin 4 Explanation: In a crossover cable, the Blue wire should be in Pin 4 at both ends of the cable. Basically, a crossover cable is wired for the 568A specification at one end and the 568B specification at the other end. The wiring scheme for a crossover cable is shown below: Pin 1 (End 1) - Orange/White Pin 1 (End 2) - Green/White Pin 2 (End 1) - Orange Pin 2 (End 2) - Green Pin 3 (End 1) - Green/White Pin 3 (End 2) - Orange/White Pin 4 (End 1) - Blue Pin 4 (End 2) - Blue Pin 5 (End 1) - Blue/White Pin 5 (End 2) - Blue/White Pin 6 (End 1) - Green Pin 6 (End 2) - Orange Pin 7 (End 1) - Brown/White Pin 7 (End 2) - Brown/White Pin 8 (End 1) - Brown Pin 8 (End 2) - Brown Communication over a crossover cable only occurs over Pin 1, 2, 3, and 6. A crossover cable is an OSI Physical layer (Layer 1) device.

After you start your computer, you hear an unusual, high-pitched noise. The source of the noise is the fan mounted inside the power supply. After a few minutes, the noise goes away. Which action should you take? a. Replace the fan assembly. b. Replace the power supply. c. Replace the bearings inside the fan motor. d. Lubricate the bearings inside the fan motor. e. Disable the power supply fan, and install a cooling fan card in an unoccupied PCI or ISA slot.

Replace the power supply. Explanation: The power supply is a field replaceable unit (FRU). When the fan in the power supply stops functioning normally, you should replace the entire power supply. The power supply, which has potentially lethal voltages, should be repaired only by properly trained technicians. Be sure to use a replacement unit of the same or greater wattage and with the same type of output connectors, because the system board connection for an AT or baby AT board is different from the connector for an ATX-style board. Also, check for any special features that the system board has. Some power supplies have a multi-speed fan that uses a special control cable connected to the system board. When the interior of the case reaches a certain temperature, the fan speed is increased to provide additional cooling. Otherwise, the fan runs at a slower, quieter speed. Under all circumstances, the computer should be disconnected from the electrical outlet before any repair work on the power supply is begun.

A user from the accounting department has contacted you regarding problems with a dot-matrix printer. When you examine the output from the printer, several letters have missing dots from the page. What should you do? Replace the print head. Replace the ribbon. Clean the print head. Print a test page.

Replace the print head. Explanation: You should replace the print head. Over time, the pins on the print head can become clogged or bent. It is best to replace the print head in this situation.

Multimeters have various settings to aid you in isolating problems. Which multimeter check is always performed with the power to the system turned off? a. Current check b. AC Voltage check c. Resistance check d. DC Voltage check e. Ripple Voltage check

Resistance check Explanation: Resistance and continuity checks are always performed with the system power off. Failure to remove the power while conducting these tests can result in damage to the multimeter and the technician performing the test. Resistance is measured in ohms, and is useful when checking fuses, cables, connections, and the system speaker.

Which statement is incorrect for routers? a. Routing occurs at OSI Layer 4, the Transport layer. b. Routers are used to forward data packets across networks. c. Routers are used to establish a connection between two local area networks (LANs) or wide area networks (WANs) or a LAN and its Internet Service Provider (ISP). d. Routers can use the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) protocol to communicate with other routers.

Routing occurs at OSI Layer 4, the Transport layer. Explanation: Routing does not occur at OSI Layer 4, the Transport layer. The Transport layer provides transfer of data between end systems or hosts. This layer is accountable for end-to-end error recovery and flow control. Routing occurs at the Network layer, also referred to as OSI Layer 3. The Network layer provides switching and routing technologies for transmitting data packets from one node to another.

A user reports that his computer is having trouble accessing the Ethernet network. You need to trace the network cable back to the central wiring closet. Which tool should you use? a wire crimper an optical tester a tone generator a network monitor a cable tester

a tone generator Explanation: You should use a tone generator to trace a network cable back to a central wiring closet. This is particularly helpful if the network cables are not labeled. A toner probe is another word for a tone generator.

With regards to RAM memory, which speed denotes the fastest memory? a. 7 ns b. 8 ns c. 10 ns d. 60 ns

a. 7 ns Explanation: Memory access speed is sometimes expressed in terms of access time. Access time measures, in nanoseconds (ns), the amount of time from when the memory module receives a data request to the time when that data becomes available. The smaller the number, the less time it takes to access data in the memory.

When your company issued you a laptop computer, you were also given a port replicator. Which statement best describes the function of this device? a. A port replicator connects a laptop to multiple peripherals. b. A port replicator connects a serial port to multiple modems. c. A port replicator connects a workstation to mirrored hard disks. d. A port replicator connects a backup server to multiple workstations.

a. A port replicator connects a laptop to multiple peripherals. Explanation: A port replicator provides standard ports for non-portable devices, such as a printer, monitor, and keyboard. A port replicator also provides a single, multiple-function input/output (I/O) connector to a portable computer. The portable computer thus requires only a single connection to have multiple device functionality. Although most portable computers have built-in ports for Video Graphics Array (VGA) output, a printer, a full-size keyboard and other devices, repeatedly attaching and detaching these devices individually is more time-consuming and subject to problems than the simplicity of the single connection to the port replicator. The computer may have a multiple-pin plug on the back end that mates with a similar plug on the port replicator, or the computer may attach to the port replicator through a PC card-cable connection. The following image shows a general diagram of a port replicator: A docking station is similar to a port replicator because it provides laptops with standard ports for peripheral devices. However, a docking station usually has enhanced features, such as expansion slots and bays for drives. A portable computer running Microsoft Windows 95 or later can be configured with both docked and undocked profiles. Then, at startup, the appropriate profile can be selected.

A user contacts you stating that he can no longer print to a network printer. While troubleshooting the issue, you suspect that the printer's IP address has changed and is causing the printing problems. What should you do to test your theory? a. Ping the printer from the user's computer. b. Run the ipconfig command on the user's computer. c. Pause the printer's print queue. d. Install the latest device drivers for the printer on the user's computer.

a. Ping the printer from the user's computer. Explanation: You should ping the printer from the user's computer. If successful, the message will display the new IP address for the printer. If the IP address has changed, the user will need to remap the printer to the current IP address. If you ping the printer's name and the ping is unsuccessful, the printer name may have changed or the printer may be offline. You should not run the ipconfig command on the user's computer. This will display the IP settings for the user's computer, but will not aid in troubleshooting the printing problem. You should not pause the printer's print queue. This will prevent all the print jobs from printing. You should not install the latest device drivers for the printer on the user's computer. This is the correct step only if the print that is received from the printer is garbled or if the computer is having trouble communicating with the printer and all other possible causes have been checked. A corrupt printer driver can cause unreadable printing. If you obtain the latest device drivers for any device and have trouble installing the drivers, you may need to install the drivers using an unrestricted user account, such as an administrative account. In some operating systems, only administrative accounts can install device drivers. Also, if a particular version of the device driver has trouble installing or causes computer problems, you should download and install the latest version of the device driver from the manufacturer's Web site.

A user has recently moved to the United States from the United Kingdom. He contacts you asking how to switch his desktop computer to the appropriate voltage. What should you tell him to do? a. Slide the power supply switch on the back of the computer to the appropriate voltage. b. Slide the switch on the motherboard to the appropriate voltage. c. Slide the switch on the inside of the power supply to the appropriate voltage. d. Replace the power supply.

a. Slide the power supply switch on the back of the computer to the appropriate voltage. Explanation: You should slide the power supply switch on the back of the computer to the appropriate voltage. Most power supplies include the ability to switch between 110 V and 220 V power.

Last year, your department replaced all of the desktop computers with laptops. Recently, your company adopted a new minimum standards policy that requires a memory upgrade for the majority of the new laptops. Which type(s) of memory could be installed in the new laptops? (Choose all that apply.) a. So-DIMM b. Micro-DIMM c. SIMMS d. DIMMS e. RIMMS f. CRIMMS

a. So-DIMM b. Micro-DIMM Explanation: You could install So-DIMMs or Micro-DIMMs. Small outline dual inline memory modules (So-DIMMs) are the compact versions of the dual inline memory modules (DIMMs). So-DIMMs are installed in laptops in empty banks that make programs run efficiently. Micro-DIMMS are the same as So-DIMMS except they are bulkier in size. They are installed the same way as So-DIMMs, but only fit certain form factors.

You use a computer named Wkst1 on a TCP/IP network, which is installed with an application that uses UDP to send a file from your computer to a computer named Wkst2. Data collisions occur, and several data packets are lost during transmission. What will most likely occur as a result of losing the packets during transmission? (Choose two.) a. The protocol will drop the packets. b. The application will drop the packets. c. The protocol will automatically retransmit the packets. d. The application will automatically retransmit the packets.

a. The protocol will drop the packets. d. The application will automatically retransmit the packets. Explanation: User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connectionless protocol; thus, it will drop the packets and it will not automatically retransmit them. Because an application is not typically responsible for transmitting data packets across a network, the application in this scenario cannot drop the packets. Instead, an application that uses UDP will usually detect that UDP has dropped packets, and the application will retransmit any dropped packets.

Which serial communication standards provide hot-swap capability? (Choose two.) a. USB b. PS/2 c. RS-232C d. IEEE 1394

a. USB d. IEEE 1394 Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) and Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 are serial bus standards that allow hot swapping of devices. The term hot swapping, which is also known as hot plugging, refers to the ability to add or remove a device from the bus while the computer is turned on and operational. Older bus standards do not support this feature. Indeed, removing or adding a device while the computer is running can damage the device or the computer. For example, the ATX motherboard has two adjacent PS/2 ports for the keyboard and mouse connectors. If these connectors are reversed, the computer will usually beep and show an error message during the POST routine. If you unplug and reinsert the connectors while the computer is still turned on, you can cause a power surge through a connector and damage the motherboard. A typical response to an error message associated with such a connector reversal would be to press F1, but because the keyboard is connected to the mouse port, pressing this function key will have no effect.

You are hired to train a group of new users to become technicians. One of your lessons is on how to construct CAT 5 and 6 Ethernet cables. To make sure they know the difference between a 568A and 568B cables, what are the two most important areas you would focus on during the training? a. Use the correct color scheme pattern for a T568A and T568B cable. b. T568A is called a crossover cable, and T568B is called a straight-through cable. c. T568B is called a crossover cable, and T568A is called a straight-through cable. d. Purchase 568B wiring cables only.

a. Use the correct color scheme pattern for a T568A and T568B cable. T568A is called a crossover cable, and T568B is called a straight-through cable. Explanation: You should instruct them on the proper color scheme or order. For T568B the correct order is: Orange/white orange, Green/white blue, Blue/white green, and Brown/white brown. For T568A, it switches the green, orange and blue wires with the correct order as follows: Green/white green, Orange/white blue, Blue/white orange, and Brown/white brown. You should also teach them that the T568A is called a crossover cable and primarily used for peer-to-peer networks. A T568B cable or a straight-through cable is used for directly connecting cables to a wall jack, which enables that node to communicate with several devices. Purchasing cable is not an option here as you are hired to teach them to make their own. While it is important that they know how to go about purchasing cable, it is most important that they be able to make it from raw materials. Most Ethernet cables are T568B but at the time T568A components need to be connected to a T568B component the crossover cable is recommended. The following exhibit shows the order of the cables for both specifications:

A department manager reports that one of her department's printer is printing fuzzy or low quality print. Which conditions contribute to this problem (Choose two.) a. damp paper b. high humidity c. too much paper in the paper tray d. a warped roller in the paper path e. iron particles in the paper fibers f. a problem with the charge wires or the drum

a. damp paper b. high humidity Explanation: When the print quality is fuzzy or unclear, it is probably the result of using paper that is damp. This is because during the fusing process the toner does not adhere (fuse) permanently to the paper, which has water mixing with the toner. You should also suspect damp paper if the print rubs off easily from the paper or if areas of printed characters are missing or extremely light (spot deletions).

Which components are parts of a laser printer? (Choose all that apply.) a. fuser b. ribbon c. platen d. main control board

a. fuser b. main control board Explanation: Main control boards (or system boards) and fusers (or fusing assemblies) are both laser printer components. A laser printer also contains an imaging drum, transfer belt, transfer roller, pickup rollers, separate pads, and duplexing assembly. Most laser printers have a main control board that includes a processor, a basic input/output system (BIOS), random access memory (RAM) and read-only (ROM) modules. The ROM modules contain printer languages and fonts. Sometimes the main control board on a laser printer is referred to as its interface controller or as printer controller circuitry. This board is functionally similar to the system board on a personal computer.

Which TCP/IP configuration information must a computer on a network have before it can communicate with the Internet? (Choose three.) a. public key b. subnet mask c. TCP/IP address d. default gateway e. FTP server address f. proxy server address g. MAC address of router

a. public key b. subnet mask c. TCP/IP address Explanation: Before any computer on a network can communicate with the Internet, it will need an IP address, a default gateway, and a subnet mask. You can supply this information manually (often referred to as a static IP address), or you can use a DCHP server to supply this information automatically (often referred to as a dynamic IP address). If a computer is configured to obtain an IP address automatically, it will contact a DHCP for all client-side DHCP information.

You administer computers on a Microsoft Windows 2003 TCP/IP network. On the network, you want to use a domain name-to-Internet Protocol (IP) address name resolution system that provides a central database on a server to resolve domain names to IP addresses. Which options should you implement on your network? a. the Domain Name System (DNS) b. the HOSTS file c. LMHOSTS file d. the Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)

a. the Domain Name System (DNS) Explanation: Of the choices presented, you should use Domain Name System (DNS) for domain name-to-IP address resolution on the network that you administer. DNS provides a centralized database of domain name-to-IP address resolutions on a server or servers that other computers on a network can use for name resolution. On a TCP/IP network that uses DNS, only the database files on the DNS servers must be updated to reflect changes that are made to domain name-to-IP address resolutions.

Which device is also known as a base station? a. hub b. switch c. repeater d. access point

access point Explanation: An access point (AP) is also known as a base station. An AP is used to connect a wireless network to a wired network. An AP translates wireless signals received from a wireless network to signals that are deciphered by a wired network. Each AP that is configured for a wireless network has a specified range. If wireless devices are within the range and have appropriate access to the wired network, these wireless devices will be able to connect to the wired network. Sometimes APs are simply used to grant wireless devices access to the Internet.

What is the minimum category of UTP cable used with 10BaseT? a. Category 2 b. Category 3 c. Category 5 d. Category 5e e. Category 6

b. Category 3 Explanation: 10BaseT requires a minimum of Category 3 cable. Category 3 cable is acceptable for 10-Mbps transmissions but has largely been phased out in favor of the newer Category 5e and Category 6 standards. These newer cables are rated for much faster speeds (1000 Mbps) and provide backwards compatibility with the older, and much slower 10-Mbps standards. Most cable suppliers no longer manufacture Category 3 cable. Category 2 cable is not suitable for 10-Mbps transmissions. It only supports speeds of up to 4 Mbps. Category 5 is suitable for transmissions of up to 100 Mbps. It has been phased out in favor of Category 5e and Category 6, which support speeds of up to 1000 Mbps. While Category 5e supports speeds of up to 1000 Mbps, Category 6 is recommend for best results.

Which component on an Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboard supports communication between the central processing unit (CPU) and random access memory (RAM)? a. Southbridge chip b. Northbridge chip c. Advanced Technology Attachment (ATA) interface d. firmware

b. Northbridge chip Explanation: The Northbridge chip (also referred to as the north bridge) supports communication between the RAM and the CPU. It also supports the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) bus, the Level2 cache, and the Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) port. It provides communication to higher speed devices than the south bridge chip. The Southbridge chip (also referred to as the south bridge) supports slower devices, such as expansion slots, Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) drives, Parallel ATA drives, and USB ports. It handles all input/output (I/O) functions. The ATA interface is used to connect storage devices to the motherboard, such as CD-ROM drives and hard disks. Firmware is a software program that stores a set of programming instructions in read-only memory to control the desired device functionality.

You need to configure a removable storage device so that the device can be removed without using the Safely Remove Hardware application. What should you do? a. Enable write caching on the disk b. Optimize for quick removal c. Optimize for performance d. Adjust for best performance

b. Optimize for quick removal Explanation: When you remove a hot-pluggable device from a running computer without using the Safely Remove Hardware application, it is referred to as a surprise removal because the operating system is not notified of the removal in advance. You should not remove external storage devices on which write caching is enabled because it might cause data loss or corruption. To prevent data loss or corruption while removing an external storage device from a computer, you should configure the Optimize for quick removal option for the storage device. This option disables write caching on the storage device and in Windows. To configure this option, open Device Manager and click the Policies tab on the property sheet for the removable storage device. Selecting the Optimize for quick removal option allows you to remove the device without using the Safely Remove Hardware application.

You want to upgrade the memory on a laptop. You unplug the AC adapter and remove the battery. What should you do next? a. Remove the memory. b. Put on an anti-static wrist strap. c. Remove the CMOS battery. d. Disconnect the power supply from the motherboard.

b. Put on an anti-static wrist strap. Explanation: You should put on an anti-static wrist strap after unplugging the AC adapter and removing the battery from the laptop. You should take this precaution while servicing or upgrading a computer system to prevent damage of sensitive computer components. Computer memory is extremely sensitive to static electricity. Therefore, you should always ground yourself before handling and installing the memory. You can wear an anti-static wrist strap to ground yourself. If you do not have an anti-static wrist strap, you can ground yourself by installing memory on an uncarpeted surface and by touching an unpainted metal part of your laptop.

You have begun the process of replacing the CPU in your computer. You must ensure that the motherboard recognizes the new CPU. What should you do first? a. Update the driver. b. Update the firmware. c. Access the motherboard vendor's Web site to find out if the CPU is compatible with the motherboard. d. Contact the motherboard vendor to inquire about compatibility.

b. Update the firmware. Explanation: You should update the motherboard's firmware to ensure that the motherboard recognizes the new CPU.

When Kevin was hired, he inherited a box of different types of RAM. Which RAM would you ask him to set aside if you needed to increase the number of data wires available from 64 to 128? a. single channel b. dual channel c. single-sided d. double-sided

b. dual channel Explanation: The dual-channel memory architecture increases the number of data wires available from 64 to 128. The triple-channel memory architecture increases the number of data wires to 192. The quad-channel memory architecture increases the number of data wires to 256. Single channel architecture has 64 wires. Single-sided RAM has chips on one side of the RAM. Double-sided RAM has chips on both sides of the RAM

You are providing a training class for several new salesmen who have been issues a laptop computer. As part of this training, you must ensure that you instruct them on the proper use of the Function key on their laptops. Which of the following features CANNOT be controlled using that key? a. mute speaker volume b. mute microphone volume c. increase speaker volume d. decrease speaker volume

b. mute microphone volume Explanation: You CANNOT mute the microphone volume. The Function keys that relate to volume control in a laptop only affect the volume of the speakers.

You have decided to enable overclocking to increase the performance of a computer. On which computer components can you specifically enable overclocking? (Choose all that apply.) a. motherboard b. processor c. system bus d. RAM c. hard drive

b. processor c. system bus Explanation: You can specifically overclock the processor and system bus. Overclocking allows you to run the processor or system bus at a higher speed than the manufacturer's rating to gain increased performance.

A user complains that the pointer movement on his laptop computer is very erratic. What should you do? a, Reboot the computer. b. Calibrate the touch screen. c. Adjust the touchpad sensitivity. d. Attach an external mouse to the laptop.

c. Adjust the touchpad sensitivity. Explanation: You should first try to adjust the touchpad sensitivity. Often adjusting the sensitivity of the touchpad can reduce erratic behavior, including random mouse movement. If that does not work, you should clean the touchpad. If that still does not resolve the issue, you should try removing and reinstalling the touchpad drivers. If the issue still remains, the touchpad needs to be replaced. A touchpad is often referred to as a Human Interface Device in Device Manager.

Your printer is printing fuzzy text with white lines running through it. You need to clean the clogged print head of your inkjet printer. Which two activities can you undertake to immediately clean the clogged print head? (Choose two.) a. Replace the platen. b. Replace the nozzle. c. Power the inkjet printer off and then on. d. Replace the ink cartridge with a new ink cartridge. e. Run the printer management utility provided with the printer.

c. Power the inkjet printer off and then on. e. Run the printer management utility provided with the printer. Explanation: When your printer is printing fuzzy text with white lines, you should clean the clogged print head. To clean the clogged print head, run the printer management utility that is provided to you by the manufacturer along with the printer. If the printer management utility fails to clean the clogged print head, you should power the inkjet printer off and then on. When you do this, the nozzle is flushed. This further cleans the clogged print head.

What occurs during the cleaning phase of laser printing? a. The laser writes an image on the imaging drum. b. The transfer corona applies a positive charge to the paper. c. The discharge lamp neutralizes the imaging drum. d. The primary corona wire applies a uniform charge on the imaging drum.

c. The discharge lamp neutralizes the imaging drum. Explanation: The discharge lamp neutralizes the photoreceptor in the cleaning stage of the laser printing process.

Which characteristic distinguishes IEEE 1394 from USB 2.0? a. USB supports hot swapping. b. IEEE 1394 supports hot swapping. c. USB supports more devices on a single bus. d. IEEE 1394 supports more devices on a single bus.

c. USB supports more devices on a single bus. Explanation: The Universal Serial Bus (USB) 2.0 standard supports up to 127 devices on a single bus, whereas the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 standard supports up to 63 devices on a single bus. The USB 2.0 standard allows data transfer rates of up to 480 megabits per second (Mbps) and the IEEE 1394 standard allows data transfer rates of 400 Mbps. A newer version of this standard, known as IEEE 1394b, allows data transfer rates of 800 Mbps. For comparison, a standard RS-232C serial interface, such as would be used by a dial-up modem, supports a maximum data transfer rates of only 115 kilobits per second (Kbps). The IEEE 1394 and USB standards provide support for hot swapping, which allows users to add and remove devices, and use newly attached devices immediately, without needing to restart their computers. Plug and Play (PnP) operating systems can interact with both buses. When devices are attached to a USB or IEEE 1394 bus, a PnP operating system should recognize those devices and make them available immediately. If the device is new, the operating system will automatically attempt to install a driver without user intervention; if no driver is found, the user will be prompted for a driver file location.

Which processor technology contains two processor cores in a single processor package and provides all of the advantages of a multi-processor computer? a. Hyper-Threading technology b. CPU throttle technology c. dual-core technology d. MMX technology e. i5 technology

c. dual-core technology Explanation: Dual-core technology contains two processor cores in a single processor package and provides almost of all the advantages of a multi-processor computer. The dual-core technology was introduced by both AMD and Intel in 2005. Dual-core processors are 32-bit processors that can run in 64-bit mode. The dual-core technology is different from Hyper-Threading (HT) technology because HT technology does not contain two processor cores in a single processor package. CPU throttling is a feature that protects a CPU from heat damage. MMX technology was introduced in the fifth-generation Pentium processors to improve video compression/decompression, image manipulation, encryption, and I/O processing. Quad-core technology resembles dual-core technology except quad-core technology has four integrated processing units instead of two. Multi-core technology is similar to quad-core and dual-core, but offers a varying number of cores. All of these technologies are designed for multi-threaded applications. The newer quad core, i5, and i7 CPUs greatly surpass the on-screen delivery methods of the previous dual-core technology, and are preferred for gaming computers. The reason a quad core and above is faster than a dual core is due to its ability to utiliize a single CPU out of the four cores available.

You notice that the pages coming out of your laser printer have toner that you can brush off. Which printer component is MOST likely causing the problem? a. toner cartridge b. pickup roller c. fuser assembly d. photoreceptor

c. fuser assembly Explanation: If the pages coming out of your laser printer have extra toner that you can brush off, the fuser assembly printer component is most likely creating the problem. The fuser assembly printer component holds two rollers that get heated to a high temperature to bind the dry toner ink to the paper fabric. When the printed pages carry extra toner that you can rub off, it usually indicates that the fuser roller is not getting heated enough to melt the dry toner particles properly and fuse the toner ink with the paper fibers.

Your company has a wireless network for its small office network. The wireless network does not broadcast its Service Set ID (SSID). You configure a user's Windows Vista computer to connect to the wireless network by manually setting the SSID. You need to ensure that the user's computer does not send probe requests to discover if the wireless network is in range. What should you do? a. Ensure the Connect automatically when this network is in range option on the Connections tab of the wireless connection is selected. b. Ensure the Connect even if the network is not broadcasting option on the Connections tab of the wireless connection is selected. c. Ensure the Connect automatically when this network is in range option on the Connections tab of the wireless connection is cleared. d. Ensure the Connect even if the network is not broadcasting option on the Connections tab of the wireless connection is cleared.

d. Ensure the Connect even if the network is not broadcasting option on the Connections tab of the wireless connection is cleared. Explanation: You should ensure the Connect even if the network is not broadcasting option on the Connections tab of the wireless connection is cleared. If this option is enabled, probe requests are sent to discover if a non-broadcast network is in range. You should not change the configuration of the Connect automatically when this network is in range option. This option ensures that the connection is re-established when the wireless network is detected.

During which stage of the laser printing process is the toner permanently bonded to the paper? a. fusing b. exposing c. cleaning d. developing e. transferring f. charging Processing Charging Exposing Developing Transfering Fusing Cleaning

fusing Explanation: The toner permanently bonds to the paper during the fusing stage. The following are the seven stages of the laser printer operation: Processing - The computer sends the printed document to the printer spooler. The printer spooler contacts the printer. The printer processes the image. Charging - The charge corona (also referred to as the primary corona) applies a uniform charge (typically negative) to the imaging drum. This creates a "blank slate" to which the laser will write. Exposing - The modulated laser beam writes an electrostatic image on the rotating drum. Any areas on the imaging drum that the laser beam touches lose most of their electrostatic charge. This differential in electrostatic charge between the areas of the drum that have been written to and the remainder of the drum allows the image to attract toner in the next phase. Developing - Toner is transferred from the toner cartridge to the imaging drum. The toner cartridge has a metallic roller called a developing cylinder that takes on a charge equal to the imaging drum. The toner sticks to the developing cylinder, and as it rotates toward the paper a "toner fog" is created as the toner is both attracted to and repelled from the imaging drum. The toner is repelled from areas that were not touched by the laser because they have the same electrostatic charge as the toner and it is attracted to the areas on the drum that were touched by the laser because of the difference in the electrostatic charges. This creates an image that is ready to be transferred to a piece of paper. Transferring - The transfer corona charges the paper so that the toner on the imaging drum is attracted to the paper as the drum rotates and the paper and drum come into very close proximity. A corona discharges the electrostatic charge on the paper immediately after the toner transfers from the imaging drum to the paper, preventing the paper from sticking to the drum. Transfer rollers move the paper through the transferring process. Fusing - The final step permanently bonds the toner to the paper. A fusing roller, heated by a quartz lamp, melts the toner to the paper and the paper exits the printer. Cleaning - A rubber cleaning blade removes any toner left on the imaging drum and deposits it into a waste bin, and a discharge lamp neutralizes the charge on the drum.

Which transmission mode is used in 802.11 WLANs? a. mixed mode b. simplex mode c. full-duplex mode d. half-duplex mode .

half-duplex mode Explanation: In 802.11 Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs), the data transmission mode is half-duplex. In half-duplex mode, a single communication channel is used for both transmitting and receiving. Because a single channel is used for both sending and receiving traffic, data can travel only one direction at a time. If you have more than one wireless access point in close proximity, you should ensure that each access point uses a different wireless channel to ensure that connection problems do not occur.

Which two system components should you check to avoid CPU overheating? (Choose two.) a. heat sink b. CPU fan c. motherboard d. power supply unit e. RAM

heat sink CPU fan Explanation: You should check the heat sink and the CPU fan to avoid CPU overheating. A heat sink conducts heat away from the CPU. It is firmly attached to the top of the CPU to absorb heat. The heat sink and fan attached on the CPU must match the CPU specifications.

You are using the ipconfig tool to troubleshoot a problem with a wireless host. The results are as follows: Adapter address: 00-10-4B-DE-F5-D8 IP address: 192.168.1.40 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 0.0.0.0 You can access services on the local network from the host, but you cannot access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem? incorrect IP address missing default gateway incorrect subnet mask invalid Ethernet adapter

missing default gateway Explanation: A default gateway must be specified for a host for it to connect to hosts outside the local network. This address is the address of the router interface on the local segment that forwards data to other networks. On small networks, the default gateway is the address of the router that connects the local network to the Internet.

Which Internet connection has a line-of-sight requirement? a. dial-up b. DSL c. cable d. satellite

satellite Explanation: A satellite connection has a line-of-sight requirement between the dish and the satellite. Satellite Internet connections are popular in rural areas where other high-speed Internet connections are not available. Wireless internet service usually has a line-of-sight requirement.

Kathleen wants to configure her iPhone so that her iPad can wirelessly use the iPhone's Internet connection. Which feature should she use? a. infrared b. Bluetooth c. USB d. tethering

tethering Explanation: Kathleen should use tethering to configure her iPhone so that her iPad can use the iPhone's Internet connection. For Kathleen to successfully connect her iPad to her iPhone, she needs to go into the settings on her iPhone and enable the Personal Hotspot feature in Settings. Then she will need to go to her iPad, enable Wi-Fi, choose the iPhone name as the network, and enter the password. Please keep in mind that using Hotspot tethering could cause her iPhone battery to run down faster.

Which key should you use on a laptop in combination with special functionality keys to perform tasks such as toggling the display or adjusting the display brightness? a. the Ctrl key b. the Fn key c. the Shift key d. the Alt key

the Fn key Explanation: You should use the Fn key on a laptop in combination with special functionality keys. Almost every laptop allows you to bypass the operating system menu to perform some functions, such as toggling screen displays, increasing or decreasing screen brightness, and putting the computer in the Standby mode, by pressing a combination of keys. These keys are referred to as special functionality keys. The laptops that allow you to perform these special functions also contain a key named Fn that is used to activate and deactivate special functionality keys. The Fn key and the special function keys on a laptop are typically marked in blue. To enable the function keys that marked in blue, you should press the Fn key and a particular special function key that you want to enable or activate. When the Fn key is not pressed, the special functionality keys act like normal character keys.

Your 100BaseT network uses the TCP/IP protocol suite exclusively, and workstations on your network obtain addresses dynamically from a server. From your computer, you can contact all servers and workstations on your own network segment, but you are unable to gain access to network resources on other segments. Which factors should you investigate? (Choose two.) the routers the frame types the default gateway IP address conflicts

the routers the default gateway Explanation: If your computer is assigned the wrong default gateway, then your computer will still be able to communicate with other computers that are on the same network segment. However, you will be unable to communicate with computers on other network segments because a default gateway provides access to resources on other segments. The default gateway is the IP address of the router that passes data between your network segment and the other segments-