UPDATED Pharm mid term

The maximum volume of medication to be delivered into the deltoid muscle is​ ________ mL. A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 5

A. 2

The standard dose of diphenhydramine for anaphylaxis​ is: A. 25-50 mg. B. 50-100 mg. C. 10-20 mg. D. 30-40 mg.

A. 25-50 mg.

If a newly developed drug is undergoing a​ double-blind study in a large patient​ population, it is most likely undergoing what phase of human​ studies? A. 3 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4

A. 3

The necessary blood flow for hemodialysis is which of the​ following? A. 300 to 400​ mL/minute B. 100 to 200​ mL/minute C. 200 to 300​ mL/minute D. none of the above

A. 300 to 400​ mL/minute

Pseudoseizures are best controlled​ by: A. A command to stop B. Phenytoin C. Lorazepam D. Using physical restraints

A. A command to stop

In which of the following situations is a significant amount of carboxyhemoglobin most likely to be​ present? A. A patient found unresponsive in an apartment in which there is a gas furnace B. A patient who is being treated with nitrites for cyanide poisoning C. A patient who inhaled anhydrous ammonia fumes D. A patient with COPD who is short of breath with an SpO2 of 90 percent

A. A patient found unresponsive in an apartment in which there is a gas furnace

Which of the following mechanisms is not characteristic for a rectal foreign​ body? A. Accidental trauma B. Sexual gratification C. Psychosis on the part of the patient D. Accidental swallowing of something

A. Accidental trauma

A patient is experiencing severe abdominal​ cramping, vomiting,​ diarrhea, and facial flushing after eating undercooked chicken. Management of this patient should include all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Activated charcoal B. IV of normal saline C. Oxygen D. Transport

A. Activated charcoal

The administration of a vaccine results in​ ________ immunity. A. Active induced B. Natural induced C. Natural passive D. Passive induced

A. Active induced

A​ 56-year-old female is conscious and alert and complaining of diarrhea and nausea. The patient describes a​ two-day history of her symptoms and states that the pain is​ "all over her​ abdomen." All four quadrants are tender to palpation. She also describes hematochezia. PMH includes​ CAD, and she recently began taking 325 mg of ASA once a day. Of the​ following, which is the most likely cause of her clinical​ condition? A. Acute gastroenteritis B. Acute pancreatitis C. Peptic ulcer D. Diverticulitis

A. Acute gastroenteritis

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old male with a history of type I diabetes. You were called to his place of employment because he was behaving bizarrely. On your arrival he is confused and combative with a blood glucose level of 41​ mg/dL. Due to poor vasculature and the​ patient's combativeness, you have not been able to start an IV. Which of the following is the best course of​ action? A. Administer 1 mg​ glucagon, IM. B. Administer 5 mg​ Valium, IM, and attempt the IV again when the patient is less agitated. C. Administer half an amp​ (12.5 g) of 50 percent​ dextrose, IM. D. Use​ four-point restraints to restrain the patient and transport. Attempt the IV again if the patient becomes unresponsive.

A. Administer 1 mg​ glucagon, IM.

You are assessing an unresponsive patient with a MedicAlert tag that indicates he is a diabetic. The​ patient's airway is​ patent, respirations are 20 per minute and​ adequate, radial pulse is rapid and​ weak, and the skin is warm and moist. You attempt to get a blood glucose​ reading, but your blood glucose monitor malfunctions. Which of the following is the best course of​ action? A. Administer 25 g of 50 percent dextrose. B. Request an order for 20 units of regular insulin. C. Request another unit to respond to the scene with a blood glucose monitor. D. Administer a 1 to 2 liter bolus of NS.

A. Administer 25 g of 50 percent dextrose.

Your patient is a​ 46-year-old male who is unconscious on his front lawn after being stung by a bee. You note angioneurotic edema. HR​ = 132, BP​ = 76/40, RR​ = 24 and shallow. You should​ first: A. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen with a nonbreather mask or similar device. B. Start an IV of NS wide open and administer epinephrine​ 1:10,000 IV C. Administer epinephrine​ 1:1000 SC D. Intubate the patient

A. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen with a nonbreather mask or similar device.

Which of the following drugs are often found in both topical and oral nasal​ decongestants? A. Alpha1 agonists B. Alpha1 antagonists C. Beta2 agonists D. Alpha2 agonists

A. Alpha1 agonists

Mushrooms from the class​ ________ are responsible for over 90 percent of deaths from mushroom toxicity. A. Amanita B. Shiitake C. Button D. Galerina

A. Amanita

Two​ 15-year-old boys have been hiking and camping and using a guide to native plants to determine which plants are edible. They drank a tea made from some plants that they picked. They are now complaining of abdominal​ cramping, watering​ eyes, vomiting,​ diarrhea, and sweating. Which of the following have they most likely​ ingested? A. Amanita B. Poison sumac C. Holly berries D. Jimson weed

A. Amanita

A​ larger-than-expected dose of adenosine may be necessary in patients regularly​ taking: A. Aminophylline. B. amphetamines. C. benzodiazepines. D. Class I​ anti-dysrhythmic.

A. Aminophylline.

Which of the following diseases is characterized by a progressive degeneration of the nerve cells that control voluntary​ movement, weakness, loss of motor​ control, difficulty​ speaking, and​ cramping? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Muscular dystrophy D. ​Bell's palsy

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Lung perfusion depends on all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. An intact alveolar membrane B. Intact pulmonary capillaries C. Efficient pumping of blood by the heart D. Adequate blood volume

A. An intact alveolar membrane

Which of the following is a potentially​ life-threatening condition involving the​ head, neck,​ face, and upper​ airway? A. Angioedema B. Urticaria C. Hives D. Wheals

A. Angioedema

Which of the following is a potentially​ life-threatening condition involving the​ head, neck,​ face, and upper​ airway? A. Angioedema B. Urticaria C. Wheals D. Hives

A. Angioedema

McBurney's point, a common site of pain secondary to​ appendicitis, is​ located: A. At the midway point of a line from 1 to 2 inches above the right iliac crest to the umbilicus B. Two inches above the umbilicus in the midline C. At the midway point of a line from the symphysis pubis to the right​ anterior, superior iliac crest D. One to two inches above the iliac crest in the right midaxillary line

A. At the midway point of a line from 1 to 2 inches above the right iliac crest to the umbilicus

Lithium is used to​ treat: A. Bipolar disorder B. Depression C. Personality disorders D. Schizophrenia

A. Bipolar disorder

Airway resistance is increased​ by: A. Bronchospasm B. Decreased elasticity of the chest wall C. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation D. Anticholinergic drugs

A. Bronchospasm

Which of the following is NOT a route for enteral medication​ administration? A. Buccal B. Gastric C. Oral D. Rectal

A. Buccal

Which of the following is a highly​ toxic, odorless, tasteless gas that is a​ by-product of incomplete​ combustion? A. Carbon monoxide B. Methane C. Cyanide D. Carbon dioxide

A. Carbon monoxide

Which of the following is NOT a role of the upper respiratory​ system? A. Carry out gas exchange with inspired air B. Humidify inspired air C. Filter inspired air D. Warm inspired air

A. Carry out gas exchange with inspired air

​"Rock" and​ "crack" are street names​ for: A. Cocaine B. Marijuana C. Morphin D. Heroin

A. Cocaine

​"Rock" and​ "crack" are street names​ for: A. Cocaine B. Morphin C. Marijuana D. Heroin

A. Cocaine

You respond to a patient with difficulty breathing. Upon assessment you notice that the patient is sitting in the tripod​ position, with marked JVD. The patient has clubbing in the fingers and new pitting edema. You should​ suspect: A. Cor pulmonale. B. COPD. C. Pulmonary neoplasm. D. CHF.

A. Cor pulmonale.

Which of the following statements about corticosteroid use in anaphylaxis treatment is​ TRUE? A. Corticosteroids can reduce the inflammation associated with anaphylaxis. B. Corticosteroids can help reverse bronchospasm associated with anaphylaxis. C. Corticosteroids stabilize mast cell and basophil​ membranes, preventing degranulation and histamine release. D. Administration of​ high-dose corticosteroids results in peripheral vasoconstriction.

A. Corticosteroids can reduce the inflammation associated with anaphylaxis.

Which of the following best describes the cardiovascular effects of calcium channel​ blockers, such as verapamil​ (Calan) and diltiazem​ (Cardizem)? A. Decreased automaticity and decreased AV node conductivity B. Decreased peripheral vascular​ resistance, widened​ QRS, and increased afterload C. Increased heart rate and stroke​ volume, decreased afterload D. Increased peripheral vascular​ resistance, widened​ QRS, and increased afterload

A. Decreased automaticity and decreased AV node conductivity

A​ 32-year-old is conscious and in mild​ distress, complaining of nausea and sweating. He states that his symptoms started two days ago when he stopped drinking​ "cold turkey." Physical examination reveals​ cool, diaphoretic​ skin; slightly dilated pupils​ bilaterally; and a general weakness to all extremities. Which of the following findings would also be​ likely? A. Delirium​ tremens, hallucinations, and anxiety B. ​Hypertension, bradycardia, and hyperglycemia C. ​Depression, hypotension, and polyuria D. ​Insomnia, hyperglycemia, and difficulty breathing

A. Delirium​ tremens, hallucinations, and anxiety

Which of the following is commonly indicated in the management of cocaine​ overdose? A. Diazepam B. Narcan C. Flumazenil D. Thiamine

A. Diazepam

Your patient is a​ 12-year-old male who is conscious and alert and complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. He states that the pain began about 3 hours after eating supper. He has had severe diarrhea and some vomiting. Any of the following could be therapeutic​ EXCEPT: A. Diazepam B. Promethazine C. IV of NS D. Compazine

A. Diazepam

What is the drug of choice when treating patients having generalized motor​ (grand mal)​ seizures? A. Dilantin B. Romazicon C. Valproic acid D. Lithium

A. Dilantin

What cleaning supply is toxic to living tissue and used on nonliving surfaces or​ objects? A. Disinfectant B. Antiseptic C. Gel D. Soap

A. Disinfectant

How do you calculate the administration of a specific amount of drug via​ infusion, based on​ weight? A. Dose ordered×total volume of bag used×drip factor of IV tubing×weight in​ kg/total amount of drug dissolved within the bag B. Dose ordered×total volume of the drug container×weight in​ kg/total amount of drug dissolved within the fluid C. Dose ordered×total volume of bag used×drip factor of IV​ tubing/total amount of drug dissolved within the bag D. Dose ordered×total volume of the drug​ container/total amount of drug dissolved within the fluid

A. Dose ordered×total volume of bag used×drip factor of IV tubing×weight in​ kg/total amount of drug dissolved within the bag

Your patient is a​ 60-year-old male with an acute exacerbation of COPD. You may consider giving the patient ipratropium​ because, in addition to reversing​ bronchospasm, it is helpful​ in: A. Drying bronchial secretions B. Reducing inflammation C. Expectoration of mucus D. Stimulating the respiratory center in the medulla

A. Drying bronchial secretions

Which of the following is LEAST likely to result in hypoglycemia in a type I diabetic​ patient? A. Eating foods high in sugar B. Taking insulin as usual but missing a meal C. Increased exercise level D. Inadvertently administering too much insulin

A. Eating foods high in sugar

A couple has been experimenting with Ecstasy. They are both complaining of​ anxiety, nausea, and palpitations. You would also​ expect: A. Elevated blood pressure B. Bradycardia C. Seizures D. Dyspnea

A. Elevated blood pressure

Your patient is a​ 68-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing for two days. He is sitting​ up, conscious,​ alert, and oriented and appears to be in mild respiratory distress. Physical examination reveals​ cool, dry, pink​ skin; he is thin with​ well-defined accessory​ muscles, and you note diffuse wheezing to all lung fields. HR​ = 102, BP​ = 136/96, RR​ = 20, SaO2​ = 92%. The patient gives a​ 20-pack-a-year history of smoking. These findings are most typical​ of: A. Emphysema B. Congestive heart failure C. Asthma D. Chronic bronchitis

A. Emphysema

Your patient is experiencing dyspnea and urticaria after ingesting penicillin. Auscultation of his lungs reveals diffuse expiratory wheezes. Which of the following medications will best help correct your​ patient's bronchospasm? A. Epinephrine​ 1:1000 SC B. 100 percent oxygen via nonrebreather mask 15 lpm C. ​Solu-Medrol 125 mg IV D. Ranitidine 50 mg IV

A. Epinephrine​ 1:1000 SC

Which of the following is considered a site of central venous​ access? A. Femoral vein B. Saphenous vein C. External jugular vein D. Median cephalic vein

A. Femoral vein

Your patient is an​ 18-year-old female college student who is supine in bed and responsive only to painful stimuli. Her roommate states that they went to a party last night. She says the patient only drank​ soda, but now she thinks a guy who had been following them around might have put something in the​ patient's drink. Physical examination reveals​ cool, dry skin and pupils sluggish to light bilaterally. HR​ = 72, BP​ = 112/64, RR​ = 10, SaO2 ​= 98%. Which of the following drugs was most likely slipped into her​ drink? A. Flunitrazepam B. Amphetamines C. Opium D. LSD

A. Flunitrazepam

After a normal inspiration and​ expiration, an adult patient has about​ 2,400 mL of air remaining in the​ lungs, known as​ the: A. Functional residual capacity B. Vital capacity C. Residual volume D. Expiratory reserve volume

A. Functional residual capacity

A seizure that begins as an aberrant electrical discharge in a small area of the brain but spreads to include the entire cerebral cortex is a​ ________ seizure. A. Generalized B. Simple partial C. Complex partial D. Myoclonic

A. Generalized

Which of the following best explains the process of osmotic diuresis associated with​ hyperglycemia? A. Glucose in the urine raises osmotic pressure inside the kidney​ tubule, drawing water into the tubule. B. Elevated blood glucose levels result in increased ADH secretion. C. Glucose in the urine lowers osmotic pressure inside the kidney​ tubule, preventing water reabsorption. D. Decreased insulin levels result in decreased ADH secretion.

A. Glucose in the urine raises osmotic pressure inside the kidney​ tubule, drawing water into the tubule.

You respond to an ill type 2 diabetic patient. Upon your​ arrival, the patient complains of not feeling well for a few​ days, and increasing blood glucose levels. You​ suspect: A. HHNK. B. TPA. C. TNK. D. DKA.

A. HHNK.

Your patient is a​ 20-year-old female who is conscious and​ alert, though obviously hallucinating after ingesting LSD. Her friends state that she is having a​ "bad trip," and you note that she is vigorously scratching her arms to the point of drawing blood. Physical examination reveals​ warm, slightly diaphoretic skin and dilated pupils bilaterally. Which of the following medications should be considered to manage this​ patient? A. Haloperidol B. Narcan C. Thiamine D. Avapro

A. Haloperidol

Your patient is a​ 46-year-old male truck driver who is sitting on a toilet complaining of bleeding with defecation. He states that he had to strain significantly to produce a bowel​ movement, then noted blood on his stool afterward. He claims no significant medical​ history, has had no recent​ illness, and takes no medications. You note the presence of bright red blood on the surface of his stool. Of the​ following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical​ condition? A. Hemorrhoids B. Colitis C. Upper GI bleed D. ​Crohn's disease

A. Hemorrhoids

Upon identifying an antigen in the​ bloodstream, B cells launch a chemical attack by producing antigens specific to the antibody. This is an example of​ ________ immunity. A. Humoral B. Secondary C. Antibody D. Cellular

A. Humoral

The two most common causes of fatal anaphylaxis are​ ________ and​ ________. A. Hymenoptera​ stings, injected penicillin B. ​Shellfish, sulfa drugs C. Hymenoptera​ stings, tree nuts D. ​Shellfish, tree nuts

A. Hymenoptera​ stings, injected penicillin

Which of the following is NOT associated with chronic alcohol​ ingestion? A. Hyperactivity B. Thiamine deficiency C. Esophageal varices D. Decreased sensation in hands and feet

A. Hyperactivity

Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of a loop​ diuretic? A. Hypernatremia B. Reflex tachycardia C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Hypokalemia

A. Hypernatremia

A​ 16-year-old female with a history of diabetes is found unconscious in a high school bathroom following volleyball practice. She is​ tachycardic; has​ cool, clammy​ skin; is​ lethargic; is slightly​ combative; and is very confused. She is most likely​ experiencing: A. Hypoglycemia B. Diabetic coma C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Hyperglycemia

A. Hypoglycemia

Which class of antiarrhythmic drugs is LEAST likely to contribute to​ hypotension? A. I B. III C. II D. IV

A. I

Drugs with high abuse potential and no accepted medical benefits are classified as​ Schedule: A. I. B. III. C. IV. D. II.

A. I.

In which class of the​ Vaughn-Williams classification system of antidysrhythmic medications does lidocaine​ belong? A. IB B. IA C. IC D. II

A. IB

What is the assigned schedule number for phenobarbital according to the Controlled Substances Act of​ 1970? A. IV B. I C. III D. II

A. IV

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old male who has been in jail for three days after being arrested for driving while intoxicated. He now presents with​ diaphoresis, anxiety,​ hallucinations, insomnia, and tremors. HR​ = 142, BP​ = 132/94, RR​ = 34, blood glucose​ = 85​ mg/dL. Which of the following is​ appropriate? A. IV of NS KVO B. 25 gm D50 IV C. Narcan 2 mg IV D. Thiamine 100 mg IV

A. IV of NS KVO

The​ ___________ system is a complicated body system responsible for combating infection. A. Immune B. Nervous C. Respiratory D. Cardiovascular

A. Immune

Which of the following would you expect to see immediately after the ingestion of a large​ meal? A. Increase of blood glucose and blood insulin levels B. Increase of blood glucagon levels and a decrease of blood glucose levels C. Decrease of blood glucose levels followed by an increase of blood insulin levels D. Increase of blood glucagon and blood glucose levels

A. Increase of blood glucose and blood insulin levels

When a substance enters the body through the gastrointestinal​ tract, it has accessed the body​ by: A. Ingestion B. Surface absorption C. Inhalation D. Injection

A. Ingestion

Your patient was in the building when a fire started at a factory that manufactures plastics. He is complaining of a​ headache, palpitations, and a burning sensation in his throat. His​ airway, breathing, and circulation are intact. Heart rate​ = 128, respirations​ = 22, blood pressure​ = 148/84, and SaO2 ​= 93%. You should​ immediately: A. Initiate supportive measures B. Apply the cardiac monitor C. Prepare to intubate D. Administer amyl and sodium nitrate

A. Initiate supportive measures

Your patient is a​ 42-year-old male who is supine on the​ floor, responsive only to pain. His wife states that he has been extremely depressed recently and talked about suicide yesterday. The​ patient's skin is hot and​ dry, pupils are dilated and reactive to light​ bilaterally, and there is vomit around his mouth. HR​ = 138 and​ regular, BP​ = 82/52, RR​ = 16 and shallow. Temperature is 105.5°F. The patient has a history of​ hypothyroidism, for which he takes Synthroid. Your partner suctions the airway and initiates BVM ventilations with 100 percent oxygen and an oropharyngeal airway. In addition to monitoring the cardiac rhythm and starting an IV of normal​ saline, you​ should: A. Intubate the trachea and request orders for​ propranolol, IV B. Administer 25 g of 50 percent dextrose and intubate if the level of responsiveness does not improve C. Perform synchronized cardioversion and intubate if the rhythm does not convert D. Intubate the trachea and request orders for diltiazem

A. Intubate the trachea and request orders for​ propranolol, IV

Which of the following statements about bronchial asthma is​ TRUE? A. Ipratropium​ (Atrovent) is often added to​ beta-agonists to treat bronchospasm because it works through a different mechanism from beta agonists to relax bronchial smooth muscle. B. Prednisolone and methylprednisolone should be reserved for only the most severe asthma attacks. C. The nonselective sympathomimetics continue to be the most popular treatments for mild to moderate asthma attacks. D. People with bronchial asthma maintain​ symptom-free lifestyles with daily treatments of propranolol.

A. Ipratropium​ (Atrovent) is often added to​ beta-agonists to treat bronchospasm because it works through a different mechanism from beta agonists to relax bronchial smooth muscle.

Your ICU patient has ARDS with a pO2 of 62​ mmHg, despite mechanical ventilation and oxygenation. Which of the following best explains this​ finding? A. It is a problem with gas diffusion in the lung. B. It is a problem with the blood gas sample collection. C. It is a problem with perfusion. D. It is a problem with ventilation.

A. It is a problem with gas diffusion in the lung.

Which of the following would be most typical of a patient suffering from​ diverticulitis? A. Left lower quadrant pain B. Diffuse abdominal pain C. ​Dark, tarry stools D. Inability to have a bowel movement

A. Left lower quadrant pain

What two components of a​ drug's profile are taken into consideration when determining what the therapeutic index will​ be? A. Lethal dose and effective dose B. Bioequivalence and​ half-life C. Effective dose and duration of action D. ​Half-life and lethal dose

A. Lethal dose and effective dose

Ammonia is converted into urea to be extruded as urine in which​ organ? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidney D. Bladder

A. Liver

Esophageal varices are most associated​ with: A. Liver disease B. Kidney disease C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease D. Pancreatitis

A. Liver disease

Your patient is a​ 45-year-old male who has been suffering from hypocalcemia since surgery to remove his thyroid gland six weeks ago. Of the​ following, which is most likely the cause of the​ patient's hypocalcemia? A. Loss of parathyroid gland function B. Loss of thyroid gland function C. Increase in parathyroid gland function D. Increased function of residual thyroid tissue

A. Loss of parathyroid gland function

The family members of a​ 72-year-old female state that the patient complained of a​ sudden, severe​ headache; had slurred​ speech; then became unresponsive. She responds to painful stimuli with decorticate posturing and has snoring respirations at a rate of 10 per minute. Her radial pulse is palpable but grossly irregular. According to her​ son, she also suffers from congestive heart​ failure, hypertension, and diabetes. Which of the following should you do​ first? A. Manage the airway with a​ head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver. B. Attach the cardiac monitor. C. Check her blood sugar. D. Insert an endotracheal tube.

A. Manage the airway with a​ head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver.

Narcan acts as an antagonist to all of the following medications​ EXCEPT: A. Midazolam B. Methadone C. Heroin D. Codeine

A. Midazolam

While you are caring for a patient on the floor of her​ kitchen, she begins to have a generalized seizure. Which of the following is the most appropriate first​ action? A. Move objects away from her and wait to see if the seizure stops. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. Start an​ IV, and administer 5 mg diazepam. D. Restrain her so she does not injure herself.

A. Move objects away from her and wait to see if the seizure stops.

A form of spina bifida in which some of the spinal cord and meninges are protruding from a defect in the spine is​ a(n): A. Myelomeningocele B. Meningioma C. Hydrocele D. Osteogenesis imperfecta

A. Myelomeningocele

Which of the following is characterized by involuntary muscle​ twitching? A. Myoclonus B. Dystonia C. Trismus D. Ataxia

A. Myoclonus

Naproxen, ibuprofen, and ketorolac are all examples​ of: A. NSAIDs B. MAOIs C. TCAs D. SSRIs

A. NSAIDs

Naproxen, ibuprofen, and ketorolac are all examples​ of: A. NSAIDs B. SSRIs C. MAOIs D. TCAs

A. NSAIDs

Which of the following is NOT a pulmonary route of medication​ administration? A. Nasal drops and sprays B. Instillation of liquid medications into an endotracheal tube C. Inhalation of aerosolized medications D. Nebulization of liquid medications by pressurized air

A. Nasal drops and sprays

You are caring for a​ 68-year-old patient with an altered level of consciousness and reported seizure activity. You obtain a blood pressure of​ 244/140 mmHg, a pulse of​ 90, and respirations of 18. Which of the following medications would be most suitable for this​ patient? A. Nitroprusside​ (Nipride) B. Hydralizine​ (Apresoline) C. Enalapril​ (Vasotec) D. Minoxidil​ (Loniten)

A. Nitroprusside​ (Nipride)

The postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nerves​ is: A. Norepinephrine B. Dopamine C. Acetylcholine D. Epinephrine

A. Norepinephrine

A​ 19-year-old female with difficulty breathing produces a peak expiratory flow rate of 425​ lpm, indicating: A. Normal ventilatory state B. Moderate bronchoconstriction C. Mild bronchoconstriction D. Severe bronchoconstriction

A. Normal ventilatory state

Having a patient swallow a tablet of medication with a drink of water is an example of which route of medication​ administration? A. Oral B. Aural C. Buccal D. Sublingual

A. Oral

Which of the following does NOT typically enter the body through​ injection? A. Organophosphate B. Illicit drug overdose C. Envenomation D. Medication overdose

A. Organophosphate

Your patient is a​ 52-year-old female who is alert but slightly confused after a syncopal episode lasting about 1 minute. She has no​ complaints, and your physical exam reveals no abnormalities aside from slight confusion. She has had a stroke and has a history of type II diabetes and hypertension. HR​ = 100, BP​ = 132/84, RR​ = 12, SaO2 ​=99%. Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause of the​ patient's episode? A. Orthostatic hypotension B. Transient cerebral ischemia C. Transient cardiac dysrhythmia D. Hypoglycemia

A. Orthostatic hypotension

Your patient is a​ 36-year-old female, conscious and​ alert, sitting at her desk and complaining of a rash and itchiness after taking a sulfa antibiotic. Physical examination reveals warm and dry​ skin, urticaria on her chest and​ back, that reveal mild expiratory wheezing. HR​ = 100, BP​ = 132/78, RR​ = 18, SaO2​ = 93%. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this​ patient? A. Oxygen via nonrebreather​ mask, IV crystalloid​ solution, 0.3 mg epinephrine​ IM, and consider 25 mg diphenhydramine IV and albuterol 2.5 mg via nebulizer B. Oxygen via nasal cannula and transport only C. Oxygen via nasal​ cannula, IV crystalloid​ solution, 5 mg epinephrine​ IV, 25 mg diphenhydramine IV D. Oxygen via nonrebreather​ mask, IV crystalloid​ solution, 25 mg diphenhydramine IV push

A. Oxygen via nonrebreather​ mask, IV crystalloid​ solution, 0.3 mg epinephrine​ IM, and consider 25 mg diphenhydramine IV and albuterol 2.5 mg via nebulizer

Murphy's sign​ is: A. Pain produced by pressing under the right costal margin in the presence of an inflamed gallbladder B. Petechial hemorrhage of the abdominal wall C. Bruising around the umbilicus D. Pain produced by pushing 1 to 2 inches above the iliac crest on a line to the umbilicus

A. Pain produced by pressing under the right costal margin in the presence of an inflamed gallbladder

A​ 52-year-old male is in moderate distress and complaining of nausea and vomiting. He describes a​ three-day history of left upper quadrant abdominal pain described as sharp and radiating to his back. You note a slightly distended abdomen. He called EMS today when he developed nausea and vomiting. He denies any change of bowel habits and states he has a history of alcoholism. Of the​ following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical​ condition? A. Pancreatitis B. Peptic ulcer disease C. Gastroenteritis D. Hepatitis

A. Pancreatitis

A seizure that remains confined to a limited portion of the​ brain, causing localized​ dysfunction, is​ a(n) ________ seizure. A. Partial B. Petit mal C. Absence D. Tonic

A. Partial

Your patient is a​ 45-year-old female type I diabetic with a history of a nonhealing foot ulcer. On​ examination, you find that her pedal pulse is​ present, but she lacks sensation in her foot. This is most likely due​ to: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. ​Raynaud's disease C. ​Brown-Séquard syndrome D. Claudication

A. Peripheral neuropathy

The diaphragm is controlled by the​ ________ nerve. A. Phrenic B. Abducens C. Olfactory D. Vagus

A. Phrenic

What is the innermost layer of meninges that directly overlies the central nervous​ system? A. Pia mater B. Cerebrospinal membrane C. Dura mater D. Arachnoid membrane

A. Pia mater

Your patient has a history of epilepsy and is experiencing loss of​ consciousness, tonic-clonic muscle​ activity, and erratic ocular movement. Based on​ this, you might also expect to find all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Pinpoint pupils B. Increased oral secretions C. Urinary incontinence D. Impaired respiration

A. Pinpoint pupils

Your patient is a​ 72-year-old female, alert and​ oriented, sitting up in bed at a nursing home. She is in mild respiratory distress. The staff describes a​ four-day history of​ fever, malaise, and productive cough. The patient also states that she has been experiencing chills and chest pain with deep inspiration. Physical examination reveals rales and rhonchi in the right upper lobe and​ warm, moist skin. HR​ = 116, BP​ = 104/76, RR​ = 20, SaO2​ = 93%. Based on the clinical exam​ findings, the most appropriate diagnosis would​ be: A. Pneumonia B. Chronic bronchitis C. Emphysema D. Congestive heart failure

A. Pneumonia

Increased hepatic resistance to blood​ flow, as happens in​ cirrhosis, results​ in: A. Portal vein hypertension and esophageal varices B. Hepatic arterial hypertension and obstruction of the common bile duct C. Portal artery hypertension and ascites D. Hepatic vein hypertension and hepatic vein aneurysm

A. Portal vein hypertension and esophageal varices

Treatment of a patient in acute renal failure may include all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Potassium B. Dialysis C. Furosemide D. IV normal saline

A. Potassium

Acute exacerbation of​ Addison's disease can lead to ECG changes and cardiovascular collapse as a result of electrolyte imbalance secondary​ to: A. Potassium retention and sodium excretion B. Increased mineralocorticoid secretion from the adrenal glands C. Fluid​ retention, potassium​ excretion, and sodium retention D. Decreased mineralocorticoid secretion with increased sodium and potassium excretion

A. Potassium retention and sodium excretion

During a domestic disturbance your patient experienced a sudden onset of​ violent, bizarre movements of the extremities followed by unresponsiveness to verbal stimuli. On your arrival the bizarre movements begin again but stop suddenly when you firmly​ say, "Stop!" This most indicates​ ________ seizure. A. Pseudo B. Simple partial C. Complex partial D. Absence

A. Pseudo

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old male who has been an​ in-patient in a rehabilitation hospital following surgical fixation of a fractured pelvis. Staff reports sudden development of hypotension and severe respiratory distress about 30 minutes ago. There is no other significant history. Physical exam findings include​ cold, diaphoretic skin with peripheral​ cyanosis; jugular venous​ distension; clear breath sounds​ bilaterally; and vitals as​ follows: HR​ = 134, BP​ = 74/50, RR​ = 28, SaO2​ = 84%. Which of the following is most​ likely? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Myocardial infarction C. Idiopathic congestive heart failure D. Spontaneous tension pneumothorax

A. Pulmonary embolism

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old male Chinese citizen on vacation in the United States. He is in moderate​ distress, complaining of difficulty breathing and gives a​ four-day history of runny​ nose, sore​ throat, fever,​ chills, and general malaise with a productive cough. His sputum production was significantly worse when he woke this​ morning, and he developed difficulty breathing this afternoon. HR​ = 134, BP​ = 132/84, RR​ = 26, SaO2​ = 90%. This presentation is most consistent​ with: A. SARS B. Tuberculosis C. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome D. Pneumonia

A. SARS

When a patient requires occasional medications or IV drips but does NOT need a continuous​ infusion, which device might be implanted into a​ patient? A. Saline lock B. Constriction needle C. IV piggyback D. ​Through-the-needle catheter

A. Saline lock

The primary goal in the prehospital care of a patient who has been bitten by a pit viper is​ to: A. Slow absorption of the venom B. Induce diuresis C. Alkalinize the urine D. Remove the venom from the surrounding tissue

A. Slow absorption of the venom

A college​ student, in an effort to improve test​ scores, takes a​ drug, Intelliboost, which enhances cortical function by increasing dopamine release in the brain. He also is taking a cold​ remedy, Sneezeless, which inhibits the chemical breakdown of dopamine at all receptor sites. Which of the following best describes the drug​ interaction? A. Sneezeless potentiates the effects of Intelliboost. B. Sneezeless has a cumulative effect. C. Sneezeless and Intelliboost have a synergistic effect. D. Sneezeless and Intelliboost have an additive effect.

A. Sneezeless potentiates the effects of Intelliboost.

A​ 38-year-old male is conscious and alert after a black widow spider bite to his right hand. You note pain and swelling to the​ hand, and the patient states that he is dizzy and nauseous. HR​ = 117, BP​ = 128/78, RR​ = 20. During your physical​ examination, you note that he begins to experience​ severe, painful muscle spasms in his right arm. Which of the following is NOT​ appropriate? A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Midazolam C. Diazepam D. Calcium gluconate

A. Sodium bicarbonate

Your patient is a​ 22-year-old female who has increased her daily dose of lithium without her​ physician's knowledge. She is complaining of generalized​ weakness, vomiting, and diarrhea. You notice that her speech is slurred. Heart rate​ = 68 and​ irregular, respirations​ = 16, blood pressure​ = 104/70, SaO2 ​= 97% on room​ air, and the monitor shows a sinus rhythm with PACs and PJCs. Which of the following would be most beneficial to this​ patient? A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Calcium chloride C. Oxygen D. Magnesium sulfate

A. Sodium bicarbonate

While palpating the lower abdomen of a​ 63-year-old male complaining of back​ pain, you note a pulsating mass. You​ should: A. Stop palpating B. Determine if the mass is fixed or freely mobile in the abdomen C. Ask your partner to confirm the finding D. Ask the patient to take a deep​ breath, then palpate the mass while he exhales

A. Stop palpating

Which of the following veins is NOT a site of peripheral venous​ access? A. Subclavian B. External jugular C. Median basilic D. Saphenous

A. Subclavian

Your patient is a​ 60-year-old male complaining of​ chills, fever, joint​ pain, and vomiting. He states he was bitten by a spider yesterday​ morning, and now he thinks the bite might be infected. The patient has an ulcerated wound on his left leg. The best treatment for this patient would​ include: A. Supportive management B. Diazepam 2.5 mg C. Magnesium​ sulfate, 2 g D. Calcium gluconate 0.1​ mg/kg

A. Supportive management

A liquid preparation that contains small particles of a solid medication is known as​ a(n): A. suspension B. syrup C. reconstituted medication D. elixir

A. Suspension

A solid disk of compressed medicated​ powder, which may be scored to permit​ breaking, is known as​ a: A. Tablet B. Suppository C. Capsule D. Lozenge

A. Tablet

Which of the following types of medication would be placed in a​ soufflé cup for administration to a​ patient? A. Tablet B. Suppository C. Syrup D. Powder

A. Tablet

As you are palpating your​ patient's chest, he​ speaks, and you can feel the vibration through the chest wall. You should document this​ as: A. Tactile fremitus B. Crepitus C. A pleural friction rub D. Bronchovesicular sounds

A. Tactile fremitus

Which of the following findings is most suggestive of​ cystitis? A. Tenderness to palpation over the pubis B. Abdominal distension C. Flank pain radiating to the groin D. ​Diffuse, periumbilical abdominal pain

A. Tenderness to palpation over the pubis

In order for hemodialysis to be effective in ridding the body of excess​ electrolytes, which of the following statements must be​ true? A. The dialysate must contain electrolytes in a concentration lower than in the​ patient's blood. B. The dialysate must contain electrolytes in the same concentration as in the​ patient's blood. C. The dialysate must contain electrolytes in a concentration higher than in the​ patient's blood. D. The dialysate must not contain electrolytes.

A. The dialysate must contain electrolytes in a concentration lower than in the​ patient's blood.

With regard to the endocrine​ system, which of the following statements is NOT​ true? A. The hypothalamus and pituitary glands have no physical link. B. The posterior pituitary hormones are actually synthesized in the hypothalamus. C. The hypothalamus controls many of the functions of the pituitary gland. D. The pituitary gland is often called the​ "master gland."

A. The hypothalamus and pituitary glands have no physical link.

Which of the following statements about vitamins is NOT​ true? A. The individual B vitamins are named for the order in which they are required by the body. B. The liver stores the​ fat-soluble vitamins;​ consequently, they will become deficient only after long periods of inadequate vitamin intake. C. Vitamin D is unique in that it can be produced in the skin by sunlight exposure. D. The​ water-soluble vitamins must be routinely​ ingested, because the body does not store them.

A. The individual B vitamins are named for the order in which they are required by the body.

Which of the following statements about adult respiratory distress syndrome​ (ARDS) is​ FALSE? A. The mortality rate is 20 to 30 percent. B. Pulmonary edema and disruption of the​ alveolar-capillary membrane contribute to respiratory failure in ARDS. C. The causes of ARDS include​ pancreatitis, oxygen​ toxicity, sepsis, and tumor destruction. D. PEEP is often required to adequately ventilate ARDS patients.

A. The mortality rate is 20 to 30 percent.

An emergency department physician tells you that the hyperglycemic diabetic you brought in earlier has a pH of 7.40. What is the likeliest explanation of this​ statement? A. The patient is a type II diabetic who was secreting enough insulin to prevent the use of fats for energy. B. The patient is a type II diabetic who was no longer secreting enough insulin to prevent the use of fats for energy. C. The patient is a type I diabetic who did not take his insulin and is therefore unable to use glucose for energy. D. The patient is a type I diabetic who took his insulin and did not​ eat, resulting in the breakdown of proteins for energy.

A. The patient is a type II diabetic who was secreting enough insulin to prevent the use of fats for energy.

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of ACE​ inhibitors? A. They inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. B. They increase the GFR directly. C. They inhibit the formation of renin in the​ renin-angiotensin system. D. They inhibit sodium​ reabsorption, causing increased excretion of sodium.

A. They inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old female complaining of a​ three-day history of localized abdominal pain in her midepigastric region after eating. The pain tends to subside with antacids. Today she is experiencing​ nausea, and the pain did not subside with antacids. The patient gives a history of smoking and moderate alcohol consumption. The​ patient's skin is warm and​ dry, and she has a blood pressure of​ 128/88, a heart rate of​ 84, and respirations of 20. Your course of treatment should consist​ of: A. Transporting the patient in a position of comfort and giving reassurance B. IV of NS with 250 cc fluid bolus C. Sodium bicarbonate IV D. ​High-concentration oxygen by nonrebreathing mask

A. Transporting the patient in a position of comfort and giving reassurance

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old female complaining of a​ three-day history of localized abdominal pain in her midepigastric region after eating. The pain tends to subside with antacids. Today she is experiencing​ nausea, and the pain did not subside with antacids. The patient gives a history of smoking and moderate alcohol consumption. The​ patient's skin is warm and​ dry, and she has a blood pressure of​ 128/88, a heart rate of​ 84, and respirations of 20. Your course of treatment should consist​ of: A. Transporting the patient in a position of comfort and giving reassurance B. ​High-concentration oxygen by nonrebreathing mask C. IV of NS with 250 cc fluid bolus D. Sodium bicarbonate IV

A. Transporting the patient in a position of comfort and giving reassurance

Which of the following is NOT associated with the sympathetic nervous​ system? A. Vagus nerve B. Thoracolumbar C. ​Fight-or-flight response D. Adrenergic

A. Vagus nerve

Which of the following is a​ statin? A. Zocor B. Questran C. Activase D. Lovenox

A. Zocor

The primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system​ is: A. acetylcholine. B. dopamine. C. epinephrine. D. reteplase.

A. acetylcholine.

You respond to a nursing home for an ill patient. Upon your​ arrival, the staff tells you that over the past few days the​ patient's urine output has been steadily declining.​ Today, the patient has only voided approximately 400 mL. You​ suspect: A. acute renal failure. B. chronic renal failure. C. polynephritis. D. renal calculi.

A. acute renal failure.

You respond to a report of a patient with shortness of breath. Upon​ arrival, you find a patient who has been stung by a bee. The patient is displaying urticaria and wheezing. You​ suspect: A. anaphylaxis. B. ARDS. C. asthma. D. meningitis.

A. anaphylaxis.

A concern for patients taking both insulin and​ beta-blockers is: A. beta2 adrenergic blockers can both hide the effects of​ hypoglycemia, making it difficult to​ recognize, and decrease the release of glucagon. B. ​beta-blockers prevent the release of insulin from the beta cells in the pancreas. C. ​beta-blockers, due to their sympatholytic effects on the nervous​ system, can further reduce available ATP to the cells of the body in the presence of insulin. D. the two​ medications, when taken​ together, have a synergistic effect.

A. beta2 adrenergic blockers can both hide the effects of​ hypoglycemia, making it difficult to​ recognize, and decrease the release of glucagon.

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism include all of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. bradycardia. B. nervousness. C. insomnia. D. hypertension.

A. bradycardia.

Fibrinolytics achieve their therapeutic action​ by: A. breaking up a thrombus that has formed. B. interfering with the clotting cascade. C. promoting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. D. decreasing platelet aggregation.

A. breaking up a thrombus that has formed.

A gelatin container filled with​ powder, liquid, or tiny granules is called​ a: A. capsule. B. caplet C. tablet. D. pill.

A. capsule.

Posturing with the arms flexed and the legs extended is known​ as: A. decorticate. B. postictal. C. neurogenic shock position. D. decerebrate.

A. decorticate.

You respond to an unresponsive patient. Upon​ exam, you get a finger stick blood glucose reading of​ "Lo." Treatment should include administration​ of: A. dextrose. B. epinephrine. C. insulin. D. ASA.

A. dextrose.

You respond to an unresponsive patient. Upon​ exam, you get a finger stick blood glucose reading of​ "Lo." Treatment should include administration​ of: A. dextrose. B. insulin. C. ASA. D. epinephrine.

A. dextrose.

A significant characteristic of digitalis preparations is that​ they: A. have a very narrow therapeutic index. B. are not prodysrhythmic drugs. C. have a positive chronotropic effect. D. have a negative inotropic effect.

A. have a very narrow therapeutic index.

Your patient is complaining of​ "coughing up​ blood," or, in medical​ terms: A. hemoptysis. B. hemothorax. C. hemopulmonary spasm. D. neoplasm.

A. hemoptysis.

You respond to a patient who is complaining of a sudden onset of a severe headache. The patient has a history of hypertension. You should​ suspect: A. hemorrhagic stroke. B. hypertensive urgency. C. occlusive stroke. D. migraine.

A. hemorrhagic stroke.

One cause of alterted mental status that you are able to quickly rule out​ is: A. hypoglycemia. B. hyperglycemia. C. CVA. D. TIA.

A. hypoglycemia.

The thyroid releases TSH​ to: A. increase metabolism. B. protect the vascular system. C. decrease insulin. D. promote shivering.

A. increase metabolism.

You respond to a patient who has an AV shunt in place. You notice that the patient is unresponsive with the following vital​ signs: blood​ pressure, 180/100​ mmHg; pulse:​ 48; respirations: 12 and irregular. You​ suspect: A. increased ICP. B. decreased ICP. C. seizure. D. normal status for an AV shunt patient.

A. increased ICP.

All of the following statements about insulin are​ true, EXCEPT: A. it must be given subcutaneously. B. it can now be produced through recombinant DNA technology. C. it is classified as either natural​ (regular) or modified. D. it is available as​ short, intermediate, or long acting.

A. it must be given subcutaneously.

The two main functions of the renal system​ are: A. maintaining blood volume with proper​ pH, and retaining glucose and excreting urea. B. maintaining pH balance and blood volume. C. maintaining hemocrit levels with the proper creatine​ balance, and activation of the RAAS. D. maintaining blood glucose and clearing dead blood cells.

A. maintaining blood volume with proper​ pH, and retaining glucose and excreting urea.

When a drug causes a change in the cell​ membrane, preventing additional stimulation of the cell no matter how much stimulation is​ offered, that drug is called​ a: A. noncompetitive antagonist. B. competitive antagonist. C. competitive agonist. D. noncompetitive agonist.

A. noncompetitive antagonist.

Fifty percent of accidental poisonings occur​ in: A. pediatric patients. B. adults. C. geriatric patients. D. dementia patients.

A. pediatric patients.

You respond to a call of an ill male patient. Upon​ arrival, you see a patient in a​ chair, hooked into two large bags—one on an IV​ stand, one below his waist. The tubes are going into the​ patient's abdomen. You should suspect that this patient is​ undergoing: A. peritoneal dialysis. B. hemodialysis. C. J tube feeding. D. gastric lavage.

A. peritoneal dialysis.

The diaphragm is innervated by​ the: A. phrenic nerve. B. pulmonary nerve. C. renal nerve. D. renic nerve.

A. phrenic nerve.

You arrive on the scene of a patient who complains of worsening shortness of breath for the past few days. The patient presents with an SpO2 of​ 90%, ETCO2 of​ 45, normal wave​ form, crackles, and a temperature of 101.5°F. You should​ suspect: A. pneumonia. B. ARDS. C. COPD. D. CHF.

A. pneumonia.

The area that connects the brain to the spinal cord is known as​ the: A. pons. B. medulla oblongata. C. foramen magnum. D. cerebellum.

A. pons.

Variables to consider when determining the proper method of drug storage include all of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. potency. B. temperature. C. light. D. moisture.

A. potency.

The​ paramedic's chief concern with patients taking sildenafil​ (Viagra) is: A. profound hypotension. B. agitation and combative behavior. C. uncontrolled hypertension. D. acute renal failure.

A. profound hypotension.

Tricyclic antidepressants achieve their therapeutic effect​ by: A. prolonging the duration of norepinephrine and serotonin at the receptor sites. B. blocking the release of norepinephrine and serotonin at the synapse. C. enhancing degradation of norepinephrine and serotonin at the synapse. D. blocking the release of acetylcholine at the synapse.

A. prolonging the duration of norepinephrine and serotonin at the receptor sites.

Pulmonary shunting can be seen in patients with​ suspected: A. pulmonary embolism. B. hypovolemic shock. C. hemothorax. D. tension pneumothorax.

A. pulmonary embolism.

In a patient experiencing a myocardial​ infarction, a medication that reduces afterload is beneficial because​ it: A. reduces the workload of the​ heart, reducing myocardial oxygen consumption. B. reduces the blood flow to unnecessary​ areas, redirecting blood to the heart. C. prolongs the​ Q-T interval, thereby allowing time for complete atrial contribution to the ventricles. D. improves the stroke volume of blood ejected from the heart by also reducing preload.

A. reduces the workload of the​ heart, reducing myocardial oxygen consumption.

Sildenafil​ (Viagra) achieves its therapeutic action in the treatment of erectile dysfunction​ by: A. relaxing vascular smooth​ muscle, which increases blood flow to the corpus cavernosum. B. stimulating sympathetic receptors in the nerve fibers leading to the sexual organs. C. stimulating parasympathetic receptors in the nerve fibers leading to the sexual organs. D. enhancing neuronal stimulation of the amygdala in the brain.

A. relaxing vascular smooth​ muscle, which increases blood flow to the corpus cavernosum.

Your first priority in the treatment of an inhaled toxin is​ to: A. remove the patient from the source. B. deluge with water. C. flood with oxygen. D. decontaminate the patient.

A. remove the patient from the source.

The chief physiologic effect of nerve​ gas, such as​ VX, is​ to: A. reversibly block the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. B. competitively block the muscarinic receptor sites at the target organs. C. competitively block the nicotinic receptor sites at the neuromuscular junction. D. produce an adrenergic blockade throughout the body.

A. reversibly block the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.

Abdominal pain that is sharp in nature and can be localized is known​ as: A. somatic pain. B. ​Kehr's sign. C. visceral pain. D. referred pain.

A. somatic pain.

The two mechanisms capable of producing alterations in mental state​ are: A. structural and toxic-metabolic. B. physiologic and RAS. C. structural and RAAS. D. cranial nervous and the central nervous system.

A. structural and toxic-metabolic.

Lung compliance is described​ as: A. the ease with which the chest expands. B. the depth at which the chest expands. C. the rate at which the chest expands. D. the diameter of the chest wall.

A. the ease with which the chest expands.

Homeostasis refers​ to: A. the tendency of the body to maintain an appropriate internal environment. B. extrinsic environmental regulatory factors. C. the​ body's ability to regulate the external environment. D. intrinsic environmental regulatory factors.

A. the tendency of the body to maintain an appropriate internal environment.

A major concern during the administration of an alpha agonist is​ infiltration, because it may​ cause: A. tissue necrosis. B. cardiac dysrhythmias. C. excessive bleeding at the site of infiltration. D. enhanced systemic effects.

A. tissue necrosis.

You respond to a call of an ill person. Upon​ arrival, you find your patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain and hematemesis. When​ asked, the patient states that the emesis was​ "coffee ground" in nature. You​ suspect: A. upper GI bleed. B. lower GI bleed. C. esophageal varices. D. melena.

A. upper GI bleed.

Oliguria is defined​ as: A. urine output of 400-500 mL daily. B. urine output of 1000-2000 mL daily. C. urine output of 100-200 mL daily. D. urine output of 4000-5000 mL daily.

A. urine output of 400-500 mL daily.

An​ "orphan drug" is best defined as a drug that​ is: A. used specifically to treat a rare disease. B. intended only for the pediatric population. C. in its own chemical classification. D. not producible as a generic alternative.

A. used specifically to treat a rare disease.

Stimulation of the histamine ​(H1​) receptors often results​ in: A. vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. B. inhibition of antibody production C. bronchodilation. D. increased gastric acid release.

A. vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.

When preparing for​ venipuncture, a constricting band should be applied tight enough to restrict​ ________ flow. A. venous but not arterial B. arterial but not venous C. neither arterial nor venous D. both arterial and venous

A. venous but not arterial

An intrinsic risk factor is one that is​ influenced: A. within the patient. B. by the atmosphere. C. by a carcinogen. D. outside the patient.

A. within the patient.

Your diabetic patient asks you why he​ "passes out" when his blood sugar gets too low. Which of the following responses is most​ accurate? A. ​"Brain cells need a constant supply of​ glucose, or​ sugar, to function. Without sugar the brain cells cannot work to maintain​ consciousness." B. ​"The cells of the heart can only use​ glucose, or​ sugar, for energy. Without sugar the heart cannot effectively pump blood to the​ brain." C. ​"When the blood sugar is​ low, the blood vessels relax and the blood pressure​ drops, causing you to​ faint." D. ​"When the blood sugar is​ low, the brain does not get enough​ oxygen."

A. ​"Brain cells need a constant supply of​ glucose, or​ sugar, to function. Without sugar the brain cells cannot work to maintain​ consciousness."

Your patient is a​ 25-year-old female who is complaining of pain in the midline of the lower abdomen. Which of the following questions helps LEAST when determining the etiology of the​ patient's pain? A. ​"Do you feel​ nauseated?" B. ​"Are you having any pain with​ urination?" C. ​"Are you experiencing pain anywhere other than your lower​ abdomen?" D. ​"When was your last menstrual​ period?"

A. ​"Do you feel​ nauseated?"

Your patient is a​ 22-year-old female in mild distress that is complaining of left lower quadrant abdominal pain and nausea. Which of the following questions would be LEAST helpful when determining the etiology of her abdominal​ pain? A. ​"Have you ever had a sexually transmitted​ disease?" B. ​"When did the pain​ start?" C. ​"When did your last menstrual period​ start?" D. ​"Are you having any vomiting or​ diarrhea?"

A. ​"Have you ever had a sexually transmitted​ disease?"

When dealing with a possible renal​ emergency, it is imperative to​ ask: A. ​"How many times have you urinated​ today?" B. ​"Do you think you can​ walk?" C. ​"When was the last time you saw your​ nephrologist?" D. ​"How much do you​ weigh?"

A. ​"How many times have you urinated​ today?"

Your patient has a history of benign prostatic hypertrophy. Which of the following complaints is most consistent with this​ history? A. ​"I can't seem to​ urinate." B. ​"I have blood in my urine first thing in the​ morning." C. ​"It seems like I urinate a gallon at a​ time." D. ​"My urine is cloudy and has a strong​ odor."

A. ​"I can't seem to​ urinate."

You have been called for a​ 46-year-old female complaining of a headache. Which of the following statements made by the patient should you find most​ concerning? A. ​"I have never had a headache this​ bad." B. ​"The pain gets worse when the lights are​ on." C. ​"I have never been nauseated like this with a headache​ before." D. ​"I took two Tylenol tablets 2 hours​ ago, and the pain is still​ there."

A. ​"I have never had a headache this​ bad."

Which of the following complaints is most typical for a patient suffering an exacerbation of multiple​ sclerosis? A. ​"My legs feel​ heavy, and I am having trouble​ walking." B. ​"I have no feeling in either my arms or my​ legs." C. ​"Each night I seem to get a fever and break out in a​ sweat." D. ​"I cannot remember my address or phone​ number."

A. ​"My legs feel​ heavy, and I am having trouble​ walking."

The father of a​ 15-year-old male who has had a generalized seizure asks you why his son turned blue during the seizure. Which of the following is the best​ answer? A. ​"The muscles used in breathing cannot work effectively during the​ seizure, decreasing the amount of oxygen in the​ blood." B. ​"It is a normal part of the seizure process and nothing to worry​ about." C. ​"The heart slows down and the blood pressure drops during a​ seizure, causing a lack of circulation to the​ skin." D. ​"The brain stem stops working during a​ seizure, which causes breathing to​ stop, decreasing the amount of oxygen in the​ blood."

A. ​"The muscles used in breathing cannot work effectively during the​ seizure, decreasing the amount of oxygen in the​ blood."

The father of a​ 15-year-old male who has had a generalized seizure asks you why his son turned blue during the seizure. Which of the following is the best​ answer? A. ​"The muscles used in breathing cannot work effectively during the​ seizure, decreasing the amount of oxygen in the​ blood." B. ​"The brain stem stops working during a​ seizure, which causes breathing to​ stop, decreasing the amount of oxygen in the​ blood." C. ​"It is a normal part of the seizure process and nothing to worry​ about." D. ​"The heart slows down and the blood pressure drops during a​ seizure, causing a lack of circulation to the​ skin."

A. ​"The muscles used in breathing cannot work effectively during the​ seizure, decreasing the amount of oxygen in the​ blood."

Your patient is a​ 68-year-old female who is conscious but confused and lying supine in bed without complaint. Her daughter states that the patient was recently diagnosed with a bladder infection and has been taking antibiotics. She also states that her mother has not produced urine for two​ days, during which she has become increasingly confused. Physical examination reveals swelling to the​ face, hands, and​ feet; cool and moist​ skin; and lung sounds that are clear and equal bilaterally. HR​ = 104​ , BP​ = 142/88, RR​ = 14, SaO2 ​= 96%. In addition to administering oxygen and monitoring the cardiac​ rhythm, which of the following courses of action is most​ appropriate? A. ​12-lead ECG, prepare a large bore IV​ line, administer fluid or medication only by IV or IM routes B. IV of​ saline, furosemide, 40 mg C. Have the patient drink water while you provide​ comfort; prepare for an ECG D. IV of​ saline, intubate the patient

A. ​12-lead ECG, prepare a large bore IV​ line, administer fluid or medication only by IV or IM routes

Acute renal failure occurs when a patient loses​ _____ of the functioning nephrons. A. ​80% B. ​50% C. ​60% D. ​70%

A. ​80%

When evaluating a patient with a possible neurologic​ emergency, which acronym can help you remember the​ causes? A. ​AEIOU-TIPS B. TICKLES C. ISAL D. AVPU

A. ​AEIOU-TIPS

Which of the following correctly pairs a toxin with its​ antidote? A. ​Acetaminophen: N-acetylcysteine B. Carbon​ monoxide: amyl nitrite C. ​Benzodiazepine: naloxone D. ​Aspirin: magnesium citrate

A. ​Acetaminophen: N-acetylcysteine

What is a process in which a cell may decrease the number of receptors exposed to a particular substance to reduce its​ sensitivity? A. ​Down-regulation B. ​Up-regulation C. Adaptation D. Resourcing

A. ​Down-regulation

Which of the following correctly lists the organs and regions of the gastrointestinal tract in sequence after the​ stomach? A. ​Duodenum, jejunum,​ ileum, ascending​ colon, transverse​ colon, descending​ colon, rectum, anus B. ​Duodenum, jejunum,​ ileum, descending​ colon, transverse​ colon, ascending​ colon, rectum, anus C. ​Jejunum, duodenum,​ ileum, large​ intestine, anus, rectum D. ​Duodenum, ileum,​ jejunum, large​ intestine, anus, rectum

A. ​Duodenum, jejunum,​ ileum, ascending​ colon, transverse​ colon, descending​ colon, rectum, anus

Which three cranial nerves are involved in the cardinal positions of​ gaze? A. ​III, IV, and VI B. ​I, III, and VI C. ​VI, VII, and X D. ​I, III, and IV

A. ​III, IV, and VI

Your patient is a​ 68-year-old female who has been in a rehabilitation hospital for one week following hip replacement surgery. According to the​ staff, the patient is a type II diabetic and is being treated for a postoperative infection. The patient was lethargic yesterday and was found unresponsive this​ morning, just before your arrival. Physical exam reveals an accumulation of secretions in her​ airway, lung sounds clear and equal​ bilaterally, and skin and mucous membranes warm and dry. HR​ = 119, BP​ = 86/58, RR​ = 16, blood glucose​ = 864​ mg/dL. In addition to initiating basic airway management measures and gaining IV​ access, which of the following is the best treatment for this​ patient? A. ​Intubate, 1 to 2 L NS bolus B. Oxygen by nonrebreather​ mask, NS at a KVO​ rate, 50 mEq sodium bicarbonate IV C. BVM ventilations with supplemental​ oxygen, NS at a KVO rate D. ​Intubate, 1 to 2 L NS​ bolus, 25 g dextrose IV

A. ​Intubate, 1 to 2 L NS bolus

Your patient is a​ 48-year-old female who is supine on the floor of a neighborhood health clinic. She became unconscious after receiving 250 mg of IM doxycycline. Clinic staff reports that the patient​ "broke out in hives and lost​ consciousness." The patient is being ventilated by​ bag-valve mask and has an IV of normal saline running wide open. A nurse practitioner on the scene informs you​ that, before your​ arrival, he administered 2 doses of 0.5 mg of epinephrine​ SC, 50 mg of diphenhydramine​ IV, and 1 L of NS. HR​ = 138; BP​ = 84/60; RR​ = 12/min, assisted with​ BVM; SaO2​ = 94%. Of the​ following, which is the most appropriate continued treatment of this​ patient? A. ​Intubate, administration of dopamine IV​ infusion, rapid transport B. Initiate a second IV of NS wide​ open, intubate and​ hyperventilate, transport C. ​Intubate, Solu-Medrol​ IV, 250 cc NS fluid​ challenge, transport D. Continue administering fluids and transport to the nearest facility

A. ​Intubate, administration of dopamine IV​ infusion, rapid transport

The pathophysiology of toxic inhalation​ involves: A. ​Irritation, edema, and destruction of alveolar tissue B. Bronchoconstriction and dispersal of surfactant C. Bronchodilation and destruction of cilia D. Pulmonary​ hypertension, alveolar​ atelectasis, and destruction of cilia

A. ​Irritation, edema, and destruction of alveolar tissue

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old, 176-pound male who is alert and oriented 12 hours after ingesting thirty 500 mg tablets of Tylenol. Which of the following are the most likely complaints or​ findings? A. ​Nausea, vomiting,​ weakness, and fatigue B. Abdominal pain and oliguria C. Signs and symptoms of liver failure D. ​Confusion, lethargy, and hyperthermia

A. ​Nausea, vomiting,​ weakness, and fatigue

Your patient is a​ 72-year-old male who is conscious but lethargic and sitting in a chair. His son states that the patient has been a bit slow lately and has been gaining weight. The medical history includes hypothyroidism and myocardial infarction. The patient has been compliant with his Synthroid and has nitroglycerin for use as needed. The patient responds to verbal​ stimuli, is​ confused, has a large​ tongue, and​ pale, cold, doughy skin. His only complaint is constipation. HR​ = 60 and​ regular, BP​ = 112/80, RR​ = 10 and​ shallow, SaO2 ​= 92%, temperature​ = 88°​F, blood glucose​ = 180​ mg/dl. Your treatment of this patient should​ include: A. ​Oxygen, 4 lpm by nasal cannula B. Atropine 0.5 mg IV C. Rewarm with heat packs D. Infusion of 1 to 2 liters of warm normal saline

A. ​Oxygen, 4 lpm by nasal cannula

Which of the following is a risk factor for​ pneumonia? A. ​immune-compromising diseases B. exposure to hot and balmy weather C. drug abuse D. cardiac output

A. ​immune-compromising diseases

Your patient is experiencing right lower quadrant pain following a syncopal episode. She reports that her last menstrual period​ (LMP) was about six weeks ago. While she is awaiting an abdominal​ CT, the surgery resident asks that you initiate an IV of lactated​ Ringer's solution using a blood set​ (10 drops/mL) and infuse 1 liter over 1 hour. What drip rate​ (in drops/minute) will you use to attain this rate of​ administration? A. 167 B. 600 C. 17 D. 67

A. 167

Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for releasing confidential patient​ information? A.A newspaper reporter promises not to reveal his source. B.A judge signs a court order requesting the information. C.The​ patient's insurance company needs the information for filing and reimbursement purposes. D.The​ patient's other medical care providers have a need to know.

A.A newspaper reporter promises not to reveal his source.

​EMT-P Smith came to work feeling very tired and decided to nap before doing his equipment and vehicle checklist. After about 45 minutes the tones went​ off, and​ EMT-P Smith and his​ EMT-B partner,​ Jones, were dispatched for a seizure. The patient was still actively seizing when they arrived at the scene. Smith discovered that the previous shift had used all the Valium and failed to replace it. As a result Smith could administer no medication to stop the seizure.​ Ultimately, the patient stopped seizing and suffered no apparent adverse consequences. Which of the following elements to establish negligence is missing in this​ case? A.Actual damages B.Breach of duty C.Duty to act D.Consent

A.Actual damages

You have responded to a​ physician's office for a terminal cancer patient in cardiac arrest. The physician​ says, "This is a chemical code only. Just give the​ meds, but​ don't intubate or do​ CPR." Which of the following should you​ do? A.Tell the physician you are bound to treat the patient according to protocol. If the physician would like you to do something​ different, she must take complete responsibility for patient care. B.Tell the physician you cannot comply with her orders under any​ circumstances, and then file a report with the state medical licensing board about her negligence in this case. C.Because this is the​ patient's personal​ physician, you must comply with her orders. D.Comply with her orders on the scene to avoid a​ confrontation, but initiate appropriate care once you are in the back of the ambulance.

A.Tell the physician you are bound to treat the patient according to protocol. If the physician would like you to do something​ different, she must take complete responsibility for patient care.

A patient has been treated by paramedics for a sprained wrist. En route to the​ hospital, she suffers a stroke. What is the likely outcome of a negligence lawsuit brought by the​ patient? A.The suit would fail because the plaintiff could not demonstrate that the​ paramedics' actions were the proximate cause of the stroke. B.The suit would fail because the plaintiff failed to demonstrate malice on the part of the plaintiffs. C.The suit would succeed because the paramedics had a duty to act and the patient suffered actual damages. D.The suit would succeed because this was a foreseeable event.

A.The suit would fail because the plaintiff could not demonstrate that the​ paramedics' actions were the proximate cause of the stroke.

When a patient care report is found to be incomplete or​ inaccurate, the paramedic​ should: A.add a dated and signed written amendment to the original report. B.cross out the incorrect information so that it cannot be read and add the correct information to the bottom of the​ report, dating and signing it. C.erase or white out the incorrect information and write in the correct facts. D.file a completely new report with the correct information.

A.add a dated and signed written amendment to the original report.

OSHA's development of requirements to be followed at hazardous materials emergencies is an example of​ ________ law. A.administrative B.legislative C.common D.constitutional

A.administrative

You are treating a patient who you think needs an IV of lactated​ Ringer's. The​ patient, however, says he is frightened of needles and refuses to give his consent. If you display the IV catheter and bring it toward the​ patient, you may be charged​ with: A.assault. B.battery. C.libel. D.negligence.

A.assault.

Malfeasance, misfeasance, and nonfeasance are three types​ of: A.breach of duty. B.aggravated assault. C.negligence. D.criminal acts.

A.breach of duty.

The category of law that deals with issues involving conflicts between two or more​ parties, such as personal injury​ cases, contract​ disputes, and matrimonial​ issues, is​ ________ law. A.civil B.magistrate C.common D.criminal

A.civil

​"Case" law and​ "judge-made" law are other names for​ ________ law. A.common B.legislative C.constitutional D.administrative

A.common

A paramedic who transports patients without their consent or other legal authority would most likely be subject to charges​ of: A.false imprisonment. B.abandonment. C.negligence. D.defamation.

A.false imprisonment.

All of the following are matters of civil​ law, EXCEPT: A.homicide. B.marriage. C.negligence. D.malpractice.

A.homicide.

A paramedic may treat an unconscious diabetic patient by relying​ on: A.implied consent. B.primum non nocere. C.res ipsa loquitur. D.informed consent.

A.implied consent.

Injuring a​ person's name or character through false written statements is known​ as: A.libel. B.perjury. C.slander. D.misfeasance.

A.libel.

An action or inaction by a paramedic that causes or worsens damages suffered by a patient is called the​ ________ of the damages. A.proximate cause B.primary cause C.potential agent D.precipitating agent

A.proximate cause

Which of the following is a disadvantage to intravascular volume replacement with isotonic crystalloid​ solutions? A. ​Two-thirds of the volume leaves the intravascular space within 1 hour. B. Intracellular fluid shifts to the vascular space. C. There is an immediate shift of vascular volume to the interstitial space. D. Sodium shifts into​ cells, and potassium shifts out of cells.

A.​ Two-thirds of the volume leaves the intravascular space within 1 hour.

Generally, a patient under age 18 can be considered an emancipated minor in all of the following situations EXCEPT when the patient is​ a: A.​16-year-old living in foster care. B.​16-year-old female who is pregnant. C.​17-year-old who is in the military. D.​16-year-old female who is the parent of a​ 1-year-old child.

A.​16-year-old living in foster care.

Your protocols call for a dopamine infusion beginning at 5 micrograms per kilogram per minute. You estimate that your patient weighs 190 pounds. Using a standard dopamine concentration of 800 mg in 500​ mL, at what drip rate​ (in drops/minute) will you need to administer the infusion using microdrip​ tubing? A. 4 B. 16 C. 27 D. 432

B. 16

Glucose is excreted through the urea above which​ level? A. 150​ mg/dL B. 180​ mg/dL C. 250​ mg/dL D. 500​ mg/dL

B. 180​ mg/dL

Your patient is a​ 27-year-old male who has possibly overdosed on heroin. He is unresponsive and bradypneic. Which of the following is​ appropriate? A. 25 mg diphenhydramine B. 2 mg of naloxone C. 1 mg of flumazenil D. 100 mg of thiamine

B. 2 mg of naloxone

What must be done to the concentration of a medication if it is given​ endotracheally? A. 1.5 times normal IV dose B. 2 to 2.5 times normal IV dose C. 3 times the IV dose D. Same as IV dose

B. 2 to 2.5 times normal IV dose

You respond to a patent who complains of having​ dark, tarry stools. Upon​ arrival, you notice that the patient is​ pale, cool, and clammy. After initiation of two​ large-bore IVs, your initial fluid bolus should​ be: A. 250 mL. B. 20​ mL/kg. C. 1000 mL. D. 10​ mL/kg.

B. 20​ mL/kg.

Your patient is a​ 56-year-old male who is conscious and exhibits slurred​ speech, irritability, and​ cool, clammy skin. Blood glucose is 54​ mg/dL. Proper treatment for this patient could include all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Consideration of D50 IV if the patient cannot follow simple commands B. 5 to 10 mg of glucagon IM C. IV of NS D. Administration of oral glucose if the patient is able to swallow

B. 5 to 10 mg of glucagon IM

A patient with COPD should present with a normal PO2​ of: A. 35-45 mmHg B. 50-60 mmHg C. 94-96 mmHg D. 70-80 mmHg

B. 50-60 mmHg

Normal tidal volume in an average​ 70-kg adult is approximately​ ________ mL. A. 750 B. 500 C. ​1,000 D. ​1,500

B. 500

The average adult tidal volume​ is: A. 1200 mL. B. 500 mL. C. 750 mL. D. 2400 mL.

B. 500 mL.

Persistent abdominal pain is considered a surgical emergency when lasting longer​ than: A. 2 days. B. 6 hours. C. 2 hours. D. 6 days.

B. 6 hours.

Using microdrip IV​ tubing, how many drops of fluid equal 1​ mL? A. 10 B. 60 C. 20 D. 15

B. 60

Your patient is a​ 46-year-old with a history of pancreatitis. He has had abdominal pain and vomiting for 24 hours. The ED physician requests that you initiate an IV for rehydration. You will be using a 15​ drops/mL infusion set to administer 250 mL of 5 percent dextrose in 0.9 percent NS per hour. What drip rate​ (at drops/minute) is needed to deliver the fluids at this​ rate? A. 41 B. 63 C. 100 D. 75

B. 63

Acute renal failure occurs when a patient loses​ _____ of the functioning nephrons. A. ​50% B. ​80% .C. ​60% D. ​70%

B. 80%

Pseudoseizures are best controlled​ by: A. Phenytoin B. A command to stop C. Using physical restraints D. Lorazepam

B. A command to stop

Which of the following statements about the use of vasopressors in the treatment of anaphylaxis is​ TRUE? A. A norepinephrine infusion can correct the peripheral vasodilation that occurs secondary to​ SRS-A release by basophils and mast cells. B. A dopamine infusion can correct the peripheral vasodilation that occurs secondary to histamine release by basophils and mast cells. C. An epinephrine infusion can correct the peripheral vasodilation that occurs secondary to​ SRS-A release by basophils and mast cells. D. A norepinephrine infusion encourages a net movement of plasma from the intravascular space to the vascular​ space, raising blood pressure.

B. A dopamine infusion can correct the peripheral vasodilation that occurs secondary to histamine release by basophils and mast cells.

Which of the following statements regarding a dialysis fistula is​ TRUE? A. The fistula is the preferred site of venous access in an emergency situation. B. A fistula is a surgical anastomosis of an artery and a vein. C. A fistula uses a dual lumen tube to connect an artery and a vein. D. The fistula is inserted​ peripherally, but the end of it is placed near the right atrium.

B. A fistula is a surgical anastomosis of an artery and a vein.

A disorder of lung diffusion that results from increased fluid in the interstitial space is known​ as: A. COPD. B. ARDS. C. PHTN. D. AIDS.

B. ARDS.

An​ eight-year-old male child is alert and oriented after a brief episode of eyelid fluttering and slight loss of muscle​ tone, which caused him to slump in his chair. His teacher reports that the child was inattentive for 15 to 20 seconds during the episode but was fine after. This most indicates​ a(n) ________ seizure. A. Generalized B. Absence C. Simple partial D. Pseudo

B. Absence

Which of the following mechanisms is not characteristic for a rectal foreign​ body? A. Accidental swallowing of something B. Accidental trauma C. Psychosis on the part of the patient D. Sexual gratification

B. Accidental trauma

A patient undergoes neurological changes during hemodialysis. Of the​ following, which is the most likely cause of these neurologic​ abnormalities? A. Hypotension B. Accumulated blood urea C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Hyperglycemia

B. Accumulated blood urea

Which of the following is an acceptable antidote for a specific​ poisoning? A. Naloxone for diazepam overdose B. Acetylcysteine​ (Mucomyst) for acetaminophen overdose C. Amyl​ nitrite, sodium​ nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate for organophosphate exposure D. Sodium bicarbonate for muriatic acid ingestion

B. Acetylcysteine​ (Mucomyst) for acetaminophen overdose

A​ 19-year-old male has ingested fifty 325 mg aspirin tablets 20 minutes before your arrival. He is alert and complaining of burning abdominal pain. Which of the following is appropriate in the prehospital management of this​ patient? A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Activated charcoal C. ​N-acetylcysteine D. Syrup of ipecac

B. Activated charcoal

Which of the following medications has the shortest​ half-life? A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Epinephrine D. Digitalis

B. Adenosine

Your patient is a​ 20-year-old male with a peanut allergy who inadvertently ate some candy containing peanuts. He is complaining of a​ "lump" in his​ throat, his voice is hoarse with mild inspiratory​ stridor, and he appears anxious. You are giving oxygen by nonrebreathing mask and have started an IV.​ Next, you​ should: A. Administer 2.5 mg albuterol by nebulizer B. Administer 0.4 mg of​ 1:1000 epinephrine, SQ and 50 mg diphenhydramine IV C. Place the patient in a supine position and prepare for transtracheal ventilation D. Administer an induction agent and a paralytic and perform endotracheal intubation

B. Administer 0.4 mg of​ 1:1000 epinephrine, SQ and 50 mg diphenhydramine IV

You are assessing an unresponsive patient with a MedicAlert tag that indicates he is a diabetic. The​ patient's airway is​ patent, respirations are 20 per minute and​ adequate, radial pulse is rapid and​ weak, and the skin is warm and moist. You attempt to get a blood glucose​ reading, but your blood glucose monitor malfunctions. Which of the following is the best course of​ action? A. Request another unit to respond to the scene with a blood glucose monitor. B. Administer 25 g of 50 percent dextrose. C. Administer a 1 to 2 liter bolus of NS. D. Request an order for 20 units of regular insulin.

B. Administer 25 g of 50 percent dextrose.

Prehospital management of an unresponsive patient with hypoglycemia should NOT​ include: A. BVM ventilations with 100 percent O2 and an OPA B. Administration of oral glucose C. Administration of D50 IV D. Administration of glucagon IM

B. Administration of oral glucose

Cushing's syndrome is a disorder of​ the: A. Thyroid gland B. Adrenal glands C. Posterior pituitary gland D. Ovaries

B. Adrenal glands

Which medication would be the best choice for reducing the bronchospasm and laryngeal edema associated with​ anaphylaxis? A. Dexamethasone B. Albuterol C. ​Solu-Medrol D. Oxygen

B. Albuterol

You are assessing your respiratory patient. Of the following​ findings, which would concern you the​ most? A. Stridor B. Alerted mental status C. Intercostal retractions D. Tachycardia

B. Alerted mental status

Which of the following​ cause(s) injury by inducing liquefaction​ necrosis? A. Acids B. Alkalis C. Caustics D. Emulsifiers

B. Alkalis

Which of the following​ cause(s) injury by inducing liquefaction​ necrosis? A. Emulsifiers B. Alkalis C. Acids D. Caustics

B. Alkalis

Which of the following is LEAST pertinent in the prehospital setting when obtaining the history of a patient with a suspected transient ischemic attack or​ stroke? A. History of diabetes B. Allergies C. History of cardiovascular disease D. Medications

B. Allergies

Which of the following classes of drugs is commonly abused to produce alertness and​ euphoria? A. Benzodiazepines B. Amphetamines C. Alcohol D. Barbiturates

B. Amphetamines

Which of the following diseases is characterized by a progressive degeneration of the nerve cells that control voluntary​ movement, weakness, loss of motor​ control, difficulty​ speaking, and​ cramping? A. Muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. ​Bell's palsy D. Multiple sclerosis

B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Oxygen can benefit patients with chronic renal failure because it is common for patients with chronic renal failure to​ be: A. Anemic due to the blood loss associated with hemodialysis B. Anemic due to decreased production of RBCs C. Hypoxic secondary to associated congestive heart failure D. Hypoxic secondary to associated hypotension

B. Anemic due to decreased production of RBCs

Which of the following statements about using antihistamines in the treatment of anaphylaxis is​ TRUE? A. Antihistamines block H1 and H2 receptors and prevent further release of histamine from B and T cells. B. Antihistamines block histamine receptors and reduce histamine release from mast cells and basophils. C. Blocking of H1 receptors results in mild​ vasoconstriction, while the blocking of H2 receptors results in bronchodilation. D. Antihistamines displace​ histamine, then block histamine receptors.

B. Antihistamines block histamine receptors and reduce histamine release from mast cells and basophils.

Which of the following is the most important determinant of ventilatory​ rate? A. Venous PO2 B. Arterial PCO2 C. Arterial PO2 D. Venous PCO2

B. Arterial PCO2

Most carbon dioxide from cellular metabolism reaches the alveoli by being​ transported: A. Bound to hemoglobin B. As bicarbonate ion C. As carbonic anhydrase D. Dissolved in plasma

B. As bicarbonate ion

Shortly after you have treated a patient who was experiencing a cardiac​ dysrhythmia, the patient complains of dry​ mouth, blurred​ vision, palpitations, and sensitivity to light. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause these​ effects? A. Lidocaine B. Atropine C. Adenosine D. Amiodarone

B. Atropine

Your patient is a​ 32-year-old female who is alert but in significant​ distress, complaining of a migraine. She has a history of​ migraines, describes a gradual onset of headache this​ morning, and is now experiencing nausea and intense throbbing pain behind her temples. She is lying on a couch in a dim room and keeps her eyes closed while talking to you in a low voice. HR​ = 100, BP​ = 148/100, RR​ = 12, SaO2​= ​99%. Which of the following is MOST appropriate in the prehospital management of this​ patient? A. Morphine​ sulfate, IV in 2 mg​ increments, up to 10 mg B. A​ calm, quiet environment and dim lights C. ​Lorazepam, 2 mg D. NTG​ SL, 0.4​ mg, up to 3 tablets or a diastolic blood pressure of 80 mmHg

B. A​ calm, quiet environment and dim lights

What is a method of determining the​ concentration, activity, or effect of a change to a substance by testing its effect on a living organism and comparing this with the activity of an agreed​ standard? A. Idiosyncrasy B. Bioassay C. Adverse effect D. Potentiation

B. Bioassay

Which of the following pharmacokinetic processes would be LEAST affected by the hypotensive state of a patient in cardiogenic​ shock? A. Absorption B. Biotransformation C. Distribution D. Elimination

B. Biotransformation

Which of the following is evaluated in the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen but is not part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke​ Scale? A. Facial droop B. Blood glucose level C. Speech D. Arm drift

B. Blood glucose level

Which of the following drug names are the​ same? A. Chemical and trade B. Brand and trade C. Chemical and generic D. Proprietary and official

B. Brand and trade

Your patient complains of coughing up​ "greenish-brown" sputum. This is most consistent​ with: A. Cancer B. Bronchitis C. Seasonal allergies D. Pulmonary edema

B. Bronchitis

Which of the following is NOT a common obstructive lung disease encountered in the prehospital​ setting? A. Asthma B. CHF C. Emphysema D. Chronic bronchitis

B. CHF

You have been called to a residence by the parents of a​ 14-year-old boy, whom they found sniffing paint fumes in an effort to get high. The patient is​ agitated, coughing, and complaining of dizziness and shortness of breath. His airway is​ patent, respirations​ adequate, and radial pulse easily palpable. Closer assessment of the patient reveals paint around his mouth and breath sounds that are clear and equal. Heart rate​ = 96, respirations​ = 20, blood pressure​ = 116/78, and SaO2 ​= 96%. Oxygen via a nonrebreather has been applied and an IV established. Which of the following is the most important in the assessment and care of this​ patient? A. Antipyretics B. Cardiac monitoring C. Benzodiazepines D. Albuterol administration

B. Cardiac monitoring

Which of the following is associated with​ CAPD? A. Catheter placed in the central circulation B. Catheter providing access to the abdominal cavity C. Dialysis shunt in either arm D. Dialysis fistula in either arm

B. Catheter providing access to the abdominal cavity

The nervous system is divided into which two main​ parts? A. Autonomic and cranial B. Central and peripheral C. Peripheral and autonomic D. Central and autonomic

B. Central and peripheral

Which of the following medications is appropriate for the routine treatment of type 2 diabetes​ mellitus? A. Ultralente insulin B. Chlorpropamide​ (Diabinese) C. Glucagon D. NPH insulin

B. Chlorpropamide​ (Diabinese)

All of the following may be associated with urinary tract infection EXCEPT A. Cystitis B. Cholecystitis C. Pyelonephritis D. Prostatitis

B. Cholecystitis

Which of the following best explains why many former prescription drugs have become​ over-the-counter (OTC)​ drugs? A. Many drug​ actions, once believed to be​ harmful, have been found to be relatively safe. B. Consumers are more​ aware, and pharmaceutical marketing strategies have improved. C. ​Prescription-only medications are much more expensive to manufacture. D. Physicians have lobbied to reduce the number of prescriptions they must write.

B. Consumers are more​ aware, and pharmaceutical marketing strategies have improved.

Which of the following explains the profound protein catabolism and gluconeogenesis associated with​ Cushing's syndrome? A. ​Cushing's syndrome affects normal fat deposition. B. Cortisol is an antagonist to insulin. C. Increased epinephrine and norepinephrine release result in hypermetabolism. D. Glucocorticoids cause sodium retention and increased blood volume.

B. Cortisol is an antagonist to insulin.

You are caring for an elderly woman with suspected vertebral fracture secondary to osteoporosis. She frequently takes a​ hydrocodone-containing preparation​ (Vicoprofen) for pain. With her current​ injury, you find it necessary to administer a​ greater-than-expected dosage of morphine. Why is this higher dosage​ needed? A. Psychological dependency B. Cross tolerance C. Synergism D. Potentiation

B. Cross tolerance

Which of the following is the purpose of lung​ surfactant? A. Aid in the facilitated diffusion of carbon dioxide and oxygen across the alveolar membrane B. Decrease the surface tension of water in the alveoli C. Aid in the facilitated diffusion of oxygen across the alveolar membrane D. Destroy and remove foreign material from the alveoli

B. Decrease the surface tension of water in the alveoli

A​ 32-year-old is conscious and in mild​ distress, complaining of nausea and sweating. He states that his symptoms started two days ago when he stopped drinking​ "cold turkey." Physical examination reveals​ cool, diaphoretic​ skin; slightly dilated pupils​ bilaterally; and a general weakness to all extremities. Which of the following findings would also be​ likely? A. ​Insomnia, hyperglycemia, and difficulty breathing B. Delirium​ tremens, hallucinations, and anxiety C. ​Depression, hypotension, and polyuria D. ​Hypertension, bradycardia, and hyperglycemia

B. Delirium​ tremens, hallucinations, and anxiety

Alcohol is classified as​ a(n): A. Stimulant B. Depressant C. Anxiolytic D. Hallucinogen

B. Depressant

​On-scene you are presented with a confused patient suffering from altered mental status.​ Additionally, in front of the​ family, the patient is very irritable and verbally abusive toward all​ present, including EMS. His wife states that his​ "kidneys are no​ good" and he also has​ "sugar" problems. Your assessment indicates that he is dyspneic with pale skin that is covered with a fine white sediment. His radial pulse is​ weak, rapid, and irregular.​ Additionally, you note edema to his​ hands, feet, and face. Crackles are noted to the lungs bilaterally and he has a dialysis graft on his right forearm. Your partner reports that his heart rate is​ 164, respirations​ 26, blood pressure​ 176/90, and SpO2 ​89%. After applying​ high-concentration oxygen, which of the following would you perform​ next? A. Administer​ furosemide, 120 mg B. Determine the blood glucose level C. Consider a small IV bolus for fluid resuscitation as hypovolemia is evident D. Administer sodium​ bicarbonate, 50 mEq

B. Determine the blood glucose level

Which of the following statements about hemodialysis is​ TRUE? A. Dialysate enters the circulation through the venous site of a fistula and leaves through the arterial side of the fistula. B. Dialysis approximates the physiology of the nephron by placing blood on one side of a semipermeable membrane and dialysate on the other side. C. Blood is removed from the​ body, wastes are collected in a​ filter, and blood is then returned to the body. D. Dialysate is placed in the abdominal​ cavity, the peritoneum acts as a dialysis​ membrane, and dialysate is then removed from the abdominal cavity.

B. Dialysis approximates the physiology of the nephron by placing blood on one side of a semipermeable membrane and dialysate on the other side.

Your patient is a​ 29-year-old male who is​ conscious, alert, and extremely hyperactive after using cocaine. HR​ = 134, BP​ = 148/102, RR​ = 20. Physical examination reveals​ warm, diaphoretic skin and dilated pupils bilaterally. Which of the following medications should be considered to manage this​ patient? A. Propranolol B. Diazepam C. Naloxone D. Metoprolol

B. Diazepam

Your patient states that he often experiences a painful cramping and​ "freezing up" of his hands and feet while handwriting or​ walking, respectively. This best​ describes: A. Palsy B. Dystonia C. Myoclonus D. Torticollis

B. Dystonia

Which of the following chemistry findings would suggest acute renal​ failure? A. Decreased creatinine B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen​ (BUN) C. Elevated iron D. Decreased potassium

B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen​ (BUN)

Atrial fibrillation is most associated with​ ________ strokes. A. Hypoxic B. Embolic C. Hemorrhagic D. Thrombotic

B. Embolic

A​ 46-year-old female alcoholic is​ hypotensive, in severe​ distress, complaining of​ dysphagia, and vomiting bright red blood. Of the​ following, which is the most likely cause of this​ patient's clinical​ condition? A. Acute gastroenteritis B. Esophageal varices C. Acute gastric ulcer perforation D. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis

B. Esophageal varices

A​ Mallory-Weiss tear is a disorder of​ the: A. Liver B. Esophagus C. Stomach D. Rectum

B. Esophagus

Your patient is a​ 49-year-old male complaining of a headache and weakness of his left​ arm, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The information that would be most helpful in differentiating a brain abscess from a brain tumor is whether or not the​ patient: A. Has a recent history of brain surgery B. Exhibits nuchal rigidity C. Has had a seizure D. Has had a change in the level of responsiveness

B. Exhibits nuchal rigidity

Your patient is a​ 49-year-old male complaining of a headache and weakness of his left​ arm, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The information that would be most helpful in differentiating a brain abscess from a brain tumor is whether or not the​ patient: A. Has had a seizure B. Exhibits nuchal rigidity C. Has had a change in the level of responsiveness D. Has a recent history of brain surgery

B. Exhibits nuchal rigidity

As​ antiemetics, phenothiazines​ (Compazine, Phenergan) have which of the following undesirable side​ effects? A. Headache and diarrhea B. Extrapyramidal effects and sedation C. Hallucinations D. Euphoria

B. Extrapyramidal effects and sedation

Your patient is a​ 35-year-old male whom you suspect of having a kidney stone. All of the following would be consistent with this impression​ EXCEPT: A. A description of​ "knifelike" pain B. Fever C. Restlessness D. Hematuria

B. Fever

You are examining a patient who is exhibiting signs of hypovolemia. Upon inspection of the​ patient's flank, you notice ecchymosis. This is known​ as: A. ​Cullen's sign. B. Grey​ Turner's sign. C. Edwards sign. D. rigidity sign.

B. Grey​ Turner's sign.

LSD and PCP are examples​ of: A. Sedatives B. Hallucinogens C. Narcotics D. Amphetamines

B. Hallucinogens

Which of the following should occur with the administration of​ insulin? A. Lipolysis B. Hepatic glycogen synthesis C. Gluconeogenesis D. Glycogenolysis

B. Hepatic glycogen synthesis

Which of the following statements about hepatitis is​ TRUE? A. The most common cause of hepatitis is alcohol abuse. B. Hepatitis is caused by a wide range of potential causes. C. All types of hepatitis lead to chronic liver disease. D. All types of hepatitis are typically fatal within six months to two years.

B. Hepatitis is caused by a wide range of potential causes.

Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor for type II​ diabetes? A. Poor diet B. Heredity C. Obesity D. Lack of exercise

B. Heredity

Which of the following is a​ narcotic? A. Crack B. Heroin C. Mescaline D. Cocaine

B. Heroin

A chemical substance that is released into the blood by a gland and that controls or affects processes in other glands or body systems is​ a(n): A. Neurotransmitter B. Hormone C. Leukotriene D. Enzyme

B. Hormone

What is the name of the needle used to access an implanted​ port? A. Hickman B. Huber C. Portacath D. Broviac

B. Huber

Which of the following is the most direct cause of polyuria in untreated​ diabetes? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hyperglycemia C. Too much insulin D. Too little insulin

B. Hyperglycemia

Which of the following most accurately represents the pathophysiological sequence of untreated type I​ diabetes? A. Glucose is not absorbed through the gastrointestinal​ tract, resulting in hyposecretion of insulin and hypoglycemia. Lack of glucose results in anaerobic metabolism and acidosis. B. Hyposecretion of insulin results in inability of glucose to enter​ cells; blood glucose levels​ rise, and cells convert to the use of fats for​ energy, resulting in the production of ketone bodies. C. Oversecretion of insulin results in​ hypoglycemia; cells convert to the use of fats for energy resulting in the production of ketone bodies. D. Hyposecretion of insulin prevents glucose from being broken down in the gastrointestinal​ tract; too much glucose is absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract resulting in hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis.

B. Hyposecretion of insulin results in inability of glucose to enter​ cells; blood glucose levels​ rise, and cells convert to the use of fats for​ energy, resulting in the production of ketone bodies.

In which class of the​ Vaughn-Williams classification system of​ anti-dysrhythmic medications does propranolol​ belong? A. IA B. II C. IC D. IB

B. II

You respond to a patient with shortness of breath after he took a dose of an antibiotic. You find your patient with audible stridor and uticaria. You should​ administer: A. SQ epinephrine​ 1:1000 0.3-0.5 mg. B. IM epinephrine​ 1:1000 0.3-0.5 mg. C. albuterol 5 mg. D. diphenhydramine 75 mg.

B. IM epinephrine​ 1:1000 0.3-0.5 mg.

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old male who has been in jail for three days after being arrested for driving while intoxicated. He now presents with​ diaphoresis, anxiety,​ hallucinations, insomnia, and tremors. HR​ = 142, BP​ = 132/94, RR​ = 34, blood glucose​ = 85​ mg/dL. Which of the following is​ appropriate? A. Thiamine 100 mg IV B. IV of NS KVO C. 25 gm D50 IV D. Narcan 2 mg IV

B. IV of NS KVO

Your patient is a​ 45-year-old type I diabetic complaining of a​ five-day history of abdominal​ pain, nausea and​ vomiting, and increased urination and thirst. His skin and mucous membranes are warm and dry. HR​ = 112 bpm and​ regular, BP​ = 94/60, RR​ = 12 and regular. Your treatment for this patient would most likely​ include: A. IV of NS​ KVO, nitroglycerin 0.4 mg​ SL, every 3 to 5 minutes B. IV of NS​ 1-2 L C. IV of NS​ KVO, 50 percent dextrose IVP D. IV of D5W​ KVO, 50 percent dextrose IVP

B. IV of NS​ 1-2 L

You are called to a local​ physician's office where you find a​ 52-year-old male patient with a history of chronic renal failure. He is conscious but disoriented. The physician reports that the​ patient's wife brought him in because he has had a​ "chest cold," missed dialysis​ yesterday, and is now​ "acting strangely." Physical examination reveals​ cool, diaphoretic​ skin; edema to dependent​ areas, and lung sounds with rhonchi in the right upper lobe. HR​ = 118, BP​ = 142/100, RR​ = 20 and​ deep, SaO2 ​= 97%, blood glucose​ = 79​ mg/dL. Bloodwork performed by the physician in his office indicates a pH of 7.2. In addition to 15 liters per minute of oxygen by nonrebreathing mask and an IV of normal saline at a​ keep-open rate, which of the following is most appropriate for this patient in the prehospital​ setting? A. IV magnesium​ sulfate, 10 gm B. IV sodium​ bicarbonate, 1​ mEq/kg C. IV​ dextrose, 25 gm D. IV​ furosemide, 120 mg

B. IV sodium​ bicarbonate, 1​ mEq/kg

Which of the following is NOT a possible source of cyanide​ poisoning? A. Ingestion of​ apricot, pear, and cherry pits B. Improperly vented heating systems C. Fume inhalation from burning​ plastic, synthetic​ carpeting, or silk D. ​Long-term sodium nitroprusside therapy

B. Improperly vented heating systems

Which of the following best explains the underlying problem in​ diverticulitis? A. Increased motility of the colon with increased mucus production B. Infection in an outpouching of the distal colon C. Ulceration of the lining of the colon D. The presence of polyps in the sigmoid colon

B. Infection in an outpouching of the distal colon

Which of the following is NOT a percutaneous route of medication​ administration? A. Transdermal B. Inhalation C. Buccal D. Sublingual

B. Inhalation

An​ allergen's most common route of entry in an anaphylactic reaction​ is: A. Inhalation B. Injection C. Ingestion D. Absorption

B. Injection

Which of the following is the most common chief complaint related to acute​ pancreatitis? A. Headache B. Intense abdominal pain C. Blood in the stool D. Diarrhea

B. Intense abdominal pain

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old male who is alert and​ oriented, complaining of severe​ "dizziness" and an earache for two days. He states that any movement of his head causes him to become very dizzy and nauseated. The​ patient's skin is warm and​ dry, his pupils are equal and​ reactive, and there is no gross neurological deficit. HR​ = 82, BP​ = 120/82, RR​ = 12, SaO2 ​= 99%. Which of the following is most​ likely? A. Subdural hematoma B. Labyrinthitis C. Transient cerebral ischemia D. Hypersensitivity of the carotid sinus

B. Labyrinthitis

When assessing a fistula used for​ hemodialysis, which of the following should concern​ you? A. Pulsation with each heartbeat B. Lack of a palpable vibration C. A bruit on auscultation D. Bruising around the fistula

B. Lack of a palpable vibration

Which statement about levodopa in the treatment of​ Parkinson's disease is NOT​ true? A. Levodopa is an effective therapy because it converts to dopamine in the brain. B. Levodopa remains an effective therapy throughout the disease. C. Levodopa is often combined with another ingredient to prevent metabolism outside the brain. D. Levodopa crosses the blood-brain barrier.

B. Levodopa remains an effective therapy throughout the disease.

Esophageal varices are most associated​ with: A. Pancreatitis B. Liver disease C. Kidney disease D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

B. Liver disease

The family members of a​ 72-year-old female state that the patient complained of a​ sudden, severe​ headache; had slurred​ speech; then became unresponsive. She responds to painful stimuli with decorticate posturing and has snoring respirations at a rate of 10 per minute. Her radial pulse is palpable but grossly irregular. According to her​ son, she also suffers from congestive heart​ failure, hypertension, and diabetes. Which of the following should you do​ first? A. Check her blood sugar. B. Manage the airway with a​ head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver. C. Insert an endotracheal tube. D. Attach the cardiac monitor.

B. Manage the airway with a​ head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver.

With occlusion of the SMA or IMA vascular​ structures, what gastrointestinal emergency may​ occur? A. Renal infarction B. Mesenteric ischemia C. Hepatic encephalitis D. Pancreatitis

B. Mesenteric ischemia

Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects drug​ absorption? A. Drug solubility B. Metabolism rate C. Dosage form D. pH

B. Metabolism rate

Your patient is a​ 56-year-old female who is sitting on a park bench. She is​ conscious, though​ lethargic, and complaining of faintness. She states she has had a​ "chest cold" for the past week so had decided to stop taking her​ "blood pressure​ pills" until she felt better. She states that this morning she ingested five tablets instead of her normal one tablet dose to​ "catch up" after the days off. You note​ cool, slightly diaphoretic​ skin; lungs clear​ bilaterally; PEARL; and no motor deficits. HR​ = 48, BP​ = 76/30, RR​ = 12, SaO2 ​= 97%. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be the medication she overdosed​ on? A. Verapamil B. Metaproterenol C. Procardia D. Cardizem

B. Metaproterenol

Which of the following is a common inorganic source of​ medications? A. Animals B. Minerals C. Plants D. Synthetic materials

B. Minerals

Which of the following is a collection of genetic diseases characterized by progressive muscle weakness and skeletal muscle​ degeneration? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Muscular dystrophy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

B. Muscular dystrophy

Which of the following is characterized by involuntary muscle​ twitching? A. Dystonia B. Myoclonus C. Trismus D. Ataxia

B. Myoclonus

Which of the following statements about nitroglycerin is NOT​ true? A. Nitroglycerin commonly causes headache and orthostatic hypotension. B. Nitroglycerin is poorly lipid​ soluble, which prevents it from passing through cell​ membranes, thereby prolonging its effects. C. Nitroglycerin primarily dilates veins and coronary vessels. D. Nitroglycerin achieves its therapeutic effects by blocking the entry of calcium into the cells of smooth muscle.

B. Nitroglycerin is poorly lipid​ soluble, which prevents it from passing through cell​ membranes, thereby prolonging its effects.

You are caring for a young mother who just gave birth to her first child. Despite taking all the appropriate​ measures, she continues to exhibit postpartum hemorrhage. In addition to crystalloid intravenous​ infusions, what medication might you consider to manage this​ patient? A. Epinephrine infusion B. Oxytocin​ (Pitocin) C. Dopamine​ (Intropin) infusion D. Terbutaline​ (Brethine)

B. Oxytocin​ (Pitocin)

Which of the following statements concerning Africanized honeybees is​ accurate? A. Envenomation by Africanized honeybees requires treatment with specific antivenin. B. Patients stung by Africanized honeybees tend to have more stings than patients stung by other types of bees. C. The venom of Africanized honeybees causes acute renal failure. D. The venom of Africanized honeybees is more toxic than that of other types of bees.

B. Patients stung by Africanized honeybees tend to have more stings than patients stung by other types of bees.

Pulmonary embolism is a problem​ of: A. Ventilation of lungs B. Perfusion of the lungs C. Thickness of the respiratory membrane D. Interstitial edema

B. Perfusion of the lungs

Which term best describes the effects a drug has on its target​ organs? A. Bioavailability B. Pharmacodynamics C. Pharmacokinetics D. Biotransformation

B. Pharmacodynamics

A​ 54-year-old female is conscious and alert and in significant pain after a rattlesnake bite to her hand. You note two small puncture wounds surrounded by a​ swollen, red area. She states that she is nauseous and has chills. Your management of this patient should include immobilization of the affected arm​ and: A. Elevating it above the level of the heart B. Placing it at the level of the heart C. Placing it at the level of the heart with ice packs to the affected area D. Placing it below the level of the heart with a constricting band proximal to the wound

B. Placing it at the level of the heart

Which of the following characteristics is LEAST associated with​ emphysema? A. Cor pulmonale B. Productive cough throughout the day C. Barrel chest appearance D. Polycythemia

B. Productive cough throughout the day

What is the preferred access site for intraosseous infusion in both pediatric and adult​ patients? A. Distal femur B. Proximal tibia C. Proximal humerus D. Distal tibia

B. Proximal tibia

You are working at the triage desk in the ED when a young man on crutches approaches the desk. He appears moderately short of breath. He states he had a cast put on his left leg seven days ago after surgery for a ruptured Achilles tendon. This​ morning, while he was watching​ television, he suddenly became short of breath. He has a history of​ asthma, for which he takes Xopenex as​ needed, and is taking Tylenol with codeine for pain related to his surgery. The​ patient's lung sounds are clear and​ equal, SpO2 is 90 percent on room​ air, heart rate is 100 and​ regular, respirations are 24 and slightly​ labored, blood pressure is​ 128/88, and the patient is afebrile. These findings are most consistent​ with: A. Asthma exacerbated by recent anesthesia B. Pulmonary embolism associated with immobilization of the lower extremity C. Pneumonia secondary to recent anesthesia D. Allergic reaction to codeine

B. Pulmonary embolism associated with immobilization of the lower extremity

Which of the following statements about pulse oximetry is​ FALSE? A. Pulse oximetry has the ability to noninvasively measure total hemoglobin​ (SpHb) in addition to SpO2 and other parameters. B. Pulse oximetry values can be expected to decrease within seconds in cases of developing hypoxia. C. Pulse oximetry should be used on all patients with respiratory complaints. D. Oxygen saturation is the percentage of hemoglobin that is bound with some molecular structure.

B. Pulse oximetry values can be expected to decrease within seconds in cases of developing hypoxia.

Just as you are arriving at the emergency department​ bay, your​ patient, on whom you started an IV at the​ scene, complains of sudden​ chills, back​ pain, and nausea. The patient appears​ flushed, and his skin is hot and moist to the touch. Which of the following most likely accounts for your​ patient's presentation? A. Circulatory overload B. Pyrogenic reaction C. Anaphylaxis D. Pulmonary thromboembolism

B. Pyrogenic reaction

Which of the following is an advantage of sublingual drug​ administration? A. Uniform absorption through the conjunctival mucosa B. Rapid absorption due to sublingual vasculature C. Rapid dissolution of tablets so the medication can be swallowed D. Slow rate of drug absorption

B. Rapid absorption due to sublingual vasculature

Your patient is a​ 32-year-old male who is alert and oriented and complaining of severe pain. He states he has a history of disk herniation.​ Today, he experienced an acute onset of lower back pain while lifting a heavy box. Physical examination reveals a palpable muscle spasm and pain with palpation at the level of L4 and L5. He is lying on his right side and states that the pain is too severe for him to move. HR​ = 132, BP​ = 152/104, RR​ = 20, SaO2 ​= 99%. Which of the following would NOT be​ appropriate? A. Cervical​ collar, supine immobilization on a long backboard B. Right lateral recumbent position on a long backboard for transport C. Valium IV D. Morphine sulfate IV

B. Right lateral recumbent position on a long backboard for transport

The dorsal roots of the spinal cord contain afferent fibers that transmit impulses from​ ________ to​ ________. A. The central nervous​ system, sensory nerves B. Sensory​ nerves, central nervous system C. The central nervous​ system, motor nerves D. Motor​ nerves, the central nervous system

B. Sensory​ nerves, central nervous system

A​ 72-year-old female has a​ one-week history of 101°F ​fever, chills, and​ dark-brown sputum production. She also has rhonchi and rales throughout her right lung. If this condition is left​ untreated, it could result​ in: A. Chronic bronchitis B. Septic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Pneumonia

B. Septic shock

A​ 38-year-old male is conscious and alert after a black widow spider bite to his right hand. You note pain and swelling to the​ hand, and the patient states that he is dizzy and nauseous. HR​ = 117, BP​ = 128/78, RR​ = 20. During your physical​ examination, you note that he begins to experience​ severe, painful muscle spasms in his right arm. Which of the following is NOT​ appropriate? A. Calcium gluconate B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Diazepam D. Midazolam

B. Sodium bicarbonate

A series of two or more generalized motor seizures without an intervening period of consciousness is known​ as: A. Hypertonic seizures B. Status epilepticus C. A complex partial seizure D. A petit mal seizure

B. Status epilepticus

Which of the following would result in an increased respiratory​ rate? A. Stimulation of baroreceptors by an increase of PCO2 B. Stimulation of chemoreceptors by an increase of PCO2 C. A decrease of cerebrospinal fluid PO2 D. An increase of cerebrospinal fluid pH

B. Stimulation of chemoreceptors by an increase of PCO2

Which of the following statements about histamines and antihistamines is NOT​ true? A. Although asthma attacks can be caused by​ allergens, antihistamines should not be administered as a treatment. B. Stimulation of the H1 histamine receptors plays a major role in the development of anaphylaxis. C. A chief side effect of antihistamines is sedation. D. There are antagonists for both H1 and H2 histamine receptor sites.

B. Stimulation of the H1 histamine receptors plays a major role in the development of anaphylaxis.

Your patient is a​ 19-year-old female who is exhibiting generalized seizure activity. Her roommate states that she had a seizure that lasted about 3 minutes. She remained​ unresponsive, then started having another seizure about 5 minutes after the first. The patient has peripheral cyanosis and copious oral secretions. Which of the following is of HIGHEST priority for this​ patient? A. Starting an IV and administering 5 mg of diazepam B. Suctioning the​ airway, assisting ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device C. Starting an​ IV, administering​ succinylcholine, and intubation D. Suctioning the​ airway, applying 15 liters per minute of oxygen by nonrebreathing mask

B. Suctioning the​ airway, assisting ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device

Which of the following is a medication​ that, when inserted into a body​ opening, dissolves into the surrounding​ mucosa? A. Ointment B. Suppository C. Liniment D. ​Enteric-coated capsule

B. Suppository

Part of the reason that tricyclic antidepressants​ (TCAs) have fallen somewhat out of favor compared with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors​ (SSRIs) is​ because: A. TCA overdoses often create a hypertensive crisis in patients. B. TCA overdoses have a cardiotoxic effect. C. SSRIs have the added advantage of also blocking norepinephrine and dopamine. D. SSRIs have the added advantage of also blocking histamine and acetylcholine.

B. TCA overdoses have a cardiotoxic effect.

After a person turns​ 40, what is the rate of nephron loss in the​ kidneys? A. Five percent per year. B. Ten percent per decade. C. Twenty percent per decade. D. Five percent per decade.

B. Ten percent per decade.

A patient presents with a history of frequent​ urination, signs and symptoms of​ dehydration, and a blood glucose of 958​ mg/dL. There is no acetone odor on his breath. To which of the following can the absence of an acetone odor most likely be​ attributed? A. Elimination of ketoacids by the blood buffer system B. The ability to use enough glucose to meet metabolic needs C. The ability to convert to the use of amino acids for energy metabolism D. Elimination of ketoacids through​ Kussmaul's respirations

B. The ability to use enough glucose to meet metabolic needs

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the hypothalamus and the endocrine​ system? A. The hypothalamus regulates most endocrine activities via positive feedback mechanisms. B. The hypothalamus is the link between the CNS and the endocrine system. C. The hypothalamus is also known as the posterior pituitary gland. D. The hypothalamus produces all of the releasing hormones that act on other endocrine organs.

B. The hypothalamus is the link between the CNS and the endocrine system.

You have administered 25 g of 50 percent dextrose to a patient who was initially unresponsive with a blood glucose level of 23​ mg/dL. Which of the following is the best indication that the​ patient's condition is​ improving? A. The respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 16 per minute. B. The patient opens his eyes but is confused. C. The patient seems less diaphoretic. D. The heart rate decreases from 112 to 96 per minute.

B. The patient opens his eyes but is confused.

Which of the following best describes why the secondary response to an antigen is faster than the primary​ response? A. The secondary response uses memory​ cells, which immediately release antigens specific to the antibodies. B. The secondary response uses memory​ cells, which immediately release antibodies specific to the antigen. C. The secondary response has fewer steps than the primary​ response, allowing it to progress faster. D. The primary response uses B and T cells specific to the antigens.

B. The secondary response uses memory​ cells, which immediately release antibodies specific to the antigen.

Which of the following statements about hemostatic​ agents, such as adenosine diphosphate​ (ADP) and thromboxane A2​ (TXA2), is​ TRUE? A. They are responsible for converting plasminogen to plasmin. B. They have their effect early in the clotting process. C. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin. D. They limit the clotting cascade to the immediate area of the vessel injury.

B. They have their effect early in the clotting process.

You are working in the ED caring for a​ 55-year-old female with a long history of COPD. She is more short of breath today than usual and states she has an increased cough. She has a tympanic temperature of 99.8°F. You have drawn arterial blood gases with the patient on room air and when the report comes​ back, it shows that the patient has a pO2 of 52 mmHg. Which of the following is most​ likely? A. The lab performed the test incorrectly. B. This is the typical value for this patient. C. You have inadvertently drawn a venous sample. D. The patient is critically hypoxic and requires assisted ventilation.

B. This is the typical value for this patient.

A​ three-year-old male patient has a history of an underdeveloped​ cell-mediated immune system. Which of the following MOST likely contribute to this​ deficiency? A. Hypoadrenalism B. Thymus gland insufficiency and a lack of thymosin secretion C. HIV infection D. Type I diabetes mellitus

B. Thymus gland insufficiency and a lack of thymosin secretion

You are transporting a male patient with the complaint of expressive aphasia and right upper extremity paralysis to the hospital. When calling the​ hospital, which of the following pieces of information is it most critical to​ convey? A. SaO2 ​94% despite oxygen B. Time of symptom onset C. Blood pressure​ 168/82 mmHg D. History of hypertension

B. Time of symptom onset

Your patient is a​ two-year-old male who is alert and crying after ingesting bathroom cleaner. Physical examination reveals no obvious burns or irritation to his​ oropharynx, and his skin is cool and dry. HR​ = 112, BP​ = 108/60, RR​ = 24, SaO2 ​= 99%. Which of the following is most​ appropriate? A. Administration of activated charcoal B. Transport C. Having the patient drink a glass of milk D. Administration of ipecac

B. Transport

Your patient is a​ 16-year-old female who has taken an overdose of phenobarbital. She is unresponsive. Her skin is cool and​ pale, BP​ = 92/60, HR​ = 60, RR​ = 6. You have intubated the patient and started an IV. Which of the following is​ appropriate? A. Naloxone​ 2mg, 25 gm​ dextrose, transport B. Transport without additional pharmacological intervention C. Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq D. 50 gm activated charcoal through an NG tube en route to the hospital

B. Transport without additional pharmacological intervention

The leading​ cause(s) of​ end-stage renal failure is​ (are): A. Kidney infection B. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and hypertension C. Renal calculi and kidney infection D. Acute renal failure

B. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and hypertension

Which of the following sites on the body is used for an intradermal​ injection? A. Upper chest B. Upper back C. Abdomen D. Groin

B. Upper Back

Bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract proximal to the ligament of Treitz is considered to be in​ the: A. Lower GI tract B. Upper GI tract C. Small intestine D. Colon

B. Upper GI tract

Of the​ following, which is TRUE of the changes in blood chemistry and composition in a patient with chronic renal​ failure? A. H+ excretion leads to alkalosis. B. Urea and creatinine levels increase. C. Polycythemia occurs. D. Blood glucose decreases.

B. Urea and creatinine levels increase.

Into which of the following containers would it be necessary to inject a volume of air equal to the intended volume of medication before withdrawing the medication with a needle and​ syringe? A. Nebulizer B. Vial C. Prefilled syringe D. Ampule

B. Vial

Your male patient complaining of abdominal pain describes his pain as a​ dull, crampy sensation that is making him nauseous. The patient is most likely describing​ ________ pain. A. Parietal B. Visceral C. Referred D. Somatic

B. Visceral

The order Hymenoptera​ includes: A. Jellyfish B. Wasps C. Scorpions D. Spiders

B. Wasps

A condition seen in chronic alcoholics that causes​ ataxia, eye muscle​ weakness, and mental derangement is known​ as: A. ​Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. B. Wernicke's syndrome C. ​Korsakoff's psychosis. D. Brugada syndrome.

B. Wernicke's syndrome

Which sign associated with an allergic reaction should concern a caregiver the​ most? A. GI distress B. Wheezing C. Urticaria D. ​Warm, flushed skin

B. Wheezing

Which sign associated with an allergic reaction should concern a caregiver the​ most? A. Urticaria B. Wheezing C. ​Warm, flushed skin D. GI distress

B. Wheezing

Inhalation of a poison​ causes: A. absorption by the trachea. B. absorption in the alveolar capillary. C. aspiration. D. increase in secretions.

B. absorption in the alveolar capillary.

You are called to a patient with severe shortness of breath. Upon​ arrival, you find your patient in the tripod​ position, with pursed lips and audible wheezing. SpO2 is at​ 89% and capnography shows a​ "shark fin" pattern with an ETCO2 of 50. You​ should: A. administer an alpha agonist. B. administer a beta agonist. C. administer an alpha antagonist. D. administer a beta antagonist.

B. administer a beta agonist

The narcotic nalbuphine​ (Nubain) not only binds to opiate receptor sites to provide​ analgesia, but it also prevents other​ opioids, such as morphine​ sulfate, from binding to these​ sites, lessening respiratory depression. These characteristics make the drug​ a(n): A. competitive antagonist. B. agonist-antagonist. C. agonist. D. competitive agonist.

B. agonist-antagonist.

The acronym AVPU is used to quickly assess a​ patient's: A. judgment. B. alertness. C. thought. D. mood.

B. alertness.

Sympathetic nervous system stimulation that results in vasoconstriction is most likely​ affecting: A. beta1 receptor sites. B. alpha1 receptor sites. C. beta2 receptor sites. D. alpha2 receptor sites.

B. alpha1 receptor sites.

The chemical analysis of the​ strength, purity, and effectiveness of a drug is termed​ a(n): A. teratogen. B. assay. C. formulary. D. bioassay.

B. assay.

Medications best suited for treating bronchoconstriction generally stimulate​ ________ receptors. A. alpha2 B. beta2 C. beta1 D. alpha

B. beta2

A majority of carbon dioxide in the body is transported​ as: A. hydrogen ion. B. bicarbonate ion. C. hemoglobin. D. plasma.

B. bicarbonate ion.

The relative therapeutic effectiveness of chemically comparable drugs is regarded as​ the: A. bioassay of the drugs. B. bioequivalence. C. relative efficacy of the drugs. D. therapeutic index.

B. bioequivalence.

One important reason medications are given intravenously is that​ they: A. can be more easily reversed if an untoward effect occurs. B. bypass the liver initially. C. have a delayed onset of action compared to the oral route. D. have minimal effects on the CNS system.

B. bypass the liver initially.

You respond to an ill male patient. Upon​ arrival, you note a farmer who is complaining of not feeling well. The patient presents in a tripod position with copious​ secretions, lacrimation,​ vomiting, and evidence of urination and defecation. You​ suspect: A. extrapyramidal syndrome. B. cholinergic exposure. C. sympathomimetic exposure. D. anticholinergic exposure.

B. cholinergic exposure.

The​ FDA's numerical classification of a newly approved drug as​ "3" denotes it as a​ new: A. generation of a marketed drug. B. formulation or dosage form not previously marketed. C. combination not previously marketed. D. molecular drug.

B. formulation or dosage form not previously marketed.

The​ half-life of carboxyhemoglobin is reduced to approximately 22 minutes by​ using: A. ​100% oxygen. B. hyperbaric oxygen therapy. C. hypobaric oxygen therapy. D. ​44% oxygen.

B. hyperbaric oxygen therapy.

The​ half-life of carboxyhemoglobin is reduced to approximately 22 minutes by​ using: A. ​100% oxygen. B. hyperbaric oxygen therapy. C. ​44% oxygen. D. hypobaric oxygen therapy.

B. hyperbaric oxygen therapy.

One cause of alterted mental status that you are able to quickly rule out​ is: A. CVA. B. hypoglycemia. C. TIA. D. hyperglycemia.

B. hypoglycemia.

Upon examining your​ patient, you note that he has a clubbing of the fingers. You would suspect a history​ of: A. hypertension. B. hypoxemia. C. peripheral vascular disease. D. neoplasm.

B. hypoxemia.

You are called to the home of a patient who suddenly​ "stopped breathing." The patient has a history of a neoplasm at C3 and C4 You​ suspect: A. cervical fractures. B. impingement on the phrenic nerve. C. lung cancer. D. myocardial infarction.

B. impingement on the phrenic nerve.

Digoxin is prescribed to patients with congestive heart failure primarily​ to: A. control rapid ventricular​ rates, because many of these patients also have atrial fibrillation. B. improve myocardial contractility and cardiac output. C. improve blood flow to the​ lungs, thereby reducing pulmonary edema. D. achieve a negative chronotropic effect and thereby reduce the myocardial workload.

B. improve myocardial contractility and cardiac output.

You respond to a patient who has an AV shunt in place. You notice that the patient is unresponsive with the following vital​ signs: blood​ pressure, 180/100​ mmHg; pulse:​ 48; respirations: 12 and irregular. You​ suspect: A. normal status for an AV shunt patient. B. increased ICP. C. decreased ICP. D. seizure.

B. increased ICP.

Histamine causes the all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. bronchoconstriction. B. increased intracranial pressure. C. vasodilation. D. increased permeability.

B. increased intracranial pressure.

Medications to treat extrapyramidal side effects from antipsychotic​ medications, as well as drugs used to treat​ Parkinson's disease, achieve their therapeutic effects​ by: A. enhancing the effects of​ acetylcholine, an inhibitory​ neurotransmitter, in the basal ganglia. B. increasing the amount of dopamine at the receptor sites in the basal ganglia. C. blocking the release of dopamine from the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia. D. blocking the transmission of neural impulses through the pyramidal decussation of the brain.

B. increasing the amount of dopamine at the receptor sites in the basal ganglia.

An​ antidote: A. is not indicated in the field. B. neutralizes the toxin. C. is universally oxygen. D. enhances the toxin.

B. neutralizes the toxin.

Some of the most immediate effects from ingesting a poison​ include: A. localized skin reaction. B. oral burns. C. clotting disorders. D. absorption by the lower intestine.

B. oral burns.

The mortality rate of ruptured esophageal varices is​ ________ percent. A. 10 to 15 B. over 35 C. 20 to 30 D. 15

B. over 35

A drug that blocks the muscarinic receptors in the peripheral nervous system would be classified as​ a: A. parasympathomimetic. B. parasympatholytic. C. sympathomimetic. D. sympatholytic.

B. parasympatholytic.

The immune response is a cascade that reacts to​ a: A. toxin. B. pathogen. C. bacteria. D. virus.

B. pathogen.

You respond to a call of an ill male patient. Upon​ arrival, you see a patient in a​ chair, hooked into two large bags—one on an IV​ stand, one below his waist. The tubes are going into the​ patient's abdomen. You should suspect that this patient is​ undergoing: A. hemodialysis. B. peritoneal dialysis. C. gastric lavage. D. J tube feeding.

B. peritoneal dialysis.

The study of the basic processes that determine the duration and intensity of a​ drug's effect and how those drugs are​ absorbed, distributed,​ biotransformed, and eliminated is​ called: A. drug profiling. B. pharmacokinetics. C. polypharmacy. D. pharmacodynamics.

B. pharmacokinetics.

The cause of esophageal varices can be attributed​ to: A. pulmonary hypertension. B. portal hypertension. C. pulmonary hypotension. D. portal hypotension.

B. portal hypertension.

Tachyphylaxis can best be described​ as: A. an unexpected increase in heart rate as a side effect of a drug. B. rapidly decreasing effects with repeated administration of a drug. C. an allergic reaction that occurs when a drug is administered for the first time. D. anaphylactoid episodes occurring due to​ cross-sensitivity.

B. rapidly decreasing effects with repeated administration of a drug.

The three steps of decontamination​ are: A. ​water, elimination in​ urine, atropine. B. reduce intake of the​ toxin, reduce​ absorption, enhance elimination. C. reduce​ absorption, reduce​ metabolism, increase absorption by the kidney. D. elimination in​ urine, water, oxygen.

B. reduce intake of the​ toxin, reduce​ absorption, enhance elimination.

ATIA​ typically: A. never resolves. B. resolves within 24 hours. C. is caused by intracranial hemorrhage. D. can be reversible with tPA.

B. resolves within 24 hours.

A drug with a​ wax-like base that melts at body​ temperature, allowing absorption into body​ tissue, is called​ a(n): A. suspension. B. suppository. C. elixir. D. capsule.

B. suppository.

​Normally, taken​ alone, neither substance would cause serious​ harm, but if taken​ together, the combination could cause coma or death. This is an example​ of: A. duration of action. B. synergism. C. summation. D. efficacy.

B. synergism.

You are assessing a patient who is presenting with shortness of​ breath, JVD, and tracheal deviation. You​ suspect: A. tracheal tugging. B. tension pneumothorax. C. subcutaneous emphysema. D. flail chest.

B. tension pneumothorax.

Lung compliance is described​ as: A. the rate at which the chest expands. B. the ease with which the chest expands. C. the depth at which the chest expands. D. the diameter of the chest wall.

B. the ease with which the chest expands.

An important physiologic distinction between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system​ is: A. the parasympathetic nervous system contains no ganglionic fibers. B. the sympathetic ganglia are close to the spinal cord. C. only the sympathetic division innervates the target organs or tissue directly. D. the sympathetic division does not use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter.

B. the sympathetic ganglia are close to the spinal cord.

Which of the following is an intrinsic risk factor that would increase the likelihood of a patient developing a respiratory​ disease? A. exposure to smog and pollution B. underlying circulatory problems C. cigarette use D. exposure to noxious chemicals

B. underlying circulatory problems

Abdominal pain that is dull in nature and cannot be narrowed to one specific area is known​ as: A. ​Kehr's sign. B. visceral pain. C. somatic pain. D. referred pain.

B. visceral pain.

Your diabetic patient asks you why he​ "passes out" when his blood sugar gets too low. Which of the following responses is most​ accurate? A. ​"When the blood sugar is​ low, the brain does not get enough​ oxygen." B. ​"Brain cells need a constant supply of​ glucose, or​ sugar, to function. Without sugar the brain cells cannot work to maintain​ consciousness." C. ​"When the blood sugar is​ low, the blood vessels relax and the blood pressure​ drops, causing you to​ faint." D. ​"The cells of the heart can only use​ glucose, or​ sugar, for energy. Without sugar the heart cannot effectively pump blood to the​ brain."

B. ​"Brain cells need a constant supply of​ glucose, or​ sugar, to function. Without sugar the brain cells cannot work to maintain​ consciousness."

Which of the following statements would be most typical of an undiagnosed​ diabetic? A. ​"I haven't had much of an appetite. I am not hungry at​ all." B. ​"I am so thirsty I have to keep a glass of water by my bed at​ night." C. ​"I have gained ten pounds over the past two​ weeks." D. ​"It seems like I am dehydrated because I hardly urinate at​ all."

B. ​"I am so thirsty I have to keep a glass of water by my bed at​ night."

Which of the following statements would be most typical of a patient with​ hepatitis? A. ​"I have sharp pain on the left side of my​ abdomen." B. ​"My stools are really light in​ color." C. ​"It seems like everything has a yellow tinge to​ it." D. ​"I have to urinate all the​ time."

B. ​"My stools are really light in​ color."

Your patient is a​ 55-year-old male whose wife called EMS after the patient complained of bright red bleeding during a bowel movement. The patient refuses​ transport, stating he has hemorrhoids and has had similar bleeding in the past. Which of the following statements is most​ appropriate? A. ​"This does not sound like​ hemorrhoids." B. ​"Similar bleeding can be caused by more serious​ conditions." C. ​"Even though this sounds like​ hemorrhoids, the bleeding may become​ life-threatening." D. ​"I'm sure you are​ right; there is nothing to worry​ about."

B. ​"Similar bleeding can be caused by more serious​ conditions."

Your patient is a​ 19-year-old female who called EMS because she awoke with​ "itchy red​ patches" on her​ chest, back, and arms that​ "seem to come and​ go." As you obtain the​ history, you learn that she started taking​ Keflex, an​ antibiotic, two days ago to prevent infection in a laceration to her hand. In explaining to your patient what is going​ on, which of the following statements would be the most​ accurate? A. ​"It looks like the infection in your hand has spread to the bloodstream. The toxins from the bacteria are causing a​ rash." B. ​"These look like hives. They occur during an allergic reaction. You may have developed an allergy to the antibiotic you are​ taking." C. ​"I cannot say what this​ is, but it is not an allergic reaction. Hives do not come and go as you have​ described." D. ​"This is a typical side effect of Keflex. It happens in most patients who take​ it."

B. ​"These look like hives. They occur during an allergic reaction. You may have developed an allergy to the antibiotic you are​ taking."

When evaluating a patient with a possible neurologic​ emergency, which acronym can help you remember the​ causes? A. ISAL B. ​AEIOU-TIPS C. AVPU D. TICKLES

B. ​AEIOU-TIPS

Which of the following correctly pairs a toxin with its​ antidote? A. Carbon​ monoxide: amyl nitrite B. ​Acetaminophen: N-acetylcysteine C. ​Aspirin: magnesium citrate D. ​Benzodiazepine: naloxone

B. ​Acetaminophen: N-acetylcysteine

The most common cause of dementia​ is: A. ​Bell's palsy B. ​Alzheimer's disease C. Stroke D. ​Korsakoff's psychosis

B. ​Alzheimer's disease

Which of the following diseases is characterized by hypersecretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone leading to​ hyperglycemia, obesity,​ hypertension, and electrolyte​ imbalances? A. ​Hashimoto's disease B. ​Cushing's disease C. ​Addison's disease D. Gigantism

B. ​Cushing's disease

Which three mechanisms can produce visceral​ pain? A. Blunt​ trauma, penetrating​ trauma, and medical illness B. ​Distension, ischemia, and inflammation C. ​Somatic, referred, and peritonitis D. ​Peritonitis, cholecystitis, and a ruptured abdominal aorta

B. ​Distension, ischemia, and inflammation

Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of oral​ contraceptives? A. Unintended pregnancy B. ​Early-onset osteoporosis C. Hypertension D. Thromboembolism

B. ​Early-onset osteoporosis

Stretch receptors in the lungs send a signal to the inspiratory center of the​ medulla, inhibiting its stimulation of the phrenic and intercostal nerves. This is called the​ ________ reflex. A. ​Cheyne-Stokes B. ​Hering-Breuer C. ​Cushing's D. Moro

B. ​Hering-Breuer

The first medication administered to a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction should​ be: A. Glucagon B. ​High-concentration oxygen C. Epinephrine D. Diphenhydramine

B. ​High-concentration oxygen

Your patient is a​ 76-year-old female who was initially lethargic but responded to verbal stimuli. According to family​ members, the patient experienced a sudden decrease in responsiveness. She had a​ left-sided facial​ droop, aphasia, a dilated and nonreactive right​ pupil, and a flaccid left arm. Lung sounds are decreased bilaterally. HR​ = 58, BP​ = 172/102, RR​ = 6 and​ shallow, SaO2 ​= 88%. As you start to treat​ her, the patient has a generalized seizure lasting about 30 seconds. She is now unresponsive. Which of the following is most​ appropriate? A. Hyperventilate by​ bag-valve mask, IV of normal saline at a keep open​ rate, diazepam 5 mg​ IV, intubate if no​ improvement, transport without delay B. ​Intubation, IV of normal saline at a keep open​ rate, cardiac​ monitor, blood glucose​ determination, transport without delay C. Hyperventilate by​ bag-valve mask, IV of normal saline at a keep open​ rate, check blood glucose​ level, administer 25 gm of dextrose if​ needed, administer naloxone and​ thiamine, intubate if no​ improvement, transport without delay D. ​Intubation, IV of normal saline at a keep open​ rate, cardiac​ monitor, blood glucose​ determination, sublingual nitroglycerin​ spray, transport without delay

B. ​Intubation, IV of normal saline at a keep open​ rate, cardiac​ monitor, blood glucose​ determination, transport without delay

Which of the following diseases is most likely to cause dementia in the​ patient? A. Multiple sclerosis B. ​Pick's disease C. Spina bifida D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

B. ​Pick's disease

A type of generalized seizure characterized by a rapid loss of consciousness and motor​ coordination, muscle​ spasms, and jerking motions is known as​ a(n): A. Simple partial seizure B. ​Tonic-clonic seizure C. Complex partial seizure D. Absence

B. ​Tonic-clonic seizure

What structures may be affected in a urinary tract infection in a female​ patient? A. ​Kidney, bladder, fallopian tubes B. ​Urethra, bladder, kidney C. ​Vagina, bladder, urethra D. ​Bladder, ureters, vagina

B. ​Urethra, bladder, kidney

Your patient is a​ 56-year-old female who is alert and sitting in a chair. She states that she accidentally took too many of her Cardizem tablets. Which of the following signs or symptoms would you LEAST expect to​ find? A. ​Cool, dry skin and mild hypotension B. ​Warm, dry skin and tachycardia C. Bradycardia and altered mental status D. ​Cool, diaphoretic skin and profound hypotension

B. ​Warm, dry skin and tachycardia

The pharmacological effects of administering insulin to a hyperglycemic patient is an example of​ increased: A. biotransformation. B. ​carrier-mediated diffusion. C. passive transport. D. transference.

B. ​carrier-mediated diffusion.

According to​ Starling's Law, the administration of nitroglycerin will result in​ ________ preload,​ ________ stroke​ volume, and​ ________ myocardial oxygen demand. A. ​decreased; decreased; increased B. ​decreased; decreased; decreased C. ​decreased; increased; decreased D. ​increased; increased; decreased

B. ​decreased; decreased; decreased

Methylphenidate​ (Ritalin), a drug used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder​ (ADHD), achieves its therapeutic action by​ ________ the​ CNS, thereby causing​ ________ and allowing for greater concentration and focus. A. ​depressing; relaxation B. ​stimulating; heightened awareness and arousal C. ​depressing; sedation D. ​stimulating; paradoxical sedation

B. ​stimulating; heightened awareness and arousal

If a patient were exhibiting pupillary​ constriction, hypersalivation, bronchial​ wheezing, and​ bradycardia, you should suspect​ ________ of the​ ________ nervous system. A. ​blockade; cholinergic B. ​stimulation; parasympathetic C. ​blockade; voluntary D. ​stimulation; sympathetic

B. ​stimulation; parasympathetic

Paramedic Davis and his​ partner, EMT-I​ Smothers, are eating lunch in the hospital cafeteria and discussing the details of a call they ran last week on​ well-known news anchor Adam Best. Unbeknownst to Davis and​ Smothers, Mr.​ Best's co-anchor is sitting directly behind them listening to the details. Which of the following best describes the actions of Davis and​ Smothers? A.Libel B.Breach of confidentiality C.Negligence D.Slander

B.Breach of confidentiality

A patient is involved in a car crash. When the paramedics​ arrive, he complains of neck pain but refuses to let the paramedics immobilize his spine. The paramedics explain the risks of refusing treatment and have the patient sign a​ release-from-liability form. The patient suffers minor neurological damage and later​ sues, charging negligence on the part of the paramedics. Which of the following best explains why the patient is not likely to be awarded​ damages? A.There was no violation of the standard of care. B.There was contributory negligence on the part of the patient. C.A monetary award cannot be assigned to the damages. D.The paramedics did not have a duty to act.

B.There was contributory negligence on the part of the patient.

The unilateral termination of the paramedicdash-patient relationship by the paramedic without assurance that an equal or greater level of care will continue is known​ as: A.battery. B.abandonment. C.misfeasance. D.assault.

B.abandonment.

Most of the laws that OSHA can use to enact regulations and statutes are​ ________ laws. A.constitutional B.administrative C.legislative D.common

B.administrative

The four elements needed to sustain a charge of negligence against a paramedic​ are: A.breach of​ duty, violation of EMS​ codes, proximate​ cause, and failure to document the action. B.duty to​ act, breach of that​ duty, actual​ damages, and proximate cause. C.breach of​ duty, actual​ damages, malicious​ intent, and reckless disregard of results. D.duty to​ act, actual​ damages, malicious​ intent, and significant harm.

B.duty to​ act, breach of that​ duty, actual​ damages, and proximate cause.

When a paramedic treats an unconscious​ patient, the provision of treatment is based on​ ________ consent. A.expressed B.implied C.primum non nocere D.res ipsa loquitur

B.implied

The type of consent that must be obtained from a​ conscious, competent adult patient before a paramedic can begin treatment is called​ ________ consent. A.ex officio B.informed C.implied D.voluntary

B.informed

Legal responsibility for a situation is known as A.res ipsa loquitur. B.liability. C.negligence. D.primum non nocere.

B.liability.

The duties and skills paramedics are allowed and expected to perform while carrying out their jobs are called​ the: A.treatment guidelines B.scope of practice. C.National Standard Curriculum. D.standing orders.

B.scope of practice.

Injuring a​ person's name or character through malicious spoken statements is​ called: A.misfeasance. B.slander. C.libel. D.perjury.

B.slander.

Which of the following solutions is appropriate for the patient needing vascular volume replacement in the prehospital​ setting? A. 5 percent dextrose in water B. Dextran 40 C. 0.9 percent sodium chloride solution D. 0.45 percent sodium chloride and 5 percent dextrose in water

C. 0.9 percent sodium chloride solution

You are to give your patient 50 mg of ketorolac​ (Toradol) IM for musculoskeletal pain. Ketorolac is supplied 60​ mg/2 mL. What volume of drug​ (in mL) is to be drawn up for​ administration? A. 170 B. 0.17 C. 1.7 D. 17

C. 1.7

Which of the following catheters would allow the greatest volume of fluid to be delivered in a given​ period? A. 16​ gauge, 1 1/4′′ B. 14​ gauge, 2′′ C. 14​ gauge, 1 1/4′′ D. 16​ gauge, 2"

C. 14​ gauge, 1 1/4′′

Glucose is excreted through the urea above which​ level? A. 250​ mg/dL B. 150​ mg/dL C. 180​ mg/dL D. 500​ mg/dL

C. 180​ mg/dL

Once a drug is proven safe and tested on a limited group of people with the disease it is intended to​ treat, and the therapeutic dose is​ refined, the drug manufacturer can file a new drug application​ (NDA) following this phase of human studies. A. 1 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2

C. 3

Gastrointestinal emergencies account for​ ________ percent of emergency room visits annually. A. 10 B. 2.5 C. 5 D. 7.5

C. 5

Your patient is having a cholecystectomy this evening. To prevent​ dehydration, she is to receive 5 percent dextrose in 0.45 percent saline solution at a rate of 150​ mL/hour. Using 20​ drops/mL tubing, what is the drip rate in​ drops/minute? A. 60 B. 150 C. 50 D. 75

C. 50

After administering a medication by the nasogastric or orogastric​ tube, how much fluid should you flush​ with? A. 20 mL B. 10 mL C. 50 mL D. 30 mL

C. 50 mL

Which of the following statements regarding a dialysis fistula is​ TRUE? A. The fistula is the preferred site of venous access in an emergency situation. B. A fistula uses a dual lumen tube to connect an artery and a vein. C. A fistula is a surgical anastomosis of an artery and a vein. D. The fistula is inserted​ peripherally, but the end of it is placed near the right atrium.

C. A fistula is a surgical anastomosis of an artery and a vein.

You are examining a newborn and note that the meninges and spinal cord are protruding through an opening over the lower back. This is known​ as: A. Spina bifida occulta B. Poliomyelitis C. A myelomeningocele D. A meningocele

C. A myelomeningocele

Your patient is a​ 72-year-old male patient who is conscious but slow to respond to questions and commands. He has become increasingly​ lethargic, unemotional, and easily fatigued over the past two months. He has had a decreased appetite and has gained weight over the same period. The patient further​ states, "I'm constipated and always​ cold." Which of the following additional signs or symptoms would be consistent with this patient​ presentation? A. ​Hypothermia, tachycardia, and hypertension B. A​ "moon-faced" appearance and hyperpigmentation of the skin C. A puffy​ face, an enlarged​ tongue, and​ pale, doughy skin D. ​Goiter, atrial​ fibrillation, nausea, and vomiting

C. A puffy​ face, an enlarged​ tongue, and​ pale, doughy skin

The posterior pituitary produces which two​ hormones? A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine B. Insulin and glucagon C. ADH and oxytocin D. Growth hormone and gonadotropin

C. ADH and oxytocin

An​ eight-year-old male child is alert and oriented after a brief episode of eyelid fluttering and slight loss of muscle​ tone, which caused him to slump in his chair. His teacher reports that the child was inattentive for 15 to 20 seconds during the episode but was fine after. This most indicates​ a(n) ________ seizure. A. Simple partial B. Pseudo C. Absence D. Generalized

C. Absence

A compulsive and overwhelming dependence on a chemical substance​ is: A. Withdrawal B. Habituation C. Addiction D. Substance abuse

C. Addiction

You are presented with a​ 25-year-old male complaining of mouth and stomach pain after accidentally ingesting approximately 8 ounces of benzene. Physical examination reveals irritation to the oral​ mucosa, skin warm and slightly​ diaphoretic, and lungs clear and equal bilaterally. HR​ = 100, BP​ = 118/66, RR​ = 14, SaO2 ​= 99%. Based on the clinical exam​ findings, treatment would consist of all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Rapid transportation to an ED for gastric decontamination B. IV of NS KVO C. Administration of activated charcoal D. O2 via nasal cannula 2 lpm

C. Administration of activated charcoal

You are presented with a​ 25-year-old male complaining of mouth and stomach pain after accidentally ingesting approximately 8 ounces of benzene. Physical examination reveals irritation to the oral​ mucosa, skin warm and slightly​ diaphoretic, and lungs clear and equal bilaterally. HR​ = 100, BP​ = 118/66, RR​ = 14, SaO2 ​= 99%. Based on the clinical exam​ findings, treatment would consist of all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Rapid transportation to an ED for gastric decontamination B. O2 via nasal cannula 2 lpm C. Administration of activated charcoal D. IV of NS KVO

C. Administration of activated charcoal

All of the following are common complications of renal dialysis​ EXCEPT: A. Bleeding from the needle puncture site B. Dysfunction of the fistula C. Air embolism D. Localized infection at the needle puncture site

C. Air embolism

Which of the following hormones has the greatest effect on blood pressure​ homeostasis? A. Calcitonin B. Cortisol C. Aldosterone D. Parathyroid hormone

C. Aldosterone

You respond to the aid of a​ 19-year-old patient who is reported to have taken an overdose of a prescribed medication. She exhibits combativeness and severe tremors. Her blood pressure is​ 160/100 mmHg, and her pulse is 132. Sinus tachycardia appears on her ECG. Which of the following classification of drugs is most likely to cause these​ symptoms? A. Opiates B. Barbiturates C. Amphetamines D. Benzodiazepines

C. Amphetamines

Which of the following statements about antibiotics is NOT​ true? A. Antibiotics typically achieve their therapeutic action by destroying the bacterial cell wall. B. Antibiotics are generally safe and can be prescribed indiscriminately. C. An individual who has developed a resistance to one type of antibiotic will typically respond well to other antibiotics in a similar class. D. Viruses are not susceptible to antibiotics.

C. An individual who has developed a resistance to one type of antibiotic will typically respond well to other antibiotics in a similar class.

The intranasal route of drug administration can be used for which of the​ following? A. Airway constriction B. Aural application C. Analgesia D. Antiarrhythmic

C. Analgesia

Which of the following is the most important determinant of ventilatory​ rate? A. Venous PCO2 B. Venous PO2 C. Arterial PCO2 D. Arterial PO2

C. Arterial PCO2

The most important factor in determining the respiratory rate​ is: A. Alveolar pCO2 B. Alveolar pO2 C. Arterial pCO2 D. Arterial pO2

C. Arterial pCO2

Which of the following statements about hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma​ (HHNK) is​ true? A. ​Paradoxically, the definitive management of HHNK includes the administration of 50 percent dextrose. B. Unlike diabetic​ ketoacidosis, HHNK is not​ life-threatening. C. Aside from managing the​ ABCs, prehospital management is primarily aimed at correcting dehydration. D. Prehospital treatment of HHNK includes correcting metabolic acidosis.

C. Aside from managing the​ ABCs, prehospital management is primarily aimed at correcting dehydration.

Which of the following is the most reliable way to differentiate between a hyperglycemic emergency and a hypoglycemic​ emergency? A. Determine whether the patient is a type I or type II diabetic. B. Determine whether or not the patient took his insulin or oral antihyperglycemic medicines. C. Assess the blood glucose level. D. Follow the conventional​ wisdom, "Pale,​ cool, wet:​ low; red,​ hot, dry:​ high."

C. Assess the blood glucose level.

Which of the following is the most reliable way to differentiate between a hyperglycemic emergency and a hypoglycemic​ emergency? A. Follow the conventional​ wisdom, "Pale,​ cool, wet:​ low; red,​ hot, dry:​ high." B. Determine whether the patient is a type I or type II diabetic. C. Assess the blood glucose level. D. Determine whether or not the patient took his insulin or oral antihyperglycemic medicines

C. Assess the blood glucose level.

Your patient is a​ 48-year-old female who is unconscious with snoring respirations after ingesting an unknown substance. You note​ cold, peripherally cyanotic skin and a​ weak, rapid pulse. Her pupils are equal and reactive but constricted. She has no unusual​ odors, and her blood glucose level is 80​ mg/dl. HR​ = 74, BP​ = 100/68, RR​ = 4, SaO2 ​= 91%. Which of the following is​ appropriate? A. ​Intubate, ventilate using supplemental​ oxygen, IV, 1​ mEq/kg sodium bicarbonate B. Assist ventilations using supplemental​ oxygen, IV, 2 mg​ naloxone, 100 mg​ thiamine, 25 gm dextrose C. Assist ventilations using supplemental​ oxygen, IV, 2 mg naloxone D. ​Intubate, ventilate using supplemental​ oxygen, IV, 2 mg​ naloxone, 100 mg​ thiamine, 25 gm dextrose

C. Assist ventilations using supplemental​ oxygen, IV, 2 mg naloxone

Physostigmine​ (Antilirium) is a useful antidote for which drug​ overdose? A. Norepinephrine B. Dopamine C. Atropine D. Epinephrine

C. Atropine

You are caring for a​ 45-year-old male patient who was tending to his fruit orchard when he suddenly developed​ headache, dizziness, blurred​ vision, and tremors. You note that he was incontinent of​ urine, has pupillary​ constriction, and is salivating excessively. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to manage this​ patient? A. Ipratropium bromide B. Diazepam C. Atropine D. Physostigmine

C. Atropine

Your patient is a​ 32-year-old female who is alert and sitting at her kitchen table complaining of dizziness and​ near-syncope with exertion. She describes a​ four-day history of a 104°F ​fever, nausea,​ vomiting, and diarrhea unrelieved with​ over-the-counter medications. Physical examination reveals dry skin and mucous​ membranes, lung sounds clear and equal bilaterally. HR​ = 131 and​ regular, BP​ = 84/60, RR​ = 20 and​ regular, SaO2 ​= 98%, blood glucose​ = 58​ mg/dL. She has a history of​ colitis, for which she often takes​ prednisone, but she has been noncompliant with her prednisone therapy for the past five days because she cannot afford to refill her prescription. The treatment for this patient should​ include: A. An IV of​ NS, KVO, 25 g dextrose​ IV, and 100 mg thiamine IV B. 15 lpm oxygen by​ nonrebreather, IV of​ NS, KVO, 25 g dextrose C. A​ one-liter NS​ bolus, IV, and 25 g dextrose IV D. A​ one-liter NS bolus IV

C. A​ one-liter NS​ bolus, IV, and 25 g dextrose IV

Restoril and Ativan are examples​ of: A. Opiates B. Narcotics C. Benzodiazepines D. Barbiturates

C. Benzodiazepines

Hyperglycemia is most likely a result of damage to the pancreatic​ ________ cells. A. Delta B. Alpha C. Beta D. Acinar

C. Beta

Your patient has ingested cyanide in a suicide attempt. Which of the following is the primary threat to life you should​ anticipate? A. Liver failure B. Pulmonary edema C. Cellular asphyxia D. Hypotension

C. Cellular asphyxia

Which of the following foods should a patient on MAOIs​ avoid? A. Chocolate B. Bananas C. Cheese D. White wine

C. Cheese

All of the following contribute to the pathogenesis of diverticulosis​ EXCEPT: A. Increased colon pressure B. Herniation of mucosa and submucosa through the teniae coli C. Decreased colon motility D. ​Low-fiber diet

C. Decreased colon motility

Your patient is a​ 42-year-old male who had surgery four years ago to remove his posterior pituitary gland because of a tumor. He stopped taking replacement hormones because they caused depression. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of the​ patient's noncompliance with hormone replacement​ therapy? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypertension C. Dehydration D. Reduced ability to fight infection

C. Dehydration

Alcohol is classified as​ a(n): A. Hallucinogen B. Anxiolytic C. Depressant D. Stimulant

C. Depressant

Your partner experiences an​ itchy, red rash on her hands that stops at the wrists after using a new brand of glove your service purchased. Her skin is​ warm, dry, and​ nondiaphoretic; the rash is isolated to her​ hands; and her lung sounds are clear bilaterally. She has no other complaints. HR​ = 88, RR​ = 12, BP​ = 122/80. Of the following​ treatments, which is most​ appropriate? A. Oxygen via nasal cannula 4​ lpm, cardiac​ monitor, IV of NS​ KVO, epinephrine​ IV, diphenhydramine IM B. Oxygen via nonrebreather mask 15​ lpm, cardiac​ monitor, IV of NS​ KVO, epinephrine​ SC, diphenhydramine IM C. Diphenhydramine IM D. Advise the dispatcher you will be going out of service

C. Diphenhydramine IM

Which of the following medications is NOT used as a​ first-line drug to counter the physiologic effects of the release of​ slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis​ (SRS-A)? A. Epinephrine​ 1:10,000 B. Diphenhydramine C. Dopamine D. Albuterol

C. Dopamine

Which of the following is LEAST likely to result in hypoglycemia in a type I diabetic​ patient? A. Taking insulin as usual but missing a meal B. Increased exercise level C. Eating foods high in sugar D. Inadvertently administering too much insulin

C. Eating foods high in sugar

Your patient has a​ hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla. What hormone is most likely to be secreted by this​ tumor? A. Dopamine B. Cortisol C. Epinephrine D. ACTH

C. Epinephrine

Which treatment would best halt the urticaria associated with an allergic​ reaction? A. ​Solu-Medrol B. Dopamine and albuterol C. Epinephrine and diphenhydramine D. Oxygen

C. Epinephrine and diphenhydramine

Which of the following is a contraindication to intraosseous needle​ placement? A. Development of a pulmonary embolism B. Too large a needle or forceful insertion C. Establishment of a peripheral IV line D. ​Long-term growth complications and swelling

C. Establishment of a peripheral IV line

In healthy​ individuals, which of the following is NOT a function of the​ kidney? A. Excretion of wastes B. Secretion of erythropoietin C. Excretion of glucose D. Regulation of water and electrolyte balance and pH

C. Excretion of glucose

A​ 34-year-old female,​ conscious, alert, and​ oriented, is complaining of a​ three-week history of increased​ appetite, weight​ loss, weakness,​ insomnia, and inability to tolerate heat. She has recently been frequently agitated and prone to mood swings. Based on these signs and​ symptoms, which of the following best describes the additional findings you could​ expect? A. Heart block and hypotension B. Enlarged tongue and​ cool, puffy skin C. Exophthalmos and goiter D. Hyperpigmentation of the skin and hirsutism

C. Exophthalmos and goiter

Your patient is a​ 32-year-old female who is alert and complaining of dysuria. She describes a​ three-day history of pain with urination and urinary urgency and difficulty. She describes the pain as a 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. Physical examination reveals tenderness on palpation of the lower abdomen bilaterally and​ warm, dry skin. HR​ = 88, BP​ = 126/78, RR​ = 12. The most appropriate action​ is: A. ​Oxygen, IV fluids B. ​Oxygen, IV​ fluids, morphine C. Expedite transport in position of comfort D. IV​ fluids, morphine

C. Expedite transport in position of comfort

Which of these procedures does NOT require a constricting​ band? A. Basilic vein IV insertion B. Cephalic vein IV insertion C. External jugular IV insertion D. Peripheral IV insertion

C. External jugular IV insertion

Your patient is an​ 18-year-old female college student who is supine in bed and responsive only to painful stimuli. Her roommate states that they went to a party last night. She says the patient only drank​ soda, but now she thinks a guy who had been following them around might have put something in the​ patient's drink. Physical examination reveals​ cool, dry skin and pupils sluggish to light bilaterally. HR​ = 72, BP​ = 112/64, RR​ = 10, SaO2 ​= 98%. Which of the following drugs was most likely slipped into her​ drink? A. Amphetamines B. Opium C. Flunitrazepam D. LSD

C. Flunitrazepam

You respond to an ill type 2 diabetic patient. Upon your​ arrival, the patient complains of not feeling well for a few​ days, and increasing blood glucose levels. You​ suspect: A. DKA. B. TPA. C. HHNK. D. TNK.

C. HHNK.

Which of the following is a​ narcotic? A. Cocaine B. Crack C. Heroin D. Mescaline

C. Heroin

Which of the following is the most direct cause of polyuria in untreated​ diabetes? A. Too little insulin B. Too much insulin C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypoglycemia

C. Hyperglycemia

You are transporting a male patient to the hospital for an evaluation after a possible seizure when you notice the​ patient's loss of consciousness. His muscles start to contract so that he is arching his back. This best describes the​ ________ phase of a generalized seizure. A. Tonic B. Clonic C. Hypertonic D. Postictal

C. Hypertonic

Which of the following most accurately represents the pathophysiological sequence of untreated type I​ diabetes? A. Glucose is not absorbed through the gastrointestinal​ tract, resulting in hyposecretion of insulin and hypoglycemia. Lack of glucose results in anaerobic metabolism and acidosis. B. Oversecretion of insulin results in​ hypoglycemia; cells convert to the use of fats for energy resulting in the production of ketone bodies. C. Hyposecretion of insulin results in inability of glucose to enter​ cells; blood glucose levels​ rise, and cells convert to the use of fats for​ energy, resulting in the production of ketone bodies. D. Hyposecretion of insulin prevents glucose from being broken down in the gastrointestinal​ tract; too much glucose is absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract resulting in hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis.

C. Hyposecretion of insulin results in inability of glucose to enter​ cells; blood glucose levels​ rise, and cells convert to the use of fats for​ energy, resulting in the production of ketone bodies.

Which of the following assessment findings should you most expect in a patient with chronic​ pancreatitis? A. ​Dark-colored urine B. Right lower quadrant pain C. Hypotension D. ​Clay-colored stool

C. Hypotension

Which class of​ anti-dysrhythmics characteristically blocks sodium influx during fast potential​ depolarization? A. II B. III C. I D. IV

C. I

In which class of the​ Vaughn-Williams classification system of​ anti-dysrhythmic medications does quinidine​ belong? A. IC B. II C. IA D. IB

C. IA

Your patient is a conscious and alert​ 22-year-old female who was stung by a hornet. She states that she has​ "allergies to bee​ stings" and has been told that she could die if stung. Your physical examination reveals a​ 1-cm-diameter, red, edematous area where she was stung on the left forearm. Her skin is warm and​ dry, and her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. HR​ = 112 and​ regular, BP​ = 122/82, RR​ = 12 and​ regular, SaO2​ = 98%. The most appropriate treatment for this patient would​ include: A. 100 percent oxygen via nonrebreather mask 15​ lpm, IV of NS​ 1-2 L, epinephrine​ 1:1000 0.3 mg​ SC, diphenhydramine 25 mg IV B. 15 lpm oxygen by​ nonrebreather, epinephrine​ 1:1000 0.3 mg​ SC, diphenhydramine 25 mg​ IV, transport C. IV of NS KVO D. Transport only

C. IV of NS KVO

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be detrimental when treating a stroke​ patient? A. Hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen B. IV of 5 percent dextrose in water C. IV of lactated​ Ringer's solution D. Administration of 50 percent​ dextrose, IV push

C. IV of lactated​ Ringer's solution

All of the following are roles of a poison control center​ EXCEPT: A. Notifying the receiving hospital and recommending treatment B. Providing information on the most current definitive treatment C. Identifying the toxin or poison D. Determining the potential toxicity of the agent

C. Identifying the toxin or poison

The most common cause of lower back pain​ is: A. Sciatica B. Osteomyelitis C. Idiopathic D. Arthritis

C. Idiopathic

Which of the following best explains the cause of the histamine and heparin release in response to exposure to an​ antigen? A. IgG and IgM antibodies have activated basophils and mast​ cells, resulting in degranulation. B. Humoral cells have initiated a chemical attack on the antigens. C. IgE antibodies have attached themselves to the membranes of basophils and mast​ cells, resulting in degranulation. D. IgE antibodies have activated the membranes of B and T​ cells, resulting in release of histamine and heparin

C. IgE antibodies have attached themselves to the membranes of basophils and mast​ cells, resulting in degranulation.

You are caring for a patient with ​Guillain-Barré syndrome. The most likely cause of hypoxia in this patient would​ be: A. Impaired perfusion B. Increased thickness of the respiratory membrane C. Impaired ventilation D. Inadequate lung volume

C. Impaired ventilation

Which of the following is NOT a possible source of cyanide​ poisoning? A. ​Long-term sodium nitroprusside therapy B. Fume inhalation from burning​ plastic, synthetic​ carpeting, or silk C. Improperly vented heating systems D. Ingestion of​ apricot, pear, and cherry pits

C. Improperly vented heating systems

A type I diabetic presents with​ deep, rapid respirations and a fruity odor on her breath. Which of the following would best help correct the underlying physiologic​ disturbance? A. Oxygen B. Glucagon C. Insulin D. Dextrose

C. Insulin

Which of the following is a parenteral route of drug​ administration? A. Gastric tube B. Oral C. Intramuscular D. Rectal

C. Intramuscular

Your patient is an​ 83-year-old male with a fever of 103°F. In​ addition, the patient is confused and combative. Heart rate​ = 132, respirations​ = 20, blood pressure​ = 100/70, Sp O2 ​95% on room​ air, and blood glucose level​ = 90​ mg/dL. During your examination you note that the patient has a Foley catheter and that the collection bag appears not to have been emptied for quite some time. The bag is full of​ dark, cloudy urine with sediment at the bottom of the bag. Which of the following is most​ appropriate? A. Furosemide B. Acetaminophen suppository C. Intravenous fluid therapy with normal saline D. BLS transport without intervention

C. Intravenous fluid therapy with normal saline

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of activated​ charcoal? A. It can help patients with unprotected airways and decreased levels of consciousness. B. It neutralizes both acidic and alkaline substances in the stomach. C. It adsorbs toxins in the stomach. D. It prevents substances from ionizing in the small intestine.

C. It adsorbs toxins in the stomach.

Which of the following medications would most likely be considered for emergent treatment in the prehospital management of hypertensive​ crisis? A. Enalaprilat​ (Vasotec IV) B. Nifedipine​ (Procardia) C. Labetalol​ (Normodyne) D. Nitroglycerin paste​ (Nitro-Bid)

C. Labetalol​ (Normodyne)

Your patient is a​ 31-year-old female complaining of dizziness and difficulty breathing after being stung by a bee. You note that she is extremely​ anxious, and your physical examination reveals a rapidly developing urticaria to her​ shoulders, neck, and face. Your partner has administered oxygen via a​ nonrebreather, initiated IV​ access, placed the patient on the cardiac​ monitor, and administered epinephrine SC and diphenhydramine IV. Despite​ this, you also note that her voice is quickly becoming more hoarse and she has developed expiratory wheezes in all lung fields. HR​ = 128, BP​ = 100/70, RR​ = 20, SaO2​ = 99%. What should be your major concern at this​ point, and what is the most appropriate​ treatment? A. Hypotension leading to cardiovascular​ collapse; administer fluids wide open and initiate a dopamine infusion B. Increased bronchospasm leading to respiratory​ arrest; administer albuterol via nebulizer C. Laryngeal edema leading to total airway​ occlusion; intubate D. Increased bronchospasm leading to respiratory​ arrest; administer epinephrine IV

C. Laryngeal edema leading to total airway​ occlusion; intubate

Which of the following medication combinations is beneficial for a lithium​ overdose? A. Flumazenil and naloxone B. Haloperidol and furosemide C. Mannitol and sodium bicarbonate D. Narcan and sodium bicarbonate

C. Mannitol and sodium bicarbonate

What is defined as the removal or destruction of​ disease-causing organisms or infected material by using hygienic​ measures, cleaning​ agents, antiseptics​ and/or disinfectants? A. Standard Precautions B. Cauterization C. Medical asepsis D. Sterilization

C. Medical asepsis

All of the following are assessed during the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Screen​ EXCEPT: A. Facial droop B. Arm drift C. Memory D. Speech

C. Memory

A​ 32-year-old female is conscious and alert at a group home for recovering alcoholics and​ states, "I'm having rum​ fits." Counselors from the home tell you that she is a chronic alcoholic who entered their program three days ago and has not had a drink since. Physical examination reveals​ cool, diaphoretic​ skin; dilated pupils bilaterally that are responsive to​ light; and obvious anxiety. HR​ = 122, BP​ = 156/104, RR​ = 20, SaO2 ​= 99%, blood glucose​ = 62​ mg/dL. Based on the clinical exam​ findings, all of the following should be part of your patient management​ EXCEPT: A. 25 g of D50 IV B. IV of NS C. Metoprolol IV D. Thiamine 100 mg IM

C. Metoprolol IV

A​ 32-year-old female is conscious and alert at a group home for recovering alcoholics and​ states, "I'm having rum​ fits." Counselors from the home tell you that she is a chronic alcoholic who entered their program three days ago and has not had a drink since. Physical examination reveals​ cool, diaphoretic​ skin; dilated pupils bilaterally that are responsive to​ light; and obvious anxiety. HR​ = 122, BP​ = 156/104, RR​ = 20, SaO2 ​= 99%, blood glucose​ = 62​ mg/dL. Based on the clinical exam​ findings, all of the following should be part of your patient management​ EXCEPT: A. 25 g of D50 IV B. Thiamine 100 mg IM C. Metoprolol IV D. IV of NS

C. Metoprolol IV

Where in the body are the parasympathetic ganglia​ located? A. Near the brainstem B. Near the spinal cord C. Near the target organ D. Near the sacrum

C. Near the target organ

You are caring for a​ 48-year-old patient with acute onset pulmonary edema secondary to an acute myocardial infarction. He has rales​ (crackles) in both lung fields and wheezes in the bronchial regions. His blood pressure is​ 160/90 mmHg, his pulse is​ 112, and his ventilations are 32. Which of the following medications is indicated​ FIRST, and​ why? A. Nitroglycerin​ (Nitrostat) to vasodilate the coronary vessels to maximize myocardial oxygen supply. B. Furosemide​ (Lasix) to achieve a diuresis and remove a portion of fluids from the intravascular space. C. Nitroglycerin​ (Nitrostat) to reduce preload and afterload to redistribute fluids to the periphery. D. Morphine sulfate to decrease anxiety and reduce afterload.

C. Nitroglycerin​ (Nitrostat) to reduce preload and afterload to redistribute fluids to the periphery.

Which of the following is a crystalloid​ solution? A. Plasmanate B. Hespan C. Normal saline D. Dextran

C. Normal saline

Your patient is a​ 52-year-old female who is alert but slightly confused after a syncopal episode lasting about 1 minute. She has no​ complaints, and your physical exam reveals no abnormalities aside from slight confusion. She has had a stroke and has a history of type II diabetes and hypertension. HR​ = 100, BP​ = 132/84, RR​ = 12, SaO2 ​=99%. Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause of the​ patient's episode? A. Hypoglycemia B. Transient cerebral ischemia C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Transient cardiac dysrhythmia

C. Orthostatic hypotension

An example of diffusion in the respiratory system is movement​ of: A. Carbon dioxide from the alveoli into the pulmonary capillaries B. Oxygen from the tissues into the systemic capillaries C. Oxygen from the alveoli into the pulmonary capillaries D. Air from the outside environment into the lungs

C. Oxygen from the alveoli into the pulmonary capillaries

Your patient is a​ 30-year-old male complaining of pain radiating from the left flank into the groin. He states that it began as a vague pain in his​ flank, then became very sharp and radiating. Based on his description of his​ pain, you would also expect him to complain​ of: A. Purulent urethral discharge B. Inability to urinate C. Painful urination D. Fever

C. Painful urination

A seizure that remains confined to a limited portion of the​ brain, causing localized​ dysfunction, is​ a(n) ________ seizure. A. Absence B. Tonic C. Partial D. Petit mal

C. Partial

Normal exhalation involves all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Relaxation of the diaphragm B. Elastic recoil of lung tissue C. Phrenic nerve stimulation D. Decreased intrathoracic volume

C. Phrenic nerve stimulation

Your patient is an alcoholic who stopped drinking three days ago. Which of the following should concern you the most in the care of this​ patient? A. Hypothermia B. Abdominal cramps C. Potential for seizures D. Command hallucinations

C. Potential for seizures

Your patient is a​ 20-year-old male who is​ conscious, alert, and in severe distress. He describes a​ three-day history of diffuse abdominal pain near his umbilicus that became sharp and migrated to his lower right quadrant this morning. He states that the pain became acutely worse half an hour ago and that he is now lightheaded and nauseated and has vomited numerous times. You believe he may be suffering from appendicitis. Based on his clinical​ presentation, the most proper​ treatment, in addition to giving​ oxygen, would​ be: A. Provide​ comfort, expedited transport B. IV of normal saline wide​ open, Trendelenburg​ position, rapid transport C. Provide​ comfort, manage the​ airway, establish IV​ access, expedited transport D. IV of normal saline wide​ open, left lateral recumbent​ position, phenergan​ IV, transport

C. Provide​ comfort, manage the​ airway, establish IV​ access, expedited transport

Your patient is a​ 55-year-old male cab driver who was found unresponsive in the​ driver's seat of his​ vehicle, which has been parked in front of a hotel for about 45 minutes. The patient is unresponsive to painful​ stimulus; has snoring respirations at 12 per​ minute; is​ cool, pale, and​ diaphoretic; and has a heart rate of 58 and a blood pressure of​ 170/104. Which of the following does NOT help when determining the underlying cause of the​ patient's condition? A. Scene survey B. Checking the pupils C. Pulse oximetry D. Blood glucose level determination

C. Pulse oximetry

Which of the following is associated with a greater predisposition for hypoglycemia due to decreased​ gluconeogenesis? A. Pancreatitis B. Cholecystitis C. Renal failure D. Cardiac failure

C. Renal failure

Immediately after​ birth, an infant is allowed to suckle at the​ mother's breast. Palpation of the uterus suggests that the uterus is contracting. This finding can be attributed​ to: A. Inhibition of estrogen and progesterone B. Inhibition of oxytocin C. Secretion of oxytocin D. Secretion of estrogen and progesterone

C. Secretion of oxytocin

The initial exposure of an individual to an antigen is referred to as​ what? A. Allergy B. Active immunity C. Sensitization D. Hypersensitivity

C. Sensitization

A patient tells you that she experienced an episode of involuntary​ "shaking" in her arm. She describes a​ 1- to​ 2-minute-long episode of muscular jerking and contracting of her entire left arm. She retained​ consciousness, lacked an​ aura, and had no pain associated with the episode. This most indicates​ a(n) ________ seizure. A. Psychosomatic B. Absence C. Simple partial D. Petit mal

C. Simple partial

Pain that is well​ localized, allowing an examiner to pinpoint the area of irritation is​ ________ pain. A. Referred B. Visceral C. Somatic D. Parietal

C. Somatic

What neurological problem results in a birth defect in which the fetal vertebrae do not close​ properly, often resulting in spinal cord​ dysfunction? A. ​Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. ​Guillain-Barré syndrome C. Spina bifida D. Multiple sclerosis

C. Spina bifida

A​ 24-year-old male is supine on the floor and unconscious with snoring respirations. You note a​ weak, rapid pulse and​ cool, diaphoretic skin. HR​ = 124 and​ regular, BP​ = 136/88, RR​ = 12 and regular. Blood glucose is 24​ mg/dL. After manually opening the airway and providing​ oxygen, which of the following should be performed​ next? A. Intubate the​ trachea, start an​ IV, and administer 25 gm dextrose. B. Administer​ glucagon, 1 mg IM. C. Start an IV and administer 25 gm​ dextrose, IV. D. Start an IV and administer 0.3 mg​ glucagon, IV.

C. Start an IV and administer 25 gm​ dextrose, IV.

Using a pharmaceutical agent for something other than its intended use is​ called: A. Overdose B. Addiction C. Substance abuse D. Habituation

C. Substance abuse

Your patient is a​ 60-year-old male complaining of​ chills, fever, joint​ pain, and vomiting. He states he was bitten by a spider yesterday​ morning, and now he thinks the bite might be infected. The patient has an ulcerated wound on his left leg. The best treatment for this patient would​ include: A. Magnesium​ sulfate, 2 g B. Diazepam 2.5 mg C. Supportive management D. Calcium gluconate 0.1​ mg/kg

C. Supportive management

A patient with speech impairment following a stroke would have involvement in the​ ________ lobe of the brain. A. Occipital B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Frontal

C. Temporal

Which of the following is the desired physiologic reaction that occurs after the administration of a vaccine that contains​ live, attenuated​ viruses? A. The antibodies in the vaccine multiply in the body. B. The viruses in the vaccine act as an​ antigen, resulting in a nonspecific immune response. C. The immune system will create specific antibodies to the viruses in the vaccine. D. The immune system will create specific antigens to the viruses in the vaccine.

C. The immune system will create specific antibodies to the viruses in the vaccine.

An emergency department physician tells you that the hyperglycemic diabetic you brought in earlier has a pH of 7.40. What is the likeliest explanation of this​ statement? A. The patient is a type I diabetic who took his insulin and did not​ eat, resulting in the breakdown of proteins for energy. B. The patient is a type II diabetic who was no longer secreting enough insulin to prevent the use of fats for energy. C. The patient is a type II diabetic who was secreting enough insulin to prevent the use of fats for energy. D. The patient is a type I diabetic who did not take his insulin and is therefore unable to use glucose for energy.

C. The patient is a type II diabetic who was secreting enough insulin to prevent the use of fats for energy.

A male patient presents with a puncture wound to his heel from stepping on a nail. He informs you that he is visiting from El Salvador and has never received a tetanus vaccination. At the emergency room he is administered tetanus immune​ globulin, as well as a tetanus vaccination. Which of the following best describes the rationale for this​ treatment? A. The tetanus immune globulin provides IgE antibodies for immediate​ protection, while the tetanus vaccination provides natural immunity by producing​ tetanus-specific antibodies. B. The tetanus immune globulin provides IgG and IgM antibodies for immediate​ protection, while the tetanus vaccination provides passive immunity by producing​ tetanus-specific antibodies. C. The tetanus immune globulin provides passive​ immunity, while the tetanus vaccination provides active immunity. D. The tetanus immune globulin provides immediate​ protection, while the tetanus vaccination provides passive immunity by producing​ tetanus-specific antibodies.

C. The tetanus immune globulin provides passive​ immunity, while the tetanus vaccination provides active immunity.

Which of the following provides evidence that a patient is using accessory muscles to​ breathe? A. The patient is using his diaphragm with inspiration. B. The patient is sitting​ up, leaning forward to breathe. C. There is noticeable contraction of the intercostal muscles. D. The​ patient's lips are pursed.

C. There is noticeable contraction of the intercostal muscles.

You have applied a​ CO-oximeter to your​ patient, and it is displaying an SpCO of 15 percent. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation of this​ finding? A. This is consistent with a fatal level of carbon monoxide poisoning. B. This is a normal reading for a smoker and nothing to worry about. C. This is consistent with mild carbon monoxide poisoning. D. This is a normal reading for a nonsmoker and nothing to worry about.

C. This is consistent with mild carbon monoxide poisoning.

The need to progressively increase the dose of a drug to reproduce the effect originally achieved at smaller doses​ is: A. Substance abuse B. Habituation C. Tolerance D. Addiction

C. Tolerance

You are seeing a​ 69-year-old female patient complaining of fatigue and nausea. She has a history of heart failure and two previous myocardial infarctions. She reports having blurred vision with halos around objects. Her blood pressure is​ 144/88 mmHg, her pulse is 110 and​ irregular, and her ventilations are 16. What should you suspect is causing her​ symptoms? A. Cerebral embolus secondary to atrial fibrillation B. Impaired cerebral perfusion secondary to heart failure C. Toxic blood levels of digoxin D. Acute​ closed-angle glaucoma

C. Toxic blood levels of digoxin

Which of the following would interfere with urine​ production? A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy B. Renal calculi C. Toxic damage to the nephrons D. Tumor in the renal pelvis

C. Toxic damage to the nephrons

Your patient is a​ 16-year-old female who has taken an overdose of phenobarbital. She is unresponsive. Her skin is cool and​ pale, BP​ = 92/60, HR​ = 60, RR​ = 6. You have intubated the patient and started an IV. Which of the following is​ appropriate? A. Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq B. 50 gm activated charcoal through an NG tube en route to the hospital C. Transport without additional pharmacological intervention D. Naloxone​ 2mg, 25 gm​ dextrose, transport

C. Transport without additional pharmacological intervention

Your female patient is experiencing​ sharp, stabbing,​ right-sided face pain of her upper and lower​ lips, cheek, and around her orbit. This best​ describes: A. A cluster headache B. ​Bell's palsy C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint syndrome

C. Trigeminal neuralgia

Your patient is a​ 68-year-old female who is being treated for colon cancer. She is conscious and​ alert, in mild​ distress, and complaining of progressive weakness over the past three days. Palpation of her abdomen reveals tenderness to the lower right quadrant. Her skin is​ pale, cool, and​ dry, and you note the smell and appearance of melena in her stool. HR​ = 108, BP​ = 100/60, RR​ = 12, SaO2 ​= 97%. Proper treatment of this patient might​ include: A. Two​ large-bore IVs of lactated​ Ringer's solution, wide open B. IV of normal saline with a 250 mL fluid​ challenge, repeated if necessary C. Two​ large-bore IVs of normal​ saline, 20​ mL/kg fluid bolus to begin treating hemorrhagic hypovelmia D. IV of 5 percent dextrose solution at 30 mL per hour

C. Two​ large-bore IVs of normal​ saline, 20​ mL/kg fluid bolus to begin treating hemorrhagic hypovelmia

Administration of medication into the dorsal gluteal muscle must be injected into which quadrant of the​ muscle? A. Lower inner B. Lower outer C. Upper outer D. Upper inner

C. Upper outer

Which of the following is appropriate for a subcutaneous injection of​ medication? A. Insertion of the needle at a​ 90-degree angle B. Up to 2 mL of medication C. Volume of 1 mL or less D. 18​ gauge, 3/4′′ needle

C. Volume of 1 mL or less

You have intubated a​ 66-year-old female who was experiencing an acute exacerbation of her emphysema. What special consideration does this​ patient, with her specific​ pathology, require? A. Oxygen flow should be limited to 4 lpm because of the hypoxic drive common in COPD patients. B. She requires hyperventilation to blow off excess CO2. C. While​ ventilating, you must allow for a prolonged expiratory phase. D. She requires​ frequent, deep suctioning.

C. While​ ventilating, you must allow for a prolonged expiratory phase.

You respond to a call of a patient experiencing back pain. Upon your​ arrival, the patient is curled into the fetal position and feels warm to the touch. You​ suspect: A. acute renal calculi. B. acute renal failure. C. acute polynephritis. D. acute urinary tract infection.

C. acute polynephritis.

The​ FDA's pregnancy safety designation of Category A for a drug​ means: A. fetal risk has been​ demonstrated, which outweighs any possible benefit to the​ mother; avoid using in pregnant or potentially pregnant patients. B. animal studies have demonstrated adverse​ effects, but there are no adequate studies in pregnant​ women; benefits may be acceptable despite the potential risks. C. adequate studies in pregnant women have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus in the first trimester or later trimesters. D. no adequate animal studies or adequate studies of pregnant women have been done.

C. adequate studies in pregnant women have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus in the first trimester or later trimesters.

Treatment of poisoning emergencies may generally consist of any of the following​ methods, EXCEPT: A. hemodialysis. B. alkalinizing the urine with sodium bicarbonate. C. administering acid solutions to neutralize alkalis in the stomach. D. emptying the stomach.

C. administering acid solutions to neutralize alkalis in the stomach.

The acronym AVPU is used to quickly assess a​ patient's: A. mood. B. thought. C. alertness. D. judgment.

C. alertness.

In response to an increase in blood​ sugar, the pancreas will relase insulin​ to: A. allow glucose to be wasted in the urine. B. allow glucose to cross the blood-brain barrier. C. allow the glucose to permeate the cell membrane. D. produce more glucose.

C. allow the glucose to permeate the cell membrane.

You respond to a report of a patient with shortness of breath. Upon​ arrival, you find a patient who has been stung by a bee. The patient is displaying urticaria and wheezing. You​ suspect: A. ARDS. B. meningitis. C. anaphylaxis. D. asthma.

C. anaphylaxis

The most important determinant of ventilatory rate​ is: A. arterial PO. B. SpPO C. arterial PCO2. D. arterial NaHCO3.

C. arterial PCO2.

Hypoparathyroidism leads to​ decreased: A. growth hormone levels. B. metabolic rate. C. calcium levels. D. thyroxine ​(T4​) levels.

C. calcium levels.

You respond to an ill patient experiencing​ flu-like symptoms. Upon your​ arrival, the patient states that she woke up not feeling well. The patient states that she has been heating her home with wood due to the electric bill being too high. You should​ suspect: A. hypercarbia. B. hypothermia. C. carbon monoxide poisoning. D. carbon dioxide poisoning.

C. carbon monoxide poisoning.

You respond to an ill male patient. Upon​ arrival, you note a farmer who is complaining of not feeling well. The patient presents in a tripod position with copious​ secretions, lacrimation,​ vomiting, and evidence of urination and defecation. You​ suspect: A. anticholinergic exposure. B. extrapyramidal syndrome. C. cholinergic exposure. D. sympathomimetic exposure.

C. cholinergic exposure.

Your​ patient, a known​ alcoholic, has developed a cardiac arrhythmia that you intend to treat with synchronized cardioversion. Because he is​ awake, you decide to administer diazepam to ease this experience.​ However, you find that to induce the desired state you must administer more than twice the normal dose of diazepam. This condition is known​ as: A. cumulative effect. B. idiosyncrasy. C. cross tolerance. D. tachyphylaxis.

C. cross tolerance.

Loop diuretics achieve their therapeutic effects​ by: A. enhancing reabsorption throughout the loop of Henle. B. increasing the reabsorption of sodium at the ascending loop of Henle. C. decreasing the reabsorption of sodium at the ascending loop of Henle. D. decreasing the absorption of sodium at the glomerulus.

C. decreasing the reabsorption of sodium at the ascending loop of Henle.

Dopamine is not administered directly to the patient during the treatment of​ Parkinson's disease​ because: A. the​ half-life of dopamine is too short to enable pharmacologic effects in the brain. B. the type of dopamine necessary in the brain is different from the type administered intravenously. C. dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. D. dopamine is not a therapeutic​ consideration; only acetylcholine replacement therapy is.

C. dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.

Teratogenic refers to​ the: A. likelihood of multiple births as a drug side effect. B. decreased ability of the elderly to metabolize drugs. C. effects of a drug on the developing fetus. D. potential of a drug to cause cancer.

C. effects of a drug on the developing fetus.

Benzodiazepines and barbiturates achieve their sedation effects by​ ________ in the CNS. A. blocking the dopaminergic receptor sites B. blocking the GABA receptor sites C. enhancing the GABA receptor sites D. depolarizing the neural membranes

C. enhancing the GABA receptor sites

You are caring for a​ middle-aged male patient who has a long history of psychiatric disorders. During your​ assessment, you note excessive tremors and uncontrollable spasms in his​ head, neck, and arms. These are most​ likely: A. partial​ (or psychomotor) seizures. B. drug interactions produced by antihypertensive medications and diuretics. C. extrapyramidal side effects of his antipsychotic medication. D. manifestations of his psychotic illness.

C. extrapyramidal side effects of his antipsychotic medication.

In addition to determining potential toxicity based on the type of​ agent, poison control centers are able​ to: A. give the paramedic documentation advice. B. determine whether transport is needed. C. guide the paramedic in starting definitive treatment in the field. D. refer the patient to a specialist.

C. guide the paramedic in starting definitive treatment in the field.

You respond to a patient who is complaining of a sudden onset of a severe headache. The patient has a history of hypertension. You should​ suspect: A. migraine. B. hypertensive urgency. C. hemorrhagic stroke. D. occlusive stroke.

C. hemorrhagic stroke.

According to the classifications of the Controlled Substance Act of​ 1970, an example of a Schedule I drug would​ be: A. diazepam. B. atropine sulfate. C. heroin. D. morphine sulfate.

C. heroin

You are called to the home of a patient who suddenly​ "stopped breathing." The patient has a history of a neoplasm at C3 and C4 You​ suspect: A. myocardial infarction. B. cervical fractures. C. impingement on the phrenic nerve. D. lung cancer.

C. impingement on the phrenic nerve.

All of the following statements about nonsteroidal​ anti-inflammatory drugs​ (NSAIDs) are true EXCEPT that​ NSAIDs: A. are used as analgesics and antipyretics. B. interfere with the production of​ prostaglandins, thereby interrupting the inflammatory process. C. include​ aspirin, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen. D. are prescribed to relieve pain following trauma and surgery.

C. include​ aspirin, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen.

A tonic-clonic seizure is characterized​ by: A. flaccidity. B. a period of apnea. C. increased muscle tone and rhythmic jerking. D. movement of one area of the body.

C. increased muscle tone and rhythmic jerking.

Aspirin is beneficial to patients with a history of cardiac disease because​ it: A. inhibits the clotting cascade. B. causes thrombolysis. C. inhibits platelet aggregation. D. oprovides analgesia.

C. inhibits platelet aggregation.

Digoxin is a paradoxical​ drug, which​ means: A. its many effects on the lungs make it an effective bronchodilator. B. its many effects on the lungs make it an ineffective bronchodilator. C. its many effects on the heart make it both an effective antiarrhythmic and a potent​ pro-dysrhythmic. D. its many effects on the heart make it both an ineffective antiarrhythmic and an​ anti-dysrhythmic.

C. its many effects on the heart make it both an effective antiarrhythmic and a potent​ pro-dysrhythmic.

Propranolol​ (Inderal) causes a​ ________ effect. A. positive dromotropic B. positive inotropic C. negative chronotropic D. positive chronotropic

C. negative chronotropic

Multiple transmitters are involved in the vomiting​ reflex, including all of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. dopamine. B. serotonin. C. norepinephrine. D. acetylcholine.

C. norepinephrine.

The time from when a drug is administered until it reaches the minimum effective concentration is known as​ the: A. duration of action. B. peak action. C. onset of action. D. therapeutic interval.

C. onset of action.

The cause of esophageal varices can be attributed​ to: A. pulmonary hypertension. B. pulmonary hypotension. C. portal hypertension. D. portal hypotension.

C. portal hypertension.

The three steps of decontamination​ are: A. elimination in​ urine, water, oxygen. B. reduce​ absorption, reduce​ metabolism, increase absorption by the kidney. C. reduce intake of the​ toxin, reduce​ absorption, enhance elimination. D. ​water, elimination in​ urine, atropine.

C. reduce intake of the​ toxin, reduce​ absorption, enhance elimination.

Abdominal pain that is originating in a region other than where it is felt is known​ as: A. ​Kehr's sign. B. visceral pain. C. referred pain. D. somatic pain.

C. referred pain.

Your first priority in the treatment of an inhaled toxin is​ to: A. decontaminate the patient. B. deluge with water. C. remove the patient from the source. D. flood with oxygen.

C. remove the patient from the source.

Which of the following medications promotes the conversion of plasminogen to​ plasmin? A. Heparin B. Coumadin C. rtPA D. Vitamin K

C. rtPA

You are caring for a patient with chronic bronchitis. The patient has an SpO2 of​ 90%. You​ should: A. start oxygen​ therapy, high flow 15 lpm via NRB. B. start oxygen therapy high​ flow, via CPAP. C. start oxygen therapy low​ flow, via nasal cannula. D. ​nothing, as this is an expected reading.

C. start oxygen therapy low​ flow, via nasal cannula.

You are called to care for a patient with severe shortness of breath. The patient has an SpO2 of​ 88%, audible​ wheezing, and a capnography reading of 54 with a shark fin wave form. You are administering albuterol for the second time without relief. You​ suspect: A. anaphylaxis. B. septic shock. C. status asthmaticus. D. status epilepticus.

C. status asthmaticus.

Benzodiazepines are safer than barbiturates in seizure patients​ because: A. benzodiazepines cannot cause hypotension or respiratory depression. B. benzodiazepines cause a counteraction by inducing high levels of dopamine in the CNS. C. the effect of benzodiazepines is limited by the amount of endogenous GABA in the CNS. D. the therapeutic dose of barbiturates is very close to the lethal dose.

C. the effect of benzodiazepines is limited by the amount of endogenous GABA in the CNS.

The main purpose of the GI tract​ is: A. glucogenolysis. B. to expel waste products. C. to convert food into nutrients for the body. D. to facilitate metabolism.

C. to convert food into nutrients for the body.

Obstructive sleep apnea is an example​ of: A. COPD. B. lower airway obstruction. C. upper airway obstruction. D. CHF.

C. upper airway obstruction.

Your patient is a​ 40-year-old male who ingested 30 tablets of Lexapro and 24 tablets of Tylenol PM. Which of the following is the most important question you should​ ask? A. ​"Do you have a history of​ depression?" B. ​"Why did you take these​ medications?" C. ​"How long ago did you take these​ medications?" D. ​"Have you ever done this​ before?"

C. ​"How long ago did you take these​ medications?"

When dealing with a possible renal​ emergency, it is imperative to​ ask: A. ​"Do you think you can​ walk?" B. ​"When was the last time you saw your​ nephrologist?" C. ​"How many times have you urinated​ today?" D. ​"How much do you​ weigh?"

C. ​"How many times have you urinated​ today?"

Which of the following statements would make you suspicious that your patient has been exposed to​ cyanide? A. ​"I think my car has an exhaust​ leak." B. ​"I inhaled some fumes when I was fueling my​ truck." C. ​"I have been burning carpets and old furniture all​ day. D. ​"I think I smoked some bad​ weed."

C. ​"I have been burning carpets and old furniture all​ day.

Your patient is a​ 19-year-old female who called EMS because she awoke with​ "itchy red​ patches" on her​ chest, back, and arms that​ "seem to come and​ go." As you obtain the​ history, you learn that she started taking​ Keflex, an​ antibiotic, two days ago to prevent infection in a laceration to her hand. In explaining to your patient what is going​ on, which of the following statements would be the most​ accurate? A. ​"I cannot say what this​ is, but it is not an allergic reaction. Hives do not come and go as you have​ described." B. ​"This is a typical side effect of Keflex. It happens in most patients who take​ it." C. ​"These look like hives. They occur during an allergic reaction. You may have developed an allergy to the antibiotic you are​ taking." D. ​"It looks like the infection in your hand has spread to the bloodstream. The toxins from the bacteria are causing a​ rash."

C. ​"These look like hives. They occur during an allergic reaction. You may have developed an allergy to the antibiotic you are​ taking."

When using CPAP in patients with​ COPD, in​ general, PEEP should​ be: A. ​> 10 cm H2O B. ​> 10 mm Hg C. ​< 10 cm H2O D. ​< 10 mm Hg

C. ​< 10 cm H2O

The most common cause of dementia in the elderly​ is: A. Cerebrovascular disease B. ​Multi-infarct dementia C. ​Alzheimer's disease D. ​Parkinson's disease

C. ​Alzheimer's disease

Which of the following is caused by unilateral paralysis of cranial nerve​ VII? A. Autonomic dysreflexia B. Myoclonus C. ​Bell's palsy D. Dystonia

C. ​Bell's palsy

In the treatment of acute​ glaucoma, which classifications of drugs are most​ useful? A. Anticholinergics and beta blockers B. Beta agonists and anticholinergics C. ​Beta-blockers and cholinergics D. Alpha agonists and anticholinergics

C. ​Beta-blockers and cholinergics

Which of the following pathologies would necessitate the use of increased care in the preparation of an IV site because of skin fragility and increased risk of​ infection? A. ​Graves' disease B. ​Addison's disease C. ​Cushing's syndrome D. Myxedema

C. ​Cushing's syndrome

Your patient is a​ 39-year-old male with a history of alcoholism. He is​ unresponsive, with​ cool, clammy skin and a​ weak, rapid pulse of 108. BP​ = 128/92, RR​ = 12 and regular. Your partner manages the airway and assists​ ventilations, but you are unable to start an IV after three attempts. Which of the following is most appropriate at this​ point? A. Glucagon 1.0 mg IM B. ​Dextrose, 25​ g, and​ thiamine, 100​ mg, both IM C. ​Glucagon, 1.0​ mg, and​ thiamine, 100​ mg, both IM D. Reattempt the IV while en route

C. ​Glucagon, 1.0​ mg, and​ thiamine, 100​ mg, both IM

Secretion of glucagon from the pancreas results in​ ________, which causes​ a(n) ________ in blood glucose levels. A. ​Glucogenesis, increase B. ​Glycogenolysis, decrease C. ​Glycogenolysis, increase D. ​Glucogenesis, decrease

C. ​Glycogenolysis, increase

Your patient is a​ 48-year-old female who is supine on the floor of a neighborhood health clinic. She became unconscious after receiving 250 mg of IM doxycycline. Clinic staff reports that the patient​ "broke out in hives and lost​ consciousness." The patient is being ventilated by​ bag-valve mask and has an IV of normal saline running wide open. A nurse practitioner on the scene informs you​ that, before your​ arrival, he administered 2 doses of 0.5 mg of epinephrine​ SC, 50 mg of diphenhydramine​ IV, and 1 L of NS. HR​ = 138; BP​ = 84/60; RR​ = 12/min, assisted with​ BVM; SaO2​ = 94%. Of the​ following, which is the most appropriate continued treatment of this​ patient? A. ​Intubate, Solu-Medrol​ IV, 250 cc NS fluid​ challenge, transport B. Continue administering fluids and transport to the nearest facility C. ​Intubate, administration of dopamine IV​ infusion, rapid transport D. Initiate a second IV of NS wide​ open, intubate and​ hyperventilate, transport

C. ​Intubate, administration of dopamine IV​ infusion, rapid transport

You encounter a patient complaining of​ polyuria, polyphagia,​ polydipsia, and abdominal pain. Based on these​ complaints, which of the following would you also expect to​ find? A. Blood glucose between 80 and 120​ mg/dL B. Blood glucose of less than 70​ mg/dL C. ​Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity breath odor D. Complaint of chest pain and shortness of breath

C. ​Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity breath odor

Upon palpation of your​ patient's abdomen you note that it is very tender under the right costal margin. This should be documented as a positive​ ________ sign. A. ​Cullen's B. ​McBurney's C. ​Murphy's D. ​Grey-Turner's

C. ​Murphy's

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old male complaining of a headache for the past two days. He states he has taken aspirin but cannot get rid of the headache. The patient lives in a basement​ apartment, which you observe is very chilly. The patient states his furnace​ hasn't been working and he had to use the oven to help heat the apartment. Which other findings and complaints are most​ likely? A. ​Nausea, vomiting, decreased hemoglobin saturation B. ​Rash, nausea, a metallic taste in the mouth C. ​Nausea, vomiting,​ confusion, tachypnea D. Pale​ skin, sluggish​ pupils, tachycardia

C. ​Nausea, vomiting,​ confusion, tachypnea

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old, 176-pound male who is alert and oriented 12 hours after ingesting thirty 500 mg tablets of Tylenol. Which of the following are the most likely complaints or​ findings? A. ​Confusion, lethargy, and hyperthermia B. Abdominal pain and oliguria C. ​Nausea, vomiting,​ weakness, and fatigue D. Signs and symptoms of liver failure

C. ​Nausea, vomiting,​ weakness, and fatigue

Which of the following diseases is most likely to cause dementia in the​ patient? A. Spina bifida B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. ​Pick's disease D. Multiple sclerosis

C. ​Pick's disease

The carpopedal spasms that occur due to hyperventilation syndrome are a result of a relative​ ________, secondary to​ ________. A. ​hypocalcemia, decrease in unbound calcium B. ​hypercalcemia, respiratory alkalosis C. ​hypocalcemia, increase in bound calcium D. ​hyponatremia, respiratory alkalosis

C. ​hypocalcemia, increase in bound calcium

Children under one year of age have a​ ________ plasma protein concentration than older children.​ Therefore, medications that bind to plasma proteins will have a​ ________ effect in them. A. ​greater; diminished B. ​lower; diminished C. ​lower; greater D. ​greater; greater

C. ​lower; greater

A document that is signed by a physician and that outlines the​ life-sustaining measures that may or may not be taken when a​ patient's heart and respiratory functions have ceased is​ a: A.power of attorney. B.living will. C.DNR order. D.statement of last rites.

C.DNR order.

Which of the following occurrences is LEAST likely to require mandatory legal reporting by the​ paramedic? A.Child endangerment B.Abuse of the elderly C.Public intoxication D.Spousal battery

C.Public intoxication

A physician has ordered you to give a medication that you believe will harm your patient. Which of the following should you​ do? A.Contact a supervisor in the EMS system and request a second opinion. B.Carry out the ordered treatment but note your objection in the patient care report. C.Question the​ physician, refuse to carry out the order if the physician insists you do​ so, and document the incident. D.Question the physician but carry out the order if the physician insists.

C.Question the​ physician, refuse to carry out the order if the physician insists you do​ so, and document the incident.

Your patient is a competent adult who has given permission for treatment and transport. You have loaded the patient into the​ ambulance, but just before you are ready to leave the​ scene, she changes her mind and says she does not want to go to the hospital. Which of the following statements about this situation is​ true? A.She can now be treated using implied consent. B.She cannot withdraw consent after having given it. C.She can withdraw consent. D.You must obtain an emergency detention order to continue treatment.

C.She can withdraw consent.

Which of the following laws is designed to allow the paramedic who has been potentially exposed to an infectious disease access to the medical records of the patient to whom the paramedic was​ exposed? A.HIPAA B.EMTALA C.The Ryan White CARE Act D.Good Samaritan laws

C.The Ryan White CARE Act

DNR​ orders, durable powers of​ attorney, and living wills are forms​ of: A.protocols. B.standards of care. C.advance directives. D.medical orders.

C.advance directives.

The principle of law that prohibits the release of medical or other personal information about a patient without the​ patient's permission is known​ as: A.privilege. B.privacy. C.confidentiality. D.primum non nocere.

C.confidentiality.

In a lawsuit in which a paramedic has been charged with​ negligence, the paramedic is called​ the: A.plaintiff B.suspect C.defendant D.magistrate

C.defendant

Protecting those at risk is an example of a​ paramedic's ________ duty. A.legal B.medicaldash-legal C.ethical D.moral

C.ethical

When a court orders that a prisoner receive treatment the prisoner does not​ want, the treatment is based on​ ________ consent. A.proximate B.expressed C.involuntary D.ex parte

C.involuntary

A paramedic performs an intervention on a patient that is contrary to current practices. The patient suffers an injury as a result of that intervention. This is an example​ of: A.antifeasance. B.nonfeasance. C.malfeasance. D.misfeasance.

C.malfeasance.

There are ethical and societal limits to the interactions between paramedics or other health care personnel and the patients they serve. These are​ called: A.employment laws. B.scope of practice. C.professional boundaries. D.standard of care.

C.professional boundaries.

The degree of​ care, skill, and judgment that would be expected of any similarly​ trained, reasonable paramedic acting under similar circumstances is called​ the: A.test of prudent actions. B.scope of practice. C.standard of care. D.duty to act.

C.standard of care.

Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for intradermal drug​ administration? A. 27​ gauge, 3/8′′ needle B. 25​ gauge, 3/4′′ needle C. 25​ gauge, 1′′ needle D. 20​ gauge, 3/4′′ needle

D. 20 gauge, 3/4" needle

Your patient is a​ 68-year-old male who is conscious but confused and lying on his kitchen floor. The patient offers no complaint other than wishing to be helped up from the floor. The patient can tell you that he​ "slipped a few days​ ago" and has been on the floor since. Physical examination reveals​ dry, cool​ skin; dry mucous​ membranes; clear lung sounds​ bilaterally; and no indications of trauma. HR​ = 112, BP​ = 98/70, RR​ = 14, SaO2 ​= 96%. Your partner finds an appointment card indicating the patient missed a hemodialysis appointment two days ago. Which of the following is the best course for managing this​ patient? A. Dopamine infusion B. ​1,000 mL fluid bolus C. IV of NS at a​ keep-open rate D. 250 mL fluid bolus

D. 250 mL fluid bolus

Your patient weighs 22 pounds and is to receive 0.02​ mg/kg of atropine IV push. You have a multidose vial of atropine containing 20 mL at a concentration of 0.04​ mg/mL. What volume​ (in mL) of medication is to be​ injected? A. 0.25 B. 2.5 C. 0.5 D. 5

D. 5

Persistent abdominal pain is considered a surgical emergency when lasting longer​ than: A. 6 days. B. 2 days. C. 2 hours. D. 6 hours.

D. 6 hours.

Which of the following is a natural change the occurs with​ aging? A. Increased levels of stress which trigger respiratory episodes. B. An increase in lung capacity C. An increase in bronchospasms. D. A decrease in lung compliance.

D. A decrease in lung compliance.

You are examining a newborn and note that the meninges and spinal cord are protruding through an opening over the lower back. This is known​ as: A. Poliomyelitis B. Spina bifida occulta C. A meningocele D. A myelomeningocele

D. A myelomeningocele

A​ 19-year-old male has ingested fifty 325 mg aspirin tablets 20 minutes before your arrival. He is alert and complaining of burning abdominal pain. Which of the following is appropriate in the prehospital management of this​ patient? A. Syrup of ipecac B. Sodium bicarbonate C. ​N-acetylcysteine D. Activated charcoal

D. Activated charcoal

A​ 63-year-old female with a history of hypothyroidism presents in a stuporous​ state, responsive only to pain. Physical exam reveals thin​ hair, a puffy​ face, an enlarged​ tongue, and​ cold, doughy skin. Her heart rate is 70 and​ regular, RR is 10 and​ regular, BP is​ 90/62, blood glucose level is 60​ mg/dL, and temperature is 86°F via a tympanic thermometer. Your treatment of this patient should NOT​ include: A. IV fluids at a TKO rate B. 50 percent​ dextrose, IV C. Endotracheal intubation D. Active rewarming

D. Active rewarming

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old male complaining of a​ one-week history of abdominal pain. He describes the pain as in the upper right​ quadrant, dull and reproducible with movement and palpation. He also describes a decreased​ appetite, weight​ loss, and​ clay-colored stool over the same period. Of the​ following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical​ condition? A. Pancreatitis B. Cholecystitis C. Colitis D. Acute hepatitis

D. Acute hepatitis

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old male with a history of type I diabetes. You were called to his place of employment because he was behaving bizarrely. On your arrival he is confused and combative with a blood glucose level of 41​ mg/dL. Due to poor vasculature and the​ patient's combativeness, you have not been able to start an IV. Which of the following is the best course of​ action? A. Administer half an amp​ (12.5 g) of 50 percent​ dextrose, IM. B. Administer 5 mg​ Valium, IM, and attempt the IV again when the patient is less agitated. C. Use​ four-point restraints to restrain the patient and transport. Attempt the IV again if the patient becomes unresponsive. D. Administer 1 mg​ glucagon, IM.

D. Administer 1 mg​ glucagon, IM.

Your patient was in the building when a fire started at a factory that manufactures plastics. He is complaining of a​ headache, palpitations, and a burning sensation in his throat. His​ airway, breathing, and circulation are intact. Heart rate​ = 128, respirations​ = 22, blood pressure​ = 148/84, and SaO2 ​= 93%. You should​ immediately: A. Prepare to intubate B. Administer amyl and sodium nitrate C. Apply the cardiac monitor D. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen

D. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen

You are called to the home of a​ 28-year-old male who is complaining of​ hoarseness, a scratchy sensation in the back of his​ throat, and palpitations. The symptoms began about 30 minutes ago and have grown steadily worse ever since the patient ingested prescribed penicillin 1 hour ago. Patient management should include all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Epinephrine​ 1:1000 0.3 mg SC B. Supplemental oxygen via nonrebreather mask C. IV of NS KVO D. Administration of an IV​ beta-blocker

D. Administration of an IV​ beta-blocker

All of the following are examples of one of the three​ "principles of​ decontamination" that are specific to toxicological emergencies​ EXCEPT: A. Administration of sorbitol B. Removing a patient from a structure that is filled with carbon monoxide C. Administration of​ N-acetylcysteine D. Administration of an NS fluid challenge

D. Administration of an NS fluid challenge

Which of the following accounts for more than 90 percent of hospital admissions for toxic substance​ exposure? A. Pediatric accidental poisonings B. Intentional poisoning by another person C. Pediatric overdoses D. Adult poisonings and overdoses

D. Adult poisonings and overdoses

Which of the following should be suspected as a potential cause of​ syncope? A. Hypovolemia B. Cardiac dysrhythmia C. Vagal stimulation D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is least pertinent in the prehospital setting when obtaining the history of a patient with a suspected transient ischemic attack or​ stroke? A. History of diabetes B. History of cardiovascular disease C. Medications D. Allergies

D. Allergies

In the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system​ (RAAS), which element is most responsible for widespread​ vasoconstriction? A. Angiotensin I B. Angiotensinogen C. ​Angiotensin-converting enzyme​ (ACE) D. Angiotensin II

D. Angiotensin II

Your patient is a​ 38-year-old female with a history of​ Crohn's disease. She is conscious and alert and complaining of abdominal pain. She describes a​ one-week history of increasingly​ diffuse, crampy abdominal pain. She also states that she has had nausea and​ vomiting, fever, and diarrhea the past two days. Physical examination reveals that her skin is warm and dry and that her abdomen is tender to palpation in all quadrants with no masses or distension noted. HR​ = 100, BP​ = 118/78, RR​ = 14, SaO2 ​= 99%. Which of the following treatments is appropriate in the prehospital management of this​ patient? A. Diphenydramine B. Ketorolac​ (Toradol) C. Methylprednisolone D. Antiemetics

D. Antiemetics

Pain at​ McBurney's point is associated​ with: A. Kidney stones B. Cholecystitis C. Pancreatitis D. Appendicitis

D. Appendicitis

Your patient is a​ 19-year-old male complaining of a​ two-day history of abdominal pain described as diffuse and​ colicky, located around his umbilical area. He also states a loss of appetite and a​ low-grade fever over the same period. Palpation of his abdomen reveals tenderness and guarding to the periumbilical area. Of the​ following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical​ condition? A. Cholecystitis B. Bowel obstruction C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Appendicitis

D. Appendicitis

Which of the following statements about hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma​ (HHNK) is​ true? A. Unlike diabetic​ ketoacidosis, HHNK is not​ life-threatening. B. ​Paradoxically, the definitive management of HHNK includes the administration of 50 percent dextrose. C. Prehospital treatment of HHNK includes correcting metabolic acidosis. D. Aside from managing the​ ABCs, prehospital management is primarily aimed at correcting dehydration.

D. Aside from managing the​ ABCs, prehospital management is primarily aimed at correcting dehydration.

Your patient is a​ 23-year-old female who is 30​ weeks' pregnant. She choked on some cheese while eating a piece of pizza. When asked if she can​ speak, she replies​ "yes," although with some difficulty. Your next step should be​ to: A. Attempt to remove the bolus of cheese with Magill forceps B. Perform a series of abdominal thrusts C. Perform a series of chest thrusts D. Ask the patient to cough as hard as she can

D. Ask the patient to cough as hard as she can

Which of the following medications is a cardioselective​ beta-blocker? A. Propranolol B. Metaproterenol C. Albuterol D. Atenolol

D. Atenolol

Which of the following is a risk factor for​ stroke? A. ​First-degree heart block B. Premature atrial contractions C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Atrial fibrillation

D. Atrial fibrillation

You are presented with a​ 42-year-old male who is unconscious with snoring respirations after a heroin overdose. HR​ = 64, BP​ = 98/50, RR​ = 6 and​ shallow, SaO2 ​= 91%. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial​ treatment? A. IV​ access, administer naloxone B. ​Intubate, ventilate with supplemental oxygen C. IV​ access, administer a 250 cc fluid bolus D. BLS airway management and ventilation with supplemental oxygen

D. BLS airway management and ventilation with supplemental oxygen

What is the process of chemically converting drugs into​ metabolites? A. Distribution B. Absorption C. Excretion D. Biotransformation

D. Biotransformation

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old female with a history of hiatal hernia. She is complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. All four quadrants are tender to palpation. She also states that she has vomited numerous times and describes the presence of bile. You note that her abdomen is slightly​ distended, and auscultation of her abdomen reveals absent bowel sounds. Of the​ following, which is the most likely cause of her clinical​ condition? A. Cholecystitis B. Pancreatitis C. Diverticulitis D. Bowel obstruction

D. Bowel obstruction

Your patient is a​ 68-year-old female complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. She has a history of intestinal hernias and adhesions from previous abdominal surgery. Your suspicion should be highest​ for: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Appendicitis C. Diverticulitis D. Bowel obstruction

D. Bowel obstruction

Which of the following statements about chronic renal failure​ (CRF) is​ accurate? A. CRF is reversible if the cause is found and treated. B. Hemodialysis can reverse​ CRF, but CAPD cannot. C. The only treatment for CRF is a kidney transplant. D. CRF is diagnosed when 70 percent of the nephrons are lost and the patient is clinically unstable.

D. CRF is diagnosed when 70 percent of the nephrons are lost and the patient is clinically unstable.

Which of the following statements about chronic renal failure​ (CRF) is​ accurate? A. Hemodialysis can reverse​ CRF, but CAPD cannot. B. CRF is reversible if the cause is found and treated. C. The only treatment for CRF is a kidney transplant. D. CRF is diagnosed when 70 percent of the nephrons are lost and the patient is clinically unstable.

D. CRF is diagnosed when 70 percent of the nephrons are lost and the patient is clinically unstable.

Which of the following antihypertensive medications is an​ angiotensin-converting enzyme​ (ACE) inhibitor? A. Clonidine​ (Catapres) B. Reserpine​ (Serpalan) C. Labetalol​ (Normodyne) D. Captopril​ (Capoten)

D. Captopril​ (Capoten)

Which of the following is a highly​ toxic, odorless, tasteless gas that is a​ by-product of incomplete​ combustion? A. Cyanide B. Methane C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon monoxide

D. Carbon monoxide

Which class of hormones is NOT synthesized and secreted by the adrenal​ cortex? A. Androgens B. Glucocorticoids C. Mineralocorticoids D. Catecholamines

D. Catecholamines

Immunity resulting from a direct attack on a foreign substance by specialized cells in the immune system​ is: A. Humoral immunity B. Primary immunity C. Secondary response D. Cellular immunity

D. Cellular immunity

A type II diabetic with a blood glucose of 24​ mg/dL would most likely be unconscious due​ to: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Insulin shock D. Cerebral hypoglycemia

D. Cerebral hypoglycemia

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a precipitating factor of thyrotoxic​ crisis? A. Infection B. Overdose of thyroid hormone C. Trauma D. Cold environment

D. Cold environment

You respond to an ill patient. Upon your​ arrival, the patient states that she has had an increase in​ urination, thirst, and general malaise. The​ patient's finger stick blood glucose reading is 550​ mg/dL; her blood pressure is​ 110/80 mmHg;​ pulse, 100; respiratory rate​ 26; ETCO2​ 29; and you note an acetone odor. You​ suspect: A. DNK. B. HHNK. C. TNK. D. DKA.

D. DKA.

A​ 76-year-old patient with acute interstitial nephritis presents with​ oliguria, altered mental​ status, and edema to his​ face, hands, and feet. Of the​ following, which best describes the pathophysiology behind these clinical​ findings? A. Na+ and K+ excretion results in diuresis and dehydration. B. H+ excretion results in diuresis and alkalosis. C. Increased GFR results in retention of​ water, electrolytes, and metabolic waste. D. Decreased GFR results in retention of​ water, electrolytes, and metabolic waste.

D. Decreased GFR results in retention of​ water, electrolytes, and metabolic waste.

Which of the following is the therapeutic effect of a​ cathartic? A. Increased protein binding of drugs B. Alkalinization of the urine C. Vomiting D. Diarrhea

D. Diarrhea

Which of the following is commonly indicated in the management of cocaine​ overdose? A. Flumazenil B. Narcan C. Thiamine D. Diazepam

D. Diazepam

Which of the following is the generic name of a​ drug? A. Excedrin B. Motrin C. Tylenol D. Diazepam

D. Diazepam

Your patient is a​ 42-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse who is in severe distress with dysphagia and hematemesis. You note that he is becoming lethargic and is having trouble keeping his head up. His skin is cool and clammy. HR​ = 138, BP​ = 82/56, RR​ = 8, SaO2 ​= 90%. Proper treatment of this patient would include all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Aggressive suctioning of the airway and intubation B. IV of NS with fluid challenge C. Placing the patient in shock position D. Dopamine infusion

D. Dopamine infusion

All of the following are considered part of the lower gastrointestinal tract EXCEPT​ the: A. Jejunum B. Large intestine C. Ileum D. Duodenum

D. Duodenum

Your patient is a​ 48-year-old female with advanced hepatitis secondary to drug and alcohol abuse. She is confused and is noncompliant with her medications. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her​ confusion? A. Hyperglycemia B. Anemia C. Hypercoagulative state D. Elevated ammonia levels

D. Elevated ammonia levels

Which of the following chemistry findings would suggest acute renal​ failure? A. Elevated iron B. Decreased creatinine C. Decreased potassium D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen​ (BUN)

D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen​ (BUN)

Which of the following is a prerenal cause of acute renal​ failure? A. Uretheral obstruction due to renal calculi B. Massive overdose of ibuprofen C. Pyelonephritis D. Embolism of the renal vein

D. Embolism of the renal vein

Which of the following is a property of a reversible cholinesterase​ inhibitor? A. Blocks sympathetic stimulation for a finite period B. Blocks parasympathetic stimulation for a finite period C. Enables sympathetic stimulation for a finite period D. Enables parasympathetic stimulation for a finite period

D. Enables parasympathetic stimulation for a finite period

Which medication is best for improving hypotension secondary to anaphylactic​ shock? A. Diphenhydramine B. Hydrocortisone C. Oxygen D. Epinephrine

D. Epinephrine

Capnometry measures the partial pressure of CO2​ in: A. Venous blood B. Inspired air C. Arterial blood D. Expired air

D. Expired air

Dislodgement of the catheter from the​ vein, puncture of the distal vein wall during​ venipuncture, and/or a poorly secured IV can lead to​ what? A. Septic shock B. Venous spasm C. Speed shock D. Extravasation

D. Extravasation

Which of the following is the most important intrinsic risk factor for respiratory​ disease? A. Sedentary lifestyle B. Smoking C. Environment D. Family history

D. Family history

Shortly after starting an IV on your​ patient, you note that the IV is not dripping. You have removed the constricting​ band, and all the clamps on the tubing are open. You note that there is minor swelling around the venipuncture site. There is no discoloration of the​ site, but it is cool and firm to the touch. Which of the following most likely accounts for your​ findings? A. The tip of the catheter is occluded by a blood clot. B. The tip of the catheter is occluded by a valve in the vein. C. The site has become infected. D. Fluids extravasated into the tissue surrounding the IV site.

D. Fluids extravasated into the tissue surrounding the IV site.

Your patient is a​ 66-year-old female who is conscious and​ alert, complaining of a​ one-week history of progressive​ "lightheadedness" with exertion. She also complains of mild​ nausea; dark, sticky​ stools; and pain in her lower abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this​ patient's condition? A. Ingestion of an iron or a​ bismuth-containing medication B. Diverticulosis C. Acute cholecystitis D. Gastrointestinal bleeding

D. Gastrointestinal bleeding

You suspect your patient is experiencing a hemorrhagic stroke. He is​ confused, has a respiratory rate of​ 20, and a blood pressure of​ 178/88. Which of the following additional findings would most increase your suspicion of increased intracranial​ pressure? A. Anterograde amnesia B. Hallucinations C. Slurred speech D. Heart rate of 50

D. Heart rate of 50

Which of the following should occur with the administration of​ insulin? A. Gluconeogenesis B. Lipolysis C. Glycogenolysis D. Hepatic glycogen synthesis

D. Hepatic glycogen synthesis

Which of the following is NOT associated with chronic alcohol​ ingestion? A. Decreased sensation in hands and feet B. Esophageal varices C. Thiamine deficiency D. Hyperactivity

D. Hyperactivity

You arrive to find an unresponsive patient inside a running vehicle in his garage. Your destination should include a hospital with what​ capability? A. Neurosurgical capabilities B. Any hospital C. Hypobaric oxygen D. Hyperbaric oxygen

D. Hyperbaric oxygen

Your patient is experiencing profuse​ hives, itching,​ dyspnea, coughing,​ tachycardia, and dizziness after eating seafood 5 minutes ago. You might also expect to see all of the following additional signs​ EXCEPT: A. Bronchospasm B. Laryngeal edema C. Cyanosis D. Hypertension

D. Hypertension

Which of the following should not be a part of the general management of a patient with altered mental​ status? A. Thiamine B. IV of NS KVO C. 50 percent dextrose D. Hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen

D. Hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen

Your patient is unresponsive after removal from a home in which four family members were found unconscious after having​ "flulike symptoms." The patient has snoring respirations at 10 per​ minute; a​ weak, rapid radial​ pulse; and an SaO2 of​ 100%. Your treatment should consist of all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Endotracheal intubation B. IV of normal saline C. Considering transport to a hospital with hyperbaric oxygen treatment facilities D. Hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen

D. Hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen

Your patient is unresponsive after removal from a home in which four family members were found unconscious after having​ "flulike symptoms." The patient has snoring respirations at 10 per​ minute; a​ weak, rapid radial​ pulse; and an SaO2 of​ 100%. Your treatment should consist of all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. IV of normal saline B. Considering transport to a hospital with hyperbaric oxygen treatment facilities C. Endotracheal intubation D. Hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen

D. Hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen

If a patient being treated for hypoparathyroidism stopped taking the medications prescribed for his​ condition, which of the following would be most likely to​ occur? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypocalcemia

D. Hypocalcemia

Epinephrine administration results in all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Increased cardiac contractile force B. Increased peripheral vasoconstriction C. Tachycardia D. Hypotension

D. Hypotension

Which of the following assessment findings should you most expect in a patient with chronic​ pancreatitis? A. ​Clay-colored stool B. ​Dark-colored urine C. Right lower quadrant pain D. Hypotension

D. Hypotension

ETCO2 is recorded during phase​ ________ of the capnogram. A. IV B. II C. I D. III

D. III

In which class of the​ Vaughn-Williams classification system of antidysrhythmic medications does amiodarone​ belong? A. IB B. II C. IV D. III

D. III

In which class of the​ Vaughn-Williams classification system of​ anti-dysrhythmic medications does verapamil​ belong? A. IB B. IA C. II D. IV

D. IV

Which of the following is the best route for administering epinephrine to patients in severe anaphylactic shock refractory to initial​ interventions? A. SC B. ET C. IM D. IV

D. IV

Your patient is a conscious and alert​ 22-year-old female who was stung by a hornet. She states that she has​ "allergies to bee​ stings" and has been told that she could die if stung. Your physical examination reveals a​ 1-cm-diameter, red, edematous area where she was stung on the left forearm. Her skin is warm and​ dry, and her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. HR​ = 112 and​ regular, BP​ = 122/82, RR​ = 12 and​ regular, SaO2​ = 98%. The most appropriate treatment for this patient would​ include: A. 100 percent oxygen via nonrebreather mask 15​ lpm, IV of NS​ 1-2 L, epinephrine​ 1:1000 0.3 mg​ SC, diphenhydramine 25 mg IV B. 15 lpm oxygen by​ nonrebreather, epinephrine​ 1:1000 0.3 mg​ SC, diphenhydramine 25 mg​ IV, transport C. Transport only D. IV of NS KVO

D. IV of NS KVO

Your patient is a​ 34-year-old male who is alert and oriented after an intentional overdose of ten Wellbutrin tablets 30 minutes ago. He denies ingestion of any other drugs or alcohol. Physical examination reveals​ warm, dry​ skin; PEARL; and a slight tremor to his hands. HR​ = 100, BP​ = 128/84, RR​ = 14, SaO2 ​= 99%. Which of the following is most​ appropriate? A. IV of normal​ saline, KVO; sodium bicarbonate 1​ mEq/kg, IV B. IV of normal​ saline, KVO;​ flumazenil, IV C. IV of normal​ saline, KVO; activated​ charcoal, PO or via NG tube D. IV of normal​ saline, KVO

D. IV of normal​ saline, KVO

Your patient is a​ 43-year-old female with a history of peanut allergy. She is complaining of dizziness after eating a casserole that she later discovered contained peanuts. Your physical examination reveals​ warm, diaphoretic​ skin; a​ blotchy, red rash covering her chest and​ arms; and lung sounds that are clear and equal bilaterally. HR​ = 122, BP​ = 124/76, RR​ = 15 and​ regular, SaO2​ = 97%. In addition to providing​ oxygen, appropriate treatment for this patient​ includes: A. IV with crystalloid solution such as lactated​ Ringer's or normal saline. B. IV with crystalloid solution such as lactated​ Ringer's or normal​ saline, epinephrine​ 1:1000 SC, diphenhydramine​ IV, nebulized albuterol. C. IV of NS wide​ open, epinephrine​ 1:1000 SC, diphenhydramine IV. D. IV with crystalloid solution such as lactated​ Ringer's or normal​ saline, epinephrine​ 1:1000 SC, diphenhydramine IV.

D. IV with crystalloid solution such as lactated​ Ringer's or normal​ saline, epinephrine​ 1:1000 SC, diphenhydramine IV.

If a drug were to block the nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular​ junction, what symptomatic effect might this have on the​ patient? A. Increase in gastric motility B. Pupillary constriction C. Decrease in heart rate D. Inability to move voluntary and involuntary muscles

D. Inability to move voluntary and involuntary muscles

An increased hydrogen ion concentration in the cerebrospinal fluid results in​ a(n) ________ respiratory rate. A. Erratic B. Decreased C. Unchanged D. Increased

D. Increased

When treating patients with suspected​ hypoglycemia, which of the following should be of greatest concern regarding the administration of 50 percent dextrose in​ water? A. The administration of oxygen before any other therapies B. Confirming the patient has a history of diabetes C. Ensuring that a blood glucose specimen is obtained before administering the drug D. Infiltration of the IV during the drug administration

D. Infiltration of the IV during the drug administration

All of the following may cause a transient ischemic attack​ EXCEPT: A. A small embolus B. Hypotension C. Cerebrovascular spasm D. Intracranial hemorrhage

D. Intracranial hemorrhage

By which of the following routes will medication have the quickest onset of​ action? A. Intradermal B. Subcutaneous C. Oral D. Intramuscular

D. Intramuscular

Which of the following is a disadvantage of pulmonary drug administration via nebulizer or metered dose​ inhaler? A. Pulmonary absorption is a slow route for drug administration. B. Side effects are more likely with pulmonary drug administration. C. It requires a larger dose than other routes. D. It requires the patient to have adequate ventilation.

D. It requires the patient to have adequate ventilation.

When assessing a fistula used for​ hemodialysis, which of the following should concern​ you? A. Pulsation with each heartbeat B. A bruit on auscultation C. Bruising around the fistula D. Lack of a palpable vibration

D. Lack of a palpable vibration

Your patient is a​ 31-year-old female complaining of dizziness and difficulty breathing after being stung by a bee. You note that she is extremely​ anxious, and your physical examination reveals a rapidly developing urticaria to her​ shoulders, neck, and face. Your partner has administered oxygen via a​ nonrebreather, initiated IV​ access, placed the patient on the cardiac​ monitor, and administered epinephrine SC and diphenhydramine IV. Despite​ this, you also note that her voice is quickly becoming more hoarse and she has developed expiratory wheezes in all lung fields. HR​ = 128, BP​ = 100/70, RR​ = 20, SaO2​ = 99%. What should be your major concern at this​ point, and what is the most appropriate​ treatment? A. Hypotension leading to cardiovascular​ collapse; administer fluids wide open and initiate a dopamine infusion B. Increased bronchospasm leading to respiratory​ arrest; administer epinephrine IV C. Increased bronchospasm leading to respiratory​ arrest; administer albuterol via nebulizer D. Laryngeal edema leading to total airway​ occlusion; intubate

D. Laryngeal edema leading to total airway​ occlusion; intubate

A patient with no prior history of renal disease is experiencing​ restlessness, agitation,​ dysuria, and flank pain radiating into the groin. Appropriate treatment for this patient would consist of all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. Morphine B. IV fluid therapy C. Fentanyl D. Lasix IV

D. Lasix IV

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a​ migraine? A. Throbbing headache B. Vomiting C. Photosensitivity D. Low back pain

D. Low back pain

Which of the following is NOT part of the respiratory status​ assessment? A. Respiratory effort B. Color C. Mental status D. Lung compliance

D. Lung compliance

What is the most common cause of chronic​ gastroenteritis? A. Elevated cortisol B. Use of NSAIDs C. Floral infection D. Microbial infection

D. Microbial infection

Narcan acts as an antagonist to all of the following medications​ EXCEPT: A. Heroin B. Methadone C. Codeine D. Midazolam

D. Midazolam

Your patient is a​ 45-year-old female who became hypertensive after eating some cheese and drinking wine. Which type of medication would most likely account for this​ reaction? A. Phenothiazines B. Tricyclic antidepressants C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Which of the following diseases involves inflammation followed by demyelination of the brain and spinal cord nerve​ fibers? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Muscular dystrophy C. ​Alzheimer's disease D. Multiple sclerosis

D. Multiple sclerosis

Fifty percent dextrose solution is placed on side A of a​ membrane, and 25 percent dextrose is placed on side B of a membrane. Assuming the membrane is permeable to​ water, but not​ solutes, what will​ happen? A. Water may move freely in both​ directions, but there will be no net movement of water. B. Net movement of water from side A to side B will occur. C. Water will not move in either direction. D. Net movement of water from side B to side A will occur.

D. Net movement of water from side B to side A will occur.

Administration of a medication to the right eye would be documented medically​ as: A. o.g. B. o.u. C. o.s. D. o.d.

D. O.d

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with type 1 diabetes​ mellitus? A. Inadequate insulin release from the beta cells of the pancreatic islets B. Juvenile onset C. Insulin dependence D. Obesity

D. Obesity

Which of the following medications is a​ proton-pump inhibitor? A. Cimetidine​ (Tagamet) B. Pirenzepine​ (Gastrozepine) C. Ranitidine​ (Zantac) D. Omeprazole​ (Prilosec)

D. Omeprazole​ (Prilosec)

Tenderness associated with pyelonephritis is best evaluated by​ percussing: A. ​Laterally, just superior to the superior iliac crest B. In the​ midline, just superior to the symphysis pubis C. Just lateral to the spine slightly superior to the sacroiliac joint D. Over the pubis in lower UTI and at the flank in upper UTI.

D. Over the pubis in lower UTI and at the flank in upper UTI.

What is the MOST common catheter used in prehospital IV​ starts? A. Butterfly set B. Plastic C. ​Hollow-needle D. ​Over-the-needle

D. Over-the-needle

All of the following symptoms are consistent with urinary tract infection​ EXCEPT: A. Frequent urge to urinate B. Tenderness over one or both flanks C. Difficulty beginning and continuing to void D. Passing​ hard, granular material in the urine

D. Passing​ hard, granular material in the urine

Which of the following statements concerning Africanized honeybees is​ accurate? A. The venom of Africanized honeybees causes acute renal failure. B. Envenomation by Africanized honeybees requires treatment with specific antivenin. C. The venom of Africanized honeybees is more toxic than that of other types of bees. D. Patients stung by Africanized honeybees tend to have more stings than patients stung by other types of bees.

D. Patients stung by Africanized honeybees tend to have more stings than patients stung by other types of bees.

To relieve nasal​ congestion, which of the following medications would be most effective when administered​ intranasally? A. Propranalol B. Physostigmine C. Epinephrine D. Phenylepherine

D. Phenylepherine

Which of the following intravenous solutions would remain in the vascular system the​ longest? A. 5 percent dextrose in water B. 0.9 percent sodium chloride C. Lactated​ Ringer's solution D. Plasmanate

D. Plasmanate

Which of the following is LEAST likely to lead to acute renal​ failure? A. Urethral obstruction B. Heart failure with hypotension C. Interstitial nephritis D. Pneumonia

D. Pneumonia

Which of the following infectious childhood diseases would most likely result in​ paralysis? A. Rubella B. German measles C. Spina bifida D. Poliomyelitis

D. Poliomyelitis

You are preforming a physical exam on a patient with emphysema. You note that the patient has a pink hue to her skin. You should​ suspect: A. Carboxyhemoglobinemia. B. Methahemoglobinemia. C. Cor pulmonale. D. Polycythemia.

D. Polycythemia.

Which of the following most accurately describes the rationale for monitoring the cardiac rhythm in the hyperglycemic​ patient? A. Hyperglycemia causes ventricular irritability and increases the risk of ventricular fibrillation. B. All ALS patients must be monitored. C. The increased viscosity of the blood makes myocardial ischemia very likely. D. Polyuria can lead to electrolyte​ disturbances, resulting in cardiac dysrhythmias.

D. Polyuria can lead to electrolyte​ disturbances, resulting in cardiac dysrhythmias.

A patient has accidentally ingested about 4 ounces of drain cleaner. Your primary concern should​ be: A. Internal bleeding B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Decreased level of consciousness D. Potential airway compromise

D. Potential airway compromise

Your patient is an alcoholic who stopped drinking three days ago. Which of the following should concern you the most in the care of this​ patient? A. Abdominal cramps B. Command hallucinations C. Hypothermia D. Potential for seizures

D. Potential for seizures

Diphenhydramine is administered in anaphylaxis because​ it: A. Blocks histamine receptors B. Possibly reduces peripheral vasodilation C. Reduces histamine release from mast cells and basophils D. Produces all of the above

D. Produces all of the above

A​ 36-year-old female is conscious and alert and complaining of palpitations. She denies chest​ pain, difficulty​ breathing, or loss of consciousness but becomes​ "dizzy" with exertion. She states that she has been experiencing​ agitation, insomnia, intolerance to​ heat, and weight loss. Physical exam reveals exophthalmos and an enlarged thyroid gland. HR​ = 142 and​ regular, BP​ = 110/70, RR​ = 14 and regular. Which of the following would be most effective in treating this​ patient? A. 50 percent dextrose IV B. Synchronized cardioversion C. 250 cc fluid challenge D. Propranolol

D. Propranolol

Your patient is a​ 57-year-old male who is alert and oriented and complaining of a slight headache. His coworker states the patient​ "fainted." The patient describes feeling weak and lightheaded before the incident and​ "came to" lying on the floor. Medical history includes cardiovascular disease with a history of angina and hypertension. Medications include clopidogrel​ (Plavix), nitroglycerin, and metoprolol. Which of the following is LEAST helpful when formulating a field impression for this​ patient? A. Neurological exam B. Orthostatic vital signs C. Cardiac monitoring D. Pulse oximetry

D. Pulse oximetry

Your​ patient, who has a history of​ cholecystitis, is experiencing pain in her right shoulder. She is most likely experiencing​ ________ pain. A. Peritoneal B. Somatic C. Visceral D. Referred

D. Referred

Your patient is a​ 16-year-old male who attempted suicide. He is unconscious and​ apneic, lying supine on a garage floor. The family states they found the patient unconscious in the front seat of a car that was running in an enclosed garage. HR​ = 70, BP​ = 100/60, RR​ = 0. In addition to an IV of normal​ saline, which of the following is the most​ appropriate? A. ​Intubate, remove the patient from the​ garage, and transport to a hospital with a hyperbaric chamber. B. Remove the patient from the​ garage, initiate BVM ventilations with 100 percent​ oxygen, intubate, and transport to the nearest facility. C. Remove the patient from the​ garage, intubate, and transport to the nearest hospital. D. Remove the patient from the​ garage, initiate BVM ventilations with 100 percent​ oxygen, intubate, and transport to a hospital with a hyperbaric chamber.

D. Remove the patient from the​ garage, initiate BVM ventilations with 100 percent​ oxygen, intubate, and transport to a hospital with a hyperbaric chamber.

Which of the following is most likely to affect elimination of a​ medication? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Hemorrhage C. Burns on more than 30 percent of the body surface area D. Renal disease

D. Renal disease

Which of the following structures FIRST allows gas exchange as air enters the​ lungs? A. Alveolar sacs B. Alveolar ducts C. Terminal bronchioles D. Respiratory bronchioles

D. Respiratory bronchioles

Prozac, Paxil, and Zoloft are all examples​ of: A. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors B. Phenothiazines C. Tricyclic antidepressants D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

Prozac, Paxil, and Zoloft are all examples​ of: A. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors B. Tricyclic antidepressants C. Phenothiazines D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

The primary goal in the prehospital care of a patient who has been bitten by a pit viper is​ to: A. Induce diuresis B. Alkalinize the urine C. Remove the venom from the surrounding tissue D. Slow absorption of the venom

D. Slow absorption of the venom

Which of the following statements about cough suppressants is​ TRUE? A. They may include mucolytics that greatly diminish sputum production. B. ​Non-opioid medications are available by prescription only. C. They often include expectorants that reduce the amount of sputum produced. D. Some cough suppressants contain opioid antitussives that can be habit forming.

D. Some cough suppressants contain opioid antitussives that can be habit forming.

Your patient is a​ 19-year-old female who is exhibiting generalized seizure activity. Her roommate states that she had a seizure that lasted about 3 minutes. She remained​ unresponsive, then started having another seizure about 5 minutes after the first. The patient has peripheral cyanosis and copious oral secretions. Which of the following is of HIGHEST priority for this​ patient? A. Starting an​ IV, administering​ succinylcholine, and intubation B. Starting an IV and administering 5 mg of diazepam C. Suctioning the​ airway, applying 15 liters per minute of oxygen by nonrebreathing mask D. Suctioning the​ airway, assisting ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device

D. Suctioning the​ airway, assisting ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device

Your patient is a​ 55-year-old male with a history of seizures who is on the floor and experiencing​ tonic-clonic motor activity. His jaw is​ clenched, he has peripheral​ cyanosis, and there are frothy secretions in his airway. HR​ = 130, RR​ = 4 and​ shallow, SaO2 ​= 88%. Which of the following is MOST​ appropriate? A. An IV of normal saline at a keep open​ rate, check blood glucose​ level, administer 3 mg of​ lorazepam, IV B. An IV of normal saline at a keep open​ rate, check blood glucose​ level, administer 5 mg of​ diazepam, IV C. Immediate nasal intubation and hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen D. Suctioning the​ airway, inserting a nasopharyngeal​ airway, assisting respirations by​ bag-valve mask device with 100 percent oxygen

D. Suctioning the​ airway, inserting a nasopharyngeal​ airway, assisting respirations by​ bag-valve mask device with 100 percent oxygen

Which of the following findings would be atypical in a patient with a history of​ Cushing's syndrome? A. Blood glucose level of 190​ mg/dL B. Bruising of the extremities C. Blood pressure of​ 154/86 mmHg D. Temperature of​ 101°F

D. Temperature of​ 101°F

A​ 35-year-old male complains of a​ "pressure"-type headache to the back of his head and neck. He states that he woke up with the discomfort this​ morning, and the pain has steadily gotten worse through the day. He denies any radiation of the pain and denies photophobia but states that he is slightly nauseated. Based on this clinical​ presentation, the paramedic should be suspicious of what type of​ headache? A. Cluster B. Vascular C. Migraine D. Tension

D. Tension

Your patient is complaining of pain secondary to epididymitis. Where should you expect the pain to be​ located? A. Flank B. Suprapubic region C. Lower left or right​ quadrant, depending on which side is affected D. Testes

D. Testes

In order for hemodialysis to be effective in ridding the body of excess​ electrolytes, which of the following statements must be​ true? A. The dialysate must contain electrolytes in a concentration higher than in the​ patient's blood. B. The dialysate must contain electrolytes in the same concentration as in the​ patient's blood. C. The dialysate must not contain electrolytes. D. The dialysate must contain electrolytes in a concentration lower than in the​ patient's blood.

D. The dialysate must contain electrolytes in a concentration lower than in the​ patient's blood.

Which of the following statements best explains why urinary tract infections are more common in females than in​ males? A. Bacteria from the vagina commonly enter the female urethra. B. The presence of estrogen in the lining of the female reproductive tract makes the mucous membranes more prone to infection. C. Males have more acidic​ urine, which is effective in eliminating bacteria from the urinary tract. D. The female urethra is shorter than those in​ males, more easily allowing bacteria to enter the rest of the urinary tract.

D. The female urethra is shorter than those in​ males, more easily allowing bacteria to enter the rest of the urinary tract.

Which of the following properly accounts for the differences between visceral and somatic​ pain? A. The nerves that carry somatic pain impulses enter the spinal column at various​ levels, while the nerves that carry visceral impulses enter the spinal column via specific nerve routes. B. Visceral pain originates in the walls of hollow​ organs, while somatic pain originates in skeletal muscle. C. Spilled organ contents and bacteria can result in visceral​ pain, while somatic pain is caused by organ distension. D. The nerves that carry visceral pain impulses enter the spinal column at various​ levels, while the nerves that carry somatic impulses enter the spinal column via specific nerve routes.

D. The nerves that carry visceral pain impulses enter the spinal column at various​ levels, while the nerves that carry somatic impulses enter the spinal column via specific nerve routes.

You have been called to treat a patient complaining of difficulty breathing. Which of the findings should concern you the​ most? A. The patient can speak only one to two words between breaths. B. The patient is sitting in the​ "tripod" position. C. The patient has a heart rate of 126. D. The patient is​ confused, agitated, and angry that you are trying to help him.

D. The patient is​ confused, agitated, and angry that you are trying to help him.

You have administered 25 g of 50 percent dextrose to a patient who was initially unresponsive with a blood glucose level of 23​ mg/dL. Which of the following is the best indication that the​ patient's condition is​ improving? A. The heart rate decreases from 112 to 96 per minute. B. The patient seems less diaphoretic. C. The respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 16 per minute. D. The patient opens his eyes but is confused.

D. The patient opens his eyes but is confused.

Your patient is a​ 15-year-old asthmatic who has been having difficulty breathing for 45 minutes but does not have his Xopenex inhaler with him. Capnography shows an ETCO2 of 45 mmHg. The best way to interpret this finding​ is: A. This is a normal ETCO2​, indicating that this is a mild asthma attack B. This is a high ETCO2​, and the patient requires immediate ventilatory assistance to prevent respiratory arrest C. This is a low ETCO2 indicating that the patient is hyperventilating and thus in the early stages of an asthma attack D. The​ patient's ETCO2 first dropped as he began to hyperventilate but now is rising again and may continue to rise to dangerous levels

D. The​ patient's ETCO2 first dropped as he began to hyperventilate but now is rising again and may continue to rise to dangerous levels

Which of the following is NOT associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous​ system? A. Vagal tone B. Cholinergic C. Craniosacral D. Thoracolumbar

D. Thoracolumbar

A finding of exophthalmos and goiter should increase your suspicion for a problem with​ the: A. Anterior pituitary gland B. Parathyroid gland C. Posterior pituitary gland D. Thyroid gland

D. Thyroid gland

A patient has a fever of 105°​F, ​irritability, delirium,​ tachycardia, vomiting, and hypotension. These signs and symptoms are most consistent​ with: A. Myxedema B. Hypothyroidism C. ​Graves' disease D. Thyrotoxic crisis

D. Thyrotoxic crisis

The amount of air moved in and out of the lungs during a​ normal, quiet respiration is​ called: A. Dead space volume B. Functional reserve capacity C. Inspiratory capacity D. Tidal volume

D. Tidal volume

You are transporting a male patient with the complaint of expressive aphasia and right upper extremity paralysis to the hospital. When calling the​ hospital, which of the following pieces of information is it most critical to​ convey? A. SaO2 ​94% despite oxygen B. History of hypertension C. Blood pressure​ 168/82 mmHg D. Time of symptom onset

D. Time of symptom onset

Your patient is a​ 62-year-old female who is alert and oriented and sitting at her kitchen table. Her husband describes an episode of slurred speech and facial drooping that lasted about 10 minutes and resolved just before your arrival. Physical examination is unremarkable. She has no significant medical history and takes no medications. HR​ = 78, BP​ = 134/78, RR​ = 12, SaO2 ​= 99%. Which of the following is most​ likely? A. Stroke B. Ménié​re's disease C. Absence seizure D. Transient ischemic attack

D. Transient ischemic attack

Your patient is a​ 19-year-old male who ingested thirty 500 mg tablets of Tylenol 25 minutes ago. Police officers on the scene are requesting that you​ "check him​ out" before they transport him for psychiatric evaluation. The patient denies ingesting other drugs or alcohol and has no complaints. HR​ = 94, BP​ = 116/74, RR​ = 12, SaO2 ​= 98%. Which of the following would be most​ appropriate? A. Transport to the emergency department and administer sodium bicarbonate B. Release the patient to law enforcement custody C. Transport to the emergency department and administer activated charcoal D. Transport to the emergency department and start an IV of normal saline

D. Transport to the emergency department and start an IV of normal saline

Obstructive sleep apnea is a problem of​ the: A. Phrenic nerve B. Larynx and vocal cords C. Medulla oblongata D. Upper airway

D. Upper airway

Which of the following would most increase the likelihood of a urinary tract​ infection? A. Male gender B. Lack of sexual activity C. Prior history of renal calculi D. Urinary stasis

D. Urinary stasis

Which of the following is the appropriate method for preparing a site for venipuncture or​ injection? A. Use of a sanitizer B. Chemical sterilization C. Use of a disinfectant D. Use of an antiseptic

D. Use of an antiseptic

Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT part of the parasympathetic​ system? A. III B. VII C. IX D. VI

D. VI

Which of the following is NOT a source of a​ drug? A. Mineral B. Microorganism C. Animal D. Vegetable

D. Vegetable

Air entering and leaving the lungs via inspiration and expiration is known​ as: A. Oxygenation B. Perfusion C. Respirations D. Ventilation

D. Ventilation

What distinguishes verapamil​ (Calan, Isoptin) and diltiazem​ (Cardizem) from nifedipine​ (Procardia)? A. Verapamil and diltiazem are calcium channel​ blockers, whereas nifedipine is not. B. Nifedipine can be used only to treat anginal episodes. C. Only nifedipine causes smooth muscle relaxation. D. Verapamil and diltiazem reduce SA and AV node conductivity.

D. Verapamil and diltiazem reduce SA and AV node conductivity.

A plastic or glass container with a​ self-sealing rubber top is known as​ a(n): A. blister pack B. ampule C. prefilled syringe D. vial

D. Vial

What is a​ small, sterile glass or plastic container that usually contains a single dose of a​ solution? A. MDI B. ​Mix-O-Vial C. Ampule D. Vial

D. Vial

The order Hymenoptera​ includes: A. Jellyfish B. Spiders C. Scorpions D. Wasps

D. Wasps

An important distinction between analgesics and anesthetics​ is: A. analgesics are​ reversible, whereas anesthetics are not. B. anesthetics can be administered only intravenously. C. analgesics produce unconsciousness in high doses. D. anesthetics block all sensations.

D. anesthetics block all sensations.

Naloxone is an​ ________ to opioid receptors. A. analgesic B. agonist-antagonist C. agonist D. antagonist

D. antagonist

Medications instilled directly into the auditory canal to treat ear problems include all of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. ceruminolytic agents. B. topical anesthetics. C. antibacterial agents. D. anticholinergic agents.

D. anticholinergic agents.

You respond to an ill patient experiencing​ flu-like symptoms. Upon your​ arrival, the patient states that she woke up not feeling well. The patient states that she has been heating her home with wood due to the electric bill being too high. You should​ suspect: A. hypercarbia. B. hypothermia. C. carbon dioxide poisoning. D. carbon monoxide poisoning.

D. carbon monoxide poisoning.

Inhaled​ toxins: A. are eliminated by​ first-round metabolism. B. are immediately absorbed into the bloodstream. C. permeate the blood-brain barrier more quickly. D. cause damage and edema in the lungs.

D. cause damage and edema in the lungs.

Nicotinic receptors are found on all of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. cholinergic and adrenergic postganglionic neurons. B. skeletal muscle. C. spinal cord neurons. D. cholinergic and adrenergic preganglionic neurons.

D. cholinergic and adrenergic preganglionic neurons.

The endocrine system differs from the nervous system in the fact that​ it: A. directly regulates the brain. B. ​doesn't regulate anything in the body. C. controls the body without nerve impulses. D. controls the body with specialized chemical mediators.

D. controls the body with specialized chemical mediators.

The primary neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system​ is: A. dopamine. B. acetylcholine. C. reteplase. D. epinephrine.

D. epinephrine.

Paradoxical movement is associated​ with: A. hemothorax. B. simple pneumothorax. C. tension pneumothorax. D. flail chest.

D. flail chest.

Your patient is complaining of​ "coughing up​ blood," or, in medical​ terms: A. hemopulmonary spasm. B. hemothorax. C. neoplasm. D. hemoptysis.

D. hemoptysis.

Following exposure to an allergen in which IgE antibodies are​ released, mast cells​ degranulate, releasing: A. insulin. B. T cells. C. epinephrine. D. histamine.

D. histamine.

Which of the following is an extrinsic risk factor that would increase the likelihood of a patient developing a respiratory​ disease? A. genetic disposition B. cardiac problems C. asthma D. history of cigarette use

D. history of cigarette use

A similarity all laxatives share is that​ they: A. increase bulk in the intestines. B. increase peristalsis via direct stimulation. C. reduce the molecular bonds of colon contents. D. increase the water content in the colon

D. increase the water content in the colon

Histamine causes the all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. vasodilation. B. increased permeability. C. bronchoconstriction. D. increased intracranial pressure.

D. increased intracranial pressure.

A tonic-clonic seizure is characterized​ by: A. a period of apnea. B. movement of one area of the body. C. flaccidity. D. increased muscle tone and rhythmic jerking.

D. increased muscle tone and rhythmic jerking.

Glucagon will affect blood glucose levels​ by: A. inducing the storage of glucose into the liver and skeletal muscle through glycogenesis. B. enabling the rapid absorption of glucose into the cells. C. enhancing the absorption of glucose from the gastrointestinal tract. D. inducing glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

D. inducing glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

All of the following statements about hormone replacement therapy​ (HRT) with estrogen are true EXCEPT that​ HRT: A. is often used to treat postmenopausal symptoms and osteoporosis. B. may increase the risk of breast cancer and stroke. C. has side effects that include​ nausea, fluid​ retention, and breast tenderness. D. ineffectively delays the onset of senile dementia in many patients.

D. ineffectively delays the onset of senile dementia in many patients.

You are evaluating a patient complaining of having a productive cough. The patient states the sputum is green to brown. You​ suspect: A. allergies. B. inflammation. C. hemoptysis. D. infection.

D. infection.

You are called to the scene of a patient who has just attempted suicide by ingestng detergent. You notice that the patient is coughing and has a hoarse voice. You​ suspect: A. subcutaneous emphysema. B. ​nothing, this is a normal finding for this patient. C. tracheal rupture. D. laryngeal edema.

D. laryngeal edema.

The entire nervous system is covered by​ the: A. pia mater. B. peritoneum. C. dura mater. D. meninges.

D. meninges.

Current treatment regimens for peptic ulcer disease may include all of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. proton pump inhibitors B. H2 receptor antagonists C. antacids D. nonsteroidal​ anti-inflammatory drugs​ (NSAIDs)

D. nonsteroidal​ anti-inflammatory drugs​ (NSAIDs)

One important distinction with​ potassium-sparing diuretics over other forms of diuretics is that​ potassium-sparing diuretics: A. exert their effects early in the nephritic process. B. are so potent that they are rarely used with other diuretics. C. are more efficient than loop diuretics in sodium and water reabsorption. D. not only decrease sodium​ reabsorption, they increase potassium reabsorption.

D. not only decrease sodium​ reabsorption, they increase potassium reabsorption.

The​ FDA's classification of a​ drug's treatment or therapeutic potential as​ "P" means that the​ drug: A. is an orphan drug. B. is indicated for AIDS and​ HIV-related disease. C. is similar to drugs already on the market. D. offers an important therapeutic gain.

D. offers an important therapeutic gain.

Two drugs that augment or replace posterior pituitary hormones​ are: A. glucagon and vasopressin. B. adenosine and vasopressin. C. insulin and glucagon. D. oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone.

D. oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone.

The acronym SLUDGE helps identify the effects of​ ________ drugs on the autonomic nervous system. A. sympatholytic B. sympathomimetic C. parasympatholytic D. parasympathomimetic

D. parasympathomimetic

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors​ (MAOIs) achieve their therapeutic effects​ by: A. blocking the norepinephrine receptor sites in the CNS. B. enhancing degradation of monoamine neurotransmitters at the synapses. C. enhancing the effects of monoamine oxidase at the synapse. D. preventing the breakdown of​ neurotransmitters, such as​ norepinephrine, in the CNS.

D. preventing the breakdown of​ neurotransmitters, such as​ norepinephrine, in the CNS.

A sudden disruption of pulmonary perfusion caused by a blood clot is known​ as: A. pulmonary diffusion. B. pulmonary edema. C. pulmonary occlusion. D. pulmonary embolism.

D. pulmonary embolism.

​Beta-adrenergic antagonists reduce hypertension through all of the following​ effects, EXCEPT: A. diminishing reflex tachycardia as a compensatory response. B. suppressing renin release from the kidneys. C. a negative inotropic effect. D. reduction of peripheral vascular resistance through vasodilation.

D. reduction of peripheral vascular resistance through vasodilation.

ATIA​ typically: A. is caused by intracranial hemorrhage. B. can be reversible with tPA. C. never resolves. D. resolves within 24 hours.

D. resolves within 24 hours.

A prolonged deficiency of vitamin C may result​ in: A. kwashiorkor. B. increased bleeding. C. pernicious anemia. D. scurvy.

D. scurvy.

Initial exposure to an antigen is referred to​ as: A. anaphylaxis. B. allergy. C. desensitization. D. sensitization.

D. sensitization.

Ventilation​ is: A. the diffusion of the gas at the cellular level. B. the diffusion of gases at the alveoli. C. done to allow the gas to escape the chest wall. D. the mechanical process of moving air in and out of the lungs.

D. the mechanical process of moving air in and out of the lungs.

The hallmark treatment of ARDS is​ to: A. perform renal dialysis to remove the fluid. B. administer corticosteroids. C. treat the increased fluid with diuretics. D. treat the underlying condition.

D. treat the underlying condition.

All of the following changes in the geriatric patient affect the pharmacokinetics of a​ medication, EXCEPT: A. depressed liver function that may prolong drug action. B. decreased gastrointestinal motility. C. increased body fat and decreased muscle mass. D. uncompromised renal function.

D. uncompromised renal function.

You respond to a call of an ill person. Upon​ arrival, you find your patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain and hematemesis. When​ asked, the patient states that the emesis was​ "coffee ground" in nature. You​ suspect: A. lower GI bleed. B. esophageal varices. C. melena. D. upper GI bleed.

D. upper GI bleed.

You respond to an ill patient. You note that the patient appears jaundiced and has a white frosty dust on his skin. You​ suspect: A. renal frost. B. scabies. C. eczema. D. uremic frost.

D. uremic frost.

Decreasing PaCO2 will​ cause: A. vasodilation. B. hyperventilation syndrome. C. ataxic respirations. D. vasoconstriction.

D. vasoconstriction.

Increasing PaCO2 will​ cause: A. hyperventilation syndrome. B. ataxic respirations. C. vasoconstriction. D. vasodilation.

D. vasodilation.

Your patient is a​ 48-year-old female who is alert and oriented after a possible seizure. Her friends state they witnessed her slump to the floor and​ "shake" for about 15 seconds. She awoke in less than 1 minute and was​ "a bit​ groggy" for a few minutes. She does not believe she had a seizure but thinks she may have fainted. Which of the following questions is LEAST important when differentiating seizure and​ syncope? A. ​"What happened just before the​ event?" B. ​"What kind of medications do you​ take?" C. ​"Do you have a history of​ seizures?" D. ​"Are you allergic to any​ medications?"

D. ​"Are you allergic to any​ medications?"

Your patient is a​ 22-year-old female in mild distress that is complaining of left lower quadrant abdominal pain and nausea. Which of the following questions would be LEAST helpful when determining the etiology of her abdominal​ pain? A. ​"Are you having any vomiting or​ diarrhea?" B. ​"When did the pain​ start?" C. ​"When did your last menstrual period​ start?" D. ​"Have you ever had a sexually transmitted​ disease?"

D. ​"Have you ever had a sexually transmitted​ disease?"

Your diabetic patient asks you why diabetics need to take insulin. Which of the following answers is most​ accurate? A. ​"Insulin breaks down glucose into proteins so it can be used by the cells for​ energy." B. ​"Insulin helps the body eliminate excess glucose through the​ kidneys." C. ​"Without insulin glucose is converted to ketone​ bodies, which are toxic in large​ quantities." D. ​"Insulin helps glucose enter the cells of the body so it can be used for​ energy."

D. ​"Insulin helps glucose enter the cells of the body so it can be used for​ energy."

Your diabetic patient asks you why diabetics need to take insulin. Which of the following answers is most​ accurate? A. ​"Insulin breaks down glucose into proteins so it can be used by the cells for​ energy." B. ​"Without insulin glucose is converted to ketone​ bodies, which are toxic in large​ quantities." C. ​"Insulin helps the body eliminate excess glucose through the​ kidneys." D. ​"Insulin helps glucose enter the cells of the body so it can be used for​ energy."

D. ​"Insulin helps glucose enter the cells of the body so it can be used for​ energy."

Which of the following questions would best help you determine if the pathology of a​ patient's complaint has been​ progressing? A. ​"When did your pain first​ start?" B. ​"Have you ever felt this pain​ before?" C. ​"On a scale of 1 to​ 10, with 10 being the worst pain​ possible, how would you rate this​ pain?" D. ​"On a scale of 0 to​ 10, with 10 being the worst pain​ possible, how would you have rated the pain when it​ started? How would you rate the pain​ now?"

D. ​"On a scale of 0 to​ 10, with 10 being the worst pain​ possible, how would you have rated the pain when it​ started? How would you rate the pain​ now?"

Your​ 43-year-old male patient is alert and oriented and complaining of abdominal pain. He states that he is experiencing nausea and has vomited twice. Which of the following is the most appropriate​ follow-up question? A. ​"What were you doing when the vomiting​ started?" B. ​"Did you become dizzy or faint while you were​ vomiting?" C. ​"Do you drink more than three alcoholic beverages a​ day?" D. ​"What did the material you vomited look​ like?"

D. ​"What did the material you vomited look​ like?"

Epilepsy affects​ roughly: A. ​15% of the population. B. ​10% of the population. C. ​5% of the population. D. ​1% of the population.

D. ​1% of the population.

Which of the following patients are at risk for the most common cause of upper airway​ obstruction? A. ​5-year-old female with epiglottitis B. ​4-year-old male with croup C. ​22-year-old female stung by a wasp D. ​21-year-old female unconscious and supine on the floor

D. ​21-year-old female unconscious and supine on the floor

You are examining a patient who was recently involved in a traumatic incident. You notice that the patient is now exhibiting periumbilical ecchymosis. This is known​ as: A. Grey​ Turner's sign. B. rigidity sign. C. Edwards sign. D. ​Cullen's sign.

D. ​Cullen's sign.

Which of the following treatment regimens for anaphylaxis lists the medications in the correct order of administration following​ oxygen? A. ​Dexamethasone, diphenhydramine, epinephrine B. ​Diphenhydramine, epinephrine, dexamethasone C. ​Epinephrine, dexamethasone, diphenhydramine D. ​Epinephrine, diphenhydramine, dexamethasone

D. ​Epinephrine, diphenhydramine, dexamethasone

You have administered glucagon to a diabetic patient. Which of the following should​ occur? A. ​Glycogenesis, resulting in a decreased blood glucose level B. Stimulation of the pancreatic alpha​ cells, resulting in lipolysis C. Stimulation of the pancreatic beta​ cells, resulting in a decreased blood glucose level D. ​Glycogenolysis, resulting in an increased blood glucose level

D. ​Glycogenolysis, resulting in an increased blood glucose level

Which of the following statements about the epidemiology of​ Graves' disease is​ TRUE? A. ​Graves's disease typically manifests late in adulthood. B. Obesity and poor dietary habits increase the risk of​ Graves' disease. C. Heredity does not predispose people to​ Graves' disease. D. ​Graves' disease is about six times more common in women than in men.

D. ​Graves' disease is about six times more common in women than in men.

What is the term for the time the body takes to clear​ one-half of a drug from the​ body? A. Therapeutic level B. Optimum dose C. Duration of action D. ​Half-life

D. ​Half-life

Your patient is a​ 52-year-old male complaining of shortness of breath. He is sitting​ up, alert, and oriented and appears to be in moderate respiratory distress. He states that he​ "always gets a chest cold in the​ winter" and describes a​ three-week history of productive cough and increasing shortness of breath. Physical examination reveals coarse rhonchi to the upper lobes​ bilaterally, air movement is decreased in the​ bases, and his skin is cool with peripheral cyanosis. You note that he is overweight and describes an​ 18-pack-a-year smoking history. Based on these clinical exam​ findings, the most clinically relevant finding you might also expect​ is: A. Barrel chest and increased​ anterior/posterior chest diameter B. Pulmonary edema and hypotension C. ​Pursed-lipped breathing D. ​JVD, pedal​ edema, and hepatic congestion

D. ​JVD, pedal​ edema, and hepatic congestion

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old male complaining of a headache for the past two days. He states he has taken aspirin but cannot get rid of the headache. The patient lives in a basement​ apartment, which you observe is very chilly. The patient states his furnace​ hasn't been working and he had to use the oven to help heat the apartment. Which other findings and complaints are most​ likely? A. ​Rash, nausea, a metallic taste in the mouth B. Pale​ skin, sluggish​ pupils, tachycardia C. ​Nausea, vomiting, decreased hemoglobin saturation D. ​Nausea, vomiting,​ confusion, tachypnea

D. ​Nausea, vomiting,​ confusion, tachypnea

You should most highly suspect that a patient with​ tremors, periodic muscular​ rigidity, slowed​ movement, and impaired balance and coordination suffers​ from: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Autonomic dysreflexia C. Peripheral neuralgia D. ​Parkinson's disease

D. ​Parkinson's disease

A condition seen in chronic alcoholics that causes​ ataxia, eye muscle​ weakness, and mental derangement is known​ as: A. ​Korsakoff's psychosis. B. Brugada syndrome. C. ​Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. D. ​Wernicke's syndrome.

D. ​Wernicke's syndrome.

At the cellular​ level, the treatment of seizures is generally accomplished by​ ________ the influx of​ ________ ions into the neural cells. A. ​enhancing; potassium B. ​enhancing; sodium and calcium C. ​inhibiting; potassium D. ​inhibiting; sodium and calcium

D. ​inhibiting; sodium and calcium

You are called to a scene for a report of​ "an unconscious​ man." When you arrive at the​ scene, the patient is conscious and​ alert, sitting on the front stairs with neighbors around him. He says he​ doesn't know what happened but is​ "Okay now, just a little​ woozy." You ask if you can assess​ him, but he refuses. You make several attempts to get him to change his​ mind, pointing out possible causes of the problem and possible consequences of refusing. He still says​ no, and you ask the neighbors if they can help the patient change his mind.​ Finally, you get the patient to sign a release from liability form and have it witnessed by one of the neighbors. As you​ leave, you document the call and your efforts to convince the patient to accept​ assessment/care. What else should you have done with this patient before leaving the​ scene? A.Consulted with medical direction online B.Urged the​ patient's neighbors to stay with him C.Advised the patient that he could call EMS again if the problem recurs D.All of the above

D.All of the above

Which of the following is best described as the unlawful touching of another individual without the​ individual's consent? A.Negligence B.Assault C.Malpractice D.Battery

D.Battery

Which of the following is NOT a component of a civil​ suit? A.Incident B.Investigation C.Discovery D.Imprisonment

D.Imprisonment

Which of the following is an example of good​ documentation? A.Vital information is kept secret between you and your partner. B.It is done prior to patient care. C.You use as many abbreviations as possible. D.It is thorough.

D.It is thorough.

​_____________ often occurs in patients who have used CNS depressants and results from the patient being in a physical position that interferes with his airway or with ventilation. A.Res ipsa loquitur B.Excited delirium C.Defamation D.Restraint asphyxia

D.Restraint asphyxia

Which of the following is NOT one of the common elements of Good Samaritan laws offering protection to people who assist at scenes of medical​ emergencies? A.The person was not grossly negligent. B.The person accepted no payment for his services. C.The person acted in good faith. D.The person attempted to contact qualified emergency personnel.

D.The person attempted to contact qualified emergency personnel.

Which of the following statements about civil suits regarding torts is generally​ true? A.Guilt must be proven beyond a shadow of a reasonable doubt. B.The burden of proof rests on the defendant. C.Intent to harm must be proven. D.The plaintiff seeks to recover damages from the defendant.

D.The plaintiff seeks to recover damages from the defendant.

Which of the following is true in the event that​ off-duty paramedics provide advanced​ life-support interventions at an emergency​ scene? A.It is permissible as long as they have valid certification or licensure in that state. B.They will be granted immunity from negligence as long as they follow the standard of care. C.They are protected by Good Samaritan laws in all states. D.They may be charged with practicing medicine without a license.

D.They may be charged with practicing medicine without a license.

Your patient is a​ 16-year-old male with a reported history of ingesting 8 to 10 beers over the preceding 2 hours. He fell while jumping on a​ trampoline, striking his head on the metal framing of the trampoline. There was no reported loss of​ consciousness, but the patient has a laceration to the occipital area of the head. The patient is alert and oriented to​ person, time, and place but fails to show appropriate concern for his injury and has slurred speech. The parents are unavailable. Which of the following is the best course of​ action? A.Use the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur to support your decision to either treat and release or treat and transport. B.Have the patient arrested for underage​ drinking, and obtain the consent of law enforcement to treat the patient. C.Treat the patient as an emancipated minor and allow him to decide whether he wants treatment and transport. D.Treat the patient under the doctrine of implied consent of the parents.

D.Treat the patient under the doctrine of implied consent of the parents.

A written statement of a​ patient's preference for future medical care is​ a(n): A.power of attorney. B.deposition. C.patient narrative. D.advance directive.

D.advance directive.

The granting of permission by a governmental body for a qualified individual to engage in a particular profession or occupation is known​ as: A.reciprocity. B.registration. C.certification. D.licensure.

D.licensure.

When faced with unruly or violent patients who pose threats to​ themselves, paramedics, or​ others, the paramedic may control the patients by​ using: A.handcuffs. B.pepper spray. C.a taser. D.reasonable physical force.

D.reasonable physical force.

A civil wrong committed by one individual against another is​ a: A.breach of duty. B.felony. C.misdemeanor. D.tort.

D.tort.