Unit 4 & 5

Vibrio cholerae

D. Raw oyster appetizer

mucociliary escalator

Moving layer of mucus and cilia lining the respiratory tract that traps bacteria and other particles and moves them into the throat.

Rabies

- is a typical zoonosis -symptoms include hydrophobia

Acute retroviral syndrome

-High persistent plasma viremia -Viral 'flulike' presentation

Allicin

Antimicrobial chemical in garlic

Toxoplasma gondii

Aspirated spores

Warts

Benign skin growths

Hepatitis C

C. a tattoo acquired in prison

Parvovirus

Case of fifth disease

Gas gangrene

Clostridium perfringens

nitrogen fixation

Conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia.

Carbuncle

Deep furuncle

severe internal hemorrhaging

Each of the following is associated with pneumonic plague except:

oligotrophic

Nutrient-poor.

Soy sauce

Product of mold-fermentation

cirrhosis

Scarring of the liver that interferes with normal liver function.

IMpetigo

Streptococcus pyogenes

arbovirus

Transmitted via an arthropod insect vector

petechia (plural: petechiae)

Small purplish spot on the skin or mucous membrane caused by hemorrhage.

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Soft shell clams that live buried in the mud on tidal mudflats

Composting

Solid organic matter is naturally decomposed

microbial mat

organized by quorum sensing

decomposers

Organisms that digest the remains of primary producers and consumers.

Epstein-Barr virus

-causes Burkitt's lymphoma -is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva. -it infects the respiratory epithelium.

Syphilis

- Involves the nervous system in the final stage -Is caused by a spirochete - can lead to Hutchinson's teeth in the congential form

Listeria monocytogenes

- is primarily a food-borne infection -migrates from cell to cell via actin "rockets" -is psychrophilic

Neisseria meningitidis

- may involve the medulla of the brain - transmitted by close contact - distinguished by petechiae -initially colonize the nasopharynx

consumers

Organisms that eat primary producers or other consumers.

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

-CD4+ T cell count < 200/µl B -Presence of P. jiroveci, Mycobacterium sp., T. gondii, CMV, Kaposi sarcom, or B cell lymphoma

Clinical Latency

-Steady viral RNA set point -ARC includes fever, weight loss, diarrhea, fatigue

Chancroid

-diagnosis depends on isolation of Gram-negative rods from pustules - is caused by a member of the genus Haemophilus - is endemic in undeveloped countries and tropical climates

Chlamydial urethritis

-is a form of nongonococcal urethritis - produces possible pneumonia in newborns -The pathogen is the most common of all notifiable bacterial diseases

Yersinia pestis

-is associated with a digestive tract biofilm. -is caused by a Gram-negative rod that shows bipolar staining. -may develop into septicemic and pneumonic stages.

Gonorrhea

-is due to a Gram-negative diplococcus

Yellow fever

-it is accompanied by substantial jaundice. -transmitted by the bites of mosquitoes. -vaccines are available for immunization.

Polio

-prevention requires immunization with Salk or Sabin vaccine -is caused by one of the smallest virions

Franciscella tularensis

-rabbit fever. -has a relatively low mortality rate. -persists, proliferates within phagocytes

GI tract - via tainted meat product ingestion

. mad cow diseas

Which one of the following symptoms is not associated with HIV infection? A. headache, tiredness B. skin rash. C. enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and groin D. painful ulcers of the gastrointestinal tract E. low-grade fever that remains for weeks or months at a time

. painful ulcers of the gastrointestinal tract

When the center of a tubercle breaks down into a ________________, it gradually heals by calcification that forms a tuberculous cavity. A. Caseous necrosis B. Tertiary C. Miliary tubercle D. Granuloma E. Primary lesion

A. Caseous necrosis

The paroxysms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are: A. Chills, fever, and sweating from erythrocytic lysis B. Fever, swollen lymph nodes and joint pain C. Bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea and weight loss D. Urinary frequency and pain and vaginal discharge E. Sore throat, low grade fever and swollen lymph nodes

A. Chills, fever, and sweating from erythrocytic lysis

trachoma

A Chlamydia antigenic type causes this serious infection of the eye.

exfoliatin

A bacterial toxin that causes sloughing of the outer epidermis.

enterotoxin

A bacterial toxin that specifically targets intestinal mucous membrane cells.

papilloma

A benign skin tumor; wart.

furuncle

A boil; a localized skin infection that penetrates into the subcutaneous tissue, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

Aquifer

A deep groundwater source.

catheter

A flexible plastic or rubber tube inserted into the bladder or other body space, in order to drain it or deliver medication.

Kaposi's sarcoma

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is:

abcess

A localized collection of pus within a tissue.

eutrophic

A nutrient-rich environment supporting the excessive growth of algae and other autotrophs.

Estuary

A region where the river meets the sea

Dimorphic

A species with both yeast and mycelial stages

impetigo

A superficial skin infection characterized by thin-walled vesicles, oozing blisters, and yellow crusts; caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.

oral rehydration therapy

A treatment used to replace fluid and electrolytes lost due to diarrheal disease.

microbial mat

A type of microbial community characterized by distinct layers of different groups of microorganisms that together make up a thick, dense, highly organized structure.

Which of the following is a viral hemorrhagic fever? A. Yellow fever B. Cat Scratch fever C. Rabbit fever D. Q fever E. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A. Yellow fever

One virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes is the ability to: A. grow inside host cells B. release lactic acid C. form endospores D. lyse RBCs E. produce abundant, branching hyphae

A. grow inside host cells

Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis? A. Most common causative organism is Entamoeba histolytica B. Involves infections of both the brain and meninges C. Modes of transmission are direct contact and swimming in warm fresh water D. Most common causative organism is Naegleria fowleri E. Treatment for Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis is mostly ineffective

A. Most common causative organism is Entamoeba histolytica

Citrus fruits generally escape bacterial contamination because A. bacteria do not favor acidic conditions B. citrus fruits are high in salt C. citrus fruits are warm-temperature fruits D. U.V. radiation in sunlight kills off bacteria on their surface E. bacteria cannot form spores within fruits

A. bacteria do not favor acidic conditions

Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins, called ________, or __________, a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain. A. Antigenic drift, antigenic shift B. Antigenic shift, antigenic drift C. Antigenic drift, antigenic drift D. Antigen resistance, antigen cooperation E. None of these

A. Antigenic drift, antigenic shift

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium tetani E. All of the choices are correct.

A. Clostridium botulinum

Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through: A. Parenteral entry B. Fomites C. Droplets D. Ingestion E. Casual contact

A. Parenteral entry

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except: A. Pneumococcal pneumonia B. Otitis media C. Glomerulonephritis D. Scarlet fever E. Rheumatic fever

A. Pneumococcal pneumonia

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is: A. Water and electrolyte replacement B. Antimicrobials C. Antitoxin D. Surgery E. None of the choices is correct

A. Water and electrolyte replacement

Which is the first step in wastewater purification? A. Sedimentation B. Chlorination C. Storage D. Bioremediation or BOD removal E. Aeration and settling

A. Sedimentation

Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenkii? A. causes superficial cutaneous infection B. is dimorphic C. often transmitted by soil-contaminated thorns D. lives in the soil E. causes nodules along regional lymphatic channels

A. causes superficial cutaneous infection

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is A. Kaposi's sarcoma B. Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Leukemia D. Myeloma E. Melanoma

A. Kaposi's sarcoma

Which of the following is not true of Ebola and Marburg? A. Transmitted by mosquitos B. There is no treatment C. Caused by filoviruses D. Transmitted by direct contact with body fluids E. Disruption of clotting factors

A. Transmitted by mosquitos

Each of the following conditions contribute to the growth of microorganisms in foods except A. a pH that is strongly alkaline. B. neutral or slightly acidic conditions. C. growth temperature near 37°C. D. plentiful organic matter. E. sufficient water content.

A. a pH that is strongly alkaline.

Which one of the following is not associated with Streptococcus pyogenes? A. Food poisoning B. Glomerulonephritis C. Scarlet fever D. Necrotizing fasciitis E. Puerperal fever

A. Food poisoning

Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract? A. IgG B. Lysozyme C. IgA D. Mucus secretions E. Flushing action of urine

A. IgG

Herpes simplex virus-1

A. Kissing

There are a number of organisms that can cause milk to sour and curdle. Which of the following organism(s) is/are selected for this characteristic and used in the process to make cheese? A. Lactobacillus cremoris or L. lactis B. E. coli and Enterobacter aerogenes C. Clostridium, Alcaligenes and Klebsiella D. Bacillus, Proteus and Micrococcus

A. Lactobacillus cremoris or L. lactis

All arboviral infections involve A. arthropod vectors. B. congenital infection. C. rodent vectors. D. birds as the primary reservoir. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. arthropod vectors.

Amebiasis symptoms include A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B. fever, swollen lymph notes, and joint pain. C. chills, fever, and sweating. D. increased urinary frequency with pain, and vaginal discharge. E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.

A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.

The prospects for developing a vaccine for the common cold are not promising because A. many different viruses can cause the common cold B. there would be virtually no candidates for such a vaccine C. of the antigenic shift phenomenon D. funds for this type of research are not available E. viruses cannot be cultivated in tissue culture medium

A. many different viruses can cause the common cold

Dermatophytosis refers to fungal disease A. of the hair, skin, and nails. B. that resists antibiotic treatment. C. which is spread by arthropods. D. that accompanies predisposing factors. E. that spreads to the internal organs.

A. of the hair, skin, and nails.

E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all of the following except it A. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals. B. is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated undercooked food, especially hamburger. C. causes a bloody diarrhea. D. has a reservoir of cattle intestines. E. may go on to cause, in some cases, hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure'

A. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.

All of the following characteristics apply to Salmonella serotypes except A. they can cause skin infections. B. they are Gram-negative rods. C. they can be transmitted by food. D. they commonly infect chickens and turkeys. E. they are able to survive for months in water and soil.

A. they can cause skin infections.

MRSA

Abbreviation for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

Lysozyme

Abundant egg white component that degrades peptidoglycan

Lumpy jaw

Actinomyces israelii

parenteral entry

Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through:

sepsis

Acute illness caused by infectious agents or their products circulating in the bloodstream; blood poisoning.

gastroenteritis

Acute inflammation of the stomach and intestines; often applied to the syndrome of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.

croup

Acute obstruction of the larynx occurring mainly in infants and young children, often resulting from respiratory syncytial or other viral infections.

The best defense against arboviruses is: A. Prophylactic rifampin B. Vector control C. Vaccination D. Prompt treatment with acyclovir E. All of the choices are correct

B. Vector control

very communicable

All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except:

due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except that it is:

septic system

An individual wastewater treatment system in which the sludge settles out in a large tank where microorganisms anaerobically degrade it, and the effluent is aerobically degraded as it percolates through a drain field.

Chicken pox

Also known as varicella

septic shock

An array of effects including fever, drop in blood pressure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation, that results from infection of the bloodstream or circulating endotoxin.

Bioaugmentation

An example is the activated sludge process

eosinophilia

An increase in eosinophil concentration in the bloodstream, often in response to helminth infection

synergistic infection

An infection in which two or more species of pathogens act together to produce an effect greater than the sum of effects if each pathogen were acting alone.

MPN test

Analysis of H2O samples by a series of presumptive, confirmatory, and completed tests to estimate the number of coliform numbers in the water

Fermentation

Any desirable change in microorganisms impart to food

advanced treatment

Any physical, chemical, or biological purification process beyond secondary treatment of wastewater.

pyoderma

Any skin disease characterized by production of pus.

arbovirus

Arthropod-borne virus. One of a large group of RNA viruses carried by insects and mites that act as biological vectors

Listeria monocytogenes

Artisanal cheese prepared with raw milk

All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except: A. If virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed B. Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing C. Transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water D. Can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever and nausea E. Caused by Poliovirus (genus Enterovirus)

B. Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing

This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin A. Fusarium species B. Aspergillus flavis C. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci D. Geotrichum candidum E. Rhizopus species

B. Aspergillus flavis

Organisms that inhabit soil or water and breakdown and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms are called A. Quaternary consumers B. Decomposers C. Tertiary consumers D. Primary consumers E. Secondary consumers

B. Decomposers

All of the following are foodborne pathogens except A. Campylobacter B. Streptococcus C. Clostridium D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Salmonella

B. Streptococcus

Cryptococcus neoformans is a A. Prion B. Fungus C. Helminth D. Bacteria E. Virus

B. Fungus

Where is the majority of earth's water found? A. Soil moisture B. Oceans C. Freshwater lakes D. Ground water E. Icecaps and glaciers

B. Oceans

The zone of soil around roots of plants is called the A. Hydrosphere B. Rhizosphere C. Lithosphere D. Ionosphere E. Biosphere

B. Rhizosphere

he normal biota of the CNS consists of A. Neisseria meningitidis B. The CNS has no normal biota C. Herpes simplex II D. Streptococcus agalactiae E. Herpes simplex I

B. The CNS has no normal biota

The causative agent of Lyme disease is: A. Bordetella pertussis B. Borrelia burgdorferi C. Ixodes scapularis D. Brucella melitensis E. Aedes aegypti

B. Borrelia burgdorferi

A. Causes the most serious form of acute meningitis B. Common cause of bacterial pneumonia C. More easily transmitted in schools, day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks D. Virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease E. Causes formation of petechiae

B. Common cause of bacterial pneumonia

The enzyme associated with the release of influenza virions from the infected cell is: A. Catalase B. Neuraminidase C. Hyaluronidase D. Kinase E. Reverse transcriptase

B. Neuraminidase

Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. Fusion Inhibitors D. Integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct

B. Protease inhibitors

The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is: A. Retrovirus B. Rhinovirus C. Herpes simplex virus D. Coronavirus E. Adenovirus

B. Rhinovirus

The bubo of bubonic plague is due to: A. fluid build-up from pneumonia B. bacteria carried via lymph resulting in inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node C. septicemia resulting in disseminated intravascular coagulation and hemorrhaging D. erythrogenic toxin E. toxic shock syndrome toxin

B. bacteria carried via lymph resulting in inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node

The incubation period for rabies may depend upon A. the type of arthropod that bit the individual B. the amount of virus introduced to the bite wound C. the type of animal that bit the individual D. the immune status of the individual E. the strain of virus introduced to the bite wound

B. the amount of virus introduced to the bite wound

Identify how vast numbers of microorganisms are being genetically characterized without culturing them in the laboratory today. A. Western blot analysis B. Metagenomic sampling C. Gas chromatography D. Anammox reactions E. Column chromatography

B. Metagenomic sampling

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A. Brucellosis B. Plague C. Malaria D. Chickungunya E. All of the choices are correct

B. Plague

Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. Fusion inhibitors D. Integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct

B. Protease inhibitors

Documented transmission of HIV involves A. Mosquitoes B. Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood or blood products C. Respiratory droplets D. Contaminated food E. All of the choices are correct

B. Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood or blood products

The cyclic transformation of sulfur is important because sulfur is an essential component of A. nucleic acids such as DNA. B. amino acids such as cysteine. C. steroids such as cholesterol. D. enzymes such as phosphatase.

B. amino acids such as cysteine.

The retrovirus that leads to AIDS A. uses reverse transcriptase to convert DNA to RNA. B. contains RNA in its genome. C. multiplies only within the brain cells of the body. D. has no envelope. E. is a member of the herpesviridae.

B. contains RNA in its genome.

Vinegar is commonly produced by A. fermentation of barley with yeast. B. converting alcohol via biofilm bacteria. C. uniting hydrochloric acid and ammonium hydroxide. D. mixing carbohydrates with silage. E. removing the liquid of sauerkraut.

B. converting alcohol via biofilm bacteria.

Escherichia coli is a good indicator of water pollution because this bacterium A. is resistant to most antibiotics. B. is commonly found in the human intestine. C. grows only in high-salt environments. D. undergoes recombinations readily. E. it is motile and able to easily migrate and contaminate new water sources.

B. is commonly found in the human intestine.

Small towns and municipalities collect sewage into large ponds called ___________________, where the sewage is left undisturbed for up to three months to allow natural digestion of the organic matter to occur. A. sludge tanks B. lagoons C. cesspools D. sewer systems E. septic tanks

B. lagoons

The malaria attack coincides with A. entry of the parasites to the liver. B. the release of parasites from infected red blood cells. C. the bite of the mosquito. D. a cytokine storm. E. destruction of the spleen in the body.

B. the release of parasites from infected red blood cells.

Norovirus

B. A Carnival Lines cruise to Ensenada, Mexico

A leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is A. Gonorrhea B. Chlamydia C. Syphilis D. Genital herpes E. HIV

B. Chlamydia

Staphylococcus aureus

Boston cream pie contender at the Los Angeles County Fair pastry competition

How can you prevent warts from spreading? A. Maintain good hygiene. B. Do not pick at them. C. Do not share towels with someone who has them. D. All of the choices are correct. E. Avoid shaving over them.

D. All of the choices are correct.

Fifth disease is accompanied by A. yellowing of the skin resulting from seepage of bile from the liver B. a fiery red rash on the cheeks resembling a slap C. infection of the kidneys and an interruption of urine production D. substantial lesion formation in the brain tissue and meninges E. itching, bad odor, patchy areas of hair loss

B. a fiery red rash on the cheeks resembling a slap

None of the following applies to adenovirus URT infection except A. attaches to the nasopharyngeal mucosa by fimbriae. B. fatalities are rare and recovery is within 1-3 weeks C. it persists and causes a latent infection D. transmission is through an enveloped viral particle E. a virulence factor includes a capsule

B. fatalities are rare and recovery is within 1-3 weeks

The respiratory syncytial virus takes its name from the A. involvement of the liver tissue B. formation of giant cells in tissue culture cells C. involvement of the nervous system D. lysis of the red blood cells which accompanies the disease E. grouped mass of virions within a single viral envelope

B. formation of giant cells in tissue culture cells

Salmonella are A. coliforms B. motile C. Gram positive rods D. lactose fermenters E. All of the choices are correct

B. motile

All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except A. lysozyme in saliva B. refined sugar C. fluoride D. antibodies in saliva E. genetics

B. refined sugar

Several pathogenic organisms are associated with foods. These include typhoid bacilli, amoebic cysts, and hepatitis viruses. All of these causative agents of disease may accumulate in A. beef B. shellfish, such as clams C. salami D. dairy products E. eggs

B. shellfish, such as clams

This is normally a disease of infants and so we inoculate infants in our country. However, because most of us never get a booster shot, we are seeing more cases of this disease in college students and adults. What is this disease? A. diphtheria B. whooping cough C. scarlet fever D. rheumatic fever E. shingles

B. whooping cough

A 63-year-old man farmer living in Florida who had a 4-day history of fever, myalgias, and malaise without localizing symptoms is brought to the regional hospital because he awoke from sleep with fever, emesis, and confusion. On physical examination, he had a temperature of 39° C, blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg, pulse of 110, and respirations were 18/minute. No respiratory distress was noted. Treatment was initiated for presumed bacterial meningitis. Basilar infiltrates and a widened mediastinum were noted on the initial chest radiograph. The Gram stain of CSF revealed many neutrophils and large gram-positive rods. During the first day of hospitalization, the patient had a grand mal seizure and was intubated. On the second hospital day, hypotension and azotemia (reduced kidney function) developed, with subsequent renal failure. On the third hospital day, refractory hypotension developed, and the patient had a fatal cardiac arrest.

Bacillus anthracis -60-day course of ciprofloxacin and doxycycline

pyogenic

Bacteria which are suppurative or purulent and pus-forming are:

Treponema species

Bar fight

Cat scratch fever

Bartonella henselae

In situ bioremediation

Biostimulation performed on-site

OMPG/MUG test

Blue fluorescence in the presence of coliforms and Escherichia

A 6-week-old infant boy is brought to the hospital with a 10-day history of choking spells. His mother states he has had a repetitive cough, and is wheezing, turning red, and gasping for air. Following the coughing spells, the infant boy often vomits as well. A chest radiograph reveals his trachea is normal and clear, but his white blood cell count is up to 15,500/µL with 70% lymphocytes.

Bordetella pertussis -Azithromycin, erythromycin, and an acellular combined vaccine

central nervous system (CNS)

Brain and spinal cord.

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent Plague Brucellosis Mononucleosis Tularemia Endocarditis

Brucellosis

koplik spots

Bucchal mucosa membrane lesions typical of paramyxovirus infection.

scalded skin syndrome

Exfoliative toxin

Which bacteria ferment milk lactose, producing acids that curdle milk? A. Leuconostoc mesenteroides B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Streptococcus thermophiles, Lactococcus, Lactobacillus D. Propionibacterium E. Spirulina

C. Streptococcus thermophiles, Lactococcus, Lactobacillus

The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a measure of the A. degree of chemical pollution in water B. effectiveness of fluoroidation in the preparation of drinking water C. amount of biological pollution in water D. number of hepatitis viruses in underground springs E. B-cell receptors of dendritic cells

C. amount of biological pollution in water

E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all the following except: A. it has a reservoir of cattle intestines B. it causes a bloody diarrhea C. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals D. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure

C. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals

What brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain by the vascular system? A. Macrophages B. Cranium C. Blood-brain barrier D. Meninges E. Microglia

C. Blood-brain barrier

The products of yeast fermentation in breads are A. Ethanol and water B. Lactic acid and water C. Ethanol and carbon dioxide D. Carbon dioxide and water E. Lactic acid and carbon dioxide

C. Ethanol and carbon dioxide

Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a A. Bacteria B. Protozoan C. Virus D. Helminth E. All of the choices are correct

C. Virus

The causative organism of whooping cough is: A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Bordetella pertussis D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Staphyloccus aureus

C. Bordetella pertussis

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is: A. Melanoma B. Leukemia C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Hodgkin's lymphoma E. Myeloma

C. Kaposi's sarcoma

A. Salivary glands B. Pancreas C. Large intestine D. Liver E. Small intestine

C. Large intestine

Symptoms of mono

C. Sore throat with pus coating, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly

All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except: A. Associated with severe pain, bleeding, abscessed gums, and necrosis B. Most destructive of the periodontal diseases C. Very communicable D. Due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease E. Involves Treponema spirochete and other anaerobic bacteria

C. Very communicable

Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a: A. Bacteria B. Protozoan C. Virus D. Helminth E. All of the choices are correct

C. Virus

Bacteria which are suppurative or purulent and pus-forming are: A. pyrogenic B. paraplegic C. pyogenic D. pandemic E. parenteric

C. pyogenic

The cyclic bout of fever and chills in malaria are caused by: A. liver cell lysis B. white blood cell lysis C. red blood cell lysis D. neurological involvement E. None of the choices is correct

C. red blood cell lysis

Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in bones? A. Ebola B. Marburg C. Dengue fever D. Yellow fever E. Lassa fever

C. Dengue fever

Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) has the following characteristics except A. it replicates in lymphatic and blood vessel epithelial cells. B. purple lesions result from cell proliferation and blood vessel formation. C. its genome integrates into the host cell DNA. D. it is a typically latent infection. E. it causes Kaposi's sarcoma.

C. its genome integrates into the host cell DNA.

The natural resistance of egg white to spoilage is in part due to the presence of A. propionic acid. B. hydrogen sulfide. C. lysozyme. D. albumin. E. sulfur dioxide.

C. lysozyme.

The sequence of steps used in the preparation of water for drinking is A. aeration, fluoridation, and filtration. B. precipitation, coagulation, and chlorination. C. sedimentation, filtration, and chlorination. D. filtration, ozone/chlorination, discharge E. precipitation, flocculation, and sedimentation.

C. sedimentation, filtration, and chlorination.

Several pathogenic organisms are associated with foods including vibrios, which as causative agents of disease may accumulate in A. eggs. B. beef. C. shellfish, such as clams. D. milk. E. dairy products.

C. shellfish, such as clams.

Dried activated sludge from secondary sewage treatment can be used A. to cultivate fungi and protozoa. B. in aquaculture to grow fish. C. to fertilize agricultural land. D. to cultivate bacteria in the laboratory. E. to control mosquito populations in small freshwater ponds and lakes.

C. to fertilize agricultural land.

Which is mismatched? A. Hepatitis E virus - self-limiting RNA virus B. Hepatitis C virus - RNA virus C. Hepatitis B virus - enveloped DNA virus D. Hepatitis A virus - nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA enterovirus E. Hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that coinfects with HAV

C. Hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that coinfects with HAV

What do some bacteria in rapidly moving rivers and streams have in common with microbial mat bacteria? A. They are all autotrophs. B. All of the species are anaerobes. C. They are sessile to take greater advantage of nutrient flow. D. They are sulfur-oxidizers. E. They are halophiles.

C. They are sessile to take greater advantage of nutrient flow

Penicillin is useless for the treatment of primary atypical pneumonia because the causative organisms A. develop resistance rapidly B. are Gram-negative C. have no cell wall D. grow only within the cells E. possess penicillin-resistant PBPs

C. have no cell wall

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following diseases except A. strep throat B. scarlet fever C. pneumococcal pneumonia D. glomerulitis E. All of the choices are correct

C. pneumococcal pneumonia

Guillain-Barré syndrome

Campylobacter jejuni

HPV

Can be oncogenic

Greenhouse gas

Carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide that could disrupt the temperature balance of the earth.

Tuberculosis

Caused by a Mycobacterium

Strep throat

Caused by beta-hemolytic S. pyogenes

cariogenic

Causing dental caries, tooth decay.

campylobacter

Chicken shish kebab prepared on a camping trip

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Chickens

puerperal fever

Childbed fever; infection of the uterus following childbirth, commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.

A female patient presents at her primary care physician complaining of pain in her groin. On examination, she is found to have enlarged inguinal lymph nodes and painless lesions around her genitalia and anus. She is also 5 months pregnant. Questioning reveals that her boyfriend has recently returned from a vacation to see his family in Venezuela. She is very distressed and fears for the baby. A diagnosis was made on the basis of positive serology to the serotypes of this non-motile, gram-negative, intracellular bacterium.

Chlamydia trachomatis-Tetracycline and erythromycin for both sex partners

What chemical is used in both water purification and sewage treatment to give long-term disinfection? A. Fluorine B. Activated charcoal C. Copper sulfate D. Chlorine E. All of the choices are used

Chlorine

Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lethargy, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. D. ulcerations in GI tract, pneumonitis, and retinitis. E. None of the choices is correct.

D. ulcerations in GI tract, pneumonitis, and retinitis.

Myonecrosis

Clostridium perfringens

gas gangrene

Clostridium perfringens

Lockjaw

Clostridium tetani

toxic shock syndrome

Collapse of the blood pressure due to a circulating toxin such as one of the superantigens produced by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.

dysentery

Condition characterized by crampy abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea.

cariogenic

Conducive to the production or promotion of dental decay.

EBV (lymphoma)

Consumption of undercooked pork shoulder

A 48-year-old Chinese national developed a sore throat while on a week-long trade mission in rural Haiti. Two days after he returned home to Chongquing, he visited a local hospital with complaints of a sore throat and difficulties in swallowing. He was treated with oral antibiotics but returned two days later with chills, sweating, difficulty swallowing and breathing, nausea, and vomiting. He had diminished breath sounds in the left lung, and radiographs confirmed pulmonary infiltrates, as well as enlargement of the epiglottis. Laryngoscopy revealed yellow exudates on the tonsils, posterior pharynx, and soft palate. He was admitted to the intensive care unit, treated with antibiotics and steroids but over the next 4 days became hypotensive with a low-grade fever. By the eighth day of illness, a chest radiograph showed infiltrates in the right and left lung bases, and a white exudate and a pseudomembrane was observed over the supraglottic structures.

Corynebacterium diphtheriae - Antitoxin, penicillin or erythromycin, and a vaccine

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. Gram negative B. Lives in the stomach C. Curved rods D. Produces entertoxin that causes diarrhea E. Produces urease that buffers stomach acidity

D. Produces entertoxin that causes diarrhea

All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except A. Due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease B. Involves Treponema spirochetes, Prevotella, and Fusobacterium C. Common in crystal methamphetamine users D. Very communicable E. Associated with severe pain, bleeding, pseudomembrane formation, and necrosis

D. Very communicable

Retroviruses have the following characteristics except A. Enveloped B. Reverse transcriptase C. Viral genes integrate into the host genome D. DNA genome E. Glycoprotein spikes

D. DNA genome

Each of the following is true for Toxoplasma gondii except A. It is a nonflagellated parasite B. It is often fatal for AIDS patients C. Can cause stillbirth D. It has a narrow host range E. All of the choices are true

D. It has a narrow host range

Which of the following are characteristics that can be utilized to distinguish between vaginitis and vaginosis A. Causative agent B. Presence of vaginal inflammation C. Presence of discharge D. All of the choices are correct

D. All of the choices are correct

Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food? A. Sulfite B. Salt C. Organic acids D. Antibiotics E. Ethylene and propylene oxide gases

D. Antibiotics

he breakdown of man-made compounds by decomposers is called A. Saprobism B. Parasitism C. Decomposition D. Bioremediation E. Mineralization

D. Bioremediation

Which organisms are used to make salt pickles? A. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus B. Leuconostoc mesenteroides and Spirulina C. Pediococcus cerevisiae and Lactobacillus plantarum D. Lactobacillus species and Leuconostoc mesenteroides E. Propionibacterium and Spirulina

D. Lactobacillus species and Leuconostoc mesenteroides

The conversion of ammonia (NH4+) to nitrate (NO3-) occurs during A. Photosynthesis B. Ammonification C. Nitrogen fixation D. Nitrification E. Denitrification

D. Nitrification

A pure or mixed sample of known microbes that are added to food is a/an A. Flavor inducer B. Leavening C. Aerator D. Starter culture E. Fermenter

D. Starter culture

Which of the following are mismatched? A. brewer's yeast-S. carlbergensis B. glycocalyx-milk ropiness C. propionic acid-Swiss cheese D. starter culture-Pseudomonas E. botulinum-neurotoxin

D. starter culture-Pseudomonas

The causative organism for mumps is: A. Morbillivirus B. Corynebacterium C. Vibrio D. Paramyxovirus E. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Paramyxovirus

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except that it is: A. associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad spectrum antimicrobials B. a colitis that is a superinfection C. the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals D. due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies E. often from an endogenous source

D. due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies

Which is incorrect about warts? A. Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites B. Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet C. Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal D. Are frequently cancerous E. Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)

D. Are frequently cancerous

Which is incorrect about rabies? A. Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis B. Is a zoonotic disease C. Transmission can involve bites, scratches and inhalation D. Average incubation in human is 1 week E. Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats and canines are primary reservoirs

D. Average incubation in human is 1 week

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent: A. Mononucleosis B. Endocarditis C. Plague D. Brucellosis E. Tularemia

D. Brucellosis

Which is true of viral conjunctivitis? A. Has a mucopurulent, milky discharge B. Caused by Moraxella C. Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhea D. Caused by adenoviruses E. Must be treated with topical and oral antibiotics

D. Caused by adenoviruses

This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients: A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Malassezia furfur D. Pneumocystis jiroveci E. None of the choices is correct

D. Pneumocystis jiroveci

Infection of the urinary bladder is called A. Urethritis B. Vaginitis C. Pyelonephritis D. Cystitis E. PID

D. Cystitis

Tinea diseases are superficial cutaneous mycoses caused by several different genera of fungi. Each of the following is identified in this chapter as causing tinea except A. Trichophyton B. Microsporum C. Epidermophyton D. Emmonsiella

D. Emmonsiella

Which one of the following conditions is not associated with congenital rubella syndrome? A. Heart defects B. Encephalitis C. Viral excretion in body fluids for months post-birth D. Cataracts E. Deafness

D. Encephalitis

composed almost entirely of peptidoglycan

D. cell wall

All of the following will kill Giardia except A. boiling. B. ozone. C. iodine. D. chlorine in typical drinking water. E. All of the methods listed will kill Giardia.

D. chlorine in typical drinking water.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all of the following except A. external ear infection. B. serious infection in lung tissues of cystic fibrosis patients. C. severe nosocomial infection in burn patients. D. diarrheal illness. E. skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges.

D. diarrheal illness.

Lactobacillus in the female reproductive tract A. can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease. B. is the causative agent in common yeast infections. C. is indicative of underlying infection. D. is protective. E. can contribute to STDs.

D. is protective.

When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes A. gangrene B. hypotension C. swelling of the legs D. jaundice E. shock

D. jaundice

An enormous number of cholera bacilli must be present in contaminated food for infection to be established because A. antigenic variation to a harmless form will occur rapidly in the body. B. cholera bacilli are susceptible to the effects of bacteriophages. C. a large amount of toxin must be produced in the intestine. D. most will be destroyed by the stomach acid. E. they must be exposed to an anaerobic environment to grow vegetatively from their spores.

D. most will be destroyed by the stomach acid.

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. Gram negative B. curved rods C. lives in the stomach D. produces enterotoxin that causes diarrhea E. produces urease that buffers stomach acidity

D. produces enterotoxin that causes diarrhea

Staphylococcus aureus is associated with A. burn infections B. venereal disease C. urinary tract infections D. toxic shock syndrome E. gingivitis

D. toxic shock syndrome

hyopoxic

Deficient in O2.

Co-metabolism

Degradation of pollutants only in the presence of specific substrates

disseminated intravascular coagulation

Devastating condition in which clots form in small blood vessels, leading to failure of vital organs.

Fermenter

Device used for growing mass fermenting cultures.

antibiotic-associated diarrhea

Diarrhea that occurs as a complication of taking antimicrobial medications.

foodborne infection

Disease resulting from ingestion of a pathogen-contaminated food.

foodborne intoxication

Disease resulting from ingestion of food that contains a toxin produced by a microorganism.

peripheral nervous system

Division of the nervous system that carries information to and from the central nervous system (CNS).

unprotected sexual intercourse and blood/blood products

Documented transmission of HIV involves:

Which of the following is/are microorganisms that can be used as food? A. Spirulina B. Single-cell protein C. Algae D. Fusarium graminearum E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is A. Leuconostoc mesenteroides B. Spirulina C. Propionibacterium D. Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus E. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

E. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Which of the following is a foodborne intoxication? A. Vibrio enteritis B. Campylobacteriosis C. Salmonellosis D. Listerosis E. Staphyloccocal aureus

E. Staphyloccocal aureus

Which of the following happens when food is placed in the refrigerator? A. Refrigeration eliminates the most resistant bacterial spores, especially those of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium B. Refrigeration eliminates pathogenic bacteria from milk; the process also lowers the total number of bacteria and thereby reduces the change of spoilage C. Refrigeration results in low oxygen levels which prevent the growth of facultative aerobes, limiting them to fermentative ATP production D. Refrigeration destroys many enzymes in the food product and prevents any further cellular metabolism from taking place E. Refrigeration reduces the rate of enzyme activity in a microorganism and thus lowers the rate of growth and reproduction 2 points Question 12

E. Refrigeration reduces the rate of enzyme activity in a microorganism and thus lowers the rate of growth and reproduction

The normal biota of the CNS consists of: A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Herpes simplex I C. Herpes simplex II D. Streptococcus agalactiae E. The CNS has no normal biota

E. The CNS has no normal biota

Indicator organisms are A. Coliforms B. Enterococci C. Suggestive of fecal contamination D. Used in water quality tests E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes A. High temperature and pressure B. Pasteurization C. Refrigeration and freezing D. Irradiation E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Abnormal prion proteins are designated as A. Scrapie^sc B. Priods C. PrP^p D. PrP^c E. PrP^sc

E. PrPsc

Spongiform encephalopathies are: A. Associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain B. Chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system C. Caused by prions D. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, scrapie, and bovine spongiform encephalopathy E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Virulence factors of S. pyogenes include: A. Polysaccharides on the cell wall B. Lipoteichoic acid C. Spiky M-proteins D. Capsule to provide adherence E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection? A. Nasal hairs B. Cilia C. Mucus D. Macrophages E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Each of the following is true for Listeria monocytogenes except: A. Can be controlled by viral lysis B. Can result in septicemia C. Possesses flagella D. Resistant to cold E. Penetrates alveolar macrophages

E. Penetrates alveolar macrophages

Warts are caused by A. Enveloped RNA viruses B. Enveloped DNA viruses C. Non-enveloped RNA viruses D. Bacteria E. Non-enveloped DNA viruses

E. Non-enveloped DNA viruses

Herpes simplex I A. Is exclusive to oral mucosa B. Is exclusive to genitourinary tract C. Confers immunity to Herpes simplex II D. Is cleared by acylovir E. None of these choices is correct

E. None of these choices is correct

A human form of BSE is called A. TSE B. scrapie C. kuru D. wasting disease E. variant CJD

E. variant CJD

Thiomargarita namibiensis is found in an environmental sample. Which of the following should then apply to this sample? A. contains chemolithotrophs B. elemental sulfur is providing electrons C. obtained from the ocean D. there are no larger bacteria present E. All of the choices apply.

E. All of the choices apply.

Nutrient deficient aquatic ecosystems are called A. Epitrophic B. Hypotrophic C. Autotrophic D. Eutrophic E. Oligotrophic

E. Oligotrophic

One of the distinctive characteristics of Yersinia pestis cells is A. acid-fast staining. B. capsule. C. spirochete cell type. D. production of polar endospores. E. bipolar staining.

E. bipolar staining.

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except A. oral bacteria are introduced to the blood via dental procedures B. it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage. C. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli. D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in a vegetation. E. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.

E. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.

Water sample A has a BOD of 157 ppm, while sample B has a BOD of 62 ppm. On this basis, it may be concluded that A. sample B has less salt in it. B. sample B is a marine water sample while sample A is fresh water sample. C. the pH of sample A is higher. D. The BOD of sample A indicates a larger capacity for anaerobic fermentation. E. sample B has a lower microbial population than sample A.

E. sample B has a lower microbial population than sample A.

All the following apply to coliform organisms except A. they are Gram-negative. B. spore formation does not take place in the organism. C. they produce acid and gas from the carbohydrate glucose. D. E. coli and species of Enterobacter are included in the group. E. they are facultative anaerobes which form spores in the presence of O2.

E. they are facultative anaerobes which form spores in the presence of O2.

Salmonella enterica

E. A new pet turtle

Defenses of the GI tract against pathogens include A. Mucus, acid, and saliva B. Secretory IgA and enzymes C. Peristalsis D. GALT E. All of the choices are GI tract defenses

E. All of the choices are GI tract defenses

Norwalk agent is A. a calcivirus B. transmitted orofecally C. sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish D. A common enteric virus of gastroenteritis E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene? A. debridement of the wound B. hyperbaric chamber C. amputation D. rigorous cleansing of deep wounds E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Infection due to Haemophilus ducreyi may be identified by the isolation of A. staphylococci from skin lesions. B. Gram-positive rods from the feces. C. diplococci from the spinal fluid. D. spirochetes from gumma lesions. E. Gram-negative rods from genital papules.

E. Gram-negative rods from genital papules.

Actinomyces israelii A. can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. causes most cases in the immunocompromised. C. can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. D. lives in the soil. E. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

E. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals

E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all the following except:

The toxins produced by tetanus bacilli A. induce a cytokine storm B. are endotoxins C. are produced under aerobic conditions D. cause paralysis E. induce uncontrolled contractions of the muscles

E. induce uncontrolled contractions of the muscles

Which one of the following is not associated with measles? A. Koplik spots B. a red skin rash C. a rare brain disease called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. an RNA paramyxovirus E. inflammation of the salivary glands

E. inflammation of the salivary glands

How is HPS (hantavirus pulmonary syndrome) treated? A. with antibiotics B. with oxygen therapy C. with chemotherapy D. with electrolyte and fluid replacement E. none of the choices is correct

E. none of the choices is correct

Cyst formation by certain protozoa permits A. survival in the arthropod vector. B. the use of carbon dioxide as an energy source. C. sexual reproduction. D. enhanced reproduction by the protozoan. E. passage through the stomach acid and other environmental stresses.

E. passage through the stomach acid and other environmental stresses.

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is aided by A. a positive catalase test B. observation of cells with bipolar staining in the blood C. a posotive Weil-Felix test D. a skin rash on the palms and soles E. recovery of acid-fast rods from the sputum

E. recovery of acid-fast rods from the sputum

Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of A. oak trees and grape vines B. the winter months C. the reproductive organs D. soldiers and other military personnel E. the lungs

E. the lungs

All of the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections except A. the catheterization of patients can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infections. B. they often form an endogenous source. C. they typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices. D. the organism is coagulase negative E. the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.

E. the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.

virus

Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a

bubo

Enlarged, tender lymph node characteristic of plague and some sexually transmitted infections.

villus (plural: villi)

Fingerlike protrusion from a membrane such as the intestinal lining.

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

Fluid produced within the brain that surrounds the central nervous system.

Sporothrix schenkii

Flying debris lacerations sustained during tornado winds

fermented food

Food intentionally altered during production by encouraging the activity of bacteria, yeast, or mold.

Aflatoxin

Found in grains spoiled by Aspergillus

Penicillin roquefortii

Fungus imparting texture, flavor and bluish green veins in cheese

Clenched-fist injury

Fusobacterium and Prevotella (anaerobes)

cholera

GI tract - via contaminated water ingestion

mononucleosis

GI tract - via saliva exchange

mad cow disease

GI tract - via tainted meat product ingestion

Tinea pedis

Generally known as athlete's foot

tubercle

Granuloma formed in tuberculosis.

Flesh-eating disease

Group A Streptococci

transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs)

Group of fatal neurodegenerative diseases in which brain tissue develops spongelike holes.

soft chancre

Haemophilus ducreyi

specific technique used for diagnosis

Hansen's disease- skin biopsy Amoebic dysentery- stool sample pharyngitis- throat culture malaraia- blood smear chest x-ray- tuberculosis

A 62-year-old Navajo potter came to the emergency department because of a fever of 40° C, lumbar pain, nausea, vomiting, and loose, runny stools. The patient exhibited a non-productive cough and reported severe shortness of breath ('like an elephant sitting on her chest'). She reports that the symptoms began a few days after cleaning out a storage shed on her property to expand her studio space. Her respiratory rate was 18 breaths/min, and her blood pressure was 85/55 mm Hg. Chest radiographic examination showed extensive infiltrates in the left lower lung that involved both the lower lobe and the lingula.

Hantavirus-No proven treatment is available

A 52 year old man is hospitalized after complaints of nausea, vomiting and a strange constant feeling of fullness (patient belches continuously during physical exam). Upon an examination of his medical records, the medical staff finds he has a peptic ulcer that was not being treated due to lack of symptoms. A noninvasive urease test was performed and was found to be positive confirming their suspicions.

Helicobacter pylori- Proton pump inhibitor, macrolide and beta-lactam antibiotics

Measles

Immunization involves MMR vaccine

secondary treatment

In treatment of wastewater, a biological process designed to convert most of the suspended solids to microbial mass and inorganic compounds.

primary treatment

In wastewater treatment, a physical process designed to remove materials that will settle out.

M protein

Increases pathogenicity of organisms

pelvic inflammatory disease

Infection of the fallopian tubes, uterus, or ovaries.

pyelonephritis

Infection of the kidneys.

urinary tract infection

Infection of the urinary tract, usually the bladder.

Meningitis

Infection of tissues covering brain and spinal cord

hepatitis

Inflammation and necrosis of the liver, often the result of viral infection.

folliculitis

Inflammation of a hair follicle.

lymphangitis

Inflammation of lymphatic vessels.

encephalitis

Inflammation of the brain

fasciitis

Inflammation of the fascia, bands of fibrous tissue that underlie the skin and surround muscle and body organs.

gingivitis

Inflammation of the gums.

endocarditis

Inflammation of the heart valves or lining of the heart chambers.

hepatitis

Inflammation of the liver; various causes, but most commonly the result of viral infection, particularly by the hepatitis viruses.

penumonia

Inflammation of the lungs accompanied by filling of the air sacs with fluids such as pus and blood.

pneumonia

Inflammation of the lungs accompanied by filling of the air sacs with fluids such as pus and blood.

otitis media

Inflammation of the middle ear due to infection.

pharyngitis

Inflammation of the throat.

cystitis

Inflammation of the urinary bladder.

antigenic drift, antigenic shift

Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins, called ________, or __________, a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain.

In late 2011, 200 cases were associated with an outbreak at a fundraiser in Los Angeles which took place at the Playboy Mansion. All individuals had symptoms of fever, chills, myalgia, malaise, and headaches. The source of the outbreak was shown to be the heating system for the hot tub and swimming pool.

Legionella pneumophila-Rifampin and treat the water source with hyperchlorination

Lyme disease

Its cause is a spirochete

tinea pedis

Keratin-digesting enzyme

Mycobacterium avium

Latent prior infection

antigenic shift

Major change in a viral surface antigen that render antibodies made against the previous version ineffective.

Tinea versicolor

Malassezia furfur

sputum

Material coughed from the lungs.

wastewater

Material that flows from household plumbing systems; municipal wastewater also includes business and industrial wastes and storm water runoff.

Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)

Measure of pollution in water

biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)

Measure of the amount of biologically degradable organic material in water.

meninges

Membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.

leprosy

Mycobacterium leprae

directly observed therapy short-course (DOTS)

Method used to ensure that patients comply with their antimicrobial therapy; healthcare workers visit patients and watch them take their medications.

indicator organisms

Microbes commonly found in the intestinal tract whose presence in other environments suggests fecal contamination.

Flocs

Mixed population of aerobic microbes that grow as suspended biofilms

A 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use entered the local health clinic with complaints of a dry persistent cough, fever, malaise, and anorexia. Over the preceding 4 weeks, he had lost 15 pounds and experienced chills and sweats. A chest radiograph revealed patchy infiltrates throughout the lung fields. Because the patient had a nonproductive cough, sputum was induced and submitted for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial cultures, as well as examination for Pneumocystis organisms. Blood cultures and serologic tests for HIV infection were performed. The patient was found to be HIV positive. The results of all cultures were negative after 2 days of incubation.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis- Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, and rifampin for 2 months followed by 4-6 months of alternative combination drugs

Legionnaires' disease

Name for 1976 outbreak of L. pneumophila disease

A 17-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital with a 4-day history of fever, chills, malaise, sore throat, skin rash, and polyarthralgia. She reported being sexually active and a 5-week history of a profuse yellowish/greenish vaginal discharge, which was untreated. Upon presentation, she had erythematous maculopapular skin rash over her forearm, thigh, and ankle, and her metacarpophalangeal joint, wrist, knee, ankle, and midtarsal joints were acutely inflamed. She had an elevated leukocyte count and sedimentation rate.

Neisseria gonorrhea -Recommended cephalosporin antibiotics and condoms

Meningococcus

Neisseria meningitidis

granulation tissue

New tissue formed during healing of an injury, consisting of small, red, translucent nodules containing abundant blood vessels.

Streptococci: alpha hemolytic

Olive green color of partly destroyed red blood cells

grow inside host cells

One virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes is the ability to

Primary treatment

Organic waste removal from raw sewage

Decomposer

Organisms inhabiting soil or water which breakdown and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms.

primary producers

Organisms that convert CO2 into organic compounds; by doing so, they sustain other life forms, including humans.

carbuncle

Painful infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissues; manifests as a cluster of boils.

Pasteurella multocida

Pitbull mauling of arm

neurotropic

Poliovirus (poliomyelitis)

Lagoon

Pond for decomposing sewage

Acne

Propionibacterium acnes

acne

Propionibacterium acnes

anerobic digestion

Process that uses anaerobic microbes to degrade the sludge obtained during wastewater treatment.

bioremediation

Process that uses microorganisms to degrade harmful chemicals.

Clostridium botulinium

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of:

Renin

Promotes protein coagulation in fermenting milk

blood-brain barrier

Property of the central nervous system blood vessels that restricts passage of infectious agents and certain molecules (such as medications) into the brain and spinal cord.

A 41 year-old male firefighter was brought to the E.R. with third degree burns in 28% of his body. His vital signs were unstable blood pressure = 55/35; heart rate = 210 beats/min.; and respiratory rate = 40 breaths/min. He was deteriorating from circulatory failure. After his vital signs stabilized the patient was treated with topical broad spectrum antibiotic. Despite the treatment, some affected areas became necrotic and the patient developed sepsis. After 7 days of aggressive treatment with antibiotics the patient died.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa- High dose intravenous fluoroquinolones or imipenem, debridement

pyogenic

Pus-producing.

water activity (aw)

Quantitative measure of the relative amount of water available for microbial growth.

Rubella

RNA virus; causes mild symptoms in adults and fetal fatalities

Intoxication

Results from ingestion of exotoxin secreted by bacterial cells growing in the food.

infection

Results from ingestion of whole microbial cells that target the intestine

antigenic drift

Slight changes in a viral surface antigen that render antibodies made against the previous version only partially protective.

Clostridium tetani

Roadside IED (improvised explosive device) in Falluja, Iraq

exanthem subitum

Roseola, a viral childhood rash.

teratogenic (disturbs fetal growth)

Rubivirus (rubella)

hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

Serious condition characterized by red cell breakdown and kidney failure; a sequel to infection by certain Shiga toxin-producing strains of Shigella dysenteriae and Escherichia coli.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Severe gamma radiation exposure

rabies

Skin - parenteral via bite trauma

tuberculosis

Skin - penetration via hair follicle

Scarlet fever

Skin rash with strep throat

Tuberculin test

Skin test for tuberculosis

Humus

Slowly decaying organic litter from plant and animal tissues found in the soil

chancre

Sore resulting from an ulcerating infection; the "hard chancre" of primary syphilis is typically firm and painless.

Rose gardener's disease

Sporothrix schenkii

Carbuncle

Staphylococcus aureus

Toxic shock syndrome

Staphylococcus aureus

carbuncle

Staphylococcus aureus

A 15-year-old girl admitted to the hospital with a 2-day history of pharyngitis and vaginitis associated with vomiting and watery diarrhea. She was febrile and hypotensive on admission, with a diffuse erythematous rash over her entire body. Laboratory tests were consistent with acidosis, oliguria, and disseminated intravascular coagulation with severe thrombocytopenia. Her chest radiograph showed bilateral infiltrates suggestive of "shock lung." (edema, impaired perfusion, and reduction in alveolar space so that the alveoli collapse). She was admitted to the hospital intensive care unit where she was stabilized, and she improved gradually over a 17-day period. On the third day, fine desquamation started on her face, trunk, and extremities and progressed to peeling of the palms and soles by the 14th day.

Staphylococcus aureus -Methicillin, protective isolation, and exfoliation to prevent a secondary infection

E. coli 0157:H7

Steak tartare (minced raw beef)

Extrinsic factor

Storage temperature, atmosphere

extensively drug-resistantM. tuberculosis (XDR-TB)

Strains of M. tuberculosis resistant to isoniazid and rifampin, plus three or more second-line antimicrobials.

multidrug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MDR-TB)

Strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that are resistant to isoniazid and rifampin.

Rat bite fever

Streptobacillus moniliformis

production of glucan

Streptococcus mutans

Pneumococcus

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Impetigo

Streptococcus pyogenes

Xenobiotic

Synthetic compound not found in nature

aw

The amount of water available in foods

food preservation

Treating food to prolong the shelf life.

lockjaw (tetanus)

Tetanospasmin

Ringworm

Trichophyton species

vector control

The best defense against arboviruses is:

bacteria carried via lymph resulting in inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node

The bubo of bubonic plague is due to

Borrelia burgdorferi

The causative agent of Lyme disease is:

paramyxovirus

The causative organism for mumps is:

red blood cell lysis

The cyclic bout of fever and chills in malaria are caused by

Plankton

The floating, surface microbial community that drifts with the currents and waves.

effluent

The liquid portion of treated wastewater.

rhinovirus

The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is

water and electrolyte replacement

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is:

composting

The natural decomposition of organic solid material.

the CNS has no normal biota

The normal biota of the CNS consists of:

definitive host

The organism in which a parasite develops into its adult or sexually mature stage.

chills, fever, and sweating from erythrocytic lysis

The paroxysms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are:

sludge

The solid portion of wastewater that settles to the bottom of sedimentation tanks during primary and secondary treatments.

Ecology

The study of interactions between microbes and their environment and how those interactions affect the earth.

Pneumocystis jiroveci

This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:

microvillus (plural: microvilli)

Tiny cylindrical projections from luminal surfaces of cells such as those lining the intestine; increases surface area of the cell.

superantigen

Toxins that non-specifically activate many T cells, resulting in excessive cytokine production that leads to severe reactions and sometimes fatal shock.

hydrothermal vents

Undersea geysers that spew out mineral-laden hot water.

Spoilage

Undesirable biochemical changes in food

food spoilage

Undesirable biochemical changes in foods.

Cytomegalovirus

Unprotected sex

Pneumococcal pneumonia

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except:

BCG

Vaccine for tuberculosis

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota from the female reproductive tract during childbearing years? Vaginal pH is neutral Sustained in part by estrogen-caused glycogen release Lactobacilli convert sugars to acid Candida albicans present in small amounts Secretory IgA provides protection

Vaginal pH is neutral

A 31 year old male presented to the local ER in late summer and immediately passed a large watery stool with "rice water" appearance. He then vomited several times and became slightly sweaty. After consulting the patient, it was determined he had just returned to U.S. from a 3 week long ecotourism trek to the Madre de Dios region of the Peruvian amazon. On the second day home, GI symptoms star

Vibrio cholerae - Oral rehydration therapy

Effluent

Wastewater treatment liquid product

caseous necrosis

When the center of a tubercle breaks down into a ________________, it gradually heals by calcification that forms a tuberculous cavity.

protease inhibitors

Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?

average incubation in human is 1 week

Which is incorrect about rabies?

are frequently cancerous

Which is incorrect about warts?

Produces entertoxin that causes diarrhea

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?

caused by adenoviruses

Which is true of viral conjunctivitis?

Yellow fever

Which of the following is a viral hemorrhagic fever?

large intestine

Which of the following locations pertaining to the GI tract has a large commensal population of microorganisms?

bile

Yellow-colored fluid produced by the liver that aids in the absorption of nutrients from the intestine.

rhizosphere

Zone around plant roots containing organic materials exuded by the roots.

Prokaryotes have ribosomes different from those of eukaryotes. Because of this, which of the following is true?

a. Some selective antibiotics can block protein synthesis of bacteria without harming the eukaryotic host.

About half of all prokaryotes are capable of directional movement. The following statements are all true of such directional movement except that

a. it may occur via flagellar action.

If a bacterium regenerates from an endospore that does not have all of the plasmids contained in its parent cell, it will probably

a. lack "contingency" functions.

Jams, jellies, preserves, honey, and other foodstuffs with a high sugar content hardly ever become contaminated by bacteria, even when the food containers are left open at room temperature. This is because bacteria that encounter such an environment

a. undergo death by plasmolysis.

Which two structures play direct roles in permitting bacteria to adhere to each other, or to other surfaces?

b. 1 and 3

Though plants, fungi, and prokaryotes all have cell walls, we classify them under different taxonomic units. Which of the observations below comes closest to explaining the basis for placing these organisms in different taxa?

b. Their cell walls are constructed from very different biochemicals.

Mycoplasmas are bacteria that lack cell walls. On the basis of this structural feature, which of the statements below is true about mycoplasmas?

b. They are subject to lysis in hypotonic conditions.

Which of the following statements is correct about gram-negative bacteria?

b. They often possess an outer membrane containing toxic lipopolysaccharides.

If penicillin is an antibiotic that inhibits enzymes from catalyzing the synthesis of peptidoglycan, then which prokaryotes should be most vulnerable to inhibition by penicillin?

b. gram-positive bacteria

In a hypothetical situation, the genes for sex pilus construction and for tetracycline resistance are located together on the same plasmid within a particular bacterium. If this bacterium performs conjugation involving a copy of this plasmid, then the result should be

b. the rapid spread of tetracycline resistance to other bacteria in that habitat.

The primary decomposers of dead organic matter are microorganisms such as multicellular parasites and rickettsiae. protozoal cysts and hepatitis A viruses. chlamydiae and viroids. bacteria and fungi.

bacteria and fungi.

zoonotic infection with its primary reservoir

birds, pigs=influenza squirrels=tularemia cat= toxoplasmosis cattle, poultry, rodent, reptile intestinal biota= salmonella mice=hantavirus

Plague

buboes

lyme disease

bulls eye rash

Which of the following statements about bacterial cell walls is false?

c. Cell walls prevent cells from dying in hypertonic conditions.

Which of the following statements about prokaryotes is correct?

c. They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis.

The typical prokaryotic flagellum features

c. a complex motor embedded in the cell wall and plasma membrane.

Meningococcal meningitis

capsule

Conducive to the production or promotion of dental decay.

cariogenic

hydrophobia

characteristic symptom of rabies rhabdovirus infection triggered by pain associated with swallowing water.

GI tract - via contaminated water ingestion

cholera

Nitrite

combines with hemoglobin to reduce O2 capacity of blood

The organism in which a parasite develops into its adult or sexually mature stage

definitive host

nitrogen fixation

conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N2) to ammonia (NH4+)

Denitrification

conversion of nitrate (NO3-) to nitrogen gas (N2)

In a bacterium that possesses antibiotic resistance and the potential to persist through very adverse conditions, such as freezing, drying, or high temperatures, DNA should be located within, or be part of, which structures?

d. 1, 3, and 5

In regard to prokaryotic reproduction, which of the following is true?

d. Mutation is a primary source of variation in prokaryote populations.

Which of the following is a correct statement about the genomes of prokaryotes?

d. Prokaryotic chromosomes are not contained within a nucleus but, rather, are found at the nucleoid region.

Which of the following have been present in Earth's living organisms for the least amount of evolutionary time?

d. nuclei

Which of the following is the most common compound in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria?

d. peptidoglycan

Which of the following is the correct order, from most external to most internal?

e. 3, 1, 2

putrefaction

end result of microbial succession

Rhizobia

endosymbiotic nodule nitrogen-fixer

A bacterial toxin that specifically targets intestinal mucous membrane cells.

enterotoxin

An increase in eosinophil concentration in the bloodstream, often in response to helminth infection.

eosinophilia

primary virulence factor

exfoliative toxin- SSS keratin-digesting enzyme- tinea pedis capsule- menigococcal meningitis erythrogenic toxin- scarlet fever tetanospasmin- lockjaw (tetnus)

Inflammation and necrosis of the liver, often the result of viral infection.

hepatitis

Dead zone

hypoxic result of agricultural run-off

GI tract - via saliva exchange

mononucleosis

Anaerobic fermentation

mutualistic rumen microflora

Diazotroph

non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria

A good range of temperature to store food is A. Below -10º C and above 100º C B. 0º-50º C C. Below 4º C and above 60º C D. Below 10ºC and above 80º C E. 20º-80º C

not A

A. Can progress to a septicemia B. Patient has fever, headache, nausea, pneumonia C. Transmitted by respiratory droplets D. Severe internal hemorrhaging E. Caused by Yersinia pestis

not A

Protective features of the skin include all of the following except: A. Keratinized surface B. Lysozyme C. High salt content D. Low pH E. Resident biota

not D

A common causative agent of acute endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Candida albicans D. Neisseria gonorrhea E. All of the choices are correct.

not E

Which of the following is incorrect about water? A. Finding coliforms in high numbers indicates fecal contamination of the water. B. When a water quality test is negative for coliforms, it is considered fit for human consumption. C. The membrane filter method is a widely used rapid method to test large quantities of water for quality. D. the (Most Probable Number) MPN specifically detects fecal coliforms. E. There is no acceptable level for fecal coliforms, enterococci, viruses, or pathogenic protozoans in drinking water.

not a

The cyclic transformation of nitrogen is important because nitrogen is an essential component of steroids and lipids. carbohydrates and lipids. nucleic acids and amino acids. lipids and cholesterol.

nucleic acids and amino acids.

Treating foods with large amounts of salt draws the water out of foods by A. active transport B. reverse osmosis C. osmosis D. lyophilization E. efflux

osmosis

mumps

parotitis

All of the following release CO2 into the atmosphere except A. photosynthesis of land plants. B. respiration in the ocean. C. respiration of land plants. D. combustion of coal.

photosynthesis of land plants.

Skin - parenteral via bite trauma

rabies

Phosphorus cycle

results in eutrophication from detergent waste water run-off

Erythrogenic toxin

scarlet fever

Chemolithoautotroph

symbiotic primary producer in hydrothermal vent

In the treatment of sewage, sludge tanks A. collect sediment material that cannot be digested by microorganisms. B. contain algae, fungi, bacteria, nematodes and protozoa in a biofilm to aerobically digest the organic waste C. take advantage of anaerobic bacteria to digest sediment material. D. use a schmutzdecke to purify the liquid waste. E. facilitate the growth of yeast to oxidize the liquid phase of sewage.

take advantage of anaerobic bacteria to digest sediment material.

Neuraminidase

the enzyme associated with the release of influenza virions from the infected cell is:

Skin - penetration via hair follicle

tuberculosis

trypanosomiasis

ucontrollable sleepiness

Brucellosis

undulating fever

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their A. Respiratory secretions B. Feces C. Saliva D. Urine E. Blood

urine

Autotroph

uses CO2 as a source of carbon