UNIT 3--ADV MED-SURG
When taking the blood pressure (BP) on the right arm of a patient who has severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasms of the patient's right hand. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient about any arm pain. b. Retake the patient's blood pressure. c. Check the calcium level in the chart. d. Notify the health care provider immediately
ANS: C The patient with acute pancreatitis is at risk for hypocalcemia, and the assessment data indicate a positive Trousseau's sign. The health care provider should be notified after the nurse checks the patient's calcium level. There is no indication that the patient needs to have the BP rechecked or that there is any arm pain.
A patient who has type 2 diabetes is scheduled for an oral endoscopy and has been NPO (nothing by mouth) since midnight. What is the best action by the nurse regarding the administration of her oral antidiabetic drugs? a. Administer half the original dose. b. Withhold all medications as ordered. c. Contact the prescriber for further orders. d. Give the medication with a sip of water.
ANS: C When the diabetic patient is NPO, the prescriber needs to be contacted for further orders regarding the administration of the oral antidiabetic drugs. The other options are incorrect.
When teaching a patient who is starting metformin (Glucophage), which instruction by the nurse is correct? a. "Take metformin if your blood glucose level is above 150 mg/dL." b. "Take this 60 minutes after breakfast." c. "Take the medication on an empty stomach 1 hour before meals." d. "Take the medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal (GI) effects."
ANS: D The GI adverse effects of metformin can be reduced by administering it with meals. The other options are incorrect.
A patient who has cirrhosis and esophageal varices is being treated with propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator to the nurse that the medication has been effective? a. The patient reports no chest pain. b. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. c. Stools test negative for occult blood. d. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/min.
ANS: C Because the purpose of beta-blocker therapy for patients with esophageal varices is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices, the best indicator of the effectiveness for propranolol is the lack of blood in the stools. Although propranolol is used to treat hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, the purpose for use in this patient is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices.
A patient born in 1955 had hepatitis A infection 1 year ago. According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which action should the nurse include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical examination? a. Start the hepatitis B immunization series. b. Teach the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin. c. Ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C. d. Test for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM).
ANS: C Current CDC guidelines indicate that all patients who were born between 1945 and 1965 should be screened for hepatitis C because many persons who are positive have not been diagnosed. Although routine hepatitis B immunization is recommended for infants, children, and adolescents, vaccination for hepatitis B is recommended only for adults at risk for blood-borne infections. Because the patient has already had hepatitis A, immunization, and anti-HAV IgM levels will not be needed.
Which statement by a nurse to a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes is accurate? a. Insulin is not used to control blood glucose in patients with type 2 diabetes. b. Complications of type 2 diabetes are less serious than those of type 1 diabetes. c. Changes in diet and exercise may control blood glucose levels in type 2 diabetes. d. Type 2 diabetes is usually diagnosed when a patient is admitted in hyperglycemic coma.
ANS: C For some patients with type 2 diabetes, changes in lifestyle are sufficient to achieve blood glucose control. Insulin is frequently used for type 2 diabetes, complications are equally severe as for type 1 diabetes, and type 2 diabetes is usually diagnosed with routine laboratory testing or after a patient develops complications such as frequent yeast infections.
During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first? a. A 58-yr-old patient who has compensated cirrhosis and reports anorexia b. A 40-yr-old patient with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain c. A 55-yr-old patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102° F (38.8° C) d. A 36-yr-old patient recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain
ANS: C This patient's history and fever suggest possible spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, which would require rapid assessment and interventions such as antibiotic therapy. The clinical manifestations for the other patients are consistent with their diagnoses and do not indicate complications are occurring.
A young adult contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. What should the nurse expect serologic testing to reveal during the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness? a. Antibody to hepatitis D (anti-HDV) b. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) c. Anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG) d. Anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM)
ANS: D Hepatitis A is transmitted through the oral-fecal route, and antibody to HAV IgM appears during the acute phase of hepatitis A. The patient would not have antigen for hepatitis B or antibody for hepatitis D. Anti-HAV IgG would indicate past infection and lifelong immunity.
The nurse is teaching a group of patients about self-administration of insulin. What content is important to include? a. Patients need to use the injection site that is the most accessible. b. If two different insulins are ordered, they need to be given in separate injections. c. When mixing insulins, the cloudy (such as NPH) insulin is drawn up into the syringe first. d. When mixing insulins, the clear (such as regular) insulin is drawn up into the syringe first.
ANS: D If mixing insulins in one syringe, the clear (regular) insulin is always drawn up into the syringe first. Patients always need to rotate injection sites. Mixing of insulins may be ordered.
The nurse has been teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes about managing blood glucose levels and taking glipizide (Glucotrol). Which patient statement indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "If I overeat at a meal, I will still take the usual dose of medication." b. "Other medications besides the Glucotrol may affect my blood sugar." c. "When I am ill, I may have to take insulin to control my blood sugar." d. "My diabetes won't cause complications because I don't need insulin."
ANS: D The patient should understand that type 2 diabetes places the patient at risk for many complications and that good glucose control is as important when taking oral agents as when using insulin. The other statements are accurate and indicate good understanding of the use of glipizide.
Which action will be included in the care for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)? a. Teach symptoms of variceal bleeding. b. Draw blood for hepatitis serology testing. c. Discuss the need to increase caloric intake. d. Review the patient's current medication list.
ANS: D Some medications can increase the risk for NAFLD, and they should be discontinued. NAFLD is not associated with hepatitis, weight loss is usually indicated, and variceal bleeding would not be a concern in a patient with asymptomatic NAFLD.
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take? a. Withhold both drugs. b. Administer both drugs. c. Administer the furosemide. d. Administer the spironolactone.
ANS: D Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and will help increase the patient's potassium level. The furosemide will further decrease the patient's potassium level and should be held until the nurse talks with the health care provider.
Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective? a. Increased serum albumin level b. Decreased indirect bilirubin level c. Improved alertness and orientation d. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices
ANS: D TIPS is used to lower pressure in the portal venous system and decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. Indirect bilirubin level and serum albumin levels are not affected by shunting procedures. TIPS will increase the risk for hepatic encephalopathy.
Which finding indicates a need to contact the health care provider before the nurse administers metformin (Glucophage)? a. The patient's blood glucose level is 174 mg/dL. b. The patient is scheduled for a chest x-ray in an hour. c. The patient has gained 2 lb (0.9 kg) in the past 24 hours. d. The patient's estimated glomerular filtration rate is 42 mL/min.
ANS: D The glomerular filtration rate indicates possible renal impairment, and metformin should not be used in patients with significant renal impairment. The other findings are not contraindications to the use of metformin.
A nurse is considering which patient to admit to the same room as a patient who is hospitalized with acute rejection 3 weeks after a liver transplant. Which patient would be the best choice? a. Patient who is receiving chemotherapy for liver cancer b. Patient who is receiving treatment for acute hepatitis C c. Patient who has a wound infection after cholecystectomy d. Patient who requires pain management for chronic pancreatitis
ANS: D The patient with chronic pancreatitis does not present an infection risk to the immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant. The other patients either are at risk for infection or currently have an infection, which will place the immunosuppressed patient at risk for infection.
The nurse is preparing to teach a 43-yr-old man who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes about home management of the disease. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the patient's perception of what it means to have diabetes. b. Ask the patient's family to participate in the diabetes education program. c. Demonstrate how to check glucose using capillary blood glucose monitoring. d. Discuss the need for the patient to actively participate in diabetes management.
ANS: A Before planning teaching, the nurse should assess the patient's interest in and ability to self-manage the diabetes. After assessing the patient, the other nursing actions may be appropriate, but planning needs to be specific to each patient.
The nurse administering alpha-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol) to a patient with chronic hepatitis C will plan to monitor for: a. leukopenia. b. hypokalemia. c. polycythemia. d. hypoglycemia.
ANS: A Therapy with ribavirin and alpha-interferon may cause leukopenia. The other problems are not associated with this drug therapy.
What should the nurse teach a patient with chronic pancreatitis is the time to take the prescribed pancrelipase (Viokase)? a. Bedtime b. Mealtime c. When nauseated d. For abdominal pain
ANS: B Pancreatic enzymes are used to help with digestion of nutrients and should be taken with every meal.
The nurse knows to administer acarbose (Precose), an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, at which time? a. 30 minutes before breakfast b. With the first bite of each main meal c. 30 minutes after breakfast d. Once daily at bedtime
ANS: B When an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor is taken with the first bite of a meal, excessive postprandial blood glucose elevation (a glucose spike) can be reduced or prevented.
A patient who has diabetes and reports burning foot pain at night receives a new prescription. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about amitriptyline? a. Amitriptyline decreases the depression caused by your foot pain. b. Amitriptyline helps prevent transmission of pain impulses to the brain. c. Amitriptyline corrects some of the blood vessel changes that cause pain. d. Amitriptyline improves sleep and makes you less aware of nighttime pain.
ANS: B Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) decrease the transmission of pain impulses to the spinal cord and brain. TCAs also improve sleep quality and are used for depression, but that is not the major purpose for their use in diabetic neuropathy. TCAs do not affect the blood vessel changes that contribute to neuropathy.
Which assessment finding would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider regarding a patient who has acute pancreatitis? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Hypotonic bowel sounds c. Muscle twitching and finger numbness d. Upper abdominal tenderness and guarding
ANS: C Muscle twitching and finger numbness indicate hypocalcemia, which may lead to tetany unless calcium gluconate is administered. Although the other findings should also be reported to the health care provider, they do not indicate complications that require rapid action.
When monitoring a patient's response to oral antidiabetic drugs, the nurse knows that which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic response? a. Random blood glucose level 180 mg/dL b. Blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL after meals c. Fasting blood glucose level between 92 mg/dL d. Evening blood glucose level below 80 mg/dL
ANS: C The American Diabetes Association recommends a fasting blood glucose level of between 80 and 130 mg/dL for diabetic patients. The other options are incorrect.
The insulin order reads, "Check blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime. For every 5 mg/dL over 150, give 1 unit of regular Humulin insulin, subcutaneously." The patient's blood glucose level at 11:30 ., before lunch, was 233 mg/dL. In units, identify how much insulin will the nurse give. _______
16 units 233 mg/dL is 83 mg/dL than 150 mg/dL (233-150) 83/5 units = 16.6 units You can't give 0.6 of a unit, so the answer is 16 units.
A patient receives aspart (NovoLog) insulin at 8:00 AM. At which time would the nurse anticipate the highest risk for hypoglycemia? a. 10:00 AM b. 12:00 AM c. 2:00 PM d. 4:00 PM
ANS: A The rapid-acting insulins peak in 1 to 3 hours. The patient is not at a high risk for hypoglycemia at the other listed times, although hypoglycemia may occur.
After an unimmunized person is exposed to hepatitis B through a needle-stick injury, which actions will the nurse plan to take? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer hepatitis B vaccine. b. Test for antibodies to hepatitis B. c. Teach about alpha-interferon therapy. d. Give hepatitis B immune globulin. e. Explain options for oral antiviral therapy.
ANS: A, B, D The recommendations for hepatitis B exposure include both vaccination and immune globulin administration. In addition, baseline testing for hepatitis B antibodies will be needed. Interferon and oral antivirals are not used for hepatitis B prophylaxis.
A 28-yr-old male patient with type 1 diabetes reports how he manages his exercise and glucose control. Which behavior indicates that the nurse should implement additional teaching? a. The patient always carries hard candies when engaging in exercise. b. The patient goes for a vigorous walk when his glucose is 200 mg/dL. c. The patient has a peanut butter sandwich before going for a bicycle ride. d. The patient increases daily exercise when ketones are present in the urine.
ANS: D When the patient is ketotic, exercise may result in an increase in blood glucose level. Patients with type 1 diabetes should be taught to avoid exercise when ketosis is present. The other statements are correct.
The nurse is caring for a patient with pancreatic cancer. Which nursing action is the highest priority? a. Offer psychologic support for depression. b. Offer high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices. c. Administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed. d. Teach about the need to avoid scratching any pruritic areas
ANS: C Effective pain management will be necessary in order for the patient to improve nutrition, be receptive to teaching, or manage anxiety or depression.
A patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). What should the nurse plan to teach the patient? a. Self-monitoring of blood glucose b. Using low doses of regular insulin c. Lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose d. Effects of oral hypoglycemic medications
ANS: C The patient's impaired fasting glucose indicates prediabetes, and the patient should be counseled about lifestyle changes to prevent the development of type 2 diabetes. The patient with prediabetes does not require insulin or oral hypoglycemics for glucose control and does not need to self-monitor blood glucose.
The nurse recognizes that teaching a patient following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy has been effective when the patient makes which statement? a. "I can take a shower and walk around the house tomorrow." b. "I need to limit my activities and not return to work for 4 weeks." c. "I can expect yellowish drainage from the incision for a few days." d. "I will follow a low-fat diet for life because I do not have a gallbladder."
ANS: A After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, patients are discharged the same (or next) day and have few restrictions on activities of daily living. Drainage from the incisions would be abnormal, and the patient should be instructed to call the health care provider if this occurs. A low-fat diet may be recommended for a few weeks after surgery but will not be a lifelong requirement.
The nurse is teaching a group of patients about management of diabetes. Which statement about basal dosing is correct? a. "Basal dosing delivers a constant dose of insulin." b. "With basal dosing, you can eat what you want and then give yourself a dose of insulin." c. "Glargine insulin is given as a bolus with meals." d. "Basal-bolus dosing is the traditional method of managing blood glucose levels."
ANS: A Basal-bolus therapy is the attempt to mimic a healthy pancreas by delivering basal insulin constantly as a basal, and then as needed as a bolus. Glargine insulin is used as a basal dose, not as a bolus with meals. Basal-bolus therapy is a newer therapy; historically, sliding-scale coverage was implemented.
A 75-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has recently been placed on glipizide (Glucotrol), 10 mg daily. She asks the nurse when the best time would be to take this medication. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Take this medication in the morning, 30 minutes before breakfast." b. "Take this medication in the evening with a snack." c. "This medication needs to be taken after the midday meal." d. "It does not matter what time of day you take this medication."
ANS: A Glipizide is taken in the morning, 30 minutes before breakfast. When taken at this time, it has a longer duration of action, causing a constant amount of insulin to be released. This may be beneficial in controlling blood glucose levels throughout the day.
Which laboratory test result will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a patient who has acute pancreatitis? a. Lipase b. Calcium c. Bilirubin d. Potassium
ANS: A Lipase is elevated in acute pancreatitis. Although changes in the other values may occur, they would not be useful in evaluating whether the prescribed therapies have been effective
The nurse is administering insulin lispro (Humalog) and will keep in mind that this insulin will start to have an effect within which time frame? a. 15 minutes b. 1 to 2 hours c. 80 minutes d. 3 to 5 hours
ANS: A The onset of action for insulin lispro is 15 minutes. The peak plasma concentration is 1 to 2 hours; the elimination half-life is 80 minutes; and the duration of action is 3 to 5 hours.
Which question during the assessment of a patient who has diabetes will help the nurse identify autonomic neuropathy? a. "Do you feel bloated after eating?" b. "Have you seen any skin changes?" c. "Do you need to increase your insulin dosage when you are stressed?" d. "Have you noticed any painful new ulcerations or sores on your feet?"
ANS: A Autonomic neuropathy can cause delayed gastric emptying, which results in a bloated feeling for the patient. The other questions are also appropriate to ask but would not help in identifying autonomic neuropathy.
Which nursing action is most important in assisting an older patient who has diabetes to engage in moderate daily exercise? a. Determine what types of activities the patient enjoys. b. Remind the patient that exercise improves self-esteem. c. Teach the patient about the effects of exercise on glucose level. d. Give the patient a list of activities that are moderate in intensity.
ANS: A Because consistency with exercise is important, assessment for the types of exercise that the patient finds enjoyable is the most important action by the nurse in ensuring adherence to an exercise program. The other actions may be helpful but are not the most important in improving compliance.
After starting treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus 6 months earlier, a patient is in the office for a follow-up examination. The nurse will monitor which laboratory test to evaluate the patient's adherence to the antidiabetic therapy over the past few months? a. Hemoglobin levels b. Hemoglobin A1C level c. Fingerstick fasting blood glucose level d. Serum insulin levels
ANS: B The hemoglobin A1C level reflects the patient's adherence to the therapy regimen for several months previously, thus evaluating how well the patient has been doing with diet and drug therapy. The other options are incorrect.
The nurse evaluates that administration of hepatitis B vaccine to a healthy patient has been effective when the patient's blood specimen reveals: a. HBsAg. b. anti-HBs. c. anti-HBc IgG. d. anti-HBc IgM.
ANS: B The presence of surface antibody to HBV (anti-HBs) is a marker of a positive response to the vaccine. The other laboratory values indicate current infection with HBV.
Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider about a patient who has acute cholecystitis? a. The patient's urine is bright yellow. b. The patient's stools are tan colored. c. The patient reports chronic heartburn. d. The patient has increased pain after eating.
ANS: B Tan or gray stools indicate biliary obstruction, which requires rapid intervention to resolve. The other data are not unusual for a patient with this diagnosis, although the nurse would also report the other assessment information to the health care provider.
A patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. b. Administer the HCV vaccine and immune globulin. c. Teach the patient about ribavirin (Rebetol) treatment. d. Explain that the infection will resolve over a few months.
ANS: A Genotyping of HCV has an important role in managing treatment and is done before drug therapy is initiated. Because most patients with acute HCV infection convert to the chronic state, the nurse should not teach the patient that the HCV will resolve in a few months. Immune globulin or vaccine is not available for HCV. Ribavirin is used for chronic HCV infection.
Which patient action indicates an accurate understanding of the nurse's teaching about the use of an insulin pump? a. The patient programs the pump for an insulin bolus after eating. b. The patient changes the location of the insertion site every week. c. The patient takes the pump off at bedtime and starts it again each morning. d. The patient plans a diet with more calories than usual when using the pump.
ANS: A In addition to the basal rate of insulin infusion, the patient will adjust the pump to administer a bolus after each meal, with the dosage depending on the oral intake. The insertion site should be changed every 2 or 3 days. There is more flexibility in diet and exercise when an insulin pump is used, but it does not provide for consuming a higher calorie diet. The pump will deliver a basal insulin rate 24 hours a day.
A patient with diabetes is starting on intensive insulin therapy. Which type of insulin will the nurse discuss using for mealtime coverage? a. Lispro (Humalog) b. Glargine (Lantus) c. Detemir (Levemir) d. NPH (Humulin N)
ANS: A Rapid- or short-acting insulin is used for mealtime coverage for patients receiving intensive insulin therapy. NPH, glargine, or detemir will be used as the basal insulin.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has cirrhosis. Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment will be of most concern? a. The patient reports right upper-quadrant pain with palpation. b. The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended. c. The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day. d. The patient's abdominal skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels
ANS: B Asterixis indicates that the patient has hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatic coma may occur. The spider angiomas and right upper quadrant abdominal pain are not unusual for the patient with cirrhosis and do not require a change in treatment. The ascites and weight gain indicate the need for treatment but not as urgently as the changes in neurologic status.
Which action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy? a. Request that the patient stand on one foot. b. Ask the patient to extend both arms forward. c. Request that the patient walk with eyes closed. d. Ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver.
ANS: B Extending the arms allows the nurse to check for asterixis, a classic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. The other tests might be done as part of the neurologic assessment but would not be diagnostic for hepatic encephalopathy.
A patient in the emergency department was showing signs of hypoglycemia and had a fingerstick glucose level of 34 mg/dL. The patient has just become unconscious. What is the nurse's next action? a. Have the patient eat glucose tablets. b. Have the patient consume fruit juice, a nondiet soft drink, or crackers. c. Administer intravenous glucose (50% dextrose). d. Call the lab to order a fasting blood glucose level.
ANS: C Intravenous glucose raises blood glucose levels when the patient is unconscious and unable to take oral forms of glucose.
. A 36-yr-old female patient is receiving treatment for chronic hepatitis B with pegylated interferon (Pegasys). Which finding is important to communicate to the health care provider to suggest a change in therapy? a. Nausea and anorexia b. Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg) c. Positive urine pregnancy test d. Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
ANS: C Because ribavirin is teratogenic, the medication will need to be discontinued immediately. Anemia, weight loss, and nausea are common adverse effects of the prescribed regimen and may require actions such as patient teaching, but they would not require immediate cessation of the therapy.
A hospitalized patient who is diabetic received 38 U of NPH insulin at 7:00 AM. At 1:00 PM, the patient has been away from the nursing unit for 2 hours, missing the lunch delivery while awaiting a chest x-ray. What is the best action by the nurse to prevent hypoglycemia? a. Plan to discontinue the evening dose of insulin. b. Save the lunch tray for the patient's later return. c. Request that if testing is further delayed, the patient will eat lunch first. d. Send a glass of orange juice to the patient in the diagnostic testing area.
ANS: C Consistency for mealtimes assists with regulation of blood glucose, so the best option is for the patient to have lunch at the usual time. Waiting to eat until after the procedure is likely to cause hypoglycemia. Holding the insulin dose later will not prevent hypoglycemia form the peak of the NPH dose. A glass of juice will keep the patient from becoming hypoglycemic but will cause a rapid rise in blood glucose because of the rapid absorption of the simple carbohydrate in these items.
A patient with diabetes rides a bicycle to and from work every day. Which site should the nurse teach the patient to use to administer the morning insulin? a. Thigh b. Buttock c. Abdomen d. Upper arm
ANS: C Patients should be taught not to administer insulin into a site that will be exercised because exercise will increase the rate of absorption. The thigh, buttock, and arm are all exercised by riding a bicycle.
A patient who has type 2 diabetes is being prepared for an elective coronary angiogram. Which information would the nurse anticipate might lead to rescheduling the test? a. The patient's most recent A1C was 7.5%. b. The patient's blood glucose is 128 mg/dL. c. The patient took the prescribed metformin today. d. The patient took the prescribed enalapril 4 hours ago.
ANS: C To avoid lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued a day or 2 before the coronary angiogram and should not be used for 48 hours after IV contrast media are administered. The other patient data will be reported but do not indicate any need to reschedule the procedure.
Which assessment finding is of most concern for a patient with acute pancreatitis? a. Absent bowel sounds b. Abdominal tenderness c. Left upper quadrant pain d. Palpable abdominal mass
ANS: D A palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which will require rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common in acute pancreatitis and do not require rapid action to prevent further complications.
Which action is most appropriate regarding the nurse's administration of a rapid-acting insulin to a hospitalized patient? a. Give it within 15 minutes of mealtime. b. Give it after the meal has been completed. c. Administer it once daily at the time of the midday meal. d. Administer it with a snack before bedtime.
ANS: A Rapid-acting insulins, such as insulin lispro and insulin aspart, are able to mimic closely the body's natural rapid insulin output after eating a meal; for this reason, both insulins are usually administered within 15 minutes of the patient's mealtime. The other options are incorrect.
The nurse is assessing a 55-yr-old female patient with type 2 diabetes who has a body mass index (BMI) of 31 kg/m2 .Which goal in the plan of care is most important for this patient? a. The patient will reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%. b. The patient will follow a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss. c. The patient will choose a diet that distributes calories throughout the day. d. The patient will state the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet.
ANS: A The complications of diabetes are related to elevated blood glucose and the most important patient outcome is the reduction of glucose to near-normal levels. A BMI of 30.9/kg/m2 or above is considered obese, so the other outcomes are appropriate but are not as high in priority.
Which information will the nurse include in teaching a female patient who has peripheral arterial disease, type 2 diabetes, and sensory neuropathy of the feet and legs? a. Choose flat-soled leather shoes. b. Set heating pads on a low temperature. c. Use a callus remover for corns or calluses. d. Soak feet in warm water for an hour each day.
ANS: A The patient is taught to avoid high heels and that leather shoes are preferred. The feet should be washed, but not soaked, in warm water daily. Heating pad use should be avoided. Commercial callus and corn removers should be avoided. The patient should see a specialist to treat these problems.
A patient has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Asterixis and lethargy b. Jaundiced sclera and skin c. Elevated total bilirubin level d. Liver 3 cm below costal margin
ANS: A The patient's findings of asterixis and lethargy are consistent with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy. Patients with acute liver failure can deteriorate rapidly from grade 1 or 2 to grade 3 or 4 hepatic encephalopathy and need early transfer to a transplant center. The other findings are typical of patients with hepatic failure and would be reported but would not indicate a need for an immediate change in the therapeutic plan.
Which finding indicates to the nurse that lactulose is effective for an older adult who has advanced cirrhosis? a. The patient is alert and oriented. b. The patient denies nausea or anorexia. c. The patient's bilirubin level decreases. d. The patient has at least one stool daily.
ANS: A The purpose of lactulose in the patient with cirrhosis is to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy. Although lactulose may be used to treat constipation, that is not the purpose for this patient. Lactulose will not decrease nausea and vomiting or lower bilirubin levels.
A patient is taking a sulfonylurea medication for new-onset type 2 diabetes mellitus. When reviewing potential adverse effects during patient teaching, the nurse will include information about which of these effects? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypoglycemia b. Nausea c. Diarrhea d. Weight gain e. Peripheral edema
ANS: A, B, D The most common adverse effect of the sulfonylureas is hypoglycemia, the degree to which depends on the dose, eating habits, and presence of hepatic or renal disease. Another predictable adverse effect is weight gain because of the stimulation of insulin secretion. Other adverse effects include skin rash, nausea, epigastric fullness, and heartburn.
The nurse is preparing to administer insulin intravenously. Which statement about the administration of intravenous insulin is true? a. Insulin is never given intravenously. b. Only regular insulin can be administered intravenously. c. Insulin aspart or insulin lispro can be administered intravenously, but there must be a 50% dose reduction. d. Any form of insulin can be administered intravenously at the same dose as that is ordered for subcutaneous administration.
ANS: B Regular insulin is the usual insulin product to be dosed via intravenous bolus, intravenous infusion, or even intramuscularly. These routes, especially the intravenous infusion route, are often used in cases of diabetic ketoacidosis, or coma associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes.
What risk factor will the nurse specifically ask about when a patient is being admitted with acute pancreatitis? a. Diabetes b. Alcohol use c. High-protein diet d. Cigarette smoking
ANS: B Alcohol use is one of the most common risk factors for pancreatitis in the United States. Cigarette smoking, diabetes, and high-protein diets are not risk factors.
Which information from a 70-yr-old patient during a health history indicates to the nurse that the patient should be screened for hepatitis C? a. The patient had a blood transfusion in 2005. b. The patient used IV drugs about 20 years ago. c. The patient frequently eats in fast-food restaurants. d. The patient traveled to a country with poor sanitation.
ANS: B Any patient with a history of IV drug use should be tested for hepatitis C. Blood transfusions given after 1992 (when an antibody test for hepatitis C became available) do not pose a risk for hepatitis C. Hepatitis C is not spread by the oral-fecal route and therefore is not caused by contaminated food or by traveling in underdeveloped countries.
A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes has been treated for pneumonia for the past week. The patient has been receiving intravenous corticosteroids as well as antibiotics as part of his therapy. At this time, the pneumonia has resolved, but when monitoring the blood glucose levels, the nurse notices that the level is still elevated. What is the best explanation for this elevation? a. The antibiotics may cause an increase in glucose levels. b. The corticosteroids may cause an increase in glucose levels. c. His type 2 diabetes has converted to type 1. d. The hypoxia caused by the COPD causes an increased need for insulin.
ANS: B Corticosteroids can antagonize the hypoglycemic effects of insulin, resulting in elevated blood glucose levels. The other options are incorrect.
A patient has been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome and is started on the biguanide metformin (Glucophage). The nurse knows that the purpose of the metformin, in this situation, is which of these? a. To increase the pancreatic secretion of insulin b. To decrease insulin resistance c. To increase blood glucose levels d. To decrease the pancreatic secretion of insulin
ANS: B Metformin decreases glucose production by the liver; decreases intestinal absorption of glucose; and improves insulin receptor sensitivity in the liver, skeletal muscle, and adipose tissue, resulting in decreased insulin resistance. The other options are incorrect.
For a patient who has cirrhosis, which nursing action can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assessing the patient for jaundice b. Providing oral hygiene after a meal c. Palpating the abdomen for distention d. Teaching the patient the prescribed diet
ANS: B Providing oral hygiene is within the scope of UAP. Assessments and assisting patients to choose therapeutic diets are nursing actions that require higher level nursing education and scope of practice and would be delegated to licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/VNs) or RNs.
The nurse is reviewing a patient's medication list and notes that sitagliptin (Januvia) is ordered. The nurse will question an additional order for which drug or drug class? a. Glitazone b. Insulin c. Metformin (Glucophage) d. Sulfonylurea
ANS: B Sitagliptin is indicated for management of type 2 diabetes either as monotherapy or in combination with metformin, a sulfonylurea, or a glitazone, but not with insulin.
Which topic is most important to include in teaching for a 41-yr-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis? a. Taking lactulose b. Avoiding all alcohol use c. Maintaining good nutrition d. Using vitamin B supplements
ANS: B The disease progression can be stopped or reversed by alcohol abstinence. The other interventions may be used when cirrhosis becomes more severe to decrease symptoms or complications, but the priority for this patient is to stop the progression of the disease.
The insulin order reads, "Give 10 units of NPH insulin and 5 units of regular insulin, subcut, every morning before breakfast." Choose the proper syringe for this injection.
ANS: B The proper syringe for insulin injection is the insulin syringe, which is marked in units. The other syringes listed are not correct for use with insulin because they are not marked in units.
When administering morning medications for a newly admitted patient, the nurse notes that the patient has an allergy to sulfa drugs. There is an order for the sulfonylurea glipizide (Glucotrol). Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Give the drug as ordered 30 minutes before breakfast. b. Hold the drug, and check the order with the prescriber. c. Give a reduced dose of the drug with breakfast. d. Give the drug, and monitor for adverse effects.
ANS: B There is a potential for cross-allergy in patients who are allergic to sulfonamide antibiotics. Although such an allergy is listed as a contraindication by the manufacturer, most clinicians do prescribe sulfonylureas for such patients. The order needs to be clarified.
Which patient action indicates accurate understanding of the nurse's teaching about administration of aspart (NovoLog) insulin? a. The patient avoids injecting the insulin into the upper abdominal area. b. The patient cleans the skin with soap and water before insulin administration. c. The patient stores the insulin in the freezer after administering the prescribed dose. d. The patient pushes the plunger down while removing the syringe from the injection site.
ANS: B Cleaning the skin with soap and water is acceptable. Insulin should not be frozen. The patient should leave the syringe in place for about 5 seconds after injection to be sure that all the insulin has been injected. The upper abdominal area is one of the preferred areas for insulin injection.
An unresponsive patient who has type 2 diabetes is brought to the emergency department and diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemia syndrome (HHS). What should the nurse anticipate doing? a. Giving 50% dextrose b. Inserting an IV catheter c. Initiating O2 by nasal cannula d. Administering glargine (Lantus) insulin
ANS: B HHS is initially treated with large volumes of IV fluids to correct hypovolemia. Regular insulin is administered, not a long-acting insulin. There is no indication that the patient requires O2. Dextrose solutions will increase the patient's blood glucose and would be contraindicated.
What topic should the nurse plan to teach the patient diagnosed with acute hepatitis B? a. Administering alpha-interferon b. Measures for improving appetite c. Side effects of nucleotide analogs d. Ways to increase activity and exercise
ANS: B Maintaining adequate nutritional intake is important for regeneration of hepatocytes. Interferon and antivirals may be used for chronic hepatitis B, but they are not prescribed for acute hepatitis B infection. Rest is recommended.
Which statement by the patient who has newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes indicates a need for additional instruction from the nurse? a. "I will need a bedtime snack because I take an evening dose of NPH insulin." b. "I can choose any foods, as long as I use enough insulin to cover the calories." c. "I can have an occasional beverage with alcohol if I include it in my meal plan." d. "I will eat something at meal times to prevent hypoglycemia, even if I am not hungry."
ANS: B Most patients with type 1 diabetes need to plan diet choices very carefully. Patients who are using intensified insulin therapy have considerable flexibility in diet choices but still should restrict dietary intake of items such as fat, protein, and alcohol. The other patient statements are correct and indicate good understanding of the diet instruction.
Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B? a. Advise limiting alcohol intake to 1 drink daily. b. Schedule for liver cancer screening every 6 months. c. Initiate administration of the hepatitis C vaccine series. d. Monitor anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels.
ANS: B Patients with chronic hepatitis are at higher risk for development of liver cancer and should be screened for liver cancer every 6 to 12 months. Patients with chronic hepatitis are advised to completely avoid alcohol. There is no hepatitis C vaccine. Because anti-HBs is present whenever there has been a past hepatitis B infection or vaccination, there is no need to regularly monitor for this antibody.
Which action should the nurse take after a patient treated with intramuscular glucagon for hypoglycemia regains consciousness? a. Assess the patient for symptoms of hyperglycemia. b. Give the patient a snack of peanut butter and crackers. c. Have the patient drink a glass of orange juice or nonfat milk. d. Administer a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose for 24 hours
ANS: B Rebound hypoglycemia can occur after glucagon administration, but having a meal containing complex carbohydrates plus protein and fat will help prevent hypoglycemia. Orange juice and nonfat milk will elevate blood glucose rapidly, but the cheese and crackers will stabilize blood glucose. Administration of IV glucose might be used in patients who were unable to take in nutrition orally. The patient should be assessed for symptoms of hypoglycemia after glucagon administration.
The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute severe pancreatitis. What is the highest priority patient outcome? a. Having fluid and electrolyte balance b. Maintaining normal respiratory function c. Expressing satisfaction with pain control d. Developing no ongoing pancreatic disease
ANS: B Respiratory failure can occur as a complication of acute pancreatitis and maintenance of adequate respiratory function is the priority goal. The other outcomes would also be appropriate for the patient.
Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a need for additional instruction in administering insulin? a. "I can buy the 0.5-mL syringes because the line markings are easier to see." b. "I need to rotate injection sites among my arms, legs, and abdomen each day." c. "I do not need to aspirate the plunger to check for blood before injecting insulin." d. "I should draw up the regular insulin first, after injecting air into the NPH bottle."
ANS: B Rotating sites is no longer recommended because there is more consistent insulin absorption when the same site is used consistently. The other patient statements are accurate and indicate that no additional instruction is needed.
A patient who has type 1 diabetes plans to swim laps for an hour daily at 1:00 PM. What advice should the clinic nurse plan to give the patient? a. Increase the morning dose of NPH insulin (Novolin N). b. Check glucose level before, during, and after swimming. c. Time the morning insulin injection to peak while swimming. d. Delay eating the noon meal until after finishing the swimming.
ANS: B The change in exercise will affect blood glucose, and the patient will need to monitor glucose carefully to determine the need for changes in diet and insulin administration. Because exercise tends to decrease blood glucose, patients are advised to eat before exercising. Increasing the morning NPH or timing the insulin to peak during exercise may lead to hypoglycemia, especially with the increased exercise.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient? a. Fasting blood glucose b. Glycosylated hemoglobin c. Oral glucose tolerance test d. Urine dipstick for glucose and ketones
ANS: B The glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) test shows the overall control of glucose over 90 to 120 days. A fasting blood level indicates only the glucose level at one time. Urine glucose testing is not an accurate reflection of blood glucose level and does not reflect the glucose over a prolonged time. Oral glucose tolerance testing is done to diagnose diabetes but is not used for monitoring glucose control after diabetes has been diagnosed.
Which goal has the highest priority in the plan of care for a 26-yr-old patient who was admitted with viral hepatitis, has severe anorexia and fatigue, and is homeless? a. Increase activity level. b. Maintain adequate nutrition. c. Establish a stable environment. d. Identify source of hepatitis exposure.
ANS: B The highest priority outcome is to maintain nutrition because adequate nutrition is needed for hepatocyte regeneration. Finding a home for the patient and identifying the source of the infection would be appropriate activities, but they do not have as high a priority as ensuring adequate nutrition. Although the patient's activity level will be gradually increased, rest is indicated during the acute phase of hepatitis.
A patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient to cough every hour. b. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath. c. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours. d. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea.
ANS: B The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. In addition, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Coughing increases the pressure on the varices and increases the risk for bleeding. Balloon position is verified after insertion and does not require further verification. Balloons may be deflated briefly every 8 to 12 hours to avoid tissue necrosis, but if only the gastric balloon is deflated, the esophageal balloon may occlude the airway. Balloons are not deflated for nausea.
Which action by the patient who is self-monitoring blood glucose indicates a need for additional teaching? a. Washes the puncture site using warm water and soap. b. Chooses a puncture site in the center of the finger pad. c. Hangs the arm down for a minute before puncturing the site. d. Says the result of 120 mg indicates good blood sugar control.
ANS: B The patient is taught to choose a puncture site at the side of the finger pad because there are fewer nerve endings along the side of the finger pad. The other patient actions indicate that teaching has been effective.
What is most important for the nurse to monitor to detect possible complications in a patient with severe cirrhosis who has bleeding esophageal varices? a. Bilirubin levels b. Ammonia levels c. Potassium levels d. Prothrombin time
ANS: B The protein in the blood in the gastrointestinal tract will be absorbed and may result in an increase in the ammonia level because the liver cannot metabolize protein very well. The prothrombin time, bilirubin, and potassium levels should also be monitored, but they will not be affected by the bleeding episode.
Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide? a. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas. b. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. c. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low. d. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.
ANS: B The sulfonylureas stimulate the production and release of insulin from the pancreas. If the glucose level is low, the patient should contact the health care provider before taking glyburide because hypoglycemia can occur with this class of medication. Metformin should be held for 48 hours after administration of IV contrast media, but this is not necessary for glyburide. Glyburide does not affect glucagon secretion.
When teaching about hypoglycemia, the nurse will make sure that the patient is aware of the early signs of hypoglycemia, including: a. hypothermia and seizures. b. nausea and diarrhea. c. confusion and sweating. d. fruity, acetone odor to the breath.
ANS: C Early symptoms of hypoglycemia include the central nervous system manifestations of confusion, irritability, tremor, and sweating. Hypothermia and seizures are later symptoms of hypoglycemia. The other options are incorrect.
The nurse is reviewing instructions for a patient with type 2 diabetes who also takes insulin injections as part of the therapy. The nurse asks the patient, "What should you do if your fasting blood glucose is 47 mg/dL?" Which response by the patient reflects a correct understanding of insulin therapy? a. "I will call my doctor right away." b. "I will give myself the regular insulin." c. "I will take an oral form of glucose." d. "I will rest until the symptoms pass."
ANS: C Hypoglycemia can be reversed if the patient eats glucose tablets or gel, corn syrup, or honey, or drinks fruit juice or a nondiet soft drink or other quick sources of glucose, which must always be kept at hand. She should not wait for instructions from her physician, nor delay taking the glucose by resting. The regular insulin would only lower her blood glucose levels more.
A 26-yr-old female who has type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and reports a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. What should the nurse advise the patient to do? a. Use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms are resolved. b. Limit intake of calories until the glucose is less than 120 mg/dL. c. Monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and contact the clinic if it rises. d. Decrease carbohydrates until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%.
ANS: C Infection and other stressors increase blood glucose levels and the patient will need to test blood glucose frequently, treat elevations appropriately with lispro insulin, and call the health care provider if glucose levels continue to be elevated. Discontinuing the glargine will contribute to hyperglycemia and may lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Decreasing carbohydrate or caloric intake is not appropriate because the patient will need more calories when ill. Glycosylated hemoglobin testing is not used to evaluate short-term alterations in blood glucose.
A patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies, but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Have you taken corticosteroids?" b. "Do you have a history of IV drug use?" c. "Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?" d. "Have you recently traveled to another country?"
ANS: C The patient's symptoms, lack of antibodies for hepatitis, and the abrupt onset of symptoms suggest toxic hepatitis, which can be caused by commonly used over-the-counter drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Travel to a foreign country and a history of IV drug use are risk factors for viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use does not cause the symptoms listed.
Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient who was admitted with bleeding esophageal varices? a. The medication will reduce the risk for aspiration. b. The medication will inhibit development of gastric ulcers. c. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins. d. The medication will decrease nausea and improve the appetite.
ANS: C Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acid gastric contents. Although ranitidine does decrease the risk for peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, these are not the primary purposes for H2-receptor blockade in this patient.
When a patient who takes metformin (Glucophage) to manage type 2 diabetes develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause, the health care provider prescribes prednisone. What should the nurse anticipate? a. The patient may need a diet higher in calories while receiving prednisone. b. The patient may develop acute hypoglycemia while taking the prednisone. c. The patient may require administration of insulin while taking prednisone. d. The patient may have rashes caused by metformin-prednisone interactions.
ANS: C Glucose levels increase when patients are taking corticosteroids, and insulin may be required to control blood glucose. Hypoglycemia is not a side effect of prednisone. Rashes are not an adverse effect caused by taking metformin and prednisone simultaneously. The patient may have an increased appetite when taking prednisone but will not need a diet that is higher in calories.
The health care provider suspects the Somogyi effect in a 50-yr-old patient whose 6:00 AMblood glucose is 230 mg/dL. Which action will the nurse teach the patient to take? a. Avoid snacking right before bedtime. b. Increase the rapid-acting insulin dose. c. Check the blood glucose during the night. d. Administer a larger dose of long-acting insulin.
ANS: C If the Somogyi effect is causing the patient's increased morning glucose level, the patient will experience hypoglycemia between 2:00 and 4:00 AM. The dose of insulin will be reduced, rather than increased. A bedtime snack is used to prevent hypoglycemic episodes during the night.
Which action by a patient indicates that the home health nurse's teaching about glargine and regular insulin has been successful? a. The patient administers the glargine 30 minutes before each meal. b. The patient's family prefills the syringes with the mix of insulins weekly. c. The patient discards the open vials of glargine and regular insulin after 4 weeks. d. The patient draws up the regular insulin and then the glargine in the same syringe.
ANS: C Insulin can be stored at room temperature for 4 weeks. Glargine should not be mixed with other insulins or prefilled and stored. Short-acting regular insulin is administered before meals, and glargine is given once daily.
A patient had an incisional cholecystectomy 6 hours ago. The nurse will place the highest priority on assisting the patient to: a. perform leg exercises hourly while awake. b. ambulate the evening of the operative day. c. turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours. d. choose preferred low-fat foods from the menu.
ANS: C Postoperative nursing care after a cholecystectomy focuses on prevention of respiratory complications because the surgical incision is high in the abdomen and impairs coughing and deep breathing. The other nursing actions are also important to implement but are not as high a priority as ensuring adequate ventilation.
In reviewing the medical record for a patient admitted with acute pancreatitis, the nurse sees that the patient has a positive Cullen's sign. Indicate the area in the accompanying figure where the nurse will assess for this change. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
ANS: C The area around the umbilicus should be indicated. Cullen's sign consists of ecchymosis around the umbilicus. Cullen's sign occurs because of seepage of bloody exudates from the inflamed pancreas and indicates severe acute pancreatitis
Which action should the nurse in the emergency department take first for a new patient who is vomiting blood? a. Insert a large-gauge IV catheter. b. Draw blood for coagulation studies. c. Check blood pressure and heart rate. d. Place the patient in the supine position.
ANS: C The nurse's first action should be to determine the patient's hemodynamic status by assessing vital signs. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter are also appropriate. However, the vital signs may indicate the need for more urgent actions. Because aspiration is a concern for this patient, the nurse will need to assess the patient's vital signs and neurologic status before placing the patient in a supine position.
How should the nurse prepare a patient with ascites for paracentesis? a. Place the patient on NPO status. b. Assist the patient to lie flat in bed. c. Ask the patient to empty the bladder d. Position the patient on the right side
ANS: C The patient should empty the bladder to decrease the risk of bladder perforation during the procedure. The patient would be positioned in Fowler's position and would not be able to lie flat without compromising breathing. Because no sedation is required for paracentesis, the patient does not need to be NPO.
Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago? a. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa b. Crackles at bilateral lung bases c. Temperature 100.8° F (38.2° C) d. No bowel movement for 4 days
ANS: C The risk of infection is high in the first few months after liver transplant, and fever is frequently the only sign of infection. The other patient data indicate the need for further assessment or nursing actions and might be communicated to the health care provider, but they do not indicate a need for urgent action.
The nurse is assessing a 22-yr-old patient experiencing the onset of symptoms of type 1 diabetes. To which question would the nurse anticipate a positive response? a. "Are you anorexic?" b. "Is your urine dark colored?" c. "Have you lost weight lately?" d. "Do you crave sugary drinks?"
ANS: C Weight loss occurs because the body is no longer able to absorb glucose and starts to break down protein and fat for energy. The patient is thirsty but does not necessarily crave sugar-containing fluids. Increased appetite is a classic symptom of type 1 diabetes. With the classic symptom of polyuria, urine will be very dilute.
The nurse is teaching a review class to nurses about diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Patients with type 2 diabetes will never need insulin." b. "Oral antidiabetic drugs are safe for use during pregnancy." c. "Pediatric patients cannot take insulin." d. "Insulin therapy is possible during pregnancy if managed carefully."
ANS: D Oral medications are generally not recommended for pregnant patients because of a lack of firm safety data. For this reason, insulin therapy is the only currently recommended drug therapy for pregnant women with diabetes. Insulin is given to pediatric patients, with extreme care. Patients with type 2 diabetes may require insulin in certain situations or as their disease progresses.
The nurse is teaching patients about self-injection of insulin. Which statement is true regarding injection sites? a. Avoid the abdomen because absorption there is irregular. b. Choose a different site at random for each injection. c. Give the injection in the same area each time. d. Rotate sites within the same location for about 1 week before rotating to a new location.
ANS: D Patients taking insulin injections need to be instructed to rotate sites, but to do so within the same location for about 1 week (so that all injections are rotated in one area—for example, the right arm—before rotating to a new location, such as the left arm). Also, each injection needs to be at least to 1 inch away from the previous site.
Which focused data should the nurse assess after identifying 4+ pitting edema on a patient who has cirrhosis? a. Hemoglobin b. Temperature c. Activity level d. Albumin level
ANS: D The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. The other parameters are not directly associated with the patient's edema.
A patient with acute pancreatitis is NPO and has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective? a. Bowel sounds are present. b. Grey Turner sign resolves. c. Electrolyte levels are normal. d. Abdominal pain is decreased.
ANS: D NG suction and NPO status will decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes into the pancreas and decrease pain. Although bowel sounds may be hypotonic with acute pancreatitis, the presence of bowel sounds does not indicate that treatment with NG suction and NPO status has been effective. Electrolyte levels may be abnormal with NG suction and must be replaced by appropriate IV infusion. Although Grey Turner sign will eventually resolve, it would not be appropriate to wait for this to occur to determine whether treatment was effective.
A patient with chronic hepatitis B infection has several medications prescribed. Which medication order requires clarification with the health care provider before administration? a. Tenofovir (Viread) orally once daily b. Adefovir (Hepsera) orally once daily c. Entecarvir (Baraclude) orally once daily d. Pegylated alpha-interferon (Pegasys) orally once daily
ANS: D Pegylated alpha-interferon is administered subcutaneously, not orally. The medications are all appropriate for a patient with chronic hepatitis B infection.
A patient with cirrhosis has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Restrict daily dietary protein intake. b. Reposition the patient every 4 hours. c. Perform passive range of motion twice daily. d. Place the patient on a pressure-relief mattress.
ANS: D The pressure-relieving mattress will decrease the risk for skin breakdown for this patient. Adequate dietary protein intake is necessary in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours will not be adequate to maintain skin integrity. Passive range of motion will not take the pressure off areas such as the sacrum that are vulnerable to breakdown.
